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BOTANY

Q.109 (CST-06) [Biological Classification: 2. For which of the following, species diversity is
Eubacteria] important?
1. Cyanobacteria (a) Productivity
(1) Are chemosynthetic bacteria (b) Stability
(2) Are photosynthetic bacteria (c) Resilience
(3) Lack chlorophyll a The correct one(s) is/are
(4) Have chlorophyll b (1) (c) only (2) (a) & (c) only
2. Read the statements and select the correct
(3) (a) & (b) only (4) All (a), (b) & (c)
option.
3. If there is high species diversity,
A- Heterocysts of cyanobacteria play the role in
nitrogen fixation. (1) There would be more stable ecosystem
B- Cyanobacteria lack chlorophyll b. (2) The ecosystem will not be resistant to the
(1) Both A & B are correct alien species
(2) Both A & B are incorrect (3) There is very low productivity in the
(3) Only A is correct ecosystem
(4) Only B is correct (4) There would be high rate of species
3. Oxygenic photosynthesis is mainly done by extinction
(1) Green sulphur bacteria Q.148 (CST-06) (Morphology of Flowering Plants:
(2) Purple sulphur bacteria The Flower)
(3) Fungi 1. In all of the following plants, stamens are
attached to the petals, except in
(4) Cyanobacteria
(1) Brinjal (2) Pea
4. Which of the following is correct for
cyanobacteria? (3) Tomato (4) Petunia
(1) They lack chlorophyll a 2. Other parts of flower arise above the ovary, i.e.,
(2) They have chlorophyll b similar to higher flowers are epigynous in
plants (1) Plum (2) China rose
(3) They lack flagella throughout the life (3) Ray floret of sunflower
(4) Do not have specialised cells for nitrogen (4) Peach
fixation 3. Citrus has polyadelphous stamens. It means
Q.143 (CST-06) (Biodiversity and Conservation: (1) Stamens are united into more than two
Biodiversity) bundles
1. In an ecosystem the community is not showing (2) Each stamen has more than two anthers
much variation in productivity from year to year. (3) There are two types of stamens, one fertile
This community is said to be
and other sterile
(1) Unstable
(4) Stamens are of different lengths
(2) Stable
4. In the members of ‘the lily family’
(3) In its initial stage
(1) Flowers are always unisexual
(4) Lacking biotic factors
(2) Stamens are attached to the perianth

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CST-03 Botany

(3) There are five stamens in each flower 3. Fruit ripening is promoted by
(4) Gynoecium is bilocular with swollen (1) Ethylene
placenta (2) ABA
Q.102 (CST-06) (Cell: The Unit of Life: Eukaryotic (3) Auxin
cells) (4) Cytokinin
1. The component of endomembrane system that Q.104 (CST-05) (Cell: The Unit of life: Nucleus)
have ribosomes is RER. It helps in synthesis of
1. In humans, some chromosomes are
(1) Lipids
(1) SAT chromosomes
(2) Proteins
(2) Lampbrush chromosome
(3) Fatty acids
(3) Sex chromosome
(4) Carbohydrates
(4) Both (1) & (3)
2. ______ helps in formation of plasma membrane
2. In humans, the part of some chromosomes
during cytokinesis.
beyond the non-staining secondary constriction
(1) Lysosome is called
(2) Golgi apparatus (1) Satellite
(3) RER (2) NOR
(4) SER (3) Telomere
3. Which of the following consists of cisternae, (4) Centromere
vesicles and tubules?
3. Secondary constriction of SAT chromosome
(1) RER takes
(2) Lysosome (1) Light stain (2) Dark stain
(3) Golgi apparatus (3) No stain (4) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Both (1) & (3) Q.132 (CST-06) (Principles of inheritance &
4. Which of the following is specialized in the Variation: Mutation)
synthesis of lipids? 1. Turner’s syndrome is due to
(1) RER (1) Autosomal monosomy
(2) SER (2) Allosomal monosomy
(3) Golgi apparatus (3) Autosomal trisomy
(4) Lysosomes (4) Allosomal trisomy
Q.135 (CST-05) (Plant growth & development: 2. The individual who is inflicted with Turner’s
Plant growth regulators) syndrome has the genotype
1. Among the following features of ethylene, which (1) 44+X0 (2) 44+XX
of the following are antagonistic to ABA?
(3) 45+XY
a) Abscission of plant organs.
(4) 44+XXY
b) Fruit ripening.
3. Which of the given is/are physical mutagen?
c) Breaking seed & bud dormancy
a) X-rays
d) Initiates germination in some seeds.
b) High temperature
(1) a & b (2) c&d
c) UV-rays
(3) a & c (4) b&c
d) Mustard gas
2. ABA does not have any impact on
(1) Only (a)
(1) Seed dormancy
(2) Only (a) & (c)
(2) Abscission of leaves
(3) Only (a), (b) & (c)
(3) Seed germination inhibition
(4) Only (d)
(4) Horizontal growth of seedling

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Answer Key

Q.109 (Biological Classification: Eubacteria) 4. (2)

1. (2) Q.135 (Plant growth & development: Plant
2. (1) growth regulators)
3. (4) 1. (2)
4. (3) 2. (4)
Q.143 (Biodiversity and Conservation: 3. (1)
Biodiversity) Q.104 (Cell: The Unit of life: Nucleus)
1. (2) 1. (4)
2. (4) 2. (1)
3. (1) 3. (3)
Q.148 (Morphology of Flowering Plants: The Q.132 (Principles of inheritance & Variation:
Flower) Mutation)
1. (2) 1. (2)
2. (3) 2. (1)
3. (1) 3. (3)
4. (2)
Q.102 (Cell: The Unit of Life: Eukaryotic cells)
1. (2)
2. (2)
3. (4)

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CHEMISTRY
[Q.79. (CST-06) (Bonding in Metal Carbonyl)] [Q.73.(CST-06)(Magnetic Property)]
1. Select the correct statement about CO as 1. Which among the following complex
ligand species is paramagnetic in nature?
(1) -donor only (1) [Ti(H2O)6]Cl3
(2) Both -donor and -acceptor (2) [Sc(H2O)6]Cl3
(3) -donor only (3) [Ti(H2O)6]Cl4
(4) -donor and -acceptor (4) [Zn(H2O)6]Cl2
2. Longest ‘C–O’ bond length is present in 2. Spin only magnetic moment of [CoF6]3- is
–
(Atomic No. of cobalt is 27)
(1) [Cr(CO)6] (2) [Co(CO)4]
+
(1) Zero (2) 3 BM
(3) [Mn(CO)6] (4) [Ni(CO)4]
(3) 15 Bm (4) 24 BM
3. EAN value of Fe in Fe (CO)5 complex is
3. Which among the following paramagnetic
(1) 36 (2) 35 complex species formed, inner orbital
(3) 34 (4) 38 complex?
4. With increase of negative charge of metal(M) (1) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Ni(H2O)6]2+
in M(CO)6 complex/complex ion (3) [Fe(CN)6]3– (4) [Mn(H2O)6]2+
(1) ‘C–O’ bond length decreases 4. Number of unpaired electrons present in
(2) ‘M–C’ bond order increases [Co(H2O)6]Cl3 is
(3) ‘M–C’ bond length increases (1) Zero (2) 1
(4) Both ‘C–O’ as well as ‘M–C’ bond order (3) 4 (4) 3
increases [Q.80. (CST-06) (Quantum Numbers)]
[Q.53. (CST-06) (Properties of Transition Elements)] 1. What is the maximum number of orbital(s) in
1. Select the element of highest enthalpy of an atom that can be identified with the
atomisation among the following following quantum numbers?
(1) Sc (2) Zn n = 5, l = 3, m = 0
(3) V (4) Cu
(1) 25 (2) 5
2. Element of first row transition series of
(3) 8 (4) 1
highest positive value of EM 3+/M2+
2. Each orbital in an atom must have unique set
(1) Fe (2) Co of
(3) Ti (4) V (1) n, l and m (2) n, l and s
3. Select the correct order of first ionization (3) l, m and s (4) n, l, m and s
enthalpy among the given
3. Maximum number of orbitals having n = 4,
(1) Ti > V > Cr > Mn (2) V > Ti > Mn > Cr
l = 2 in an atom is
(3) Mn > Ti > Cr > V (4) Mn > Cr > V > Ti
(1) 16 (2) 8
4. Which among the following oxide will be of
highest oxidizing power? (3) 5 (4) 2
(1) CrO3 [Q.71.(CST-06) (Mole Concept)]
(2) MoO3 1. Maximum number of atoms are present in
(3) WO3 (1) 49 g H2SO4 (2) 32 g of CH4
(4) All are equally strong (3) 18 g H2 (4) 48 g O3
CSS-03 Based on CST ( 5 & 6)

2. Maximum number of atoms are present in

(1) 22.4 L O2 at S.T.P.
(2) 10 g-atoms of oxygen (3) (4) HCOOH
(3) 8 moles of O3
(4) 64 g of oxygen
3. The least acidic compound among the
3. Total number of atoms present in 112 L NO2
following is
gas at S.T.P. is (NA = Avogadro’s number)
(1) 5 NA (2) 10 NA
(3) 15 NA (4) 30 NA
[Q.81. (CST-06) (Critical Temperature)]
(1) (2)
1. The gas which has highest critical
temperature among the following is
(1) H2 (2) He
(3) O2 (4) CO2
2. Ease of liquification is maximum in which of (3) (4)
the following gases?
(1) NH3 (2) H2O
[Q.75.(CST-05) (Oxoacids of Phosphorus)]
(3) O2 (4) N2
1. In which of the following compounds,
3. Highest temperature at which liquid carbon phosphorus exhibits highest oxidation state?
dioxide can exist is known as (1) H3PO3 (2) H3PO2
(1) Inversion temperature of CO2 (3) H3PO4 (4) H4P2O5
(2) Critical temperature of CO2 2. Which one of the following orders correctly
(3) Boyle temperature of CO2 represents the increasing acid strength of the
given acids?
(4) Boiling point of CO2
(1) H3PO4 < H3PO3 < H3PO2
4. Minimum critical temperature among the (2) H3PO2 < H3PO3 < H3PO4
following is of
(3) H3PO3 < H3PO4 < H3PO2
(1) He (2) H2 (4) H3PO4 < H3PO2 < H3PO3
(3) N2 (4) NH3 3. Which of the following oxoacids of
[Q.68.(CST-05) (Acidic nature)] phosphorus has –P–P– linkage?
1. Which of the following represents the correct (1) H4P2O7 (2) H4P2O6
order of the acidity in the given compound? (3) H4P2O5 (4) (HPO3)3
(1) CF3COOH > CCl3COOH > NO2CH2COOH > 4. Among the following the correct order of
NC–CH2COOH reducing property is
(2) NO2CH2COOH > NC–CH2COOH > CCl3COOH > (1) H3PO4 < H3PO2 < H3PO3
CF3COOH (2) H3PO4 < H3PO3 < H3PO2
(3) NC–CH2COOH > CCl3COOH > CF3COOH > (3) H3PO3 < H3PO2 < H3PO4
NO2CH2COOH
(4) H3PO2 < H3PO3 < H3PO4
(4) NO2CH2COOH > CF3COOH > CCl3COOH > [Q.65. (Free radical)]
NC–CH2COOH
1. Which amongst the following is the most
2. Highest pKa is associated with stable free radical?
•
(1) (CH3)2 CH
•

(1) (2) (2) (CH3)3 C

(3)
•
(4) C H3

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CSS-03 Based on CST ( 5 & 6)

2. Arrange the following in increasing order of 4. Consider the following compounds

stability •
(i) CH3– CH –CH3
• •
(a) CH2=CH– C H2 (b) CH2= CH
• (ii)
(c) CH3– C H2

(1) a < b < c

(2) b < c < a (iii)

(3) c < b < a

(4) c < a < b
Hyperconjugation occurs in
3. What is the hybridisation state of allyl free
• (1) (i) and (iii) only
radical carbon in CH2=CH– CH2?
(2) (i) and (ii) only
(1) sp3 (2) sp2 (3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) sp (4) dsp2 (4) (ii) and (iii) only

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CHEMISTRY
ANSWERS KEY
Q.79. (CST-06) Bonding in metal carbonyl Q.81. (CST-06) Critical Temperature

1. (4) 1. (4)
2. (2)
2. (2)
3. (1)
3. (2)
4. (2)
4. (1)
Q.53. (CST-06) (Properties of Transition elements)
1. (3) Q.68.(CST-05) (Acidic nature)

2. (2) 1. (1)
3. (3)
2. (1)
4. (1)
3. (1)
Q.73.(CST-06)Magnetic property
Q.75.(CST-05) (Oxoacids of phosphorus )
1. (1)
2. (4) 1. (3)

3. (3) 2. (1)
4. (1)
3. (2)
Q.80. (CST-06) (Quantum Numbers)
4. (2)
1. (4)
Q.65. (Free radical)
2. (1)
1. (3)
3. (3)
2. (2)
Q.71.(CST-06) (Mole Concept)
3. (2)
1. (3)
4. (2)
2. (3)

3. (3)

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ZOOLOGY
Q.185 (CST-05) Origin and Evolution of Man Statement-B : Second heart sound is produced at
the beginning of ventricular diastole.
1. What is the cranial capacity of Homo erectus?
(1) Both statement A & B are correct
(1) 900 cc (2) 1400 cc
(2) Both statement A & B are incorrect
(3) 650 cc (4) 800 cc
(3) Only statement A is correct
2. Fossils of Homo erectus was discovered in
(4) Only statement B is correct
(1) Africa (2) Central Asia
3. All of the given features are of ‘Lub’ except
(3) Ethiopia (4) Java
(1) Low pitched
3. Match the column-I and column-II. Choose the
(2) Second heart sound
correct option
(3) Long duration
(4) Produced by closure of AV valves
Column-I Column-II 4. Which of the following is true about second heart
a. Homo habilis (i) First man to sound ‘Dub’?
use fire (1) It is high pitched and of short duration
(2) It is produced during ventricular systole
b. Homo erectus (ii) First human-
like being the (3) It can’t be easily heard through a stethoscope
hominid (4) This sound is of no significance.
Q.166 (CST-06) Diseases of excretory system
c. Homo sapiens (iii) First erect man
neanderthalensis 1. Increase in amount of urea in blood is called
(1) Polyuria (2) Uremia
d. Australopithecus (iv) Used hides to
protect their (3) Nephrolithiasis (4) Ketonuria
body 2. Patient suffering from glomerulonephritis can
show all of the following except
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(1) Inflammation of glomeruli
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(2) Proteinuria
(3) Damage to endothelium of blood capillaries
Q.162 (CST-06) Body Fluid and Circulation : ECG (4) No effect on GFR
1. Complete the analogy and choose the correct 3. Ultimate method to correct acute renal failure is
option
(1) Haemodialysis
Lub : Closing of AV valves :: Dub :
(2) Kidney transplantation
(1) Opening of semilunar valves (3) Blood transfusion
(2) Opening of AV vales (4) Surgical removal of renal stone
(3) Closing of semilunar valves 4. Renal stones are mainly formed by deposition of
(4) Closing of only tricuspid valve (1) Calcium oxalate
2. Read the given statement carefully (2) Magnesium phosphate
Statement-A : First heart sound is produced at the (3) Sodium chloride
beginning of ventricular systole. (4) Sodium silicate

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CSS-03 (Based on CST-05 & 06) Zoology

Q.169 (CST-05) Electrocardiogram 5. In both sexes, anal cerci are present on

1. The AV valves remain closed during (1) 6th segment (2) 7th segment
(1) Atrial systole (3) 8th segment (4) 10th segment
(2) Ventricular systole Q.180 (CST-05) Pituitary gland/hypophysis
(3) Ventricular diastole 1. Adenohypophysis consists of
(4) Joint diastole (1) Parsnervosa only
2. Semilunar valves open (2) Pars distalis and pars nervosa
(1) After isovolumetric contraction (3) Pars distalis and pars intermedia
(2) After isovolumetric relaxation (4) Pars intermedia only
(3) At the end of ventricular systole 2. Neurohypophysis stores and releases
(4) At the end of atrial diastole (1) Oxytocin only
3. During joint diastole (2) Prolactin only
(1) AV valves remain closed (3) Oxytocin and prolactin
(2) AV valves remain open (4) Oxytocin and ADH
(3) Semilunar valves remain open 3. In males, LH stimulates the synthesis and
(4) Both semilunar and AV valves remain closed secretion of
4. Choose the correct statement (1) Oestrogen
(1) First heart sound occurs due to opening of AV (2) Progesterone
valves (3) Androgens
(2) Second heart occurs due to opening of (4) Pitocin
semilunar valves 4. An impairment affecting synthesis or release of
(3) AV valves close at initiation of ventricular vasopressin results in
systole (1) Acromegaly (2) Diabetes mellitus
(4) Semilunar valves close at end of atrial diastole (3) Diabetes insipidus (4) Gigantism
Q.155 (CST-05) Morphology of cockroach 5. MSH acts on
1. The entire body is covered by a (1) Melanocytes (2) Osteocytes
(1) Hard collagenous exoskeleton (3) Chondroblasts (4) Osteoblasts
(2) Soft collagenous exoskeleton Q.153 (CST-05) Subphylum-vertebrata
(3) Soft chitinous exoskeleton 1. Indirect development is exhibited by all of the
(4) Hard chitinous exoskeleton following, except
2. The body of the cockroach is segmented and (1) Petromyzon (2) Pavo
divisible into (3) Branchiostoma (4) Rana
(1) Head and thorax only 2. No larval stage is present in the life cycle of which
(2) Thorax and abdomen only of the following organism?
(3) Head and abdomen only (1) Ascidia (2) Branchiostoma
(4) Head, thorax and abdomen (3) Chameleon (4) Rana
3. Head of the cockroach is ___A___ in shape and 3. Direct development is generally exhibited by
lies __B__ at right angle to the longitudinal body members of which of the following group of
axis. Fill the blanks A and B with a correct option animals?
(1) Cubical Anteriorly (1) Reptiles (2) Amphibians
(2) Cubical Posteriorly (3) Urochordata (4) Cephalochordata
(3) Triangular Anteriorly Q.165 (CST-05) Digestion in small intestine
(4) Triangular Posteriorly 1. Trypsinogen is converted into trypsin by the
4. The first pair of wings arises from enzymatic activity of
(1) Prothorax (2) Mesothorax (1) Enterokinase (2) Pepsinogen
(3) Metathorax (4) Abdomen (3) Carboxypeptidase (4) Rennin

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CSS-03 (Based on CST-05 & 06) Zoology

2. A brush border endopeptidase produced from (1) Aminopeptidase (2) Lipases

intestinal mucosa is (3) Amylases (4) Carboxypeptidase
(1) Enterokinase (2) Pepsinogen
(3) Nucleases (4) Trypsinogen
3. Which of the following is a proteolytic enzyme that
catalyses the cleavage of peptide bond adjacent to
N-terminal of a peptide, releasing the first amino
acid of the chain?
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ANSWERS
Q.185 (CST-05) Q.155 (CST-05)
1. (1) 1. (4)
2. (4) 2. (4)
3. (2) 3. (3)
Q.162 (CST-06) 4. (2)
1. (3) 5. (4)
2. (1) Q.180 (CST-05)
3. (2) 1. (3)
4. (1) 2. (4)
Q.166 (CST-06) 3. (3)
1. (2) 4. (3)
2. (4) 5. (1)
3. (2) Q.153 (CST-05)
4. (1) 1. (2)
Q.169 (CST-05) 2. (3)
1. (2) 3. (1)
2. (1) Q.165 (CST-05)
3. (2) 1. (1)
4. (3) 2. (1)
3. (1)

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Q.8 (CST-5) Combined Motion Q.18 (CST-6) Zener Diode
1. When an external force is applied at a point other 1. A Zener diode having Zener voltage equal to 20
than centre of mass of a rigid body at rest, then it V, is used in voltage regulator as shown in figure.
undergoes If current through the diode is 5 mA, then the
(1) Only translational motion value of resistance R will be
(2) Only rotational motion
(3) Both translational and rotational motion
(4) Neither translational nor rotational motion
2. When a torque acting upon a system is zero,
which of the following will be constant?
(1) Force (2) Linear momentum
(1) 600  (2) 800 
(3) Linear impulse (4) Angular momentum
(3) 1000  (4) 500 
3. A force is F is applied on the centre of a uniform
2. In the question (1), if the value of R = 890 , then
circular disc of mass m and radius R which is
the current through the diode is nearly
kept on a smooth surface as shown in the figure.
(1) 5 mA (2) 1 mA
The angular acceleration of the body about the
(3) 2.5 mA (4) 0.5 mA
centre of mass
3. A Zener diode, having Zener voltage equal to 10
V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit as shown
in figure. If current through the diode is 2 mA.
Then value of resistance R is nearly

F F
(1) (2)
mR 2mR
2F
(3) Zero (4)
mR
4. In the question (3), acceleration of centre of mass
(1) 417  (2) 600 
of the disc will be
(3) 312  (4) 810 
2F F 4. In the question (3), if the value of R is 400 , then
(1) (2)
m 2m current through the diode nearly
F (1) 5 mA (2) 2.5 mA
(3) Zero (4) (3) 10 mA (4) 2 mA
m

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CSS-03 Physics

Q.22 (CST-6) Law of Radioactivity Current measured by an ammeter in the circuit

1. The activity of a sample having number of nuclei will be
N at any time t is given by (symbol has usual (1) 2 A
meaning) 1
(2) A
N 2
– t
(1) Ne (2)
 (3) 2 A
N–
(3) N (4) (4)
1
A
2 2
2. The activity of a sample of radioactive material is
Q.34 (CST-6) Rms and Average Values
A1 at time t1 and A2 at time t2 (t2 > t1), then the
1. The average value of potential difference V,
decay constant of the sample is
shown in the figure, for one complete cycle is
A 
ln  1 
 A2  A2 – A1
(1) (2)
t 2 – t1 t 2 – t1

e( t2 – t1 ) e( A2 – A1 )
(3) (4)
A2 – A1 t2 – t1

3. For U238, half life is 16 days. The activity of 10 g

sample of U238 is nearly V0
(1) (2) V0
(1) 1.1 × 1015 day–1 (2) 3.2 × 1015 day–1 3
(3) 1.2 × 1012 day–1 (4) 3.2 × 1012 day–1 V0 V0
(3) (4)
Q.32 (CST-6) Equation of AC 2 2
1. The voltage of an AC source varies with time 2. The average value of potential difference V.
according to the relation E = 100 sin(50t) Shown in the figure, for one complete cycle is

cos(50t) V. Select the correct statement

(1) Peak voltage of source is 50 V
(2) Frequency of source is 100 Hz
(3) Frequency of source is 50 Hz
(4) Both (1) and (3)
2. The voltage of an AC source varies with time 2V0 V0
(1) (2)
according to the relation E = 200 cos(200t +  
/3). Peak value of the voltage and frequency of V0
(3) (4) V0
the source are respectively 2
(1) 200 V, 100 Hz (2) 100 V, 100 Hz 3. Rms value of the current I, shown in the figure will

(3) 200 2 V, 50 Hz (4) 200 V, 50Hz be

3. Expression of the AC voltage applied to an

electric circuit is given by E = 200 sin(100t) + 200
cos(100t). Rms value of the source voltage
(1) 200 2 V (2) 100 2 V
(3) 200 V (4) 100 V
4. An AC voltage is expressed by E = 200 I0 I0
(1) (2)
sin(100t).cos(100t) V. This source is applied to 2 2

a pure resistive circuit having resistance of R = I0 I0

(3) (4)
3 3
50.

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CSS-03 Physics

4. Rms value of the current I, shown in the figure. 2 

(1) (2)
Wil be  4

(3) (4) 
2
3. The phase difference between the two given
waves is
 2 
y1 = a1 sin  t – x ,
  
I0  2 
(1) I0 (2) y 2 = –a2 cos  t – x + 
2   
I I 2
(3) 0 (4) 0 (1) ( ) (2) 
2  
Q.7 (CST-5) Work by Variable Force  
r (3) + (4)  –
1. The work done by a force F = (–4xiˆ) N in 2 2
4. The phase difference between the two given
displacing a particle from x = 3 m to x = –1 m is
waves is
(1) –80 J (2) 80 J
 2 
(3) 120 J (4) 16 J y1 = – a1 sin  t – x ,
r   
2. The work done by a force F = (–4xjˆ) N in
 2 
displacing a particle along x axis from x = 3 m to x y 2 = –a2 cos  t – x + 
  
= –1 m is
(1) –80 J (2) 80 J 2
(1) ( ) (2) 
(3) Zero (4) 16 J 
3. A position dependent force F = 7 – 2x + 3x 2  
(3) + (4)  –
newton acts on a small body of mass 2 kg and 2 2
displaces it from x = 0 to x = 6 m. The work done Q.23 (CST-6) PN Junction Diode
in joules is 1. Barrier potential for Ge PN junction diode is
(1) 70 (2) 270 nearly
(3) 35 (4) 222 (1) 0.3 V (2) 1.7 V
4. A body is acted upon by a force which is (3) 0.1 V (4) 1 V
proportional to the distance covered. If distance 2. Determine current through Si diode for the
covered is denoted by x, then work done by the electrical network shown in the figure.
force will be proportional to
(1) x (2) x2
3
(3) x 2 (4) x4
Q.10 (CST-6) Phase Difference
(1) 1.93 A (2) 2.9 A
1. The phase difference between the two given
(3) 3.1 A (4) 4.6 A
waves is 3. Find the potential of the point A in the circuit as
 2   2 
y1 = a1 sin  t – x  , y 2 = a2 sin  t – x +  shown in the figure.
     
2
(1) ( ) (2) 

 
(3) + (4)  –
 
2. The phase difference between the two given
(1) 2 V (2) 3.1 V
waves is
(3) –7.08 V (4) 9.12 V
 2   2 
y1 = a1 sin  t – x  , y 2 = a2 cos  t – x
     

❑ ❑ ❑

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CSS-03 Physics

Based on
CST-05 & 06

Corporate. Office :Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-03
PHYSICS
Answer key
Q.8 (CST-6) Combined Motion Q.34 (CST-6) Rms and Average Values
1. (3) 1. (4)
2. (4) 2. (1)
3. (3) 3. (2)
4. (4) 4. (2)
Q.18 (CST-6) Zener Diode Q.7 (CST-5) Work by Variable Force
1. (3) 1. (4)
2. (3) 2. (3)
3. (1) 3. (4)
4. (2) 4. (2)
Q.22 (CST-6) Law of Radioactivity Q.10 (CST-6) Phase Difference
1. (3) 1. (2)
2. (1) 2. (3)
3. (1) 3. (4)
Q.32 (CST-6) Equation of AC 4. (3)
Q.23 (CST-6) PN Junction Diode
1. (4)
2. (1) 1. (1)
3. (3) 2. (1)
4. (3) 3. (3)

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