You are on page 1of 16

Paper

: II

Booklet SERIAL No.


Subject : Chemical scienceS
Subject Code : 27

Roll No.
(Figures as per admission card)

OMR Sheet No. : ____________________

Name & Signature of Invigilator/s


Signature : _________________________________
Name : _________________________________
Time : 2 Hours Maximum Marks : 200
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 100
A»Ü¦ìWÜÚWæ ÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜá Instructions for the Candidates
1. D ±Üâo¨Ü ÊæáàÆᤩ¿áÈÉ J¨ÜXst ÓܧÙܨÜÈÉ ¯ÊÜá¾ ÃæãàÇ… ®ÜíŸÃÜ®Üá° ŸÃæÀáÄ. 1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page.
2. D ±Ü£ÅPæ¿áá ŸÖÜá BÁáR Ë«Ü¨Ü ®ÜãÃÜá (100) ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ®Üá° JÙÜWæãíw¨æ. 2. This paper consists of Hundred multiple-choice type of questions.
3. ±ÜÄàPæÒ¿á ±ÝÅÃÜí»Ü¨È Ü É, ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤P¿
æ á®Üá° ¯ÊÜáWæ ¯àvÜÇÝWÜáÊÜâ¨Üá. Êæã¨ÜÆ 5 ¯ËáÐÜWÜÙÜÈÉ 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be
¯àÊÜâ ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á®Üá° ñæÃæ¿áÆá ÊÜáñÜᤠPæÙÜX®Üíñæ PÜvÝx¿áÊÝX ±ÜÄàQÒÓÜÆá PæãàÃÜÇÝX¨æ. given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet
(i) ±ÜÅÍæ°±ÜâÔ¤PæWæ ±ÜÅÊæàÍÝÊÜPÝÍÜ ±Üvæ¿áÆá, D Öæã©Pæ ±Üâo¨Ü Aíb®Ü ÊæáàÈÃÜáÊÜ and compulsorily examine it as below :
±æà±ÜÃ… ÔàÆ®Üá° ÖÜÄÀáÄ. ÔrPÜRÃ… ÔàÇ… CÆÉ¨Ü A¥ÜÊÝ ñæÃæ¨Ü ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á®Üá° (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal
on the edge of the cover page. Do not accept a booklet without
ÔÌàPÜÄÓܸæàw.
sticker seal or open booklet.
(ii) ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿áÈÉ®Ü ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ ÓÜíTæ ÊÜáñÜᤠ±ÜâoWÜÙÜ ÓÜíTæ¿á®Üá° ÊÜááS±Üâo¨Ü ÊæáàÇæ
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the
ÊÜáá©Åst ÊÜÞ×£Áãí©Wæ ñÝÙæ ®æãàwÄ. ±ÜâoWÜÙÜá/±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜá PÝOæ¿Þ¨Ü A¥ÜÊÝ
booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty
©Ì±ÜÅ£ A¥ÜÊÝ A®ÜáPÜÅÊÜáÊÝXÆÉ¨Ü A¥ÜÊÝ CñÜÃÜ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà ÊÜÂñÝÂÓÜ¨Ü ¨æãàÐܱÜäÄñÜ booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in
±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á®Üá° PÜãvÜÇæ 5 ¯ËáÐÜ¨Ü AÊܘ JÙÜWæ, ÓÜíËàPÜÒPÜÄí¨Ü ÓÜÄ CÃÜáÊÜ ±ÜâÔ¤PæWæ serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced
Ÿ¨ÜÇÝÀáÔPæãÙÜÛ¸æàPÜá. B ŸÚPÜ ±ÜÅÍ氱ܣÅPæ¿á®Üá° Ÿ¨ÜÇÝÀáÓÜÇÝWÜáÊÜâ©ÆÉ, immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within
¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà ÖæaÜác ÓÜÊÜá¿áÊÜ®Üã° PæãvÜÇÝWÜáÊÜâ©ÆÉ. the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question
4. ±ÜÅ£Áãí¨Üá ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜã (A), (B), (C) ÊÜáñÜᤠ(D) Gí¨Üá WÜáÃÜá£Ô¨Ü ®ÝÆáR ±Ü¿Þì¿á Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
EñܤÃÜWÜÚÊæ. ¯àÊÜâ ±ÜÅÍæ°¿á G¨ÜáÃÜá ÓÜÄ¿Þ¨Ü EñܤÃÜ¨Ü ÊæáàÇæ, PæÙÜWæ PÝ~Ô¨Üíñæ 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D).
AívÝPÜꣿá®Üá° PܱݳXÓܸæàPÜá. You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response
E¨ÝÖÜÃÜOæ : A B C D against each item.
(C) ÓÜÄ¿Þ¨Ü EñܤÃÜÊÝX¨ÝªWÜ. Example : A B C D
5. D ±ÜÅÍæ° ±Ü£ÅPæ¿á hæãñæ¿áÈÉ PæãqrÃÜáÊÜ OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ ¯ÊÜá¾ EñܤÃÜWÜÙÜ®Üá° where (C) is the correct response.
ÓÜãbÓÜñÜPÜR¨Üáª. OMR ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ AívÝPÜꣿáÆÉ¨æ ¸æàÃæ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà Óܧ٨ Ü È
Ü É EñܤÃÊ
Ü ®Ü áÜ ° 5. Your responses to the questions are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet
WÜáÃÜá£Ô¨ÜÃæ, A¨ÜÃÜ ÊÜåèÆÂÊÜÞ±Ü®Ü ÊÜÞvÜÇÝWÜáÊÜâ©ÆÉ. kept inside this Booklet. If you mark at any place other than in the circles
6. OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ Pæãor ÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜ®Üá° hÝWÜÃÜãPÜñæÀáí¨Ü K©Ä. in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read the instructions given in OMR carefully.
7. GÇÝÉ PÜÃÜvÜá PæÆÓÜÊÜ®Üá° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á Pæã®æ¿áÈÉ ÊÜÞvÜñÜPÜR¨Üáª.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. ¯ÊÜá¾ WÜáÃÜáñÜ®Üá° Ÿ×ÃÜíWܱÜwÓÜŸÖÜá¨Ý¨Ü ¯ÊÜá¾ ÖæÓÜÃÜá A¥ÜÊÝ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà bÖæ°¿á®Üá°, 8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR
ÓÜíWÜñÜÊÝ¨Ü ÓܧÙÜ ÖæãÃÜñÜá ±ÜwÔ, OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà »ÝWܨÜÈÉ ŸÃæ¨ÜÃæ, Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries,
¯àÊÜâ A®ÜÖÜìñæWæ ¸Ý«ÜÂÃÝWÜᣤàÄ. which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself liable to
9. ±ÜÄàPæÒ¿áá ÊÜááX¨Ü®ÜíñÜÃÜ, PÜvÝx¿áÊÝX OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á®Üá° ÓÜíËàPÜÒPÜÄWæ disqualification.
¯àÊÜâ ×í£ÃÜáXÓܸæàPÜá ÊÜáñÜᤠ±ÜÄàPÝÒ PæãsÜw¿á ÖæãÃÜWæ OMR®Üá° ¯Êæã¾í©Wæ 9. You have to return the OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilators at the
end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you
Pæãívæã¿áÂPÜãvܨÜá. outside the Examination Hall.
10. ±ÜÄàPæÒ¿á ®ÜíñÜÃÜ, ±ÜÄàPÝÒ ±ÜÅÍ氱ܣÅPæ¿á®Üá° ÊÜáñÜᤠ®ÜPÜÆá OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á®Üá° 10. You can take away question booklet and carbon copy of OMR Answer
¯Êæã¾í©Wæ ñæWæ¨ÜáPæãívÜá ÖæãàWÜŸÖÜá¨Üá. Sheet after the examination.
11. ¯àÈ/PܱÜâ³ ¸ÝÇ…±ÝÀáíp… ±æ®… ÊÜÞñÜÅÊæà E±ÜÁãàXÔÄ. 11. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
12. PÝÂÆáRÇæàoÃ…, ˨Üá®ݾ®Ü E±ÜPÜÃÜ| A¥ÜÊÝ ÇÝW… pæàŸÇ… CñÝ©¿á 12. Use of any calculator, electronic gadgets or log table etc., is
E±ÜÁãàWÜÊÜ®Üá° ¯Ðæà˜ÓÜÇÝX¨æ. prohibited.
13. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
13. ÓÜÄ AÆÉ¨Ü EñܤÃÜWÜÚWæ Má| AíPÜ CÃÜáÊÜâ©ÆÉ .
14. In case of any discrepancy found in the Kannada translation of a
1 4. PܮܰvÜ ÊÜáñÜᤠCíXÉàÐ… BÊÜ꣤WÜÙÜ ±ÜÅÍ氱ܣÅPæWÜÙÜÈÉ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà Äࣿá ÊÜÂñÝÂÓÜWÜÙÜá question booklet the question in English version shall be taken as
PÜívÜáŸí¨ÜÈÉ, CíXÉàÐ… BÊÜ꣤WÜÙÜÈÉÃÜáÊÜâ¨æà Aí£ÊÜáÊæí¨Üá ±ÜÄWÜ~ÓܸæàPÜá. final.
K – 2720 1 ±Üâ.£.®æãà./P.T.O.
Total Number of Pages : 16

Chemical scienceS
Paper – II

Note : This paper contains hundred (100) objective type questions. Each question
carries two (2) marks. All questions are compulsory.
1. Mendeleev proposed the existence of 5. The hybridisations of the central atoms
an unknown element and he named it as − −
in MnO 4 , NO2 and SO2, respectively,
eka-aluminum. This element is are
(A) Boron (B) Indium (A) dsp2, sp3 and sp3
(C) Gallium (D) Silicon (B) sp3, sp2 and sp
(C) dsp2, sp and sp
2. For the cations,
(D) sd3, sp2 and sp2
Ce3+ , Eu 3+ , Lu 3+ and Ho3+, the correct
order of increasing ionic radii is
[Given : Z Ce(58), Eu(63), Lu(71) and 6. The bond order for i) NO+ ii) NO– and
Ho(67)] iii) NO is as follows
3+ 3+ 3+ 3+ (A) i < ii < iii (B) ii < iii < i
(A) Ce < Eu < Ho < Lu
3+ 3+ 3+ 3+ (C) i < iii < ii (D) iii < ii < i
(B) Lu < Eu < Ho < Ce
3+ 3+ 3+ 3+ 7. Which of the following is the most acidic
(C) Ce < Ho < Eu < Lu
3+ 3+ 3+ 3+
in nature ?
(D) Lu < Ho < Eu < Ce
(A) BeO

3. The sulphide ion, S2– is isoelectronic (B) MgO


with (C) SrO
(A) O2– (B) Al3+ (D) CaO
(C) Na+ (D) K+
8. In the reaction,
H 2 CO3 + H 2 O  HCO3− + H3O + the
4. The geometries of IBr2+ and Br3− , Brönsted acids, respectively are
respectively are

(A) H 2 O and HCO3
(A) Tetrahedral and tetrahedral
(B) Tetrahedral and trigonal bipyramidal (B) H2O and H3O+

(C) Trigonal bipyramidal and linear (C) H2CO3 and H3O+


(D) Linear and linear (D) H 2 CO3 and HCO3−

Paper II 2 K – 2720
Total Number of Pages : 16

9. Lithium nitride on complete hydrolysis 13. An octahedral complex of formula


yields [M(AB)(CD)E 2 ] (AB and CD are
(A) Lithium hydroxide and ammonia unsymmetrical bidentate ligands and E
is a monodentate ligand) can have
(B) Lithium nitrate and water
(A) 6 geometrical isomers and 4 of them
(C) Lithium oxide and dinitrogen will be optically active
(D) Lithium and hydrozoic acid (B) 5 geometrical isomers and 3 of them
will be optically active
10. The reaction of sodium amide with liquid (C) 4 geometrical isomers and 2 of them
ammonia (anhydrons) gives will be optically active
(A) Sodium amide and hydrogen (D) 3 geometrical isomers and 1 of them
(B) Sodium hydroxide and hydrazine will be optically active

(C) Sodium nitride and hydrogen


14. Among the following, the complex that
(D) Sodium nitride and hydrazoic acid
absorbs the longest wavelength is
(A) [Co(H2O)6]2+
11. The enthalpy change for the reaction,
2CO + O2 → 2CO2 is (B) [Co(NH3)6]3+
Given : C ≡ O bond energy = 1074 kJ/mol (C) [CoF6]3–
O = O bond energy = 499 kJ/mol
C = O bond energy = 802 kJ/mol (D) [Co(en)3]2+

(A) + 1043 kJ/mole


15. NiBr 2 reacts with ph 2(Et) P at low
(B) + 2375 kJ/mole temperature to give a red colored
(C) –744 kJ/mole compound, ‘A’ which on warming to
(D) –561 kJ/mole 25°C forms a green colored compound,
‘B’. The observed magnetic moments of
A and B are respectively zero and 3.2 µB.
12. The total number of bond pairs and lone The geometrics of A and B, respectively,
pair of electrons present in the H3PO4 are
molecule is
(A) Tetrahedral and octahedral
(A) 5 and 2
(B) Octahedral and tetrahedral
(B) 8 and 6
(C) Tetrahedral and square planar
(C) 8 and 8
(D) Square planar and tetrahedral
(D) 5 and 8

K – 2720 3 Paper II
Total Number of Pages : 16

16. For complexes : [Co(NH 3 ) 5 F] 2+ , 18. Choose the correct statement(s) with
reference to thorium (Th) and uranium
[Co(NH 3 ) 5 Cl] 2+ , [Co(NH 3 ) 5 I] 2+ and
(U)
[Co(NH3)5Br]2+, the correct order of i) Th forms iodides of the type, ThI2,
decrease in the energy of LMCT bands is ThI3 and ThI4
ii) In the solid state, salts of [UO2]2+
(A) [Co(NH3)5F] < [Co(NH3)5Cl] <
2+ 2+
contain a linear cation
[Co(NH3)5Br]2+ < [Co(NH3)5I]2+ iii) Reactions of NaOR with UCl 4
does not yield monomeric U(OR)4
(B) [Co(NH3)5F]2+ < [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+ < complexes
[Co(NH3)5Br]2+ = [Co(NH3)5I]2+ (A) i and ii only
(C) [Co(NH3)5F]2+ > [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+ > (B) ii only

[Co(NH3)5Br]2+ > [Co(NH3)5I]2+ (C) i only


(D) ii and iii only
(D) [Co(NH3)5F] > [Co(NH3)5Cl] >
2+ 2+

[Co(NH3)5Br]2+ = [Co(NH3)5I]2+ 19. The ‘total valence electrons’ in


[H2Ru3(CO)8(µ-pph2)2] is
(A) 46 (B) 48
17. Aqueous solution of [Mn(H2O)6]2+ has
(C) 50 (D) 44
very light pink colour. The best reason
for it is 20. The total number of M-M bonds in the
cluster, Rh4(CO)12 is
(A) d-d transitions are orbital-forbidden
(A) Zero (B) Eight
but spin allowed
(C) Six (D) Four
(B) d-d transitions are both orbital-
forbidden and spin-forbidden 21. Oxidative addition of H-H, C-H and C-C
bonds to a metal complex follows
(C) d-d transitions are orbital-allowed (A) Electrophilic addition pathway
and spin-forbidden (B) Always radical pathway

(D) d-d transitions are orbital-allowed (C) Nucleophilic addition pathway

and spin allowed (D) Three-centre concerted pathway

Paper II 4 K – 2720
Total Number of Pages : 16

22. The species showing quadrupole bond 26. In the following metal enzyme
(delta bond) is catalyzed reactions, the metal ions
(A) Mo2 (CH2C6H5)6 present respectively, are
+
(B) Mo2 (OOCCH3)4 i) 2 H 2 O → O2 + 4 H + 4 e
(C) Cr2 (CO)4 (n5 – Cp)2 H H
| | | |
(D) Os2 Cl2 (OOCCH3)4 ii) − C 1 − C 2 −  − C 1 − C 2 −
| | | |

23. According to wades rules, the structure X X
iii) AH2 + H2O2 → A + 2H2O
type of B5H9 is
iv) RH + 2H+ + 2ē + O2 → ROH + H2O
(A) Nido (B) Arachno
(A) Cobalt, manganese, iron and zinc
(C) Closo (D) Hypo
(B) Manganese, cobalt, iron and iron

24. 20 ml of an aqueous solution of Al3+ is (C) Manganese, cobalt, copper and


shaken with 10 ml of oxine in chloroform iron
and allowed to separate. If the extraction (D) Iron, zinc, copper and iron
of Al in organic solvent is 95%, then the
distribution ratio corresponds to 27. The key in the Perutz mechanism is the
(A) 5 (B) 75 (A) Paramagnetic nature of
(C) 9.5 (D) 38 oxyhemoglobin
(B) High spin iron (II) in dioxygen-free
25. A constant current of 0.8 A is used to heme
deposit copper at the cathode and O2 (C) Bohr effect in hemoglobin
at the anode of an eletrolytic cell. The
(D) Sigmoidal curve exhibited by
number of moles of copper and oxygen
hemoglobin
deposited in 15.2 min, respectively, is
(Given : Faraday constant, F = 96485 C 28. 1H and 31P NMR spectra of
Cu2+ + Ze→ Cu(s); 2H2O → O2 + 4e + 4H+) PH3 (31P, 100% I = ½) consists of
respectively,
(A) 3.78 × 10–3 and 3.98 × 10–3
(A) a doublet and a quartet
(B) 729.6 and 364.8
(B) a doublet and a doublet
(C) 7.56 × 10–3 and 3.98 × 10–3 (C) a singlet and a quartet
(D) 3.78 × 10–3 and 1.89 × 10–3 (D) a singlet and a singlet

K – 2720 5 Paper II
Total Number of Pages : 16

29. The spin selection rule for electronic 33. The IUPAC name of camphor is
(allowed transitions) and NMR
(A) 6-OXO-1,2,2-trimethylbicyclo
spectroscopy, respectively, are
[2,2,1] heptane
(A) ∆s = ± 1 and ∆s = ± 1
(B) 1,7,7-Trimethylbicyclo [2,2,1]
(B) ∆s = 0 and ∆s = 0 heptane 2-one
(C) ∆s = 0 and ∆s = ± 1 (C) 1,5,5-Trimethylbicyclo [2,2,1]
(D) ∆s = ± 1 and ∆s = 0 heptane-2-one
(D) 1,7,7-Trimethylbicyclo [2,1,2]
heptane-2-one
30. In the following nuclear reaction, the ‘X’
is 42 He + 27 1
13 Al → 0 n + X 34. The IUPAC name for the following
30 31
(A) 15 Si (B) 15 P
31 30
15 S 15 P
(C) (D)
compound is
31. Reaction between tetrachlorosilane and (A) 2,3-Dibromo pentyl benzene
lithium aluminumhydride results in (B) 5-phenyl-3,4-dibromopentane
(A) Silane and lithium tetrachloro (C) 2,3-Dibromo-1-phenylpentane
aluminate
(D) 1-phenyl-2,3-dibromopentane
(B) Silicic acid and aluminum chloride
(C) Silane, lithium chloride and 35. Identify the correct structure of bicyclo
aluminum hydride [2,2,2] octane

(D) Silane and lithium aluminosilicate


(A)
32. X-P-X bond angles for POX3 (X = F, Cl,
Br) molecules follow the order
(A) Br (104.1°), Cl (103.3°) and
F (101.3°) (B)
(B) Br (101.3°), Cl (103.3°) and
F (104.1°)
(C) F (103.3°), Br (104.1°) and (C)
Cl (101.3°)
(D) Cl (104.1°), Br (101.3°) and (D)
F (104.1°)
Paper II 6 K – 2720
Total Number of Pages : 16

36. Which one of the following object is 39. Among the following which will
achiral ? undergoes ionization easily ?
(A) Letter F (B) Letter P
i) ii)
(C) Ball (D) A pair of hand
37. The major product formed in the
following reaction is iii) iv)

PhSNa (A) i) and iii)


→
? (B) i) and ii)
(C) ii) and iv)
(A) (D) ii) and iii)

40. The reactive intermediate involved in
the carbylamine and Reimer-Tiemann
(B) reaction are
(A) Carbene and carbanion
(B) Only carbene
(C) (C) Only carbanion
(D) Carbene and nitrene

41. Arrange the following carbocation in


(D) decreasing order of stability

38. Among the following identity the i) ii)


aromatic compounds

i) ii) iii) iv)

(A) i > ii > iii > iv


iii) iv) (B) iv > i > iii > ii

(A) i) and iii) (B) ii) and iv) (C) iii > i > ii > iv

(C) i) and iv) (D) i) and ii) (D) iv > ii > i > iii

K – 2720 7 Paper II
Total Number of Pages : 16

42. Among the following the strongest 46. Reaction of acetaldehyde with excess
nucleophile is of formaldehyde in presence of NaOH
(A) C2H5SH fields

O

(B) CH 3 C OO
(C) CH3NH2
O

(D) NC − CH 2 The name of this reaction is
(A) Cross cannizarro followed by aldol
43. SN1 reaction are favoured by
condensation
(A) unsaturation at α-position
(B) Consecutive aldol
(B) α-Branching condensation f ollowed by cross
(C) β-Branching cannizarro reaction
(D) Presence of non-polar solvent (C) Aldol condensation
(D) Cannizarro reaction
44. Dehydration of (CH3)3 C – CH(OH)CH3
with acid exclusively gives
47. Conversion of 1,2-dibromo compound
(A) (B)
to alkyne can be achieved by
(C) (D) (A) Treating with aq. KOH
(B) Fusion with KOH
45. The following reaction is known as
i) H 2SO 4 (C) Treating with zinc powder
C 4 H 9 − N − (CH 2 )3 − CH3  →
| ii) Base (D) Treating with triethylamine
Cl

48. Toluene can be converted into


benzaldehyde by oxidation with
(A) KMnO4/alkali
(A) Shapiro reaction
(B) K2Cr2O7/H2SO4
(B) Barton reaction
(C) Baeyer-villiger reaction (C) CrO2Cl2
(D) Hofmann-Loeffter-Freytag reaction (D) O2/V2O5

Paper II 8 K – 2720
Total Number of Pages : 16

49. Identify the correct synthetic equivalent 52. Selective reagents for the cis-
for the preparation of following hydroxylation of cyclohexene to
compound cis-cyclohexane-1,2-diol are
(A) Perbenzoic acid followed by acid
hydrolysis

(B) Bromination followed by hydrolysis
O
(A) || and (C) Alkaline KMnO4
R − C − CH3
(D) 1% KMnO4 followed by hydrolysis
O
(B) || 53. The reaction given below is an example of
R − C − CH 2 Br +

(C) R – CHO +
O (A) Cycloaddition reaction
(D) ||
R − C − CH3 + (B) Ene reaction
(C) Electrocyclic reaction
50. Identify the reagents for the following (D) Sigmatropic reaction
conversion R – O – CH2Ph → R – OH
+ Ph – CH3 54. Identify the final product in the
(A) DDQ or LAH following
(B) DDQ or H2|Pd hν hν
 →  →?
(C) H2|Pd or LAH
(D) HCl or HI
51. A suitable reagent combination for
carrying out the following conversion is (A)

(B)
(A) Trimethyl ortho acetate and p-toluene
sulfonic acid
(B) Trimethyl ortho acetate and sodium (C)
hydroxide
(C) 2-methoxypropene and p-toluene
sulfonic acid
(D)
(D) 2-methoxypropene and sodium
hydroxide
K – 2720 9 Paper II
Total Number of Pages : 16

55. Among the following pericyclic reaction 60. The expected apparent mass of the
which is thermally allowed ? metastable ion produced when ion
(A) π2 s + π2 s (B) π2 a + π2 a having m/z, 77 decomposes by loss of
acetylene to m/z, 51 will be
(C) π2 s + π4 a (D) π2 s + π4 s
(A) 43.4 (B) 33.4
(C) 66.8 (D) 51.0
56. Which of the following is more reactive
than benzene towards electrophilic
substitution reaction ? 61. Which of the following ketone absorbs
(A) Pyrrole IR near 1750 cm–1 ?

(B) Furan (A) Acetone

(C) Pyridine (B) 2-methyl cyclobutanone

(D) Both pyrrole and Furan (C) 2-methyl cyclohexanone


(D) 2-methyl cyclopentanone
57. Nitration of furan is achieved by the
following nitrating agent 62. Which base is present in RNA, but not
(A) Fuming HNO3 in DNA ?
(A) Uracil
⊕ O −
(B) N O2 BF 4 (B) Cytosine
(C) ACONO2 (C) Thymine
(D) HNO3 + H2SO4 (D) Guanidine

58. Indole undergoes electrophilic


63. Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives
substitution mainly at
(A) D-Fructose (B) D-Ribose
(A) Position – 2 (B) Position –3
(C) D-Glucose (D) L-Glucose
(C) Position – 4 (D) Position – 6 and 7

59. A compound with molecular mass m/z, 64. Predict the number of double bonds
112 is transparent in the uv spectrum. In present in linolinic acid
IR it shows two bands at 2940 cm–1 and (A) 3
1464 cm–1. In the PMR it gave a singlet
(B) 2
at δ 1.52. What is the compound ?
(A) Octane (B) Heptane (C) 1
(C) Toluene (D) Cyclooctane (D) 4

Paper II 10 K – 2720
Total Number of Pages : 16

65. Which of the following spectroscopy can 69. The product of two symmetry operations
give bond length in molecule ? for a given molecule is always a
(A) Rotational spectroscopy symmetry operation. The product
(B) Vibrational spectroscopy σ(xy) S4(z) gives

(C) FTIR spectroscopy (A) C4(x) (B) C4(y)


(D) NMR spectroscopy (C) C4(z) (D) S4(x)

66. Precision refers to 70. Part of the character table for the C3v
(A) Agreement of measured parameters point group is given below
with the expected value
(B) Agreement among respective values C3V E 2C3 3σv
of the measured parameters A1 1 1 1 Z
(C) Agreement of highest and lowest A2 1 1 –1
values of the measured parameters E 2 –1 0 (x,y)

(D) Systematic error only for reducible representation, τ expressed as


C3v E 2C3 3σV
τ 6 3 0
67. Using method of averages for fitting a
the reducible components are
data set {xi, yi} to the equation y = mx,
the coefficient ‘m’ is estimated by (A) E + 2A1 + 2A2
(B) 2E + A1 + A2
Σy 2i Σx i
(A) (B)
Σx 2i Σy i (C) E + 3A1 + A2
Σx i y i Σx i y i (D) E + A1 + 3A2
(C) (D)
Σy 2i Σx 2i

68. AB6 type of molecule having Oh point 71. Mixing of gas ‘X’ with gas ‘X’ should
group if made to AB5C type, the point not produce entropy change, is associated
group will become with
(A) Td (A) Russell’s paradox
(B) C4V (B) Helmholtz paradox
(C) C5V (C) Gibb’s paradox
(D) C4h (D) Curry’s paradox

K – 2720 11 Paper II
Total Number of Pages : 16

72. Which of the following is the largest 76. The filling of molecular orbitals takes
number ? place according to
(A) Planck constant (A) The Aufbau principle
(B) Boltzmann constant
(B) Pauli Exclusion principle
(C) Faraday constant
(C) Hund’s rule of maximum
(D) Gas constant multiplicity
(D) All of the mentioned above
73. An open thermodynamic system is one
in which
(A) Mass does not cross boundaries of 77. Which of the following is not a Hückel
the system, but energy may do so approximation in Hückel molecular
(B) Neither mass nor energy crosses the orbital theory (HMOT) ?
boundaries of the system (A) HMOt is applicable to planar
(C) Both energy and mass cross the molecules
boundaries of the system
(B) The overlap integrals Sij are taken
(D) Mass crosses the boundary but not
as δij
the energy
(C) The energy integrals Hij are taken as
74. For a chemical reaction ∆H = – 100 KJ α (alpha)
and ∆S = –100 J/K this reaction will be
(D) The energy integrals Hij are taken as
spontaneous at
either β (beta) or zero
(A) 900 K (B) 1000 K
(C) 1100 K (D) 1200 K
78. For a free particle in one direction which
of the following is correct ?
75. According to the phase rule, the number
of degrees of freedom for a mixture of (A) The energy is quantized
three gasses at constant temperature and
(B) The energy can take any negative
pressure will be
value
(A) Zero
(C) The wave function can be
(B) One
normalized
(C) Two
(D) The energy can take any positive
(D) Three
value
Paper II 12 K – 2720
Total Number of Pages : 16

79. Which of the following is true for the 82. Which of the following statement is the
acceptable wave function for bound state ? accurate explanation of the effect of
adding CN– to the cathode of a cell with
(A) The wave function must be real a reaction
(B) The wave function must be even Cd + 2Ag+ → 2Ag + cd2+ E0 = 1.2V
function (A) E° decreases because Cd (CN)2−
4
(C) The wave function must be formation
quadratically integrable (B) E° increases because Cd (CN)2−
4
formation
(D) The wave function must be
anti-symmetric with respect to (C) E° increases because Ag(CN)2−
interchange of any two particles formation
(D) E° decreases because Ag(CN)2−
80. For a function f(x) = Ae–2ix for 1 ≤ x ≤ 5, formation
which one of the following is the value
A such that the function is normalised 83. The value of equilibrium constant for a
for the given range of values ? feasible electrochemical cell reaction is
(A) Zero (A) Less than zero
(B) One (B) Zero
(C) Two (C) Equal to one
(D) Three (D) Greater than one

81. In an electrolytic solution molar 84. Substances whose solutions can readily
conductance is related to the diffuse through animal membranes are
temperature as named as
(A) Increases with increase in (A) Colloids (B) Crystalloids
temperature (C) Electrolytes (D) Non-electrolytes
(B) Decreases with increase in
temperature 85. The depolariser used in a dry cell battery
(C) First increases and then decreases is
with increase of temperature (A) NH4Cl (B) MnO2
(D) Not affected by temperature (C) KOH (D) Na3PO4

K – 2720 13 Paper II
Total Number of Pages : 16

86. In electrochemical series, aluminium is 89. The velocity of a chemical reaction can
above hydrogen, but it is stable in air and be increased by all the factors except
water, because (A) Increasing the temperature
(A) Aluminium is non-reactive (B) Increasing the concentration of
reactants
(B) The layer of Al2O3 formed at the
surface makes it stable (C) Increasing the activation energy
(D) Using a catalyst
(C) ∆G is negative and the reaction is
thermodynamically not favorable 90. For an elementary, irreversible parallel
k1 k
(D) The activation energy is very high reaction A  → R , A 2 → S the
rate of consumption of A is given by
87. Identify the incorrect statement. (A) (k1 – k2) CA

(A) Rate law is an experimental (B) (k1 + k2) CA


observation but law of mass action 1
(C) ( k1 + k 2 ) C A
is theoretical concept 2
(D) k1 CA
(B) Rate law is different from expression
of law of mass action 91. The rate of a reaction is represented by
the following expression
(C) Rate law is more useful than law of 1 d[C] 1 d[ D] 1 d[ A]
mass action in the development of + =− =+
2 dt 3 dt 4 dt
mechanism
the reaction is
(D) Order of a reaction is equal to the (A) 4A + B → 2C + 3D
sum of powers of concentration
(B) B + 3D → 4A + 2C
terms in rate law
(C) 4A + 2C → B + 3D
(D) 2A + 3B → 4C + D
88. Collision theory of a chemical reaction
explains 92. In a crystal the atoms are located at the
position of
(A) Rate of a reaction
(A) Zero potential energy
(B) Order of a reaction
(B) Infinite potential energy
(C) Molecularity of a reaction
(C) Minimum potential energy
(D) Rate, order and molecularity (D) Maximum potential energy
Paper II 14 K – 2720
Total Number of Pages : 16

93. Which of the following oxide shows 97. excess of sodium ions in our body
electrical properties like metals ? causes
(A) SiO2 (A) High blood pressure
(B) MgO (B) Low blood pressure

(C) SO2(s) (C) Diabetics

(D) CrO2 (D) Anaemia

98. Total surface area for two identical


94. Which one of the following is not particles separated by distance having
applicable to chemisorption ? perfect cubical shape of one unit length
(A) High magnitude of ∆H is __________ square unit.

(B) Occurs at higher temperature (A) 2


(B) 4
(C) It is reversible
(C) 8
(D) It forms monolayer
(D) 12

95. Addition of different types of monomers


99. The main pollutant of leather tannesies
to form a polymer chain is known as in the waste water is due to the salt of
(A) Chain reaction polymerisation (A) Cs (III)
(B) Copolymerisation (B) Pb (II)
(C) Addition polymerisation (C) Mg (II)
(D) Disproportionation (D) Cr (VI)

96. Which of the following is not a 100. When the BOD value of a water sample
is less than 5 ppm it indicates that water
characteristic trait of polymer material ?
sample is
(A) Low density (A) Rich in dissolved nitrogen
(B) Resistant to chemical attack (B) Poor in dissolved oxygen
(C) Low cost (C) Least polluted
(D) High strength (D) Not suitable for aquatic life

K – 2720 15 Paper II
Total Number of Pages : 16
Space for Rough Work

Paper II 16 K – 2720

You might also like