Juanita is a data-driven manager, so she

a. minimizes interaction with people when working.

b. bases her decisions on facts.
c. finely tunes her intuition.
d. emphasizes politics in her decision making.
b
Richard is a data-driven manager, so he tells subordinates,
a. "Don't politic, use data."
b. "Politic, don't use data."
c. "Pay for your own lunch while on a business trip."
d. "Donate 10 percent of your gross income to charity."
a
The purpose of enterprise software is to
a. develop inventory control systems.
b. control an entire company's operation by linking them together.
c. develop business plans for entrepreneurs.
d. develop decision-making aids such as PERT diagrams.
b
A major reason that forecasting is so important in business is that
a. customers often demand forecasts before they purchase equipment.
b. forecasts accurately describe a company's history.
c. forecasts are good for spotting errors in current operations.
d. spotting trends can give you an edge over the competition.
d
The results of a time-series analysis are best represented by a(n)
a. equation with two variables.
b. chart or graph showing past trends and predicted future trends.
c. verbal summary of expert opinions.
d. pie chart of the various components of the analysis.
b
CEO Maria is so convinced that company sales will triple, that she commits the
company to lavish new expenses without making contingency plans if the sales
growth does not take place. Maria might be falling into the
a. prudence trap.
b. overconfidence trap.
c. recallability trap.
d. subjective thinking trap.
b
The World Future Society predicts that 100 million people with telecommute by
the year 2015, illustrating a(n) _________ forecast.
a. economic
b. sales
c. technological
d. doomsday
a
The two major variables considered by Gantt charts and milestone charts are
a. time and activity.
b. past and present.
c. time and motion.
d. price and cost.
a
The numbers in a PERT network refer to the
a. amount of time consumed by events.
b. completion date for projects.
c. time required to complete activities between events.
d. average of the optimistic and pessimistic times.
c
The critical path is the path through the PERT network with the
a. shortest completion time.
b. longest completion time.
c. most probable time.
d. pessimistic time.
b
With a more refined application of PERT, the optimistic, pessimistic,
and most probable times should be based on
a. Bureau of Labor Statistics estimates.
b. the intuition of someone new to the task.
c. the intuition of a well-experienced worker.
d. a frequency distribution of estimates
d
In addition to estimating the time required for activities, advanced
applications of PERT estimate the
a. job satisfaction associated with the task.
b. amount of resources to needed to accomplish the job.
c. productivity bonuses paid to workers who finish on schedule.
d. starting day of the project.
b
The break-even point occurs when
a. fixed costs and fixed revenues are equal.
b. variable costs and variable revenues are equal.
c. the units produced equal the units sold.
d. total costs and total revenues are equal.
d
Break-even analysis indicates the _______________ that will be necessary to
justify a new expense.
a. increase in sales.
b. increase in costs.
c. amount of profit.
d. volume of activity.
a
Fixed cost in break-even analysis refers to the cost that
a. remains constant no matter how many units are produced.
b. covers the initial capital expenditures.
c. covers everything but employee compensation.
d. declines after the break-even point has been reached.
a
A decision tree graphically depicts
a. the alternative solutions available to solve a problem.
b. cause and effect relationships.
c. how much inventory to keep on hand.
d. the states of nature.
a
A decision tree graphically depicts
a. the alternative solutions available to solve a problem.
b. cause and effect relationships.
c. how much inventory to keep on hand.
d. the states of nature.
c
A decision tree is considered particularly useful in
a. evaluating costs over the life of a project.
b. making a sequence of decisions.
c. estimating the length of time required to achieve given return on investment.
d. determining when to drop a product line.
b
The economic-order quantity (EOQ) suggests the
a. right size orders to take.
b. break-even point for storing inventory.
c. break-even point for sales orders.
d. right amount of inventory to store.
d
Under a just-in-time inventory system, inventory is moved into a plant as soon as
a. the supplier can deliver.
b. the manufacturer has shelf space.
c. it can be bought at the right price.
d. it is needed.
d
For just-in-time inventory management to work well, it is particularly important
that
a. low-priced suppliers can be located.
b. product demand is predictable.
c. work stoppages are a distinct possibility.
d. a firm is essentially a custom manufacturer.
b
Under the inventory system of LIFO, you sell
a. the last one received last.
b. the last one received first.
c. first one received, first.
d. by shipping directly from one of your suppliers.
b
Under the inventory system, FIFO, you sell
a. by shipping directly from one of your suppliers.
b. the first goods you obtained last
c. the last goods you obtained first.
d. the first goods you obtained first.
d
Sam, a small business owner, values his inventory at the price he
originally paid for it, rather than at today's prices. Sam's profits will
a. be eliminated on paper.
b. be at the break-even point.
c. look larger on paper.
d. look smaller on paper.
c
A Pareto diagram is useful in identifying
a. how many samples must be taken.
b. the most frequent causes of problems.
c. why the zero defect standard was not achieved.
d. 80 percent of the recurring problems.
b
Marvin's job involves selling used trucks. To boost his job satisfaction, Marvin's
boss authorizes him to tell the dealer when a truck needs a paint job in order to sell.
Which task characteristic has been added to Marvin's job?
a. feedback from the job
b. decision-making authority
c. work methods autonomy
d. task significance
b
A job contains high task significance when the
a. work output touches the lives of many people.
b. work output earns a profit for the firm.
c. job holder has varied working hours.
d. job holder receives frequent feedback from the boss.
a
Airplane mechanic Clyde tells his boss, "This job is killing my back. Crawling
into small places every day is more than I can tolerate." Which job sub-dimension is
Clyde complaining about?
a. ergonomics
b. interdependence
c. skill variety
d. work methods autonomy
a
A job description is a written statement of the
a. key features of a job.
b. qualifications necessary to fill a job.
c. design features of a job.
d. degree of specialization within a job.
a
A major benefit of job specialization is that it allows for
a. a flexible work force.
b. enrichment of virtually all jobs.
c. excellent coordination of contributors to a total job.
d. the development of expertise at all occupational levels.
d
An enriched job typically includes the element of
a. control over resources.
b. indirect communication authority.
c. routine experiences.
d. limited personal accountability.
a
Control over method in job enrichment means that the worker
a. communicates directly with the client or customer.
b. must present to management an analysis of the best method.
c. chooses the method to accomplish the assigned task.
d. must try a new method for accomplishing the task.
c
In the job characteristics model, a task is significant when it
a. provides direct information about performance.
b. offers the job holder freedom.
c. has a heavy impact on other people.
d. enables a person to do a complete job.
c
Before implementing a program of job enrichment it is recommended that the
manager
a. grant immediate pay increases.
b. find out if employees want an enriched job.
c. rewrite job descriptions for all employees involved.
d. empower employees to enrich their own jobs.
b
Workers with high job involvement will
a. identify psychologically with their work.
b. involve others in getting their work done.
c. separate their self-image from their work.
d. search for horizontal job loading.
a
Zeke is in charge of stocking shelves in the soft-drink aisle in a supermarket. To
apply job enlargement, the store manager might
a. allow Zeke to do market research about soft-drink consumption.
b. schedule Zeke to switch back and forth between stocking the soft-drink and pet-food
aisles.
c. give Zeke the additional permanent assignment of also stocking the dry-cereal
section.
d. assign Zeke flexible working hours.
c
Priscilla, a customer service representative at a call center, adds to her job
by asking customers how much they liked their previous purchase. Priscilla is engaged
in job
a. simplification.
b. rotation.
c. crafting.
d. specialization.
c
A justification for job crafting is that job descriptions
a. have become too rigid to fit today's job roles.
b. must be followed carefully for maximum efficiency.
c. are now developed by workers themselves.
d. are becoming standardized throughout a given industry.
a
Which one of the following is not a common type of job crafting? Making
changes in
a. the pay structure of a job.
b. the number and types of job tasks.
c. the interactions with others on the job.
d. one's view of a job.
a
Which of the following is the least effective method for preventing cumulative
trauma disorder?
a. use the computer mouse whenever possible
b. rotate jobs to reduce repetitive hand and body movements
c. install equipment that minimizes awkward hand and body movements
d. use voice recognition systems as a substitute for keyboarding
a
An experiment about noise levels with female clerical workers demonstrated that
the workers exposed to noise
a. increased their productivity levels.
b. capitalized more on ergonomic features of their work furniture.
c. experienced inner-ear damage.
d. developed high levels of stress hormones in the blood.
d
A key factor that predisposes workers to carpal tunnel syndrome is
a. spending many non-working hours keyboarding.
b. consuming too many diet soft drinks.
c. keyboarding under limited illumination.
d. oversleeping.
a
A study showed that a major reason why employees are hesitant to use the
flextime option is that they
a. are concerned about appearing uncommitted to work.
b. dislike starting work so early.
c. dislike staying so late at work.
d. cannot afford the reduction in pay.
a
A potential disadvantage of telecommuting is that working at home is likely to
a. contribute to decreased productivity.
b. lead to inflexible work schedules for telecommuters.
c. reinforce negative tendencies such as procrastination.
d. increase real estate costs for the corporation
c
In establishing a telecommuting program, it is recommended that
managers choose workers who
a. have performed poorly in the office.
b. have performed well in the office.
c. enjoy sleeping late, and snacking throughout the workday.
d. have had problems getting along with others in the office.
b
According to the policy of hoteling, the worker who travels frequently
a. is charged rent when on company premises.
b. just gets to use office space when in town.
c. must share a locker with two other workers.
d. must stay only at company-approved hotels.
b
According to the policy of job sharing,
a. high-paid workers share pay with low-paid workers.
b. workers without an office share get to use the offices of those
belonging to managers.
c. two part-time workers share one job.
d. workers delegate work to those lower in rank.
c
Contingent workers
a. share jobs with other employees.
b. are only hired when they are needed.
c. always work less than 40 hours per week.
d. work for more than one employer at a time.
b
A major characteristic of a high-performance work system in a manufacturing
environment is that
a. workers are allowed limited rest breaks.
b. time and motion studies dictate work methods.
c. supervisors make all the important decisions.
d. workers participate in making decisions that have an impact.
d
According to the method of creating high-performance jobs by adjusting
resources, bookkeeper Pam will perform at her best when she
a. gets paid more than most bookkeepers.
b. creates her own resources.
c. gets all the resources she needs to do her job.
d. consults regularly with a human resources specialist
c
The clearest example of a staff department in a manufacturing organization would
be
a. sales.
b. operations.
c. food services.
d. quality assurance.
c
One of the reasons that bureaucracies have endured is that they
a. provide ample opportunity for risk taking and thrill seeking.
b. help satisfy people's need for order and security.
c. were designed with the age of the Internet in mind.
d. are almost immune to downsizing.
b
A notable disadvantage of a bureaucracy is that it often leads to
a. unclear managerial responsibility.
b. rigidity in dealing with people.
c. an insufficient amount of rules and regulations.
d. wide of span of control.
b
The organization structure best suited to gaining the advantage of specialization is
_______________ departmentalization.
a. functional
b. geographic
c. product
d. matrix
a
A disadvantage of product-service departmentalization is that
a. customer needs may be neglected.
b. field units lack authority.
c. it often leads to duplication of effort.
d. employees rarely identify with the field units.
c
The organization of GE Capital into Commercial Finance, Consumer Finance,
Equipment Management, and Insurance best illustrates the __________________
structure
a. product-service
b. matrix
c. functional
d. geographic
a
A matrix organization can be described as a(n) _______________structure
superimposed on a _______________ structure.
a. project; functional
b. product; territorial
c. process; product
d. informal; formal
a
A wide span of control is advised when
a. there is considerable flux in the work setting.
b. group members perform similar tasks.
c. group members are physically dispersed.
d. group members and the manager are highly capable.
d
Downsizing is the most likely to be successful when
a. high-value activity is eliminated first.
b. information about the pending layoff is held back from employees.
c. it is part of the business strategy to improve the company.
d. it is a stopgap measure to save the company money.
c
The speed boat division of a company based in Bay City, Michigan (USA) knows it
has been subject to offshoring when the
a. division now makes tractors instead of boats.
b. boats are now made in Taiwan.
c. customer service unit is now staffed by people working out of their homes.
d. less complex components of the boats are imported from Mexico.
b
You know that you are a homesourcing agent when you
a. perform call center duties out of your home.
b. sell products from door to door.
c. organize parties in your home to sell products.
d. work in a large call center responding to problems with consumer products.
a
_____12. An example of a horizontal organization structure would be a
a. department producing an engine.
b. team assembling components for company machines.
c. purchasing department.
d. team responsible for filling orders.
d
Don has a functional mindset, and therefore would be likely to
a. think more about his specialty than working collaboratively.
b. establish a tight schedule of goals.
c. focus too much on the work process instead of his own work.
d . be too eager to collaborate with workers with other specialties.
a
To become part of the informal organization structure, you should
a. study the company organization chart carefully.
b. become a temporary worker.
c. send your résumé to key managers.
d. establish a network of contacts to help you accomplish work.
d
Flexible organization structures, such as project and matrix structures, are the
most likely to be found in
a. high-technology firms.
b. lumber mills.
c. pasta factories.
d. poultry processing plants.
a
_____16. A suggestion for effective delegation is to
a. delegate part of a task.
b. give as much instruction as needed.
c. closely monitor the details.
d. assign the task to the highest-ranking company official.
b
A centralized firm tends to
a. have a very small corporate staff.
b. eliminate the need for a corporate headquarters building.
c. turn over substantial control to decentralized units.
d. exercise control over decentralized units.
d
The foundation of an organizational culture is the organization's
a. relative diversity.
b. values.
c. resource allocation and rewards.
d. degree of change.
b
The dimension or organization culture called a sense of ownership, typically
comes about when
a. the company helps employees purchase houses.
b. employees develop pride in the company.
c. the company helps employees get out of debt.
d. employees purchase stock in the company.
d
The primary way that employees learn the organization culture is through
a. the process of socialization.
b. studying the company Website.
c. studying the company intranet.
d. making mistakes and then being corrected.
a
A major reason that organizational mergers often fail is that
a. both companies have strong cultures.
b. both sides have weak cultures.
c. one of the two firms is lacking a culture.
d. the two corporate cultures are incompatible.
d
CEO Justin wants to sustain the company's culture. One of the recommended actions
he can take is to
a. suggest that employees decide on their own culture.
b. bring outsiders into the company whose values clash with the company's culture.
c. include a statement of the company's desired culture in the annual report.
d. serve as a role model for the desired attitudes and behaviors.
d
A recommended technique for gaining support for change is to
a. discuss and negotiate sensitive issues.
b. figure out what to do as one goes along.
c. discourage worker participation in the changes.
d. avoid discussion about financial consequences.
a
An important emphasis of a Six Sigma program is to
a. prevent problems.
b. punish employees who perform sloppy work.
c. minimize the behavioral aspects of achieving high quality.
d. base quality standards on individual differences.
a
One of the components for bring about organizational change in the DICE framework
for change management is
a. for the change initiative to drag on for a long time.
b. the change task to be delegated to small taskforce.
c. inexperienced people to be assigned to the change efforts.
d. commitment of senior executives and staff.
d
Human resources executive Sarah says, "I finally have a seat at the table." She
most likely is implying that
a. she is allowed into the executive dining room.
b. her work is tied in with company business strategy.
c. she no longer has to stand in the back of the room during meetings.
d. she will be allowed to negotiate with the labor union.
b
A specific way in which human resources contributes to business strategy is by
a. helping to build high-performance work practices.
b. organizing company picnics.
c. making PowerPoint presentations to top management.
d. helping to prepare job descriptions.
a
An example of a workplace factor that could lead to turnover is
a. a booming economy with many job opportunities.
b. a worker's limited ability to cope with the job demands.
c. job-hopping tendencies of the worker.
d. lack of emotional support from the supervisor.
d
According to the theory of job imbeddedness, whether employees stay with a firm
depends on
a. how long a worker has held the job.
b. how well the employee is liked by coworkers.
c. a variety of factors on and off the job.
d. the worker's demographic characteristics.
c
An affirmative action program must comply with anti-discrimination law and
a. create managerial opportunities for minorities and women.
b. change employee attitudes about discrimination.
c. increase minority hiring by 40 percent.
d. increase minority pay by 40 percent.
a
According to federal laws prohibiting discrimination, it is illegal to discriminate
against people
a. in any aspect of employment.
b. mostly with respect to hiring.
c. mostly with respect to transfer, promotion, layoff, or recall.
d. mostly with respect to recruitment and testing.
a
The general purpose of strategic human resource planning is to
a. develop selection systems to meet the needs of the firm.
b. control costs in carrying out the human resource function.
c. identify skills needed for the success of the business.
d. ensure that business strategy does not neglect people.
c
The leading cause of job failures is
a. a dislike for rules and regulations.
b. a poor fit between the worker and the organizational culture.
c. an inability to understand job requirements.
d. insufficient technical knowledge.
b
A job specification describes the
a. working conditions encountered on the job.
b. pay and benefits associated with the job.
c. demands of the job.
d. qualifications needed for the job.
d
Online recruiting including company Websites,
a. now accounts for about 80% of external hires.
b. is close to employee referrals as a source of external hires.
c. is considered discriminatory because they require computer literacy.
d. suffers from not attracting a large enough number of inquiries
b
A useful Internet alternative to using job boards for employee recruiting is
a. chat rooms where people are looking for dates.
b. the career section of a company Website.
c. to attract the attention of eBay surfers.
d. to use pop-up ads to attract the attention of job hunters.
b
A multicultural employee
a. is able to conduct business in another culture.
b. was raised in a multicultural environment.
c. speaks three or more languages fluently.
d. has experience working in other countries.
a
An example of a knock out question for a flight attendant would be
a. "Would you want a child of yours to be an airplane pilot?"
b. "Are you currently employed?"
c. "Who invented the airplane?"
d. "Are you afraid of flying?"
d
All of the big five personality factors
a. are included in the Americans with Disabilities Act.
b. influence job performance.
c. are part of measuring the person-organization fit.
d. create job problems, if present.
b
The purpose of a realistic job preview is to give the job applicant a(n)
a. accurate picture of the potential problems within the job.
b. accurate picture of the earnings potential within the job.
c. thorough analysis of his or her perceived strengths.
d. thorough analysis of his or her perceived weaknesses.
a
Lucy applies for the position of ambulance medic. To give her a job simulation
screening test, the interviewer
a. asks her to say the alphabet backwards in three minutes.
b. has her stop the bleeding of an accident victim.
c. interviews her in an ambulance.
d. interviews her in an operating room.
b
E-learning, is least likely to be effective for teaching
a. financial ratios.
b. product information.
c. interpersonal skills.
d. software skills.
c
A key advantage of delivering training content by MP3 players is that workers
can
a. listen to music while being trained.
b. impress customers with how cool they look.
c. design their own training content.
d. receive training during spare moments.
d
Performance, as measured in performance evaluation systems, appears to have the
three following components:
a. task performance, interpersonal performance, and mental performance
b. task performance, citizenship performance, and counterproductive
performance
c. past performance, present performance, and future performance
d. performance related to customers, the manager, and coworkers
b
You know that you are being evaluated by a forced ranking system when you are
placed in the category of
a. meets requirements
b. counterproductive employee
c. outstanding performer
d. top 20 percent.
d
Amy has just received her 360-degree feedback appraisal. This means she was
evaluated
a. by a circle of managers.
b. on many different dimensions of job performance.
c. by a sampling of the people she interacts with.
d. on many different days during the year.
c
An alternative suggested for a formal appraisal system is for
a. managers to have regular face-to-face discussions with employees
about their performance.
b. employees to provide written evaluations of their own performance.
c. all employees in a certain category to receive the same salary increase.
d. employees to work on group goals rather than individual goals.
a
On average, the benefits for a job usually run about _______________ percent of
base salary.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 35
d
Under a variable pay system, workers receive some of their pay based on
a. demonstration of skills.
b. demonstration of competencies the company needs for its success.
c. number of years of employment.
d. actual job performance.
d
In the United States, the unionization rate for which of the following groups is the
highest?
a. manufacturing workers
b. government workers
c. managers
d. private-industry workers
b
In organizations, leadership can be exerted
a. by many people, as well as managers.
b. only by the top two levels of management.
c. only on permanent assignments.
d. by people with or without leadership capability.
a
In contrast to management, leadership
a. is more scientific.
b. relies more on planning and controlling.
c. involves many approaches to persuasion.
d. relies on universal skills.
c
Team members must identify with the leader in order for the leader to exercise
_______________ power.
a. reward
b. coercive
c. legitimate
d. referent
d
A key aspect of leading by example is for the leader to
a. set high goals for group members.
b. be assertive with group members.
c. appeal to the rationality of group members
d. show a consistency between thoughts and words.
d
Leading by values is similar to influencing people through
a. giving them rewards for good deeds.
b. the organization culture.
c. being assertive.
d. exchange of favors.
b
When a leader empowers employees, the leader accepts them as
a. part of his or her zone of indifference.
b. workers with higher rank than himself or herself.
c. partners in decision making.
d. leaders by example.
c
Mitch exercises self-leadership when he
a. leads himself to accomplish a difficult but important task.
b. asks for a raise outside of a performance evaluation meeting.
c. gets coworkers to recommend him for a promotion.
d. encourages coworkers to perform well.
a
A recommended way for the leader to encourage self-leadership is to
a. threaten to punish workers who do not practice self-leadership.
b. practice micromanagement.
c. avoid workers so they will have to work on their own.
d. set an example of self-leadership by making work enjoyable.
d
A major characteristic of high achieving leaders is that they are
a. somewhat indifferent about the technology around them.
b. passionate about their work.
c. low on achievement motivation.
d. medium with respect to emotional intelligence.
b
For best results, the leader should combine self-confidence with
a. humility.
b. arrogance.
c. dishonesty.
d. a little sarcasm.
a
Under a policy of open-book management, workers are
a. expected to be totally honest with management.
b. exposed to financial details of the firm.
c. empowered to set their own wage rates.
d. expected to manage the financial aspects of their organizational units.
b
Feedback is considered very important as a way of
a. influencing behavior.
b developing charisma.
c. manipulating team members.
d. exerting coercive power.
a
Which one of the following is the least likely to be an effective
leadership behavior?
a. giving and receiving frequent feedback
b. setting high performance standards for group members
c. being the opposite of a servant leader
d. quick recovery from setbacks
c
A major part of effective crisis leadership is for the leader to
a. present a plan for working out of the crisis.
b. point blame for the crisis in the right direction.
c. be excitable and angry.
d. delay decision making until a study of the crisis is completed.
a
A major aspect of being a consensus leader is to
a. retain considerable decision-making authority.
b. hold group discussions before making a decision.
c. confer with group members individually.
d. take a vote before making a final decision.
b
Soliciting suggestions for business improvement from front-line employees is an
example of ____________ leadership.
a. participative
b. rational
c. authoritarian
d. charismatic
a
According to the Leadership Grid, which style of leadership leads to trust and
respect?
a. authoritarian management.
b. sound management.
c. extraverted management.
d. crisis management
b
In Situational Leadership II, leaders adapt their behavior to the level of
__________ and _________ of a particular subordinate on a given task.
a. intelligence, personality
b. competence, commitment
c. goals, motives
d. knowledge, experience
b
According to the Situational II model, the Coaching leadership style should be
matched with which type of group member
a. enthusiastic beginner
b. self-reliant achiever
c. disillusioned learner
d. capable but cautious performer
c
A notable characteristic of an entrepreneurial leader is a(n)
a. patient, plodding approach to problems.
b. passion for hierarchy and bureaucracy.
c. exceptional degree of enthusiasm.
d. exceptional degree of pessimism.
c
A study of the leadership styles of about 3,900 leaders found that
leaders who achieved the best results,
a. changed their style to fit the situation.
b. stayed with one effective style in different situations.
c. were more authoritarian in the morning than in the afternoon.
d. systematically used the five different Leadership Grid styles.
a
A major result of the characteristics of transformational and charismatic
leaders is that they are able to
a. inspire group members.
b. intimidate group members.
c. get coworkers to support each other.
d. get group members to compete against one another.
a
A recommendation for developing charisma is to
a. be laid back and aloof.
b. encourage people to lead themselves.
c. keep emotions under tight control.
d. smile frequently, even when not happy.
d
Shadowing as a mentoring technique involves
a. the mentor providing frequent feedback to the person mentored.
b. having a series of mentors.
c. observing the mentor by following him or her around.
d. showing considerable respect for the mentor in meetings.
c
An example of a leadership skill would be
a. extraversion.
b. motivating others.
c. emotional stability.
d. conscientiousness.
b
1. Employee commitment often comes about as a consequence of
a. being well motivated over time.
b. threats of punishment.
c. being motivated for a single task.
d. having the appropriate job skills.
a
According to recent evidence about employee engagement, most American
workers are
a. so engaged in their work they risk becoming alcoholics.
b. usually engaged in their work for the first four hours of the day.
c. so unengaged in their work they are a liability to their employer.
d. not fully engaged in their work.
d
The final group of needs in Maslow's need hierarchy is
a. physiological needs.
b. esteem needs.
c. self-actualizing needs.
d. social needs.
c
A factor contributing today to the relevance of the need hierarchy is that
a. job security has reached new heights in recent years.
b. money is no longer a significant motivator.
c. so many workers have to worry about satisfying basic needs.
d. many companies sponsor programs of self-actualization.
c
A sophisticated recognition program would attempt to give recognition rewards to
activities that
a. are tied to corporate objectives.
b. contribute to team spirit.
c. help a person get promoted.
d. make the manager look good.
a
An important consequence of reward and recognition programs is that they
a. create less need for competitive base salaries.
b. improve employee retention.
c. decrease employee loyalty.
d. increase employee turnover.
b
Having pride in your work is considered to be a(n)
a. internal motivator.
b. external motivator.
c. weak motivator.
d. feeling that occurs mostly early in one's career.
a
A recommended way for a manager to motivate through pride is to
a. offer financial incentives for displays of pride.
b. celebrate attaining small goals as much as attaining the major goal.
c. celebrate attaining the major goal, and pay little attention to small goals.
d. distribute T-shirts, hats, and cups that read, "I am proud."
b
The need for risk taking and thrill seeking
a. almost always has negative consequences for the employer.
b. is ill-suited for the high technology era.
c. can find constructive outlets on the job.
d. lies close to the bottom of the need hierarchy.
c
Job satisfiers or motivators, according to the two-factor theory, relate to the
a. financial bonuses associated with the job.
b. content of the job.
c. working conditions surrounding the job.
d. benefits associated with the job.
b
Which of the following job factors is most accurately classified as a dissatisfier?
a. opportunity for advancement
b. recognition for good work
c. working conditions
d. responsibility
c
Which one of the following job factors is considered important for motivating the
young generation of workers?
a. close monitoring of work such as through time clocks
b. limited vacations
c. minimizing feedback
d. loads of responsibility
d
An accurate example of a cross-cultural difference in rewards is that
a. most Asian workers want public recognition.
b. workers from a poor country might prefer a practical reward.
c. Italian workers prefer gift certificates to stores like Wal-Mart.
d. Chinese women who sell beauty products dislike tangible rewards.
b
A goal is most likely to improve performance when it is
a. relatively easy.
b. specific rather than general.
c. not used to evaluate performance.
d. not linked to rewards.
b
Which one of the following statements best fits the category of a superordinate goal
at the manufacturer of latex gloves?
a. "Let's find a way to cut back on skin rashes from wearing our gloves."
b. "The purpose of our latex gloves is to save lives."
c. "Let's exceed last year's sales by 20 percent this year."
d. "Let's diversify into foot protectors."
b
Laboratory supervisor Sasha, is attempting to use the Pygmalion effect when she
says to her group,
a. "We will soon be implementing a bonus system."
b. "Who in this lab is not smart enough to do his or her job?"
c. "We may not have the best lab group in the company, but we do try."
d. "I know that we will exceed our quota of useful ideas this year."
d
An example of an intrinsic reward would be
a. recognition for a job well done.
b. praise from a supervisor.
c. a sense of satisfaction from a job well done.
d. a bonus for high-quality work.
c
A team leader wants Kristin, a customer-service representative, to keep up her fine
record of resolving customer complaints. The team leader should compliment
Kristin
a. at the end of every workday.
b. every so often when she resolves a tough problem.
c. even when she is unable to resolve a tough problem.
d. each Monday through Thursday, but not on Friday.
b
The employee motivation program at Dollar General illustrates that
a. people who work in discount stores demand luxury prizes.
b. only financial motivators are effective.
c. with even modest rewards, positive reinforcement can help a company attain its
goals.
d. the most effective rewards are low-priced merchandise.
c
Luis, a commercial real estate agent, says "I'm almost sure that if I close this deal
the company will give me a bonus." Luis is demonstrating a high
a. Effort Performance expectancy.
b. Performance Outcome instrumentality.
c. Outcome satisfies an important need (valence)
d. need for affiliation.
b
To improve the valence of a reward for employees, a manager would have to
a. understand what rewards are the most important for employees.
b. increase the link between effort and performance.
c. increase the link between performance and reward.
d. introduce financial incentives.
a
A thrust in linking pay to performance is to attempt to link pay to
a. performance as good as the employee's best year.
b. team rather than individual performance.
c. how long the employee has been with the firm.
d. performance that supports the business strategy.
d
A major reason that employee stock-ownership plans are motivational is that
employees
a. receive recognition for purchasing stock.
b. become part owners of a firm.
c. automatically become part of a gainsharing program.
d. take over management of the firm.
b
Stock options give the people granted the option the opportunity to
a. purchase stock at a later date at a price established now.
b. share directly in the profits of the firm.
c. purchase company stock anytime at a specific discount.
d. purchase stock of any company through online trading.
a
A major criticism of financial incentives is that they
a. create too much of a focus on internal rewards.
b. encourage too much emphasis on teamwork.
c. decrease productivity in the short and long run.
d. create a focus on rewards instead of the joy of accomplishment.
d