ROY’S INSTITUTE OF COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION

WBCS
2ND MONTH
CONSTITUTION

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2ND CLASS
Multiple Choice Questions

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1. Originally the Constitution of India was consisted of—
(a) 8 Parts (b) 12 Parts (c) 22 Parts (d) 25 Parts
2. How many schedules were there when the Constitution of India was enforced ?
(a) 8 Schedules (b) 12 Schedules (c) 15 Schedules (d) 22 Schedules
3. How many articles were there in the Indian Constitution originally ?
(a) 395 (b) 389 (c) 448 (d) 465
4.

5.

6.
(a) 8 (b) 12 CA
Presently how many parts are there in the Constitution ?

The present number of schedules in the Constitution is—

(a) 12 (b) 16
Part IVA was added in the Constitution in—
(c) 22

(c) 8
(d) 25

(d) 10

(a) 1950 (b) 1956 (c) 1976 (d) 1985

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7. Part VII was deleted through—
(a) 1st amendment act (b) 7th amendment act (c) 31st amendment act (d) 42nd amendment act
8. Part IXA was added in—
(a) 1956 (b) 1985 (c) 1991 (d) 1992
9. Part IXB was added in the Constitution through—
(a) 86th amendment act (b) 92nd amendment act (c) 97th amendment act (d) 99th amendment act
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10. Part XIVA inserted—

(a) Article 323A (b) Article 323B (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
11. What is the other name of India that has been mentioned in the Constitution?
(a) Bharat (b) Bharat Barsha (c) India (d) Hindusthan
12. Part I deals with—
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(a) Union and its Territory (b) Union Territories

(c) Acquired Territories (d) None of these
13. Part II deals with citizenship which can be enjoyed by the—
(a) Nationals (b) Foreigners
(c) All people of the country (d) Nationals and friendly Aliens
14. The Fundamental Rights are placed under—
(a) Part II (b) Part III (c) Part IV (d) Part V
15. Originally how many fundamental rights were guaranteed for Indians ?
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8

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16. Fundamental Rights are—
(a) Justiciable (b) Partly Justiciable (d) Non-Justiciable (d) Conditionally Justiciable
17. Part IV deals with—
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy (b) Emergency Provision
(c) Citizenship (d) Union Territories
18. The concept of DPSP is borrowed from—

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(a) England (b) Ireland (c) France (d) Sweden
19. Part IVA deals with—
(a) Fundamental Rights (b) Fundamental Duties

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(c) DPSP (d) Provision of official language
20. How many fundamental duties are there in the Constitution for Indians ?
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) 12
21. The provision of Parliament has been mentioned in—
(a) Part III (b) Part IVA (c) Part V (d) Part VI
22. The Provision of High Court is placed under—
(a) Part III (b) Part IV (c) Part VI (d) Part VII

(a) Part V
24. Part VIII deals with—
(a) Union Territories
(b) Part VI
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23. The Provision of Attorney General can be placed under—
(c) Both (a) & (b)

(b) Union and its Territory

(d) None of these

(c) Both (a) & (b) (c) Registered Territories

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25. Presently how many Union Territories are there in India ?
(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 28 (d) 29
26. The provision of rural local self government is mentioned under—
(a) Part IX (b) Part IXA (c) Part X (d) Part XI
27. Articles (243P – 243ZG) can be placed under—
(a) Part VII (b) Part IXA (c) Part IXB (d) Part XVI
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28. Municipality is a part of—

(a) Rural local self government (b) Urban local self government
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
29. Article 244 can be placed under—
(a) Part IX (b) Part X (c) Part XI (d) Part XII
30. The centre state legislative relationship can be placed under—
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(a) Part XI (b) Part XII (c) Part XIII (d) Part XIV
31. Which of the following chapters under Part XI deals with the detailed provision of administrative relationship?
(a) Chapter XI (b) Chapter XII (c) Chapter I (d) Chapter II
32. The Provision of Election is mentioned under—
(a) Part XIII (b) Part XIV (c) Part XV (d) Part XVI
33. The Election Commission of India is a ______ body.
(a) Constitutional (b) Extra-constitutional (c) Un-constitutional (d) Statutory Body
34. SC–STs reservation in Union and State Legislatures is a special provision mentioned under—
(a) Part XV (b) Part XVI (c) Part XVII (d) Part XVIII

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35. The provision of emergency has been mentioned under—
(a) Part XVII (b) Part XVIII (c) Part XIX (d) Part XXI
36. How many types of emergencies are mentioned in the Constitution?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
37. Who can declare the national emergency ?
(a) Prime Minister (b) President

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(c) President on the recommendation of union cabinet (d) Chief Justice of India
38. The provision of emergency is dealt in—
(a) Articles (52–151) (b) Articles (324–329) (c) Articles (330–342) (d) Articles (352–360)

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39. The Constitution of India can be amended according to—
(a) Article 368 (b) Article 370 (c) Article 373 (d) Article 390
40. Article 368 can be placed under—
(a) Part XVII (b) Part XVIII (c) Part XIX (d) Part XX
41. The provision of 'oath' or 'affirmation' has been mentioned under _____ of the Constitution.
(a) 2nd Schedule (b) 3rd Schedule (c) 4th Schedule (d) 9th Schedule
42. How many lists are mentioned under 7th schedule of the Constitution?
(a) 2 (b) 3 CA (c) 4
43. How many recognized languages are there presently in India?
(a) 14 (b) 18
44. When the anti-defection law was passed ?
(c) 22
(d) 5

(d) 29

(a) 1972 (b) 1985 (c) 1992 (d) 2003

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45. How many functional items are mentioned under 12th schedule of the Constitution for municipalities?
(a) 18 (b) 29 (b) 32 (d) None of these
46. Citizenship is contained in the—
a) Union List b) State List c) Concurrent List d) Residuary List
47. The detailed provisions of the Citizenship have been stated under –
a) Articles 5-11 b) Articles 4-11 c) Articles 6-11 d) Articles 8-11
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48. The concept of Citizenship has been borrowed from the Constitution of –
a) UK b) USA c) France d) Canada
49. The type of Citizenship that has been provided by the Constitution of India is –
a) Dual citizenship b) Single citizenship c) Double citizenship d) All of these
50. Who is authorised to change the provisions of Citizenship?
a) The Parliament b) The President c) The Supreme Court d) None of these
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51. The citizenship is contained under –

a) Part I b) Part II c) Part X d) Part IX
52. In Switzerland there is provision for –
a) Single citizenship b) Double citizenship c) Dual citizenship d) Voluntarily citizenship
53. A Citizenship can be acquired through –
a) 3 methods b) 5 methods c) 4 methods d) None of these
54. A Citizenship can be lost through –
a) 5 methods b) 3 methods c) 4 methods d) None of these

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55. The term ‘Double Citizenship’ refers to –
a) Citizen of one country b) Citizen of two countries
c) Citizen of a province and a country d) None of these
56. Give an example of Double Citizenship.
a) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam b) Amartya Sen c) Sonia Gandhi d) Man Mohan Singh
57. Name the country in which dual citizenship is available.

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a) USA b) China c) Canada d) UK
58. Who is empowered to regulate the rights of citizenship?
a) The President b) The Parliament c) The Prime Minister d) All of these

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59. The citizenship can be lost through –
a) by renunciation b) by termination c) by deprivation d) all of these
60. Citizenship can be acquired through which of the following methods?
a) by registration b) by birth c) by naturalisation d) all of these
61. Which article deals with citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution?
a) Article 5 b) Article 6 c) Article 7 d) Article 8
62. Persons who are married to citizens of India can acquire citizenship by –


a) Acquiring properties in India
c) Producing child
CA b) Registration
d) Naturalisation
63. Under the Indian Constitution, which among the following person/ persons became citizenship of India?
a) A person born as well as domiciled in the territory of India irrespective of the nationality of his parents.
b) A person domiciled in the ‘territory of India’ either of whose parents was born in the territory of India irrespective
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of the nationality of his parents or the place of birth of such person.
c) A person who or whose father or mother was not born in India, but who had his domicile in India and had been
ordinarily residing within the territory of India for not less than 5 years immediately preceding the commencement of
the Constitution.
d) All of these
64. The Citizenship Act was passed in the year –
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a) 1951 b) 1986 c) 1955 d) 1952

65. The Citizenship Act has been amended in –
a) 1980 b) 1986 c) 1990 d) 1995
66. The population of a state is divided into two classes - citizens and aliens, while citizens enjoys full civil and political
rights.
a) Aliens do not enjoy any of right being a foreigner
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b) Aliens enjoys only some of the rights

c) They are treated as enemy of our country
d) Aliens have no status in India at all
67. A person who born outside India on or after January 26, 1950 shall be citizen of India by descent, if –
a) either of his parents is a citizen of India at the time of the person’s birth
b) either of his parents is not a citizen of India at the time of the person’s birth
c) his parents is a citizen of India of the time of person’s birth
d) started residing in India
68. If any new territory becomes a part of India, the government of India shall specify the person of that territory who shall
be citizen of India by –
a) Registration b) Incorporation c) By naturalisation d) By birth

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69. The Constitution of India did not intend to lay down a permanent or comprehensive law relating to citizenship in India.
The Parliament has enacted the Citizenship Act (57 of 1955) making provisions for –
a) Acquisition of citizenship in India
b) Termination of citizenship from India
c) Complete picture of law relating to Indian citizenship
d) All of these

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70. Whether the right to become a member of parliament and of the legislature of state are available to aliens–
a) No b) Yes c) May be or may not be d) None of these
71. Under the Citizenship Act, 1955 the Citizenship by birth means –

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a) Every person born in India on or after January 26, 1950 shall be citizen of India by birth.
b) Every person born in India on or after January 26, 1949 shall be citizen of India by birth.
c) Every person born in India on or after August 15, 1947 shall be citizen of India by birth.
d) Every person born in India on or after August 15, 1915 shall be citizen of India by birth.
72. Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to India from Pakistan have been stated under–
a) Article 5 b) Article 6 c) Article 7 d) Article 8
73. Rights of Citizenship of certain migrants to Pakistan have been stated under –

a) Article 6

a) Article 6
b) Article 9

b) Article 6

b) Article 7
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c) Article 8

c) Article 8
d) Article 10
74. Which article deals with the rights of citizenship of persons of Indian origin residing outside India?
a) Article 5 d) Article 10
75. Persons voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign state not to be citizens have been stated under—
d) Article 9
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76. Which Article deals with the continuance of the rights of citizenship?
a) Article 5 b) Article 6 c) Article 7 d) Article 10
77. Parliament to regulate the right of citizenship by law have been stated under –
a) Article 8 b) Article 9 c) Article 10 d) Article 11
78. The Act of British India which clearly provides for the citizenship is –
a) Govt. of India Act, 1935 b) Council Act, 1921
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c) Govt. of India Act, 1958 d) Govt. of India Act, 1919

79. A State Govt. has no jurisdiction to determine the question related to citizenship because –
a) Single citizenship b) Dual citizenship c) Legal citizenship d) Double citizenship
80. Dual citizenship means –
a) Federal as well as national citizenship
b) National citizenship as well as citizenship of the state where a person is born or permanently resides
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c) Holding two citizenship of two different countries

d) Citizenship of will

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