4. The Constitution of India borrowed the scheme of Indian 10.

From which of the countries, Constitution of India has

Federation from the Constitution of : adopted fundamental duties?
(a) U.S.A (b) Canada (a) USA (b) Canada
(c) Ireland (d) U.K. (c) Erstwhile USSR (d) UK
6. The inspiration of ‘Liberty, Equality and Fraternity’ was 11. The Indian Constitution is regarded as :
derived from : (a) federal (b) unitary
(a) American revolution (b) French revolution (c) parliamentary
(c) Russian revolution (d) None of these (d) federal in form and unitary in spirit
7. Which of the following describes India as a Secular State ? 12. The Indian Constitution has borrowed the ideas of Preamble
(a) Fundamental Rights from the:
(b) Ninth Schedule (a) Italian Constitution (b) Canadian Constitution
(c) Directive Principles (c) French Constitution (d) Constitution of USA
(d) Preamble to the Constitution 13. India opted for a federal form of government because of :
8. Which of the following is not a basic feature of the Indian (a) vast territory
Constitution? (b) cultural integration
(a) Presidential Government (c) linguistic and regional diversity
(b) Parliamentary Government (d) administrative convenience
(c) Federal Government
(d) Independence of Judiciary

ANSWER KEY
Chapter. 2
1 D 9 B
2 D 10 C
3 B 11 D
4 B 12 D
5 B 13 C
6 B 14 A
7 D 15 C
8 A 16 B
 3. Citizenship, Fundamental Rights, Duties and Directive Principles of State Policy
1. The Constitution names our country as : 14. Article 16(4)(a) which gives power to the State to make laws
(a) Bharat (b) India, that is Bharat regarding reservation in favour of Scheduled Castes and Tribes
(c) Hindustan (d) Aryavarta was added by :
2. What is the minimum permissible age for employment in any (a) 5th Amendment of the Constitution
factory or mine ? (b) 77th Amendment of the Constitution
(a) 12 years (b) 14 years (c) 9th Amendment of the Constitution
(c) 16 years (d) 18 years (d) 11th Amendment of the Constitution
3. Which of the following is not a condition for becoming a
citizen of India ? 16. Right to education is a fundamental right emanating from
(a) Birth (b) Acquiring Property right to :
(c) Descent (d) Naturalisation (a) Freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(l)(a)
4. Citizenship provisions are enshrined in the Constitution in : (b) Culture and education under Articles 29 and 30
(a) Part II (b) Part II, Articles 5-11 (c) life and personal liberty under Article 21
(c)Part II, Articles 5-6 (d) Part I, Articles 5-11 (d) Equality before law and equal protection of law under
5. Which of the following Articles describes about the person Article14
voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign state not to be 17. Under Article 368, Parliament has no power to repeal
citizens? Fundamental Rights because they are :
(a) Article 5 (b) Article 7 (a) enshrined in Part III of the Constitution
(c) Article 8 (d) Article 9 (b) human rights
6. To acquire citizenship by registration a person must have been (c) Transcendental rights
resident in India for immediately before making an application : (d) part of basic structure of essential framework of the
(a) six months (b) one year Constitution
(c) three years (d) five years 18. Regarding equality before law, the Indian Constitution makes
7. Which of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. exceptions in the case of:
Ambedkar as The Heart and Soul of the Constitution’ ? (a) the President or a Governor (b) foreign sovereigns only
(a) Right of Freedom of Religion (c) the President only (d) none
(b) Right to Property 19. The right to constitutional remedies in India is available to:
(c) Right to Equality (a) citizens of India only
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies (b) all persons in case of infringement of any fundamental right
8. Protection of the interests of the minorities is envisaged in (c) any person for enforcing any of the fundamental rights
which of the following articles? conferred on all persons
(a) 14 (b) 19 (d) an aggrieved individual alone
(c) 29 (d) 32 20. The Fundamental Right to ….. has been deleted by the...
9. On whom does the Constitution confer special responsibility Amendment Act.
for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights? (a) form associations; 44th
(a) Parliament (b) Supreme Court (b) property; 44th
(c) President (d) State legislature (c) against exploitation; 42nd
10. Under which Article of the Constitution are the Cultural and (d) private property; 42nd
Educational Rights granted? 21. Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive is enjoined
(a) Article 29 and 31 (b) Article 29 and 32 by:
(c) Article 29 and 30 (d) Article 30 and 31 (a) Preamble (b) Directive Principle
11. Which of the following is not specifically mentioned in (c) Seventh Schedule (d) Judicial decision
Article 19 of the Constitution? 22. Which part of the Constitution deals with the Directive
(a) Freedom of speech and expression Principles of State Policy?
(b) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms (a) Part III (b) Part IV
(c) Freedom to move freely (c) Part V (d) Part II
(d) Freedom of the press 23. Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of the
State Policy?
12. Right to Constitutional Remedies comes under: (a) To raise the level of nutrition
(a) fundamental right (b) legal rights (b) To develop the scientific temper
(c) constitutional rights (d) natural rights (c) To promote economic interests of weaker sections
13. Indian Constitution recognises minorities on the basis of:
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(d) To separate the Judiciary from the Executive (b) contains subjects over which Municipalities may have control
24. Directive Principles are : (c) contains recommendations relating to establishment of State
(a) justifiable as fundamental rights Finance Commission
(b) justifiable but not as fundamental rights (d) was added by the 73rd Amendment Act
(c) decorative portions of Indian Constitution 34. The Ninth Schedule was added by the Amendment.
(d) not justifiable, yet fundamental in governance of the country (a) First (b) Ninth
25. Fundamental duties enacted in Part IV A of the Constitution (c) Thirty-fifth (d) Thirty-sixth
are: 35. What does the Ninth Schedule contain?
(a) enforceable duties and Parliament can impose penalties or (a) Subjects on which State Legislature cannot legislate
punishments for the non-compliance (b) Laws which are protected from judicial scrutiny
(b) like directive principles that are mandates to people (c) Provisions regarding defecting legislators
(c) like fundamental rights that are enforceable (d) List of religions in India
(d) no more than meant to create psychological consciousness 36. Which language is not recognised in the 8th Schedule though
among the citizens and of education value it is an official language of a state ?
26. Which one of the following amendments accorded (a) English (b) Sindhi
precedence to Directive Principle over Fundamental Rights? (c) Sanskrit (d) Kashmiri
(a) 24th Amendment (b) 39th Amendment 37. With what subject do the Articles 5 to 8 of the Constitution
(c) 42nd Amendment (d) 44th Amendment of India deal?
27. In which part of the Constitution the concept of Welfare (a) Details of Indian Union and its territory
State finds elaboration? (b) Citizenship
(a) Preamble (b) Fundamental Rights (c) Fundamental duties
(c) Fundamental Duties (d) Directive Principles (d) Union Executive
28. Which of the following is correct about the Fundamental
Duties?
I. These are not enforceable ANSWER KEY
II. They are primarily moral duties Chapter. 3
III. They are not related to any legal rights 1 b 21 b
(a) I, II and III (b) I and III
(c) II and III (d) I and II 2 b 22 b
29. The total number of Fundamental duties mentioned in the 3 b 23 b
Constitution is: 4 b 24 d
(a) 9 (c) 11
5 d 25 d
(b) 10 (d) 12
30. Fundamental duties have been added in the Constitution by 6 d 26 c
42 Amendment Act, 1976 in accordance with the 7 d 27 d
recommendations of :
8 c 28 a
(a) Santhanam Committee
(b) Sarkaria Committee 9 b 29 b
(c) Swaran Singh Committee 10 c 30 c
(d) Indira Gandhi Committee 11 d 31 b
31. Respect for the National flag and National Anthem is:
(a) fundamental right of every citizen
12 a 32 d
(b) fundamental duty of every citizen 13 a 33 b
(c) directive principle of State policy 14 b 34 a
(d) ordinary duty of every citizen 15 c 35 b
32. Which one of the following statements correctly describes
the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India? 16 c 36 a
(a) It contains the scheme of the distribution of power between 17 d 37 b
the Union and the States 18 a
(b) It contains the language listed in the Constitution
19 b
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of
tribal areas 20 b
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
33. The Twelfth Schedule of the Constitution
(a) contains provisions relating to elections to Panchayats

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4. Parts/Articles of the Constitution, Emergency Provisions

1. Which part of the Constitution incorporates special provisions (a) Article 267
with regard to the state of Jammu and Kashmir? (b) Article 270
(a) Part VI (b) Part IX (c) Parliamentary Legislation
(c) Part XI (d) Part XXI (d) Presidential order
2. Which Article of Indian Constitution prescribes Hindi in 10. The President’s rule is imposed for the period of:
Devanagari script as the official language of the Union? (a) 3 months
(a) 341 (b) 342 (b) 6 months
(c) 343 (d) 346 (c) till the next election is held
3. Part V of the Constitution deals with: (d) it depends upon the President’s wish
I. Union Executive 11. During the proclamation of National Emergency:
II. Parliament (a) all fundamental rights are suspended
III. Supreme Court and High Courts (b) Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended
IV. Comptroller and Auditor-General (c) Article 32 cannot be suspended
(a) I and II (b) I, II and III (d) Article 19 cannot be suspended
(c) I only (d) I, II and IV 12. Anglo Indian representatives in the Lok Sabha are nominated
4. Match the following : in terms of the Article:
A. Part I 1. Fundamental Rights (a) 331 (b) 80
B. Part III 2. Panchayati Raj (c) 370 (d) 333
C. Part IX 3. Citizenship
D. Part II 4. The Union and its Teritory ANSWER KEY
A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
Chapter. 4
(b) 3 1 2 4 1 d 7 a
(c) 2 3 1 3 2 c 8 d
(d) 4 1 2 3 3 d 9 a
5. National emergency has been declared so far :
(a) once (b) twice
4 d 10 b
(c) thrice (d) four times 5 c 11 b
6. A proclamation of emergency issued under Article 352 must 6 a 12 a
be approved by the Parliament within :
(a) 1 month (b) 6 weeks
(c) 2 months (d) 3 months
7. Proclamation of emergency under Article 352, when Lok
Sabha stands dissolved, has to be approved by :
(a) Rajya Sabha and then will continue till the reconstitution of
new Lok Sabha which must approve it within 30 days of its first
sitting
(b) New Lok Sabha within 6 months of its Constitution
(c) Lok Sabha in next session after six months
(d) Rajya Sabha only
8. The ‘President’s Rule’ in a state means that the state is
ruled by:
(a) the President directly
(b) a caretaker government
(c) the Chief Minister nominated by the President
(d) the Governor of the State
9. The provision for Contingency Fund of India as well as for
each States has been made under :

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5. The Union Executive

1. Who administers the oath of office to the President? (a) 2 years (b) 1 year
(a) Chief Justice of India (c) 3 months (d) 6 months
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha 12. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the
(c) Prime Minister President of India?
(d) Vice President (a) Only Lok Sabha
2. An individual who is not a member of either House of (b) Rajya Sabha
Parliament can be appointed a member of the Council of (c) Any Vidhan Sabha
Ministers, but he has to become a member of either House within (d) Either House of Parliament
a period of : 13. The President takes an oath before assuming office in the
(a) 1 month (b) 2 months presence of the Chief Justice of India. If the Chief Justice is not
(c) 3 months (d) 6 months available, he takes the oath in the presence of :
3. Which one of the following does not constitute the Electoral (a) the Vice-President
College for electing the President of India? (b) the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court
(a) Elected members of Rajya Sabha (c) the Attorney-General
(b) Elected members of Lok Sabha (d) Election Commissioner
(c) Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of each state 14. The President of India has the power of:
(d) Elected members of the Legislative Council I. Absolute veto II. Suspensive veto
4. The five year term of the President is calculated from the: III. Pocket veto
(a) first day of the month he assumes charge (a) II only (b) II and III
(b) first day of the month following the month he assumes charge (c) I and II (d) I, II and III
(c) day he assumes charge 15. An ordinance promulgated by the President:
(d) date of his election result (a) has an indefinite life
5. If the President wants to resign from office, he may do so by (b) is workable only if the Lok Sabha is dissolved
writing to the : (c) must be laid before Parliament when it reassembles
(a) Vice-President (b) Chief Justice of India (d) is a parallel power of legislation available to the President
(c) Prime Minister (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha even when Parliament is in session
6. The minimum age required for becoming the Prime Minister 16. The executive authority of the Union is vested by the
of India is : Constitution in the :
(a) 25 years (b) 30 years (a) Prime Minister (b) President
(c) 40 years (d) 35 years (c) Cabinet (d) Union Legislature
7. The President of India is : 17. Which of the following Chief Justices of India has acted as
(a) Commander-in-Chief of Defence Forces President of India?
(b) Supreme Commander of Armed Forces (a) M. Hidayatullah (b) P.B. Gajendra Gadkar
(c) Head of the Government (c) P.N. Bhagwati (d) All the above
(d) Supreme Commander of Defence Forces of the Union and 18. Mark the correct response:
Executive Head of the Union (a) It is the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate all
8. The President can be removed by the way of impeachment decisions of the Council of Ministers to the President, whenever
which can be made only : he requires
(a) by the Supreme Court (b) The Prime Minister need not communicate all decisions to
(b) by the Rajya Sabha the President
(c) by the Members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha through (c) It is not obligatory on the part of Prime Minister to
impeachment communicate the decision to the President
(d) cannot be impeached (d) The President cannot compel the Prime Minister to give the
9. Which of the following appointments is not made by the information he has
President of India ? 19. Mark the correct response;
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (a) The President has power to remove the Prime Minister but
(b) Chief Justice of India not any of his ministers unless so advised by the Prime Minister
(c) Chief of the Air Force (b) The President has power neither to remove the Prime
(d) Chief of the Army Minister nor any of his ministers unless the Prime Minister loses
10. Minimum age required to contest for Presidentship is : the support of majority in Lok Sabha and tenders his resignation
(a) 30 years (b) 35 years (c) The President can remove Prime Minister the moment he
(c) 23 years (d) 21 years loses his majority in the Lok Sabha
11. In case a President dies while in office, the Vice President (d) The President has a power to remove any of the ministers at
can act as President for a maximum period of : his pleasure
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20. The pardoning power given to the President of India under (a) The same electoral college which elects the President
Article 72 can be exercised: (b) Members of the Rajya Sabha
(a) only after the trial and on the sentence of conviction (c) An electoral college consisting of members of Parliament
(b) during or after trial but never before trial (d) Members of Parliament at a joint meeting
(c) at any time before, during or after the trial 31. The Union Council of Ministers consists of:
(d) either before or after the trial but never during the trial of the (a) Prime Minister
case (b) Cabinet Minister
21. The only President of India who was elected unopposed is: (c) Cabinet Ministers and Chief Ministers of the States
(a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan (b) Dr. Zakir Hussain (d) Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State and Deputy inisters
(c) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy (d) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed 32. The portfolios are allocated to the ministers by :
22. The only instance when the President of India exercised his (a) the President
power of veto related to the: (b) the Prime Minister
(a) Hindu Code Bill (c) collective decision of the Council of Ministers
(b) PEPSU Appropriation Bill (d) individual choice
(c) Indian Post Office (Amendment Bill) 33. The salary and perquisites of the Prime Minister of India are
(d) Dowry Prohibition Bill decided by the :
23. Who acts as the President of India when neither the President (a) Constitution (b) Cabinet
nor the Vice President is available? (c) Parliament (d) President
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha 34. In the event of the resignation or death of the Prime Minister:
(b) Chief Justice of India (a) the Ministry is dissolved
(c) Auditor General of India (b) fresh general elections must take place
(d) Seniormost Governor of a State (c) the Cabinet may choose another leader
24. Appointment of the members of the Council of Ministers is (d) the President decides what to do
made by the President: 35. The Prime Minister is :
(a) on the advice of the Prime Minister (a) elected by Lok Sabha
(b) in his own discretion (b) elected by the Parliament
(c) on the advice of the Vice- President (c) appointed by the President
(d) on the basis of election results (d) nominated by the party enjoying majority in Lok Sabha
25. The position of the Vice-President of India resembles, to a 36. The Prime Minister:
great extent, the position of the Vice-President of: (a) is head of government
(a) U.S.A. (b) Russia (b) is the leader of Lok Sabha
(c) Italy (d) New Zealand (c) may change the portfolios of the Ministers at will
26. The Vice-President’s letter of resignation is to be (d) may do all the above
addressed to the:
37. Collective responsibility of the Cabinet was introduced in
(a) Deputy Chaiman of Raiya Sabha India by the :
(b) Chief Justice of India (a) Government of India Act, 1935
(c) President (b) Minto-Morley Reforms
(d) Speaker (c) Independence Act, 1947
27. Who has the authority to remove the Vice-President from his (d) Constitution of India
office before the expiry of his term?
38. The Chief Minister of a state in India is not eligible to vote in
(a) Rajya Sabha (b) Lok Sabha the Presidential election if :
(c) Parliament (d) Supreme Court (a) he himself is a candidate
28. Which one of the following resigned as Vice-President to (b) he is yet to prove his majority on the floor of the Lower
contest for the office of the President? House of the State Legislature
(a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan (c) he is a member of the Upper House of the State Legislature
(b) V.V. Giri (d) he is a caretaker Chief Minister
(c) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
39. Who was the member of the Rajya Sabha when first
(d) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy appointed as the Prime Minister of India ?
29. When the Chairman of Rajya Sabha acts as President, the (a) Lal Bahadur Shastri (b) Indira Gandhi
duties of the Chairman are performed by: (c) Morarji Desai (d) Charan Singh
(a) himself
(b) a newly elected Chairman
(c) the Deputy Chairman
(d) a member of Rajya Sabha deputed by the Chairman
30. Who elects the Vice-President?

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ANSWER KEY
Chapter. 5
1 a 21 c
2 d 22 c
3 d 23 b
4 c 24 a
5 a 25 a
6 a 26 c
7 d 27 c
8 c 28 b
9 a 29 c
10 b 30 c
11 d 31 d
12 d 32 b
13 b 33 c
14 d 34 a
15 c 35 c
16 b 36 d
17 a 37 d
18 a 38 c
19 b 39 b
20 c

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6. The Union Legislature

1. What is ‘zero hour’? 12. The Lok Sabha is called in session for at least how many
(a) when the proposals of opposition are considered times in a year?
(b) when matters of utmost importance are raised (a) Twice (b) Once
(c) interval between the morning and afternoon sessions (c) Thrice (d) four times
(d) when a Money Bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha 2. 13. Which of the following States sends the maximum number of
Who is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha? members to the Rajya Sabha?
(a) President (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar
(b) Vice-President (c) West Bengal (d) All equal
(c) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs 14. Who was the first leader of the Opposition in the Rajya
(d) Leader of Opposition Sabha?
3. Parliament’s expenditure is controlled by : (a) Y.B. Chavan (b) Bhola Paswan
(a) President (c) Kamlapati Tripathi (d) C.M. Stephen
(b) Finance Commission 15. The Rajya Sabha can be dissolved by:
(c) National Development Council (a) Lok Sabha (b) Constitutional amendment
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General (c) President (d) None of these
4. Which of the following states has the largest percentage of 16. According to the Constitution of India the maximum number
reserved parliamentary seats? of members representing the Union Territories in the Lok Sabha
(a) Orissa (b) Bihar cannot exceed:
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Madhya Pradesh (a) 10 (b) 15
5. Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected according to : (c) 20 (d) 25
(a) Cumulative Vote System 17. What type of Party system has been evolved in India?
(b) Single Non-transferable Vote System (a) Single Party (b) Bi-party
(c) Single Transferable Vote System (c) Multi-Party (d) Partyless
(d) None of the above 18. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by:
6. The Rajya Sabha can have a maximum strength of : (a) all the members of Parliament
(a) 200 (b) 210 (b) the people directly
(c) 250 (d) 260 (c) all the members of Lok Sabha
7. At present the Rajya Sabha consists of members. (d) the members of the majority party in the Lok Sabha
(a) 250 (b) 245 19. Which of the following committees does not consist of any
(c) 238 (d) 240 member from the Rajya Sabha?
8. Who was the first speaker of the Lok Sabha? (a) Estimates Committee
(a) Malgaonkar (b) Public Accounts Committee
(b) P. Upendra (c) Public Grievances Committee
(c) Anantha Sayanam Ayyanagar (d) Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) Hukam Singh 20. The Chairman of Public Accounts Committee is :
9. Who among the following was never the Lok Sabha Speaker? (a) elected by Union Cabinet
(a) K.V K. Sundaram (b) G.S. Dhillon (b) appointed by Speaker
(c) Baliram Bhagat (d) Hukum Singh (c) appointed by President
(d) elected by members of PAC
10. Who, according to the Anti-Defection Act, is the final
authority to decide whether a member of Lok Sabha has incurred 21. The largest committee of Parliament of India is :
disqualification due to defection? (a) Public Accounts Committee
(a) Speaker (b) Estimates Committee
(b) President (c) Committee on Public Undertakings
(c) Election Commission (d) Joint Parliamentary Committee
(d) High Court 22. The Estimates Committee:
11. Who is authorised to decide over a dispute regarding (a) Consists of 30 members appointed by the Speaker
disqualification of a Member of Parliament? (b) consists of 15 members each from Lok Sabha and Rajya
(a) Election Commissioner Sabha
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha (c) has its members elected according to the system of
(c) President proportional representation
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23. The Annual Financial Statement is caused to be laid before 35. The distribution of seats of the Parliament are based on
both Houses of Parliament by the: which of the following census?
(a) President (b) Speaker (a) 1951 (b) 1961
(c) Vice-President (d) Finance Minister (c) 1971 (d) 1981
24. How many members of the Rajya Sabha are nominated by 36. Which of the following can be abolished, but not dissolved?
the President of India? (a) Rajya Sabha (b) Municipal Bodies
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) State Legislative Council
(c) 12 (d) 13 (d) None of the above
25. The time gap between two sessions of the Parliament should 37. The Rajya Sabha has a life of :
not exceed: (a) 2 years (b) 6 years
(a) 3 months (b) 6 months (c) 7 years (d) Permanency
(c) 9 months (d) 1 year 38. The budget, in normal circumstances, is presented to the
26. The Union Territories get representation in: Parliament on :
(a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha (a) The last day of February
(c) Both Houses of Parliament (b) 15th March
(d) None of these (c) The last day of March
27. The quorum required to hold meetings of the legislative (d) 1st April
chambers is what fraction of the total membership of the House? 39. The Constitution provides for the nomination to the Lok
(a) 1/3 (b) ¼ Sabha two members belonging to the community of :
(c) 1/6 (d) 1/10 (a) Syrain Christians
28. Joint sittings of the two Houses of Parliament are held to : (b) Anglo-Indians
(a) elect the President of India (c) Eminent people from society
(b) elect the Vice President of India (d) Scheduled Castes
(c) adopt a Constitution amending Bill 40. Parliament or a State Legislature can declare a seat vacant if
(d) consider and pass a bill on which two Houses disagree a member absents himself without permission from the sessions
29. One-third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire after for:
every : (a) 30 days (b) 60 days
(a) one year (b) second year (c) 90 days (d) 120 days
(c) third year (d) fifth year 41. Which authority recommends the principles governing the
30. What is the minimum age for election/appointment as grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the
member of the Rajya Sabha? Consolidated Fund of India?
(a) 35 years (b) 30 years (a) Public Accounts Committee
(c) 25 years (d) 40 years (b) Union Ministry of Finance
31. What is the minimum age for being the member of the (c) Finance Commission
Parliament? (d) Inter State Council
(a) 21 years (b) 25 years 42. How many times can the President of India return a non-
(c) 30 years (d) 35 years money Bill, passed by Parliament?
32. When can the Speaker exercise his right to vote in the (a) Twice (b) Once
House? (c) Thrice (d) Never
(a) whenever he desires 43. The term of the Lok Sabha:
(b) whenever the House desires (a) cannot be extended
(c) only in the event of equality of votes (b) can be extended for another full term of 5 years
(d) whenever his party directs (c) can be extended for an unlimited period
33. Rajya Sabha is less powerful than Lok Sabha in terms of its (d) can be extended by 1 year at a time
financial powers because: 44. The first no confidence motion moved in the Lok Sabha after
(a) it does not participate in the passing of money bill independence was in the year :
(b) No money bill can be introduced in Rajya Sabha (a) 1954 (b) 1960
(c) Both of the above (c) 1963 (d) 1975
(d) None of these 45. A team of men selected by the party in opposition to take
34. Which of the following is correct? over the different portfolios in case the party is able to wrest
(a) Lok Sabha can be dissolved before 5 years power is known as :
(b) Lok Sabha can be extended only upto 6 years (a) inner Cabinet (b) shadow Cabinet
(c) Lok Sabha is never dissolved before 5 years (c) causus (d) prorogation
(d) All members of Lok Sabha are elected representatives 46. Which are the two States (other than U.P.) having maximum
representation in Lok Sabha ?

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(a) Bihar and Madhya Pradesh (a) Solicitor-General of India

(b) Bihar and Maharashtra (b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Bihar and Andhra Pradesh (c) Attorney General of India
(d) Bihar and Tamil Nadu (d) Chief Election Commissioner
47. A Member of Parliament can claim immunity: 58. How many members of the Lok Sabha must support a motion
(a) both from civil as well as criminal cases of ‘no confidence’ in the government, before it can be
(b) from civil cases only admitted by the Speaker?
(c) from criminal cases only (a) 20 (b) 25
(d) cannot claim immunity either from civil or from criminal (c) 35 (d) 50
cases 59. Which of the following states does not have a bicameral
48. State which of the following statements is incorrect: legislature?
(a) A money bill deals with imposition, remission, alteration or (a) Bihar (b) Karnataka
regulation of tax (c) Rajasthan (d) Maharashtra
(b) A money bill deals with regulation borrowing money or
giving of any guarantee by the Government
(c) A money bill deals with the money of the consolidated fund
(d) A money bill is one which provides for the imposition of
fines or fees.
49. Representatives of Union Territories in Lok Sabha are
chosen by:
(a) direct elections (b) indirect elections
(c) nomination (d) all the above means
50. Who is considered the guardian of the Public Purse?
(a) Parliament
(b) Comptroller and Auditor-General
(c) Public Accounts Committee
(d) The President
51. The total number of members in a Legislative Council should
not exceed that of a Legislative Assembly by:
(a) 1/3 (b) 2/3
(c) ½ (d) ¼
53. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the
Parliament is appointed by:
(a) Prime Minister (b) President
(c) Finance Minister (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
53. The maximum number of Anglo Indians who can be
nominated to the Lok Sabha are:
(a) 3 (b) 2
(c) 5 (d) 4
54. In the case of a deadlock between the two Houses of the
Parliaent, the joint sitting is presided over by the:
(a) President
(b) Vice-President
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Member of the Lok Sabha specifically elected for the purpose
55. Which of the following States elects only one members for
the Lok Sabha ?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Manipur
(c) Sikkim (d) Tripura
56. Amongst the questions allowed by the Speaker, which one is
regarded as the most important?
(a) Unstarred (b) Starred
(c) Supplementary (d) Short Notice
57. Which of the following non-members of Parliament has the
right to address it?

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ANSWER KEY
Chapter. 6
1 b 21 b 41 c
2 b 22 c 42 b
3 d 23 a 43 d
4 c 24 c 44 c
5 c 25 b 45 b
6 c 26 c 46 b
7 b 27 d 47 b
8 a 28 d 48 d
9 a 29 b 49 a
10 a 30 b 50 b
11 c 31 b 51 a
12 c 32 c 52 d
13 b 33 c 53 b
14 a 34 a 54 c
15 a 35 c 55 c
16 c 36 c 56 d
17 c 37 d 57 c
18 c 38 a 58 d
19 a 39 b 59 c
20 b 40 b

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7. The Judiciary
1. Which is the highest and final judicial tribunal in respect of (c) 24 (d) 25
the Constitution of India? 11. The Supreme Court was set up under:
(a) Parliament (b) President (a) Pitt’s India Act (b) Regulating Act
(c) Supreme Court (d) Union Cabinet (c) Indian Councils Act, 1861
2. What is meant by ‘Court of Record’? (d) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(a) The court that preserves all its records 12. Which Judge of the Supreme Court was unsuccessfully
(b) The court that maintains records of all lower courts sought to be impeached?
(c) The court that can punish for its contempt (a) Justice H.R. Khanna
(d) The court that is competent to give directions and issue (b) Justice A.N. Grover
writs (c) Justice M. Hidayatullah
3. Which is not an eligibility criterion for appointment as a (d) Justice Ramaswami
Judge of the Supreme Court ? 13. The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed:
(a) must have been a High Court Judge for at least 5 years (a) by the President
(b) must have attained the age of 55 years (b) by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice
(c) must have been an advocate of a High Court for not of India
less than 10 years (c) by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice
(d) must be, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished of India and out of the judges of the Supreme Court and
jurist High Court as he may deem necessary for the purpose
4. ‘Judicial Review’ function of the Supreme Court means (d) by the President in consultation with Prime Minister
the power to : 14. Which is not correct statement: The Supreme Court:
(a) review its own judgement (a) is a watch-dog of citizen’s liberty
(b) review the functioning of judiciary in the country (b) interprets the Constitution
(c) examine the constitutional validity of the laws (c) protects the Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) undertake periodic review of the Constitution (d) settles electoral disputes of the President and Vice-
5. The Supreme Court of India decides the disputes regarding President of India
the election of: 15. Public Interest Litigation applies to any case of public
(a) the Prime Minister injury arising from
(b) the Speaker and Deputy Speaker (a) the breach of any public duty
(c) the President and Vice-President (b) the violation of a constitutional provision
(d) all of the above (c) the violation of the law
6. Which of the following is true about the Supreme Court? (d) all the above
(a) It has only the Appellate Jurisdiction 16. The judges of the Supreme Court take an oath or
(b) It is the highest federal court of India affirmation before entering upon office, conducted by :
(c) It does not have the Original Jurisdiction (a) Chief Justice of India
(d) It can amend the Constitution (b) President or Vice-President
7. Which one of the following comes under the jurisdiction of (c) President or some person appointed by him
both the High Court and the Supreme Court ? (d) none of the above
(a) Disputes between the Centre and the States 17. To whom does a judge of the Supreme Court address his
(b) Disputes between the States resignation if he wants to leave office before his term is
(c) Protection of the Fundamental Rights complete?
(d) Protection against the violation of the Constitution (a) Chief Justice of India (b) Prime Minister
8. Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court are drawn (c) President (d) Union Law Minister
from the: 18. The right to seek advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on
(a) Grants-in-aid (b) Contingency Fund any question of law or fact belongs to:
(c) Consolidated Fund (d) Public Accounts (a) the President (b) High Courts
9. A Judge of the Supreme Court of India is to hold office (c) the Governor (d) all these
until he attains the age of: 19. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in :
(a) 58 years (b) 60 years (a) the United Kingdom (b) Australia
(c) 62 years (d) 65 years (c) the United States (d) Canada
10. At present the Supreme Court consists of how many judges 20. Which of the following amendments curtailed the power of
besides the Chief Justice? Judicial review of the Supreme Court and the High Courts?
(a) 30 (b) 18 (a) 24th (b) 26th

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(c) 42th (d) 44th 33. The High Court which has the distinction of having the first
21. Which of the following writs is issued by the court in case woman Chief Justice is
of illegal detention of a person? (a) Allahabad High Court
(a) Habeas Corpus (b) Mandamus
(c) Certiorari (d) Quo Warranto (b) Delhi High Court
22. Under the writ of ‘Mandamus’, the Court can: (c) Himachal Pradesh High Court
(a) ask the person to be produced (d) Guwahati High Court
(b) ask to let a person free for a temporary period 34. A retired judge of High Court cannot:
(c) order to transfer the case from one court (a) practice in the Supreme Court
(d) direct the Government to do or not to do a thing (b) practice in any High Court of India
23. Which of the following writs is a bulwark of personal (c) practice in the High Court from where he has retired
freedom? (d) practice in any Court of India
(a) Mandamus (b) Habeas Corpus 35. Which of the following High Courts covers more than one
(c) Quo Warranto (d) Certiorari State/Union Territories ?
24. Which of the following writs may be issued to enforce a (a) Delhi (b) Allahabad
Fundamental Right? (c) Guwahati (d) None of these
(a) Habeas Corpus (b) Mandamus 36. The only Union Territory which has a High Court of its
(c) Prohibition (d) Certiorari own:
25. The appropriate writ issued by the court to quash the (a) Delhi (b) Lakshadweep
appointment of a person to a public office is that of : (c) Chandigarh (d) Daman and Diu
(a) Prohibition (b) Quo Warranto 37. Chennai High Court has the jurisdiction over:
(c) Certiorari (d) Mandamus (a) Tamil Nadu and Kerala
26. The age of retirement of the Judges of the High Court is : (b) Tamil Nadu and Pondicherry
(a) 62 years (b) 65 years (c) Kerala and Lakshadweep
(c) 58 years (d) 60 years (d) Lakshadweep and Tamil Nadu
27. The oath to a High Court judge is administered by the :
(a) Chief Justice of India ANSWER KEY
(b) Chief Justice of that High Court
(c) Governor
Chapter. 7
(d) President 1 c 20 c
28. The Chief Justice and other Judges of the High Court are 2 a 21 a
appointed by the : 3 b 22 d
(a) President
(b) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court 4 c 23 b
(c) Governor of the concerned state 5 c 24 a
(d) Chief Minister of the concerned state 6 b 25 b
29. The Constitution gives the powers of superintendence over 7 c 26 a
all subordinate courts to the High Courts under Article:
(a) 226 (b) 227 8 c 27 c
(c) 228 (d) 229 9 d 28 a
30. The High Courts in India were first started at: 10 a 29 b
(a) Bombay, Madras, Calcutta
(b) Delhi and Calcutta 11 b 30 a
(c) Bombay, Delhi, Madras 12 d 31 b
(d) Madras and Bombay 13 c 32 b
31. Who decides the number of judges in a High Court?
14 c 33 c
(a) State Government (b) President
(c) Governor of the State (d) Parliament 15 d 34 c
32. A common High Court for two or more States and/or 16 c 35 c
Union Territory may be established by : 17 c 36 a
(a) President
(b) Parliament by Law 18 a 37 b
(c) Governor of the State 19 c
(d) Chief Justice of India

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8. The State Executive

1. The Governor is appointed by the: 9. The Governor of which State has been vested with special
(a) Prime Minister powers regarding scheduled tribal areas?
(b) President (a) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Chief Minister (b) Assam
(d) Chief Justice (c) Maharashtra
2. The maximum permissible period between two sessions of (d) West Bengal
a State Legislative Assembly is : 10. Chief Minister of a State is responsible to :
(a) a year (a) Governor
(b) six months (b) Legislative Assembly
(c) three months (c) Prime Minister
(d) indefinite (d) Rajya Sabha
3. The members of the Legislative Council are appointed 11. Who is the longest serving Chief Minister in India ?
through: (a) Bhajan Lal
I. Direct elections (b) Hiteshwar Saikia
II. Indirect elections (c) Chimanbhai Patel
III. Nomination (d) Jyoti Basu
(a) I and II 12. Chief Ministers of all the states are ex-officio members of
(b) II and III the :
(c) I, II and III (a) Finance Commission
(d) I and III (b) Planning Commission
4. Ministers in a State get salaries as determined by : (c) National Development Council
(a) the Constitution (d) Inter State Council
(b) Parliament 13. Who among the following is a legal advisor of the State
(c) State Legislature Government as provided by the Constitution?
(d) the Governor (a) Public Prosecutor
5. The number of seats in Vidhan Sabha is: (b) Solicitor General
(a) to be not more than five hundred and not less than 60 (c) Advocate General
(b) to be not more than 500 and not less than 60 but an (d) Attorney General
exception is recognished in the case of one State which 14. Who appoints the Governor of Jammu and Kashmir?
has only 32 seats (a) Chief Minister of the state
(c) to be not more than 600 and not less than 500 (b) Chief Justice of the High Court
(d) varies from Vidhan Sabha to Vidhan Sabha (c) President
6. The membership of a State Legislative Council : (d) Prime Minister
(a) shall not be more than l/3rd of the membership of the 15. The first woman Governor of a state in free India was
Legislative Assembly (a) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu
(b) shall not be less than 40 (b) Mrs. Sucheta Kripalani
(c) shall not be less than 2/3rd of total membership of Lok (c) Mrs Indira Gandhi
Sabha (d) Mrs. Vijaya Laxmi Pandit
(d) both (a) and (b) 16. What is the maximum number of elected members in a
7. The State of Jammu and Kashmir was accorded special State Assembly?
status under : (a) 250 (b) 300
(a) Article 356 of the Constitution (c) 600 (d) 500
(b) Article 370 of the Constitution 17. The members of the State Legislative Assembly are elected
(c) Articles 356 and 370 of the Constitution for what period?
(d) none of these (a) 2 years (b) 6 years
8. The special status of Jammu and Kashmir implies the State (c) 4 years (d) 5 years
has: 18. One feature distinguishing the Rajya Sabha from the
(a) a separate defence force Vidhan Parishad is :
(b) a separate Constitution (a) power of impeachment
(c) a separature Judiciary (b) nomination of members
(d) all of the above (c) tenure of membership
(d) indirect election

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19. 1/12th of the members of the Vidhan Parishad are to be

elected:
(a) from a graduate constituency
(b) amongst the graduate universities of the State ANSWER KEY
(c) from the graduates of any university in any State of
India, who have been residing in the State and who Chapter. 8
have been graduate of at least three years standing 1 b 15 a
(d) none of the above
20. A minister in a State is individually responsible to the: 2 b 16 d
(a) Legislature (b) Governor 3 c 17 d
(c) Chief Minister (d) President 4 c 18 d
21. The Vidhan Sabha is : 5 b 19 c
(a) the permanent house of State Legislature
(b) indirectly elected 6 d 20 b
(c) subject to dissolution 7 b 21 c
(d) has little importance in the State Government 8 b 22 c
22. The Contingency Fund of the State is operated by the:
9 a 23 a
(a) President (b) Chief Minister
(c) Governor (d) Council of Ministers 10 a 24 b
23. The Governor does not appoint: 11 d 25 c
(a) judges of the High Court 12 c 26 b
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Chairman of the State Public Service Commission
13 c 27 a
(d) Advocate-General of the State 14 c 28 b
24. Money bills can be introduced in the State Legislature with
the prior consent of the:
(a) President (b) Governor
(c) Speaker (d) Chief Minister
25. The Chairman of the Legislative Council is :
(a) appointed by the Governor
(b) the Governor (ex-officio)
(c) elected by the members of the Legislative Council from
among themselves
(d) appointed by the Speaker of the Assembly
26. A post under a State is held during the pleasure of the :
(a) President (b) Governor
(c) Parliament (d) State Legislature
27. Who acts as the chancellor of State Universities?
(a) Governor (b) Chief Minister
(c) Chief Justice of High Court
(d) President
28. Which of these States has the bicameral legislature ?
1. Bihar 2. Gujarat
3. Karnataka 4. Jammu & Kashmir
5. Maharashtra 6. U.P.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5 (b) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
(c) 1,2,3,4,5 (d) All of these

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9. Indian Federalism and Centre-State Relations

1. The Central Government’s exclusive powers are 12. Which of the following is in the Concurrent List in the
enumerated in the : Constitution of India?
(a) Concurrent List (b) State List (a) Population control and family planning
(c) Union List (d) Federal List (b) Public health and sanitation
2. Under the Constitution, the residuary powers vest with the: (c) Capitation taxes
(a) President (b) Supreme Court (d) None of these
(c) Union Government (d) State Governments 13. Which subject was transferred from State List to
3. Which Articles of Indian Constitution discuss the financial Concurrent List by the 42nd amendment of the
relations between the Centre and the States : Constitution?
(a) Articles 268 to 281 (b) Articles 278 to 291 (a) Agriculture (b) Education
(c) Articles 289 to 295 (d) Articles 168 to 171 (c) Irrigation (d) Local Self Government
4. Union Parliament has the power to legislate on the subjects 14. In India both direct and indirect taxes are levied by the
of all three lists in respect of: Central and State Government. Which of the following is
(a) Scheduled areas (b) Hill areas levied by the State Governments?
(c) Backward areas (d) Union Territories (a) Excise duty on liquor (b) Capital gains tax
5. Jammu and Kashmir has a Constitution framed by (c) Customs duty (d) Corporation Tax
(a) the Constituent Assembly which framed India’s 15. Corporation tax:
Constitution (a) is levied by the Union and collected and appropriated
(b) a Constituent Assembly set up by Parliament by the states
(c) a Constituent Assembly set up by the State (b) is levied by the Union and belongs to it exclusively
(d) its State Legislature (c) is levied and appropriated by the States
6. The residuary powers of legislation in case of Jammu and (d) is levied by the Union and shared by the Union and the
Kashmir belong to : States
(a) Parliament (b) the State Legislature 16. Agricultural income tax is assigned to the State
(c) Governor (d) both (a) and (b) governments by:
7. A proclamation of emergency by the President: (a) the Constitution of India
(a) cannot apply to Jammu and Kashmir (b) the National Development Council
(b) shall have effect in Jammu and Kashmir only on the (c) the Finance Commission
concurrence of the State Legislature (d) the Inter-State Council
(c) shall apply to Jammu and Kashmir only on 17. Both Union and State Legislature can legislate on:
endorsement by its Governor (a) criminal law and procedure
(d) has to be separately issued for Jammu and Kashmir (b) marriage, contracts and torts
8. Which of the following is not in the State List under the (c) economic and social planning
Constitution of India ? (d) all of the above
(a) Fisheries (b) Agriculture 18. Which of the following is not included in the State list in
(c) Insurance (d) Gambling the Constitution of India?
9. Railways is a subject on the : (a) Police (b) Prison
(a) Concurrent list (b) Union list (c) Law and Order (d) Criminal Procedure Code
(c) State list (d) Residual list 19. Which of the following items comes under the Concurrent
10. Which of the following is regarded as an essential function list?
of the State? (a) Inter-state rivers (b) Trade Unions
(a) To run schools for education (c) Citizenship (d) Local Government
(b) To provide defence against external attacks 20. Match the following
(c) To prevent diseases Year of Creation States
(d) To maintain good roads
11. Which of the following taxes is exclusively and totally A. 1960 1. Sikkim
assigned to the Central Government by the Constitution? B. 1962 2. Goa
(a) Estate Duty (b) Sales Tax C. 1975 3. Maharashtra
(c) Corporation Tax D. 1987 4. Nagaland
(d) Taxes on Railway fares and freight Codes: A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1

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(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 3 4 2 1
21. The first state to become bifurcated after independence
was:
(a) Madras (b) Bombay
(c) Punjab (d) Assam ANSWER KEY
22. When was the Madras state renamed Tamil Nadu?
Chapter. 9
(a) 1969 (b) 1970
(c) 1968 (d) 1971 1 C 14 A
23. Which of the following Union Territories attained 2 C 15 B
statehood in February, 1987? 3 A 16 A
(a) Goa (b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Pondicherry (d) Daman and Diu
4 D 17 D
24. When did the first linguistic state of Andhra come into 5 C 18 D
existence? 6 B 19 B
(a) October 2, 1953
7 B 20 B
(b) October 1, 1953
(c) April 1, 1953 8 C 21 A
(d) January 5, 1953 9 B 22 A
25. The States Reorganisation Act created States and Union 10 B 23 A
Territories:
(a) 14; 7 (b) 14; 6 11 D 24 B
(c) 15; 7 (d) 15; 7 12 A 25 B
26. Which one of the following was an associate State of India 13 B 26 C
before becoming a full fledged state?
(a) Meghalaya (b) Mizoram
(c) Sikkim (d) Manipur

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10. Public Service Commissions/Attorney General/CAG/Election Commission

1. Recognition to a political party is accorded by: (a) 1 year (b) 2 years
(a) the Speaker of the Lok Sabha in the case of national (c) 6 years (d) 5 years
parties and the Speaker of legislative assemblies in the 12. The powers of the Election Commission are given in which
case of regional parties of the following Articles of the Constitution?
(b) the Election Commission (a) 286 (b) 356
(c) the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs (c) 324 (d) 382
(d) a Committee of Whips 13. Which of the following does not come under the purview of
2. State funding of elections takes place in : the Election Commission?
(a) U.S.A and Canada (a) To conduct the election of PM of India
(b) Britain and Switzerland (b) To conduct the election of President of India
(c) France and Italy (c) To give recognition to the political parties
(d) Germany and Austria (d) To assign election symbols to the political parties
3. The conditions of service and tenure of the Election 14. The Electorate means:
Commissioner is prescribed by: (a) Those people who do not have the right to elect their
(a) the Constitution (b) Parliament representatives
(c) the President (d) Government (b) All the citizens who possess the right to vote and elect
4. The first general elections in India were held in: their representatives in an election
(a) 1949 (b) 1950 (c) Those people who have the right to be elected
(c) 1951 (d) 1947 (d) Those people who have the right to live in a country
5. The Congress lost its monopoly of power in the States for 15. How many days time is given for the candidates to file their
the first time after the elections of: nominations from the date of notification of the election?
(a) 1967 (b) 1971
(c) 1977 (d) 1955 (a) 2 days (b) 4 days
6. The State Election Commission can be removed from (c) 6 days (d) 8 days
office: 16. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) only by the Governor (a) President (b) Prime Minister
(b) in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Judge (c) Parliament (d) Chief Justice of India
of the Supreme Court 17. The Section Commission does not conduct the elections to
(c) only by the President on the advice of the Chief Justice the:
of the concerned State (a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha
(d) in the same manner as the Vice-President of India (c) Local bodies (d) President’s elections
7. Electioneering has to stop in a constituency: 18. The control of the preparation of electoral rolls for
(a) one day before the election Parliament and legislatures vests with the:
(b) 48 hours before election starts (a) Cabinet (b) Prime Minister
(c) 36 hours before a poll commences (c) President (d) Election Commission
(d) 48 hours before the closing hour of polling 19. Members of the Union Public Service Commission can
8. Who is responsible for the registration of voters? function as member’s upto the age of:
(a) Government (b) Voters (a) 60 years (b) 58 years
(c) Political parties (d) Election Commission (c) 62 years (d) 65 years
9. The Area of Lok Sabha Constituency for the purpose of 20. The Chairman and members of State Public Service
general election is determined by the: Commission are appointed by the :
(a) Delimitation Commission (a) President (b) Prime Minister
(b) Election Commission (c) Governor (d) Chairman, UPSC
(c) Census Commission 21. Who appoints the Chairman of the UPSC?
(d) President (a) President (b) Chief Justice of India
10. Graduates constitute a separate constituency for the (c) Prime Minister (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
election of specified number of members to the: 22. Which of the following is an extra Constitutional and non-
(a) Nyaya Panchayat statutory body?
(b) State Legislative Council (a) Election Commission
(c) Rajya Sabha (b) Finance Commission
(d) State Legislative Assembly (c) Planning Commission
11. Election of Rajya Sabha is held after: (d) Union Public Service Commission
23. The members of UPSC hold the office :
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(a) during the pleasure of President 35. The Attorney General of India has the right to audience in :
(b) as long as they enjoy confidence in Parliament (a) any High court
(c) for life or till they attain the age of 70 years (b) Supreme Court
(d) for the term of six years or till they attain the age of 65 (c) any Sessions Court
years (d) any Court of law within the territory of India
24. The members of All-India Services are appointed under the 36. Term of Comptroller and Auditor General of India is :
signature of: (a) 6 years
(a) President (b) Home Minister (b) 65 years of age
(c) Vice President (d) Chairman of UPSC (c) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
25. The report of the UPSC: (d) None of these
(a) is to be accepted by the Government in toto 37. Zonal Council are provided:
(b) may be ignored without explanation (a) by the Constitution
(c) has to be discussed in Parliament before being accepted (b) by Parliamentary Act
(d) is presented to the President (c) under the 42nd Amendment Act
26. The resignation letter of a State Public Service (d) by Presidential ordinance
Commission member is addressed to the : 38. The ex-officio Chairman of a Zonal Council is :
(a) President (b) Governor (a) one of the Union Ministers
(c) Chief Justice of India (d) Chief Minister (b) the Governor of the State where the Zonal Council
27. The composition of the UPSC is: meets
(a) laid down in the Constitution (c) the Chief Minister of the State where the Council meets
(b) determined by Parliament (d) elected by the member-State Chief minister
(c) determined by the President 39. The main purpose of Zonal Councils is to:
(d) determined by the Chairman of the UPSC (a) Settle disputes between States in a Zone
28. The Chairman of the Finance Commission must be : (b) Advise on matters of common interest to States in a
(a) Qualified to be a High Court judge Zone
(b) a person having special knowledge of economics (c) ensure that laws passed by various States do not
(c) a person having experience in public affairs conflict with each other
(d) all the above (d) devise best ways of utilising available resources of
29. Finance Commission consists of: States
(a) Five members 40. The Prime Minister, Union Cabinet Ministers, Chief
(b) Four whole time members Ministers and Council of Ministers are all members of :
(c) Chairman and four members (a) Planning Commission
(d) a Chairman and three other members (b) National Development Council
30. Finance Commission is constituted by the President every : (c) Zonal Council
(a) two years (b) three years (d) Regional Council
(c) five years (d) four years 41. National Development Council is:
31. The Centre-State financial distribution takes place on the (a) political body (b) non-political body
recommendation by the: (c) statutory body (d) none of the above
(a) Finance Minister (b) Planning Commission 42. According to the National Human Rights Commission Act,
(c) Finance Commission (d) Sarkaria Commission 1993, who amongst the following can be its Chairman?
32. The first Law Officer of the Government of India is : (a) Any serving Judge of the Supreme Court
(a) Chief Justice of India (b) Law Minister (b) Any serving Judge of the High Court
(c) Attorney General (d) Auditor General (c) Only a retired Chief Justice of India
33. Who is the highest Law Officer of a State? (d) Only a retired Chief Justice of a High Court
(a) Attorney General (b) Advocate General 43. Who among the following cannot be removed from office
(c) Solicitor General except in the manner prescribed in the Constitution of
(d) Secretary General Law Department India?
34. In the discharge of his functions, the Attorney General is (a) The Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission
assisted by: (b) The Governor of a State
(a) a Solicitor General (c) The Chief Election Commissioner
(b) two Solicitors-General and four Additional Solicitors- (d) The Chairman, Finance Commission
General
(c) a Solicitor General and two Additional Solicitor
Generals
(d) None of these
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ANSWER KEY
Chapter. 10
1 b 23 d
2 d 24 a
3 b 25 c
4 c 26 b
5 a 27 c
6 b 28 c
7 d 29 d
8 d 30 c
9 b 31 a
10 b 32 c
11 b 33 b
12 c 34 b
13 a 35 d
14 b 36 c
15 d 37 b
16 a 38 c
17 c 39 b
18 d 40 b
19 d 41 b
20 a 42 c
21 a 43 c
22 c

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11. Local Government

1. Father of local self government in India is: (a) 1 lakh (b) 12 lakhs
(a) Lord Mayo (b) Acharya Vinoba Bhave (c) 10 lakhs (d) 5 lakhs
(c) Lord Ripon (d) Mahatma Gandhi 14. Which of the following states has no Panchayati Raj
2. Panchayati raj has received constitutional status with the institution at all?
Amendment Act: (a) Assam (b) Kerala
(a) 72nd (b) 73rd (c) Tripura (d) Nagaland
(c) 74th (d) 75th 15. Who is the executive head of a Municipal Corporation?
3. The list of items which may be entrusted to the Panchayats (a) Mayor (b) Commissioner
is given in the : (c) Secretary (d) Deputy Mayor
(a) Eleventh Schedule (b) Twelfth Schedule 16. Which of the following is not a source of revenue to the
(c) Seventh Schedule (d) State List village panchayats?
4. In which of the following states was the Panchayati Raj (a) Property Tax (b) House Tax
first introduced? (c) Land Tax (d) Vehicles Tax
(a) Rajasthan (b) Gujarat 17. Which of the following is a source of income of the Gram
(c) U.P. (d) Bihar Panchayats?
5. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee suggested that the structure (a) Income Tax (b) Sales Tax
of Panchayati Raj should consist of: (c) Professional Tax (d) Levy duties
(a) the village, the block and the district levels 18. The levying of which one of the following taxes is outside
(b) the mandal and the district levels the jurisdiction of Municipal Corporation?
(c) the village, the district and the state levels (a) Property Tax (b) Income Tax
(d) the village, the mandal, the district and the state levels (c) Profession Tax (d) Education Tax
6. Mandal Panchayats were recommended by: 19. The tenure of Gram Panchayat and Nagarpalika shall be
(a) Balwantrai Mehta Committee for:
(b) Narasimhan Committee (c) Ashok Mehta Committee (a) three years (b) four years
(d) Vengal Rao Committee (c) five years, unless dissolved earlier
7. Panchayati Raj was started in the country in: (d) co-extensive with the term of Legislative Assembly.
(a) 1957 (b) 1952 20. The Panchayats are authorised:
(c) 1959 (d) 1951 (a) to levy taxes, duties, levy and appropriate the same
8. The source of maximum income to Panchayati Raj (b) the Panchayats have no power to levy taxes
institution is: (c) the Panchayats are entitled to only grants from the
(a) local taxes (b) regional funds Government
(c) government grants (d) to levy, collect and appropriate such taxes, duties tolls
(d) share in Union Govt, revenue and fees as they are authorised by the Governments.
9. Which is at the apex of the three tier system of Panchayati 21. The electorate for a Panchayat is:
Raj ? (a) the Taluka board
(a) Gram Sabha (b) Gram Panchayat (b) all adults of 21 years of above in a village
(c) Zila Parishad (d) Panchayat Samiti (c) the village and selected Members of Parliament and
10. A person to be qualified for standing in a panchayat State Legislature
election must have attained the age of: (d) the Gram Sabha
(a) 21 years (b) 18 years 22. Mayor of a Municipal Corporation holds the office for a
(c) 25 years (d) 30 years period of:
11. The elections to Panchayats are to be held: (a) 1 year (b) 3 years
(a) every four years (b) every five years (c) 5 years (d) 4 years
(c) when the State Government decides to do so 23. It is obligatory for all States to have:
(d) at the Centre’s directive (a) three-tier system (b) two-tier system
12. Who is to conduct the elections to the Panchayats and (c) Some states are exempted from establishing three-tier
Municipalities? system
(a) State Government (b) Central Government (d) it is optional for the States
(c) State Election Commission 24. What is the intermediate tier of the Panchayati Raj System
(d) Central Election Commission called?
13. A Municipal Corporation is set up in a city with a (a) Zilla Parishad (b) Taluka Panchayat
population of not less than: (c) Panchayat Samiti (d) Gram Sabha
25. Where was the first Municipal Corporation in India set up?
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(a) Bombay (b) Calcutta

(c) Delhi (d) Madras
ANSWER KEY
Chapter. 11
1 c 14 d
2 b 15 b
3 a 16 a
4 a 17 d
5 a 18 b
6 c 19 c
7 c 20 d
8 c 21 d
9 c 22 a
10 a 23 c
11 b 24 c
12 c 25 b
13 c

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12. Amendment of the Constitution and other Facts

1. The provision of amending the constitutional provision is (a) can be amended by simple majority
given in : (b) can be amended by two-thirds majority
(a) Part XIX Article 356 (b) Part XX Article 356 (c) can be amended only with State ratification
(c) Part XX Article 368 (d) Part XIX Article 368 (d) cannot be amended
2. A Constitutional amendment bill passed by both Houses of 12. If India decides to have a Presidential form of government,
Parliament the first and foremost amendment has to be made affecting
(a) does not need the assent of the President the:
(b) does need the assent of the President (a) system of judiciary
(c) does not need the assent of the President if passed by (b) composition of Parliament
ratification of States (c) executive-legislature relationship
(d) none of the above (d) provisions pertaining to Fundamental Rights
3. Who is entitled to initiate a Bill for Constitutional 13. Which amendment restored the power of judicial review to
amendments? the Supreme Court and High Courts after it was curtailed
(a) State Legislative Assemblies by the 42nd amendment?
(b) Lok Sabha only (a) 42nd (b) 43rd
(c) Either House of Parliament (c) 44th (d) 56th
(d) Rajya Sabha only 14. The Anti Defection Law was enacted as early as 1979 in:
4. Indian Constitution was amended for the first time in : (a) Kerala (b) Jammu and Kashmir
(a) 1950 (b) 1951 (c) West Bengal (d) Tamil Nadu
(c) 1952 (d) 1953 15. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments banned
5. The Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India was : the floor crossing in Parliament?
(a) added by the first amendment (a) 42nd (b) 44th
(b) added by the 24th amendment (c) 52nd (d) 53rd
(c) added by the 42nd amendment 16. A per the Anti-Defection Law the final authority to decide
(d) a part of the original Constitution on a member’s disqualification from the House is:
6. Of all the amendments in the Indian Constitution, the most (a) President (b) Governor
comprehensive and controversial amendment was: (c) Speaker of the House (d) Council of Ministers
(a) 42nd (b) 43rd 17. National Capital Territory of Delhi has been constituted by:
(c) 44th (d) 45th (a) 71st amendment
7. Which of the following provisions can be amended by (b) 69th amendment
simple majority? (c) ordinance promulgated by the President
(a) Creation of new states (d) ordinance promulgated by the Lieutenant Governor
(b) Creation or abolition of upper houses in state 18. A merger will not invite action under the Anti-Defection
legislatures Act if ... Members of a political party decide to join another
(c) Reconstitution of existing states political party:
(d) All the above (a) one-third (b) two-thirds
8. The 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts: (c) half (d) one-fourth
(a) came into force immediately on being passed by 19. Which Amendment provided for an authoritative version of
Parliament the Constitution in Hindi?
(b) both came into force in June, 1993 (a) 56th (b) 58th
(c) had to be ratified by more than half the number of (c) 60th (d) 61st
states 20. Match the following :
(d) have not been ratified by the required number of states Prominent Functionaries Minimum Age for
9. The Constitution of India does not mention the post of: Appointment
(a) the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha A. Member of Rajya Sabha 1. No minimum age
(b) the Deputy Prime Minister B. Member of Legislative 2. 21 years
(c) the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha Assembly
(d) the Deputy Speaker of the State Legislative Assemblies C. High Court Jugge 3. 25 years
10. Which amendment of the Constitution gave priority to D. Member of Panchayat 4. 30 years
Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights? ABCD ABCD
(a) 24th Amendment (b) 39th Amendment (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 42nd Amendment (d) 40th Amendment (c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 4 3 1 2
11. A major portion of the Constitution
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21. Match the following: 32. By which Amendment Act of the Constitution of India
A. Biggest democracy 1. USA were the Directive Principles of the State Policy given
B. Rigid Constitution 2. India precedence over the Fundamental Rights wherever they
providing for dual come into conflict?
citizenship (a) 40th (b) 42nd
C. Flexible Constitution 3. UK (c) 44th (d) 46th
providing for non- 33. Under which one of the Ministries of the Government of
republican democracy India does the Food and Nutrition Board work?
ABC ABC (a) Ministry of Agriculture
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 2 1 3 (b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(c) 1 3 2 (d) 3 1 2 (c) Ministry of Human Resource Development
22. The newly set up National Security Council is headed by (d) Ministry of Rural Development
the:
(a) President (b) Prime Minister
(c) Vice President (d) Union Home Minister
23. Who among the following took upon as the first ANSWER KEY
chairperson of the National Commission for Women? Chapter. 12
(a) Ms Suhasini Ali (b) Ms Mrinal Gore 1 d 18 b
(c) Ms Pupul Jayakar (d) Ms Jayanti Patnaik
24. The President of U.S.A. is elected after every: 2 b 19 b
(a) 3 years (b) 4 years 3 c 20 d
(c) 5 years (d) 6 years 4 b 21 b
25. Territorial waters of India extend upto how many nautical 5 a 22 b
miles?
(a) 8 (b) 12 6 a 23 d
(c) 18 (d) 22 7 d 24 b
26. Which is the highest ranking post among the following? 8 c 25 b
(A) Chief of the Air Staff
(b) Judge of the Supreme Court 9 b 26 d
(c) Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha 10 c 27 d
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha 11 b 28 b
27. The state having the largest population of scheduled castes 12 c 29 c
is:
(a) Rajasthan (b) Tamil Nadu 13 b 30 c
(c) Bihar (d) Uttar Pradesh 14 b 31 a
28. Which of the following countries has the briefest 15 c 32 b
Constitution in the world?
(a) France (b) U.S.A 16 c 33 a
(c) U.K. (d) Canda 17 b
29. What is the document published by the government to
apprise the public on any issue?
(a) Gazette
(b) Report of Public Accounts Committee
(c) White Paper (d) None of these
30. Extradiction means:
(a) forcing a foreign national to leave the country
(b) forcing a citizen of the country to leave the country
(c) delivering a foreign national for the trial of offences
(d) blocking the trade of other countries with a particular
country
31. Next to Hindi, language spoken by the largest number of
people in the Indian subcontinent is:
(a) Bengali (b) Tamil
(c) Telugu (d) Marathi

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