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Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTION
A. General:
(i) The Test Booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
(ii) The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part I: Physics, Part II: Chemistry, Part III:
Mathematics). Each part has 2 sections.
(iii) Section I - contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),(C)
and (D), for its answer, out of which only one is correct. Each question carries +4 marks for
correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.
(iv) Section II - Contains 5 Numerical based questions with answers as numerical value. Each question
carries +4 marks for correct answer & there is no negative marking. Write answer upto 2 places
after decimal, if answer is in decimal. For example, if answer is “21.3” write “21.30”. But, if answer is in
integer, then write only the integer. Eg. if answer is ‘108’ write ‘108’. Do not write the ‘units’ with
answer, for eg. if answer is 5 m/s2 write only ‘5’ as answer.
(v) Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars or any marking.
(vi) Use of calculator is not allowed.
(vii) Darken the circles in the space provided only.
(viii) Use of white fluid or any other material which damages the answer sheet, is not permitted.
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PHYSICS
SECTION-I
1.. The electric potential V ( in volt) varies with x (in metre) according to the relation V = 5 + 4x 2
The force experienced by a negative charge of 2 10 6 C located at x = 0.5 m is
(a) 2 10 6 N (b) 4 10 6 N (c) 6 10 6 N (d) 8 10 6 N
2. Two parallel plate capacitors of capacitances C and 2C are connected in parallel and charged to a poten-
tial difference V by a battery. The battery is then disconnected and the space between the plates of
capacitor C is competely filled with a material of dielectric constant K. The potential difference across the
capacitors now becomes
V 2V 3V 3V
(a) (b) (c) (d)
K 1 K2 K2 K3
3. Two concentric sphere of radii r1 and r2 carry charges q1 and q2 respectively. If the surface charge density
is the same for both spheres, the electric potential at the common centre will be
4. Two spheres of radii r and R carry charges q and Q respecitvely. When they are connected by a wire,
there will be no loss of energy of the system if
(a) qr = QR (b) qR = Qr (c) qr2 = QR2 (d) qR2 = Qr2
5. Two equal point charges are fixed at x = -a and x = +a on the x - axis. Another point charge Q is placed
at the origin. The change in the electrical potential energy of Q, when it is displaced by a small distance x
along the x-axis, is approximately proportinal to
1
(a) x (b) x2 (c) x3 (d)
x
6. A metallic spherical shell of radius R has a charge -Q distributed uniformly on it. A point charge + Q is
placed at the centre of the shell. Which graph shown in Fig. respresents the variation of electric field E with
distance r from the centre of the shell ?
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8. Two coils A and B, each of 10 turns and radius 20 cm, are held such that coil A lies in the vertical plane and
coil B in the horizontal plane with their centres coinciding. What current should be passed through the coils
so as to nullify the earth’s magnetic field at their common centre ? Horizontal component of earth’s field
0.314 10 4 T and angle of dip = 26.60. Given tan 26.60 = 0.5.
(a) I A 2.0 A , I B 1.0A (b) I A 1.5 A , I B 1.0A
(c) I A 0.5 A, I B 1.0A (d) I A 1.0 A, I B 0.5A
9. If an electron and a proton are projected at right angles to a uniform magnetic field with the same kinetic
energy
(a) the electron trajectory will be less curved than the proton trajectory
(b) the proton trajectroy will be less curved than the electron trajectory
(c) both trajectories will be equally curved (d) both particles move in straight line
10. An electron is accelerated to a high speed down the axis of a cathode ray tube by the application of a
potential difference of V volts between the cathode and the anode. The particle then passes through a
uniform transverse magnetic field in which it experiences a force F. If the potential difference between the
anode and the cathode is increased to 2V, the electron will now experience a force
F F
(a) (b) (c) 2F (d) 2 F
2 2
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11. An electron of charge e moves in a circular orbit of radius r around a nucleus. The magnetic field due to
orbital motion of the electron at the site of the nucleus is B. The angular velocity of the electron is
2 0 eB 0 eB 4 r B 2 rB
(a) 4 r (b) r (c) e (d) e
0 0
12. A sensitive magnetic instrument can be shielded very effectively from outside fields by placing it inside a
box of
(a) teak wood (b) plastic material
(c) a metal of low magnetic permeability (d) a metal of heigh magnetic permeability
13. A current I is flowing through the sides of an equilateral triangle of side a. The magnitude of the magnetic
field at the centroid of the triangle is
3 0 I 90I 3 3 0I
(a) 2 a (b) 2 a (c) (d) zero
2 a
14. Fig. shows two coils placed close to each other. When the key K is
pressed so that a current starts building up in one of the coils,
(a) a current flows along ABC in the other coil
(b) acurrent flows along CBA in the other coil
(c) no current flows in the other coil (d) an alternating current flows in the other coil.
15. A wire in the form of a circular loop of radius r lies with its plane nromal to a magnetic field B. If the wire
is pulled to take a square shape in the same plane in time t, the emf induced in the loop is given by
Br 2 Br 2 Br 2 Br 2
(a) 1 (b) 1 (c) 1 (d) 1
t 10 t 8 t 6 t 4
16. A square loop of side l, mass m and resistance R falls vertically into a uniform magnetic field directed
perpendicular to the plane of the coil. The height h through which the loop falls so that it attains terminal
velocity o entering the region of magnetic field is given by
mg R m 2g R 2 m gR2 m 2g R 2
(a) 2 Bl (b) (c) (d)
2 B2l 2 2 B3l 3 2 B4l 4
17. A small square loop of wire of side l is placed inside a large square loop of wire of side L (L > > l). The
loops are coplanar and their centres coincide. The mutual inductance of the system is proportional to
l l2 L L2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
L L l l
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18. In the circuit shown in figure the AC source gives a voltage V=20 cos (2000t) Neglecting source resistance
the voltmeter and ammeter readings will be
(a) 0 V, 2.0A (b) 0 V, 1.4 A (c) 5.6 V, 1.4 A (d) 8 V, 2.0 A
19. In the AC network shown in figure the rms current flowing through the inductor and capacitor are 0.6A
and 0.8A respectively. Then the current coming out of the source is
(a) 1.0 A (b) 1.4 A (c) 0.2 A (d) None of the above
20. A steady current of magnitude I and an AC current of peak value I are allowed to pass through identical
resistors for the same time. The ratio of heat produced in the two resistors will be
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 1 (d) None of dthese
SECTION-II
21. Two metallic identical spheres A and B carrying equal positive charge + q are a certain distance apart. The
force of repulsion between them if F. A third uncharged sphere of the same size is brought in contact with
sphere A and removed. It is then brought in contact with sphere B and removed. The new force of
repulsion between A and B is (3F/P). Find the value of P
22. Three is a uniform electric field of strength 103 Vm-1 along the y-axis. A body of mass 1 g and charge
10-6 C is projected into the field from the origin along the positive x - axis with a velocity of 10 ms -1. Its
speed (in ms-1) after 10 second will be (neglect gravitation)
25. A galvanometer of resistance 10 gives full - scale deflection when 1 mA current passes through it. The
resistance (in ohms) required to convert it into a voltmeter reading up to 2.5 V is
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CHEMISTRY
SECTION-I
26. The major product of following reaction is
a. b.
c. d.
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a. b. c. d.
a. b. c. d.
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30. The correct match between Item - I and Item - II is:
__________________________________________________________
Item I (Drug) Item II (Test)
__________________________________________________________
A. Chloroxylenol P. Carbylamine test
__________________________________________________________
B. Norethindrone Q. Sodium hydrogen carbonate test
__________________________________________________________
C. Sulphapyridine R. Ferric chloride test
__________________________________________________________
D. Penicillin S. Bayer’s test
__________________________________________________________
a. A R; B P;C S; D Q b. A R; B S;C P; D Q
c. A Q; B P;C S; D R d. A Q; B S;C P; D R
31. The increasing order of pKa of the following amino acids in aqueous solution is Gly, Asp, Lys, Arg
a. Asp Gly Arg Lys b. Arg Lys Gly Asp
c. Gly Asp Arg Lys d. Asp Gly Lys Arg
32. The products formed in the reaction of cumene with O2 followed by treatment with dil. HCl are
a. b.
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c. d.
a. b. c. d.
a. b. c. d.
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Test Inference
a) 2, 4-DNP test Coloured precipitate
b) Iodoform test Yellow precipitate
c) Azo-dye test No dye formation
a. b. c. d.
a. b. c. d.
A. B. C. D.
a. D C B A b. A B C D c. A B D C d. D C A B
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38. The major product obtained in the following reaction is:
a. b. c. d.
39. The correct sequence of amino acids present in the tripeptide given below is :
a. Thr Ser Leu b. Leu Ser Thr c. Val Ser Thr d. Thr Ser Val
40. The correct structure of product ‘P’ in the following reaction is:
a. b.
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c. d.
41. The decreasing order of ease of alkaline hydrolysis for the following esters is:
42. Which dicarboxylic acid in presence of a dehydrating agent is least reactive to give an anhydride?
a. b. c. d.
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a. b. c. d.
44. The major product ‘X’ formed in the following reaction is:
a. b.
c. d.
45. The increasing order of the pK values of the following compounds is:
a. D A C B b. B C A D c. C B A D d. B C D A
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SECTION-II
46. The number of double bonds in product of the following reaction is __________.
47. The concentration of dissolved oxygen (DO) in cold water can go upto ______ ppm.
48. The number of non aromatic species among the following are _______.
49. An organic compound is estimated through Dumas method and was found to evolved 6 moles of CO2,
4 moles of H2O and 1 mole of nitrogen gas. The sum of C, H and N atom in one molecule is _______.
50. The no. of Bromine atoms attached to ring in the major product of the following reaction is _______.
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MATHS
SECTION-I
51. If z and w are non-zero complex numbers such that zw z , then z z w w 4 represents a
2
52. Let z be a complex number such that z 1 t i t 2 t 2 , where t R , then locus of z on the
Argand plane is
a) a parabola b) an ellipse c) a hyperbola d) a pair of straight line
az1 bz 2
53. Let z1 , z 2 C and a, b > 0 be such that a z1 b z 2 , then w az bz lies
1 2
a) in the 1st quadrant b) in the 3rd quadrant c) on the real axis d) on the imaginary axis
z z1
54. If k 0, k 1 , and z1 , z 2 C , then k represents
z z2
a) a circle b) an ellipse c) a parabola d) a hyperbola
56. If the points A(z), B(–z) and C(l z) are the vertices of an equilateral triangle, then value of z is
i 3 1 1 1
a) 1 b) (1 i) c) (1 3i) d) (1 3i )
2 2 4 3
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58. 2m white counters and 2n red counters are arranged in a straight line with (m + n) counters on each side
of a central mark. The number of ways of arranging the counters, so that the arrangements are symmetrical
with respect to the central mark, is
(m n)! 1 (m n)!
a) b) 2m 2n
C 2m c) d) none of these
m!n! 2 m!n!
59. There are 3 set of parallel lines containing respectively p lines, q lines and r lines respectively. The
greatest number of parallelograms that can be formed by the system
1
a) pqr (p 1)(q 1)(r 1) b) {pqr (p 1)(q 1)(r 1)}
4
1
c) pqr(p 1)(q 1)(r 1) d) none of these
4
dy
61. The solution of x
3
4x 2 tan y e x sec y satisfying y(1) = 0 is
dx
a) tan y (x 2)e x log x b) sin y e x (x 1)x 4
c) tan y (x 1)e x x 3 d) sin y e x (x 1)x 3
dy 1 y2
62. The differential equation determines a family of circles with
dx y
a) variable radii and a fixed centre (0, 1)
b) variable radii and a fixed centre (0, –1)
c) fixed radius 1 and a variable centres along the x-axis
d) fixed radius 1 and variable centres along the y-axis
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63. The equation of the curve whose tangent at any point (x, y) makes an angle tan 1 (2x 3y) with x-axis
and which passes through (1, 2) is:
a) 6x 9y 2 26e3(x 1) b) 6x 9y 2 26e3(x 1)
c) 6x 9y 2 26e3(x 1) d) 6x 9y 2 26e3(x 1)
64. The differential equation which represents the family of curves y c1e c2 x , where c1 and c2 are arbitrary
constants, is
a) yy '' y ' b) yy '' y '2 c) y '' y 2 d) y '' y ' y
65. The population p(t) at time t of a certain mouse species follows the differential equation
dp(t)
0.5 p(t) 450 . If p(0) = 850, then the time at which the population becomes zero is
dt
1
a) log 9 b) log18 c) log 18 d) 2 log 18
2
dy 1 tan x
66. The general solution of the differential equation cos 2x dx 1 tan x y 0 is given by
a) y tan x x C b) y cot x x C
4 4
c) y tan x tan x C d) y cot x cot x C
4 4
67. A kite is flying with the string inclined at 75° to the horizon. If the length of the string is 25 m, the height
of the kite is
a) (25 / 2)( 3 1) 2 b) (25 / 4)( 3 1) 2 c) (25 / 2)( 3 1) 2 d) (25 / 2)( 6 2)
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68. The angles of elevation of the top of a tower standing on a horizontal plane, from two points on a line
passing through its foot at distances a and b, respectively, are complementary angles. If the line joining
the two points subtends an angle at the top of the tower, then if a > b, sin =
ab ab 2 ab 2 ab
a) b) c) d)
ab ab ab a b
69. ABCD is a rectangular park with AB = a. A tower standing at C makes angles and at A and B
respectively, the height of the tower is
a a a tan tan a cot cot
a) b) c) d)
cot cot
2 2
cot cot
2 2
tan tan
2 2
cot 2 cot 2
70. The angle of elevation of the top Q of a tower PQ at a point A on the horizontal plane through P the foot
of the tower is . At a point B on AQ at a vertical height of a, the angle of elevation of the middle point
R of the tower PQ is , then the height of the tower is
2a(tan tan ) 2a(tan 2tan ) 2a(tan tan 1) 2a(tan cot 1)
a) b) c) d)
tan 2 tan tan tan 2 tan cot 1 2 tan cot 1
SECTION-II
71. For x R , let x denote the greatest integer x, then value of
1 1 1 1 2 1 99
(1) ...... is
3 3 100 3 100 3 100
72. A bag contains a white and b black balls. Two players, A and B alternately draw a ball from the bag,
replacing the ball each time after the draw till one of them draws a white ball and wins the game. A begins
the game. If the probability of A winning the game is three times that of B, the ratio a : b is (what is sum
of ratio)
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73. While shuffling a pack of playing cards, four are accidently dropped. The probability that the cards that
are dropped are one from each suit is
74. A ladder rests against a wall at an angle at 35°. Its foot is pulled away through a distance a, so that it
3a
slides a distance b down the wall, finally making an angle of 25° with the horizontal, then
b
75. A person stands at a point A due south of a tower and observes that its elevation is 60°. He then walks
westwards towards B, where the elevation is 45°. At a point C on AB produced, he finds it to be 30°.
Then AB/BC is equal to
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