SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR ELITE (AP & TS) DATE: 15-03-2022
Sub: BOTANY NEET GRAND TEST - 3 Max.Marks: 720
Guidelines:
In every subject:
a) In Section-A, 35 Questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from Section-A
b) In Section-B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which answer 10 questions

BOTANY (2) Fucus – diplontic

SECTION – A (3) Funaria – haplodiplontic
01. Study of process of classification of all (4) Ficus – haplontic
living organisms is 06. Fleshy cylindrical modified green stem
(1) Ecology can be seen in
(2) Taxonomy (1) Opuntia
(3) Phylogeny (2) Euphorbia
(4) Pedology (3) Citrus
02. Holozoic mode of nutrition can be seen in (4) Bryophyllum
members of 07. Hypogynous flower are present in
(1) Monera (1) Chinarose
(2) Fungi (2) Plum
(3) Animalia (3) Guava
(4) Plantae (4) ray florets of sunflower
03. Asexual spores generally not found in
08. Match the following.
members of
(A)Valvate (I) Cassia
(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Ascomycetes (B) Twisted (II) Calotropis
(3) Basidiomycetes (C) Imbricate (III) Cotton
(4) Deuteromycetes (D) Vexillary (IV) Pea
04. Select the correct match (1) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
(A)Chlorophyceae (I) Dictyota (2) A – II, B – III, C –IV , D – I
(B) Phaeophyceae (II) Udorina (3) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV
(C) Liverworts (III) Funaria (4) A – I, B – II, C – IV, D – III
(D) Mosses (IV) Marchantia
(1) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
% O K 5 C1+2+ 2 A 9 +1 G1
+ ( ) ( ) ( )
09. given
(2) A – II, B – I, C – III, C – IV floral formula is associated with family
(3) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III (1) Cruciferae
(4) A – I, B – II, C – IV, D – III (2) Fabaceae
05. Choose the incorrect match with regard to (3) Solanaceae
the life cycle
(4) Liliaceae
(1) Chlamydomonas – haplontic

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10. Classification of bacteria as Gram (2) Nitrite reductase
positive and Gram negative is based on (3) Nitrogenase
difference in (4) Transaminase
(1) Plasma membrane 16. Which one of the following is not
(2) Cell organelles essentially required for chemiosmosis ?
(3) Cell envelope (1) Membrane
(4) Cell shape (2) Proton pump
11. Which of the following is important site (3) Proton gradient
of formation of glycoproteins and (4) NADP reductase
glycolipids 17. Which of the following is primary CO2
(1) SER acceptor in C4 plants ?
(2) RER (1) Rubisco
(3) Golgi apparatus (2) Pepcase
(4) Lysosome (3) RuBP
12. Identify the type of chromosome. (4) PEP
18. Which of the following phase involve a
major reorganisation of virtually all
components of the cell ?
(1) G1 - phase
(2) S – phase
(1) Acentric chromosome (3) G2 - phase
(2) Submetacentric chromosome (4) M – phase
(3) Acrocentric chromosome
19. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was
(4) Telocentric chromosome
proposed by
13. S − G + S ' → S + S '− G , given prototype
(1) Sturtevant
chemical reaction catalysed by enzyme
(2) Morgan
class
(3) Hershey & Chase
(1) Oxidoreductase
(2) Transferases (4) Sutton & Boveri
(3) Hydrolases 20. Internal fertilisation absent in
(4) Lyases (1) Bryophytes
14. Select out the incorrect match regarding (2) Most of algae
to absorbable form of the concerning (3) Gymnosperms
mineral (4) Pteridophytes
(1) Nitrogen - NO3− 21. Which of the following intermediate of
(2) Iron - Fe ++ Glycolysis take part in oxidation step ?
(3) Sulphur - SO 24− (1) Fructose – 1, 6 – di phosphate
(2) DHAP
(4) Boron - BO33−
(3) PGAL
15. Which of the following enzyme is highly
(4) 1, 3 di PGA
sensitive to the molecular oxygen?
(1) Nitrate reductase
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22. In which of the following plant group (2) 2/16
there is no correlation between exposure (3) 4/16
to light duration and flowering ? (4) 8/16
(1) SDP 27. Select the incorrect match.
(2) LDP (1) φ ×174 phages − 5386 bp
(3) DNP
(2) Lambda phage = 48502 bp
(4) LNP
(3) E.coli - 4.6 ×106 bp
23. How many cells are present in egg
apparatus ? (4) Human genome - 3.3 ×109 bp
(1) 4 28. During replication, discontinuously
synthesised DNA fragments are later
(2) 8 joined by
(3) 3 (1) Polymerase
(4) 1 (2) Helicase
(3) Ligase
24. Which of the following is not a device to
(4) Topoisomerase
prevent inbreeding ?
29. Which of the following is synthesised by
(1) non synchronised pollen release and
RNA polymerase –III ?
stigma receptivity
(1)hnRNA
(2) Placement of anther & stigma at
different position (2) 18s rRNA
(3) Presence of both stamen & carpel in (3) 5s rRNA
same flower (4) 28s rRNA
(4) Self incompatibility 30. Atlas 66, is the variety of
25. (i) Expression of only one of the parental (1) Wheat
trait in F1 (2) Rice
(ii) Expression of both of parental traits in (3) Maize
F2 (4) Cotton
(iii) 3 : 1 phenotype 31. Activated sludge method is the
Out of given conclusions which can be (1) Primary treatment of water
explained by law of dominance ? (2) Secondary treatment of water
(1) i & ii only (3) Tertiary treatment of water
(2) i & iii only (4) Quaternary treatment of water
(3) ii & iii only 32. Which of the following is cloning vector?
(4) i, ii & iii (1) pBR322
26. In Mendelian dihybrid F2 generation, (2) ECoRI
what is the proportion of double (3) Bam HI
homozygous (4) Bacteria
(1)1/16
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33. Statement A: Choice of cry gene depends 39. Match the coloumn.
on the crop but not on targeted pest. (A) First plasmid to
(I) PBR322
Statement B: RNAi takes place in all be used as vector
eukaryotic organisms as method of (B) First restriction
cellular defense. endonuclease to be (II) PSC101
(1) Both statements A & B are correct (2) isolated
Statement A is correct but statement B is (C) First transgenic
(III) ECoRI
incorrect crop/plant
(3) Both statements A & B are incorrect (D) First insect
(IV) Hind II
(4) Statement A is incorrect but resistant plant
statement B is correct (V) Antibiotic
34. Phytoplankton stage of succession is resistant tobacco
replaced by (VI) Bt-Cotton
(1) Submered rooted plant (1) A – I, B – III, C – V, D – VI
(2) Marsh meadow (2) A – II, B – IV, C – V, D – VI
(3) Free floating plants (3) A – II, B – IV, C – VI, D – V
(4) Reed swamp (4) A – I, B – III, C – VI, D – V
35. Which of the following is gaseous cycle 40. Select the correct match
(1) Carbon cycle (1) Oranamental – Tulip
(2) Nitrogen cycle (2) Medicinal – Gloriosa
(3) Sulphur cycle (3) Vegetables – Colchicum
(4) Both 1 & 2 (4) Fodder – Indigofera
SECTION – B 41. Which of the following is most abundant
36. Which of the following is defining protein of animal world ?
property of living organisms ? (1) Rubisco
(1) Growth
(2) Collagen
(2) Reproduction
(3) Cellulose
(3) Consciousness
(4) Memory (4) H 2O
37. Select the incorrect match 42. Which of the following fungal genus
(1) Chrysophytes – Diatoms commonly involved in mycorrhiza
(2) Euglenoids – Plantae formation ?
(3) Slime moulds – Saprophytic protists (1) Albugo
(4) Protozoans – Heterotrophic protists (2) Glomus
38. Which of the following event is a (3) Trichoderma
precursor to seed habit ?
(4) Yeast
(1) Vascular tissue development
43. Dyad of cells form during
(2) Formation of flower as reproductive
structure (1) Metaphase – I
(3) Lack of archegonium (2) Telophase – I
(4) Development of zygotes into young (3) Anaphase – II
embryos within female gametophyte (4) Telophase – II
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44. Pusa gaurav is the variety of (1) Both statements A & B are correct (2)
(1) Aphids Statement A is correct but statement B is
(2) Brassica incorrect
(3) Cowpea (3) Both statements A & B are incorrect
(4) Cauliflower (4) Statement A is incorrect but
45. Statement A: CaCl2 causes the DNA statement B is correct
fragments to precipitate on the cell wall 49. Which of the following is not a purpose
and improves DNA binding on wall. of transpiration ?
Statement B: All endonucleases are (1) Absorption of water
restriction endonucleases. (2) Cools leaf surface
(1) Both statements A & B are correct (2) (3) Supplies water for photosynthesis
Both statements A & B are incorrect (3) (4) Active absorption of minerals
Statement A is correct but statement B is 50. Movement of molecules across
incorrect membrane independent of other
(4) Statement A is incorrect but molecules, called
statement B is correct (1) Uniport
46. Match the coloumn. (2) Antiport
(A)Formation of (I) Downstream (3) Coport
recombinant DNA processing (4) Symport
(B) Separaton & ZOOLOGY
(II) Biosynthetic SECTION – A
purification of
phase 51. Which of the following character is
recombinant protein
(C) Pest resistant related to Branchiostoma?
(III) Bt-brinjal (1) Proboscis gland
plant
(D) Pesticide (IV) Roundup (2) Green gland
resistant plant ready tobacco (3) Pharyngeal gills
(V) Flavr Savr (4) Kidneys
tomato 52. The second trophic level in a terrestrial
(1) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV ecosystem is represented by
(2) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III (1) Molluscs and fishes
(3) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV (2) Lions and tigers
(4) A – II, B – I, C – V, D – IV (3) Insects and fruigivorous birds
47. Which of the following promotes bolting (4) Man and eagle
(1) Auxin 53. Choose the set of animals with flight
(2) Gibberellin adaptations
(3) Cytokinin (a) Columba (b) Struthio
(4) Ethylene (c) Hemidactylus (d) Pteropus
48. Statement A: Oxygen is the final (1) a, b, d
hydrogen acceptor of aerobic respiration. (2) b, c
Statement B: Presence of oxygen is vital (3) a, b, c
for removing hydrogen from Glycolysis, (4) a, d
link reaction and krebs cycle
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54. Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos islands 61. Differentiation of T-lymphocytes is
became extinct due to mainly influenced by
(1) Competition (1) Thyroxine
(2) Over exploitation (2) Parathyroid hormone
(3) Habitat loss (3) Thymosins
(4) Pollution (4) Melatonin
55. Myoglobin is found in 62. Arrange the following green house gases
(1) sarcosomes in a sequence based on their percentage of
(2) sarcoplasmic reticulum contribution and choose the correct
(3) sarcoplasm option.
(4) sarcolemma (a) N 2O (b) CFCs
56. Choose incorrect statement about (c) CH 4 (d) CO2
thyroxine (1) a – b – c – d
(1) It is secreted by thyroid follicles (2) d – b – c - a
(2) Triiodothyronine (3) a – c – b – d
(3) Regulates BMR
(4) d – c – a – b
(4) Supports RBC formation 63. Sinus venosus of frog receives blood
57. Fish like reptile from
(1) Coelacanth (1) Pulmonary veins
(2) Stegosaurus (2) Vena cavae
(3) Ichthyophis (3) Pulmonary arteries
(4) Ichthyosaur (4) Right atrium
58. Menstruation occurs if the released ovum 64. Identify correct set of matching and
is not fertilised. Which of the following
choose the correct option.
induces menstruation?
Column – I Column – II
(1) Regeneration of endometrium
(A)Mast cells (i) Collagen
(2) Degeneration of corpus luteum
(B) Goblet cells (ii) Mucous
(3) Raising levels of gonadotropins
(C) JG cells (iii) Histamine
(4) Development of ovarian follicles
(D) Fibroblasts (iv) Renin
59. Mating of unrelated animals with in the
(E) Paneth cells (v) Lysozyme
same breed is
(1) A – iii, B – i, C – v, D – ii, E - iv
(1) inbreeding
(2) cross breeding (2) A – iii, B – v, C – ii, D – i, E - iv
(3) outcrossing (3) A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D – i, E – v
(4) interspecific hybridisation (4) A – iii, B – iv, C – i, D – ii, E –v
60. Aneuploidy due to loss of a chromosome 65. The epithelium found in alveoli is also
is exemplified by seen in
(1) Turner’s syndrome (1) Fallopian tube
(2) Klinefelier’s syndrome (2) PCT
(3) Down’s syndrome
(3) Bronchioles
(4) Edward’s syndrome
(4) Endothelium

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66. Which enzyme is not found in succus (2) Aravalli hills
entericus? (3) Sarguja
(1) Enterokinase (4) Deorai
(2) Maltase 72. Statement-I: Clotting disorders can lead
(3) Amylase to severe blood loss during injury.
(4) Lipase Statement-II: Haemophilia and
67. Invasive weed species thrombocytopaenia enhance coagulation
(1) Carrot grass of blood.
(2) African cat fish (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are
(3) Nile perch correct
(4) Bamboo (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are
68. ‘Universal recipients’ can donate blood to incorrect
persons with (3) Statement-I is correct and statement-II
(1) AB blood type is wrong
(2) O blood type (4) Statement-I is wrong and
(3) A or B statement-II is correct
(4) All the above 73. Cannabinoid
69. Choose incorrect statement about PCT of (1) morphine
nephron. (2) crack
(1) 70 to 80% of electrolytes and water (3) smack
are reabsorbed (4) charas
(2) Aldosterone aided absorption of Na 74. Choose the correct set of bones in human
and water body
(3) Nearly all of the essential nutrients are (1) Frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid – Cranial
reabsorbed bones
(4) Simple cuboidal brush border (2) Humerus, carpals, metatarsals – Hand
epithelium increases the surface area of bones
reabsorption. (3) Malleus, incus, scapula – ear ossicles
70. Match the follosing and choose correct (4) Femur, patella, ulna – leg bones
option. 75. Match the contents of column I with
Column – I Column – II column II and choose correct option with
(A) Sertoli cells (i) Fallopian tube reference to human.
(B) Zona Pellucida (ii) Seminiferous tubules List – I List – II
(C) Ampulla (iii) Ovum (A)Bipolar cells (i) Optic nerve
(D) Foreskin (iv) Glanspenis (B) Blind spot (ii) Scala media
(E) Hymen (v) Vaginal opening
(C) Macula (iii) Retina
(1) A – iii, B – i, C – v, D – ii, E - iv
(D) Organ of Corti (iv) Utricle
(2) A – ii, B – i, C – iii, D – v, E - iv
(1) A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D – i
(3) A – ii, B – iii, C – i, D – iv, E – v
(2) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii
(4) A – iii, B – iv, C – i, D – ii, E –v
71. Sacred grove of Rajasthan (3) A – ii, B – iii, C – iv, D – i
(1) Jaintia hills (4) A – iii, B – i, C – ii, D – iv

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76. The no. of heart beats and duration of (2) Chlamydiasis
each cardiac cycle in a person with a (3) Syphilis
cardiac output of 7 litres is (4) Cancer
(1) 100 times, 0.6 seconds 81. An autosomal recessive Mendelian
(2) 90 times, 0.8 seconds disorder
(3) 80 times, 0.8 seconds (1) Colourblindness
(4) 120 times, 0.5 seconds (2) β -Thalassemia
77. Statement-I: Old age people are more
(3) Haemophilia
prone to diseases.
Statement-II: Degeneration of thymus in (4) Myotonic dystrophy.
old aged people leads to 82. Which of the following represents correct
immunodeficiency. pair?
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are (1) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils
correct of Cucurbita – Analogous organs
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are (2) Eyes of octopus and whale –
incorrect Homologous organs
(3) Statement-I is correct and statement-II (3) Wings of butterfly and pigeon –
is wrong analogous organs
(4) Statement-I is wrong and (4) Beaks of Galapagos finches –
statement-II is correct Convergent evolution
78. Choose incorrect statement about 83. Choose correct combination with
malpighian tubules of cockroach. reference to population interactions.
(1) 100 – 150 yellow coloured, Name Example
filamentous structures
(1) Mutualism Egret and cattle
(2) They are seen at the junction of mid
(2) Competition Zooplankton and
gut and foregut
flemingo
(3) Excrete uric acid into hindgut
(4) They play a role in osmoregulation (3) Commensalism Staphylococcus
and Pencillium
79. Which of the following is incorrect about
gaseous exchange at systemic tissues? (4) Parasitism Ticks on dog

(1) HCO3− formed in RBC diffuse into 84. Water Act was introduced in
plasma (1) 1972
(2) 1986
(2) Oxyhaemoglobin undergoes
(3) 1974
dissociation due to low H +
(4) 2002
(3) Carbonic anhydrase catalises the
85. Most feared property of malignant tumors
dissociation of H 2CO3
(1) Contact inhibition
(4) Haemoglobin binds to CO2 (2) Metastasis
80. Which of the following STD is not (3) Tumor antigens
completely curable? (4) Uncontrolled growth
(1) Genital herpes
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 SECTION – B (2) Head of femur articulates with glenoid
86. Sphincter of Oddi guards the opening of cavity of pelvic girdle
(1) hepato-pancreatic duct (3) Intervertebral discs form cartilaginous
(2) common bile duct joint between adjacent vertebrae
(3) cystic duct (4) Clavicle articulates with xiphoid
(4) pancreatic duct process.
87. Identify the correctly matched set of 91. Amygdala of human brain is a part of
animals with their characteristics. (1) Limbic system
Animals Characteristics (2) Corpora quadrigemina
Radially (3) Cerebellum
Seaurchin,
symmetrical, spiny (4) Hypothalamus
(1) brittle star,
bodied marine 92. Which of the following signals of
star fish
animals placenta induce foetal ejection reflex?
Bangarus, (1) Decrease in progesterone and estrogen
Dry cornified skin,
(2) Alligator, ratio
two pairs of limbs
Calotes (2) Increased secretion of cortisol
Ascaris, Intestinal parasites, (3) Secretion of prolactin
(3) Ancylostoma, males and females (4) Secretion of oxytocin by foetus
Wuchereria are distinct 93. Choose the correct set.
Canis, Target
Terrestrial, Hormone Function
(4) Macropus, cells/gland
viviparous
Delphinus Adeno Secretion
(1) GnRH
88. Volume of air that remains in the lungs hypophysis of ADH
after a forcible expiration Secretion
(1) Functional residual capacity Adrenal of
(2) Corticotrophin
medulla Gluco
(2) Residual volume
corticoids
(3) Expiratory capacity
Sleep wake
(4) Vital capacity (3) Melanotrophin Melanocytes
cycle
89. A patient suffering with diabetes
Secretion
insipidus excretes Leydig
(4) LH of
(1)large amounts of water with glucose cells
androgens
and ketones 94. Which of the following diseases are water
(2) large amounts of water without borne?
glucose and ketones (a) Hepatitis B
(3) highly concentrated urine (b) Typhoid
(4) low amounts of water with ketones (c) Amoebiasis
and high sodium. (d) Ascariasis
90. Which of the following bones represents (e) Pneumonia
the correct articulation? (1) a, b, c
(1) True ribs articulate dorsally with the (2) b, c, d
cervical vertebrae (3) b, c, e
(4) a, b, d
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95. The possible no. of genotypes and
phenotypes of children born to a couple
with AB and O blood group are
(1) 2 phenotypes, 3 genotypes
(2) 3 phenotypes, 3 genotypes
(3) 1phenotype, 2 genotypes
(4) 2 phenotypes, 2 genotypes
96. Assertion (A): Very small animals are
rarely found in polar regions.
Reason(R): Small animals have a larger
surface area relative to their volume and
tend to lose body heat in cold climate.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but
the reason is not the correct explanation
of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false
97. Secondary pollutant
(1) CO
(2) SO2
(3) Particulate matter
(4) Ozone
98. Stratfication is least defined in
(1) Grasslands
(2) Tropical rainforest
(3) Coniferous forest
(4) Deciduous forest
99. Identify the correct set of matching
between the contents of column I and
column II.
Column – I Column – II
(A) Homo habilis (i) 650 – 800 c.c
(B) Homo erectus (ii) 900 c.c
(C) Modern man (iii) 1350 c.c
(D) Neanderthal man (iv) 350 – 400 c.c
(E) Australopithecines (v) 1400 c.c
(1) A – i, B – iii, C – ii, D – v, E – iv
(2) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv, E – v
(3) A – i, B – iii, C – ii, D – iv, E – v
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(4) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – v, E – iv
100. Choose incorrect match from the
following.
(1) GIFT – Transfer of zygote into
fallopian tube
(2) ICSI – Sperm is injected into ovum
(3) Condoms – Prevent insemination in
vagina
(4) Oral pills – Inhibit ovulation
PHYSICS
SECTION – A
101. The RMS speed of oxygen molecules in a
gas is V. If the temperature is doubled
and the oxygen molecules dissociate into
oxygen atoms, the RMS speed will
become
(1) V
(2) V 2
(3) 2V
(4) 4V
102. The thickness of a glass plate is measured
to be 2.17 mm, 2.17 mm and 2.18 m at
three different places. The average
thickness of plate taking into account
significant figures is
(1) 2.175 mm
(2) 2.17 mm
(3) 2.18 mm
(4) 2.00 mm
103. A tunning fork of frequency 256 Hz
produces 4 beats per second with a wire
of length 32 cm vibrating in its
fundamental mode. The minimum length
by which the wire be shortened so that it
produces no beats with the fork is
(1) 0.50 cm
(2) 0.25 cm
(3) 0.62 cm
(4) 0.12 cm
104. The count rate from a radioactive sample 108. The frequency and intensity of a light
falls from 4 × 106 per second to 1 × 106 per source are both doubled. Consider the
second in 20 hours. The count rate 60 following statements.
hours after the beginning is A. The saturation photo current remains
1 the same
(1) × 106 s −1
32 B. The maximum kinetic energy of the
1 photoelectrons is doubled
(2) × 106 s −1
8 (1) Both A, B are true
1 (2) A is true, B is false
(3) × 106 s −1
64
(3) A is false, B is true
1
(4) × 106 s −1 (4) Both A, B are false
16
109. A spherical volume contains a uniformly
105. The dimensional formula of gravitational
distributed charge of density
constant is −4
2 × 10 C / m . The electric field at a point
3

(1) ML2T −2
inside the volume at a distance 4 cm from
(2) M −1L3T −2 centre is approximately
(3) M −1 L2T −2 (1) 3 × 105 NC −1
(4) ML3T −1 (2) 3 × 104 NC −1
106. An amount Q of heat is added to a (3) 2 × 105 NC −1
monoatomic ideal gas in a process in
(4) 3 × 107 NC −1
which the gas performs a work Q/2 on its
surroundings. The molar heat capacity for 110. A ray of light passing through an
the process is equililateral prism made of a material of
refractive index 1.732 undergoes
(1) 4R
minimum deviation. The angle of
5R incidence is
(2)
2
(1) 30º
3R
(3) (2) 60º
2
(3) 45º
(4) 3R
(4) 75º
107. A parallel beam of monochromatic light
of wavelength 620 nm is incident 111. A battery of emf 2V and internal
normally on a perfectly absorbing resistance 0.5Ω is connected across a
surface. The power of the beam is 30W. resistance of 9.5Ω . The number of
The force exerted by the beam on the electrons that cross through a cross-
surface is section of the resistance in 2seconds is
(1) 10 × 10−8 N (1) 1.6 × 1018
(2) 2 × 10−8 N (2) 5 × 1018
(3) 16 × 10−8 N (3) 2.5 × 1018
(4) 24 × 10−8 N (4) 6.4 × 1018

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112. The magnetic field B inside a long (1) Increase
solenoid carrying a current of 5A is (2) Decrease
3.14 × 10 −2 T . The number of turns per unit (3) Remains same
lengths of the solenoid is
(4) Become zero
(1) 2 × 103 turns /m
117. A wire of length 4m and cross-sectional
(2) 8 × 10 turns /m
3
area 1mm 2 is carrying a current of 2A. If
(3) 3 × 103 turns /m each cubic metre of the wire material
(4) 5 × 103 turns /m contains 1029 free electrons, the average
113. An electric field of 20Vm −1 exists along time taken by an electron to cross the
positive X-axis in space. The potential length of wire is
difference VB − VA between two points A (1) 3.2 × 104 s
and B given by co-ordinates A (0, 0) and (2) 8.4 × 104 s
B (4m, 2m) is given by (3) 1.7 × 108 s
(1) −40 5V (4) 5.6 × 108 s
(2) 40 V 118. The wire AB shown is 40 cm long.
(3) 80 V Where should the free end of
(4) −80V galvanometer be connected on AB so that
the galvanometer shows null deflection?
114. When a drop of oil is spread on a water
surface, it displays beautiful colours in
day light because of
(1) Dispersion of light
(2) Reflection of light
(3) Polarization of light
(4) Interference of light
115. It is required to construct a 10µ F (1) 24 cm from A
capacitor which can be connected across (2) 16 cm from A
a 200V battery. Capacitors of capacitance (3) 22 cm from B
10µ F are available but they can withstand (4) 18 cm from B
only 50V. The minimum number of 119. The magnetic field B and the magnetic
capacitors required which can yield the intensity H in a material are found to be
desired result is 1.6 T and 103 Am −1 respectively. The
(1) 16 relative permeability µr of the material is
(2) 12 6
(1) × 103
(3) 10 π
(4) 20 (2) 2.4π × 103
116. A spring – mass system oscillates in a 4
(3) × 103
car. If the car accelerates on a horizontal π
road, the frequency of oscillation will (4) 4π × 103
Sri Chaitanya Page 12
120. Three particles of masses 1kg, 2 kg and 123. A wire of length L carries a current I
3kg are placed at the corners A, B and C along the X-axis. A magnetic field exists
respectively of an equilateral triangle ( )
which is given as B = B0 i + j + k T . The
ABC of side 1m. Location of centre of
magnetic force acting on the wire is
mass of system taking AB as X-axis and
A as origin is (1) Zero
(2) 2B0 IL
1 1 
(1)  m, m
2 2 (3) B0 IL
7 3  (4) 2B0 IL
(2)  m, m
 12 4  124. A ball is thrown horizontally from a point
1
100 m above the ground with a speed of
3 
(3)  m, m 40ms −1 . The velocity with which it strikes
2 4 
the ground is ( g = 10ms −2 )
 3 3 
(4)  m, m (1) 60ms −1
 4 4 
(2) 80ms −1
121. For transistionr action, which of the
(3) 100ms −1
following statements is correct?
(4) 40ms −1
(1) The base region must be very thin
and lightly doped 125. A mercury drop of radius R splits into 8
identical droplets. If surface tension of
(2) Base, emitter and collector regions
mercury is T, the increase in surface
should have same doping concentrations
energy is
(3) Base, emitter and collector should
(1) 32π R 2T
have same size
(2) 2π R 2T
(4) Both emitter junction as well as the
collectors junction are forward biased (3) 4π R 2T
(4) 8π R 2T
122. A body rotating at 20 rad s −1 is acted upon
by a constant torque provding it a 126. In a Atwood machine, two masses m and
2m are connected by a string going over a
deceleration of 2 rad s −2 . The time after
clamped smooth pulley. The system is
which the body will have the same kinetic
released from rest. The distance travelled
energy as the initial value if the same
by lighter block in first two seconds is
torque continues to act
5g
(1) 15 s (1)
2
(2) 5 s 2g
(2)
(3) 20 s 3
(4) 40 s 4g
(3)
3
g
(4)
2

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127. The length of a potentiometer wire is 1m ∆l
(1)
and its resistance is 4Ω . A current of l
5mA is flowing in it. An unknown source  ∆l 
2

(2)  
of emf is balanced on 40 cm length of this  l 
wire. The emf of source is
∆l
(1) 15 mV (3)
l
(2) 20 mV l
(4)
(3) 5 mV ∆l
(4) 8 mV 132. A steel frame of coefficient of thermal
128. The energy equivalent of 5g of a conductivity K = 45 W m −1 K −1 of length
substance is 60 cm and cross – sectional are 0.2 m 2 ,
(1) 4.5 × 1013 J forms three sides of a square. The free
(2) 45 × 1013 J ends are maintained at 20ºC and 40ºC.
The rate of heat flow through the frame is
(3) 4.5 × 1016 J
(1) 200 W
(4) 45 × 1016 J
(2) 300 W
129. The logic expression for the given gate is
(3) 450 W
A Y (4) 600 W
133. In an unbiased semiconductor diode, the
(1) A+ 0 = A barrier potential opposes the motion of
(2) A+ A =1 (1) Free electrons from n – region
(3) A+ A = 0 (2) Holes from p – region
(4) A + A = A (3) Majority carries from both l and n
130. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area regions
A is charged by a constant current I. The (4) Minority carries from both P and n
displacement current through a plane regions
surface of area A/2 parallel to plates and 134. The main scale of a vernier calipers is
drwans symmetrically between the plates calibrated in mm and 19 divisions on
is mainscale are equal in length to 20
I divisions of vernier scale. In measuring
(1)
4 the diameter of a cylinder by this
(2) I instrument, the main scale reads 35
I divisions and the 4th division of verneir
(3)
2 coinsides with a main scale division. The
(4) Zero radius of cylinder is
131. When a metal wire of length ‘l’ is (1) 3.52 cm
stretched by a load, the fractional change (2) 1.76 cm
∆V (3) 3.64 cm
in its volume is proportional to
V
(4) 1.82 cm
Sri Chaitanya Page 14
135. The height above the earth’s surface
where acceleration due to gravity is 1%
less than its value at the surface
( Re = 6400 Km)
139. The Binding energy per nucleon of 37 Li
and 42 He nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06
MeV respectively. In the nuclear reaction
3 Li +1 H → 2 2 He + Q , the value of energy
7 1 4

(1) 16 km Q released is
(2) 32 km (1) 2.4 MeV
(2) 8.4 MeV
(3) 64 km
(3) 17.3 MeeV
(4) 32 2 km
(4) 19.6 MeV
SECTION – B 140. Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm
136. A and B are two far away points on the is coming from a star. The limit of
axis and perpendicular bisector resolution of a telescope whose objective
respectively for an electric dipole. Let VA has a diameter of 2m is
and VB be the potantials at A and B (1) 6.00 × 10−7 rad
respectively. Then (2) 3.66 × 10 −7 rad

(1) VA = VB (3) 1.83 × 10−7 rad

(4) 7.32 × 10−7 rad
(2) VA = 2VB
141. A barometer reads 75 cm of mercury.
(3) VA ≠ 0,VB = 0 When 2cm3 of air at atmospheric pressure
is introduced into the space above the
(4) VA = 0,VB = 0 mercury level, the volume of this space
137. An inductor may store energy in becomes 50cm3 . The length by which the
mercury column descends is
(1) Its electric field
(1) 3 cm
(2) Its coils
(2) 4.6 cm
(3) Its magnetic field (3) 2.2 cm
(4) Both in electric and magnetic fileds (4) 8 cm
138. An inductor coil joined to a 6V battery 142. One kg of ice at 0ºC is mixed with one kg
draws a steady current of 12A. This coil of steam at 100ºC. At thermal equilibrium
is connected to a capacitor and an AC the mass of water in the mixture is
source of RMS voltage 6V in series. If the (1) 1 kg
current is in phase with the emf, the (2) 2 kg
amplitude of current is 4
(3) kg
(1) 6 2A 3
(2) 12 A 1
(4) kg
3
(3) 12 2A
(4) 6A
Sri Chaitanya Page 15
143. A hemispherical smooth bowl of radius R (2) Isothermal
is set rotating about its axis of symmetry (3) Adiabatic
which is kept vertical. A small block kept
(4) Isochoric
in the bowl rotates with the bowl without
slipping on its surface. If ‘ θ ’ is the 146. A spherical black body of radius r
angular position of block with the radiates thermal energy. If its rate of
vertical, the angular speed of rotation of cooling is R, then
bowl is (1) R ∝ r
g cos θ 1
(1) (2) R ∝
R r

g sin θ (3) R ∝ r 2
(2)
R 1
(4) R ∝
r3
g
(3)
R sin θ 147. Match the following

g Column A Column B
(4)
R cos θ a. Quality factor e. 1 2
LI
2
144. A block of mass 10 kg is placed at the
point A of a rough track. It is gently b. Self induction f. VI cos φ
pushed towards right. If it stops at the coefficient
point B of track, the work done by the
c. Average power g. Lω 0 / R
frictional force in going from A to B is
( g = 10ms )
−2 d. Magnetic energy h. ε
( dI / dt )
a b c d
(1) g f h e
(2) f e h g
(1) 100 J (3) g h f e
(2) 80 J (4) e f g h
(3) 20 J 148. When an open organ pipe resonates in its
(4) 60 J fundamental mode, then at the centre of
145. Two cylinders A and B are equal capacity pipe
are connected to each other via a stop (1) Displacement antinode is formed
cock. A contains an ideal gas at standard (2) The gas molecules are at rest
temperature and pressure, B is completely
(3) The pressure of the gas is constant
evacuated. The entire system is thermally
insulated. The stop cock is suddenly (4) The gas molecules undergo
opened. The process is vibrations of maximum amplitude
(1) Isobaric
Sri Chaitanya Page 16
149. A converging lens of focal length 60 cm 153. The number of Faradays (F) required to
is placed infront of and coaxially with a produce 9 g of aluminium from molten
convex mirror of focal length 10cm. Their AlF3 is
separation is d. If a parallel beam of light (1) 2
incident on lens returns as a parallel (2) 3
beam, then d is (3) 4
(1) 100 cm (4) 1
(2) 20 cm 154. An element has a face centered cubic
(3) 40 cm (fcc) structure with a cell edge of 294pm.
The atomic radius is
(4) 10 cm
2
150. Monochromatic radiation of wavelength (1) × 294pm
4
λ is incident on a hydrogen sample in
4
ground state. Hydrogen atoms absorb (2) × 294pm
3
energy and subsequently emit radition of
4
six different wavelengths. The energy of (3) × 294pm
the incident radiation is 2
3
(1) 0.85 eV (4) × 294pm
4
(2) 12.75 eV
155. Which of the following amine does not
(3) 108.8 eV give carbylamine test?
(4) 40.2 Ev (1) Aniline
CHEMISTRY (2) Secondary butyl amine
SECTION – A (3) Tertiary butyl amine
151. On hydrolysis with dil. H 2SO 4 , starch (4) Ethyl methylamine
156. Ethoxy benzene on cleavage with HI
and cellulose give ‘X’ and ‘Y’. Then ‘X’
gives
and ‘Y’ are a pair of I
(1) Enantiomers
(2) Anomers
+CH3OH
(3) Functional isomers (1)
(4) Homologues OH
152. Elimination reaction of 2-Fluoro-pentane
to form pent-1- ene is +C2H5I

(a) β -Elimination reaction (2)

I
(b) Follows Zaitsev rule or Saytzeff rule
(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
+C2H5OH
(d) Follows Hofmann’s rule
(3)
(1) (a), (c), (d) OH
(2) (b), (c), (d)
(3) (a), (b), (d) +CH3I
(4) (a), (b), (c) (4)

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157. Stability of alkyl carbocations can be (2) 5 × 10 −4
explained by
(3) 2 × 10 −3
(1) Electromeric effect
(2) Inductive effect (4) 10 −2
(3) Hyper conjugation 163. Which one of the following statements is
(4) Both 2, 3 not true ?
158. Correct order of increasing field strength (1) Natural rubber has the trans-
of ligands is configuration at every double bond.
(2) Buna-S is a copolymer of butadiene
(1) I − < Cl− < H 2O < CN −
and styrene.
(2) I − < H 2O < Cl− < CN − (3) Natural rubber is a 1,4-polymer of
(3) Cl− < I − < H 2O < CN − isoprene.
(4) In vulcanization, the formation of
(4) Cl− < H 2O < I − < CN − sulphur bridges between different chains
159. Calculated spin only magnetic moment is make rubber harder and stronger.
highest for 164. Identify the correct statements from the
(1) Mn +3 following :
a) Gaseous CO 2 is extensively used to
(2) Fe +3
carbonate soft drinks
(3) Cr +3 b) Fullerenes are the only pure form of
(4) Co +2 carbon because they have smooth
160. Dipole moment is shown by structure with having dangling bonds
(1) Cis-1,2-dichloro ethene c) Hydrated zeolites are used as ion
(2) trans-1,2-dichloro ethene exchanges in softening hard water
(3) Cis-2-Butene d) Quartz, crisobalite and tridymite are an
(4) both 1,3 amorphous forms of silica.
161. Incorrect statement of the following is (1) a,b and c only
(1) Ca 2+ ions are not important in (2) a and c only
maintaining the regular beating of the (3) b and c only
heart (4) c and d only
165. ∆U = 0 in
(2) Mg 2+ ions are important in the green
(1) Isothermal process
parts of the plants
(2) Cyclic process
(3) Mg 2+ ions form a complex with ATP (3) Isochoric process
(4) Potassium ions activate enzymes. (4) Both 1 and 2
162. The rate constant of a first order reaction 166. Reaction between acetaldehyde and ethyl
at 27 0 C is 10 −3 min −1 . The temperature magnesium bromide followed by
coefficient of this reaction is 2 what is the hydrolysis will give
(1) Sec. butyl alcohol
rate constant (in min −1 ) at 17 0 C for this
(2) n-butyl alcohol
reaction is
(3) Isobutyl alcohol
(1) 10 −3 (4) Ter butyl alcohol

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167. The number of protons, neutrons and (2) Acetone + Chloroform
electrons in 140 (3) Chloroethane + Bromoethane
58 Ce , respectively, are
(4) Ethanol + Acetone
(1) 82, 58 and 58
173. Match the following :
(2) 58, 58 and 82
Oxide Nature
(3) 140, 82 and 58
(a) NO (i) Basic
(4) 58, 82 and 58
(b) Na 2O (ii) Neutral
168. Identify the incorrect statement
(1) Scandium (z =21) does not exhibit (c) BeO (iii) Acidic
variable oxidation states (d) SO3 (iv) Amphoteric
(2) Cr +2 is reduced and Mn +3 is oxidised Which of the following is correct option?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
when both have d 4 configuration
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) Mo (VI) and W (VI) are found to be
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
less stable than Cr (VI)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) Interstitial compounds are chemically
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
inert
174. Identify the compound X in the following
169. Non ionic detergent is obtained from
sequence of reactions
(1) Lauryl alcohol and lauryl hydrogen CH 3 CHO
sulphate.
CrO3 +( CH 3CO )2 O H O+
(2) Dodecyl benzene and Dodecyl 
273−283K
→ X 
3
∆
→
benzene sulphonic acid.
O
(3) Steric acid and polyethylene glycol.
(4) Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide. C−CH3
170. Identify the incorrect match.
Atomic Number IUPAC Official Name
(a) 102 (i) Nobelium
(1)
(b) 104 (ii) Rutherfordium O
(c) 107 (iii) Bohrium ||
CH(C−CH3)2
(d) 114 (iv) Rontgenium
(1) b - ii
(2) c - iii
(3) d - iv
(2)
(4) a – i O
171. Freezing point of aqueous calcium nitrate ||
CH(O−C−CH3)2
cannot be
(1) 275 K
(2) 267 K
(3) 271 K (3)
(4) 269 K COOH
172. The mixture which shows negative
deviation from Raoult’s law is
(1) Benzene + Toluene
(4)
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175. Which one of the following has (2) 1.02 atm
maximum number of atoms ? (3) 1.64 atm
(1) 1 g of O 2 (g) (4) 1.25 atm
(2) 1 g of N 2 (g) 179. The change in concentration of reaction
(3) 1 g of Fe (s) leads to change in
(1) activation energy
(4) 1 g of H 2 (g)
(2) collision frequency
176. Which of the following best represents
(3) threshold energy
the structure of an amino acid in basic
(4) heat of reaction
solution (pH = 11) ?
180. Identify the correct statement from the
(1)
following
R CH C OO (1) Wrought iron is impure iron with 5%
NH2 carbon
(2) (2) Bauxite is ore of iron
R CH C OOH (3) Copper matte: Cu2S + little FeS
(4) Vapour phase refining is carried out
NH2
for Zirconium by Mond’s process
(3) 181. Identify a molecule which has a least
R CH C OOH
bond order
NH3 (1) H 2
(4) (2) C2
R CH C OO (3) O 2
NH3 (4) N 2
177. Which of the following is not correct 182. For the reaction
about carbon monoxide ? C( s ) + 2H 2( g ) € CH 4( g ) K = 4 × 1012 at
(1) It reduces oxygen carrying ability of
blood. 300K, the value of ∆G o at the same
(2) The carboxyhaemoglobin is more temperature will be
stable than (haemoglobin bound to CO) is (1) 2.303 × 8.314 J mol−1K −1 × 300K × log ( 4 × 1012 )
more stable than oxyhaemoglobin. (2) (
−2.303 × 8.314 J mol−1K −1 × 300K × log 3 ×1012 )
(3) It is produced due to complete
combustion.
(3) (
−2.303 × 8.314 J mol−1K −1 × 300K × log 4 × 1012 )
(4) It reduces almost all metal oxides (4) (
−2.303 × 8.314J mol−1K −1 × 300K × log 4 ×10−12 )
other than those of the alkali and alkaline
183. On electrolysis of dil. Sulphuric acid
earth metals.
using Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product
178. The partial pressures of N ,O and obtained at cathode will be
2 2
CO in a vessel are 0.5atm, 0.25atm and (1) Oxygen gas
2 (2) H 2S gas
0.5 atm respectively. The total pressure of
(3) SO 2 gas
the mixture at the same temperature is
(1) 0.96 atm (4) Hydrogen gas

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184. Match the following and identify the
correct option.
(a) CO( g ) + N 2( g ) (i) MgSO 4 + CaSO 4
(b) Permanent (ii) An electron
hardness of water precise hydride
(c) CH 4 (iii) Producer gas
(d) H 2O 2 (iv) Non – planar
structure Chemical reactions of lanthanoids
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) 1
(1) iii ii i iv (2) 2
(2) iii i ii iv (3) 3
(3) i iii ii iv (4) 4
(4) iii iv ii i 189. Which of the following is never an
185. The potential difference between the electrophile involved in reactions of
fixed layer and the diffused layer of benzene?
⊕
opposite charges of colloidal solution is (1) N O2
(1) electrokinetic potential ⊕

(2) zeta potential (2) S O3 H

⊕
(3) Both 1 and 2
(3) C H 3
(4) Helmholtz electrical double layer ⊕

SECTION - B (4) C l
186. Urea reacts with water to form A which 190. On treating a mixture of two alkyl halides
will decompose to form B. Which one of with sodium metal in dry ether, 2-
the following is soluble in aqueous methylpropane was obtained. The alkyl
solution of B to form colourless solution halides are
(1) CuSO 4 (1) 2-Chloropropane and
Chloromethane
(2) AgCl
(2) 2-Chloropropane and Chloroethane
(3) ZnSO 4
(3) Chloromethane and Chloroethane
(4) FeCl3 (4) Chloromethane and 1-chloropropane
187. The kjeldahl’s method of of estimation 191. Statement-I : Pure NaCl is hygroscopic.
of nitrogen not applicable for Statement-II : NaCl can be precipitated
1) Azo compounds from its saturated solution by passing HCl
2) Pyridene gas.
3) Nitro Compounds (1) I is true, II is false
4) All (2) I is false, II is true
188. The number of reactions in which (3) I and II are false
elementary gaseous product(s) are formed (4) I and II are true

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192. The solubility of CaF2 ( K sp = 3.4 × 10−11 ) +4 −4
(2) ,
in 0.1 M solution of NaF would be 3 3
(1) 3.4 × 10−12 M −2 +2
(3) ,
3 3
(2) 3.4 × 10−10 M
−2 +4
(3) 3.4 × 10 −9 M (4) ,
3 3
(4) 3.4 × 10−13 M 196. Which of the following oxoacid of
193/Statement-I : CH 3 − Br readily undergoes sulphur has S – O – S linkage ?
SN1 reaction inpresence of aqueous KOH (1) H 2SO 4 , sulphuric acid
Statement-II: ( CH 3 )3 C − Br readily (2) H 2S2O8 , peroxodisulphuric acid
undergoes SN2 reaction in presence of (3) H 2S2O7 , pyrosulphuric acid
aqueous KOH (4) H 2SO3 , sulphurous acid
(1) I and II are true 197. Which one of the following is not a
(2) I and II are false product when the reaction between
(3) I is true, II is false ethanal and propanal in presence of dil
(4) I is false, II is true NaOH is
(1) But-2-enal
194. An alkene on ozonolysis gives ethanal as
(2) Pent-2-enal
one of the product. Its structure is
(3) 2 methyl but-2-enal
(4) 2 methyl pent-3-enal
198. The IE1 value of Xenon is almost
(1) identical with that of
(1) Molecular nitrogen
(2) Molecular oxygen
(3) Molecular hydrogen
(2) (4) Molecular iodine
199. Which of the following is a green house
gas?
(1) SO 2
(2) H 2S
(3)
(3) CO 2
(4) O 2
200. For the reaction, 2 O3( g ) → 3 O 2( g )
(4) The correct option is
195. Oxidation number of carbon in (1) ∆H > 0 and ∆S < 0
C3O2 , Mg 2C3 are respectively
(2) ∆H < 0 and ∆S > 0
−4 +4
(1) , (3) ∆H < 0 and ∆S < 0
3 3
(4) ∆H > 0 and ∆S > 0

Sri Chaitanya Page 22