SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH

NEET GRAND TEST-10

Name :........................................... Hall Ticket No:

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. The Model NEET- 2018 is of 3 Hrs duration. Time: 10.00 AM – 1.00

PM.
2. The question paper for NEET-2018 consists of 180 questions
comprising 45 questions in Botany, 45 in Zoology, 45 in Physics and
45 in Chemistry for NEET.
3. All questions are of objective type (Multiple choices only)
4. Each question carries four marks.
5. Negative marking: one mark will be deducted for every wrongly
answered question.
6. Total Marks 720.
7. The candidates are prohibited from carrying any paper to the
examination hall except HALL TICKET.
8. No Calculators, Mini-Cards, Watches with Calculators, Pager, Cell
Phone, Slide rules or outer aids to calculation will be allowed in the
examination hall.
9. Candidates once admitted will not be allowed to leave the hall till
half an hour before the closing of the test.
10. A separate sheet is attached in the middle of this booklet for rough
work, you can detach and use it.
11. A detachable answer sheet with 180 question blocks, with 4 circles
corresponding to 4 multiple choice for each question will be
provided. Use HB Pencil to darken the appropriate circle against the
question number provided in the sheet. Answer should be marked
only on the answer sheet, but not on the question paper booklet.

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 SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR ELITE, AIIMS S60, NEET MPL & IC_LTC DATE: 02-05-18
Sub: BIOLOGY NEET GRAND TEST-10 Max.Marks: 720

1. If oxyntic cells of gastric glands become 5. Dolipore septa, clamp connections, well
non-functional, what is likely to happen? developed dikaryotic mycelium is
observed in
(1) Proteolytic enzymes will not be
(1) Sac fungus
secreted
(2) Club fungus
(2) pH of the stomach will be decreased
(3) Algal fungus
(3) Absorption of cyanocobalamine is
(4) Fungi imperfecti
affected
6. What is the effect caused by Cocaine ?
(4) Gastric juice will not be secreted
(1) slows down the body functions
2. Herbarium is prepared for
(2) provides sedation effectively
(1) Woody trees
(3) produces sense of euphoria and
(2) Bryophytes
increased energy
(3) Alga
(4) reduces the pain very effectively
(4) Flowering plant
7. Monerans with oxygenic photosynthesis is
3. Name the point of eye, where the visual
associated with all except
activity is greatest
(1) Heterocysts
(1) Ora serrata
(2) Algal blooms
(2) Fovea
(3) Flagella
(3) Optic disc
(4) Peptidoglyan cell wall
(4) Macula densa
8. Hisardale was developed by
4. Siliceous shulls, flagellated forms, ciliated
(1) close breeding
forms, parasities and saprophytes are all
(2) inter specific hybridisation
included under which group in
(3) cross breeding
Protistans?
(4) out crossing
(1) Diatoms
9. Which is correct with regard to Monera ?
(2) Dinoflagellates
(1) Rotation in cytoplasm
(3) Euglenoids
(2) Tubulin in flagella
(4) Protozoans
(3) Murein in cell wall
(4) Histones in nucleoid

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10. Heterotroph with zoospores is (1) Chlamydomonas
(1) Chlamydomonas (2) Spirogyra
(2) Laminaria (3) Cladophora
(3) Phytophthora (4) Chara
(4) Spirogyra 16. Identify the correct pair of sexually
11. Which of the following is a correct match transmitted diseases
of the organism and its two characters ? (1) Genital warts, Malaria
(1) Hydra – cnidocytes, metagenesis (2) Gonorrhoea, Pneumonia
(2) Nereis – parapodia, monoecious (3) Syphilis, Trichomoniasis
(3) Pila – calcareous shell, radula (4) Chlamydiasis, Filariasis
(4) Balanoglossus – gill respiration, closed 17. Character unrelated to Fabaceae is
circulation (1) Axile placentation
12. SO 2 pollution indicator organism is (2) Vexillary aestivation

(1) Pioneer community (3) Pod / Legume

(2) Possess soredia and isidia (4) Nodular roots

(3) Algal and fungal colony 18. Fasiculated roots, cladodes, scale leaves

(4) All the above and vegetable yielding genus is

13. In the kidney, urea is transported into the (1) Asparagus

medullary interstitium from (2) Arachis

(1) thin segment of ascending limb of (3) Atropa

Henle’s loop (4) Amaranthus

(2) descending limb of Henle’s loop 19. Identify the correct sequence of stages in

(3) thick segment of ascending limb of Verhulst – Pearl Logistic growth

Henle’s loop (1) Lag phase  acceleration  crash

(4) collecting duct down

14. Which one of the following is not a (2) Lag phase  acceleration 

gametophyte ? deceleration  asymptote

(1) Protonema of Funaria (3) Acceleration  asymptote 

(2) Prothallus of Dryopteris deceleration  lag phase

(3) Endosperm of Cycas (4) Lag phase  acceleration  asymptote

(4) Perisperm in Beet root  deceleration

15. Isogamy is observed in all except

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20. Which one of the following groups of the gills
three animals each is correctly matched (4) Body parts receive oxygenated blood
with their one characteristic feature ? from the gills
Animals Character 23. In the knee jerk reflex, impulses from the
(1) Hirudinaria, Chaetopleura, muscle spindle are conducted to the spinal
Metamerism
Laccifer cord by
(2) Ancylostoma, Aedes, Triploblastic (1) afferent neurons via dorsal root
Gorgonia organization (2) efferent neurons via ventral root

(3) Ophiura, Physalia, Radial (3) afferent neurons via ventral root
Pleurobrachia symmetry (4) efferent neurons via dorsal root

(4) Locusta, Fasciola, Pinctada Coelomates 24. Meristem present in grasses is / are
(1) Lateral meristem

21. Match the following with relation to (2) Apical meristem

flower of genus in column A with its floral (3) Intercalary meristem

formula in column B (4) 2 & 3

Column - A Column - B 25. Correctly matched pair in the following is

I) Solanum  (1) Casparian strips – Exodermis of root

A) O  P (3 + 3)
+ (2) Conjunctive tissue – Stele of stem
II) Dolichos B) K4 C4 A2+4 (3) Guard cells – Epidermis of leaf
III) Brassica  (4) Starch sheath – Endodermis of root
C) O  G (2)
+ 26. Choose the incorrect match among the
IV) Allium D) % C1+2+(2) A(9) + 1 following
(1) I - C, II - A, III - B, IV - D (1) Plague – viral disease
(2) I - C, II - D, III - B, IV - A (2) Chikungunya – vector borne disease
(3) I - A, II - D, III - C, IV - B (3) Pneumonia – air borne disease
(4) I - D, II - C, III - A, IV – B (4) Diphtheria – bacterial disease
22. In the circulatory system of fishes 27. In plants long distance transport of which
(1) Heart pumps oxygenated blood to the of the following compound is passive
body parts (1) Water
(2) Gills directly receive deoxygenated (2) Minerals
blood from the body parts (3) Organic solutes
(3) Heart receive oxygenated blood from (4) All the above

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28. Rate of decomposition is faster (4) Infundibulum
(1) if detritus is rich in lignin and chitin 33. Choose the correct set of three carbon,
(2) in warm and moist environment four carbon, five carbon, six carbon,
(3) if detritus is poor in water soluble intermediates that undergo oxidation in
substances aerobic respiration
(4) in anaerobic, low temperature (1) Pyruvic acid, malic acid, Ribulose 1,5
conditions. bisP, oxaloacetic acid
29. Notochord is present only in the larval tail (2) 1, 3 Bis PGA, oxaloacetic acid, α
in ketoglutaric acid, isocitric acid
(1) Amphioxus (3) Glyceraldehyde 3P, Succinic acid, α
(2) Saccoglossus ketoglutaric acid, Isocitric acid
(3) Doliolum (4) Pyruvic acid, Fumaric acid, α
(4) Myxine ketoglutaric acid, Oxalo succinic acid
30. Which of the following causes cross 34. Pick the wrong match
bridge formation, during muscle (1) Thinning (Cotton) = Ethylene
contraction ? (2) Bolting (Beet root) = Gibberellins
(1) Binding of calcium to the myosin head (3) Nutrient mobilization = Cytokinins
(2) Release of ADP and Pi from the (4) Flowering (Pineapple) = ABA
myosin head 35. Mammals of colder climates have shorter
(3) Binding of ATP to the myosin head ears and limbs to minimize heat loss. This
(4) Hydrolysis of ATP by the myosin head is
31. Which step in nitrogen cycle involves (1) Bergman’s rule
aerobic chemoautotrophic bacteria ? (2) Vont Hoff’s rule
(1) Nitrogen fixation (3) Gloger’s rule
(2) Ammonification (4) Allen’s rule
(3) Nitrification 36. In which cells spindle apparatus is not
(4) Nitrogen assimilation involved in the separation of sister
32. In humans, part of the fallopian tube that chromatids ?
is closest to the uterus is (1) Plants
(1) Ampulla (2) Animals
(2) Cervix (3) Bacteria
(3) Isthmus (4) 1 & 3

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37. Which of the following is incorrect about (2) joint diastole
CFCs ? (3) joint systole
(1) they are responsible for depletion of (4) both 1 and 2
ozone 42. Which of the following is true about gluco
(2) they also cause green house effect corticoids ?
(3) in the stratosphere, CFCs have (1) They interact with membrane bound
permanent and continuing affect on receptors of target cells
ozone levels (2) They inhibit cellular uptake and
(4) they contribute to 60% of total global utilization of amino acids
warming (3) They stimulate glycogenesis and
38. Which of the following is an aromatic lipogenesis
amino acid ? (4) They provide immune responses by
(1) Methionine producing inflammatory reactions
(2) Tryptophan 43. In frog, renal portal system transports the
(3) Valine blood from
(4) Glycine (1) lower body parts to kidneys
39. Polypeptides are produced, modified and (2) kidneys to forelimbs
broken down respectively in (3) dorsal aorta to kidneys
(1) ER, Golgi and Lysosomes (4) kidneys to post caval vein
(2) Golgi, Lysosomes and ER 44. Statement-I : Gametes are always haploid
(3) ER, Lysosomes and Golgi eventhough the plant body from which
(4) Golgi, ER and Lysosomes they arise may be haploid (or) diploid
40. In all sexually reproducing organisms A is Statement-II : Sexual reproduction
always observed and presence of B is not generally involve fusion of gametes
obligatory. A and B respectively are produced from the same plant (or) two
(1) Flowers, Zygote different plants
(2) Zygote, Flowers (1) Statement-I and Statement-II are true
(3) Seeds, Zygote (2) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is
(4) Seeds, Flowers false.
41. In human heart, passive ventricular filling (3) Statement-I is false but Statement-II
occurs during is true.
(1) atrial systole (4) Statement-I and Statement-II are false

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45. What is untrue regarding Eicchornia ? probe
(1) It entered into India as a contaminant (3) transferring separated DNA fragments
with imported wheat to synthetic membranes
(2) Water hyacinth (4) detection of hybridized DNA
(3) Terror of Bengal fragments
(4) Balancing roots and offsets 50. Select out the odd one with respect to
46. Rivet popper hypothesis of Paul Ehrlich product of the process
explains (1) Biological nitrogen fixation
(1) the relation between diversity and (2) Industrial nitrogen fixation
productivity (3) Electrical nitrogen fixation
(2) the significance of a species in an (4) Ammonification
ecosystem 51. Choose the correct option related to the
(3) the species richness-area relationship below given diagram.
(4) the latitudinal gradient of biodiversity
47. In the flowers of angiosperms,
microsporangia develop further and
become
(1) Anther
(2) Pollen sac
(3) Pollen grain
(4) Stamen
48. The strength of linkage is more when (1) PCO2 in C is less than that in D

(1) Genes are distantly placed (2) PCO2 in A is equal to that in D

(2) Recombination frequency is more (3) PO2 in B is greater than that in C

(3) Parental phenotype is less in F2 (4) PO2 in A equal to that in D

generation 52. The _______ contains a number of centres

(4) Distance between genes on a which control body temperature, urge for

chromosome is less eating and drinking

49. In DNA fingerprinting technique, the term (1) Cerebrum

blotting refers to (2) Medulla oblongata

(1) separation of DNA fragments (3) Hypothalamus

(2) hybridization using labeled VNTR (4) Cerebellum

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53. How many among the following (2) Eukaryotes
characters are observed in grasses ? (3) Virus
(A) Apomixis
(4) 1 & 2
(B) Scutellum in seed
58. Which one among the following get
(C) Motor cells in leaves transformed in Griffith’s experiment ?
(D) Bean shaped guard cells (1) Physical form of mice
(E) Coleoptile and Coleorhiza (2) Physical form of bacteria
(F) Anemophily (3) Physical form of nucleic acid
(1) 6 (4) Physical form of capsid
(2) 5 59. Which of the following statements is true
(3) 3 regarding absorption of food in the gut ?
(1) Fructose and some amino acids are
(4) 2
absorbed by facilitated transport in the
54. One of the key concepts of Darwinian
colon
theory of evolution is
(2) Chylomicrons are absorbed actively
(1) saltation
into the intestinal mucosa in ileum
(2) use and disuse principle
(3) Electrolytes like sodium and
(3) branching descent and natural
bicarbonates are passively transported in
selection
the stomach
(4) fixed nature of species
(4) Glucose and amino acids are absorbed
55. Ribo nucleotides are observed in all except
by active transport in small intestine
(1) Codons
60. Which of the following is a non medicated
(2) Anticodons
intra uterine device for contraception
(3) Ribozyme
(1) Vault
(4) PBR 322
(2) Saheli
56. The biodiversity hotspot from the
following is (3) Lippe’s loop
(1) Aravali hills of Rajasthan (4) Norplant
(2) Western ghats and Srilanka 61. Both DNA & RNA’s are either single
(3) Bustar of Chhattisgarh stranded (or) double stranded in
(4) Sarguja of Madhya Pradesh (1) Bacteria
57. Multiple RNA polymerases catalyse (2) Eukaryotes
heterocatalysis in (3) Viruses
(1) Prokaryotes (4) Fungi
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62. Muscles present in the walls of blood (4) Helicase, DNA Polymerase, 940C
vessels are 67. Read the statement
(1) cylindrical, striated, multi nucleated “He postulated the presence of adaptor
(2) cylindrical, branched, unstriped molecule that would on one hand read the
(3) fusiform, unstriated, uninucleated code & on other hand would bind to
(4) involuntary, striated, fusiform specific Aminoacid
63. All are energy utilization process except Who is the scientist & adaptor molecule?
(1) Diazotrophy (1) Holley & t - RNA
(2) Translation process on ribosomes (2) Nirenberg &  - m RNA
(3) Polymerisation during DNA (3) Crick & t - RNA
replication (4) Crick & m - RNA
(4) Absorption of capillary water by root 68. Choose the correct option about
hairs antidiuretic hormone
64. _____ are not given any place in ecological (1) it promotes reabsorption of water in
pyramids even though they play a vital the initial segments of the renal tubule
role in the ecosystem. (2) its secretion is suppressed in response
(1) Producers to dehydration
(2) Consumers (3) it causes abrupt fall in the GFR
(3) Saprophytes (4) it has constrictory effect on the blood
(4) Carnivores vessels
65. Sixth amino acid in the beta globin chain 69. “Z” gene expression in lac operon is
of sickle cell haemoglobin is induced by
(1) Glutamic acid (1) Repressor lactose complex
(2) Valine (2) Repressor
(3) Histidine (3) Glucose in medium
(4) Proline (4) Blocking of operator
66. Separation of two strands of DNA during 70. Testicular hormones called androgens are
autocatalysis, heterocatalysis & PCR is synthesized and secreted by
aided respectively by (1) Male germ cells
(1) Helicase, RNA Polymerase, Helicase (2) Primary spermatocytes
(2) Helicase, RNA Polymerase, 940C (3) Leydig cells
(3) RNA polymerase, Helicase, 940C (4) Sertoli cells
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71. Mean annual temperature as well as mean 76. Disease resistant & pest resistant varieties
annual precipitation are more in of Brassica respectively
(1) grassland (1) Pusa Sawani & Pusa Gaurav
(2) temperate forest (2) Pusa Gaurav & Pusa Swarnim
(3) coniferous forest (3) Pusa Swarnim & Pusa Sawani
(4) tropical forest (4) Pusa Swarnim & Pusa Gaurav
72. Somaclonal variations can be obtained by 77. Select the option which correctly matches
(1) Colchicine treatment the endocrine gland with its hormone and
(2) Hybridisation its function
(3) Irradiation with gamma rays Endocrine
Hormone Function
(4) Tissue culture gland
73. A collection of plants and seeds having Increases
diverse alleles of all the genes of a crop is (1) Para Parathyroid Ca  level and
stimulates
called thyroid hormone
bone
(1) Herbarium mineralization
(2) Germplasm Causes
(2) Adrenal pupilary
(3) Gene gun Adrenaline
cortex dilation,
(4) Genome piloerection
74. The UN Conference of Parties on climate Influences
(3) Pineal pigmentation,
change in the year 2016 was held in Melatonin
gland defense
(1) Marrakech, Morocco
capability
(2) Lima, Peru Regulates
(3) Bonn, Germany (4) Thyroid Thyrocalcitonin basal
metabolic rate
(4) Paris, France
75. Which of the following is a correct
78. The process by which organisms with
representation of the various pulmonary
different evolutionary history evolve
capacities ?
similar adaptive features in response to a
(1) IC < EC < VC
common environmental challenge is
(2) EC < IC < FRC
(1) Adaptive radiation
(3) FRC < IC < VC
(2) Convergent evolution
(4) IC < FRC < TLC
(3) Divergent evolution
(4) Special creation
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79. Aerobic bacteria are employed in (4) Probe
(1) Fermentation 84. Blue-white selection in genetic
(2) Biogas plants engineering is used to / for
(3) Sewage treatment plants (1) Separation of DNA from host cell
(4) Bread production (2) Direct gene transfer
80. Pick the incorrect match (3) Test the presence of insert in a
(1) Biolistics - gene transfer method plasmid
(2) Antibiotic resistant genes - selectable (4) Purify and formulate the gene
markers product
(3) EcoRI – Plasmid 85. Which one of the following is the correct
(4) Agrobacterium - Natural genetic matching of three items and their
engineer grouping category ?
81. Biological product of transgenic animal, Items Category
which is useful in the treatment of Clavicle, Coxal
(1) Girdle bones
emphysema bone, Carpal
(1)  – 1- antitrypsin Ethmoid, Sphenoid,
(2) Skull bones
(2)  - interferon Xiphoid
(3)  - lactalbumin Scapula, Sternum, Appendicular
(3)
(4)  - globulins Sacrum skeleton
82. Which of the following disorders in Atlas, Hyoid,
(4) Axial Skeleton
humans is due to allosomal trisomy ? Coccyx
(1) Turner’s syndrome
(2) Down’s syndrome 86. Which one among the following is
(3) Klinefelter’s syndrome incorrect?
(4) Cri-du-Chat syndrome (1) Hind II - first Restriction enzyme
83. A single strand of Nucleic acid tagged discovered
with a radioactive molecule used in (2) Gel-electrophoresis - separation of
southern blotting & colony hybridization DNA fragments
is (3) Ideal cloning vector - multiple
(1)  174 Bacteriophage DNA restriction sites for one enzyme
(2) Vector (4) Stirred tank bioreactor - growing
(3) Selectable marker bacteria in culture medium
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87. Find out the incorrect statement about 
(4) Q
Placenta 2 R
92. The average translational kinetic energy of
(1) It is connected to embryo through
O 2 (molar mass 32) molecules at a
umbilical cord particular temperature is 0.048 ev. The
(2) It is a structural and functional unit translational kinetic energy of N 2 (molar
between foetus and maternal body mass 28) molecules in ev at the same
temperature is
(3) It acts as an endocrine tissue
(1) 0.0015
(4) It facilitate the supply of oxygen and (2) 0.036
nutrients to the maternal body (3) 0.048
88. Healthy ecosystems are base for (4) 0.768
93. Beta rays emitted by a radioactive
(1) Economics
material are
(2) Environment (1) Electromagnetic radiation
(3) Aesthetic goods and services (2) The electrons orbiting around the
nucleus
(4) All the above
(3) Charged particles emitted by nucleus
89. Choose the incorrect match related to (4) Neutral particles
Periplaneta 94. A raindrop reaching the ground with
terminal velocity has momentum p.
(1) Alary muscles – help in circulation
Another drop of twice the radius, also
(2) Tegmina – metathoracic wings reaching the ground with terminal
(3) Seminal vesicles – storage of sperms velocity, will have momentum
(4) Collateral glands – ootheca formation (1) 4p
(2) 8p
90. Cyclostomes possess
(3) 16p
(1) open type of circulation (4) 32p
(2) cycloid scales on the body 95. A circular current carrying coil has a
radius R. The distance from the centre of
(3) 6-15 pairs of gill slits
the coil on the axis where the magnetic
(4) paired fins for locomotion 1
induction will be th to its value at the
91. A nonconducting ring of radius R has 8
centre of the coil, is
charge Q distributed unevenly over it. If it
R
rotates with an angular velocity  , the (1)
3
equivalent current will be (2) R 3
(1) zero (3) 2 3 R
(2) Q 2
(4) R
 3
(3) Q
2
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96. Photon and electron are given same 99. Wtaer drops fall at regular intervals from
-20 a roof. At an instant when a drop is about
energy (10 J) . Wavelength associated
with photon and electron are λ Ph and λ el to leave the roof, the separations between
3 successive drops below the roof are in
then correct statement will be
the ratio
(1) λ Ph > λ el
(1) 1 : 2 : 3
(2) λ Ph < λ el
(2) 1 : 4 : 3
(3) λ Ph = λ el (3) 1 : 3 : 5
λ el (4) 1 : 5 : 13
(4) = c, velocity of light
λ Ph
100. A point charge q is placed at a distance
97. Two masses M and m are attached to a a/2 directly above the centre of a square
vertical axis by weightless threads of of side a. The electric flux through the
square is
combined length l . They are set in
q
(1)
rotational motion in a horizontal plane ε0
about this axis with constant angular q
(2)
velocity ω . If the tensions in the threads
πε 0
q
are the same during motion, the distance (3)
4ε 0
of M from the axis is q
(4)
Ml 6ε 0
(1)
M m 101. On a cold morning, a metal surface will
ml feel colder to touch than a wooden surface
(2)
M m because
(1) Metal has high specific heat
M m
(3) l
M (2) Metal has high thermal conductivity
M m (3) Metal has low specific heat
(4) l
m (4) Metal has low thermal conductivity
98. In a parallel-plate capacitor of capacitance
102. Two identical metal balls with charges
C, a metal sheet is inserted between the +2Q and –Q are separated by some
plates, parallel to them. The thickness of distance, and exert a force F on each other.
They are joined by a conducting wire,
the sheet is half of the separation between
which is then removed. The force between
the plates. The capacitance now becomes them will now be
(1) 4C (1) F

(2) 2C (2) F/2

(3) C/2 (3) F/4

(4) C/4 (4) F/8

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103. The magnetic moment (μ) of a revolving (2) 5/2
electron around the nucleus varies with (3) 5/3
principal quantum number n as
(4) 7/2
(1)   n
107. To form a composite 16μF, 1000V
(2)   1/ n capacitor from a supply of identical
(3)   n2 capacitors marked 8μF, 250V , we require
a minimum number of capacitors
(4)   1/ n2 (1) 40
104. Two coherent monochromatic light beams (2) 32
of intensities I and 4I are superposed. The
(3) 8
maximum and minimum possible
intensities in the resulting beam are (4) 2
(1) 5I and I 108. Light from a hydrogen discharge tube is
(2) 5I and 3I incident on the cathode of a photoelectric
(3) 9I and I cell the work function of the cathode
(4) 9I and 3I surface is 4.2 eV. In order to reduce the
105. The amplitude of a damped oscillator photo-current to zero the voltage of the
becomes half in one minute. The anode relative to the cathode must be
amplitude after 3 minute will be 1/X made
times the original, where X is (1) – 4.2 V
(1) 2  3 (2) – 9.4 V
(2) 23 (3) + 4.2 V
(3) 32 (4) +9.4 V

(4) 3  22 109. With usual notation, the following

equation, said to give the distance covered
106. Volume versus temperature graph of two
 1
moles of helium gas is as shown in figure. in the nth second i.e., Sn = u + a  n -  is
 3
The ratio of heat absorbed and the work (1) numerically correct but dimensionally
done by the gas in process 1-2 is not correct
(2) numerically not correct but
dimensionally correct
(3) both dimensionally and numerically
correct
(4) neither numerically nor dimensionally
(1) 3
correct
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110. The tension of a string is increased by 113. If different planets have the same density
44%. If its frequency of vibration is to but different radii then the acceleration
due to gravity (g) on the surface of the
remain unchanged, its length must be
planet will depends on its radius (R) as
increased by 1
(1) g  2
(1) 44% R
1
(2) 44% (2) g 
R
(3) 22% (3) g  R
(4) 20% (4) g  R 2
114. Which logic gate is represented by the
111. Three-fouths of the active nuclei present
following combination of logic gates
3
in a radioactive sample decay in s. The
4
half-life of the sample is
(1) 1 s
1
(2) s
2
3 (1) OR
(3) s
4
(2) NAND
3
(4) s
8 (3) AND
112. The diode used in the circuit shown in the (4) NOR
figure has a constant voltage drop of 0.5 V 115. If the distance between the earth and the
at all currents and a maximum power sun becomes half its present value, the
rating of 100 milliwatts. What should be number of days in a year would have
the value of the resistor R, connected in been
series with the diode for obtaining (1) 64.5
maximum current (2) 129

0.5 V (3) 182.5

R
(4) 730
116. A shell at rest explodes into pieces. The

1.5 V centre of mass of the fragments move

(1) 1.5  (1) In parabolic path
(2) 5  (2) Vertically upwards
(3) 6.67  (3) Horizontally
(4) 200  (4) at rest
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117. An ideal gas heat engine operates in a (3) At a height R e from earth's surface
Carnot cycle between 127°C and 227°C. It ( R e radius of the earth)
absorbs 6 kcal at the higher temperature.
(4) At infinity
The amount of heat (in kcal) converted
121. An LC resonant circuit contains a 400 pF
into work is equal to
capacitor and a 100 H inductor. It is set
(1) 3.5
into oscillation coupled to an antenna. The
(2) 1.6
wavelength of the radiated
(3) 1.2
electromagnetic waves is
(4) 4.8
(1) 377 mm
118. A flat circular coil of n turns and radius r
(2) 377 metre
carries a current i. Its magnetic moment is
(3) 377 cm
2
(1)  r ni (4) 3.77 cm
(2) 2 rni 122. The breaking stress of a wire of length L
 ni  and radius r is 5 kg - wt/m 2 . The wire of
(3) 0 
 2 r 
length 2l and radius 2r of the same
(4) 0 r 2 ni
material will have breaking stress in
119. A wire of length L is bent in the form of a
kg - wt/m 2
circular coil and current i is passed
(1) 5
through it. If this coil is placed in a
(2) 10
magnetic field then the torque acting on
(3) 20
the coil will be maximum when the
(4) 80
number of turns is
123. In YDSE, the frize width is  . If the entire
(1) As large as possible
arrangement is now placed inside a liquid
(2) Any number
of refractive index  , the frize will
(3) 2
become
(4) 1
(1) 
120. At some point, the gravitational potential

and also the gravitational field due to (2)

earth is zero. The point is

(1) On earth's surface (3)
 1
(2) at the centre of the earth

(4)
 1
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124. A spring, which is initially in its (2) 4
unstretched condition, is first stretched by (3) 10
a length x and then again by a further (4) zero
length x. The work done in the first case is 127. Two polaroids are oriented with their
W1 and in the second case is W2 . principal planes making an angle of 60°.

(1) W2  W1 The percentage of incident unpolarized

light which does not passes through the
(2) W2  2W1
system is
(3) W2  3W1
(1) 12.5 %
(4) W2  4W1
(2) 50%
125. A sphere and a cube of same material and
(3) 30%
same volume are heated upto same
(4) 87.5 %
temperature and allowed to cool in the
128. A long solenoid of N turns has a self-
same surroundings. The ratio of the
inductance L and area of cross-section A.
amounts of radiations emitted will be
When a current i flows through the
(1) 1 : 1
solenoid, the magnetic field inside it has
4π
(2) :1 magnitude B. The current i is equal to
3
BAN
1/3 (1)
π L
(3)   :1
6 (2) BANL
2/3
1  4π  BN
(4)  :1 (3)
2  3  AL

126. The masses of 10 kg and 20 kg B

(4)
ANL
respectively are connected by a massless
129. A child standing with folded hands at the
spring as shown in figure. A force of 200 centre of a platform rotating about its
N acts on the 20 kg mass. At the instant central axis. The kinetic energy of the
shown, the 10 kg mass has acceleration system is K. The child now stretched his
arms such that the moment of inertia of
12m/sec2 . What is the acceleration of 20 system doubles kinetic energy of system
kg mass(in m/sec 2 ) now is
(1) 2K
(2) K/2
(3) K/4
(1) 12 (4) 4K
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130. Two balls are projected simultaneously 133. A pipe open at both ends produces a note
with the same velocity from the top of a of frequency f1. When the pipe is kept
tower of height ‘h’, one vertically 3
with th of its length it water, it
upwards and the other vertically 4
produced a note of frequency f2. The ratio
downwards. If they reach the ground in
f1
6s, and 4s the value of ‘h’ is is
f2
(g = 10 ms–2)
3
(1)
(1) 80 m 4
(2) 240 m 4
(2)
(3) 120 m 3

(4) 100 m 1
(3)
2
131. Thread wound around a solid cylinder of
(4) 2
mass M and radius R. It is allowed to fall
134. In a compound microscope, maximum
as shown. Its acceleration is
magnification is obtained when the final
image
(1) is formed at infinity
(2) is formed at the least distance of
R
distinct vision
(1) g (3) Coincides with the object
(2) 3g/2 (4) Coincides with the objective lens
(3) g/3 135. In the network shown below, the
(4) 2g/3 equivalent resistance between A and B is
132. A concave mirror and a converging lens
(glass with  = 1.5) both have a focal
length of 3 cm when in air. When they are
 4
in water    , their new focal lengths
 3
(1) R/2
are
(2) R
(1) fLens = 12 cm, fMirror = 3cm
(3) 2R
(2) fLens = 3 cm, fMirror = 12cm
(4) 4R
(3) fLens = 3 cm, fMirror = 3cm
(4) fLens = 12 cm, fMirror = 12cm
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136. Dissolution of Xenon in water can be (4) 5, 2
explained by 140. Incorrect statement about interstitial
(1) Electrostatic forces compounds is
(2) Dipole – Dipole attractions (1) They are chemically most reactive
(3) Dipole-induced dipole attractions (2) They are hard
(4) Ion – dipole attractions (3) They retain metallic character
137. Fluorine is best oxidizing agent in (4) They have high melting points
aqueous solution. This fact is best 141. The configuration of metal ion is d5 and
explained by the magnitude of 0  P then the crystal
(1) High hydration enthalpy of F  , Low field stabilization energy will be
bond dissociation energy of F2 (1) Zero
(2) Low hydration enthalpy of F  , Low (2) 1.2 0

bond dissociation energy of F2 (3) 2 0

(3) High hydration enthalpy of F  , High (4) 1.6 0
bond dissociation energy of F2 142. Acetylene cannot be obtained in the
(4) Low hydration enthalpy of F  , High following reaction
bond dissociation energy of F2 (1) CaC2  H 2 O 
138. Statement-I : Mg  OH  2 , NaHCO3 are (2) a ) alc . KOH
CH 3CHCl2  
b ) NaNH 2

Antacids Zndust
(3) CHCl2  CHCl2  
C2 H 5OH
Statement-II: Penicillin is an antibiotic
ethanolic zinc dust
(1) I is true, II is false (4) CH 2Cl  CH 2 Cl  
(2) I and II are true X
COCH3   CH 2CH 3
(3) I and II are false 143. .
(4) I is false, II is true “X” cannot be
139. General electronic configuration of (1) ZnHg/conc.HCl
Lanthanoids is  Xe 6S 2 5d x 4 f y . For the (2) LiAlH 4

element Gadolonium (Z=64), x and y are (3) NH 2 NH 2 / OH  , ethylene glycol

respectively (4) HI  Re dP /1500 C
(1) 4, 5
(2) 1, 7
(3) 4, 2
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 NO2 NO2 (3) CH 3  CH  CH  CH 3

(4) CH 3  CH 2 CH 2  CH  CH  CH 2CH 3

I I 149. Benzene reacts with chlorine in presence

144. shows
sunlight giving
(1) Conformational isomerism
(1) Benzene hexa chloride
(2) Tautomerism
(2) Chloro benzene
(3) Optical isomerism
(3) Dichloro benzene
(4) Metamerism
(4) Cyclo hexane
145. Nitrogen present in an organic compound
is estimated by Dumas method. One gram 150. Which of the following is most acidic ?
of an organic liberated 224CC of Nitrogen (1) CH4
at STP. Percentage of nitrogen in the (2) CH 3  C  C  CH 3
organic compound is
(1) 28% (3) H2C = CH2

(2) 56% (4) H C  C  H

(3) 42% 151. IUPAC name of LiAlH 4 is

(4) 36% (1) Lithium tetra hydrogen aluminium

cold con .HI
146. CH 3OC  CH 3 3  A  B . A and B (III)

are (2) Lithium tetra hydrido aluminate (III)

(3) Tetra hydro lithium aluminate(III)
(1) CH 3 I ,  CH 3 3 COH
(4) Lithium aluminium hydride(III)
(2) CH3OH , (CH3)2CHOH
152. Micro organisms are sink for
(3) CH 3OH ,  CH 3 3 CI
(1) CO2
(4) CH 3 I ,  CH 3 3 CI (2) SO2
147. Which of the following is most basic ? (3) NO2
(1) Aniline (4) CO
(2) N, N-dimethyl aniline CO

(3) Diphenyl amine NH

(4) Triphenyl amine
SO2
153. is called
148. Which of the following gives acetic acid as
the oxidation product with acidified (1) Alitame
KMnO4 ? (2) Asparatame
(1) CH 2  CH 2 (3) Sucralose
(2) CH 3  CH 2  CH  CH 2 (4) Saccharin
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154. O3  Hg 
 X . Then ‘X’ is (2) npn or pnp type transistors----
Amplify audio signals
(1) Hg 2O
(3) MgFe2O4-------- Antiferromagnetic
(2) HgO 2
(4) Coordination number of Na+ ion in
(3) HgO
NaCl is ‘6’
(4) Hg 3O 4
159. Which one of the following is most
155. Equal weights of Methane and sulphur reactive towards electrophilic attack?
NO2
dioxide are present in a vessel of 2 litre
capacity.What is the partial pressure of
(1)
sulphurdioxide, if the total pressure of the CHO

mixture of gases is 12 atm?

(1) 2.4 atm (2)
OH
(2) 8 atm
(3) 10 atm
(4) 3 atm (3)
156. The solubility of AgCl (s) with solubility CH2OH

product 1.6  1010 in 0.1M NaCl solution

would be (4)
160. Biodegradable polymer formed from
(1) 1.6 × 10-5M
glycine and aminocaproic acid is
(2) 1.6 × 10-9M
(1) Nylon 2 - nylon 6
(3) 1.26 × 10-5M
(2) Dacron
(4) 2.26 × 10-6M
(3) Nylon 6, 6
157. Which among the following has highest
(4) Buna – N
boiling point ?:
161. In a face centred cubic lattice, atoms of A
(1) 0.1M Al2(SO4)3
form the corner points and atoms of B
(2) 0.1M NaCl form the face centred points. If two atoms
(3) 0.1M CaCl2 of A are missing from the corner points,
(4) 0.1M Glucose the formula of the ionic compound is:
(1) AB3
158. Incorrect set among the following is:
(2) AB4
(1) ZnO turns to yellow on heating ----
(3) A2B5
Metal deficiency defect
(4) AB2

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162. Addition of 2.0×10-2 moles of a strong X

monobasic acid to half litre of an acidic

buffer changes its pH by 0.01 only. The 165. Dipole moment of is 1.5 D. The
X
buffer capacity of the buffer is:
(1) 0.005
(2) 0.55 X X
dipole moment of X
(3) 4 (1) 1.5 D
(4) 2.5 (2) 2.25 D
163. How many spectral lines are formed in (3) 1 D
hydrogen spectrum when excited (4) 3 D
electrons jump from 5th orbit to 1st in 166. How many significant figures are present
multiple steps? in 0.0000135?
(1) 1 (1) 7
(2) 5 (2) 8
(3) 10 (3) 4
(4) 6 (4) 3
164. The correct order of basic strength of the 167. Vapour pressure of pure benzene is 119
following is torr and that of toluene is 37.0 torr at the
same temperature. Mole fraction of
toluene in liquid mixture is 0.5, then mole
fraction of toluene in vapour phase will be
(1) 0.137
(2) 0.237
(3) 0.435
(4) 0.205
(1) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4
168. The rate constant of a reaction is 0.1min-1.
(2) 4 > 2 > 3 > 1
What is the time required for the
(3) 4 > 1 > 2 > 3
concentration of reactant of above reaction
(4) 3 > 4 > 2 > 1
to reduce from 8M to 2M ?
(1) 6.93 min
(2) 10 minutes
(3) 13.86 min
(4) 142.4 minutes
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169. Which among the following is an incorrect 173. Which of the following is not matched
combination? correctly?
(1) Spelter : Impure Zinc (1) Washing soda: NaHCO3
(2) Cassiterite : Ore of iron (2) Plaster of paris : CaSO4. ½ H2O
(3) Copper matte : mixture of Cu2S and
(3) Black ash : Na2CO3 + CaS
FeS
(4) Magnesia (sorel’s) cement :
(4) Wrought iron: Purest form of Iron
MgCl2.5MgO.xH2O
170. Critical temperatures of CO2 , SO2, CH4
174. Which of the following reactions is not
and H2 are 304, 630, 190 and 33K
feasible ?
respectively. Then which of the following
(1) 2KI + Br2 → 2KBr + I2
gases shows highest adsorption on a
definite amount of charcoal? (2) 2H2O + 2F2 → 2HF + O2

(1) CO2 (3) 2KBr + I2→ 2KI + Br2

(2) SO2 (4) 2KBr + Cl2→ 2KCl + Br2
(3) CH4 175. In a chemical reaction Δ H  150 KJ and
(4) H2
Δ S  100 JK 1 at 300K. Then Δ G for the
171. In which of the following reactions, the
reaction is
position of equilibrium shifts towards
(1) zero
right on addition of small amount of
(2) 300 KJ
argon at constant pressure ?
(3) 330 KJ
(1)  2 HI  g 
H 2 g   I 2 g  
(4) 120 KJ

(2)  PCl3 g   Cl2 g 

PCl5 g   176. Molar conductivities at infinite dilution of
CH3COONa, HCl and NaCl are 91.0,
(3)  2 NH 3 g 
N 2 g   3H 2 g  
425.9 and 126.4 respectively. The molar
 2SO3(g)
(4) 2SO2(g) + O2(g)  conductivity of CH3COOH is
(1) 290.8 S.cm2mol-1
172. The reduction potential of Hydrogen
(2) 390.5 S.cm2mol-1
electrode Pt / H2(1atm) / H+(0.01M) is:
(3) 180.5 S.cm2mol-1
(1) -0.06 V
(4) 425.5 S.cm2mol-1
(2) -0.09V
(3) -0.12V
(4) 0.12V
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177. Among the electrolytes Na2SO4, CaCl2, (1) CO( g )  2 H 2( g )  CH 3OH ( l )
Al2(SO4)3 and NH4Cl, the most effective 1
(2) CH 4( g )  O2( g )  CH 3OH ( g )
coagulating agent for Sb2S3sol is: 2
(1) Na2SO4 1
(3) C( diamond )  O2( g )  2 H 2( g )  CH 3OH (l )
(2) CaCl2 2

(3) Al2(SO4)3 1
(4) C( graphite )  O2( g )  2 H 2( g )  CH 3OH ( l )
2
(4) NH4Cl
180. Which of the following complex can
178. The formal charges on carbon and oxygen
exhibit linkage isomerism?
in :C ≡ O: are:
(1) 0, 0 (1) Co  NH 3 4 Cl2  Cl

(2) -1, +1 (2) Co  NH 3 5  ONO   SO4

(3) +1 , 0
(3) Co  NH 3 3 Cl3 
(4) 0, -1

179. Hf 0 (298K) of methanol is given by the (4) Co  en 2 Cl2  Cl

chemical equation

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