SEC : for SR STAR SUPER CHAINA N-ELITE & (Optional for SR Model-A Batch students) Date: 25-10-2022

SERIES-2
MODULE TEST - 2 Max.Marks: 720

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS :
 Pattern of the Entrance Examination :-
Paper containing 180 objective type questions , from BIOLOGY, PHYSICS,CHEMISTRY
 Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only to darken the appropriate circle. Answers marked
with pencil would not be evaluated.
 Each item carries 4marks. For each correct response the candidate will get 4 marks. For
each incorrect response 1mark will be deducted from the total score.

01. Single celled eukaryotes are placed in membrane

kingdom 06. Which of the following is not observed in
(1) Monera protists ?
(2) Protista (1) Gamete formation & fusion
(3) Mycota (2) Zygote formation
(4) Plantae (3) Embryo formation
02. In which kingdom boundaries are not (4) Asexual reproduction
well defined ? 07. Chrysophytes includes
(1) Monera (1) Diatoms
(2) Protista (2) Desmids
(3) Plantae (3) Dinoflagellates
(4) Mycota (4) Both 1 & 2
03. Which one of the following is not 08. Cell wall of diatoms is made up of
included in protista ? (1) Silica
(1) Diatoms (2) Cellulose + pectin
(2) Dinoflagellates (3) Cellulose + Silica
(3) Slime moulds (4) Chitin + silica
(4) Lichens 09. Assertion (A): From species to kingdom,
04. Members of protista are primarily the number of common characteristics
(1) Aquatic goes on decreasing.
Reason (R): Higher the category greater
(2) Terrestrial
is the difficulty of determining
(3) Xeric relationship to other taxa at the same
(4) Symbiotic level.
05. In which of the following aspect protists (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
are not different from monerans ? the correct explanation of (A)
(1) Membrane bounded cell organelles (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
(2) Structure of flagella not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Nucleus structure & organisation (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) General composition of plasma (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
10. Dinoflagellates may appear (1) Trypanosoma
(1) Yellow (2) Entamoeba
(2) Green (3) Paramoecium
(3) Brown (4) Gregaria
(4) All the above 18. Which of the following is not true about
11. Which one among the following is slime moulds ?
responsible for red tide ? (1) Saprophytic protists
(1) Dinoflagellates (2) Forms fruiting body under favourable
(2) Diatoms condition
(3) Desmids (3) Spores possess true walls
(4) Euglenoids (4) Spore dispersal by air
12. Plant family namely convolvulaceae and 19. Match Column -I with column -II and
solanaceae are included in order A based select the correct option from codes given
on B. A & B are respectively below.
Column -I Column –II
(1) Polemoniales, floral characters
A) Family i) Tuberosum
(2) Polemoniales, vegetative characters
B) Kingdom ii) Polemoniales
(3) Poales, floral characters
C) Order iii) Solanum
(4) Poales , vegetative characters
D) Species iv) Plantae
13. Outer cell covering of Euglenoids is
E) Genus v) Solanaceae
(1) Cell wall
(1) A-v, B-iv, C-ii, D-i, E-iii
(2) Plasma membrane
(2) A-v, B-iv, C-i, D-iii, E-ii
(3) Pellicle
(3) A-i, B-ii,C-iii, D-v, E-iv
(4) Frustule
(4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv, E-v
14. Members of which fungal class can be
20. Which of the following is not true about
aquatic ?
fungi ?
(1) Phycomycetes
(1) Achlorophillous
(2) Ascomycetes
(2) Thalloid
(3) Basidiomycetes
(3) Cosmopolitan
(4) Deuteromycetes
(4) Prefer to grow in cold and humid
15. Which of the following set of pigments
areas
can be observed in Euglenoids ?
21. Cell wall of fungi is composed of
(1) Chl a & Chl b
(1) Chitin
(2) Chl a & Chl c
(2) Peptidoglycan
(3) Chl a & Chl d
(3) Chitin & polysaccharides
(4) Chl a & Chl e
(4) Cellulose & agar
16. Plasmodium is/a
22. Biggest spin off of taxomomic or
(1) Fungus
systematic studies was recognition of
(2) Euglenoid
(1) Horizontal similarities
(3) Vector of malaria
(2) Vertical similarities
(4) Multinucleate mass of cytoplasm
(3) Ontogenical similarities
without a wall in a slime mould
(4) Both 1 & 2
17. Which one among the following is
amoeboid protozoan protist ?
23. Which of the following nutrition is not 30. Sexual spores of club fungi are
found in fungi ? (1) Endogenously produced basidiospores
(1) Parasitic (2) Exogenously produced ascospores
(2) Saprobic (3) Endogenously produced ascospores
(3) Symbiotic (4) Exogenously produced basidiospores
(4) Holozoic 31. Asexual spores are generally absent in
24. Which of the following is not a step of (1) Phycomycetes
fungal sexual cycle ? (2) Ascomycetes
(1) Plasmogamy (3) Basidiomycetes
(2) Karyogamy (4) Deuteromycetes
(3) Embryogeny 32. Which of the following is a member of
(4) Meiosis deuteromycetes ?
25. In general virus that infect plants have (1) Agaricus
(1) ss DNA (2) Truffles
(2) ds DNA (3) Alternaria
(3) ss RNA (4) Aspergillus
(4) ds RNA 33. Identify the given organism.
26. Which of the following is not a basis of
classification of fungi into various
classes?
(1) Morphology of mycelium
(2) Mode of spore production
(3) Fruiting bodies
(4) Mode of nutrition (1) Mucor
27. Which of the following is not a feature of (2) Agaricus
phycomycetes ? (3) Aspergillus
(1) Coenocytic mycelium (4) Rhizopus
(2) Endogenously produced spores 34. Deuteromycetes is called imperfect fungi
(3) Presence of dikaryophase due to lack of
(4) Occurrence in both aquatic & (1) Vegetative phase
terrestrial habitat (2) Asexual phase
28. Which of the following do not belong to (3) Sexual phase
phycomycetes ? (4) Both 1 & 2
(1) Mucor 35. Claviceps, Neurospora, Aspergillus,
(2) Rhizopus Agaricus, Morels, Truffles, Bracket fungi,
(3) Albugo Puffballs, Puccinia, Phytophthora,
(4) Candida Rhizopus, Mucor, Albugo.
Out of the given members how many
29. Which of the following is commonly
belong to Ascomycetes ?
known as ‘sac fungi’ ?
(1) 4
(1) Phycomycetes
(2) 5
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) 6
(3) Basidiomycetes
(4) 7
(4) Deuteromycetes
36. Match column – I with column – II (3) Free ss RNA
Column – I Column – II (4) Low molecular weight RNA
a)Museum i) Information on
one taxon 42. Which of the following is not an edible
b) Herbaria ii) Couplet fungi ?
c) Botanical gardens iii) Arranged on (1) Morels
universally accepted
(2) Ustilago
classification system
d) Taxonomical key iv) Educational (3) Truffles
institutes (4) Agaricus
v) Live plant 43. Select out the odd one with respect to
specimens
type of nutrition
(1)a – iv, b – iii, c – v, d – ii
(1) Bladder wort
(2) a – iii, b – v, c – i, d – ii
(3) a – iv, b – i, c – iii, d – v (2) Venus fly trap
(4) a- v, b – iii, c – iv, d – ii (3) Sundew plant
37. The term ‘Contagium vivum fluidum’ to (4) Cuscuta
virus was proposed by 44.
(1) Ivanowsky
(2) Beijerinek
(3) Stanley
(4) Pasteur
38. Mycobiont & phycobiont are found in
(1) Mycorrhiza
(2) Roots
Select out the incorrect for given
(3) Lichens
organism
(4) BGA
(1) Causative agent of Tobacco Mosaic
39. What is the genetic material of
disease
T- bacteriophages ?
(2) Genetic material is ssRNA
(1) ssRNA
(3) Capsomeres are 2130 in number
(2) ssDNA
(4) It is bacteriophage
(3) dsRNA
(4) dsDNA 45. Match the following
40. Which of the following is pollution (A) Amoeboid (i) Entamoeba
indicator ? protozoans
(B) Flagellated (ii) Trypanosoma
(1) Euglenoids & fungi
protozoans
(2) Diatoms & dinoflagellates
(C) Ciliated (iii) Paramaecium
(3) Dinoflagellates & euglenoids
protozoans
(4) Lichens & diatoms (D) Sporozoans (iv) Plasmodium
41. Which of the following is not associated
(1)A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv
with viroids ?
(2) A – i, B – ii, C – iv, D – iii
(1) T.O.Diener
(3) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i
(2) CJS
(4) A – i, B – iii, C – ii, D – iv
 ZOOLOGY (1) Both statement I and statement II are
46. Choose incorrect statement about true
ligament. (2) Statement I is false and statement II is
(1)Many collagen fibres are arranged in true
parallel bundles (3) Statement I is true and statement II is
(2) It is composed of connective tissue false
(3) Fibroblasts and fibres are compactly (4) Both statement I and statement II are
arranged false
(4) It is found in the skin 51. Choose incorrect statement about cerebral
47. Match the following and choose correct cortex of human brain.
set with reference to Pheretima (1) It has multipolar neurons
Column – I Column – II (2) It appears grey due to neuron cell
(A)Calciferous glands (I)Integrates bodies with Nissl’s granules
sensory input (3) It has neurons and neuroglia
(B)Prostate glands (II) Produce (4) Myelinated axons are seen
spermatophores 52. Read the following
(C)Typhlosole (III) Neutralise (a) Chitinous exoskeleton
humic acid (b) Statocysts
(D) Cerebral ganglia (IV) Produce (c) Antennae
haemoglobin (d) Jointed appendages
(E) Blood glands (V) Increases area (e) Malpighian tubules
of absorption Which of the above characters are related
(1)A – III, B – II, C – V, D – IV, E – I to Prawn?
(2) A – III, B – II, C – V, D – I, E – IV (1) All the above
(3) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – V, E – II (2) a, b, d only
(4) A – III, B – IV, C – V, D – II, E – I (3) All except b
48. Mesoderm is found in between ectoderm (4) All except e
and endoderm in 53. The branches at the distal end of axon
(1) Taenia terminate as bulb like structures called
(2) Adamsia (1) synaptic knobs
(3) Ctenoplana (2) synaptic vesicles
(4) Sycon (3) synaptic cleft
49. Bipolar neurons are found in (4) motor end plate
(1) Dorsal root ganglion of spinal cord 54. Choose incorrect pair with reference to
(2) Optic nerve of eye Pheretima.
(3) Retina of eye (1)Pharyngeal nephridia – 4th, 5th and 6th
(4) Cerebral medulla segments
50. Statement I: Respiratory exchange occurs (2) Septal nephridia – 15th to last segment
through the moist body surface of (3) Lateral oesophageal hearts – 12th and
earthworm. 13th segments
Statement II: Blood of earthworms cannot (4) Intestinal caecae – Project from
transport oxygen due to absence of RBC. intestine on 23rd segment
55. Assertion (A): Bones are hard and (2) Both statement I and statement II are
nonpliable where as cartilage is pliable. true
Reason (R): Bone matrix is rich in (3) Statement I is false and statement II is
calcium salts. true
(1) Both A and R are true but R is not the (4) Both statement I and statement II are
correct explanation of A false
(2) A is true but R is false 60. Which of the following is present
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the between the adjacent bones of the
correct explanation of A vertebral column?
(4) A is false but R is true (1) Intercalated discs
56. Which of the following set is wrongly (2) Osseous tissue
matched? (3) Tendons
(1)Megakaryocytes – Blood (4) Cartilage
(2) Cartilage – Intervertebral discs 61. Which of the following are paired
(3) Fibroblasts – Areolar tissue ventrolateral apertures in preclitellar
(4) Oligodendrocytes – Brain region of Pheretima?
57. Read the following and choose the (1) Male and female genital pores
answer with correct description about (2) Genital papillae and male genital
mating in earthworm. pores
(a) Juxta positioning of male genital
(3) Spermathecal apertures and male
openings with female genital opening
genital pores
(b) Mutual exchange of
(4) spermathecal apertures
spermatophores between two worms
62. Choose incorrect statement about
(c) Spermathecae discharge sperms into
basophils in human?
cocoon
(1) 0.5-1 percent of total WBC
(d) Male gonadal openings come into
(2) Secrete heparin which causes
contact with spermathecal openings
inflammatory reactions
(1)a, b
(3) A type of granulocyte
(2) b, c, d
(4) Non phagocytic
(3) a, b, d
63. Identify correct set of matching and
(4) b, d
choose correct option.
58. Pneumatic bones are found in
Column – I Column – II
(1) Carcharodon
(A) Culex (i)Ectoparasite on fish
(2) Columba
(3) Chamaeleon (B) Aplysia (ii) Radula
(4) Canis (C) Petromyzon (iii)Calcareous ossicles
59. Statement – I: The ground substance of (D) Calotes (iv)Malpighian tubules
connective tissue is composed of fibres (E)Asterias (v) Epidermal scales
which are modified polysaccharides. (1)A – iv, B – iii, C – i, D – v, E – ii
Statement – II: Fibres provide strength, (2) A – iv, B – ii, C – i, D – iii, E – v
elasticity and flexibility to the tissue. (3) A – iv, B – ii, C – i, D – v, E – iii
(1)) Statement I is true and statement II is (4) A – iv, B – i, C – iii, D – ii, E – v
false
64. Which of the following is not an (2) Statement I is false and statement II is
epithelium? true
(1) Mucosa of gut (3) Both statement I and statement II are
(2) Endothelium of blood vessels true
(3) Duramater of brain (4) Both statement I and statement II are
(4) Epidermis of skin false
65. The peristomium of Pheretima contains 71. Which of the following statements are
(1) Mouth true for biceps muscle?
(2) Setae (a)Myofibrils with striations
(3) Nephridiopores and setae (b) Muscle fibres are arranged in parallel
(4) Mouth and setae arrays
66. Epithelium with microvilli and goblet (c) Muscle fibre is fusiform and
cells is found in multinucleate
(1) Gastric mucosa (d) Receives impulses from autonomic
(2) PCT neural system
(3) Trachea (e) Tendons connect it bones.
(4) Intestinal mucosa (1) all except e
67. Pelvic fins do not bear claspers in (2) all except d
(1) Dog fish (3) b, c, d
(2) Sting ray (4) a, b, e
(3) Hag fish 72. Nerve ring of Pheretima surrounds
(4) Flying fish (1) Oesophagus
68. Select the incorrect statement with respect (2) Pharynx
to bone. (3) Gizzard
(1) Osteocytes are enclosed in lacunae (4) Buccal cavity
(2) It is a reservoir for calcium 73. The amount of haemoglobin in the blood
(3) Osteoclasts play a role in bone of a healthy human
resorption (1) 12 – 16 mgs/100 ml
(4) It’s red bone marrow acts as a (2) 120 – 160 gm in 5 litre
secondary lymphoid organ. (3) 12 – 16 gms/litre
69. Choose incorrect statement about (4) 12 – 16 gms/100 ml
clitellum of Pheretima. 74. Earthworm is a hermaphrodite, i.e both
(1) Its gland cells secrete cocoon testes and ovaries are present in the same
(2) Dorsal median female genital pore individual. Choose the correct option
related to it
(3) Setae are absent
(1) 2 pairs of testes in 10th and 11th, a pair
(4) Forests of integumentary nephridia
of ovaries in 12th segment
70. Statement – I: Cardiac muscle is resisitant
(2) 2 pairs of testes in 11th and 12th, a pair
to fatigue.
of ovaries in 13th segment
Statement – II: Cardiac muscle fibres are
(3) 2 pairs of testes in 10th and 11th, a pair
autorhythmic.
of ovaries in 13th segment
(1)) Statement I is true and statement II is
(4) 4 pairs of spermathecae in 6th, 7th, 8th ,
false
9th and a pair of ovaries in 13th segment.
75. Read the following and choose the correct
set with reference to cartilage
(a) Solid and pliable matrix
(b) Highly vascular connective tissue
(c) Chondrocytes in lacunae
(d) Matrix has chondroitin salts
(e) Pubic symphysis has hyaline cartilage
(1)a, c, d
(2) all except b
(3) a, c only
(4) a, b, c only
76. Monoecious animal with internal
fertilisation and indirect development
(1) Fasciola
(2) Pheretima
(3) Anopheles
(4) Ctenoplana
77. Read the following.
(a) Cell junctions hold the muscle fibres
(b) Muscle fibres taper at both ends
(c) It is involuntary muscle
(d) Muscle fibres do not show striations
(e) Cells are uninucleate
The above characteristics are related to
the muscle found in
(1) Blood vessels
(2) Heart
(3) Tongue
(4) Quadriceps muscle
78. Which nephridia of Pheretima collect
wastes from coelomic fluid and drain
them into intestine?
(1) Septal nephridia
(2) Tufted nephridia
(3) Pharyngeal nephridia
(4) Integumentary nephridia
79. Match List I with List II and choose the
correct answer from the given options.
List – I List – II
(A) Neutrophils (i)Immunne response
(B) B-lymphocytes (ii) Coagulation of blood
(C) Thrombocytes (iii) Phagocytic cells
(D) Erythrocytes (iv)Resist infections
(E) Eosinophils (v) Transport O2
(1)A – iv, B – i, C – ii, D – v, E – iii
(2) A – iii, B – i, C – ii, D – v, E – iv
(3) A – iv, B – ii, C – i, D – v, E – iii
(4) A – iv, B – i, C – iii, D – ii, E – v
80. The connective tissue found in the human
skin
(1) stratified keratinized epithelium
(2) areolar tissue
(3) dense irregular connective tissue
(4) adipose tissue
81. Assertion (A): All chordates are not
vertebrates. But, all vertebrates are
chordates.
Reason (R): All chordates possess
notochord which is replaced by vertebral
column in embryonic stages.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
82. Which of the following set of structures 87. Statement I: Blood plasma has clotting
are similar in their epithelium? factors in an inactive form.
(1)Alveoli, DCT Statement II: Plasma without clotting
(2) Fallopian tubes, PCT factors is lymph.
(3) Endothelium, alveoli (1) Both statement I and statement II are
(4) Bowman’s capsule, gastric mucosa true
83. Which of the following is not true for (2) Statement I is true and statement II is
platelets of human blood? false
(1) Cell fragments (3) Statement I is false and statement II is
(2) Normal count 1.5 lakhs to 3.5 lakhs true
mm3 (4) Both statement I and statement II are
(3) Reduction in number causes genetic false
disorder haemophilia 88. Living fossil of the largest phylum
(4) They are involved in coagulation of (1) Latimeria
blood (2) Limulus
84. Which of the following is not a (3) Sphenodon
characterstic of earth worm? (4) Platypus
(1) Metamerism 89. Choose incorrect statement from the
(2) Closed circulation following.
(3) Setae on parapodia (1)Unipolar neuron’s cell body has only
(4) Tube like muscular gut axon
85. Rapid transfer of ions between adjoining (2) Schwann cell does not enclose
cells is facilitated by unmyelinated axons
(1) tight junctions (3) Myelin sheath is not seen at Nodes of
(2) gap junctions Ranvier
(3) adhering junctions (4) Nissl’s granules are seen in dendrites
(4) desmosomes 90. Match the following and choose the
correct set.
86. Which of the following set of animals is
Column – I Column – II
correctly matched with their
(A)Goblet cells (i)Specialised for
characteristics without any exception?
storage of fats
Animals Characteristics
(B) Adipose tissue (ii) Unicellular
(1) Alligator, 4-chambered heart,
exocrine glands
Pavo, Felis homeothermy
(C)Ligament (iii) Parallel bundles
(2) Scoliodon, Internal fertilisation,
of collagen fibres
Catla, two chambered heart
(D)Monocytes (iv) Inflammatory
Ichthyophis
reactions
(3) Nereis, Dioecious animals with
(E) Mast cells (v) Destroy foreign
Hirudinaria, closed circulation
organisms
Pheretima
(1) A – ii, B – iv, C – i, D – v, E - iii
(4) Chelone, Paired appendages,
(2) A – ii, B – iii, C – iv, D – v, E - i
Delphinus, direct development
(3) A – ii, B – v, C – i, D – iii, E – iv
Pristis
(4) A – ii, B – i, C – iii, D – v, E – iv
 PHYSICS x   t 3  3t 2  2 m. The average
91. The three initial and final position of a acceleration of the particle in time
man on the xaxis are given as : ineterval t  0 to t  4 s will be
i) (-8m, 7m)
(1) 1 m / s 2
ii) (7m, -3m) and
(2) 9 m / s 2
iii) (-7m, 3m)
(3) 12 m / s 2
Which pair gives the negative
displacement? (4) 6 m / s 2
(1) Only (i) 96. The acceleration time graph of a particle
(2) Only (ii) moving in a straight line is as shown in
(3) Only (iii) figure. The velocity of the particle at
(4) (i) and (iii) time t = 0 is 2 m/s. The velocity after 2 s
will be
92. Position of particle moving along x-axis
is given as x   t  3 , where x is in
2

meter and t is in seconds. Distance

covered by the particle in 6 seconds.
(1) 9 m
(2) 0 m
(3) 18 m (1) 6 m/s
(4) 5 m (2) 4 m/s
93. The position x of a particle varies with (3) 2 m/s
time t as x  at 2  bt 3 . The acceleration of (4) 8 m/s
the particle will be zero at time t equal to
97. The displacement-time graphs for two
2a cars A and B moving on same track is
(1)
3b shown in figure. The magnitude of theie
1 relative velocity is
(2)
b
a
(3)
3b
(4) c
94. When particle moves in straight line
increasing speed the correct sign of
acceleration ‘ a ’ and velocity ‘ v ’can be
(1) v  ve, a  ve
(1) 0
(2) v  ve, a  ve
(2) 5 m /s
(3) v  ve, a  ve
(3) 3 m/s
(4) Both 2 and 3
(4) 3.5 m/s
95. A particle moves along a straight line
such that it’s position is given by
98. A rocket is fired vertically from the (3) 900
ground with a resultant vertical (4) 1200
acceleration of 10 m / s 2 . The fuel is 103. If the resultant of two forces of
finished in 1 min and it continues to magnitude p and 2 p is perpendicular
move up. What is the maximum height to p , then he angle between the forces is
reached?
(1) 42.3 km 2
(2) 48.4 km (1)
3
(3) 36.4 km 3
(2)
(4) 25.6 km 4
99. A particle is thrown vertically up with an 4
(3)
initial velocity 9 m/s from the surface of 5
Earth (take g  10 m / s 2 ). The time (in 5
(4)
seconds) taken by the particle to reach a 6
height of 4 m from the surface second 104. Three forces P, Q and R are acting at a
time (in seconds) is point in the plane. The angle between P
(1) 1.3 & Q and Q & R are 1500 and
(2) 1.2 1200 respectively , then for equilibrium,
(3) 1.1 forces P, Q and R are in the ratio :
(4) 1.0 (1) 1: 2 : 3
100. If angle between a and b is  / 3 then (2) 1: 2 : 3
angle between 3a and 2b is (3) 3: 2 :1
(1)  / 3 (4) 3 : 2 :1
(2) 2 / 3 105. Two forces of 8 N and 6 N are acting at
(3)  / 2 an angle  and their resultant is
(4)  148 then  =?
101. A  4iˆ  3 ˆj and B  4iˆ  2 ˆj . Find a vector (1) 900
paralle to A but has magnitude five times (2) 300
that of B . (3) 600
(1) 20  2iˆ  3 ˆj 
(4) None
106. Vector A makes equal angles with
(2) 
20 4iˆ  3 ˆj  x, y and z -axis. Value of its components
(3) 20  2iˆ  ˆj  (in terms of magnitude of A )will be
10  2iˆ  ˆj 
A
(4) (1)
3
102. Two forces 3 N and 2 N are at an angle A
(2)
 such that the resultant is R. The first 2
force is now increased to 6N and the (3) 3A
resultant becomes 2R. The value of  is
3
(1) 300 (4)
A
(2) 600
107. If A  2iˆ  3 ˆj makes angle  with x-axis How much time will he take to cross the
then river if the river is 500 m wide?
3 5
(1) sin   (1) h
13 10
2 6
(2) cos   (2) h
13 10
3 7
(3) tan   (3) h
2 10
(4) All of these 8
(4) h
108. 50 coplanar forces each equal to 10N act 10
on a body. Each force makes 112. A man standing on a road has to hold his
angle 2 / 50 with the preceding force umbrella at 300 with the vertical to keep
.What is the resultan of the forces? the rain away. He throws the umbrella
(1) 1000N and starts running at 10 km/h. He finds
(2) 500N that raindrops are hitting his head
(3) 250 N vertically. Find the speed of raindrops
(4) Zero with respect to the ground
109. A boat moves with a speed of 5 km/h (1) 20 km/h
relative to water in a river flowing with a (2) 40 km/h
speed of 3 km/h and having a width of 1 (3) 10 km/h
km. The minimum time taken around a (4) 30 km/h
round trip is 113. A person is running on a horizontal road
(1) 5 min in vertically falling rain with a speed of 6
(2) 60 min km/hr. He observes that the rain is falling
(3) 20 min on him at an angle of 300 with the
(4) 30 min vertical. The velocity of the rain will be
110. A river is flowing from W to E with a (1) 6 km /hr
speed of 5m/min. A man can swim in
(2) 6 3 km / hr
still
water with a velocity 10 m/min. In which (3) 2 3 km / hr
direction should the man swim so as to (4) 2 km / hr
take the shortest possible path to go to 114. A boat is moving with velocity of 3iˆ  4 ˆj
the in river and water is moving with a
(1) 300 with downstream velocity of 3iˆ  4 ˆj with respect to
(2) 600 with downstream ground relative velocity of boat with
(3) 1200 with downstream respect to water is
(4) South (1) 6iˆ  8 ˆj
111. A man can swim in still water at a speed
(2) 6iˆ  8 ˆj
of 3 km/h. He wants to cross a river that
(3) 8iˆ
flows at 2 km/h and reach the point
directly opposite to his sarting point. (4) 6iˆ
115. If particle is moving eastwards with a different volumes V1 and V2 , where,
velocity of 5m/s. In 10s the velocity V1  V2 . If p plotted on Y-axis and T on
changes to 5 m/s northwards. The X-axis , then
average acceleration in this time is
(1) The curves for V1 has greater slope
(1) Zero
than that for V2
(2) 1/ 2 m / s 2 towards noth-east
1 (2) The curve for V2 has greater slope
(3) m / s 2 towards noth-west
2 thatn that for V1
1 (3) Both curves have same slope
(4) m / s 2 towards north
2 (4) The curves intersec at some point
116. The speed of a boat is 5km/h in still other than T = 0
water. It crosses a river of width 1km 120. Air is pumped into an automobile tube
along the shortest possible path in 20 upto a pressure of 200 kPa in the
minutes. The velocity of the river water morning when the air temperature
is is 220 C . During the day, temperature
(1) 1 km/h rises to 420 C and the tube expands by
(2) 3 km /h 2%. The pressure of the air in the tube at
(3) 4 km/h this temperature will be approximately
(4) 5 km/h
(1) 212 kPa
117. Rain is falling at an angle 300 with
(2) 209 kPa
vertical with velocity 2 m/s. It may
(3) 206 kPa
appear to fall vertically to a man who is
(4) 200 K
running with a speed.
121. The gas in a vessel is subjectd to a
(1) 1 m/s
pressure of 20 atm at a
(2) 2 m/s 0
temperature 27 C The pressure of the gas
3
(3) m/s in a vessel after one-half of the gas is
2
releases from the vessel and the
1
(4) m / s temperature of the remainder is raised by
2
500 C is :
118. Air is filled at 600 C in a vessel of open
mouth.The vessel is heated to a (1) 8.5 atm
temperature T so that 1/4th part of air (2) 18.8 atm
escapes. Assuming the volume of the (3) 11 atm
vessel remaining constant, the value of T (4) 17 atm
is 122. By what percentage should the pressure
of a given mass of gas be increased, so as
(1) 800 C
to decrease its volume by 10% at a
(2) 4440 C
constant temperature?
(3) 3330 C (1) 5%
(4) 1710 C (2) 7.2 %
119. The pressure p for a gas is plotted against (3) 12.5 %
its absolute temperature T for two (4) 11.1 %
123. Temperature remaining constant, the 127. The density    versus pressure (P) of a
pressure of gas is decreased by 20%. The given mass of an ideal gas is shown at
percentage change in volume two temperatures T1 and T2 may be
(1) Increases by 20%
(2) Decreases by 20%
(3) Increases by 25%
(4) Decreases by 25%
124. One litre of an ideal gas at 270 C is
heated at a constant pressure to the
2970 C .Then, the final volume is (1) T1  T2
approximately. (2) T2  T1
(1)1.2 L (3) T1  T2
(2) 1.9 L
(4) All the three are possible
(3) 19 L
128. Two spheres made of same substance
(4) 2.4 L have diameters in the ratio 1 : 2. Their
125. The equation of state for 5 g of oxygen at thermal capacities are in the ratio of :
a pressure P and temeperature T, when (1) 1: 2
occupying a volume V, will be :
(2) 1: 8
(1) PV  5 / 32 RT
(3) 1: 4
(2) PV  5RT (4) 2 :1
(3) PV  5 / 2 RT 129. A solid material is supplied with heat at
(4) PV   5 /16 RT constant rate and the temperature of the
material changes as shown . From the
126. Figure shows two flasks connected to
graph , the false conclusion drawn is
each other. The volume of the flask 1 is
twice that of flask 2. The system is filled
with an ideal gas at temperature 100 K
and 200 K respectively. If the mass of
the gas in flask 1 is m then what is the
mass of the gas in flask 2?

(1) AB and CD of the graph represent

phase changes
(2) AB represents the change of state
(1) m
from solid to liquid
(2) m/ 2
(3) latent heat of fusion is twice the
(3) m/ 4 latent heat of vaporisation
(4) m/8 (4) CD represents change of state from
liquid to vapour
130. An iron ball of mass 0.2 kg is heated to
1000 C and put into a block at ice
at 00 C .25 g of ice melts. If the latent heat
of fusion of ice is 80 cal g 1 , then the
specific heat of iron in cal g 1 0C is
(1) 1
(2) 0.1
(3) 0.8
(4) 0.08
131. 80gm of water at 300 C are poured on a (1) Specific heat capacity o the solid is
large block of ice at 00 C .The mass of ice 2 J kg 1 K 1
that melts is (2) Specific heat capacity of liquid phase
1
(1) 30 gm is J kg 1 K 1
(2) 80 gm 3
(3) 1600 gm (3) Latent heat of vaporisation is
(4) 150 gm 100 J kg 1
132. A water falls is 84 metres high. If half of (4) Latent heat of vaporisation is
the potential energy of the falling water 200 J kg 1
get converted to heat, the rise in 135. 10 gm of ice at 200 C is dropped into a
temperature of water will be calorimeter containing 10gm of water at
(1) 0.0980 C 100 C .The specific heat of water is twice
(2) 0.980 C that of ice. Neglect heat capacity of the
calorimeter. When equilibrium is
(3) 9.80 C
reached, the calorimeter will contain
(4) 0.00980 C (1) 10 gm ice and 10 gm of water
133. The specific heat of a substance varies (2) 20 gm of water
with temperature t  0C as (3) 5 gm ice and 15 gm of water
c  0.20  0.14t  0.023t 2  cal / gm0C  . The (4) 20 gm ice
CHEMISTRY
heat required to raise the temperature of 136. The number of significant figures in
2 gm of substance from 50 C to 150 C will 0.0045 are
be (1)Two
(1) 24 cal (2)Three
(2) 56 cal (3) Four
(3) 82 cal (4)Five
(4) 100 cal 137. Which of the following pairs can be cited
134. The temperature change versus heat as an example to illustrate the law of
supplied curve is given for 1 kg of a multiple proportion?
solids block. Then, which of the (1) Na2O, K 2O
following statement is correct? (2) CaO, MgO
(3) Al2O3 , Cr2O3
(4) CO, CO2
138. A mole is
(1) The amount of substance containing
the same number of chemical units as the
number of atoms in exactly 12g of C12 .
(2) The amount of substance containing (1) +6, 0, 0, +6
Avogadro number of chemical units. (2) +3, +1, +1, +3
(3) The SI unit for expressing amount of (3) +5, 0, 0, +5
a substance. (4) +4, +1, +1, +4
(4) All of the above 144. If 1 ml of water contains 20 drops, then
139. The mass of 1.5  1020 molecules of a the number of molecules in a drop of
substance is 20mg. The molar mass of water is
the substance is (1) 6 1023
(1) 20g (2) 1.376 1026
(2) 40g (3) 1.673 1021
(3) 80g (4) 4.34 1020
(4) 80 a.m.u 145. Three students A, B, C took
140. The simplest formula of a compound measurements as follows for a true value
containing 50% of element A (at.wt = 2.00g. Which of the following is correct
statement?
10) and 50% of element B (at.wt = 20) is
Student Measurements
(1) AB (1) (2) Average
(2) A2B A 1.95 1.93 1.940
(3) AB2 B 1.94 2.05 1.995
(4) A2B3 C 2.01 1.99 2.000
141. At 250C for a given solution M = m. (1) Measurements by student ‘A’ are
Then the correct relation between them if precise but not accurate.
the temperature is increased to 500C
(2) Measurements by student ‘B’ are
(1) M = m
neither precise nor accurate.
(2) M > m
(3) M = 2m (3) Measurements by student ‘C’ are
(4) M < m precise as well as accurate.
142. 15 c.c. of gaseous hydrocarbon required (4) All of the above are correct.
45 c.c. of oxygen forcomplete 146. Statement-I: 12C has atomic mass of
combustion and 30 c.c. of carbondioxide exactly 12 atomic mass unit (amu).
is formed. The formula of hydrocarbon is Statement-II: One amu is defined as a
(1) C3H6 mass exactly equal to 1/12 of the mass of
(2) C2H2 one carbon-12 atom.
(3) C4H10 Select the correct option:
(4) C2H4 (1) Only statement-I is correct.
143. The oxidation states of S atoms in S 4O62 (2) Only statement-II is correct.
(3) Both the Statement-I and II are
from left to right respectively are
correct.
(4) Statement-I and II both are incorrect.
147. Which of the following reactions is not (4) 5 2 1 3
correct according to the law of 151. An element X forms two oxides.
conservation of mass? Formula of the first oxide is XO2. The
(1) 2Mg ( g )  O2 ( g )  2MgO ( s) first oxide contains 50% of oxygen. If
(2) C3 H 8 ( g )  O2 ( g )  CO2 ( g )  H 2O ( g ) the second oxide contains 60% of
(3) P4 ( s)  5O2 ( g )  P4O10 ( s) oxygen, the formula of the second oxide
is
(4) CH 4 ( g )  2O2 ( g )  CO2 ( g )  2 H 2O ( g )
(1) XO3
148. (A): Empirical formula of glucose and
(2) X2O3
acetic acid is CH 2O .
(3) X3O2
(R): If percentage composition by mass
(4) X2O
of individual elements in different
compounds are same, then their 152. 0.72gm of an oxide of a metal M on
empirical formulae are same. reduction with H2 gave 0.64g of the
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is metal. The atomic weight of the metal is
the correct explanation of (A) 64. The empirical formula of the
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is compound is
not the correct explanation of (A) (1) MO
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (2) M2O
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (3) MO2
149. (A): 22.4L of N2 at STP and 5.6L O2 at (4) M2O3
STP contain equal number of molecules. 153. One mole of N2H4 loses 10 moles of
(R):Under similar conditions of electrons to form a new compound ‘X’.
temperature and pressure all gases Assuming that all the nitrogen appears in
contain equal number of atoms. the new compound, the oxidation state of
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is nitrogen in X is (there is no change in the
the correct explanation of (A) oxidation number of hydrogen)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is (1) -1
not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) -3
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) +3
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
150. List-I List-2 (4) +5
A) +3 state 1) Nitrogen 154. Electronegativity of carbon atoms
B) +1 state 2) Nitrous oxide depends upon their state of hybridisation.
C) 0 state 3)Nitrate ion In which of the following compounds,
D) +5 state 4) Hydroxylamine the carbon marked with asterisk is most
5) Nitrite ion electronegative?
The correct match is (1) CH 3  CH 2  *CH 2  CH 3
A B C D (2) CH 3  *CH  CH  CH 3
(1) 1 4 3 2
(3) CH 3  CH 2  C  *CH
(2) 5 2 4 3
(3) 4 5 3 1 (4) CH 3  CH 2  CH  *CH 2
155. The IUPAC name for 159. Number of structurally isomeric ethers
possible with the formula C 4 H10O are
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
(1) 1- chloro -2-nitro -4- methylbenzene 160. Identify the correct decreasing order of
(2) 1- chloro 4-methyl -2- nitrobenzene priority of the functional groups from the
(3) 2- chloro -1-nitro -5- methylbenzene following according to IUPAC
(4) m-nitro-p- chlorotolune nomenclature is
156. Which of the following is heterocyclic (1)
aromatic species?
(2)
(1)
(3)

(2) (4)

161. IUPAC name of the following compound

is
(3)

(4)
157. Which of the following statements is not
(1) 3-hydroxy-5-chlorobenzene
true about a homologous series?
carbonitrile
(1) Adjacent members of a group differ
(2)3-chloro-5-hydroxybenzene
by a mass of 14.
carbonitrile
(2)Adjacent members of a group differ
(3) 3-chloro-5-cyanophenol
by –CH2 group/
(4) 3-cyano-5-cyanophenol
(3) Members of a homologous series
162. IUPAC name of the following compound
have same general methods of
is
preparation
(4) Members of a homologous series
have the same physical and chemical
properties.
158. Cycloalkanes are isomeric with (1) 6- ethyl -1, 4, 8- octanetrioic acid
(1) Alkadienes
(2) 2-ethyl hexane-1,4,6-tricarboxylic
(2) Alkynes
acid
(3) Aromatic compounds
(3) 3-ethyl-5-carboxyl octanedioic acid
(4) Olefins
(4) 4-carboxy-6-ethylocatanedioic acid
163. Among the following, the pair that is not (1) 2
a pair of metamers is (2) 3
(1) CH3OCH2CH2CH3 & (3) 4
CH3CH2OCH2CH3 (4) 5
(2)CH3OCH2CH2CH3 & CH3OCH(CH3)2 168. (A): Butyne cannot exhibit chain
(3) CH3NHCH2CH2CH3& isomerism
CH3CH2NHCH2CH3 (R): Alkyne with minimum four carbons
(4) CH3COCH2CH2CH3 can only exhibit chain isomerism.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
&CH3CH2COCH2CH3
the correct explanation of (A)
164. List-I List-2
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
A) Dimethyl ether, 1) position not the correct explanation of (A)
ethyl alcohol isomers (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
B) Acetaldehyde, 2) Metamers (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
Acetone 169.
C) 2-Pentanone, 3)Functional isomers CN
3-Pentanone
D)n-Propylalcohol, 4)Chain isomers CH 3  CH 2  CO  CH  COOH
Isopropyl alcohol 5) Non isomers
The IUPAC name of the compound is
The correct match is
(1) 3-Ketonic -2-cyanopentanoic acid
A B C D
(2) Cyanoketohexanoic acid
(1) 5 3 2 1
(3) 3-Oxo-2-cyanopentanoicacid
(2) 3 5 2 1
(4) 2-Cyano-3-oxopentanoicacid
(3) 2 3 1 4
170. Which one of the following structure
(4) 3 2 1 5
represents 3–ethyl–4–methylhept-5-en–
165. CH 3  CH  CHO and
| 2- one?
CH 3

CH 3  CH 2  CH  CHO are a pair of

|
CH 3

(1) Position isomers (1)

(2) Metamers
(3) Chain isomers
(4) Homologues
166. The number of 10 , 20 and 30 amines (2)
possible with the formula C4 H11 N are
(Structural isomers Only)
(1) 5, 3 , 1
(3)
(2) 4, 3, 1
(3) 4, 3, 2
(4) 5, 2, 1
167. The number of aromatic isomers possible
for C7 H 8O is (4)
171. Ethanoyl chloride is the IUPAC name of List-I List-2
(1) CH3CH 2Cl A) Ionisation potential 1) Chlorine
(2) CH3COCl B) Electro negativity 2) Caesium
(3) Cl3CCHO C) Electron affinity 3) Helium
(4) CH2(Cl)COOH D) Oxidation state 4) Fluorine
172. The element with Z = 106 is named as 5) Osmium
(1) Fermium A B C D
(2) Seaborgium (1) 4 3 2 1
(3) Cerium (2) 3 4 1 5
(4) Promethium (3) 1 2 3 4
173. The correct sequence which shows (4) 2 1 4 5
decreasing order of the ionic radii of the 177. Statement-I: Helium is a s-block element
elements is as per definition
(1) Na   Mg 2  Al3  O2  F Statement-II: Electronic configuration of
thorium is [Rn] 7s26d15f1
(2) Na  >F >Mg 2 >O2 >Al3
(1) I & II are correct
(3) O2 >F  Na  >Mg 2 >Al3
(2) I & II are incorrect
(4) Al3 >Mg 2 >Na  >F >O2 (3) I is correct, II is incorrect
174. In which of the following process, (4) I is incorrect, II is incorrect
energy is absorbed? 178. Chemical similarity between Be and Al
(1) F( g )  e  F ( g ) is due to
(2) O( g )  e  O2( g ) (1) Diagonal relationship
(3) Cl( g )  e  Cl ( g ) (2) Both belong to same period
(3) Similar outer electronic configuration
(4) Li( g )  e  Lig 
(4) Inert pair effect
175. The atomic numbers of elements A, B, C 179. The correct increasing order of metallic
and D are z-1, z, z+1 and z+2, character of elements Si, Be, Mg, Na&P
respectively. If ‘B’ is a noble gas, choose is
the correct answers from the following (1) P < Be < Si < Na < Mg
statements:
(2) P > Si > Be > Mg > Na
(a) ‘A’ has higher electron affinity.
(3) P < Si < Be < Mg < Na
(b) ‘C’ can show +2 oxidation state.
(4) Na < Si < Mg < Be < P
(c) ‘D’ is an alkaline Earth metal.
180. Among a)Na2O; b)MgO; c)Al2O3;
(1) (a) and (b) d)P2O5 and e)Cl2O7 the most basic, most
(2) (b) and (c) acidic and amphoteric oxide can be
(3) (a) and (c) (1) a, b, c
(4) (a), (b) and (c) (2) b, e, c
176. Match the following in view of highest (3) a, e, c
values
(4) e, c, a