2

Chapter Work Book ZONE TECH

CEMENT
1
1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct A B C D
answer using the codes given below the lists.
(a) 4 2 1 3
List-I (b) 3 4 1 2
A. Fineness of cement (c) 3 1 4 2

CH
B. Setting time (d) 4 1 2 3
C. Soundness 3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
D. Workability answer using the codes given below the lists

List-II List-I
A. Vicat's needle
1. Le-Chatelier apparatus
2. Vicat's needle
3. Air permeability apparatus
4. Slump cone
TE B. Michaeli's compound lever apparatus
C. Le Chaterlier's apparatus
D. Turbidimeter
List-II

A B C D 1. Setting time
2. Specific surface
(a) 1 2 3 4
3. Tensile strength
E
(b) 3 1 4 2 4. Soundness
(c) 3 2 1 4 A B C D
N

(d) 1 4 3 2 (a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 4 3 1
2. Match List-I (Type of cement) with List-II
(d) 3 4 1 2
ZO

(Characteristics) and select the correct answer

using the codes given below the lists.
4. Match List-I (Property of cement) with List-II
List-I (Testing apparatus) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists.
A. Air entraining portland cement
List-I List-II
B. Low-heat portland cement
A. Specific gravity 1. Blain's apparatus
C. Hydrophobic portland cement
B. Setting time 2. Le Chatelier's flask
D. Rapid hardening portland cement C. Soundness 3. Compressometer
List-II D. Fineness 4. Vicat's apparatus
1. Suitable for very large structures A B C D

2. Unsuitable for very large masses of concrete (a) 3 4 1 2

3. Greater resistance to frost attack (b) 2 3 1 4

(c) 2 4 3 1
4. Safe storage under unfavourable conditions
of humidity (d) 4 3 2 1
 3 Building Material and Construction ZONE TECH
5. Consider the following statements: 8. Match List-I (Apparatus)with List-II (Purpose)
and select the correct answer using the codes
When cement is tested for setting time; on
given below the lists
gauging it shows quick setting. This
Phenomenon known as ''Flash set" of cement is List-I
due to the pressence of high
A. Le-chatelier apparatus
1. tricalcium aluminate (C3A) in cement
B. Vicat needle with annular collar
2. alkalies in cement
C. Vee-bee test
3. tricalcium silicate (C3S) in cement
D. Briquetters test machine
Which of these staements are correct?
List-II
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3

CH
1. Workability of concrete
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 only
2. Soundness of cement

6. For marine works, the best suited cement is 3. Tensile strength of cement

(a) Low heat portland cement 4. Final setting time of cement

(b) Rapid hardening cement A B C D

7.
(c) Ordinary portland cement
(d) Blast furnace slag cement

Match List-I (Type of cement) with List-II

TE (a)
(b)
(c)
1
2
1
3
4
4
2
1
2
4
3
3
(Characteristics) and select the correct answer (d) 2 3 1 4
using the codes given below the lists
List-I 9. As per specifications, the initial setting time of
E
ordinary protland cement should not be less
A. Ordinary portland cement
than.
B. Rapid hardening cement
(a) 10 minutes
N

C. Low heat cement

(b) 20 minutes
D. Sulphate resistant cement
(c) 30 minutes
List-II
(d) 60 minutes
ZO

1. The percentage of C3S is maximum and is of

the order of 50%
10. In cements, generally the increase in strength
2. The percentage of C2S and C3S are the same during a period of 14 days to 28 days is primarily
and of the order of 40% due to
3. Reacts with silica during burning and causes
(a) C3A (b) C2S
particles to unite together and development
of strength (c) C3S (d) C4AF
4. Preserves the form of bricks at high
temperature and prevents shrinkage 11. Ultimate strength of cement is influenced by
which one of the following?
A B C D
(a) Tricalcium silicate
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) Dicalcium silicate
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) Tricalcium aluminate
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) Tetracalcium alumino-ferrite
(d) 3 4 1 2
 4 Work Book ZONE TECH
12. Gypsum is added into the raw materials during 19. Before testing setting time of cement one should
manufacture of cement so that the final product test for
exhibits (a) Soundness
(a) Increases initial setting time (b) Strength
(b) Improved modulability for cornices, etc (c) Fineness
(d) Consistency
(c) Increased compressive strength
(d) Augmented bond strength 20. Pozzolana cement is used with confidence for
construction of _____.
13. The normal consistency of ordinary Portland (a) Dams
cement is about (b) Massive foundations

CH
(a) 10% (b) 20% (c) Abutments
(d) All options are correct
(c) 30% (d) 40%
21. Pick up the correct statement from the following.
14. Gypsum consists of (a) Gypsum in cement increase the setting time
(a) H2S and CO2 (b) The first compound of cement which reacts
with water is C2S
(b) CaSO4 and H2O
(c) Bulking of sand is less when its particles are fine
(c) Lime and H2O
(d) CO2 and calcium

15. Which of the following Bouge's compounds of

cement liberates maximum heat of hydration?
TE (d) All options are correct

22. The amount of water used in performing setting

time test of cement is (assuming p = standard
consistency of cement)
(a) 0.60 p (b) 0.65 p
(a) C3A (b) C2S
(c) 0.80 p (d) 0.85 p
(c) C3S (d) C4AF
E
23. The density of cement is taken to be
16. Which of the following cements contains (a) 1000 kg/m3 (b) 1250 kg/m3
maximum percentage of dicalcium silicate?
(c) 1440 kg/m3 (d) 1800 kg/m3
N

(a) Ordinary Portland cement

(b) Low heat cement 24. To construct a massive dam the type of cement
used is:
(c) Rapid hardening cement
(a) Ordinary portland cement
ZO

(d) Sulphate resisting cement

(b) Blast furnace slag cement
(c) Low heat cement
17. The most commonly used retarder in cement is
(d) Rapid hardening cement
(a) Gypsum
(b) Calcium chloride 25. Snowcem is
(a) Coloured cement
(c) Calcium carbonate
(b) Powdered lime
(d) None of the above
(c) Chalk powder
(d) Mixture of chalk powder and lime
18. Air permeability test of cement is conducted to
find the 26. White cement should have least percentage of
(a) Unsoundness (a) Aluminium oxide
(b) Ignition loss (b) Iron oxide
(c) Specific gravity (c) Silica
(d) Fineness (d) Magnesium oxide
 5 Building Material and Construction ZONE TECH
27. The percentage of water for normal consistency 34. If P is standard consistency of the given cement
is sample , then quantity of water to be added to
(a) 5% to 15% (b) 10% to 25% prepare a cement paste for determining the
initial setting time is
(c) 15% to 25% (d) 20% to 30%
(a) (P/4+3)% of weight of cement
28. An ordinary Portland cement when tested for (b) 0.85 P% of weight of cement
its fineness test should not leave any residue (c) P% of weight of cement
on I.S. sieve No.9 more than
(d) 0.78 P% of weight of cement
(a) 5% (b) 10%
(c) 15% (d) 20% 35. Which of the following shows the Correct
decreasing order of rate of hydration of
29. To obtain cement dry powder, lime stones and Portland cement compounds

CH
shales or their slurry, is burnt in a rotary kiln at
a temperature between (a) C 3A  C 3 S  C 4 AF  C 2 S
(a) 1100° and 1200°C (b) C 3A  C 4 AF  C 2 S  C 3 S
(b) 1200° and 1300°C
(c) C 3A  C 3 S  C 2 S  C 4 AF
(c) 1300° and 1400°C
(d) 1400° and 1500°C (d) C 4 AF  C3 S  C 3A  C 2 S

30. The diameter of the Vicat plunger is 10 mm and

its length varies from
(a) 20 mm to 30 mm
(b) 30 mm to 40 mm
TE 36. A cement bag contains 0.035 cubic meter of
cement by volume. How many bags will one
tonne of cement comprise
(a) 16 (b) 17
(c) 40 mm to 50 mm (c) 18 (d) 20
(d) 50 mm to 60 mm 37. Blast furnace slag has approximately
31. Pick up the correct proportions of chemical (a) 45% calcium oxide and about 35% silica
E
ingredients of cement (b) 50% alumina and 20% calcium oxide
(a) Lime : Silica : Alumina : Iron oxide = 63 : 22 : (c) 25% magnesia and 155 silica
6:3 (d) 25% calcium sulphate and 15% alumina
N

(b) Silica : Lime : Alumina : Iron oxide = 63 : 22 :

6:3 38. Strength based classification of bricks is made
on the basis of
(c) Alumina : Silica : Lime : Iron oxide = 63 : 22 :
6:3 (a) IS : 3101 (b) IS : 3102
ZO

(d) Iron oxide : Alumina : Silica : Lime = 63 : 22 : (c) IS : 3495 (d) IS : 3496
6:3 39. While concreting in cold weather where frosting
is also likely, one uses
32. For road pavements, the cement generally used is
(a) High quality portland cement with minimum
(a) Ordinary Portland cement
additives
(b) Rapid hardening cement
(b) High alumina cement with calcium chloride
(c) Low heat cement additives
(d) Blast furnace slag cement (c) Portland cement together with calcium
chloride additives
33. If the effective plan area of a warehouse is 54
(d) A mixture of high alumina cement and
sq. m, and maximum height of piles permitted
portland cement
is 270 cm, then what is the number of cement
bags that can be stored? 40. If water required for 1 bag of cement is 30 litres,
(a) 200 (b) 2000 the water cement ratio is :
(c) 24000 (d) 2700 (a) 0.40 (b) 0.50
(c) 0.60 (d) None of these
 6
Chapter Work Book ZONE TECH
LIME & MORTAR
2
1. The commonly used lime in white washing is: 7. Lime putty
(a) Quick lime (a) Is made from hydraulic lime
(b) Fat lime (b) Is made by adding lime to water
(c) Hydraulic lime (c) Can be used only upto three days

CH
(d) All the above (d) All options are correct

8. The hydraulicity of the hydraulic lime is mainly

2. Which of the following types of lime is used for
due to
plastering and white washing?
(a) Calcium oxide (b) Clay
(a) Quick lime (c) Sulphur (d) Water
(b) Slaked lime
9. The mortar used for masonry construction are

3.
(c) Hydraulic lime
(d) Fat lime

In lime concrete, lime is used as

(a) Admixture
TE classified based on strength is IS : 2250 and IS
L: 1905 according to their designations L 1 , L2 ,
H 1 , H 2 , M 1 , M 2 . The correct sequence of
increasing order of their strength is
(a) L1, L2, H1, H2, M1, M2
(b) Binding material (b) L2, L1, M2, M1, H2, H1,
(c) Fine aggregate (c) M1, M2, H1, H2, L1, L2
(d) L2, L1, M2, M1, H1, H2
E
(d) Coarse aggregate
10. Match List-I (Cement morar for different work)
4. The lime which has the property of setting in
with List-II (Proportion of cement sand in
water is known as
N

mortar)and select the correct answer using the

(a) Fat lime codes given below the lists
(b) Hydraulic lime List-I
(c) Hydrated lime A. Normal brick work
ZO

(d) Quick lime B. Plastering works

C. Grouting the cavernous rocks
5. The quick lime as it comes from kiln is called
D. Guniting
(a) Milk lime
List-II
(b) Hydraulic lime
1. 1 :4
(c) Lump lime
2. 1 : 3
(d) Hydrated lime
3. 1 : 6
6. The lime which contains high percentage of 4. 1 : 1.5
calcium oxide is generally called A B C D
(a) Fat lime
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) Rich lime
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) White lime
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) None of these
(d) 4 3 2 1
 7 Building Material and Construction ZONE TECH
11. A mortar for which both cement and lime are 15. Coarse sand has a fineness modulus in the range
mixed is called. of

(a) Gauged mortar (a) 2.2 - 2.4 (b) 2.4 - 2.6

(b) Cement mortar (c) 2.6 - 2.9 (d) 2.9 - 3.2

(c) Lime mortar

16. Bulking of sand is caused due to
(d) Light weight mortar
(a) Surface moisture

12. Guniting is the applicaiton of mortar. (b) Air voids

CH
(a) On a surface under pneumatic pressure (c) Viscosity

(b) On a vertical surface (d) Clay contents

(c) On brickwork by manual method

17. Which IS code gives specifications about cement
(d) Of fluid consistency for repair works plaster?

13. Bulking of sand is:

(a) Less in fine sand

TE (a) IS 1500

(c) IS 1400
(b) IS 1221

(d) IS 1661

(b) More in coarse sand 18. The calcination of pure lime result in

(c) More in medium sand (a) Quick lime

E
(d) More in fine sand (b) Hydraulic lime

(c) Hydrated lime

N

14. Pick up the correct statement from the following.

(d) Fat lime
(a) Adding 5% to 6% moisture content by
weight, increases the volume of dry sand 19. According to IS : 383, the coarsest sand falls
under grading zone
ZO

from 18% to 38%

(b) The bulking of fine sand is more than that of (a) I (b) II
coarse sand
(c) III (d) IV
(c) If the percentage content of moisture exceeds
10%, increase in bulk of sand starts decreasing

(d) All options are correct

 8
Chapter Work Book ZONE TECH
BRICKS
3
1. Which type of brick masonry bond is provided 7. Match List-I (Test) with List-II (Procedure) and
for heavy loads on masonry. select the correct answer using the codes given
(a) English bond below the lists
(b) Zigzag bond List-I

CH
(c) Single Flemish bond A. Absorption
(d) Double Flemish bond B. Hardness
C. Soundness
2. What is the actual size (mm) of the standard
modular brick as per Indian Standards? D. Structure
(a) 190 × 90 × 90 List-II
(b) 200 × 90 × 90 1. A brick is to be broken for the test

3.
(c) 200 × 100 × 100
(d) 229 × 114 × 76

King closers are related to

(a) Doors and windows
TE 2. Two bricks are taken and they can be struck
with each other without breaking
3. A scratch is easily made on bricks surface
with the help of a finger nail
4. Difference in water for 24 hours and its dry
(b) King post truss weight
(c) Queen post truss A B C D
E
(d) Bricks masonry (a) 1 3 2 4

4. For cubic meter of bricks masonry, the number (b) 4 3 2 1

of modular bricks needed is (c) 4 2 3 1
N

(a) 400 or less (b) 400 to 450 (d) 1 2 3 4

(c) 500 to 550 (d) 600 to 650
8. The main function of alumina in brick earth is
5. In bricks masonry, (a) To impart plasticity
ZO

(a) Mortar strength should match brick strength (b) To make the brick durable
(b) Mortar strength should exceed brick (c) To prevent shrinkage
strength
(d) To make the brick impermeable
(c) Brick strength should exceed mortar stength
(d) The strength of masonry and brick are 9. The nominal size of the modular brick is
independent (a) 190 mm × 90mm × 80 mm
6. Consider the following stages in the (b) 190 mm × 190 mm × 90 mm
manufacturing of bricks: (c) 200 mm × 100 mm × 100 mm
1. Weathering (d) 200 mm × 200 mm × 100 mm
2. Moulding
10. Refractory bricks resists
3. Tempering
(a) High temperature
The correct sequence of these stages in the
manufacturing of the bricks is (b) Chemical action
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 1 (c) Dampness
(c) 1, 3, 2 (d) 3, 2, 1 (d) None of these
 9 Building Material and Construction ZONE TECH
11. The portion of a brick cut to form angles other 19. Refractory bricks are generally used to resist
than right angles in plan, is known as (a) Chemical action
(a) Queen closer
(b) Dampness
(b) King closer
(c) High temperature
(c) Closer
(d) Squint brick (d) Weathering action

12. Jhumb bricks are 20. For which of the following process Boucherie
(a) Under burnt process is used?
(b) Over burnt (a) Manufacturing of bricks
(c) Kutcha (b) Manufacturing of cement
(d) None of these (c) Production of clay tiles

CH
(d) Treatment of green timber
13. When a brick is cut into two halves longitudinally,
one part is called 21. Tempering is the process used in the
(a) King closer manufacturing of
(b) Cornice brick (a) Bricks
(c) Queen closer
(b) Bitumen
(d) Voussoir

14. Which of the following Bouge's compound of

cement liberates maximum heat of hydration?
(a) C2S (b) C4AF
TE (c) Cement
(d) Paints
22. A good brick earth should contain alumina in
the following limit
(c) C3A (d) C3S (a) 5-10% (b) 20-30%
(c) 40-50% (d) 60-70%
15. Water absorption of class I brick after 24 hours
of immersion in water should not exceed
E
23. Match the Grade of bricks with its compressive
_______ of self weight. strength (According to IS: 10719557-1970) and
(a) 22% (b) 25% select the correct answer as per the codes given
(c) 18% (d) 20% below:
N

Compressive strength Grade

16. The compressive strength of common building
A. Not less than 140kg/ cm2 I. Grade A
bricks should not be less than
B. Not less than 105kg/ cm 2 II. Grade A-A
ZO

(a) 3.5 N/mm2 (b) 5.5 N/mm2

(c) 7.5 N/mm2 (d) 10.5 N/mm2 C. Not less than 70kg/ cm2 III. Grade B
17. The term frog means D. Not less than 35kg/ cm 2 IV. Grade C
(a) An apparatus to lift the stone (a) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(b) A depression on a face of brick (b) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(c) Vertical joint in a brick work (c) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(d) Soaking brick in water (d) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
18. Excess of silica in the clay
24. The red color obtained by the brick is due to
(a) Makes the brick brittle and weak the presence of :
(b) Makes the brick crack and wrap on drying (a) Lime
(c) Changes the colour of the brick from red to (b) Silica
yellow
(c) Manganese
(d) Improves the impermeability and durability
of the brick (d) Iron oxide
 10
25. Bauxite bricks are
(a) Ordinary fire bricks
(b) Basic refractory bricks
(c) Acid refractory bricks
(d) Neutral refractory bricks
26. What is the portion of the brick without a
triangular corner equal to half the width and
half the length, called?
Work Book ZONE TECH
31. Single flemish bond consists of
(a) Double flemish bond facing and English bond
backing in each course
(b) English bond facing and double flemish bond
backing in each course
(c) Stretcher bond facing and double flemish
bond backing in each course
(d) Double flemish bond facing and header bond
backing in each course

CH
(a) King closer 32. The type of bond in a brick masonry, containing
(b) Squint Brick alternate courses of stretchers and headers, is
called.
(c) Queen closer
(a) Stretcher bond
(d) Closer
(b) English bond
(c) Flemish bond
27. Excess of silica in brick earth results in
(a) Cracking and warping of bricks
(b) Loss of cohesion
(c) Enhancing the impermeability of bricks
TE (d) Header bond

33. Hollow bricks are generally used with the

purpose of
(d) None of the above (a) Reducing the cost of construction
(b) Providing insulation against heat
E
28. Pug mill is used for
(c) Increasing the bearing area
(a) Preparation of clay
(d) Ornamental look
N

(b) Moulding of clay

(c) Drying of bricks 34. Which of the following statements is correct?
(d) Burning of bricks (a) Excess of alumina in the clay makes the brick
ZO

brittle and weak

29. Unit weight of brick work is about. (b) Excess of alumina in the clay makes the brick
crack and warp on drying
(a) 17 – 18 kN/m3
(c) Excess of alumina in the clay leaves high
(b) 18 – 19 kN/m3 power deposit on the brick
(c) 19 – 20 kN/m3 (d) Excess of alumina in the clay improves
3 impermeability and durability of the brick
(d) 20 – 21 kN/m

30. The stretcher bond in brick masonry can be used

only when the thickness of wall is
(a) 90 mm (b) 180 mm
(c) 190 mm (d) 280 mm
 11 Building Material and Construction ZONE TECH
Chapter TIMBER
4
1. According to the relevant IS code, the weight List-II
of the timber is to be reckoned at a moisture 1. Transverse septa (medullary rays)
content of 2. Annual rings
(a) Zero (b) 4%
3. The cambium layer
(c) 8% (d) 12%

CH
4. The outermost cover or skin of the stem
2. Seasoning of timber is required to
5. Medulla (pith)
(a) Soften the timber
(b) Harden the timber A B C D
(c) Straighten the timber (a) 2 4 3 4
(d) Remove sap from the timber
(b) 5 1 2 3
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (c) 4 3 2 1
answer using the codes given below the lists
List-I
A. Deciduous
B. Conifer
C. Endogenous
List-II
1. Soft wood
2. Hard wood
3. Eucalyptus
TE 7.
(d) 5 1 4 3

Radial spilts in timber originating from 'bark'

and narrowing towards the 'pith' are known as
(a) Heart shakes
D. Exogenous 4. Bamboo
(b) Star shakes
A B C D
(c) Cup shakes
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 3 4 (d) Knots
E
(c) 2 1 4 3 8. Match List-I (Disease of timber) with List-II
(d) 1 2 4 3 (Effect of disease) and select the correct answer
4. During the conversion of timber by sawing in using the codes given below the lists.
N

order to obtain strong timber pieces, the cuts List-I

should be made by A. Dry rot
(a) Ordinary sawing
B. Grey rot
(b) Tangential sawing
ZO

C. Wet rot
(c) Quarter sawing
(d) Radial sawing D. White rot
List-II
5. The moisture content in structural timber should
1. Attack of sapwood by fungus
be
(a) Less than 5% (b) 5 to 10% 2. Damage to wood fibers due to chemical
(c) 10 to 20% (d) 15 to 25% decomposition of wood
3. Destruction of cellulose of wood due to
6. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct fungal attack
answer using the codes given below the lists
4. Destruction of lignin of wood due to fungal
List-I
attack
A. The innermost part of core of the stem of a
tree A B C D
B. The vascular tissue which encloses the pith (a) 1 3 2 4
C. A cellular tissue and wood fibre arranged
(b) 1 4 2 3
in distnict concrentric circles
D. The thin layer below the bark not converted (c) 2 3 1 4
into sapwood as yet (d) 2 4 1 3
 12 Work Book ZONE TECH
9. What is the treatment for making timber fire- 14. The purpose of seasoning of timber is to
resistant?
(a) Change the direction of grains
(a) ASCU treatment
(b) Abel's process (b) Remove voids

(c) Creosoting (c) Reduce moisture content

(d) Tarring (d) Increase moisture content

10. The radial spilts which are wider on the outside

of the log and narrower towards the pith are 15. The radial splits which are wider on the pith
known as and Narrower towards the outside of the log

CH
are known as
(a) Star shakes
(b) Annular rings (a) Star shakes

(c) Cup shakes (b) Annular rings

(d) Heart shakes (c) Cup shakes

11. Consider the following statements:

Seasoning of timber results in
1. increased strength
2. increased durability
TE (d) Heart Shakes

16. The core of cross section of a exogenous tree is

called.

3. reduced resilience (a) Sapwood

4. increased dimensional stability (b) Pith
E
Which of these statements are correct? (c) Heartwood
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(d) Inner bark
(b) 1, 2 and 3
N

(c) 1, 3 and 4
17. Seasoning is :
(d) 2, 3 and 4
(a) A process of removing sap
ZO

12. Due to attack of dry rot, the timber

(b) Painting with sodium silicate
(a) Cracks
(c) Coating with tar
(b) Shrinks
(c) Reduces to powder (d) Creosoting
(d) None of these
18. The advantage of plywood over solid wood is
13. The presence of original rounded surface on the
manufactured piece of timber, is called (a) Reduced shrinkage & swelling
(a) Wane (b) Narly equalized strength in all directions
(b) Torn grain
(c) Availability of thin large size sheets
(c) Diagonal grain
(d) All of the above
(d) Chipmark
 13 Building Material and Construction ZONE TECH
19. The process designed to suit the moisture 24. Inner part of a timber log surrounding the pith,
content of timbers to the conditions and is called
purposes for which it is to be used is called as
(a) Sapwood
(a) Seasoning
(b) Cambium layer
(b) Laminating
(c) Heart wood
(c) Conditioning
(d) None to these
(d) Dressing

25. A piece of sawn timber whose cross-sectional

20. The age of a log of timber can be estimated by dimensions exceed 5 cm, in one direction and

CH
20 cm in the other direction, is called a
(a) Diameter of pith
(a) Cant
(b) Thickness of bark
(b) Deal
(c) Number of annular rings
(c) Baulk
(d) Number of medullary rays
(d) Strip

21. During the conversion of timber by sawing toTE

obtain strong timber pieces, the cuts should be
made by:
26. The timber having maximum resistance against
white ants, is obtained from

(a) Tangential sawing (a) Chir

(b) Quarter sawing (b) Shisham

(c) Radial sawing (c) Sal

E

(d) Ordinary sawing (d) Teak

N

22. The expansion and shrinakge of plywood are 27. The presence of original rounded surface on the
comparatively very low as: manufactured piece of timber, is called.

(a) They are glued under pressure (a) Wane

ZO

(b) They are held in position by adhesives (b) Torn grain

(c) Plies are placed at right angles to each other (c) Diagonal grain

(d) They are prepared from veneers (d) Chipmark

23. Which of the following timbers is suitable for

making sports goods?

(a) Mulberry

(b) Mahogany

(c) Sal

(d) Deodar
 14 Work Book ZONE TECH
Chapter STONE
5
1. Which of the following represents a metamorphic 6. Geologically, marble is known as
rock? (a) Sedimentary rock
(i) Slate (b) Igneous rock
(ii) Shale (c) Metamorphic rock

CH
(iii) Quartzite (d) Stratified rock
The correct answer is
7. Pick up the plutonic rock from the following.
(a) Only (iii)
(a) Granite
(b) Both (i) and (iii)
(b) Dolerite
(c) Both (ii) and (iii) (c) Basalt

2.
(d) All (i), (ii) and (iii)

Quartzite is a
(a) Silicious rock
(b) Argillaceous rock
TE 8.
(d) All the above

Pegmatite is an example of
(a) Sedimentary rock
(b) Extrusive igneous rock
(c) Calcareous rock (c) Intrusive igneous rock
(d) Metamorphic rock
(d) Aqueous rock
E
9. In stone masonry, stones (stratified rocks) are
3. The stone suitable for rubble masonry should so placed that the direction of pressure to the
be plane of bedding is
N

(a) Hard (a) Right angles

(b) Tough (b) 45°
(c) Heavy (c) 60°
ZO

(d) Light (d) Parallel

10. Which of the following type of stone is used in

4. Hardness of rock can be tested in situ using
the rubble masonry?
(a) Smith's test (a) Hard
(b) Schmidt Hammer test (b) Heavy weighted
(c) Acid test (c) Light weighted
(d) Crystallization test (d) Smooth

5. Gniess is obtained from 11. The process of production of natural stone is

known as
(a) Igneous rocks
(a) Dressing
(b) Metamorphic rocks
(b) Quarrying
(c) Sedimentary rocks (c) Crushing
(d) Sedimentary metamorphic rocks (d) Seasoning
 15 Building Material and Construction
Chapter PAINT VARNISH & ARCHZONE TECH
6
1. A varnish essentially contains 7. If the centre of the arch lies on the springing
(a) Solvent line. It is

(b) Resin (a) Segmental arch

(c) Drier (b) Semi-circular arch

CH
(d) All of the above (c) Bull's eye arch
(d) Horse shoe arch
2. The common base used in a paint is :
(a) Only oxide 8. The vertical distance between the springing line
and highest point of the inner curve of an arch
(b) Zinc oxide
is known as
(c) Iron oxide

3.
(d) Titanium white TE
Which of the following is not the constituent of
a paint?
(a) Intrados
(b) Rise
(c) Spandril
(d) Extrados
(a) Iron oxide
(b) Sodium chloride 9. Depth or height of the arch is the
(c) Turpentine oil (a) Perpendicular distance between intra-dos
E
and extrados
(d) Linseed oil
(b) Vertical distance between springing line and
intrados
N

4. The base material for distemper is

(a) Lime putty (c) Perpendicular distance between springing
line and extrados
(b) Lime
(d) None of the above
ZO

(c) Cement wash

(d) Chalk
10. The type of arch generally constructed over a
wooden lintel or over a flat arch for the purpose
5. Distemper is used to coat of carrying the load of the wall above is
(a) External concrete surfaces (a) Segmental arch
(b) Interior surfaces not exposed to weather
(b) Pointed arch
(c) Wood work
(c) Relieving arch
(d) Compound walls
(d) Flat arch
6. An arch may fail by
(a) Crushing of the material
(b) Sliding of one voussoir on another
(c) Uneven settlement of abutments
(d) Any or all of the above
 16
Chapter RWork Book
OOF & FLOORING
ZONE TECH

7
1. The sides of the openings such as doors, windows 5. Pitched and sloping roofs are suitable for
are known as
(a) Coastal regions
(a) Jambs
(b) Plain regions

CH
(b) Heads
(c) Covering large areas
(c) Reveals
(d) All of the above
(d) Verticals

6. The function of cleats in a roof truss is

2. The member laid horizontally to support the
common rafters and which transmit the load to (a) To support the common rafter
truss or walls is called

(a) Jack rafter

(b) Dragon Beam

TE (b) To support purlins

(c) To prevent the purlins from tilting

(d) All of the above

(c) Purlins

(d) Battens
E
7. The roof having slope in all four directions is
called
3. The line of intersection of the surface of a sloping
roof forming an external angle exceeding 180° (a) Hip-pitch roof
N

is
(b) Shed roof
(a) Ridge
(c) Gambrel roof
ZO

(b) Hip
(d) North light roof
(c) Valley

(d) None of these

4. The type of joint commonly used at the junction

of a principal rafter and tie beam in timber
trussess is

(a) Mortise and tennon joint

(b) Oblique mortise and tennon joint

(c) Butt joint

(d) Mitred joint

 17 Building Material and Construction ZONE TECH
Chapter STAIR CASE
8
1. The slope of stair should not be more than 6. The term string is used for
(a) 40° (b) 45° (a) The underside of a stair
(c) 50° (d) 60° (b) Outer projecting edge of a tread

CH
(c) A sloping member which supports the steps
2. The dog legged stair is a : in a stair
(a) Half turn stair (d) A vertical member between two treads
(b) Quarter turn stair
7. The vertical posts placed at the top and bottom
(c) Three quarter turn stair
ends of a flight supporting the hand rail are

3.
(d) Continuous stair

Pitch of stair should never exceed.

TE known as
(a) Balusters
(b) Newal posts
(a) 20° (b) 25°
(c) Balustrades
(c) 30° (d) 40°
(d) Railings
E
4. The slope of a stair should be
8. The maximum number of steps in a flight should
(a) 10° to 20° generally be restricted to

(b) 20° to 40° (a) 10 (b) 12

N

(c) 50° to 60° (c) 15 (d) No limit

(d) 60° to 70°

ZO

5. The sum of tread and rise in a stair must lie

between
(a) 300 to 350 mm
(b) 400 to 450 mm
(c) 500 to 550 mm
(d) 600 to 650 mm
 18 Work Book ZONE TECH
Chapter DOOR WINDOW
9
1. The most common type of door is: 4. If a door swings towards the person opening
it, it is called:
(a) Double leaf door
(a) Left handed
(b) Louvred door

CH
(b) Reverse
(c) Single leaf door
(c) Normal
(d) Battened door
(d) Right handed

2. The representative figure below shows the

mechanism of a ______ door.
TE 5. Which of the below material of window has life
span of 50 years?

(a) PVC

Open (b) Steel

(c) UPVC
E
(d) Aluminium
Close
N

6. ______ door swings both ways.

(a) Rotating
(a) Mead
ZO

(b) Swing
(b) Dutch
(c) Spinning
(c) Garden
(d) Sliding
(d) French

3. Light, a term used in windows, is:

7.
(a) Area between outer parts of a window
(b) Glazed part of the window
(c) Area between inner parts of a window
A bay window is a multi-panel window, which:
(a) Is provided at corners
(b) Runs parallel to the wall
(c) Embeds inside wall

(d) Opening of the window allowing light (d) Projects outside wall
 19 Building Material and Construction ZONE TECH
8. A roof lantern is also called: 10. What does 10 WT 13 mean?

(a) Skylight (a) Size of window opening 10x13cm

(b) Cupola (b) Size of window opening 100x130mm

(c) Celestory (c) Size of window opening 10x13mm

(d) Oriel (d) Size of window opening 1000x1300mm

9. _______ is a decoration that looks like a door. 11. In a ventilator, top edge of shutter opens.

CH
(a) Pseudo door (a) Outside

(b) Flush door (b) Inside

(c) False door (c) Sideways

(d) Composite door (d) Does not open

TE
E
N
ZO
 Work Book
20
Chapter DAM PROOFING COURSEZONE TECH
10
1. DPM stands for: 4. DPC materials can be classified into:
(a) Damp Proof Material (a) 3 (b) 4
(b) Damp Proof Mix (c) 2 (d) 5

CH
(c) Damp Proof Member
5. Which of the below is an example of semi rigid
(d) Damp Proof Membrane
DPC material?

(a) Plastic sheeting

2. If the soil is dry, DPC for ground floor consists
of the layer of: (b) Cement concrete
(a) Metal

(b) Coarse sand

(c) Fine sand

TE 6.
(c) Asphalt

(d) Stone

For DPC at plinth level, which grade of concrete

(d) Concrete
is used?

(a) M10 (b) M20

3. At roof slab level over the DPC, __________ are
E
provided. (c) M25 (d) M15
(a) Tiles
N

(b) Concrete

(c) P.C.C

(d) Rubber sheet

ZO
 21 Building Material and Construction ZONE TECH
Chapter SHUTTERING
11
1. Sometimes the structures are to be temporarily 6. The loading on the scaffolding decides the of
supported. This is achieved by what is known standards.
as the
(a) Bedding
(a) Scaffolding
(b) Raising

CH
(b) Shoring
(c) Finishing
(c) Underpinning
(d) Spacing
(d) Grouting

2. In _____ shore arrangement, the inclined 7. If the standards or not resting on the firm
supports are given to the external walls from ground, the _______ of the standard should be
the ground. provided and their bottom ends.
(a) Raking shore
(b) Flying shore
(c) Dead shore
TE (a) Bedding
(b) Finishing
(c) Raising
(d) Patented shore (d) Spacing

3. In ______ arrangement, the horizontal supports

8. In ______ shores, the needles are placed at a
are given two parallel walls which have become
distance of about 1.5 m to 2 m and they are
E
unsafe due to the removal or collapse of the
suitably braced.
intermediate building.
(a) Inclined shore (a) Vertical shores
N

(b) Raking shore (b) Horizontal shore

(c) Dead shore (c) Inclined shore
(d) Flying shore (d) Raking shore
ZO

4. In _____ arrangement, the horizontal members, 9. ______ type of Shoring is suitable for a maximum
known as the needles are supported by vertical distance of about 9 m between the adjacent
members. parallel walls.
(a) Horizontal shore (a) Dead shore
(b) Flying shore
(b) Raking shore
(c) Dead shore
(c) Vertical shore
(d) Raking shore
(d) Flying shore
5. _____ is necessary to tie back the scaffolding
with the building at suitable levels.
(a) Loading
(b) Tying-in
(c) Raising
(d) Spacing
 22 Work Book ZONE TECH
Chapter MISCELLANEOUS
12
1. In long building expansion joints are 6. The exterior angle between outer faces of a wall,
recommended to be provided at interval of is known as

(a) 20–30 m (b) 50–60 m (a) Turn

CH
(c) 70–80 m (d) 90–100 m (b) Junction
(c) Quoin
2. PVC stands for (d) All of the above
(a) Polythene vanadium carbide
7. If a glass is made of pure silica, then it will be
(b) Poly vinyl chloride
(a) Insoluble in water

3.
(c) Poly vinyl carbide

(d) Polythene vinyl chloride

The construction of a temporary structure

TE (b) Completely solube in water
(c) Parally solube in water
(d) All the above are wrong
required to support an unsafe structure is called:
8. The vertical member used in a door frame is
(a) Underpinning called
E
(b) Shoring (a) Post
(c) Scaffolding (b) Sill
N

(d) Jacking (c) Rail

(d) Bracing
ZO

4. In the case of nailed laminated beam the

maximum depth of the plank is limited to 9. For heavy embankments and dams, of height h,
(a) 2.0 cm (b) 2.5 cm the depth of exploration of soil should not be
less than
(c) 3.0 cm (d) 4.0 cm
(a) h/4 (b) 1/2 h
(c) h (d) 2 h
5. The function of coping is to serve as a

(a) Covering to the wall to throw off water 10. Bullet proof glass is made of thick glass sheet
and a sandwiched layer of
(b) Ornamental courese between linyel level and
roof level (a) Steel
(c) Projection from a wall to support a structural (b) Stainless steel
member
(c) High strength plastic
(d) Shade against solar radiation
(d) Chromium plate