OUT GOING SENIOR SPACE – 1 Date: 20-03-2024

-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

VIJAYAWADA
OUT GOING SENIOR SPACE – 1 Date: 20-03-2024

BOTANY 5. Prothallus of pteridophytes are

1) Haploid, formed by spore germination
SECTION-A (1-35 QUESTIONS) 2) Haploid, formed by gametes
------------------------------------------------------------------ 3) Diploid, formed by spore germination
1. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. 4) Diploid, formed by germination of
Phaeophyceae zygote
1) Stored food is mannitol 6. Match the Columns I and II, and
2) Cell wall made up of cellulose &algin choose the correct combination from
3) Two flagella which are equal in length the options given.
4) presence of chlorophyll c Column-I Column-II
2. Which one of the following is wrongly i) Selaginella a) Psilopsida
matched? ii) Equisetum b) Lycopsida
1) Spirogyra – motile gametes iii) Adiantum c) Sphenopsida
2)Laminaria – holdfast, stipe, frond iv) Psilotum d) Pteropsida
3) Ulothrix – Chlorophyceae 1) i - a, ii – b, iii – c, iv – d
4) Gelidium– agar 2) i – d, ii – c, iii – b, iv – a
3. Which of the following groups of algae 3) i – a, ii – b, iii – d, iv – c
belongs to class Rhodophyceae? 4) i – b, ii – c, iii – d, iv – a
1) Laminaria, Fucus, Porphyra 7. Wrongly matched of the following is
2) Porphyra, Polysiphonia, Gracillaria 1) Spirogyra – Chl a, Chl b
3) Sargassum, Spirogyra, Gelidium 2) Fucus – Chl a, Chl d
4) Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Fucus 3) Polytrichum – moss
4. Read the following term given below 4) Eucalyptus – Angiosperm
carefully. Antheridium, Antherozoid, 8. Cycas has the
Foot, Seta, Capsule, Rhizoid, 1) Coralloid root
Protonema. Which of the following are 2) Pinnately compound leaves
part of gametophyte of bryophytes? 3) Dioecious plants
1)Antheridium, Antherozoids, rhizoid, 4) All of the above
9. In Gymnosperms, pollination takes
protonema
place by:
2) Antheridium, Antherozoids, rhizoid, 1) Water / Hydrophily
seta 2) Air current / Anemophily
3) Foot, seta, capsule 3) Insects / Entomophily
4) Rhizoid and foot 4) Animals / Zoophily
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SRI GOSALITES 1|PAGE VIJAYAWADA
OUT GOING SENIOR SPACE – 1 Date: 20-03-2024
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10. Statement I: In gymnosperms male iii) anther is usually bilobed
and female gametophytes are not iv) pollen sacs are produced in
independent free living pollengrains
Statement II: In gymnosperms the 1) one 2) two
female gametophyte bears single 3) three 4) four
archegonia 16. Staminode is
1) Both statements are incorrect 1) sterile carpel 2) sterile stamen
2) Only statement II is incorrect 3) fertile stamen 4) fertile carpel
3) Both statements are correct 17. Generally monocotyledonous seeds are
4) Only statement I is incorrect _____ but in orchids seeds are _____
11. Which of the following is defining 1) non endospermic, endospermic
feature of living organisms? 2) ex-albuminous, albuminous
1) Growth 3) perispermic, chalazospermic
2) Reproduction 4) endospermic, non-endospermic
3) Ability to mount response to a 18. In mango and coconut, the fruit is
stimulus known as a ______ and they develop
4) To keep memory of events from monocarpellary _____ ovaries
12. Wheat belongs to: 1) Berry, superior
1) Family-Solanaceae 2) aggregate, inferior
2) Order- Poales 3) drupes, superior
3) Genus- Oryza 4) composite, inferior
4) Class- Dicotyledonae 19. Correct information for flower of
13. indica, esculentum, solanum, datura, China rose is:
allium, melongena 1)Zygomorphic
How many of the above are specific 2) Stamens Monadelphous and
epithets ? epipetalous
1) 3 2) 4 3) Gynoecium is pentacarpellary,
3) 2 4) 6 syncarpous with parietal placentation
14. Statement-I (S-I): Zygote 4) Corolla has imbricate aestivation
producesamulticellularwelldifferentiat 20. Floral diagram given below belongs to
edsporophytein Pteridophytes.
Statement-II (S-II): Selaginella
andSalvinia produces seeds
1) S-I and S-II true
2) S-I and S-II false
3) S-I true and S-II false
4) S-I false and S-II true
15. How many statements are correct?
i) unit of androecium is carpel 1) Gloriosa 2) Mustard
ii) stamen consists of stigma, style 3) Lupine 4) Solanum
andOvary
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SRI GOSALITES 2|PAGE VIJAYAWADA
OUT GOING SENIOR SPACE – 1 Date: 20-03-2024
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
21. Read statements A and B (ii) Taxonomy is the correct
[A] Cruciferae is the family of description of an organism,
mustard recognition in its scientific name and
evolutionary relationship
[B] In Cruciferae filaments of stamens
(iii) The system of naming with two
are of unequal length components (Binomial nomenclature)
1) Only [A] is correct is proposed by Carolus Linnaeus.
2) Only [B] is correct (iv) Zoological names are based on
3) Both [A] and [B] are correct International Code for Zoological
4) Both [A] and [B] are incorrect Nomenclature (ICZN).
22. Mark the odd one w.r.t chemical 1) Only (i)
2) Both (iii) and (iv)
nature of cell wall:
3) Only (iv)
1) Halophiles 4) All of these
2) Methanogens 26. Which of the following taxonomic
3) Thermoacidophiles categories is being described by the
4) Cyanobacteria given statements (i-ii) ?
23. Which of the following statement(s) (i) It is the basic unit of classification.
is/are not correct ? (ii) It is defined as the group of
(i) Reproduction is the production of
individuals which resemble in their
progeny possessing features dissimilar
to their parents. morphological and reproductive
(ii) The fungi, the filamentous algae, characters and interbreed among
the protonema of mosses, all multiply themselves and produce fertile
by budding. offspring’s.
(iii) Many organisms like mules, sterile 1) Species 2) Genus
worker bees do not reproduce. 3) Order 4) Family
(iv) Reproduction is not an all-
27. Given below are two statements:
inclusive defining characteristic of
living organisms. Statement I: Conidia formation occur
1) Only (i) 2) Both (i) and (ii) exogenously
3) Both (ii) and (iv) 4) All of these Statement II: basidiospore is a sexual
24. How many organisms show haplo- spore
diplontic life cycle? In the light of the above statements,
Polysiphonia, Adiantum, Sphagnum,
choose the correct answer from the
Eucalyptus, Cedrus, Fucus,
Ectocarpus, Polytrichum, Salvia, options given below:
Funaria 1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement
1)5 2) 6 II is true
3) 7 4)8 2)Both Statement I and Statement II are
25. Which of the following statement(s) true
is/are correct? 3)Both Statement I and Statement II are
(i) Classification is the providing of
false
standardize names to the organisms
such that a particular organism 4)Statement I is correct but Statement II
known by the same all over the world. is false

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SRI GOSALITES 3|PAGE VIJAYAWADA
OUT GOING SENIOR SPACE – 1 Date: 20-03-2024
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
28 Which of the following group of 1) (i) and (iii) 2) (i) and (iv)
organisms exhibit the most extensive 3) (iii) and (iv) 4) (ii) and (iii)
metabolic diversity? 32. Assertion (A): All living phenomena
are due to underlying interactions
1) Fungi 2) Bacteria
Reason (R): properties of cellular
3) Protista 4) Plants organisation are not present in the
29. Find out odd one concern to Protista constituent cells.
1) Chlorella 2) Amoeba 1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)
3) Spirogyra 4) Chlamydomonas is correct explanation of (A)
30. Which group of organisms exhibit 2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)
saprophytic mode of nutrition? is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect
1) Animalia, Plantae, Fungi
4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
2) Animalia, Fungi, Protistans with cell 33. Organisms with autotrophic mode of
wall nutrition belongs to how many
3) Animalia, Fungi, Monera kingdoms in Whittaker’s system?
4) Fungi, Monera, Protistans with cell 1) One 2) Two
wall 3) Three 4) Four
31. Following table summarizes the 34. Absorptive heterotrophic nutrition is
exhibited by
differences between a monocot root
1) Aglae 2) Fungi
and a dicot root. 3) Mosses 4) Ferns
Monocot 35. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria
Characters Dicot root
root in
Polyarch Diarch to 1) Cell wall composition
i.e. more tetrarch 2) Mode of nutrition
Vascular 3) Cell shape
(i) than 6 i.e., 2-4
bundle 4) Mode of reproduction
vascular vascular
SECTION-B (36-50 QUESTIONS)
bundles bundles
----------------------------------------------------------------
Present, so 36. Which type of xylem can be divided
secondary into 2 types i.e. protoxylem and
(ii) Cambium Absent
growth metaxylem ?
occurs 1) Primary xylem
Well- 2) Secondary xylem
Poorly 3) Both primary and secondary xylem
(iii) Pith developed
developed 4) wood
large pith 37. Which of the following is true ?
Gives rise 1) Vessels are unicellular and with
to narrow lumen
Give rise to
Activity of secondary 2) Vessels are multicellular and with
(iv) lateral wide lumen
pericycle roots and
roots only 3) Tracheids are unicellular and with
cork
wide lumen
cambium
4) Tracheids are multicellular and with
Pick up the wrong differences and narrow lumen
select the correct option
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SRI GOSALITES 4|PAGE VIJAYAWADA
OUT GOING SENIOR SPACE – 1 Date: 20-03-2024
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
38. Assertion (A): Spring wood is thick 1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement
layered and less denser than late II is true
wood. 2)Both Statement I and Statement II are
Reason (R) :late wood formed during true
spring season. 3)Both Statement I and Statement II are
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) false
is correct explanation of (A) 4)Statement I is correct but Statement II
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is false
is not the correct explanation of (A) 45. General cortex, pericycle, pith and
3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect medullary rays are usually made up
4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect of:
39. Starch sheath is found in 1) Parenchyma 2) Collenchyma
1) Monocot stem 2) Dicot stem 3) Sclerenchyma 4) Fibres
3) Monocot leaf 4) Dicot leaf 46. Which of the following is not a part of
40. How many of the following are present epidermal tissue system?
in stelar system 1) Subsidiary cells
Endodermis, Exodermis, Pericycle, 2) Guard cells
Pith, Medullary rays, Primary Xylem, 3) Companion cells
Primary Phloem 4) Root hair cells
1) five 2) four 47. Read the following five statements (A-
3) three 4) six E).
41. The first formed primary phloem A) The collenchyma occurs in layers
consists of narrow sieve tubes and is below the epidermis in
referred to as: monocotyledonous plant.
1) Protoderm 2) Protophloem B) Xylem parenchyma cells are made
3) Meta phloem 4) Metaxylem up of lignin
42. Cuticle and trichomes prevent C) Phloem fibres are generally present
1) Photosynthesis 2) Water Loss in the primary phloem
3) Guttation 4) Ascent of Sap D) Tracheids are the main water
43. Cuticle is absent in transporting elements in gymnosperm
1) Leaves 2) Stem E) Sieve tube elements are devoid of
3) Roots 4) Sepals nucleus at maturity
44. Given below are two statements: How many of the above statements are
Statement I: In monocot root pith is correct?
large and well developed 1) Four 2) One
Statement II: in monocot stem pith is 3) Two 4) Three
absent 48. Choose the incorrect match
In the light of the above statements, 1) Chlorella – unicellular
choose the correct answer from the 2) Paramoecium – unicellular
options given below: 3) Spirogyra – unicellular
4) Gonyaulax – unicellular
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SRI GOSALITES 5|PAGE VIJAYAWADA
OUT GOING SENIOR SPACE – 1 Date: 20-03-2024
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
49. Assertion (A): Intervening dikaryon 53. The thickening or hardening of the
stagepresent in basidiomycetes. arteries caused by a buildup of plaque
Reason (R) :In basidiomycetes in the inner lining of an artery is
karyogamy not occur immediately referred to as
after plasmogamy 1) Deep vein thrombosis
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) 2) Stokes – Adams syndrome
is correct explanation of (A) 3) Osteoarthritis
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) 4) Atherosclerosis
is not the correct explanation of (A) 54. What percentage of ventricular filling
3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect is achieved by atrial systole?
4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect 1) 30 2) 50
50. Which statement is correct? 3) 70 4) 90
1) All bacteria are autotrophic 55. Regarding the fishes blood circulation,
2) All bacteria are heterotrophic A & B represent:–
3) All bacteria are photosynthetic
4) Mostly bacteria are heterotrophic, but
some are autotrophic

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A (51-85 QUESTIONS)
------------------------------------------------------------------
51. Choose the correct pathway for the
transmission of action potential in the 1) Lungs and body-systems respectively
human heart: 2) Body-systems and gills respectively
1) AV node  S A node Bundle of 3) Gills and Body-systems respectively
His Purkinje fibres 4) Sinus venosus and Gill respectively
2) SA node  AV node  Bundle of 56. Match the columns with respect to a
His Purkinje fibres standard ECG.
3) SA node  Bundle of His  AV
node purkinje fibres
4) AV node  Bundle of His  SA
node Purkinje fibres
52. What would be a person's heart rate if
the cardiac output is 6 L, the blood
volume in the ventricles at the end of
diastole is 110 mL and the blood
volume at the end of ventricular
systole is 50 mL?
1) 50 beats per minute 1) A-I, B-II, C-III
2) 75 beats per minute 2) A-III, B -II, C-I
3) 100 beats per minute 3) A-II, B – I. C - III
4) 125 beats per minute 4) A-II, B-III, C – I
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SRI GOSALITES 6|PAGE VIJAYAWADA
OUT GOING SENIOR SPACE – 1 Date: 20-03-2024
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
57. In the brain, cardiac center is located 62. When temperature and 𝑯
in concentration increase
1) Medulla oblongata 1) Oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve
2) Pons shifts towards the left side
3) Cerebrum 2) Dissociation of 𝐻𝑏𝑂 is reduced
4) Epithalamus 3) Affinity of Hb for 𝑂 decreases
58. The cardiaccentre can decrease. the 4) All of these
heart rate and cardiac output through 63. Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can
1) Somatic neural system deliver nearly ___ ml under normal
2) Parasympathetic nervous fibres resting conditions
3) Vagus nerve 1) 20 ml 2) 10 ml
4) both 2 and 3 3) 5 ml 4) 95 ml
59. Neural signal through the sympathetic 64. Statement-I: Most of the CO2 is
nerve (part of ANS) increases cardiac transported through RBC rather than
output because of- plasma.
1) Increasing the rate of heartbeat
Statement-II: Carbonic anhydrase is
2) Increasing the strength of ventricular
contraction totally absent in plasma.
3) Both 1 and 2 1) Statements I & II are correct
4) Increasing the stimulation of the 2) Statements I & II are incorrect
vagus nerve 3) Statement I is correct and statement II
60. The amount of blood to be pumped is incorrect
out by each ventricle/minute is- 4) Statement I is Incorrect and statement
1) Stroke volume
II is correct
2) Cardiac output
3) Tidal volume 65. Your frequency of breathing is 12
4) Residual volume breaths/minute; your tidal volume is
61. Match the columns with respect to 500 mL; your vital capacity is 4,700
disorders of the respiratory system mL. Your pulmonary ventilation rate
Column A Column B is ____ mL/min.
a. Asthma I. 1)1,800 2) 3,000
Bronchoconstriction 3) 4,700 4) 6,000
and Wheezing 66. The process by which oxygen enters
b. Emphysema II. Related to the blood from the alveoli is
cigarette smoking 1) Osmosis
c. Occupational III Fibrosis of the 2) Simple diffusion
Respiratory lungs 3) Active transport
Disorders 4) Facilitated diffusion
1) a-(I), b-(III), c-(II) 67. A gradient of partial pressure of 𝑶𝟐 is
2) a-(III), b-(I), c-(II) from
3) a-(I), b-(II), c-(III) 1) tissues to blood 2) alveoli to blood
4) a-(II), b-(I), c-(III) 3) blood to tissues 4) both 2&3

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SRI GOSALITES 7|PAGE VIJAYAWADA
OUT GOING SENIOR SPACE – 1 Date: 20-03-2024
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
68. Residual volume is not required in the 1) 3 2) 2
calculation of 3) 3 4) 4
1) Vital capacity 77. Select from the following the total
2) Functional Residual capacity number of organisms that belongs to
3) Total Lungs capacity phylum Arthropoda.
4) All of the above Prawn, Salpa, Doliolum, Pila, Antedon,
69. Animals with soft bodies, bilateral Loligo, Butterfly, Culex, Cucumaria,
symmetry, triploblastic, and Scorpion
unsegmented, usually protected by a 1) 4 2) 6
shell made up of CaCO3 belong to the 3) 8 4) 10
phylum _____ 78. The neural system consists of paired
1) Porifera ganglia connected by the lateral nerve
2) Echinodermata to a double ventral nerve cord present
3) Mollusca in
4) Arthropoda 1) Fasciola 2) Ancylostoma
70. Internal fertilization is seen in 3) Nereis (d) Taenia
1) Meandrina 2) Fasciola 79. Excretory organs of cockroaches are
3) Ctenoplana 4) All of these 1) Trachea
71. In members of which of the following 2) Kidney
phyla, body is generally divided into 3) Nephridia
head, thorax, and abdomen? 4) Malpighian tubules
1) Mollusca 2) Echinodermata 80. Oxygen carrier or the respiratory
3) Arthropoda 4) Annelida pigment in the blood of frogs and
72. Animals having calcareous other vertebrates is
endoskeletons with organ-system level 1) Myoglobin 2) Cytochrome
of organization, exclusively marine are 3) Haemoglobin 4) Haemocyanin
1) Arthropoda 2) Mollusca 81. In cockroaches oxygen is carried to
3) Hemichordates 4) Echinodermates tissue by
73. Metamerism is found in 1) Haemoglobin
1) Ascaris 2) Leech 2) Blood plasma
3) Loligo 4) Octopus 3) Tracheal tubes
74. Nephridia helps in the excretion and
4) Diffusion through the integument
osmoregulation in
1) Nereis 2) Pheretima 82. In cockroaches, food is crushed
3) Hirudinaria 4) All of these (pulverized) in which part of the gut?
75. Closed circulatory system is present in 1) Crop 2) Gizzard
1) Nereis 2) Pheretima 3) Mesenteron 4) Oesophagus
3) Wuchereria 4) All of these 83. The body of frog is divisible into
76. How many of the following are 1) Head and trunk
monoecious?
2) Head, neck and trunk
Ascaris, Wuchereria, Ancylostoma,
3) Head, neck, trunk and tail
Neries, Pheretima, Hirudinaria
4) Head, neck, thorax, abdomen tail
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SRI GOSALITES 8|PAGE VIJAYAWADA
OUT GOING SENIOR SPACE – 1 Date: 20-03-2024
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
84. Nocturnal vision in cockroaches is 87. Which of the following pathways is
characterized by: correct for blood clotting
1) High sensitivity and less resolution 1
2) More sensitivity and more resolution
3) Less sensitivity and less resolution
4) Less sensitivity and high resolution
85. Statement-1- Compound epithelium
has a limited role in secretion and
absorption.
2
Statement-2- The main function of
compound epithelium is to provide
protection against chemical and
mechanical stresses.
Options are-
1. Both the statements are correct
2. Both the statements are incorrect
3. Statement 1 is correct and 2 is wrong 3
4. Statement 2 is correct and 1 is wrong
SECTION-B (86-100 QUESTIONS)
------------------------------------------------------------------
86. Find out the incorrect statement
related with dense connective tissues-
1. In the dense regular connective tissue,
the collagen fibres are present in rows
between many parallel bundles of fibres. 4
2. Dense irregular connective tissue has
fibroblasts and many fibres.
3. In Dense irregular connective tissue
mostly collagen fibres are present that
are oriented differently.
4. Ligaments and tendons are the
example of dense irregular connective
tissue

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SRI GOSALITES 9|PAGE VIJAYAWADA
OUT GOING SENIOR SPACE – 1 Date: 20-03-2024
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
88. Match the Column I with Column II – 2) As 𝑃𝐶𝑂 is high and 𝑃𝑂 is low in the
tissues, more binding of 𝐶𝑂 with
haemoglobin occur
3) The major factor that could affect the
binding of 𝐶𝑂 with haemoglobin is
𝑃𝑂
4) All of the above
92. Which of the following statements is
true with respect to the regulation of
respiration?
1) Rhythm center in Medulla oblongata
is primarily responsible for breathing
movements
2) Neural signals from the pneumotaxicc
entre can increase the duration of
inspiration
A B C D E 3) Chemosensitive area situated in
1) IV V III I II medulla oblongata is sensitive to low O2
2) V IV I II III concentration in CSF
3) IV V I III II 4) Receptors associated with aortic arch
4) V IV I III I and carotid artery gets activated by low
89. Choose the correctly matched pair – H  and low PCO2 in arterial blood
1. Tendon- Specialized connective tissue 93. Which of the following are the
2. Adipose tissue- Dense connective features of chordates?
tissue (a) Presence of notochord, which is a
3. Areolar tissue- Loose connective flexible, rod-shaped mesodermal
tissue structure that is found in the
4. Cartilage- Loose connective tissue embryonic stage of all chordates
90. Neural signals from the pneumotaxic (b) Dorsal, double and hollow nerve
center of Pons: chord.
1) Can increase the rate of breathing (c) Pharynx is perforated by gill slits.
2) causes prolonged inspiration (d) Heart is ventral.
3) can increase the depth of inspiration 1) All except (b) 2) All except (c)
4) can cause prolonged expiration 3) All except (d) 4) All of these
91. True statement regarding the 94. Find out the number of spiny-skinned
transport of 𝑪𝑶𝟐 in blood is animals from the following:
1) The binding of 𝐶𝑂 with hemoglobin Pinctada, Asterias,Octopus, Echinus,
is primarily related to the partial pressure Pila, Antedon, Cucumaria, Brittle star
of 𝐶𝑂 1) 4 2) 5
3) 6 4) 3

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SRI GOSALITES 10 | P A G E VIJAYAWADA
OUT GOING SENIOR SPACE – 1 Date: 20-03-2024
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
95. Which one of the following is the 100. It is often referred to as
correct statement about cockroaches? atherosclerosis and usually affects the
1) Anal styles are present only in the blood vessels that supply blood to the
male cockroach. heart muscles. It is caused by the
2) Anal cerci are present only in female deposition of Ca, fat, cholesterol and
cockroaches. fibrous tissues making the lumen of
3) Each eye consists of about 1000 arteries narrow. The above facts are
pentagonal ommatidia. related to
4) Each ootheca contains 9 to 10 eggs. 1) Coronary Artery Disease
96. Alary muscles in cockroaches are 2) Myocardial Infarction
associated with 3) Blue baby Syndrome
1) Respiratory system 4) Heart arrest
2) Circulatory system
3) Neural system PHYSICS
4) Alimentary canal
97. One of the main functions of frog's SECTION-A (101-135 QUESTIONS)
skin is ------------------------------------------------------------------
1) Diffusion of respiratory gases 101. A vernier callipers having 1 main scale
2) Absorption of ultraviolet rays to division = 0.1 cm is designed to have a
produce vitamin D
least count of 0.02 cm. If n be the
3) Storage of excess food in the form of
subcutaneous fat number of divisions on vernier scale
4) Excretion of nitrogenous waste in the and m be the length of vernier scale,
form of uric acid then
98. The following features belong to which 1) n = 10, m = 0.5 cm
phylum? 2) n = 9, m = 0.4 cm
1) Exclusively marine 3) n = 10, m = 0.8 cm
2) Radial symmetry
4) n = 10 , m = 0.2 cm
3) Diploblastic
4) Tissue-level organization 102. A ball is thrown from a point on
1) Coelentrata 2) Porifera ground at some angle of projection. At
3) Ctenophora 4) Platyhelminthes the same time a bird starts from a
99. Which one of the following statements point directly above this point of
is the correct statement for respiration projection at a height h horizontally
in humans?
with speed u. Given that in its flight
1) About 97% of carbon dioxide (CO2) is
carried by hemoglobin as ball just touches the bird at one point.
carbaminohemoglobin Find the distance on ground where
2) Maximum oxygen is transported in ball strikes
the dissolved form in plasma h 2h
3) Neural signals from the pneumotaxic 1) 2u 2) u
center in the pons region of the brain can g g
increase the duration of inspiration 2h h
4) Workers in grinding and stone- 3) 2u 4) u
breaking industries may suffer, from g g
lung fibrosis
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SRI GOSALITES 11 | P A G E VIJAYAWADA
OUT GOING SENIOR SPACE – 1 Date: 20-03-2024
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
103. Three blocks 1, 2 & 3 rest on a
horizontal frictionless surface, as
shown. Each block has a mass m and
the blocks are connected by massless
strings. Block 3 is pulled to the right
by a force F. The resultant force on
block 2 is:

1) fa = fb 2) fa = fb/2
1) Zero 2) (1/3)F 3) fa = fb/3 4) fa = 2fb
3) (1/2)F 4) (2/3)F 107. In a Vernier Calipers (VC), N
104. What is the force of friction acting on divisions of the main scale coincide
the 1 kg block placed on the incline as with N + m divisions of the vernier
shown in the figure. scale. What is the value of m for which
the instrument has minimum least
count?
1) 1 2) N
3) Infinity 4) N/2
108. Particle is dropped from the height of
1) 8N 2) 6N 20m from horizontal ground. A
3) 4.8N 4) 6.4N constant force acts on the particle in
105. Which of the following can be a set of horizontal direction due to which
fundamental quantities horizontal acceleration of the particle
1) length, velocity, time becomes 6 ms–2. Find the horizontal
2) momentum, mass, velocity displacement of the particle till it
3) force, mass, velocity reaches ground.
4) momentum, time, frequency 1) 6 m 2) 10 m
106. Fig shows two pulley arrangements 3) 12 m 4) 24 m
for lifting a mass m. In (a) the mass is 109. The definition of average velocity is
lifted by attaching a mass 2m while in 1) the average acceleration multiplied by
(b) the mass is lifted by pulling the the time
other end with a downward force F = 2) distance travelled divided by the time
2 mg, If fa and fb are the accelerations 1
3) (final velocity + initial velocity)
of the two masses then 2
4) displacement divided by the time
110. Which of the following combinations
of three dimensionally different
physical quantities P, Q, R can never
be a meaningful quantity?
1) PQ – R 2) PQ/R
3) (P – Q) / R 4) (PR – Q2) / QR
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SRI GOSALITES 12 | P A G E VIJAYAWADA
OUT GOING SENIOR
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
111. A weight can be hung in any of the
following four ways by string of same
type. In which case is the string most
likely to break?
1) A 2) B
3) C 4) D
112. A particle is projected vertically
upwards from a point A on the
ground. It takes t1 time to reach a
point B but it still continues to move
up. If it takes further t2 time to reach
the ground from point B then height
of point B from the ground is
1 vertical. What is this angle?
1) g( t1  t2 )2 2) g t1 t2
2
1 1
3) g( t1  t2 )2 4) g t1 t2
8 2
113. A swimmer swims in still water at a
speed = 5 km/hr. He enters a 200 m
wide river, having river flow
speed = 4 km/hr at point A and
proceeds to swim at an angle of 127°
with the river flow direction. Another
point B is located directly across A on
the other side. The swimmer lands on
the other bank at a point C, from
SPACE – 1 Date: 20-03-2024
which he walks the distance CB with a
speed = 3 km/hr. The total time in
which he reaches from A to B is
1) 5 minutes 2) 4 minutes
3) 3 minutes 4) 2.4 minutes
114. In a certain system of units, 1 unit of
time is 5 sec, 1 unit of mass is 20 kg
and unit of length is 10 m. In this
system, one unit of power will
correspond to
1
1) 16 watts 2) watts
16
3) 25 watts 4) 24 watts
115. Suppose a player hits several
baseballs. Which baseball will be in
the air for the longest time?
1) The one with the farthest range.
2) The one which reaches maximum
height.
3) The one with the greatest initial
velocity.
4) The one leaving the bat at 45° with
respect to the ground.
116. A helicopter of mass M is carrying a
box of mass m at the end of a rope and
is moving horizontally with constant
acceleration 'a'. The acceleration due
to gravity is 'g'. Neglect air resistance.
The rope is stretched out from the
helicopter at a constant angle  to the
1) sin   a / g
2) cos   a / g
3) tan   a / g
4) sin   mg  Mg 

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SRI GOSALITES 13 | P A G E VIJAYAWADA
OUT GOING SENIOR SPACE – 1 Date: 20-03-2024
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
117. A ball is thrown vertically down with 122. One kilogram of ice at 00C is mixed
velocity of 5m/s. With what velocity with one kilogram of water at 800C.
should another ball be thrown down The final temperature of the mixture
after 2 seconds so that it can hit the 1st will be: (Take Specific heat of water =
ball in 2 seconds after second ball 4200 J kg–1 K–1, latent heat of ice = 336
thrown.
kJ kg–1)
1) 40 m/s 2) 55 m/s
3) 15 m/s 4) 25 m/s 1) 00 C 2) 500C
118. The pitch of a screw gauge is 0.5 mm 3) 400C 4) 600C
and there are 50 divisions on the 123. Four rods of same material and
circular scale. In measuring the having the same cross section and
thickness of a metal plate, there are length have been joined, as shown.
five divisions on the pitch scale (or
The temperature of the junction of
main scale) and thirty fourth division
coincides with the reference line. the four rods will be
thickness of the metal plate is?
1) 2.84mm 2) 5.34mm
3) 2.34mm 4) 1.59mm
119. For a thermodynamic process, the P-V
graph for a monoatomic gas is a
straight line passing through the
origin and having a positive slope. The
molar heat capacity of the gas in this 1) 45°C 2) 60°C
process is 3) 30°C 4) 20°C
1) R 2) 2 R 124. Which of the following p-V diagrams
3 best represents an isothermal process?
3) R 4) 3 R
2
120. The direction of flow of heat between
two bodies is determined by
1) kinetic energy
2) internal energy 1) 2)
3) total energy
4) the temperature difference between
the bodies
121. A liquid of mass ‘M’ and specific heat
‘S’ is at a temperature ‘2T’. Another
liquid of thermal capacity 1.5 times 3) 4)
T 125. A cylinder of fixed capacity of 44.8
the first liquid at a temperature is
3 litres contains helium gas at standard
added to it. The resultant temperature temperature and pressure. The
of the mixture will be amount of heat needed to raise the
2T T temperature of gas in the cylinder by
1) 2) 20.0°C will be
3 2 (Given gas constant R-8.3 JK-1-mol-1)
4T 1) 249 J 2) 415 J
3) T 4)
3 3) 498 J 4) 830 J

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SRI GOSALITES 14 | P A G E VIJAYAWADA
OUT GOING SENIOR SPACE – 1 Date: 20-03-2024
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
126. If cp and cv denote the specific heats
per unit mass of an ideal gas of 1) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
molecular weight M, then 2) i-a, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c
1) cp  v v  R / M 2) cp  cv  R
2
3) i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a
3) cp  cv  R / M 4) cp  c v  MR 4) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
130. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas
Where R is the molar gas constant.
127. Starting with the same initial varies with its temperature (T), as
conditions, and ideal gas expands form shown in the graph. The ratio of work
volume V1 to V2 in three different done by the gas, to the heat absorbed
ways. The work done by the gas is W1 by it, when it undergoes a change from
if the process is purely isothermal W2 state A to state B, is
if the process is purely adiabatic and
W3 if the process is purely isobaric
then, choose the correct option.
1) W1 < W2 < W3 2) W2 < W3 < W1
3) W3 < W1 < W2 4) W2 < W1 < W3
128. Heat energy absorbed by a system in
going through a cyclic process shown
in figure. The work done during the
process is : 1) 2/5 2) 2/3
3) 1/3 4) 2/7
131. If a metal wire is stretched a little
beyond its elastic limit (or yield point),
and released, it will
1) lose its elastic property completely
2) not contract
3) contract, but its final length will be
greater than its initial length
4) contract only up to its length at the
1) 107 J 2) 104 J
elastic limit
3) 103 J 4) 102 J
132. A metal wire of length L, area of
129. Match the following
cross-section A and Young’s modulus
Y behaves as a spring of spring
List – I List – II
constant k.
(i) Isothermal (a) 0
1) k  YA / L 2) k  2YA / L
process 3) k  YA / 2L 4) k  YL / A
(ii) Isobaric (b) 1
 P2V2  P1V1  133. A cube of metal is subjected to a
process  1 hydrostatic pressure of 4 GPa. The
(iii) Isochoric (c)  V2  percentage change in the length of the
RTln   side of the cube is close to : (Given
process  V  bulk modulus of metal, B = 8 ×1010 Pa )
1

(iv) Adiabadic (d) PV2  V1  1) 5 2) 0.6

process 3) 20 4) 1.67

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SRI GOSALITES 15 | P A G E VIJAYAWADA
OUT GOING SENIOR SPACE – 1 Date: 20-03-2024
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
134. Identify the correct answer. 3) during the whole flight the driver
When a very long rod suspended in air experiences weightlessness only at the
will break under its own weight. The highest point
maximum length of the rod will
4) the apparent weight increases during
depend on
a) Breaking stress upward journey
b) Density 138. A block of mass 2 kg is given a push
c) Cross-sectional area horizontally and then the block starts
d) Acceleration due to gravity sliding over a horizontal plane. The
1) a, b, c 2) a, b, d graph shows the velocity - time graph
3) b, c, d 4) a, b, c, d of the motion. The coefficient of
135. The elastic limit of brass is 314 MPa.
sliding friction between the plane and
What should be the minimum
diameter of a brass rod if it is to the block is
support a 400 N load without
exceeding its elastic limit?
1) 1.00 mm 2) 1.16 mm
3) 0.90 mm 4) 1.27 mm
SECTION-B (136-150 QUESTIONS)
------------------------------------------------------------------
136. Statement -1 : A particle having zero
acceleration must have constant speed.
Statement -2 : A particle having
constant speed must have zero 1) 0.02 2) 0.20
acceleration. 3) 0.04 4) 0.4
1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true
139. Acceleration versus velocity graph of a
and statement-2 is correct explanation
for statement-1 particle moving in a straight line
2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true starting from rest is as shown in
and statement-2 is NOT the correct figure. The corresponding velocity-
explanation for statement-1. time graph would be
3) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is
true
4) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is
false
137. A stunt man jumps his car over a
crater as shown (neglect air
resistance)

1) 2)
1) during the whole flight the driver
experiences weightlessness
2) during the whole flight the driver
never experiences weightlessness 3) 4)
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SRI GOSALITES 16 | P A G E VIJAYAWADA
OUT GOING SENIOR
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
140. Both the blocks shown here are of
mass m and are moving with constant
velocity in direction shown in a
resistive medium which exerts equal
magnitude of constant force on both
blocks in direction opposite to the
velocity. The tension in the string
connecting both of them will be :
(Neglect friction)
SPACE – 1 Date: 20-03-2024
143. The scale of temperature in which the
temperature is only positive is:
1) Farenheit 2) Celcius
3) Kelvin 4) Reaumur
144. A gas is expanded from volume V0 to
2V0 under three different processes.
Process 1 is isobaric process, process
2 is isothermal and process 3 is
adiabatic. Let  U1,  U2 and  U3 be
the change in internal energy of the
gas is these three processes. Then :

1) mg 2) mg/2
3) mg/3 4) mg/4
141. A minimum horizontal force of 10 N is
necessary to just hold a block
stationary against a wall. The
coefficient of friction between the 1)  U1>  U2>  U3 2)  U1<  U2<  U3
block and the wall is 0.2. The weight of 3)  U2<  U1<  U3 4)  U2<  U3<  U1
the block is 145. Two moles a monoatomic gas is mixed
with six moles of a diatomic gas. The
molar specific heat of the mixture at
constant volume is:
9 7
1) R 2) R
4 4
3 5
1) 100 N 2) 50 N 3) R 4) R
3) 20 N 4) 2 N 2 2
142. Block of 1 kg is initially in equilibrium 146. During an adiabatic process, the
and is hanging by two identical pressure of a gas is found to be
springs A and B as shown in figures. If proportional to the cube of its absolute
spring A is cut from lower point at t=0
Cp
then, find acceleration of block in ms– temperature. The ratio of for the
2 at t = 0. Cv
gas is:
5 3
1) 2)
3 2
7 9
3) 4)
5 7
1) 5 2) 10
3) 15 4) 0
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SRI GOSALITES 17 | P A G E VIJAYAWADA
OUT GOING SENIOR SPACE – 1 Date: 20-03-2024
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
147. Match the following 3) Both a & c
4) All are correct
Q  0
I Isothermal 1
Process
CHEMISTRY
II Isobaric 2 V  0 SECTION-A (151-185 QUESTIONS)
process ------------------------------------------------------------------
III Isochoric 3 P  0 151. In the conversion of Br2 to BrO-3 , the
process oxidation number of Br changes from
IV Adiabatic 4 T  0 1) zero to + 5 2) + 1 to + 5
process 3) zero to – 3 4) + 2 to + 5
152. The coefficients of I - , IO -3 , and H + in
1) I-4, II-3, III-2, IV-1
the balanced redox reaction
2) I-3, II-2, III-1, IV-4
respectively
3) I-1, II-2, III-3, IV-4
4) I-4, II-2, II-3, IV-1 I - + IO -3 + H + 
 I 2 + H 2O
148. A uniform metallic rod rotates about 1) 3, 8, 2 2) 1, 5, 6
its perpendicular bisector with 3) 3, 2, 4 4) 5, 1, 6
constant angular speed. If it is heated 153. Which of the following reactions are
uniformly to raise its temperature disproportionation reaction ?
slightly i) 2Cu +   Cu 2+ + Cu o
1) its speed of rotation increases ii) 3MnO 42- + 4H + 
2) its speed of rotation decreases 2MnO -4 + MnO 2 + 2H 2O
3) its speed of rotation remains the same
iii) 2KMnO 4 Δ
 K 2 MnO 4 + MnO 2 + O 2
4) its speed increases because its
moment of inertia increases iv) 2MnO-4 + 3Mn 2+ + 2H 2O 

149. A monoatomic gas is suddenly 5MnO 2 + 4H +
compressed to (1/8)th of its initial
volume adiabatically. The ratio of its Select the correct option from the
final pressure of the initial pressure is following.
(Given the ratio of the specific heats of 1) (i) and (iv) only 2) (i) and (ii) only
the given gas to be 5/3) 3) (i), (ii) and (iii) 4) (i), (iii) and (iv)
154. Number of moles of MnO-4 required
1) 32 2) 40/3
3) 24/5 4) 8
150. A copper and a steel wire of the same to oxidize one mole of ferrous oxalate
diameter are connected end to end. A completely in acidic medium
deforming force F is applied to this 1) 0.6 mol 2) 0.4 mol
composite wire which causes a total 3) 7.5 mol 4) 0.2 mol
elongation of 1 cm. The two wires will
155. The largest number of molecules is in
have
a) the same stress b) different stress 1) 36 g of water
c) the same strain d) different strain 2) 28 g of carbon monoxide
1) Only a & d are true 3) 46 g of ethyl alcohol
2) Only b 4) 54 g of nitrogen pentoxide
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SRI GOSALITES 18 | P A G E VIJAYAWADA
OUT GOING SENIOR SPACE – 1 Date: 20-03-2024
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
156. A gas has molecular formula CH n . If 1) 100 K 2) 150 K
vapour density of the gas is 39, what 3) 195 K 4) 255 K
should be the formula of the 162. Considering entropy as a
compound ? thermodynamic parameter, the
1) CH 4 2) C3H8 criterion for the spontaneity of any
process is
3) C2 H6 4) C6 H 6
1) Ssystem  Ssurroundings  0
157. Assertion (A) : Molarity of a solution
2) Ssystem Ssurroundings  0
depends upon temperature.
Reason (R) : Volume of a solution is 3) Ssystem  0 only
temperature dependent entity. 4) Ssurroundings  0 only
1) Both A and R are correct; R is the 163. It is impossible for a reaction to take
correct explanation of A place if
2) Both A and R are correct; R is not the 1) H is +ve and S is +ve
correct explanation of A 2) H is –ve and S is +ve
3) A is correct; R is incorrect
3) H is +ve and S is –ve
4) R is correct; A is incorrect
4) H is –ve and S is –ve
158. Which of the following quantities is
164. The standard free energy change ΔG o
not a state function ?
is related to K (equilibrium constant)
1) Temperature 2) Entropy
as
3) Enthalpy 4) Work
159. ΔE is always positive, when 1) G o  2.303 RT log K
1) system absorbs heat and work is done 2) G o  2.303 RT log K
on it 3) G o  RT log K
2) system emits heat and work is done by
4) None of these
it
165. In endothermic reactions,
3) system emits heat and no work is done
1) reactants have more energy than
on it
products
4) system absorbs heat and work is done
2) reactants have less energy than
by it
products
160. The pressure of a gas is 100 kPa. If it
3) reactants and products have same
is compressed from 1m3 to 10 dm3,
energy
irreversibly find the work done.
4) reactants have lower temperature than
1) 990 J 2) 9990 J
products
3) 9900 J 4) 99000 J
166. Which of the following pairs has heat
161. One mole of an ideal gas expands
of neutralization equal to – 57.1 kJ ?
reversibly and adiabatically from a
1) HNO3 , KOH
temperature of 270C. If the work done
2) HCl, NH 4OH
during the process is 3 kJ, then final
temperature of the gas is 3) H 2SO 4 , NH 4OH
CV = 20 J / K  4) CH3COOH, NaOH
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SRI GOSALITES 19 | P A G E VIJAYAWADA
OUT GOING SENIOR SPACE – 1 Date: 20-03-2024
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
167. The amount of energy required to (Effective
raise the temperature of 1g of water nuclear
0
by 1K (or 1 C) is charge)
1) 5.2 J 2) 4.184 J Codes
3) 36.46 J 4) 23.1 J A B C D
168. Which factor contributes to the 1) 2 4 3 1
positive enthalpy change during the 2) 2 4 1 3
dissolution of CuSO4 ? 3) 4 2 3 1
1) Energy released when ions interact 4) 4 2 1 3
with water 171. The first ionization enthalpies of Na,
2) Energy required to break CuSO4 into Mg, Al and Si are in the order
ions 1) Na < Mg > Al < Si
3) Temperature decrease during the 2) Na > Mg > Al > Si
experiment 3) Na < Mg < Al < Si
4) Decrease in pressure 4) Na > Mg > Al < Si
169. Which of the following statement is 172. When the first electron gain enthalpy
incorrect? Δ eg H  of oxygen is – 141 kJ/mol, its
1) The removal of the outermost electron second electron gain enthalpy is
requires less energy down a group 1) a positive value
2) The penetration capacity of a 2s- 2) a more negative value than the first
electron towards the nucleus is more 3) almost the same as that of the first
than that of a 2p-electrons in boron 4) negative, but less negative than the
3) An electron is added to neutral first
gaseous atom to convert it into positive 173. The electron gain enthalpy (in kJ/mol)
ion of fluorine, chlorine, bromine and
4) Boron has a smaller first ionization iodine, respectively, are
enthalpy than beryllium 1) – 333, – 325, – 349 and – 296
170. Match the followings 2) – 296, – 325, – 333 and – 349
Column I Column II 3) – 333, – 349, – 325 and – 296
(Order) (Properties) 4) – 349, – 333, – 325 and – 296
A) 1) EA
Li < Al < Mg < K (Electron
+ 3+ 2+ +

affinity)
B) 2) Ionic
+ 3+ 2+ + radii
Li > Al > Mg > K

C) Cl > F > Br > I 3) EN

(Electroneg
ativity)
D) F > Cl > Br > I 4) ENC
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SRI GOSALITES 20 | P A G E VIJAYAWADA
OUT GOING SENIOR SPACE – 1 Date: 20-03-2024
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
174. Study the following outline of periodic 177. Which of the following does not
table and identifying the periodic represent positive overlap?
properties A, B, C and D, select the
correct option.

1)

2)
A B C D
1) Atomic Ionisation Ionic Electro-
radius enthalpy radius negativity
2) Electro- Ionic Atomic Electron 3)
negativi radius radius gain
ty enthalpy
3) Ionic Ionisation Electro- Electron 4)
radius enthalpy negativit gain
178. The mixing of one s and one p- orbital
y enthalpy
resulting in the formation of two
4) Ionisati Electron Atomic Electro-
on gain radius negativity equivalent sp- hybrid orbitals.
enthalp enthalpy (nuclear axis is z axis)
y Which of the following orbitals are
used for sp-hybridisation by
175. The period number in the long form of convention?
the periodic table is equal to 1) s and p x 2) s and p y
1) magnetic quantum number of any
3) s and pz 4) None of these
element of the period
179. Which of the following structure is
2) atomic number of any element of the
most stable ?
period
3) maximum principal quantum number
of any element of the period
4) maximum azimuthal quantum number
of any element of the period
176. The first ionization potential of Na is Choose the correct option
5.1 eV. The value of electron gain 1) Only I
enthalpy of Na + will be 2) Only II
1) – 2.55 eV 2) – 5.1 eV 3) Only III
3) – 10.2 eV 4) + 2.55 eV 4) All three have same stability

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SRI GOSALITES 21 | P A G E VIJAYAWADA
OUT GOING SENIOR SPACE – 1 Date: 20-03-2024
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
180. The electron probability distribution 184.
around a group of nuclei in a molecule
is given by
1) atomic orbital
2) molecular orbital
3) only antibonding molecular orbital
4) only bonding molecular orbital
181. Which of the following statements is
incorrect regarding hybridisation?
1) The number of hybrid orbitals is equal The colour of A and B ions
to the number of the atomic orbitals that respectively
get hybridized A B
2) The hybridised orbitals are always 1) purple green
equivalent in energy and shape 2) orange green
3) The hybrid orbitals are less effective 3) purple orange
in forming stable bonds than the pure 4) green purple
atomic orbitals 185. In the equilibrium
4) These hybrid orbitals are directed in  2CrO 42- is shifted to right
Cr2O 72- 
space in some preferred direction to have in
minimum repulsion between electron 1) an acidic medium
pairs and thus a stable arrangement. 2) a basic medium
Therefore, the type of hybridisation 3) a neutral medium
indicates the geometry of the molecules 4) it does not exist
182. Consider the following compound,
SECTION-B (186-200 QUESTIONS)
NaCl, MgCl2, AlCl3
------------------------------------------------------------------
The correct increasing order fo
186. What is the molarity of SO 42- ion in
covalent character is
1) NaCl  MgCl2  AlCl3 aqueous solution that contain 34.2
ppm of Al 2 SO 4 3 ? (Assume complete
2) MgCl2  NaCl  AlCl3
3) AlCl3  MgCl2  NaCl dissociation and density of solution 1
g/mL)
4) NaCl  AlCl3  MgCl2
1) 3104 M 2) 2104 M
183. Enthalpy of lattice formation is the
measure of the stability of an ionic 3) 104 M 4) None of these
compound 187. Calculate the work done when 1 mol
1) Quantitative 2) Qualitative of an ideal gas is compressed
3) Both 1 and 2 4) None of these reversibly from 1 bar to 4 bar at a
constant temperature of 300 K
1) 4.01 kJ 2) – 8.02 kJ
3) 18.02 kJ 4) + 3.457 kJ

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SRI GOSALITES 22 | P A G E VIJAYAWADA
OUT GOING SENIOR SPACE – 1 Date: 20-03-2024
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
188. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas 3) 2.8 kcal mol1 4) 56 kcal mol1
C v = 5 cal  was transformed from 192. For the reaction at 300 K
initial 250C and 1 L to the state when A g  + B g  
 C g 
temperature is 1000C and volume 10 ΔU = -3.0 kcal ΔS = -10.0 cal / K
L. The entropy change of the process
can be expressed as (R = 2 R  2 calmol -1
K -1 
calories/mol/K) ΔG is
298 1) – 600 cal 2) – 3600 cal
1) 3n  2n10
373 3) 2400 cal 4) 3000 cal
373 193. Electronic configuration of some
2) 5n  2n10 elements is given in Column I and
298
373 1 their electron gain enthalpies are
3) 7 n  2 n given in Column II. Match the
298 10
electronic configuration with electron
373 1
4) 5n  2 n gain enthalpy value.
298 10
Column I Column II
189. Which of the following reactions
(Electronic (Electron
define ΔG of ?
configuration) gain
1) Cdiamond  O2 g  CO2 g  enthalpy /
1 1 kJ mol-1)
2) H 2 g   F2 g   HFg  1) – 53
2 2 A) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6
3) H 4 P2O7  H 2O  2H3PO4 B) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s1 2) – 328
1
4) SO 2 g   O 2 g   SO 3 g  C) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 5 3) – 141
2 4) + 48
D) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 4
190. ΔH for the reaction,
Choose the correct option.
1
SO 2 g  + O 2 g 
 SO 3 g  ; Codes
2
A B C D
ΔH = -98.3 kJ
1) 4 1 2 3
If the enthalpy of formation of SO 3 g 
2) 1 2 3 4
is – 395.4 kJ then the enthalpy of 3) 3 2 1 4
formation of SO 2 is 4) 2 4 1 3
1) – 297.1 kJ 2) 493.7 kJ
3) – 493.7 kJ 4) 297.1 kJ
191. Calculate the heat of the reaction
CH 2 = CH 2 g  + H 2 g   CH 3CH 3 g 
given that bond energy of C – C,
C = C, C – H and H – H is 80, 145, 98
and 103 kcal.
1) 28 kcal mol1 2) 5.6 kcal mol1
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SRI GOSALITES 23 | P A G E VIJAYAWADA
OUT GOING SENIOR
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
194. Consider the following graph.
What could be the possible reason for
a dip at boron (B) in the above plot ?
1) Size of boron is smaller than Be
2) 2p electrons are more shielded as
compared to 2s electrons
3) The penetration of a 2s-electron is less
than that of a 2p-electron
4) Both 1 and 2
195. Dipole moment is a vector quantity
and by convention it is depicted by a
small arrow with tail on the negative
centre and head pointing towards the
positive centre. But in chemistry,
presence of dipole moment is
represented by the crossed arrow
put on Lewis structure of the
molecule. The cross is on positive end
and arrow head is on negative end.
From the above data, the dipole
moment in HF molecule may be
represented as
1) 2)
3) 4)
196. Consider the following statements
I. H2O molecule has V-shape with two
lone pairs of electrons.
II. SF4 molecule has see-saw shape
with one lone pair of electrons.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SRI GOSALITES
SPACE – 1 Date: 20-03-2024
III. CIF3 is T-shaped molecule with
two lone pairs of electrons.
Which of the above statements are
correct?
Choose the correct option.
1) I and II
2) II and III
3) I and III
4) All of the above
197. Which of the following statement is
incorrect regarding Fajan's rule?
1) It discussed the partial covalent
character of ionic bonds
2) Smaller the size of cation and larger
the size of anion, the greater is the
covalent character of an ionic bond
3) Greater the charge on the cation, the
greater the covalent character of the
ionic bond
4) For cations of same size and charge,
the one with electronic configuration of
noble gas is more polarising than the one
with transition metals configuration
198. The product of following reaction is
K 2CrO 4 + dil. HNO 3 excess  
1) Cr 3 and Cr2O 72
2) Cr2 O 72 and H 2O
3) Only Cr 3
4) Only Cr 7
199. In the following figure the Cr – O – Cr
bond angle is of Xo. What is the exact
value of Xo ?
1) 126o 2) 136o
3) 116o 4) 106o
200. Which of the following is correct?
1) SO 32  Tetrahedral
2) NO2 K  Trigonal planar
3) ClO4  Tetrahedral
4) NH3  Trigonal planar
24 | P A G E VIJAYAWADA