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Problem 1.10
If the origin of the square wave of Prob. 1.9 is shifted to the right by π/2, determine the Fourier
series.
Solution
The difference between this problem and the previous one is that the function f is now even.
Notice that the wave repeats itself every 2π radians. The general Fourier series for a 2π-periodic
function is
∞
X ∞
X
f (θ) = A0 + An cos nθ + Bn sin nθ. (1)
n=1 n=1
In order to take advantage of the properties of even and odd functions, we aim to find the Fourier
series by integrating over the symmetric interval (−π, π). Integrate both sides of equation (1)
with respect to θ from −π to π to solve for A0 .
ˆ π ˆ π X∞ X∞
!
f (θ) dθ = A0 + An cos nθ + Bn sin nθ dθ
−π −π n=1 n=1
ˆ π ˆ π ∞
X ˆ π ∞
X
= A0 dθ + An cos nθ dθ + Bn sin nθ dθ
−π −π n=1 −π n=1
ˆ π ∞
X ˆ π ∞
X ˆ π
= A0 dθ + An cos nθ dθ + Bn sin nθ dθ
−π n=1 −π n=1 −π
| {z } | {z }
=0 =0
= 2πA0
Consequently,
ˆ π
1
A0 = f (θ) dθ
2π −π
"ˆ ˆ ˆ #
−π/2 π/2 π
1
= (1) dθ + (−1) dθ + (1) dθ
2π −π −π/2 π/2
1 π π
= −π+
2π 2 2
= 0.
The fact that A0 = 0 could have been predicted from the fact that the average of the wave is zero.
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Thomson & Dahleh Vibrations 5e: Chapter 1 - Problem 1.10 Page 2 of 4
An will now be determined. Multiply both sides of equation (1) by cos mθ, where m is an integer,
∞
X ∞
X
f (θ) cos mθ = A0 cos mθ + An cos nθ cos mθ + Bn sin nθ cos mθ
n=1 n=1
Because the trigonometric functions are orthogonal, only one term in the first infinite series
remains as a result of the integration. All other terms vanish.
ˆ π
f (θ) cos nθ dθ = An (π)
−π
Consequently,
ˆ π
1
An = f (θ) cos nθ dθ
π
"−π
ˆ −π/2 ˆ π/2 ˆ π #
1
= (1) cos nθ dθ + (−1) cos nθ dθ + (1) cos nθ dθ
π −π −π/2 π/2
sin nπ 2 sin nπ sin nπ
1 2 2 2
= − − −
π n n n
4 nπ
=− sin .
nπ 2
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Thomson & Dahleh Vibrations 5e: Chapter 1 - Problem 1.10 Page 3 of 4
Bn will now be determined. Multiply both sides of equation (1) by sin mθ, where m is an integer,
∞
X ∞
X
f (θ) sin mθ = A0 sin mθ + An cos nθ sin mθ + Bn sin nθ sin mθ
n=1 n=1
Because the trigonometric functions are orthogonal, only one term in the second infinite series
remains as a result of the integration. All other terms vanish.
ˆ π
f (θ) sin nθ dθ = Bn (π)
−π
Consequently,
ˆ π
1
Bn = f (θ) sin nθ dθ
π −π
"ˆ ˆ ˆ #
−π/2 π/2 π
1
= (1) sin nθ dθ + (−1) sin nθ dθ + (1) sin nθ dθ
π −π −π/2 π/2
− cos nπ cos nπ
2 − cos nπ
1 2 + cos nπ
= +0+
π n n
= 0.
The fact that Bn = 0 could have been predicted from the fact that the wave is an even function.
With the coefficients determined, equation (1) becomes
∞
X −4 nπ
f (θ) = sin cos nθ.
nπ 2
n=1
If n is even, the coefficient vanishes, so the series can be simplified (that is, made to converge
faster) by summing over the odd integers only. Let n = 2k − 1 in the sum.
∞ ∞
X −4 (2k − 1)π X −4
f (θ) = sin cos[(2k − 1)θ] = [−(−1)k ] cos[(2k − 1)θ]
(2k − 1)π 2 (2k − 1)π
2k−1=1 k=1
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Thomson & Dahleh Vibrations 5e: Chapter 1 - Problem 1.10 Page 4 of 4
Figure 1: This figure shows a plot of f (t) versus t using only the first 30 terms in the infinite series.
The more terms that are used in the series, the more it looks like the function in Figure P1.10.
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