MOCK

TEST FULL
SYLLABUS

PART-I
1. Offsets are produced by
(1) Meiotic divisions (2) Mitotic divisions
(3) Parthenocarpy (4) Parthenogenesis

2. Which of the following flowers only once in its life-time ?

(1) Bamboo species (2) Jackfruit
(3) Mango (4) Papaya

3. Stomata in grass leaf are

(1) Dumb-bell shaped (2) Kidney shaped
(3) Rectangular (4) Barrel shaped
4. The experimental proof for semiconservative
replication of DNA was first shown in a
(1) Fungus (2) Bacterium
(3) Plant (4) Virus

5. Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils ?

(1) Pollen kit (2) Cellulosic intine
(3) Oil content (4) Sporopollenin

6. Which among the following is not a prokaryote ?

(1) Saccharomyces (2) Mycobacterium
(3) Nostoc (4) Oscillatoria
7. The Golgi complex participates in
(1) Fatty acid breakdown
(2) Formation of secretory vesicles
(3) Respiration in bacteria
(4) Activation of amino acid

8. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant

(1) CO (2) CO2
(3) SO2 (4) O3

9. Niche is
(1) all the biological factors in the organism environment
(2) the physical space where an organism live
(3) the range of temperature that the organism needs to live
(4) the functional role played by the organism where it lives
10. What type of ecological pyramid would obtained with the following data ?
Secondary consumer : 120 g
Primary consumer : 60 g
Primary producer : 10 g

(1) Inverted pyramid of biomass

(2) Pyramid of energy
(3) Upright pyramid of numbers
(4) Upright pyramid of biomass

11. World Ozone Day is celebrated on

(1) 5th June (2) 21st April
(3) 16th September (4) 22nd April
12. Casparian strips occur in
(1) Epidermis (2) Pericycle
(3) Cortex (4) Endodermis

13. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in

(1) Neurospora (2) Alternaria
(3) Agaricus (4) Saccharomyces

14. What is the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration ?

(1) It functions as an enzymes
(2) It functions as an electron carrier
(3) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis
(4) It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic
respiration
15. The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is
(1) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are
formed.
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatids are
formed.

(3) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from Sertoli cells are released into the cavity of
seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
(4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are
released from Sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules.

16. Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a
temperature of
(1) –120°C (2) –80°C
(3) –196°C (4) –160°C
17. Which of these statements is incorrect ?
(1) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix.
(2) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol.
(3) Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms.

(4) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane.

18. The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of
(1) Homology (2) Analogy
(3) Convergent evolution (4) Adaptive radiation
19. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
(1) Proteins and lipids
(2) DNA and RNA
(3) Nucleic acids and SER

(4) Free ribosomes and RER

20. Which of the following terms describe human

dentition ?
(1) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
(2) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
(3) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
(4) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
21. Which of the following animals does not undergo
metamorphosis ?
(1) Earthworm (2) Tunicate
(3) Moth (4) Starfish

22. Which of the following organisms are known as

chief producers in the oceans ?
(1) Dinoflagellates (2) Diatoms
(3) Cyanobacteria (4) Euglenoids

23. Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritional

value by increasing the amount of
(1) Vitamin D (2) Vitamin A
(3) Vitamin B12 (4) Vitamin E
24. Which of the following hormones can play a
significant role in osteoporesis ?
(1) Aldosterone and Prolactin
(2) Progesterone and Aldosterone

(3) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone

(4) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin

25. The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by
(1) ligaments attached to the ciliary body
(2) ligaments attached to the iris
(3) smooth muscles attached to the iris
(4) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body
26. Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in
asthma and emphysema, respectively ?
(1) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface
(2) Increased number of bronchioles; Increased respiratory surface

(3) Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles

(4) Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles

27. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it :-

(1) binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin.
(2) activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.
(3) detaches the myosin head from the actin filament.
(4) prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the
actin filament.
28. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be
the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA ?
(1) AGGUAUCGCAU (2) UGGTUTCGCAT
(3) ACCUAUGCGAU (4) UCCAUAGCGUA

29. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by

(1) Green sulphur bacteria
(2) Nostoc
(3) Cycas
(4) Chara
30. Stomatal movement is not affected by
(1) Temperature (2) Light
(3) O2 concentration (4) CO2 concentration

31. In stratosphere, which of the following element acts as a catalyst in

degradation of ozone a release of molecular oxygen ?
(1) Carbon (2) Cl
(3) Fe (4) Oxygen
32. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is
(1) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
(2) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
(3) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(4) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension

33. Pneumatophores occur in

(1) Halophytes
(2) Free-floating hydrophytes
(3) Carnivorous plants
(4) Submerged hydrophytes
34. Match the items given in Column I with those in
Column II and select the correct option given
below:
Column I Column II

a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation

b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation
c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient enrichment
d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal
a b c d
(1) ii I iii iv
(2) i iii iv ii
(3) iii iv I ii
(4) I ii iv iii
35. Which one is wrongly matched ?
(1) Uniflagellate gametes - Polysiphonia
(2) Biflagellate zoospores - Brown algae
(3) Gemma cups – Marchantia

(4) Unicellular organism – Chlorella

36. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the

drug. "Smack" ?
(1) Flowers (2) Latex
(3) Roots (4) Leaves
37. Match the items given in Column I with those Column II and select the correct option given
below:
Column I Column II
(Function) (Part of Excretory System)

a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle's loop

b. Concentration of urine ii. Ureter
c. Transport of urine iii. Urinary bladder
d. Storage of urine iv. Malpighian corpuscle
v. Proximal convoluted tubule
a b c d
(1) iv v ii iii
(2) iv i ii iii
(3) v iv i ii
(4) v iv i iii
38. Which of the following is an occupational
respiratory disorder ? :
(1) Anthracis (2) Silicosis
(3) Botulism (4) Emphysema

39. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of

evolution is :-
(1) Multiple step mutations
(2) Saltation
(3) Phenotypic variations
(4) Minor mutations
40. In a testcross involving F1 dihybrid flies, more parental-type offspring were
produced than the
recombinant-type offspring. This indicates :
(1) Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene.

(2) The two genes are located on two different chromosomes.

(3) Chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis.
(4) The two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome

41 Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids ?

(1) Single –stranded
(2) Independent replication
(3) Circular structure
(4) Transferable
42.Emerson's enhancement effect and Red drop have been instrumental in the
discovery of:
(1) Oxidative phosphorylation
(2) Photophosphorylation and non-cyclic electron transport

(3) Two photosystems operating simultaneously

(4) Photophosphorylation and cyclic electron transport

43.When does the growth rate of a population following the logistic model equal zero
? The logistic model
is given as dN/dt = rN(1-N/K) :
(1) when death rate is greater than birth rate.
(2) when N/K is exactly one.
(3) when N nears the carrying capacity of the habitat.
(4) when N/K equals zero.
44. Which of the following structures is homologus to the wing of a bird ?
(1) Flipper of Whale
(2) Dorsal fin of the Shark
(3) Wing of a Moth

(4) Hind limb of Rabbit

45.In meiosis crossing over is initiated at :

Diplotene (2) Pachytene (3) Leptotene (4) Zygotene

46.Identify the correct statement on 'inhibin' :

(1) Is produced by nurse cells in testes and inhibits the secretion of LH.
(2) Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and Prolactin.
(3) Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH.
(4) Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of LH.
47.Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia ?
(1) Dominant gene disorder (2) Recessive gene disorder
(3) X-linked recessive gene disorder (4) Chromosomal disorder

48.Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon?
(1) lactose and galactose (2) glucose
(3) galactose (4) lactose

49. A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant.
When the F1 plants were selfed the resulting genotypes were in the ratio of :
(1) 3 : 1 : : Dwarf : Tall
(2) 1 : 2 : 1 : : Tall homozygous : Tall heterozygous : Dwarf
(3) 1 : 2 : 1 : : Tall heterozygous : Tall homozygous : Dwarf
(4) 3 : 1 : : Tall : Dwarf
50.Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita ?
(1) Root (2) Flower (3) Leaf (4) Stem

51. Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to
mutations?
(1) Mutations inhibit production of telomeres.
(2) Mutations in proto-oncogenes acceleration the cell cycle.
(3) Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor.
(4) Mutations inactivate the cell control.

52. Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks
?
(1) Green algae (2) Lichens (3) Liverworts (4) Mosses
53. Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that
are administered into the body contain :
(1) Attenuated pathogens (2) Activated pathogens
(3) Harvested antibodies (4) Gamma globulin

54. Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called :
(1) Lenticels (2) Complementary cells
(3) Subsidiary cells (4) Bulliform cells

55. Which of the following features is not present in the Phylum - Arthropoda?
(1) Jointed appendages (2) Chitinous exoskeleton
(3) Metameric segmentation (4) Parapodia
56. Match the terms in Column I with their description in Column IIand choose the correct
option:
Column I Column II
(a) Dominance (i) Many genes govern a single character
(b) Codominance (ii) In a heterozygous organism only one allele expresses itself

(c) Pleiotropy (iii) In a heterozygous organism both alleles express themselves fully
(d) Polygenic inheritance (iv) A single gene influences many characters
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (ill) (i) (ii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (ill)
(3) (ii) (ill) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (ill)
57.Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the :
(1) Thalamus or petal (2) Anther
(3) Connective (4) Placenta

58.A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand of RNA is known as :

(1) Okazaki fragment (2) Polysome
(3) Polymer (4) Polypeptide

59. In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea?
(1) Hepatic Portal Vein
(2) Renal Vein
(3) Dorsal Aorta
(4) Hepatic Vein.
60.Pick out the correct statements :
(a) Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.
(b) Down's syndrome is due to aneuploidy.
(c) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder.

(d) Sickle cell anemia is an X-linked recessive gene disorder.

(1) (a), (b) and (c)are correct.
(2) (a) and (d) are correct.
(3) (b)and (d) are correct.
(4) (a), (c)and (d) are correct

61.Which of the following guards the opening of hepatopancreatic duct into the
duodenum?
(1) Sphincter of Oddi (2) Semilunar valve
(3) Ileocecal valve (4) Pyloric sphincter.
62. Microtubules are the constituents of :
(1) Centrosome, Nucleosome and Centrioles
(2) Cilia, Flagella and Peroxisomes
(3) Spindle fibres, Centrioles and Cilia

(4) Centrioles, Spindle fibres and Chromatin

63. Tricarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in flowers of:

(1) Poaceae
(2) Liliaceae
(3) Solanaceae
(4) Fabaceae
64. The taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from :
(1) Pseudomonas putida (2) Thermus aquaticus
(3) Thiobacillus ferroxidans (4) Bacillus subtilis

65. In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-
self, If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells,
then it leads to :
(1) Active immunity
(2) Allergic response
(3) Graft rejection
(4) Auto-immune disease
66.In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the :
(1) acidic cells
(2) gastrin secreting cells
(3) parietal cells
(4) peptic cells

67. Which is the National Aquatic Animal of India?

(1) Sea- horse
(2) Gangetic shark
(3) River dolphin
(4) Blue whale

68.The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by :

(1) Disulphide bridges (2) Hydrogen bonds
(3) Phosphodiester bond (4) Covalent bond
69. Which of the following statements is wrong for viroids?
(1) Their RNA is of high molecular weight
(2) They lack a protein coat
(3) They are smaller than viruses
(4) They cause infections

70. Select the incorrect statement:

(1) LH triggers secretion of androgens from the Leydig cells
(2) FSH stimulates the sertoli cells which help in spermiogenesis
(3) LH triggers ovulation in ovary.
(4) LH and FSH decrease gradually during the follicular phase
71.Seed formation without fertilization in flowering plants involves the process
of :
(1) Apomixis (2) Sporulation
(3) Budding (4) Somatic hybridization

72.The amino acid Tryptophan is the precursor for the synthesis of :

(1) Cortisol and Cortisone
(2) Melatonin and Serotonin
(3) Thyroxine and Triiodothyronine .
(4) Estrogen and Progesterone
73. A river with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in :
(1) Death of fish due to lack of oxygen.
(2) Drying of the river very soon due to algal bloom.
(3) Increased population of aquatic food web organisms.
(4) An increased production of fish due to biodegradable nutrients

74. Gause's principle of competitive exclusion states that:

(1) Larger organisms exclude smaller ones through competition.
(2) More abundant species will exclude the less abundant species through
competition.
(3) Competition for the same resources excludes species having different food
preferences.
(4) No two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely for the same limiting
resources
75. Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease?
(1) RNase
(2) Hind II
(3) Protease

(4 )DNAase

76. A cell at telophase stage is observed by a student in a plant brought from the
field. He tells his teacher that this cell is not like other cells at telophase stage. There
is no formation of cell plate and thus the cell is containing more number of
chromosomes as compared to other dividing cells. This would result
in
(1) Polyteny
(2) Aneuploidy
(3) Polyploidy
(4) Somaclonal variation
77.Joint Forest Management Concept was introduced in India during:
(1) 1990s
(2) 1960s
(3) 1970s

(4) 1980s

78Which one of the following is the starter codon?

(1) UAG (2) AUG
(3) UGA (4) UAA
79 Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased incidence
of skin cancers:
(1) Methane
(2) Nitrous oxide
(3) Ozone
(4) Ammonia

80.Select the correct match :

(1) Alec Jeffreys – Streptococcus pneumoniae
(2) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase – TMV
(3) Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl– Pisum sativum
(4) Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod – Lac operon
81. Which of the following is commonly used as a vector
for introducing a DNA fragment in human
lymphocytes ?
(1) Retrovirus (2) Ti plasmid
(3) Lambda phage (4) pBR 322

82. The term ecosystem was coined by :

(1) E. Warming (2) E.P.Odum
(3) A.G. Tansley (4) E. Haeckel

83.Which of the following is a branched alveolar and

holocrine gland?
(1) Crypts of Lieberkuhn
(2) Gastric gland in stomach
(3) Sebaceous gland
(4) Sweat glands
84. Which of the following is a bone forming cell?
(1) Osteocyte (2) Osteoclast
(3) Osteoblast (4) Chondroblast

85. Posterior part of oesophagus is characterized by

(1) Presence of elongated spindle shaped voluntary muscles
(2) Presence of striated involuntary muscle
(3) Presence of involuntary muscle
(4) Presence of unstriated voluntary muscle
86. Carrying capacity in the population growth logistics
means
(1) Maximum number of individuals necessary to avoid extinction of population
(2) Proportion of individuals which are most responsible for population growth

(3) Maximum number of individuals which can be supported in a given environment

(4) Rate at which the density of individuals increase over time

87. Choose an incorrect statement about MOET.

(1) During MOET administration of FSH induces
superovulation
(2) It is a non-surgical method
(3) 8-32 cell stage is transferred to surrogate female
(4) Stilbesterol is administered to induce lactation during pregnancy for MOET
88. Which of the following is not true about
parthenogenesis?
(1) It is the form of asexual reproduction carried out by protista
(2) It involves the development of the egg into an adult without fertilization
(3) The adult that results from parthenogenesis is haploid
(4) All of these

89. Given below is the sequence of nucleotides on mRNA

5’ AUG UUU GUG UCA AGU UAA UUU UAA 3’
How many amino acids could be coded from the given sequence and how many
amino acid can be coded if 11th nucleotide is deleted from the given sequence
respectively?
(1) 5, 5 (2) 7, 7
(3) 5, 3 (4) 3, 3
90. Find the odd one
(1) Eye of octopus and eye of mammals
(2) Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins

(3) Wing of Birds and wing of insect

(4) Forelimb of man and forelimb of Cheetah
Ques Answer Ques Answer Ques Answer Ques Answer Ques Answer
No. No. No. No. No.
1 2 10 1 19 4 28 1 37 2
2 1 11 3 20 2 29 1 38 2
3 1 12 4 21 1 30 3 39 2
4 2 13 3 22 2 31 2 40 4
5 4 14 2 23 3 32 4 41 1
6 1 15 4 24 3 33 1 42 3
7 2 16 3 25 1 34 3 43 2
8 4 17 4 26 1 35 1 44 1
9 4 18 1 27 1 36 2 45 2
Ques Answer Ques Answer Ques Answer Ques Answer Ques Answer
No. No. No. No. No.
46 3 55 4 64 2 73 1 82 3
47 3 56 3 65 4 74 4 83 3
48 4 57 1 66 3 75 2 84 3
49 2 58 2 67 3 76 3 85 3
50 1 59 4 68 1 77 4 86 3
51 1 60 1 69 1 78 2 87 4
52 2 61 1 70 4 79 3 88 1
53 1 62 3 71 1 80 4 89 3
54 3 63 2 72 2 81 1 90 4