16/08/2020 DLRM1, LRM1

& LRM2
CODE-A1

North & North West Delhi | Lucknow Campuses

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 720 FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES Time : 3.00 Hrs.

(for NEET-2021)
Test - 4
Topics covered :
Physics : System of Particles and Rotational Motion.
Chemistry : State of Matter : Gases and Liquids, Thermodynamics.
Botany : Biological Classification : Kingdom Fungi, Mycorrhiza, Virus, Viroids, Prions and Lichens,
Morphology of Flowering Plants.
Zoology : Breathing and Exchange of Gases, Body Fluids and Circulation.

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer : (1) (10, 15) (2) (4, 6)

1. A system consists of 5 mass particles with their  5 5
mass and coordinates (with respect to the origin) (3)  ,  (4) (2, 3)
 2 2
specified in the following
 table then determine the
position vector (rcom ) of the centre of mass of the 3. Find the coordinates of centre of mass for the
given system of three uniform rods. (All rods have
system. the same linear mass density and O is the origin)
Mass of particle x-y coordinate
5 kg (0, 1)
4 kg (3, 2)
3 kg (4, 0)
1 kg (6, 8)
2 kg (1, 1)
32 ˆ 23 ˆ
(1) 32iˆ + 23 ˆj (2) i + j
15 15
32 ˆ 23 ˆ 23 ˆ 32 ˆ L 
(3) i − j (4) i − j (1) (0, 0) (2)  , 0
15 15 15 15 3 
2. What are the coordinates of centre of mass of a  L L  L
point mass of 2 kg with coordinates (2, 3)? (3)  ,  (4)  0, 
 2 2  2
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Fortnightly Test-4 (RMG1_Code-A1) Regular Medical-2021

4. If a bomb of mass 5 kg is projected with an initial ML2 ML2

velocity of 60 m/s at an angle of 60° with respect (1) (2)
6 4
to the horizontal, and it explodes at the highest
point of its motion, then how far does the centre ML2 ML2
(3) (4)
of mass of the bomb fall from the point of 3 2
projection? 9. If the shaded section is removed from the given
(1) 180 3 m (2) 180 m uniform circular plate, then on which axis does
the centre of mass of the remaining portion lie?
(3) 150 m (4) 150 3 m
5. Two cars of equal mass are moving with speed
40 m/s and 20 m/s towards each other, the driver
of two cars apply brakes at the same instant
which results in a retardation of 20 m/s2 and 10
m/s2 respectively. Determine the magnitude of
acceleration of centre of mass of the system of
two cars.
(1) 80 m/s2 (2) 10 m/s2
(3) 5 m/s2 (4) 20 m/s2 (1) OY ′
6. The acceleration of centre of mass of system with (2) OX
respect to the 5 kg block (Assume pulley and
(3) OX ′
strings are ideal and the upward direction is taken
to be positive) (4) OY
10. If ICOM is the moment of inertia of a body about an
axis passing through its centre of mass and I1, I2
are moment of inertia of the same body about
axis at a distance L1 and L2 (where L1 < L2) from
the centre and the two axes are parallel to the
axis passing through the centre of mass, then
(1) ICOM > I2 > I1 (2) ICOM < I2 > I1
(3) ICOM < I1 < I2 (4) ICOM = I2 = I1
11. The moment of inertia of the given system of 2
particles, about an axis passing through the
2g centre of mass of the system, and perpendicular
(1) (2) Zero
9 to the line joining the two is
2g
(3) − (4) g
3
K2
7. The value of for a solid sphere with radius R (1) 15 kg-m2 (2) 30 kg-m2
R2
(3) 10 kg-m2 (4) 20 kg-m2
and radius of gyration K about an axis along its
diameter is 12. The moment of inertia of the given half disc of
mass m and radius r about an axis passing
2 2 through centre O and in its plane is
(1) (2)
5 3
1
(3) (4) 1
2
8. The moment of inertia of the given system of
identical thin uniform rods, each of mass M and
length L about the axis XX ′

mr 2 mr 2
(1) (2)
4 8
mr 2
(3) (4) mr2
2

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Regular Medical-2021 Fortnightly Test-4 (RMG1_Code-A1)

13. The angular momentum of a bead that is sliding 3g

down a wire, about point O as shown in the figure (1)
4l
is (the bead is to be treated as a particle)
3g
(2)
2l
4g
(3)
3l
2g
(4)
3l
17. A massless thin rod of length 5 m is kept
horizontally on rigid supports A and B as shown
(1) First increases then decreases in the figure. Then ratio of normal reaction at A
(2) First decreases then increases (NA) and B(NB) is
(3) Remains zero
(4) Remains a constant non-zero value
14. A torque = τ 3t 2 + 4t acts on a rotating solid
sphere, then what is the change in the angular
momentum of the sphere in the time interval
t = 0 to t = 4 s?
(1) 96 kg-m2 s–1 (2) 64 kg-m2 s–1
(3) 32 kg-m2 s–1 (4) 28 kg-m2 s–1
15. The graph given below shows variation of angular 1
(1)
speed ( ω ) with time (t), for a rotating disc. Then 2
the torque acting on it at t = 1 s is (Given moment (2) 5
of inertia of the disc is 4 kg-m2 s–1, about the (3) 1
given axis) 5
(4)
2
18. A disc of mass M and radius R rotates with an
angular speed ω. If two point masses each of
mass M are placed gently at a distance R from
the centre. Then new angular speed is

4
(1) N-m (2) 4 2 N-m
3
2
(3) 2 N-m (4) N-m
3
16. A uniform rod is kept suspended from the roof as
ω
shown. If the rod has mass m and length l. Then (1) (2) 5ω
angular acceleration of the rod at the instant 3
when one of the string is cut is ω
(3) 3ω (4)
5
19. If a man standing on the periphery of a stationary
disc starts walking in the anticlockwise direction
along the boundary, then
(1) The disc remains stationary
(2) The disc rotates in the clockwise direction
(3) The disc rotates in the anticlockwise direction
(4) The disc rotates in either clockwise or
anticlockwise direction

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Fortnightly Test-4 (RMG1_Code-A1) Regular Medical-2021

20. Which graph correctly depicts the variation of (1) 100 2 (2) Zero
torque with respect to time for a rotating body
which has a conserved angular momentum 300
(3) 300 (4)
2
25. What is the angular acceleration, of a solid
(1) (2) sphere with moment of inertia 20 kg-m2, as its
angular momentum changes from 20 kg-m2 s–1 to
30 kg-m2 s–1 in 10 s?
(1) 0.1 rad/s2 (2) 0.5 rad/s2
(3) 0.05 rad/s2 (4) 0.01 rad/s2
26. For a disc rotating, in the x-y plane about the
(3) (4)
z-axis in anticlockwise manner if its angular
speed is decreasing with time, the direction of
angular velocity and angular acceleration are
21. Which of the following graphs corresponds to a
  (1) ˆj , − ˆj (2) kˆ, − kˆ
case of ∆L = 0 where L is the angular
momentum of the system (3) ˆj , ˆj (4) kˆ, kˆ
27. If a man of mass 60 kg moves a distance of 2m
on a plank of mass 140 kg, kept on a smooth
(1) (2) surface. Then the ratio of distance moved by the
plank to the distance moved by the man with
respect to the ground is
3 7
(1) (2)
7 3
(3) (4) All of these 3 10
(3) (4)
10 3
28. The magnitude of net torque acting on the body
22. The moment of inertia of a square lamina about shown in the figure about the point O is
an axis passing through its centre and along one
of its diagonal is (The square lamina has mass M
and side L)
ML2 ML2
(1) (2)
12 6
ML2 ML2
(3) (4)
3 4

23. If a torque, τ = −5iˆ + 30 ˆj − 20kˆ N-m acts on a
 (1) 12 N-m (2) 30 N-m
rotating body, due to a force F = xiˆ + 2 jˆ + kˆ and (3) 18 N-m (4) 42 N-m

r = 2iˆ + yjˆ + 4kˆ , then the values of x and y are L1 + L2
29. The dimensional formula of the term is
(1) 8 and 3 (2) 3 and 8 t1 + t 2
(3) –8 and –3 (4) –3 and –8 (Where L1 and L2 are angular momentum of a
24. The angular momentum [in kg-m2s–1] of a particle rotating body at two instant t1 and t2)
of mass 5 kg, moving with a speed of 20 m/s in a (1) [M L2 T–2] (2) [M L T–2]
straight line (as shown in figure), about the origin (3) [M0 L1 T–1] (4) [M0 L2 T–1]
is
30. If the angular momentum of a rotating body
increases by 3%, keeping its angular velocity
constant. Then percentage change in its moment
of inertia is
(1) It decreases by 3%
(2) It increases by 3%
(3) It decreases by 6%
(4) It increases by 6%

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Regular Medical-2021 Fortnightly Test-4 (RMG1_Code-A1)

31. A disc rotates about an axis through its centre O 36. When a body rolls down an inclined plane in pure
and perpendicular to plane with angular speed ω. rolling, frictional force is
The ratio of angular speeds of particles A, B and (1) Directed up the plane
C, respectively as shown in figure below is (2) Directed down the plane
(3) Zero
(4) Depends on its velocity
37. A solid sphere, a ring and a solid cylinder each of
mass M, 2M and 3M respectively, with the same
radius R, roll down an inclined plane without
slipping. If they all start from rest which of the
bodies reaches the ground last?
(1) Solid sphere (2) Ring
(3) Solid cylinder (4) All reach together
(1) 1 : 4 : 3 (2) 3 : 1 : 4 38. If a ring is in rolling motion on an inclined plane
(3) 1 : 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 3 : 4 inclined at an angle of 60° with the horizontal and
32. What is the velocity of the particle at point P the coefficient of friction µ, then the condition for
for the given wheel which is in pure rolling? its pure rolling on the inclined plane is
(OP = R) 3 1
(1) µ ≥ (2) µ ≥
2 2
1
(3) µ ≥ 2 (4) µ ≥
2
K2
39. The value of 2 is same for
R
(1) Solid sphere and hollow sphere
(2) Hollow cylinder and solid cylinder
(3) Ring and disc
(1) 3v (2) 2v
(4) Ring and hollow cylinder
(3) 2v (4) v 40. If a solid cylinder of mass 2 kg is in pure rolling

33. A disc is rotating with angular velocity ω. A force on a horizontal surface due to a force of 9 N that
 acts at its centre of mass then what is its
f acts at a point whose position vector with acceleration?

respect to the axis of rotation is r . The power (1) 2 m/s2 (2) 1 m/s2
associated with torque due to the force is
      (3) 3 m/s2 (4) 4 m/s2
(1) (r × f ) ⋅ ω (2) r × (f ⋅ ω ) 41. If a solid sphere and a ring in pure rolling, having
      the same initial velocity roll up a rough inclined
(3) (r × f ) × ω (4) r ⋅ (f × ω )
plane, which will rise to a greater height
34. The ratio of rotational to translational kinetic (1) Solid sphere
energy for a hollow sphere in pure rolling motion (2) Ring
is
(3) Both will rise to the same height
2 3
(1) (2) (4) Depends on the mass of the bodies
3 2
42. The work done in bringing a ring of mass 2 kg in
2 3 pure rolling, with an initial speed of its centre of
(3) (4)
5 5 mass 4 m/s, to rest is
35. Angular momentum of solid sphere rotating about (1) 8 J (2) 16 J
its diameter with angular speed ω is (3) 4 J (4) 32 J
(Mass and radius of sphere are M and R 43. For a body in rotational equilibrium, which of the
respectively) following may be true.
2 2 (1) Net external force, Fnet = 0, net external
(1) MR 2ω (2) MR 2ω torque, τ net ≠ 0
3 5
7 5 (2) Fnet ≠ 0, τ net = 0
(3) MR 2ω (4) MR 2ω
5 7 (3) Fnet = 0, τ net = 0
(4) Both (2) and (3)

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Fortnightly Test-4 (RMG1_Code-A1) Regular Medical-2021

44. Which of the following relation(s) is correct : 45. What is the dimensional formula of torque acting
 
α : Angular acceleration, τ : torque, on a body, presently in rotational equilibrium?
 
F : force, r : position vector (1) [M0 L0 T0]
 
(1) τ ⋅ α > 0 (2) [M L2 T–2]
 
(2) τ × α = 0 (3) [M L0 T0]
 
(3) τ ⋅ F = 0 (4) [M L2 T0]
(4) All of these

CHEMISTRY
46. If critical temperature (TC) and critical pressure 53. Internal energy and enthalpy are
(PC) of one mole of gas are 700 K and 62 atm, (1) Both state functions
then the value of critical volume (VC) is
(2) Both path functions
525 R 2100 R
(1) (2) (3) Internal energy : State function
124 62
Enthalpy : Path function
700 R 2100 R
(3) (4) (4) Internal energy : Path function
62 8
Enthalpy : State function
47. In which of the following process entropy
54. What will be the total pressure of system when
increases?
two bulbs are connect at constant temperature?
(1) Boiling of egg
(2) Evaporation of water
(3) Expansion of gas at constant temperature
(4) All of these
48. Equal masses of CH4 and O2 are mixed in one
empty container at 25°C. The fraction of total
pressure exerted by oxygen is
(1) 1/3 (2) 2/3 (1) 2.23 atm (2) 10.27 atm
(3) 1/4 (4) 3/4 (3) 5.3 atm (4) 5.13 atm
49. If a gas shows negative deviation at STP, then 55. Work done in an open vessel at 330 K when 168
PV g of Fe reacts with aq. HCl to give FeCl2 is
(1) Z > 1 (2) >1 (R = 2 cal/K-mol)
nRT
(3) Vgas > 22.4 L (4) Vgas < 22.4 L (1) 1.12 kcal
50. In which of the following reactions, ∆H =∆U ? (2) 1.98 kcal
(1) C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) (3) 5.61 kcal
(2) H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI(g) (4) 3.91 kcal
(3) FeO(s) + CO(g) → Fe(s) + CO2(g) 56. Root mean square velocity of an ideal gas at
constant pressure varies with density as
(4) All of these
(1) d2 (2) d
51. When 5 g of formic acid is burnt at 25°C, the
amount of heat evolved is x kJ. ∆H for (3) d (4) 1/ d
combustion (in kJ) of formic acid is 57. Ideal gas equation is valid for which of the
23x following process(es)?
(1) –18.4x (2) –
5 (1) Isothermal process (2) Isobaric process
(3) –9.2x (4) –4.6x (3) Adiabatic process (4) All of these
52. Ratio of RMS velocity of CH4 and O2 at 400 K 58. The correct relation is
and 800 K respectively is
(1) ∆G° = –2.303 RT ln K
(1) 2 : 1
(2) ∆G° = 2.303 RT log K
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 1 (3) ∆G° = –RT log K
(4) 3 : 1 (4) ∆G° = –2.303 RT log K

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Regular Medical-2021 Fortnightly Test-4 (RMG1_Code-A1)

59. Which of the following postulates of kinetic theory 67. In which gaseous molecules only London forces
of gases is responsible for deviation from ideal are present?
behaviour?
(1) HCl (2) H2O
(1) Kinetic energy of the gas molecules increase
with increase in temperature (3) O2 (4) CH3OH
(2) Collisions among molecules are perfectly 68. The reaction X(g) + Y2(g) → XY2(g) will be
elastic spontaneous at (Given : ∆S = 150 J K −1 mol−1
(3) Molecules of gas are in a state of random and ∆H =55 kJ / mol )
motion
(1) 370 K (2) 300 K
(4) There is no force of attraction between the
gas molecules (3) 150 K (4) Both (1) & (2)
60. An open flask containing air is heated from 69. Which of the following is incorrect for isothermal
500 K to 800 K. The percentage of air escaped reversible expansion of an ideal gas?
from the flask is (1) ∆H = 0 (2) ∆U = 0
(1) 45.5 (2) 15.5% (3) ∆T = 0 (4) W = 0
(3) 37.5% (4) 30.5% 70. The correct order of most probable speed (C*),
61. The dissociation energy of CH4(g) is 360 kcal root mean square speed (C) and average speed
mol–1 and that of C2H6(g) is 620 kcal/mol. The C– ( C ) is
C bond energy is
(1) C > C > C* (2) C* > C > C
(1) 260 kcal/mol (2) 180 kcal/mol
(3) 130 kcal/mol (4) 80 kcal/mol (3) C > C* > C (4) C > C* > C
62. Which of the following is a path function? 71. If for a given reaction,
(1) U (2) q ∆H =( + ) ve and ∆S =( − ) ve
(3) H (4) S then reaction is
63. van der Waals constant (a) is highest for (1) Non spontaneous at any temperature
(1) NH3(g) (2) CO2(g) (2) Spontaneous at low temperature
(3) O2 (g) (4) H2(g) (3) Spontaneous at high temperature
64. The heat of combustion of CH4(g), C2H6(g) and (4) At equilibrium
H2(g) respectively are 890.3, 1559.7 and 285.9 72. In the curves plotted, which represents isothermal
kJ/mol. Which of these fuels is more efficient? process?
(1) CH4(g)
(2) C2H6(g)
(3) H2(g)
(4) All are equally efficient
65. Which of the following graphs for a gas at
constant temperature represents Boyle’s law?

(i) (ii) (1) I (2) III

(3) IV (4) II
73. N2(g) + 2O2(g) → 2NO2(g) + X kJ
2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g) + Y kJ
Enthalpy of formation of NO (in kJ mol–1) is
(iii) (iv)
(X − Y)
(1)
2
(1) (i) & (ii) only (2) (ii) & (iii) only (2) 2X – 2Y
(3) (ii) & (iv) only (4) (ii), (iii) & (iv) only X+Y
(3)
66. What is the amount of heat released (in kJ) when 2
0.5 mol of HCl is mixed with 0.5 mol of NaOH?
1
(1) –57.1 × 1 (2) –57.1 × 2 (4) (Y − X)
2
(3) –57.1 × 0.5 (4) –57.1 × 1.5

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Fortnightly Test-4 (RMG1_Code-A1) Regular Medical-2021

74. In a 10.0 L cylinder of oxygen gas at 4.0 atm 82. Consider the following reaction occurring in an
pressure and 17°C, a leak is developed when the automobile.
leak was repaired, 2.50 atm pressure of oxygen 2C8H18 (g) + 25O2 (g) → 16CO2 (g) + 18H2O(g)
gas remained in the cylinder, still at 17°C. How
The sign of ∆H, ∆S and ∆G for the reaction would
many moles of gas escape from the cylinder?
(1) 1.68 (2) 1.05 be
(3) 0.63 (4) 2.08 (1) +, –, + (2) +, +, +
75. At 27°C and one atmospheric pressure a gas has (3) –, +, + (4) –, +, –
volume V. What will be its volume at 177°C and 83. What is the order of γ (=C P/CV) for the following

pressure of 1.5 atm? gases He, N2, O3?

(1) V (2) V/2 (1) He > N2 > O3
(3) V/3 (4) V/4 (2) N2 > O3 > He
76. At low pressure, van der Waals equation for one (3) He < N2 < O3
 a  (4) He = N2 = O3
mole of gas is written as  P + 2  V = RT .
 V  84. Boyle’s temperature and inversion temperature
Compressibility factor of the gas is equal to are related as
 a  (1) Ti = 2 Tb
(1)  1 −
 RTV  (2) 2Ti = Tb
(3) Ti = 2Tb
 RTV 
(2)  1 − 
 a  (4) Ti = Tb

 a  85. One mole of an ideal gas undergoes a change of

(3)  1 +
 RTV  state (2.0 atm, 3.0 L) to (2.0 atm, 7.0 L) with
change in internal energy ∆U = 30 L atm. The
 RTV  value of ∆H for the process is
(4)  1 + 
 a  (1) 22 L atm (2) 38 L atm
77. To which of the following gas mixtures, Dalton’s (3) 25 L atm (4) 0 L atm
law of partial pressures is not applicable? 86. Maximum deviation from ideal gas is expected
(1) CO2 and N2 (2) NH3 and HCl from
(3) CO2 and CO (4) Cl2 and CO2 (1) N2(g) (2) H2(g)
78. The number of mole of O2 present in a 2 L vessel (3) CO2(g) (4) O2(g)
at STP, when compressibility factor of gas is 2, 87. A process is performed from A to B through
are different paths 1, 2, 3 and 4 as shown in figure.
1 2 The maximum work is involve in
(1) (2)
273 R 273 R
1 1
(3) (4)
546 R R
79. If a system does not exchange both energy and
matter with the surroundings, it is said to be
(1) Closed (2) Isolated
(3) Open (4) Isobaric
80. If enthalpy of neutralisation of a strong acid with
strong base if –57.1 kJ/eq, then the enthalpy of (1) Path 1
dissociation of H2O is (2) Path 2
(1) +57.1 kJ/mol (2) –57.1 kJ/mol (3) Path 4
(3) +13.7 kcal/mol (4) Both (1) & (3) (4) Path 3
81. Magnitude of vapour pressure depends on 88. Unit of entropy is
(1) Nature of liquid (1) JK–1 mol–1
(2) Temperature of liquid (2) J mol–1
(3) Surface area of liquid (3) J–1 K–1mol–1
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) JK mol–1

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Regular Medical-2021 Fortnightly Test-4 (RMG1_Code-A1)

89. Correct order of temperatures in the given (1) T1 > T2 > T3 (2) T2 > T3 > T1
Maxwell Boltzmann distribution curve of a gas is
(3) T3 > T2 > T1 (4) T1 = T2 = T3
90. What is the % increase in pressure of a gas if %
decrease in volume of gas is 25% at constant
temperature?
(1) 33.3%
(2) 40%
(3) 66.6%
(4) 80%

BOTANY

91. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. fungi 98. Coenocytic mycelium is not found in
(1) Prefer to grow in warm and humid place (1) Rhizopus
(2) Cosmopolitan in nature (2) Albugo
(3) Having least diversity in morphology (3) Phytophthora infestans
(4) Having great diversity in habitat (4) Morels
92. Wheat rust is caused by 99. The edible basidiocarps are present in
(1) Penicillium (2) Puccinia (1) Truffles
(3) Albugo (4) Rhizopus (2) Morels
93. In which of the following fungi chitinous cell wall (3) Agaricus
is absent
(4) Yeast
(1) Aspergillus (2) Neurospora
100. Which of the following is not the basis of
(3) Saccharomyces (4) Phytophthora classification of fungi?
94. Which of the following is not the sexual spores in (1) Morphology of the mycelium
fungi?
(2) Mode of spore formation
(1) Oospores (2) Ascospores
(3) Mode of nutrition
(3) Sporangiospores (4) Basidiospores
(4) Fruiting bodies
95. In the members of phycomycetes, asexual
reproduction takes place by 101. Early blight of potato disease is caused by
(1) Zygospores (2) Zoospores (1) Trichoderma
(3) Aplanospores (4) Both (2) and (3) (2) Alternaria solani
96. The sex organs are absent, but plasmogamy is (3) Colletotrichum
brought about by fusion of two vegetative or (4) Phytophthora infestans
somatic cells, in the members of 102. Which of the following fungi is used in
(1) Basidiomycetes biochemical and genetic work?
(2) Deuteromycetes (1) Puccinia (2) Neurospora
(3) Ascomycetes (3) Aspergillus (4) Peziza
(4) Phycomycetes 103. Dikaryotic phase is dominant in the members of
97. Which of the following is not true for (1) Deuteromycetes
deuteromycetes
(2) Zygomycetes
(1) Commonly known as imperfect fungi
(3) Ascomycetes
(2) Asexually reproduce by conidia
(4) Basidiomycetes
(3) Mycelium is septate and unbranched
104. The cell wall of fungi is composed of
(4) Some members are saprophytic or parasites
while large number of them are decomposers (1) Chitin (2) Polysaccharide
of litter (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Peptidoglycan

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Fortnightly Test-4 (RMG1_Code-A1) Regular Medical-2021

105. Ectomycorrhizal association is present in 115. Select the incorrect statement for lichen.
(1) Cycas (2) Pinus (1) Lichens are composite organism
(3) Maize (4) Wheat (2) They cannot tolerate air pollution
106. In mycorrhizal association, the fungal partner (3) They are perennial
helps in/to (4) Their growth is fast
(1) Increases the surface area for absorption 116. Which of the following regions / structure is
(2) CO2 assimilation responsible for the growth of root in length?
(3) Increase the absorption of nitrogen, (1) Meristematic region
phosphorus and other minerals (2) Region of elongation
(4) Both (1) and (3) (3) Root cap
107. The term virus was coined by (4) Region of maturation
(1) D. J. Ivanowsky (2) Pasteur 117. Adventitious roots are found in all of the given
(3) M.W. Beijerinck (4) W.M. Stanley plants, except
108. Bacterial viruses usually contain (1) Grasses (2) Monstera
(1) Double stranded RNA (3) Turnip (4) Banyan tree
(2) Single stranded RNA 118. In which of the following plants stem is modified
into fleshy cylindrical structure?
(3) Double stranded DNA
(1) Citrus (2) Opuntia
(4) Single stranded DNA
(3) Eichhornia (4) Euphorbia
109. Which of the following occurs due to virus?
119. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Mosaic leaf formation in tobacco
(1) Thorn – Bougainvillea
(2) Rust in wheat
(2) Stem tendril – Watermelon
(3) Smut in barley
(3) Stilt root – Rhizophora
(4) Citrus canker
(4) Prop root – Banyan tree
110. Select the incorrect features w.r.t. viruses
120. How many plants in the list given below has/have
(1) They are obligate parasites alternate phyllotaxy?
(2) Contain either DNA or RNA
Guava, Alstonia, Nerium, Calotropis,
(3) Smaller in size, passed through bacterial filter
Sunflower
(4) Multiply outside the host body
111. Which of the following statement is wrong for (1) One (2) Three
viroids? (3) Four (4) Two
(1) Discovered by T.O. Diener 121. Leaf modify into spine in
(2) Smaller than viruses and self replicating (1) Garden pea (2) Aloe
particles (3) Acacia (4) Parthenium
(3) Their RNA is of high molecular weight 122. How many plants among mustard, china rose,
(4) They are RNA particle without protein coat brinjal, Petunia, plum, guava, bitter gourd have
112. Mad cow disease is caused by hypogynous flower?
(1) Virus (2) Viroids (1) Four (2) Five
(3) Virusoids (4) Prions (3) Two (4) Three
113. Prions are 123. In which of the following plants flowers are borne
in basipetal order
(1) Infectious RNA (2) Infectious proteins
(1) Solanum and Dianthus
(3) Infectious DNA (4) Nucleoprotein
(2) Radish and Begonia
114. In most of the lichen, the fungal partner belongs
to (3) Lupin and mustard
(1) Ascomycetes (4) Radish and mustard
(2) Basidiomycetes 124. Find the odd one w.r.t. zygomorphic flower
(3) Deuteromycetes (1) Gulmohur (2) Cassia
(4) Phycomycetes (3) Datura (4) Pea

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Regular Medical-2021 Fortnightly Test-4 (RMG1_Code-A1)

125. Match the column I with column II and select the 131. The correct floral formula of tomato is
correct option. 
Column I Column II (1) % O
+ K(5) C1+2+(2) A(9)+1 G1
(Aestivation of petals) (Plants)

a. Valvate (i) China rose (2) ⊕ OK 
C A G
+ (5) (5) 5 (2)
b. Twisted (ii) Calotropis
c. Imbricate (iii) Cassia 
(3) ⊕ OK 
C A G
d. Vexillary (iv) Bean + (5) (5) 5 (3)
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)

(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (4) Br ⊕ O 
K
+ (5) C5 G1
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(i) 132. Albuminous seed is present in
126. Epipetalous stamens are found in (1) Pea
(1) Brinjal (2) Lily (2) Indigofera
(3) Bean (4) Citrus (3) Lupin
127. Select the incorrect match. (4) Wheat
(1) Marginal placentation – Pea 133. In which of the following plants, tricarpellary,
(2) Axile placentation – Lemon syncarpous, trilocular, superior ovary with axile
(3) Parietal placentation – Dianthus placentation is present?
(4) Basal placentation – Marigold (1) Tulip
128. Mesocarp is fibrous in (2) Tomato
(1) Coconut (2) Mango (3) Sunnhemp
(3) Papaya (4) Cucumber (4) Sesbania
129. The remains of nucellus in seeds present in some 134. Seed coat is membranous and generally fused
plants, is called with fruit wall in
(1) Endosperm (2) Perisperm (1) Gram (2) Maize
(3) Scutellum (4) Pericarp
(3) Pea (4) Mango
130. Keel is the characteristic feature of the flowers of
135. Bicarpellary, syncarpous, superior ovary with
(1) China rose swollen placenta are characteristic features of
(2) Soyabean
(1) Aloe (2) Ashwagandha
(3) Tulip
(3) Trifolium (4) Soyabean
(4) Tobacco

ZOOLOGY
136. Inspiration is possible if the pressure within the (1) ↑ pO2, ↑ pCO2
lungs is
(2) ↓ pO2, ↑ pCO2
(1) Less than the atmospheric pressure
(2) More than the atmospheric pressure (3) ↑ pO2, ↓ pCO2
(3) Equal to the atmospheric pressure (4) ↓ pO2, ↓ pCO2
(4) More than intrapulmonary pressure 139. Which one of the following statement is
137. All the factors favour the formation of incorrect?
oxyhaemoglobin, except (1) Respiratory rhythm center lies in medulla
(1) High pO2 oblongata
(2) Lesser H+ concentration (2) The role of oxygen in regulation of respiratory
rhythm is quite insignificant
(3) Low pCO2
(3) Pneumotaxic center in medulla can only
(4) ↑ 2, 3 BPG increase the duration of inspiration
138. Dissociation of CO2 from carbamino haemoglobin (4) Chemosensitive area gets activated due to
occur at alveoli due to increase in H+ in the CSF

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Fortnightly Test-4 (RMG1_Code-A1) Regular Medical-2021
140. Oxygen transported by one gram of haemoglobin 146. Choose the correct pair of muscles involved only
is nearly during forceful exhalation in humans.
(1) 1.34 ml (1) Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
(2) 5 ml (2) Diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles
(3) 20 ml (3) External intercostal and internal intercostal
(4) 4 ml muscles
(4) Internal intercostal muscles and abdominal
141. The enzyme involved in the transport of CO2 in
muscles
blood is
147. Partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide in
(1) Carbonic anhydrase (2) Carboxylase
healthy human tissue are
(3) Cytochrome oxidase (4) RuBisCO
(1) 159 and 0.3 mm Hg
142. Given below are pairs of animals with their
(2) 90 and 20 mm Hg
corresponding respiratory organ
(3) 40 and 45 mm Hg
(a) Cockroach - Tracheal system
(4) 104 and 40 mm Hg
(b) Earthworm - Book gills
148. During deep sleep, partial blockage of upper
(c) Dolphin - Gills respiratory tract may cause
(d) Scorpion - Book lungs (1) Hicupps
The correct pair(s) are (2) Asthma
(1) (a) and (b) (3) Snoring
(2) (a), (c) and (d) (4) Emphysema
(3) (a) and (d) 149. Which of the following lung capacities cannot be
(4) (b) and (c) measured by simple spirometer?
143. Vital capacity is represented by (1) FRC (2) VC
(1) TV + ERV (3) EC (4) IC
(2) ERV + TV + IRV 150. Trachea divides at the level of 5th thoracic
vertebra into
(3) ERV + RV
(1) Primary bronchi
(4) RV + ERV + TV + IRV
(2) Secondary bronchi
144. Read the given statements in context of humans.
(3) Tertiary bronchi
(a) The lungs are situated in the thoracic
chamber which is an anatomically air tight (4) Terminal bronchiole
chamber. 151. Select the incorrectly matched pair.
(b) The anatomical setup of lungs in thorax is (1) Additional volume of air, Inspiratory
such that any change in the volume of the a person can inspire by reserve
thoracic cavity will be reflected in the lung a forcible inspiration volume
cavity.
(2) Additional volume of air, Expiratory
(1) Only statement (a) is correct
a person can expire by reserve
(2) Only statement (b) is correct a forcible expiration volume
(3) Both statements are correct (3) Volume of air that will Residual
(4) Both statements are incorrect remain in the lungs after volume
145. Select the correct statement with reference to a normal expiration
normal breathing in humans. (4) Volume of air inspired or Tidal volume
(1) Inspiration is an active process whereas expired during a normal
expiration is passive. respiration
(2) Inspiration is a passive process whereas 152. Tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume is
expiration is active. 500 ml and 3000 ml respectively. What will be the
(3) Both inspiration and expiration are active inspiratory capacity if the residual volume is
processes 1200 ml?
(4) Both inspiration and expiration are passive (1) 3000 ml (2) 3500 ml
processes (3) 1500 ml (4) 4600 ml

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Regular Medical-2021 Fortnightly Test-4 (RMG1_Code-A1)

153. Which of the following is the most common 159. What would be the stroke volume of a person if
feature of occupational respiratory disorders? the cardiac output is 5 L and the heart rate is
(1) Collapsing of alveoli 50 beats per minute?
(1) 50 ml (2) 100 ml
(2) Fibrosis of lungs
(3) 70 ml (4) 140 ml
(3) Difficulty in breathing causing wheezing
160. Match column I with column II.
(4) Fibrosis of trachea
Column I Column II
154. The maximum volume of air a person can
a. T-wave (i) Depolarisation of
breathe in after a forced expiration is
auricles
(1) 3500-4500 ml
b. P-wave (ii) Repolarisation of
(2) 5800-6000 ml ventricles
(3) 3000-3500 ml c. QRS-wave (iii) End of ventricular
(4) 1500-1600 ml systole
155. How much CO2 is transported by 100 ml of d. End of T-wave (iv) Depolarisation of
plasma in case of deoxygenated blood? ventricles
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(1) 97%
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) 77%
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) 7%
(4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(4) 23%
161. How many of the following feature(s) can be
156. Olfactory epithelium often called Schneiderian related to basophils?
membrane is associated with which part of
respiratory tract in man? Roughly ‘S’-shaped nucleus, most abundant
blood cells, serotonin granules, involved in
(1) Trachea inflammatory reactions
(2) Nasal cavity
(1) One
(3) Bronchus
(2) Two
(4) Terminal bronchioles (3) Three
157. How many of the below mentioned structures are (4) Four
the components of human respiratory system?
162. A person who is O– can receive blood from a
Larynx, syrinx, bronchi, bronchiole, due to b in the acceptor.
tracheoles, nasopharynx
(a) (b)
(1) Four
(1) AB +
Presence of Rh antigen
(2) Three (2) O+ Presence of Rh antigen
(3) Two (3) AB –
Absence of Rh antigen
(4) Five (4) O –
Absence of Rh antigen
158. Which of the following is the correct comparison 163. Which of the following type of formed elements
between HbA and HbF are obtained from megakaryocytes?
(1) Monocytes
HbA HbF
(2) Erythrocytes
(1) Has more affinity Has less affinity (3) Thrombocytes
with oxygen with oxygen
(4) Leucocytes
(2) Has four protein Has four protein 164. ‘‘Heart does not pump blood effectively enough to
subunits subunits meet the needs of the body’’. This above
(3) Loosely binds with Tightly binds with statement best defines
B.P.G. B.P.G (1) Heart attack
(2) Cardiac arrest
(4) Has α 2 γ 2 chain in Has α 2β2 chain in
(3) Heart failure
globin part globin part
(4) Coronary artery disease

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Fortnightly Test-4 (RMG1_Code-A1) Regular Medical-2021
165. All of the following statements are correct except 171. The period of isovolumetric contraction of
(1) Smaller is the organism, higher is the ventricle is immediately followed by
metabolic rate (1) Closure of semilunar valves and opening of
(2) Adrenal medullary hormones increase the AV-valves
cardiac output (2) Opening of semilunar valves
(3) High blood pressure leads to heart diseases (3) Auricular systole
and also affects vital organs like brain and (4) Slow filling of ventricles
kidney
172. Mitral valve prevents the backflow of blood from
(4) Cardiac muscle fibres in humans are
(1) Right ventricle to right auricle
autoexcitable and neurogenic
(2) Right auricle into precaval
166. If the heart of a person is beating with the rate of
75 times per minute and stroke volume (3) Right auricle into postcaval
is 70 ml, then calculate the cardiac output (4) Left ventricle to left atrium
[in litre / min] 173. What is the time duration between the closure of
(1) 5.25 AV-valve and the closure of semilunar valve?
(2) 0.52 (1) 0.3 second
(3) 52.5 (2) 0.5 second
(4) 0.052 (3) 0.4 second
167. Single circulation and venous heart is present in (4) 0.8 second
most 174. All of the following blood vessels are guarded by
(1) Reptiles valves to prevent backflow of blood except
(2) Fishes (1) Systemic aorta
(3) Birds (2) Superior vena cava
(4) Mammals (3) Pulmonary artery
168. In human heart, a thick muscular wall is present (4) Coronary sinus
in/as 175. Select the mismatch w.r.t. a cardiac cycle in
(1) Interatrial septum man.
(2) Interventricular septum (1) Duration of a cardiac cycle : 0.8 second
(3) Left atrioventricular septum (2) Stroke volume : Approximately 70 ml of
(4) Right atrioventricular septum blood by one ventricle/cycle
169. Consider the following statements and choose (3) Second heart sound : Closure of semilunar
the correct option in context of human heart. valves
A. The nodal musculature has the ability to (4) First heart sound : Blood has been pumped
generate action potentials without any
out of the heart
external stimuli.
176. Which of the following blood vessel has least
B. Ventricular systole increases the ventricular
blood pressure?
pressure causing the closure of tricuspid and
bicuspid valves. (1) Pulmonary artery (2) Aorta
(1) Both A and B are correct (3) Renal vein (4) Arteriole
(2) Both A and B are incorrect 177. Which of the following part of human brain has
cardiovascular centers for regulation
(3) Only A is correct
(1) Spinal cord
(4) Only B is correct
(2) Medulla oblongata
170. Which of the following is a special system of
blood vessels that is present in our body (3) Cerebrum
exclusively for the circulation of blood to and from (4) Cerebellum
the cardiac musculature? 178. Substance in plasma not involved in clotting but
(1) Hepatic portal system involved in defense mechanisms of the body
(2) Hypophyseal portal system is/are
(3) Lymphatic system (1) Albumin (2) Erythrocytes
(4) Coronary circulation (3) Fibrinogen (4) Globulins

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Regular Medical-2021 Fortnightly Test-4 (RMG1_Code-A1)

179. Layer of cells/fibres common to all types of blood 180. Tunica media is very thick in the wall of
vessels in man is
(1) Vein
(1) Tunica media
(2) Capillary
(2) Tunica intima
(3) Artery
(3) Tunica externa
(4) Tunica adventitia (4) Lymph vessel

  

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