Neet 2023

NEET BIOLOGY
SERIES
Biology 200 MCQ

. ATHARVA AGGARWAL OFFICIAL

. Atharva Aggarwal
1. As we go from species to kingdom in a taxonomic
hierachy, the number of common characteristics :

(1) Will decrease

(2) Will increase

(3) Remain same

(4) May increase or decrease

2. Find out the correct statements of following :
(a) Unicellular organisms grow by cell division.
(b) All the living organisms are self-conscious.
(c) Self-conciousness is defining property of all living
organisms.
(d) In Chlamydomonas and Amoeba reproduction is
synonymous with growth

(1) a, d
(2) a, b
(3) a, b, c
(4) b, c, d
3. ICBN stands for :

(1) Indian code for Botanical nomenclature

(2) International Code for Botanical Nomenclature

(3) Indian Council of Botanical Nomenclature

(4) International Code of Biological Nomenclature

4. Match the following correctly :
(i) Albugo (a) Phycomycetes
(ii) Coenocytic (b) Used extensively in biochemical work.
(iii) Neurospora (c) Puff balls
(iv) Basidiomycetes (d) Parasitic fungi

(1) i -d, ii -a, iii -b, iv -c

(2) i -c, ii -a, iii -b, iv -d
(3) i -a, ii -d, iii -c, iv -b
(4) i -b, ii -a, iii -d, iv -c
5. Chief producers in the oceans are :

(1) Diatoms

(2) Euglena

(3) Dinoflagellates

(4) Paramoecium
6. Label figure A, B and C :

(1) A- Bacilli, B- Vibrio, C- Cocci

(2) A- Bacilli, B- Cocci, C- Vibrio
(3) A- Cocci, B- Bacilli, C- Vibrio
(4) A- Vibrio, B- Cocci, C- Bacilli
7. Find the correct statement :
(a) Higher the category, less is the difficulty in
determining relationship to other taxa.
(b) Diptera belongs to class Animalia
(c) Class Diptera includes Musca
(d) Carnivora includes Tiger, Cat, Dog

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) b, c
(3) a, d, c
(4) d
8. Match the different types of spores listed under
column-I with the names of the organisms given
under column-II
Column-I Column-II
Spores Organisms
a. Ascospores f. Agaricus
b. Basidiospores g. Yeast
c. Zygospores h. Rhizopus
d. Conidia i. Aspergillus
(1) a-g, b-f, c-h, d-i
(2) a-g, b-h, c-f, d-g
(3) a-h, b-i, c-g, d-f
(4) a-f, b-h, c-g, d-i
9. Match the following columns :
Column-I Column-II
a. Ascaris i. King crab
b. Gorgonia ii. Sea lily
c. Limulus iii. Round worm
d. Antedon iv. Sea fan

(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
10. Which is the correct matching set :
Column – I Column – II
(a) Compound eye (i) Arthropoda
(b) Parapodia (ii) Mollusca
(c) Gills (iii) Nereis
(d) Mantle cavity (iv) Pisces

(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

(2) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
11. Agar a type of chemical are obtained from which
algae and their uses respectively

(1) Gelidium, For grow microbes

(2) Gracilaria, Preparation of Ice-cream

(3) Gelidium, preparation of jellies

(4) All of these

12. Read the following statements and choose correct
answer:
(i) Biological name are generally in latin and written in
italics
(ii) The First word in biological name represent species
while the second word represent genus
(iii) Both word in biological name separately underlined
when hand written
(iv) Both word in biological name start with capital letter
(1) i, ii, iii correct and iv incorrect
(2) i, ii correct and iii, iv incorrect
(3) ii, iii correct and i,iv incorrect
(4) i, iii correct and ii,iv incorrect
13. Which of the following not correctly match for
Mangifera indica

(1) Biological Name – Mangifera indica

(2) Family – Anacardiacea

(3) Class – Angiospermae

(4) Order – Sapindales

14. Taxonomical aid which is based on contrasting
character and generally in pair is:

(1) Flora

(2) Keys

(3) Manuals

(4) Catalogues
15. Match the following
a. Lycopsida i) Adiantum
b. Pteropsida ii) Selaginella
c. Sphenopsida iii) Psilotum
d. Psilopsida iv) Equisetum

(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)

(2) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
16. Which of the following is not true about Cycas

(1) It has unbranched stem

(2) Coralloid roots are present in Cycas

(3) In Cycas pinnate leaves persist for few years

(4) In Cycas m
17. Which of the following is correct :

(1) Viroid contain RNA of low molecular weight

(2) A virus contain both RNA and DNA

(3) Viroids are larger than virus

(4) All of these

18. Match the column I and column II and choose
correct answer:
Column I Column II
A. Phycomycetes i. Agaricus, Ustilago
B. Ascomycetes ii. Mucor, Rhizopous
C. Basidiomycetes iii. Alternaria, Colletotricum
D. Deuteromycetes iv. Penicillium, Claviceps

(1) A - ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii

(2) A - i, B - iii, C - ii, D - iv
(3) A - iv, B - i, C - ii, D - iii
(4) A - ii, B - iv, C - iii, D - i
19. Food matarial which is very similar to amylopectin and
glycogen in structure is stored food of:

(1) Rhodophyceae

(2) Phaeophyceae

(3) Chlorophyceae

(4) Cyanophyceae
20. How many animals are poikilothermal in given
example
Carcharodon, Exocoetus, Ichthyophis, Pterophyllum,
Testudo, Calotes, Pavo, Neophron, Struthio

(1) 6

(2) 7

(3) 5

(4) 8
21. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in
having a different cell wall structure and this feature is
responsible for their survival in extreme condition.
Statement II : Methanogen are present in the gut of several
ruminant animals.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correc
22. Read carefully and findout the incorrect statement(s) from
following :
(a) Fungi, Spirogyra, protonema of mosses all easily multiply by
fragmentation and fission.
(b) In majority of higher animals and lower plants growth and
reproduction are mutually exclusive events.
(c) Mule does not reproduce so reproduction can not be characterised
as characteristic feature of living organisms.
(d) Each different kind of plant or animal or organism represents a
species.

(1) Only d
(2) b, c only
(3) a, b only
(4) a, b, c
23. Find correct statement for Gemma cups :
a. Green, multicellular, buds responsible for sexual
reproduction
b. Have gemma, specialised structure for Asexual
reproduction
c. Gemma cups are located on thalli
d. Gemmae detaches from body to germinate into
new plant

(1) All are true

(2) a,b,c are true
(3) a,c,d are true
(4) b,c,d are true
24. Find the correct matching of the following :
a) 1971 i) Brown alage
b) 70 species ii) Green alage
c) 100 meter height iii) Kelp
d) 2-8 equal flagella iv) Marine alage as food
e) 2 unequal flagella v) T. O. Diener

(1) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i, e-iii

(2) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i
(3) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-v
25. Excretory organs of Taenia and Fasiola are :

(1) Nephridia

(2) Green glands

(3) Malpighian tubule

(4) Flame cells

26. Which organelles are common in both prokaryotic
as well as eukaryotic cells :

(1) 70 S Ribosome

(2) 80 S Ribosome

(3) 70 S and 80 S Ribosome

(4) Lysosome
27. Assertion (A) : In Eukaryotes mitochondria and
chloroplast are semiautonomous organelles.
Reason (R) : Mitochondria and chloroplast have
its own DNA and protein synthesizing machinery
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
28. Which one of the following is the incorrect match

(1) Synapsis - Synaptonemal complex

(2) Chiasmata - C-shaped structures

(3) Anaphase I – Homologous chromosome separate

(4) Anaphase II - Splitting of centromere

29. How many matching are correct with reference
to RQ
(a) Glucose - 1
(b) Tripalmitin - 1.7
(c) Malic acid - More than 1
(d) Alchoholic fermentation – infinite

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1
30. The correct sequence of flow of electrons in the
light reaction is

(1) PSII, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PSI, ferredoxin

(2) PSI, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PSII, ferredoxin

(3) PSI, ferredoxin, PSII,

(4) PSI, cytochromes, plastoquinone, PSII, ferredoxin

31. Palisade parenchyma is absent in leaves of:

(1) Grasses

(2) Mustard

(3) Soyabean

(4) Gram
32. Which of the following cells do not have DNA :

(1) Mature erythrocytes

(2) Sieve tube cells

(3) Both 1 and 2

(4) Lysosome
33. Vital capacity of lungs is :

(1) IRV + ERV

(2) IRV + TV – RV

(3) IRV + ERV + TV + RV

(4) IRV + ERV + TV

34. The presence of ketone bodeis in urine is the
indication of

(1) Renal calculi

(2) Glomerulonephritis

(3) Diabetes mellitus

(4) Normal functioning of kidney

35. Which hormone is a steroid hormone :

(1) Cortisol

(2) Estradiol

(3) Progesterone

(4) All of these

36. Which blood group is universal donor :

(1) AB

(2) A

(3) B

(4) O
37. Which leucocytes are 20-25% of total WBCs :

(1) Basophil

(2) Eosinophil

(3) Monocyte

(4) Lymphocyte
38. What would be the stroke volume of a person if
the cardiac output is increased to 7.2 litre but heart
of person beats normally as it is initially :

(1) 90 ml

(2) 80 ml

(3) 100 ml

(4) 120 ml
39. Which one of the following is the incorrect

(1) Ribs – 24

(2) Sternum – 1

(3) Patella - Fore limb bone

(4) Appendicular skeleton - Limbs

40. In a cell in aerobic respiration what is the correct
sequence of different process :

(1) Glycolysis → Oxidative decarboxylation → Kreb's

Cycle → ETS

(2) Glycolysis → Oxidative decarboxylation → Kreb's

Cycle → TCA cycle

(3) Glycolysis → Fermentation →TCA cycle → ETS

(4) Glycolysis → Fermentation → Kreb's Cycle → ETS

41. Which of the following is incorrect match

(1) Squamous epithelium → Air sac of lungs

(2) Cuboidal epithelium → Ducts of glands

(3) Ciliated epithelium → Bronchioles

(4) Columnar epithelium → Blood vessels

42. Which one of the following is incorrect match :

(1) Primary metabolite – Sugars

(2) Secondary metabolite – Rubber

(3) GLUT–4 – Fight infectious agent

(4) Alkaloids – Codeine

43. Plant follows different pathways in response to
environment to form different kind of structures
Called

(1) Senescence

(2) Plasticity

(3) Differentiation

(4) Dedifferntiation
44. Match the element with its associated functions/
roles and choose the correct option among given below
A. Boron i. Splitting of H2O to liberate O2 during
photosynthesis
B. Chlorine ii. Needed for synthesis of auxins
C. Molybdenum iii. Component of nitrogenase
D. Zinc iv. Pollen germination
E. Iron v. Component of ferredoxin
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv, E-v
(2) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii, E-v
(3) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-v, E-i
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-v, D-i, E-iv
45. Which is a correct matching set
Column-I Column-II
a. pO2 in the alveoli i. 0.5 L
b. pO2 of oxygenated blood ii. 1 L
c. ERV iii. 95 mm Hg
d. Tidal volume iv. 104 mm Hg

(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

(2) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
46. Which one of the following is not a correct
Statement:

(1) Herbarium houses dried, pressed and preserved plant

specimens
(2) Botanical gardens have collection of living plants
for reference
(3) A museum has collection of photographs of plants and
animals
(4) Key is a taxonomic aid for identification of specimens
47. The functional unit of contraction is the portion of
myofibril present between

(1) Two successive Z lines

(2) Z line and A-band

(3) Two successive A bands

(4) Two successive H-zones

48. Choose the incorrect match

(1) Gene therapy – Treatment for ADA deficiency

(2) cryIAc gene – Controls corn borer

(3) Dolly – Non-transgenic sheep

(4) Rosie – Transgenic cow

49. How many copies of DNA will be formed from DNA
after 4 cycles of PCR?

(1) 16

(2) 8

(3) 32

(4) 4
50. Select the incorrect match

(1) Interferons – Cytokine barrier

(2) Cancer – Metastasis

(3) Morphine – Sedative and painkiller

(4) AIDS – Confirmed by widal test

51. Select the in-vitro fertilization technique suggested,
when the sperm count is very low in the ejaculate

(1) AI

(2) IUI

(3) ICSI

(4) GIFT
52. Select the number of sperms and ova produced by 100
primary spermatocytes and primary oocytes respectively

(1) 400 and 400

(2) 200 and 200

(3) 400 and 100

(4) 200 and 50

53. Select the set of hormones that binds to intracellular
receptors and its hormone-receptor complex interacts with
the genome.

(1) Insulin, estrogen

(2) Epinephrine, estradiol

(3) LH and FSH

(4) Cortisol and progesterone

54. In each half of upper jaw, dental formula and root
formula of which type of teeth is not equal in number?

(1) Incisor

(2) Canine

(3) Premolars

(4) Molars
55. Amino acid having hydroxy methyl group is

(1) Alanine

(2) Serine

(3) Lysine

(4) Valine
56. Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle mostly due
to genetic disorder is

(1) Myasthenia gravis

(2) Muscular dystrophy

(3) Tetany

(4) Arthritis
57. Choose the correct match

(1) RBC – 6000–8000/mm3 of blood

(2) Thrombocytes – 1,500,00-3,500,00/mm3 of blood

(3) Haemoglobin – 12–16 mg/100 ml of blood

(4) WBC – 120 days life span

58. Malpighian tubules

(1) Are present at the junction of foregut and midgut

(2) Are lined by glandular and ciliated cells

(3) Absorb uric acid from the haemolymph and excrete out
through the hindgut

(4) Are 6–8 blind tubules

59. Complete the analogy
Insulin: Hypoglycaemia::Parathyroid hormone:
___________.

(1) Hypocalcaemia

(2) Hyperglycaemia

(3) Hypercalcemia

(4) Hypothyroidism
60. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column I Column II
a Azotobacter (i) Free-living nitrogen-fixing
b Nostoc (ii) Free-living nitrogen-fixing and aerobic
c Rhodospirillum (iii) Symbiotic nitrogen-fixing
d Rhizobium (iv) Free-living nitrogen-fixing and anaerobic

(1) a (iv), b (iii), c (ii), d (i)

(2) a (ii), b (iv), c (i), d (iii)
(3) a (iv), b (i), c (ii), d (iii)
(4) a (ii), b (i), c (iv), d (iii)
61. What percent of energy in glucose is released in
alcoholic fermentation?

(1) About 13%

(2) More than 36%

(3) About 20%

(4) Less than 7%

62. Match the following columns and select the correct
option w.r.t. different complexes in ETS.
Column I Column II
a Complex III (i) Succinate dehydrogenase
b Complex I (ii) NADH dehydrogenase
c Complex IV (iii) Cytochrome bc1
d Complex II (iv) Cytochrome c oxidase

(1) a (ii), b (iv), c (i), d (iii)

(2) a (iii), b (ii), c (i), d (iv)
(3) a (iii), b (ii), c (iv), d (i)
(4) a (iii), b (i), c (iv), d (ii)
63. Select the correct match from the following w.r.t.
angiospermic plants.

(1)Michelia – Syncarpous pistil

(2) Mature embryo sac - 8-nucleate stage

(3) Synergids – Situated towards chalazal end

(4) Egg apparatus – One egg cell and two polar nuclei
64. In most situations, ABA acts as antagonist to

(1) Cytokinins

(2) Auxins

(3) Ethylene

(4) Gibberellins
65. The mode of arrangement of sepals or petals in floral
bud w.r.t. other members of same whorl is known as

(1) Aestivation

(2) Inflorescence

(3) Placentation

(4) Phyllotaxy
66. Match the Column I with Column II and select the
correct option.
Column I Column II
A. Staminode (i) Petals united
B. Syncarpous (ii) Sterile stamen
C. Gamopetalous (iii) Sepals free
D. Polysepalous (iv) Fused carpels
A B C D
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
67. In which of the given plants, the placenta develops at
the base of ovary and a single ovule is attached to it?

(1) Marigold

(2) Primrose

(3) Argemone

(4) Mustard
68. Which of the given chromosomes has a terminal
centromere?

(1) Metacentric

(2) Sub-metacentric

(3) Acrocentric

(4) Telocentric
69. is the floral formula of which of the given
plants?

(1) Trifolium

(2) Mustard

(3) Petunia

(4) Asparagus
70. The arrangement of ovules within the ovary is known
as

(1) Inflorescence

(2) Placentation

(3) Aestivation

(4) Parthenogenesis
71. Cork cambium is also known as

(1) Phelloderm

(2) Phellem

(3) Phellogen

(4) Pith
72. Phase of cell cycle in which genetic material gets
doubled is

(1) G1 phase

(2) Synthesis phase

(3) G2 phase

(4) M phase
73. Protein rich layer named pellicle is present in

(1) Euglenoids

(2) Diatoms

(3) Dinoflagellates

(4) Slime moulds

74. Population interaction in which one organism gets
benefited and other is harmed are

(1) Parasitism and commensalism

(2) Predation and mutualism

(3) Predation and parasitism

(4) Predation and commensalism

75. Which of the following is a wheat variety rich in
proteins and developed through biofortification?

(1) Himgiri

(2) Atlas 66

(3) Sonalika

(4) Kalyan Sona

76. Cholesterol lowering agent called statins are produced
by

(1) Clostridium

(2) Monascus purpureus

(3) Trichoderma

(4) Acetobacter aceti

77. Which of the following options correctly represents
the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema,
respectively?

(a) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory

surface
(b) Increased number of bronchioles; Increased
respiratory surface
(c) Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of
bronchioles
(d) Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of
bronchioles
78. The haemoglobin content per 100 mL of blood of a
normal healthy human adult is

(a) 5 - 11 gm

(b) 25 - 30 gm

(c) 17 - 20 gm

(d) 12 - 16 gm.
79. Erythroblastosis fetalis is caused when fertilisation
takes place between gametes of

(a) Rh– female and Rh+ male

(b) Rh+ female and Rh– male

(c) Rh+ female and Rh+ male

(d) Rh– female and Rh– male.

80. Match the items given in column I with those in column II and
select the correct option given below.
Column I Column II
A. Tricuspid valve (i) Between left atrium and left ventricle
B. Bicuspid valve (ii) Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery
C. Semilunar valve (iii) Between right atrium and right ventricle

A B C
(a) (iii) (i) (ii)
(b) (i) (iii) (ii)
(c) (i) (ii) (iii)
(d) (ii) (i) (iii)
81. Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Which
one of its components is correctly interpreted below?

(a) Complex QRS - one complete pulse

(b) Peak T - initiation of total cardiac contraction
(c) Peak P and peak R together - systolic and diastolic
blood pressures
(d) Peak P- initiation of left atrial contraction only
82. Match the following joints with the bones involved:
(1) Gliding joint (i) Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb
(2) Hinge joint (ii) Between atlas and axis
(3) Pivot joint (iii) Between the carpals
(4) Saddle joint (iv) Between humerus and ulna.

Select the correct option from the following:

(a) (1)-(iii), (2)-(iv), (3)-(ii), (4)-(i)
(b) (1)-(iv), (2)-(i), (3)-(ii), (4)-(iii)
(c) (1)-(iv), (2)-(ii), (3)-(iii), (4)-(i)
(d) (1)-(i), (2)-(iii), (3)-(ii), (4)-(iv)
83. Select the correct statement regarding the specific
disorder of muscular or skeletal system.

(a) Muscular dystrophy – Age related shortening of

muscles
(b) Osteoporosis – Decrease in bone mass and higher
chances of fractures with advancing age
(c) Myasthenia gravis – Autoimmune disorder which
inhibits sliding of myosin filaments
(d) Gout – Inflammation of joints due to extra
deposition of calcium
84. Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select the
correct option given below.
Column I Column II
A. Herbarium (i) It is a place having a collection of preserved plants and animals.
B. Key (ii) A list that enumerates methodically all the species found in an
. area with brief description aiding identification.
C. Museum (iii) Is a place where dried and pressed plant specimens mounted on
. sheets are kept.
D. Catalogue (iv) A booklet containing a list of characters and their alternates .
. which are helpful in identification of various taxa.

. A B C D
(a) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(b) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(c) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
85. Which among the following are the smallest living
cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic
to plants as well as animals and can survive without
oxygen?

(a) Pseudomonas

(b) Mycoplasma

(c) Nostoc

(d) Bacillus
86. Which of the following organisms are known as
chief producers in the oceans?

(a) Dinoflagellates

(b) Diatoms

(c) Cyanobacteria

(d) Euglenoids
87. Match the placental types (column-I) with their
examples (column-II).
Column-I Column-II
(A) Basal (i) Mustard
(B) Axile (ii) China rose
(C) Parietal (iii)Dianthus
(D) Free central (iv) Sunflower
Choose the correct answer from the following options.
(a) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
(b) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
(c) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)
(d) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
88. The wheat grain has an embryo with one large,
shield shaped cotyledon known as

(a) scutellum

(b) Coleoptile

(c) epiblast

(d) coleorhiza.
89. Which one of the following figures represents the
placentation in Dianthus?
90. Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are considered
closed because

(a) there are no vessels with perforations

(b) xylem is surrounded all around by phloem

(c) a bundle sheath surrounds each bundle

(d) cambium is absent.

91. Match the following cell structure with its characteristic feature.

(A) Tight junctions (i) Cement neighbouring cells together to form sheet
(B) Adhering junctions (ii) Transmit information through chemical to another cells
© Gap junctions (iii) Establish a barrier to prevent leakage of fluid across . .
. Epithelial cells
(D) Synaptic junctions (iv) Cytoplasmic channels to facilitate communication between
. Adjacent cells

Select correct option from the following.

(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(b) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(c) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
92. Match the columns and identify the correct option.
Column I Column II
A. Thylakoids (i) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
B. Cristae (ii) Condensed structure of DNA
C. Cisternae (iii) Flat membranous sacs in stroma
D. Chromatin (iv) Infoldings in mitochondria

(a) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)

(b) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
(c) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
(d) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
93. What is true about ribosomes?

(a) The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80S, where “S” stands

for sedimentation coefficient.

(b) These are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins.

(c) These are found only in eukaryotic cells.

(d) These are self-splicing introns of some RNAs.

94. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and
peptide bond, respectively in their structure.

(a) Chitin, cholesterol

(b) Glycerol, trypsin

(c) Cellulose, lecithin

(d) Inulin, insulin

95. A female lady goes to hospital and they meet to Doctor.
they have problem in which ovum are not produced , but
can provide suitable environment for fertilisation and
further development, which treatment are suggested by
Doctor to female lady:

(1) ZIFT

(2) IUT

(3) GIFT

(4) AI
96. How many matching are correct:
Column I Column II
(a) Non-medicated IUDs – Progestasert
(b) Copper releasing IUDs – Lippes loop
(c) Hormone releasing – Multiload 375 IUDs
(d) IUDs –Emergency contraceptives

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1
97. Takes distance between two consecutive base
pairs as 0.34 nm (0.34×10–9 m). If the length of DNA
double helix in a typical mammalian cell is calculated it
comes out to be approximates :

(1) 1.2 meter

(2) 2.2 meter

(3) 3.2 meter

(4) 7.2 meter

98. In human ABO blood group is a example of :

(1) Multiple allelism

(2) Law of incomplete dominance

(3) Law of independent assortment

(4) Pleiotropy
99. Which one of the following is the correct match :
a. Colostrum i. CMI
b. Vaccination ii. Passive immunity
c. Graft rejection iii. Humoral immunity
d. Antibody iv. Active immunity

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
100. Sickle cell anaemia is caused due to substitution
of:

(1) Glutamic acid by valine at the sixth position

(2) Valine by glutamic acid at the sixth position

(3) Valine by glutamic acid at the 9th position

(4) Valine by glutamic acid at the fifth position

101. Mark the genotype that will produce maximum
number of gametes.

(1) AaBbCcDD

(2) AaBBCcDD

(3) AABbCcDd

(4) AaBbCcDd
102. Match the following column I with column II and
select the correct option.
Column I Column II
A. Dedifferentiation i. Cork
B. Redifferentiation ii. Tracheary element
C. Differentiation iii. Cork cambium

A B C
(1) i iii ii
(2) iii i ii
(3) iii ii i
(4) ii iii i
103. Which of the given genes w.r.t. lac operon codes
for transacetylase?

(1) Lac i

(2) Lac z

(3) Lac a

(4) Lac y
104. Which of the following features is not true for
dicot stem?

(1) Hypodermis, consists of collenchymatous cell

(2) Cells of endodermis are rich in starch grains

(3) Vascular bundles are arranged in a ring

(4) Exarch arrangement of primary xylem

105. Correct expression for GPP (Gross primary
productivity) is

(1) NPP = GPP + R

(2) NPP = GPP → R

(3) GPP = NPP ÷ R

(4) GPP – R = NPP

106. Which of the given is not a component of
nucleoside?

(1) Purine

(2) Ribose sugar

(3) Phosphate

(4) Pyrimidine
107. Presence of large amounts of nutrients in water
causes all of the given, except

(1) Excessive growth of phytoplanktons

(2) Algal bloom

(3) Increase in biochemical oxygen demand (BOD)

(4) Increase in dissolved oxygen (DO)

108. Mark the autosomal dominant disorder among
the following.

(1) Sickle cell anaemia

(2) Colour blindness

(3) Phenylketonuria

(4) Myotonic dystrophy

109. Which of the given is ‘ex-situ’ conservation
strategy of biodiversity?

(1) Hot spots

(2) National park

(3) Sacred groves

(4) Zoological park

110. Elements most readily mobilized are

(A)Ca, B, Fe

(B) K, P, Ca

(C) N, P, K

(D) Ca, S, B
111. Which of the following group of hormones are
produced in women only during pregnancy ?

(A)hCG, hPL, relaxin

(B) Estrogen, progesterone, hCG

(C) Cortisol, prolactin, thyroxine

(D) Prolactin, progesterone, hCG

112. Which toxin is produced by Bacillus thuringiensis?

(A)Bt toxin

(B) An acid

(C) t-toxin

(D) None of these

113. Relative contribution of CH4 in global warming is

(A)20%

(B) 60%

(C) 14%

(D) 6%
114. In 1983, which of the following companies prepared
human insulin?

(A)Genetech

(B) Eli Lilly

(C) GEAC

(D) None of these

115. Darwin conjectured that all varieties of finches have
evolved from the original seed eating finches on the
Galapagos island itself, this process is called :

(A)Adaptive radiation

(B) Convergent evolution

(C) Saltation

(D) Stochastic process

116. Which of the following pairs contains an infectious
and a non-infectious disease respectively?

(A)Typhoid and AIDS

(B) AIDS and Cancer

(C) Pneumonia and malaria

(D) Cancer and malaria

117. Select the incorrect match

(A)Zygotene : Synapsis occurs

(B) Pachytene : Crossing over takes place

(C) Diplotene : Dissolution of synaptonemal complex

(D) Diakinesis : Nucleolus reappears

118. In cymose inflorescence,

(A)Peduncle has unlimited growth

(B) The main axis terminates into a flower

(C) The flowers are borne in acropetal order

(D) Younger flowers are present towards the apex

119. Life cycle of Fucus and Ectocarpus respectively are

(A)Haplontic and Haplodiplontic

(B) Diplontic and Haplodiplontic

(C) Haplodiplontic and Diplontic

(D) Haplodiplontic and Haplontic

120. Choose the plant showing plasticity w.r.t.
environmental factors.

(A)Cotton

(B) Coriander

(C) Buttercup

(D) Larkspur
121. Genetically engineered insulin (Humulin) consist of :

(A)A chain, B-chain and c-chain peptide

(B) A chain and B chain prepared by two DNA sequences

corresponding to A and B.

(C) A chain and C-chain joined together by means of

disulphide bond.

(D) B chain and c-chain.

122. Among the following, brain size was around 1400 c.c.
in_____.

(A)Homo erectus

(B) Neanderthal man

(C) Homo habilis

(D) Dryopithecus
123. Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water takes
place in which segment :

(1) PCT

(2) Henley loop

(3) DCT

(4) Collecting duct

124. What is the correct between ZIFT and IUT :

(1) Transfer of embryo into the same reproductive organ

in female

(2) Transfer of ovum into the different reproductive organ

in female

(3) Transfer of embryo into the different reproductive

organ in female

(4) Transfer of embryo into the different reproductive

organ in male
125. Which one of the following is the correct match :
a. PCR i. Detection of cancer
b. Probe ii. Transgenic mice
c. -1-antitrypsin iii. Radioactive molecules
d. Vaccine safety iv. Emphysema

(1) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii

(2) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
126. Find out the correctly matched pair

(1) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act – 1981

(2) Integrated organic farming – Cyclical zero waste

procedure

(3) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act – 1974

(4) Snow-blindness – Caused by methyl isocyanate

127. Read the following statements carefully
a. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 to control the
emission of ODS
b. By the end of twentieth century the forest cover shrunk
to about 30 percent
c. Integrated organic farming is a cyclical, zero waste
procedure, that allows maximum utilisation of resources
and increase the efficiency of production
d. Biomagnification refers to increase in concentration of
toxic substances at lower trophic level only
(1) a & c are correct (2) a & d are correct
(3) Only d is correct (4) Only b is incorrect
128. An ecosystem supported by 1000000 J of sunlight
will have what amount of energy available to the
organisms of tertiary consumer level?

(1) 1000 J

(2) 100 J

(3) 10 J

(4) 10000 J
129. All succession wheather taking place in water or land
proceeds to a similar climax community, that is

(1) Hydrosere

(2) Xeric

(3) Mesic

(4) Halosere
130. The available biomass for the consumption to
consumers and decomposers is

(1) Gross primary productivity

(2) Secondary productivity

(3) Net primary productivity

(4) Trophic level efficiency

131. Price tag put by Robert Constanza as nature life
support services is __________ and of it ______
is for soil formation.

(1) US $ 3.3 trillion, < 10%

(2) US $ 330 trillion, 6%

(3) US $ 33 trillion, < 10%

(4) US $ 33 trillion, 50%

132. Which of the following options gives one correct
example of dominant and recessive traits or disorders?
133. Find correct match
Column I Column II
a. Gynaecomastia (i) AA + XO
b. Turner’s syndrome (ii) AA + XXY
c. Down’s syndrome (iii) Autosomal recessive gene
d. Thalassemia (iv) AA + 1 + XX/XY

(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)

(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
134. If the frequency of an autosomal dominant allele is
0.6. Calculate the number of recessive phenotypic
individuals in a population of 10000.

(1) 6000

(2) 3600

(3) 1600

(4) 4800
135. In human ABO group system _______ different
alleles allow the possibility of _______ different
types of genotypes in population.

(1) 3, 4

(2) 2, 4

(3) 3, 6

(4) 6, 3
136. Match the following
Column-I Column-II
a. Haemophilia (i) Rudimentary ovaries
b. Sickle cell anaemia (ii) X-linked recessive
c. Turner’s syndrome (iii) Gynaecomastia
d. Klinefelter’s (iv) Autosomal recessive
syndrome
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
137. Identify the incorrect match w.r.t. wood
characters given in A, B, C column
138. Bulliform cells are associated with

(1) Epidermis of dorsiventral leaves

(2) Adaxial epidermis of isobilateral leaves

(3) Abaxial epidermis of monocot leaves

(4) Mesophylls of dicot leaves

139. In monocotyledonous stem

(1) Hypodermis is parenchymatous

(2) Each vascular bundle is surrounded by collenchymatous

bundle sheath

(3) Peripheral vascular bundles are generally larger than

centrally located ones

(4) Water containing cavities are present within the

vascular bundles
140. Smooth muscles are______.

(a) voluntary, branched, uninucleate

(b) voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical

(c) involuntary, cylindrical, multinucleate

(d) involuntary, spindle shaped, uninucleated, tapering

141. Match the types of connective tissue given in column-I with their
examples given column-II and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
. (Types of connective) (Examples)
A. Loose connective tissue I. Tendons and ligaments
B. Dense regular tissue II. Skin
C. Dense irregular tissue III. Cartilage, bones, blood
D. Specialized Connective IV. Fibroblasts, macrophages and mast cells
tissue

(a) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III

(b) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(d) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
142. A secondary metabolite that acts as a toxin is

(1) Carotenoids

(2) Curcumin

(3) Abrin

(4) Monoterpenes
143. Lecithin is a

(1)Type of wax

(2) Phospholipid

(3) Oil

(4) Simple fatty acid

144. Which of the following is protein?
a. GLUT-4
b. Insulin
c. Inulin
d. Lecithin

(1) b & c
(2) a & d
(3) a & b
(4) a, b & d
145. Following is the diagrammatic representation of
three different amino acids labelled as A, B and C

Select the option which is correct identification of

amino acids A, B and C.
A B C
(1) Glycine Valine Threonine
(2) Glycine Isoleucine Aspartic acid
(3) Glycine Alanine Serine
(4) Glycine Serine Alanine
146. Virus infected cells secrete proteins called interferon
which protect non-infected cells from further viral
infection. This comes under

(1) Physical barrier

(2) Physiological barrier

(3) Cellular barrier

(4) Cytokine barrier

147. Mark the correct statement
a. MALT (Mucosa associated lymphoid tissue) constitutes
about 50% of the lymphoid tissue in human body
b. Antigen trapped in the lymph nodes are responsible for
the activation of lymphocytes present there and cause
immune response
c. B cells mediate (CMI), cell – mediated immunity
d. Secondary immune response is due to memory cells
(1) a & b are correct
(2) c & d are correct
(3) a, b & d are correct
(4) a, b, c & d are correct
148. The yellowish fluid colostrum secreted by mother
during the initial days of lactation has abundant
antibodies which provides infant with

(1) Naturally acquired active immunity

(2) Artificially acquired active immunity

(3) Naturally acquired passive immunity

(4) Artificially acquired passive immunity

149. Match the following
Column I Column II
a. Influenza (i) Varicella virus
b. Chicken pox (ii) Affects the nose, throat and air passage
c. Mumps (iii) OPV vaccine
d. Poliomyelitis (iv) Pain and swelling of the testes as .
. secondary infection
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
150. Match Column I with Column II
Column I Column II
a. Enteric fever (i) Mantoux test
b. Dengue (ii) Widal test
c. Leprosy (iii) Tourniquet test
d. Koch’s disease (iv) Lepromin test

(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
151. Given below are pairs of pathogens, disease
caused by them and their classification. Which of
these is incorrectly matched?
152. Which of the following diseases is related with the
statement “Don’t die of ignorance”?

(1) Cancer

(2) AIDS

(3) Hepatitis

(4) Gonorrhoea
153. In which one of the following options the two
examples are incorrectly matched with their particular
type of immunity?
Examples Type of immunity
(1) Saliva in mouth – Physiological
and tears in eyes barriers
(2) Skin, HCl in stomach – Physical barriers
and mucus coating
(3) Polymorphonuclear – Cellular barriers
leukocytes and monocytes
(4) Anti-tetanus and – Passive immunity
antisnake bite injection
154. Which human disease is associated with a social
stigma and is also known as ‘Kushtha Rog’?

(1) T.B.

(2) Leprosy

(3) Syphilis

(4) Gonorrhoea
155. Common round worm infecting human beings is
________. It causes internal bleeding, muscular
pain, fever, anemia and blockage of intestinal
passages

(1) Ascaris lumbricoides

(2) Enterobius vermicularis

(3) Ancylostoma duodenale

(4) Wuchereria bancrofti

156. Cocaine is obtained from the leaves of _______
plant, which is native to South America

(1) Erythroxylon coca

(2) Theobroma cacao

(3) Coffea arabica

(4) Thea sinensis

157. In which type of natural selection more individuals
acquire peripheral character value at both ends of
distribution curve?

(1) Stabilising selection

(2) Directional selection

(3) Disruptive selection

(4) Balancing selection

158. Proper burial of dead bodies alongwith flowers
and tools for the first time was started by

(1) Java man

(2) Peking man

(3) Neanderthal man

(4) Heidelberg man

159. Which of the following acts as a connective link
between phylum annelida and arthropoda?

(1) Limulus

(2) Peripatus

(3) Neoplina

(4) Bonellia
160. Select the incorrect statement from the following

(1) The Cro-Magnon man was the direct ancestor of the

living modern man
(2) Neanderthal man was adapted to a hot environment
and was not only skilled hunter but true predator
(3) Ramapithecus was more man like while Dryopithecus
was more ape like
(4) Dryopithecus is not in direct line of human evolution
161. Presence of following factors will cause deviation
in the gene frequencies as predicted by Hardy
Weinberg equilibrium, except

(1) Mutation

(2) Genetic drift

(3) Selective mating

(4) Random mating

162. The gas which was not present in spark chamber
apparatus of Miller’s experiment was

(1) H2

(2) NH3

(3) CH4

(4) H2S
163. All are the examples of convergent evolution
except

(1) Eye of octopus and mammals

(2) Flippers of penguin and dolphin

(3) Wings of butterfly and birds

(4) Flippers of whale and wings of bats

164. From the original seed eating finches, many other
forms of finches with altered beaks arose, enabling them to
become insectivorous and vegetarian. This process of
evolution of different species in a given geographical area
is called

(1) Adaptive radiation

(2) Adaptive convergence
(3) Parallel adaptation
(4) Convergent evolution
165. Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) Homology is due to convergent evolution

(2) Homology is due to sympatric speciation

(3) Analogy is due to divergent evolution

(4) Analogous structures are result of convergent evolution

166. Identify the diagram and select the correct set of
terms against it.

(1) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita – Homologous

organs – Convergent evolution
(2) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita – Analogous
organs – Divergent evolution
(3) Thorn of Cucurbita and tendril of Bougainvillea – Homologous
organs – Divergent evolution
(4) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita – Homologous
organs – Divergent evolution
167. Mark the incorrect statement

(1) Bam HI restriction site is present in tetracycline

resistant part of pBR-322
(2) Separated DNA fragments can be visualised
only after staining the DNA with a compound
known as ethidium bromide
(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens is considered as
natural genetic engineer
(4) In the gel electrophoresis DNA fragments
resolve according to base sequence
168. The separation and purification of the recombinant
products is collectively called

(1) Upstreaming

(2) Downstreaming

(3) Electroporation

(4) Transformation
169. Select the incorrect match

(1) Agarose – Gel electrophoresis

(2) Ethidium bromide – Stained DNA can be seen in visible

light

(3) Chilled ethanol – Precipitates DNA for spooling

(4) Chitinase – Disrupts fungal cell wall

170. Which of the following carries a natural plasmid
that can most effectively and exclusively be used
in transforming plant cell only?

(1) Meloidogyne incognita

(2) Bacillus thuringiensis

(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(4) Escherichia coli

171. Select the DNA sequences which would act as a
restriction site

(1) AACCGG (2) GGTTGG

TTGGCC CCAACC
(3) AAGGCT (4) CTGCAG
TTCCGA GACGTC
172. Find the incorrect statement

(1) In gel electrophoresis, the undigested DNA fragment is

likely to move through least distance
(2) Any piece of DNA when linked to ori site sequence can
be made to replicate within host cells
(3) Restriction endonuclease break the bond between
pentose sugar and nitrogenous base in DNA
(4) Bt cotton is pest resistant variety of cotton developed
by genetic engineering
173. Mark the first isolated restriction endonuclease
Enzyme

(1) EcoR I

(2) Bam HI

(3) Hind II

(4) EcoR II
174. Find the incorrect match

(1) Disarmed Retroviruses –Deliver desirable genes into

animal cells

(2) Biolistics –Vectrorless gene transfer

(3) Natural genetic –Agrobacterium engineer tumefaciens

(4) Insertional inactivation –Blue colonies of ẞ-

galactosidase indicate recombinants.
175. Which of the following statements is incorrect
regarding the gel electrophoresis?
(1) DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules and
they can be separated by forcing them to move towards
cathode under an electric field
(2) DNA fragments separate according to their sizes
through sieving effect provided by agarose gel
(3) Smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves
on gel
(4) The separated DNA fragments can be visualised only
after staining with ethidium bromide followed by exposure
to UV radiations
176. Mark the restriction endonuclease which forms
blunt or flush ends
177. Which of the following statements is incorrect
w.r.t. polymerase chain reaction?
(1) Repeated amplification is achieved by the use of
thermostable DNA polymerase
(2) Thermostable DNA polymerase is isolated from
a bacterium, Thermus aquaticus
(3) Each cycle in PCR has three steps, first is
primer annealing, second is denaturation and third is
extension of primers
(4) In polymerase chain reaction, multiple copies of gene of
interest are synthesized in vitro
using two sets of primers and enzyme DNA polymerase
178. In which of the following methods, micro-particles
of gold or tungsten are used to transfer the foreign
DNA molecules in the host cell?

(1) Electroporation

(2) Direct DNA injection

(3) Biolistic method

(4) Micro-injection method

179. The term ‘molecular scissors’ is used for

(1) Reverse transcriptase

(2) Restriction enzyme

(3) DNA polymerase

(4) RNA polymerase

180. Read the following paragraph and the correct
option that statisfies A, B and C.
The DNA fragments are A charged molecules
that are resolved under the influence of B
through sieving effect of agarose gel. Restriction
enzyme digested DNA is loaded which move
towards the C under an electric field.
A B C
(1) Positively Charge Anode
(2) Negatively Size Cathode
(3) Negatively Size Anode
(4) Positively Charge Cathode
181. The polymerase which is generally used in PCR
reactions is isolated from

(1) Thermus aquaticus

(2) Arthrobacter luteus

(3) Escherichia coli

(4) Proteus vulgaris

182. Which of the following contraceptive methods
involve a role of hormone ?

(a) Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier Methods

(b) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills, Emergency

Contraceptives

(c) Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea, Pills

(d) CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptive

183. Select the hormone-releasing Intra-Uterine Devices.

(a) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375

(b) Vaults, LNG-20

(c) Multiload 375, Progestasert

(d) Progestasert, LNG-20

184. Which of the following is a correct statement?

(a) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced.

(b) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself.

(c) IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms in the uterus.

(d) IUDs suppress gametogenesis.

185. Select the option including all sexually transmitted
diseases.

(a) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes

(b) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes

(c) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria

(d) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis

186. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases
is not completely curable?

(a) Chlamydiasis

(b) Gonorrhoea

(c) Genital warts

(d) Genital herpes

187. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the
introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis
(Bt) is resistant to

(a) insect pests

(b) fungal diseases

(c) plant nematodes

(d) insect predators.

188. What triggers activation of protoxin to active toxin
of Bacillus thuringiensis in bollworm?

(a) Acidic pH of stomach

(b) Body temperature

(c) Moist surface of midgut

(d) Alkaline pH of gut

189. In RNAi, the genes are silenced using

(a) ds-RNA

(b) ss-DNA

(c) ss-RNA

(d) ds-DNA.
190. Match the following columns and select the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy
(B) Adenosine deaminase (ii) Cellular defence
deficiency
(C) RNAi (iii)Detection of HIV infection
(D) PCR (iv) Bacillus thuringiensis
. (A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(b) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
191. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) In man insulin is synthesised as a proinsulin.

(b) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called C-peptide.

(c) The functional insulin has A and B chains linked

together by hydrogen bonds.

(d) Genetically engineered insulin is produced in

E.Coli.
192. A true breeding plant is

(a) one that is able to breed on its own

(b) produced due to cross-pollination among unrelated

plants

(c) near homozygous and produces offspring of its own

kind

(d) always homozygous recessive in its genetic

constitution.
193. Which of the following is true for Golden rice?

(a) It has yellow grains, because of a gene introduced from

a primitive variety of rice.

(b) It is vitamin A enriched, with a gene from daffodil.

(c) It is pest resistant, with a gene from Bacillus

thuringiensis.

(d) It is drought tolerant, developed using Agrobacterium

vector.
194. Match the following columns and select the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Clostridium butylicum (i) Cyclosporin-A
(B) Trichoderma polysporum (ii) Butyric acid
(C) Monascus purpureus (iii) Citric acid
(D) Aspergillus niger (iv) Blood cholesterol lowering agent

. (A) (B) (C) (D)

(a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(b) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(c) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
195. Which of the following is a commercial blood
cholesterol lowering agent?

(a) Lipases

(b) Cyclosporin A

(c) Statin

(d) Streptokinase
196. Match the following organisms with the products
they produce.
(A) Lactobacillus (i) Cheese
(B) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (ii) Curd
(C) Aspergillus niger (iii) Citric acid
(D) Acetobacter aceti (iv) Bread
(v) Acetic acid
Select the correct option.
. (A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) (ii) (i) (iii) (v)
(b) (ii) (iv) (v) (iii)
(c) (ii) (iv) (iii) (v)
(d) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)
197. Which of the following is put into anaerobic sludge
digester for further sewage treatment?

(a) Primary sludge

(b) Floating debris

(c) Effluents of primary treatment

(d) Activated sludge

198. By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of
sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino
rams?

(a) Out crossing

(b) Mutational breeding

(c) Cross breeding

(d) Inbreeding
199. Select the incorrect statement.

(a) Inbreeding helps in accumulation of superior genes and

elimination of undesirable genes.

(b) Inbreeding increases homozygosity.

(c) Inbreeding is essential to evolve purelines, in

any animal.

(d) Inbreeding selects harmful recessive gene that

reduce fertility and productivity.
200. Homozygous purelines in cattle can be obtained by

(a) mating of unrelated individuals of same breed

(b) mating of individuals of different breed

(c) mating of individuals of different species

(d) mating of related individuals of same breed.

 Answer key
1. a 11. d 21. d 31. a 41. d 51. c 61. d 71. c 81. a 91. c
2. a 12. d 22. d 32. d 42. c 52. c 62. c 72. b 82. a 92. d
3. b 13. c 23. d 33. d 43. b 53. d 63. b 73. a 83. b 93. b
4. a 14. b 24. b 34. c 44. b 54. a 64. d 74. c 84. d 94. d
5. a 15. c 25. d 35. d 45. a 55. b 65. a 75. b 85. b 95. c
6. a 16. d 26. a 36. d 46. c 56. b 66. c 76. b 86. b 96. d
7. d 17. a 27. d 37. d 47. a 57. b 67. a 77. a 87. c 97. b
8. a 18. a 28. b 38. c 48. b 58. b 68. d 78. d 88. a 98. a
9. d 19. a 29. b 39. c 49. a 59. c 69. a 79. a 89. b 99. b
10. b 20. a 30. a 40. a 50. d 60. d 70. b 80. a 90. d 100.a
 Answer key
101.d 111.a 121.b 131.d 141.c 151.c 161.d 171.d 181.a 191.c
102.b 112.a 122.b 132.a 142.c 152.b 162.d 172.c 182.b 192.c
103.c 113.a 123.c 133.a 143.b 153.b 163.d 173.c 183.d 193.b
104.d 114.b 124.c 134.c 144.c 154.b 164.a 174.d 184.c 194.b
105.d 115.a 125.a 135.c 145.c 155.a 165.d 175.a 185.a 195.c
106.c 116.b 126.b 136.a 146.d 156.a 166.d 176.c 186.d 196.c
107.d 117.d 127.a 137.d 147.c 157.c 167.d 177.c 187.a 197.d
108.d 118.b 128.c 138.b 148.c 158.c 168.b 178.c 188.d 198.c
109.d 119.b 129.c 139.d 149.a 159.b 169.b 179.b 189.a 199.d
110.c 120.c 130.c 140.d 150.c 160.b 170.c 180.c 190.a 200.d