Professional Documents
Culture Documents
a. Shareholders
b. Creditors
c. Managers
d. Regulatory agencies
a. Creditor
b Department manager
c. Controller
d. Treasurer
a. Service entities
b. Manufacturing entities
d. All of
accounting convention.
a. Convention of conservatism
c. Convention of materiality
d. Convention of consistency
5. The work of factory employees that can be physically associated with converting raw
b. Indirect materials
c. Indirect labour
d. Direct labour
a. Cost
b. Financial
c. Management
d. All
d. None of these
8. Which type of asset class includes those assets which have only definite use and
a. Fixed asset
b. Current asset
c. Fictitious asset
d. Wasting asset
9. An accounting that deals with the accounting and reporting of information to management
a. Financial accounting
b. Management accounting
c. Cost accounting
d. Real Accounting
d. None of these
a. Debtors account
c. Sales account
d. Creditors account
13. Cost of goods sold= opening stock+ net purchases+ expenses on Purchases – sales
a. opening stock
b. net purchases
c. expenses on Purchases
d. sales
a. Customers account
b. Sales return account
c. Goods account
d. Purchase account
a. Cash account
b. Mahesh Account
c. Sales account
d. Purchase account
a. Landlords account
b. Rent account
c. Cash account
d. Expense account
a. Discount account
b. Customer’s account
c. Sales account
d. Cash account
Stock = …………………
a. Sales, Purchases
a. Historical
b. Forward looking
c. Analytical
d. Social
a. Statutory requirements
c. Labour unrest
a. Only to workers
b. Only to government
c. Only to consumers
a. Fixed cost
b. Variable cost
a. Cost unit
b. Cost centre
c. Cost object
d. Cost estimation
a. Prime cost
b. Factory overhead
c. Selling overhead
d. Office overhead
28. ………………cost refers to those cost which have already been incurred and cannot be
a. Opportunity cost
b. Sunk Cost
c. Incremental cost
d. Decremental cost
29. Amortization of intangible Asset Such as Goodwill which has indefinite life is an example
of accounting concept
a. Conservatism Concept
b. Continuity Concept
c. Realisation Concept
d. Measurement Concept
a. Loan
b. Unsecured Loan
c. Secured Loan
d. Advance by Manager & director
31. ………………cost will still be incurred although a plant is shut down temporarily.
b. Advertising
c. Depreciation
d. Carriage
a. Practicability
b. Subjectivity
c. Convenience in recording
34. The practice of appending notes regarding contingent liabilities in accounting statements
is in pursuance to:
a. Convention of consistency
c. Convention of conservatism
d. Convention of disclosure
a. Advertisement account
b. Sales account
c. Purchase account
39. Income tax paid by a sole proprietor on his business income should be:
40. All direct & indirect expenses related to business are charged:
b. Trading account
41. According to schedule VI Companies Act which item is not shown on Asset side of
Balance sheet
a. Investment
c. Provision
d. Lease Holds
42. Trade Payables are recorded in…………….
c. P & L a/c
43. Investment of X company profit in shares of other company PQR Pvt. ltd are recorded
in……………….
a. Remains fixed
c. Journal
d. Both a and b
e. All of a, b, c above
a. Increases assets
c. Decreases assets
d. Increases liability
a. Machinery
b. Building
c. Cash
d. Creditor
53. Cost of asset should always be equal to the cost of the liabilities. This concept is
a. Double Entry Bookkeeping
b. Matching Concept
c. Consistency
a. Building
b. Bank Balance
c. Plant Patents
d. Goodwill
a. Realization Concept
b. Matching Concept
c. Cost Concept
a. Consistency concept
b. Conservatism concept
d. Cost Concept
a. Current assets
b. Current liabilities
c. Fixed asset
d. Fixed liability
b. A liability
59. Reserve for doubtful debts appearing in the trial balance should be:
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
a. Dual concept
b. Divider concept
c. Entity concept
d. Landlord concept
61. According to which concept business is treated as a unit apart from owner
b. Organisational culture
c. Failure of management
a. Nominal Capital
c. Issues capital
d. None of these
63. True & fair profit and loss a/c of a company know by
65. Under which concept it is assumed that the enterprises has neither the intention nor the
d. None of these
66. Making the provision for doubtful debts and discount on debtors in anticipation of actual
a. Conservatism concept
b. Continuity concept
c. Realization concept
d. All of these
a. Projected data
c. Historic data
b. Art
c. Science
d. Art or Science
a. Original
b. Duplicate
c. Personal
d. Nominal
a. Rules of Personal
b. Rules of Real
c. Rules of Nominal
d. All of these
72. Which of the following account balance will be shown on debit side of Trial Balance?
a. Outstanding expenses
b. Cash a/c
d. creditors
73. The reduction in the value of the fixed assets which can arise due to time factor is
a. Discount
b. Depreciation
c. Reduction
d. None of these
c. Owner’s fund
d. All of these
a. Current asset
b. Current liability
d. None of these
a. Cost
b. Net profit
c. Gross profit
d. Selling price
a. Management only
b. Government only
c. Investor only
d. All of these
a. Provision
c. Current Liabilities
d. Other Liabilities
81. Proposed dividends" is shown in the Balance Sheet of a company under the head:
a. Provision
b. Reserves and Surplus
c. Current Liabilities
d. Other Liabilities
82. Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of:
a. Separate entity
b. Going concern
c. Consistency
d. Time period
a. Periodicity concept
b. Materiality Principle
c. Entity Concept
d. Consistency concept
84. Which financial statement represents the accounting equation ASSETS = LIABILITIES +
OWNER'S EQUITY
a. Income Statement
c. Balance Sheet
b. loan to Mr.y
d. None of these
86. Which of the following are correct? Account to be debited Account to be credited
Bought office wooden table for cash office wooden table cash
b. (iii)(iv)(ii)
c. (i)(iii)(iv) Wide
d. (i)(iv)
a. Accrual concept
b. Cost concept
c. Continuity concept
88. Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of:
a. Separate entity
b. Going concern
c. Consistency
d. Time period
b. It is a special account
a. Trading a/c
b. Balance sheet
d. Trial balance.
92. The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following types of businesses?
a. Sole proprietorship
b. Corporation
c. Partnership
d. All of them
93. Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a business is divided for
a. Fiscal year
b. Calendar year
c. Accounting period
d. Accrual period
a. Personal a/c
b. Impersonal a/c
c. Real a/c
d. Nominal a/c
a. Disclosure of loss
b. Disclosure of profit
97. Which of the following is not regarded as the fundamental accounting concept?
d. Correction concept
98. Using "lower of cost and net realisable value(Market Value)" for the purpose of inventory
d. Matching concept
99. The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following types of businesses?
a. Sole proprietorship
b. Corporation
c. Partnership
d. All of them
100.The revenue recognition principal dictates that all types of incomes should be recorded or
recognized when
a. Cash is received
101. The allocation of owner's private expenses to his/her business violates which of the
following?
a. Accurual concept
b. Matching concept
d. Consistency concept
103. Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a business is divided for
a. Fiscal year
b. Calendar year
c. Accounting period
d. Accrual period
104. Showing purchased office equipment’s in financial statements is the application of which
accounting concept?
b. Materiality
c. Prudence
d. Matching concept
105. Information about an item is ________ if its omission or misstatement might influence the
a. Concrete
b. Complete
c. Immaterial
d. Material
106. "Financial information should be neutral and bias free" is the dictation of which one of the
following?
a. Completeness concept
c. Objectivity Concept
d. Duality Concept
107. Accounting principles are divided into two types. These are ---
a. Accounting Concepts
b. Accounting Conventions
c. Accounting Standards
d. Accounting Concepts &Accounting Conventions
108. Which of the following is not related with Money Measurement Concept?
b. The transactions which cannot be expressed in money, will not be recorded in accounting books
d. None of These
109. Which of the following equation is related with Dual Aspect Concept?
110. If the total assets of the company amount to Rs 1,50,000 and owner’s equity is Rs.
a. Rs 70,000
b. Rs 80,000
c. Rs 90,000
d. Rs 1,00,000
a. Revenue Profit
b. Capital Profit 18
c. Loss
d. None of these
a. Profit
b. Assets
c. Company
d. Books of A/c
a. Depreciation
b. Wages
c. Salary
d. Stationary
a. Assets
b. Liabilities
c. Capital
d. All of these
a. Patents
b. Trade Marks
c. Copyright
d. Land
c. Controlling function
d. None of these
a. Practicability
b. Subjectivity
c. Convenience in recording
d. None of these
122. The system of recording transaction based on dual aspect concept is called
d. None of these
123. The practice of appending notes regarding contingent liabilities in accounting statement is
pursuant of
a. Convention of consistency
c. Convention of conservatism
d. Convention of disclosure
124. According to the money measurement concept the following will be recorded in the books
c. Overstatement of capital
d. None of these
c. Providing depreciation
d. None of these
127. The amount brought in by the proprietor in the business should be credited to
a. Cash a/c
b. Capital a/c
c. Drawing a/c
d. Bank a/c
b. Salaries a/c
c. Cash a/c
d. Bank a/c
a. Customer a/c
c. Goods a/c
a. Cash a/c
b. Mahesh a/c
c. Sales a/c
d. Sales return a/c
b. Rent a/c
c. Cash a/c
d. Tenant a/c
a. Discount a/c
b. Customer a/c
c. Sales a/c
d. None of these
a. Debtors Accounts
c. Sales a/c
d. None of these
accounting concept
a. Convention of conservatism
c. Convention of consistency
d. None of these
136. Accountant should follow the same principles of accounting continuously is as per which
accounting convention
a. Convention of conservatism
b. Convention of full disclosure
c. Convention of consistency
d. None of these
137. Accounting principles are …………………………. which are adopted by the accountant
d. None of these
138. The convention of disclosure implies that all material information should be
c. Not disclosed
d. None of these
a. Single aspect
b. Dual aspect
c. Triple aspect
d. None of these
140. Custom and traditions which guide the accountant while preparing the accounting
Statements
a. Accounting convention
b. Accounting concepts
c. Accounting principles
d. None of these
141. Rules of action or conduct adopted by the accountants universally while recording
accounting transaction
a. Accounting convention
b. Accounting concepts
c. Accounting principles
d. None of these
142. Basic assumptions or conditions upon which the science of accounting is based.
a. Accounting convention
b. Accounting concepts
c. Accounting principles
d. None of these.
143. A system in which accounting entries are made on the basis of amounts having become
a. Cash concept
b. Accrual concept
c. Matching concept
d. On-going concept
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
145. Debit what come in Credit what goes out rule for
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
146. Debit all expenses and losses Credit all gains and income.
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
147. A book containing a chronological record of business transaction & original record
a. Journal
b. Ledger
c. Trial balance
d. None of these
148. Transferring the debit and credit item from the journal to the respective accounts is called
a. Compound Journal
b. Ledger
c. Trial balance
d. None of these
a. Compound Journal
b. Ledger
c. Trial balance
d. None of these
150. The transferring of debit and credit items from journal to the respective accounts in the
ledger is called as
a. Ledger
b. Posting
c. Forward journal
d. None of these
151. Which of the following items would not fall under the definition of an asset?
a. Land
b. Machine
c. Cash
d. Owner Equity
152. Which one of the following items would fall under the definition of a liability
a. Cash
b. Debtor
c. Owner’s equity
d. None of these
c. The accounting equation shows how much of your assets belong to the owner, and how
154. business has the following items in it: Land Rs.1,000,000 Machinery Rs.20,000 Cash
Rs.10,000 Debt Rs.0 Owner’s equity ? What is the valve of owner’s equity?
a. Rs.1020000
b. Rs.1010000
c. Rs.1030000
155. A business has the following items in it: Owners’ equity Rs.6,00,000 Liabilities
a. 600,000
b. 1,400,000
c. 2,000,000
d. None of these
156. A business has the following items in it: Land Rs.1, 500,000 Machinery Rs.80, 000
Cash Rs.20, 000 Owners equity Rs.900, 000 Loan Rs.500, 000 Creditors?
a. Rs.200, 000
b. Rs.700, 000
c. Rs.800, 000
d. Rs1, 100,000
157. A business has following items in itLand ? Vehicles Rs.600,000 Debtors Rs. 1,20,000
a. 000,000
b. 1,550,000
c. 800,000
d. None of these
158. Which of the following equations properly represents a derivation of the fundamental
accounting equation? a) Assets + liabilities = Owner Equity b) Asset = Owner Equity c) Cash =
a. Only (a)
c. All (a)(b)(c)(d)
d. None of these
159. Retained earnings will change over time because of several factors. Which of the
a. Net Loss
b. Net income
c. Dividend
a. Accounts payable
b. Accounts receivable
c. Sales
d. Cash
162. XYZltd.has provided the following information about its balance sheet: Cash Rs.100
Accounts Receivable Rs.500 Stock holder equity Rs.700 Accounts Payable Rs.200
Bank Loan Rs.1,000. Based on the information provided, how much are XYZ ltd.Total
liabilities?
a. Rs.200
b. Rs.1900
c. Rs.1200
d. Rs.1700
163. The full disclosure principle, as adopted by the accounting profession, is best described by
informed reader
a. Goodwill
b. Sales
c. Accounts Receivable
d. None of theses
166. The Cash account on the balance sheet should not include which of the following items?
b. Currency
c. Money orders
d. Deposits in transit
168. The following comments all relate to the recording process. Which of these statements is
correct?
b. The general ledger is posted from transactions recorded in the general journal.
c. The trial balance provides the primary source document for recording transactions into
d. Transposition is the transfer of information from the general journal to the general
ledger.
169. The following comments each relate to the recording of journal entries. Which statement
is true?
c. The chart of accounts reveals the amount to debit and credit to the affected accounts.
debit/credit format.
171. Which of the following errors will be disclosed in the preparation of a trial balance?
d. Recording the wrong amount for a transaction to both the account debited and the
account credited.
172. The basic sequence in the accounting process can best be described as:
a. Current assets
b. Investments
d. Intangible assets
d. None of these
a. Planning
b. Decision making
c. Control
d. All of these
177. Which of the following statements about differences between financial and managerial
accounting is incorrect?
departments.
c. Managerial accounting pertains to both past and future items; financial accounting
d. All of these
179. Manufacturing costs are also known as product costs. Which of the following best
180. A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, plus long
a. Variable cost
c. Direct cost
d. Thoughts of accountant
a. Certain assumptions
d. Practice experience
c. Owners
a. Market values
d. Asset = liability
a. Asset
b. Liability
c. Accounts
a. Estimates of facets
b. Anticipated facts
c. recorded facts
a. Appropriation of profits
b. Estimates of profits
c. Estimates of costs
a. Management
b. Creditors
c. Bankers
a. Sundry creditors
b. Acceptances
c. Unclaimed dividend
a. Determination of cost
b. Determination of profit
c. Determination of price
a. Actual figures
b. Budgeted figures
c. Standard figures
d. Management Figure
a. 1910
b. 1939
c. 1950
d. 1960
a. Compulsory
b. Optional
c. Obligation
d. Statutory requirement
a. Trading account
c. Balance sheet
a. Fixed asset
b. Investment
c. Current asset
d. Owners equity.
a. Financial
b. Economic
c. Non financial
d. None of these.
199. Which items does not come under the balance sheet
a. sales
b. Share capital
c. Reserves and surplus
d. Unsecured loan
d. Cannot be classified
a. Balance Sheet
b. Director’s Report
d. Chairman’s report
a. M. S. Gosav
b. Wheldon
c. LucoPacioli
d. R. N. Carter
a. Analytical
b. Clerical
c. Executive
d. Non- executive
205. _____________ system records only actual cash receipts and payments
a. Cash basis
b. Accrual basis
c. Mercantile basis
206. Which of the following is true for: -“In accounts recording is done of_ _ _ _ _”
c. Both
a. Capital
b. Revenue
c. Direct
d. Non- cash
a) Nominal account
b) Real Account
a) Balance sheet
b) Trial Balance
c) Ledger
d) Journal
a. cash account
b. capital account
c. drawings account
d. creditors account
b. Salaries account
c. Cash account
d. Outstanding expenses
212. All costs other than direct materials cost, direct labour cost and direct expenses are known
as:
b. Overhead
d. Indirect expenses
213. A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, plus long distance
a. Variable cost
c. Direct cost
d. All of these
215. The work of factory employees that can be physically associated with converting raw
a. Manufacturing overhead
b. Indirect materials
c. Indirect labour
d. Direct labour
216. Which one of the following would not be classified as manufacturing overhead?
a. Indirect labour
b. Direct materials
d. Indirect materials
218. A manufacturing process requires small amounts of glue. The glue used in the process is
classified as
a. A prime cost
b. An indirect material
c. A direct material
d. Miscellaneous expense
a. Miscellaneous expense
b. Direct materials
c. Indirect materials
d. Immaterial items
a. Direct labour
b. Direct materials
c. Manufacturing overhead
d. Advertising
b. Direct Wages
c. Direct Expenses
d. Prime Cost
222. Aggregate of prime cost and Factory overhead is known as:
a. Work on cost
b. Work Cost
c. Cost of Production
d. Direct Cost
a. Prime Cost
b. Factory Overhead
c. Selling overhead
d. Office overhead
224. Aggregate of cost of goods sold and selling and distribution overheads is known as:
a. Total Cost
b. Office Cost
c. Cost of sales
d. Selling overhead
d. future costs
227. Calculate the prime cost from the following information: Direct material purchased: Rs.
1,00,000 Direct material consumed: Rs. 90,000 Direct labour: Rs. 60,000 Direct expenses: Rs.
a. Rs. 1,80,000
b. Rs. 2,00,000
c. Rs. 1,70,000
d. Rs. 2,10,000
Answers
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32, (c) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (e) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (d)
51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (e) 59. (e) 60. (a)
61. (c) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (b) 66. (c) 67. (a) 68. (c) 69. (c) 70. (b)
71. (b) 72. (b) 73. (e) 74. (d) 75. (d) 76. (e) 77. (a) 78. (a) 79. (d) 80. (d)
81. (a) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (c) 85. (a) 86. (d) 87. (d) 88. (b) 89. (d) 90. (a)
91. (c) 92. (d) 93. (c) 94. (d) 95. (b) 96. (c) 97. (d) 98. (c) 99. (d) 100. (c)
101.(c) 102.(a) 103.(c) 104.(d) 105.(b) 106.(c) 107.(d) 108.(b) 109.(d) 110.(b)
111.(b) 112.(a) 113.(a) 114.(d) 115.(b) 116.(d) 117.(c) 118.(b) 119.(a) 120.(a)
121.(a) 122.(b) 123.(c) 124.(c) 125.(a) 126.(b) 127.(b) 128.(b) 129.(b) 130.(a)
131.(c) 132.(c) 133.(a) 134.(a) 135.(a) 136.(c) 137.(a) 138.(a) 139.(b) 140.(c)
141.(c) 142.(b) 143.(b) 144.(b) 145.(a) 146.(c) 147.(a) 148.(b) 149.(c) 150.(b)
151.(d) 152.(c) 153.(d) 154.(c) 155.(c) 156.(a) 157.(c) 158.(d) 159.(b) 160.(d)
161.(c) 162.(b) 163.(d) 164.(d) 165.(b) 166.(a) 167.(c) 168.(b) 169.(d) 170.(d)
171.(c) 172.(d) 173.(a) 174.() 175.(b) 176.(c) 177.(d) 178.(a) 179.(d) 180.(c)
181.(d) 182.(b) 183.(b) 184.(a) 185.(b) 186.(c) 187.(c) 188.(a) 189.(d) 190.(d)
191.(b) 192.(a) 193.(c) 194.(c) 195.(b) 196.(d) 197.(d) 198.(a) 199.(a) 200.(c)
201.(a) 202.(c) 203.(b) 204.(b) 205.(a) 206.(a) 207.(b) 208.(d) 209.(c) 210.(b)
211.(b) 212.(b) 213.(d) 214.(d) 215.(d) 216.(b) 217.(d) 218.(b) 219.(c) 220.(a)
https://t.me/sppuwheebox
Managerial Accounting (IMP)
A) Period cost
B) Prime cost
C) Overhead cost
D) Variable cost
2. Of the following____: provides strategic, decision based financial and operative information to the
board of directors.
A) Management Accountant
B) Cost Accountant
C) Financial Accountant
D) Accounts Clerk
3. The difference between fixed and Variable cost has a special significance in the preparation of____?
A) Flexible Budget
B) Master Budget
C) Cash Budget
D) Sales Budget
4. If fixed costs decrease while the variable cost per unit remains constant, the new contribution margin in
relation to the old contribution margin will be____?
A) Lower
B) Unchanged
C) Higher
D) Indeterminate
A) A technique of costing
B) Method of costing
C) A system of costing
D) Predict profits
7. A Budget which is designed to remain unchanged in respect of the level of activity actually attained is
called_____?
A) Flexible Budget
B) Cash Budget
C) Fixed Budget
D) Master Budget
8. Management Accounting communicates relevant information to the management to perform their
function of___?
A) Decision Making
B) Planning
C) Controlling
A) Budgeted Ratio
B) Capacity Ratio
C) Activity Ratio
D) Efficiency Ratio
A) Reduces contribution
A) Nothing
B) Quantitative information
C) Qualitative information
D) both quantitative and qualitative information
A) Control
B) Generate losses
C) Increase losses
D) Dissolve
A) Soundness of business
B) Over production
C) Under production
D) Over capitalization
14. Amount of sales Rs. 50000 Variable cost are Rs. 30000 find P/V ratio ?
A) 40 percentage
B) 30 percentage
C) 50 percentage
D) 60 percentage
15. An estimate made about future production, sales and financial requirements in the specific period is
called as___?
A) Forecasting
B) Planning
C) Budgeting
D) Decision making
16. Accounting designed to serve management in decision making process is called as___?
A) Cost accounting
B) Financial accounting
C) Management accounting
D) Trusteeship accounting
B) Fixed assets
C) Creditors
D) Expenses
A) Management accounting
B) Cost accounting
C) Financial accounting
D) Responsibility accounting
D) Interpretation of date
A) Insufficient advertising
C) Government Policy
A) Variable costing
B) Fixed costing
C) Standard costing
C) Safety operation
D) Marginal costs
23. The basic function of accounting is to_____?
A) Estimate
B) Future plan
D) Budget
25. The factors whose influence should be measured before preparing Budget is called as___?
A) Important factor
B) Influential factor
C) Key factor
D) Economic factor
A) Cashier
B) Sales manager
C) Production manager
D) Chief Accountant
D) None of these
A) Distribution
B) Functional
C) Production
D) Selling
A) Sales
B) Variable costs
C) Fixed cost
D) Profit
35. Under marginal costing method, cost per unit ascertained only on the basis of____?
A) Fixed cost
B) Variable cost
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A. overproduction.
B. overcapitalization.
D. undercapitalization.
ANSWER: C
103. Angle of incidence is ____.
A. the angle between the sales line and the total cost line.
ANSWER: A
ANSWER: B
105. The capital of the company is divided into two categories ——— and fluctuating capital.
A. fixed
B. equity
C. preference
D. variable
ANSWER: A
106. 1f` fixed costs decrease while variable cost per unit remains constant, the new B.E.P in relation to
the old B.E.P will be ___.
A. lower.
B. higher.
C. unchanged.
D. indeterminate.
ANSWER: B
107. If fixed costs decrease while the variable cost per unit remains constant, the new contribution margin
in relation to the old contribution margin will be __.
A. lower.
B. unchanged.
C. higher.
D. indeterminate.
ANSWER: B
108. Selling price per unit Rs. 10; Variable cost Rs. 8 per unit; Fixed cost Rs. 20,000; Break-even
production
in units ___.
A. 10,000.
B. 16,300.
C. 2,000.
D. 2,500.
ANSWER: A
109. Sales Rs. 25,000; Variable cost Rs. 8,000; Fixed cost Rs. 5,000; Break-even sales in value ____.
A. Rs. 7,936.
B. Rs. 7,353.
C. Rs. 8,333.
D. Rs. 9,090.
ANSWER: B
110. Fixed cost Rs. 80,000; Variable cost Rs. 2 per unit; Selling price_Rs. 10 per unit; Turnover required
for a
A. Rs. 1,75,000.
B. Rs. 1,17,400.
C. Rs. .57,000.
D. Rs. 1,86,667.
ANSWER: A
111. Sales Rs. 25,000; Variable cost Rs. 15,000; Fixed cost Rs .4,000; P/V Ratio is __.
A. 40 percent
B. 80 percent
C. 15 percent
D. 30 percent
ANSWER: A
112. Sales Rs. 50,000; Variable cost Rs. 30,000; Net profit Rs. 6,000; fixed cost is____.
A. Rs. I0,000.
B. Rs.l4,000.
C. Rs. 12,000.
D. Rs. 8,000.
ANSWER: B
113. Actual sales Rs .4,00,000; Break-even sales Rs. 2,50,000; Margin of Safety in percentage is___.
A. 33.3 percent
B. 66.67 percent
C. 37.5 percent
D. 76.33 percent
ANSWER: C
114. P/V Ratio 50%; Variable cost of the produce Rs. 25; Selling price is ____.
A. Rs. 50.
B. Rs. 40.
C. Rs. 30.
D. Rs. 55.
ANSWER: A
115. Fixed cost Rs. 2,00,000; Sales Rs. 8,00,000; P/V Ratio 30%; the amount of’ profit is____.
A. Rs. 50,000.
B. Rs. 40,000.
C. Rs. 35,000.
D. Rs. 45,000.
ANSWER: B
116. P/V Ratio is 25% and Margin of Safety is Rs; 3,00,000, the amount of profit is___.
A. Rs. 1,00,000.
B. Rs. 80,000.
C. Rs. 75,000.
D. Rs. 60,000.
ANSWER: C
117. Total sales Rs. 20,00,000; Fixed expenses Rs. 4,00,000; P/V Ratio 40 percent Break-even capacity in
percentage is___.
A. 40
B. 60
C. 50
D. 45
ANSWER: C
118. Break-even point occurs at 40 percent of total capacity, margin of safety will be ___ percent.
A. 40
B. 60
C. 80
D. 85
ANSWER: B
119. If the P/V Ratio of a product is 30 percent and selling price is Rs. 25 per unit, the marginal cost of
the product would be _____.
A. Rs.18.75.
B. Rs.16.
C. Rs. 15.
D. Rs.20.
ANSWER: A
A. historical costing.
B. real costing.
C. marginal costing.
D. real costing.
ANSWER: A
A. cost less
B. cost more.
C. variable cost.
D. market price.
ANSWER: C
A. production.
B. sales.
C. marketing.
D. advertising.
ANSWER: A
A. production.
B. sales.
C. marketing.
D. advertising.
ANSWER: B
A. fixed cost.
B. semi-variable cost.
C. contribution.
D. break-even point.
ANSWER: C
A. fixed cost.
B. semi-variable cost.
C. contribution.
D. break-even point.
ANSWER: C
A. BEP
B. semi-variable cost.
C. margin of safety.
D. contribution.
ANSWER: D
A. high profitability.
B. low profitability.
C. high loss.
D. break even.
ANSWER: A
B. Margin of safety.
C. Break-even point.
D. Variable cost.
ANSWER: C
A. Break-even point.
B. Margin of safety.
C. Contribution.
D. Variable cost.
ANSWER: B
A. cost reduction.
B. cost control.
C. budgeting.
D. standard costing.
ANSWER: B
A. post-mortem analysis.
B. substitute of management.
C. an aid to management.
D. calculation.
ANSWER: C
A. budget.
B. direct cost.
C. unit cost.
D. cost sheet.
ANSWER: A
A. functional budget.
B. expenditure budget.
C. master budget.
D. flexible budget.
ANSWER: A
134. The budget which usually takes the form of budgeted profit and loss account and balance sheet is
known as ___.
A. flexible budget.
B. master budget.
C. cash budget.
D. purchase budget.
ANSWER: B
A. Fixed budget.
B. Cash budget.
C. Sales budget.
ANSWER: D
136. The fixed and variable cost classification has a special significance in the preparation of __.
A. capital budget.
B. cash budget.
C. master budget.
D. flexible budget.
ANSWER: D
A. master budget.
B. cash budget.
D. none of these.
ANSWER: C
138. Preparing budget figures for different levels of activity within a range under flexible budgeting
is_____.
A. formula method.
B. multi-activity method.
D. none of these.
ANSWER: B
139. What type of budget is designed to take into account forecast change in costs, prices, etc?
A. master budget.
B. rolling budget.
C. flexible budget.
D. functional budget.
ANSWER: B
ANSWER: D
B. organizing.
C. budgeting.
D. controlling.
ANSWER: C
A. planning.
B. organizing.
C. budgeting.
D. controlling.
ANSWER: C
A. planning.
B. organizing.
C. budgeting.
D. control.
ANSWER: D
144. Budget designed to remain constant irrespective of the level of activity attained is called ____.
A. fixed budget.
B. flexible budget
C. sales budget.
D. production budget.
ANSWER: A
A. 1 year.
B. 1-3 years
C. 1-5 years.
D. 5-10 years.
ANSWER: D
146. The budget prepared for various levels of activity by classification of expenditure under fixed,
variable and semi-fixed categories is ____.
A. fixed budget.
B. flexible budget.
C. sales budget.
D. production budget.
ANSWER: B
147. Budget which shows the quantity of finished products to be sold and the price at which they are to be
sold is______.
A. fixed budget.
B. flexible budget.
C. sales budget.
D. production budget.
ANSWER: C
148. The budget which shows the budgeted quantity of output to be produced during a specific period
is_____.
A. fixed budget
B. flexible budget.
C. sales budget.
D. production budget.
ANSWER: D
A. sales budget.
B. production budget.
C. fixed budget.
D. flexible budget.
ANSWER: B
150. Budget of indirect costs in the form of indirect wages, indirect material and indirect expenses in the
factory is __.
D. master budget.
ANSWER: A
VIM101 Name : ______________________________________________________
Marks: 441 Roll No : ______________________________________________________
Duration: 20.0 Minutes Total : ______________________________________________________
Date : ______________________ Signature : ______________________
Q1) The main purpose of Cost Accounting is to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44690
1) assist management in decision making 2) maximise profits and minimise losses
3) comply norms issued by the Government of 4) prepare cost accounts in line with the
India from time to time accounting standards
Explanation:
Q2) SoleTrade Organization Is Also Called As ______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44573
1) Individual Proprietorship. 2) Partnership.
3) Joint Stock Company. 4) CoOperative Society.
Explanation:
Q3) Prereceived income is written on: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44433
1) Liabilities 2) Assets
3) Credit 4) Debit
Explanation:
Q4) Only the significant events which affect the business must be recorded as per the Marks : 1.0
principle of Id: 44702
1) Separate Entity 2) Accrual
3) Materiality 4) Going Concern
Explanation:
Q5) Management accounting is................ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44507
1) Extension of financial accounting 2) Extension of Financial Management
3) Accounting of Management 4) Concerned with the provision of information to
people within the organisation to help them to
make better decisions.
Explanation:
Q6) Which of the following highlights the correct order of the stages in the accounting Marks : 1.0
cycle Id: 38724
1) Journalizing, final accounts, posting to the 2) Journalizing, posting to the ledger, trial
ledger and trial balance balance and final accounts
3) Posting to the ledger, trial balance, final 4) Posting to the ledger, journalizing, final
accounts and journalizing accounts and trial balance
Explanation:
Q7) In accounting an Economic event is referred to as: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44452
1) Exchange of money 2) Transaction
3) Bank statement 4) Cash
Explanation:
Q8) A second hand car is purchased for Rs. 10000 the amount of Rs. 1000 is spent on its Marks : 1.0
repairs Rs 500 is incurred to get the car registered in owner’s name and Rs. 1200 is Id: 44551
paid dealer’s commission. The amount debited to car account will be
1) 10000 2) 10500
3) 11500 4) 12700
Explanation:
Q9) Which of the following statements best describes a limited liability company? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44563
1) It is normally owned and managed by the same 2) It is normally a nonprofit making organization
persons
3) In law it is regarded as having a separate
existence from its owners
4) It is normally owned by just one person
Explanation:
Q10) The opening stock of company is Rs. 40,000 and closing stock is Rs. 50,000. If the Marks : 1.0
purchases during the year are Rs. 2,00,000 the cost of goods sold will be: Id: 44399
1) Rs. 2,10,000 2) Rs. 1,90,000
3) Rs. 2,00,000 4) Rs. 1,80,000
Explanation:
Q11) In which type of expenditure the organization receives return during the same period Marks : 1.0
they paid for? Id: 44569
1) Capital Expenditure 2) Revenue Expenditure
3) Deferred Revenue Expenditure 4) Both (b) and (c)
Explanation:
Q12) A company gave in its balance sheet an foot note a case has been filed for which Marks : 1.0
they may have to pay 10 lakhs as damages. This is called : Id: 44616
1) revenue expenditure 2) capital expenditure
3) contingent liability 4) future liability
Explanation:
Q13) Four Accounts are given : Marks : 1.0
Id: 44400
A) Machinery Account, B) Ram's Account, C) Purchases Account, D) Bank of
Maharashtra's Account.
Which of the given is/are personal Account?
1) Option A ONLY 2) Options A and B
3) Options A, B and C 4) Options B and D
Explanation:
Q14) Management Accounting involves _______for management decision making. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44428
1) preparation of Financial statements 2) Recording of Cost
3) analysis & Interpretation of Data 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q15) Debtors always show which balance Marks : 1.0
Id: 44497
1) Debit 2) Credit
3) Nominal 4) Real
Explanation:
Q16) Which of the following is one of the basic accounting principles? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44642
1) Profit concern 2) Going concern
3) Online concern 4) Own concern
Explanation:
Q17) Accounting standards are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44777
1) Basis for selection of accounting policy. 2) Set of broad accounting policies to be
followed by an entity.
3) Basis for establishing and managing an entity. 4) All of the above.
Explanation:
Q18) Trail balance is_____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44425
1) statement, records all balances of Ledger A/c 2) Records all the transactions
3) A/c, records all balances of Ledger A/c 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q19) What is important object of accounting ? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44432
1) To maintain record 2) Depiction of financial position
3) Make information available to various groups 4) All of three
and users
Explanation:
Q20) 'Business will always go on'' which principle describe this Marks : 1.0
Id: 44448
1) accounting period concept 2) conservatism concept
3) going concern concept 4) consistency principle
Explanation:
Q21) New provision for PBDD is 7000, old provision 3000, old bad debts 2000 amount Marks : 1.0
accounted in P&L A/c is Id: 44430
1) 12000 dr side 2) 12000 cr side
3) 6000 dr side 4) 2000 cr side
Explanation:
Q22) Closing stock was not taken on 31.3.2006 but only on 7.4.2006. Following Marks : 1.0
transactions had taken place during the period from 1.4.2006 to 7.4.2006. Sales Id: 44766
Rs.2,50,000, purchases Rs.1,50,000, stock on 7.4.2006 was Rs.1,80,000 and the rate of
gross profit on sales was 20%. Closing stock on 31.3.2006 will be
1) Rs.3,80,000. 2) Rs.4,00,000.
3) Rs.2,30,000. 4) Rs.1,50,000.
Explanation:
Q23) Which aspect of financial accounting assumes importance because of the limitation Marks : 1.0
of human memory. Id: 44470
1) Classification 2) Recording
3) Summarising 4) Interpretation
Explanation:
Q24) The full disclosure principle, as adopted by the accounting profession, is best Marks : 1.0
described by which of the following? Id: 44447
1) All information related to an entity's business 2) Information about each account balance
and operating objectives is required to be appearing in the financial statements is to be
disclosed in the financial statements. included in the notes to the financial
statements.
3) Enough information should be disclosed in the 4) Disclosure of any financial facts significant
financial statements so a person wishing to enough to influence the judgment of an
invest in the stock of the company can make a informed reader
profitable decision.
Explanation:
Q25) Closing entries are used to transfer the net income or net loss for the accounting Marks : 1.0
period to the ____. Id: 44621
1) Cash in Bank account 2) revenue account
3) expense accounts 4) capital account
Explanation:
Q26) The final accounts of a manufacturing company generally include the following Marks : 1.0
statements : Id: 44697
(i) Balance Sheet
(ii) Manufacturing Account
(iii) Profit and Loss Account
(iv) Trading Account
(v) Profit and Loss Appropriation Account
The correct sequence in which the statements are prepared is :
1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) 2) (ii), (iv), (iii), (v), (i)
3) (v), (ii), (iv), (iii), (i) 4) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii), (v)
Explanation:
Q27) Benefit of revenue expenses extends to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44729
1) 10 Years 2) 5 Years
3) One accounting year 4) As long as the business continues
Explanation:
Q28) Which of the following is an example of business liability? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44561
1) Building 2) Creditors
3) Cash 4) Plant & Machinery
Explanation:
Q29) Identify the correct statement Marks : 1.0
Id: 44645
1) Capital is equal to assets minus liabilities 2) Capital is equal to assets plus liabilities
3) Assets are equal to liabilities minus capital 4) Liabilities is equal to capital plus assets
Explanation:
Q30) The disclosure of all accounting procedures has to be done by company according Marks : 1.0
to which standards Id: 44515
1) AS1 2) AS2
3) AS7 4) AS10
Explanation:
Q31) In the absence of any provision in the partnership agreement, profits and losses are Marks : 1.0
shared Id: 44741
1) In the ratio of capitals. 2) Equally.
3) In the ratio of loans given by them to the 4) None of the above.
partnership firm.
Explanation:
Q32) Real Accounts means _____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44409
1) The accounts of individuals, firms, limited 2) The accounts of properties, assets or
companies, local authorities, associations with professionals of the businessman.
whom the businessman deals.
3) Accounts representing incomes and expenses
or profits and gains.
4) The accounts which relate to things other than
persons.
Explanation:
Q33) Which of the following is not an internal user of management information? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44466
1) Creditor 2) Department manager
3) Controller 4) Treasurer
Explanation:
Q34) Which is the key factor that an entrepreneur should focus on, in ensuring survival of Marks : 1.0
his enterprises? Id: 44667
1) Profits 2) Cash Flow
3) Margin 4) Market Share
Explanation:
Q35) Identify the external user of financial information or financial statements Marks : 1.0
Id: 38723
1) Management 2) CFO
3) Employee 4) investor
Explanation:
Q36) A change in accounting policy is justified Marks : 1.0
Id: 44434
1) To comply with accounting standards 2) To ensure more appropriate presentation of
the financial statement of the enterprise
3) To comply with law 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q37) Suppose revenue is recognised and earned but was not realised in cash, according Marks : 1.0
to accrual concept it will give rise to Id: 44738
1) A liability 2) An asset
3) A expense 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q38) Which of the following best describes the meaning of ‘Purchases’? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44570
1) Goods bought for resale 2) Goods bought on credit
3) Items bought 4) Goods paid for
Explanation:
Q39) Profit / Loss is calculated at the stage of ____ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44733
1) Recording 2) Classifying
3) Interpretation 4) Summarising
Explanation:
Q40) Interest on drawings is: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44583
1) Expenditure for the business 2) Cost for the business
3) Gain for the business 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q41) The term accounts receivable is shown in the balance sheet under: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44694
1) Fixed assets 2) Current assets
3) Current liabilities 4) Miscellaneous expenditure
Explanation:
Q42) Present liability of uncertain amount, which can be measured reliably by using a Marks : 1.0
substantial degree of estimation, is termed as ________ Id: 44747
1) Provision 2) Liability
3) Contingent Liability 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q43) Sales are 300000 gross profit 30% cost of goods sold is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44543
1) 90000 2) 210000
3) 180000 4) 270000
Explanation:
Q44) Which of the following should be considered while selecting and applying Marks : 1.0
accounting policies? Id: 44644
1) Consistency 2) Going concern
3) Substance over form 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q45) Management accounting is applicable to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44480
1) Service entities 2) Manufacturing entities
3) Notforprofit entities 4) All of these
Explanation:
Q46) Which of the below statement is false? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44406
1) Financial accounting data and statements are 2) Management accounting reports and
developed for the definite period. statements are prepared whenever needed.
3) Financial Acconting provides detailed and 4) It is more or less obligatory on the part of
disaggregated information about products, every business concern to adopt financial
individual activities, division or plant. accounting.
Explanation:
Q47) Owners' equity in a business comes from which of the following? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44786
1) Investments in cash by the owners 2) Investments in assets other than cash by the
owners
3) Earnings from profitable operation of the 4) All of the above
business
Explanation:
Q48) Prime Cost Consist of ______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44421
1) All Indirect Exp. 2) Material+Overhead+Exp
3) All Direct Exp(Material+Labour+Exp) 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q49) Profit and loss account would not include? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44796
1) Salaries 2) Drawings.
3) Rent received. 4) Carriage outwards.
Explanation:
Q50) The maximum amount beyond which a company is not allowed to raise funds, by Marks : 1.0
issue of share is Id: 44722
1) Issued Capital 2) Nominal Capital
3) Subscribed Capital 4) Reserve Capital
Explanation:
Q51) Convention of accounting says that Marks : 1.0
Id: 44514
1) All expenses to be accounted when occurred 2) All incomes to be accounted when received
3) All incomes to be accounted when received 4) All expenses accounted if arising during said
period a& all incomes only when received
Explanation:
Q52) How are the following items arranged on the liability side of the Balance Sheet of a Marks : 1.0
Company? Id: 44678
i. Current liability
ii. Unsecured loan
iii. Share capital
iv. Reserves and surplus
v. Secured loan
1) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (v)
3) (iii) (iv) (v) (ii) (i) 4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (v) (i)
Explanation:
Q53) Accounting has certain norms to be observed by the accountants in recording of Marks : 1.0
transactions and preparation of financial statements. These norms reduce the Id: 44753
vagueness and chances of misunderstanding by harmonizing the varied accounting
practices. These norms are
1) Accounting regulations. 2) Accounting guidance notes.
3) Accounting standards. 4) Accounting framework.
Explanation:
Q54) The liability of the partners in a Limited Liability Partnership is ____________. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44811
1) zero 2) proportionate
3) unlimited 4) limited
Explanation:
Q55) Which of the following is a Revenue Expenditure? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44518
1) Construction of Factory shed 2) Sales Tax paid in connection with purchase of
Office Equipment
3) Legal Expenses in connection with defending 4) Installation of new Machinery
a title to firm’s property
Explanation:
Q56) Right shares enjoy preferential rights with regard to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44688
1) Payment of dividend 2) Payment of retained earnings
3) Repayment of capital 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q57) Which of the following is the source of short term finance? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44683
1) Trade credit 2) Short term borrowing
3) Bank credit 4) All of above
Explanation:
Q58) All of the following have debit balance except one. That account is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44619
1) Wages a/c 2) Debtors a/c
3) Bills payable a/c 4) Goodwill
Explanation:
Q59) A Partner In A Firm _______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44439
1) Cannot Transfer His Share To An Outsider. 2) Can Transfer His Share To An Outsider With
The Consent Of Majority Partners.
3) Can Transfer His Share To An Outsider 4) Can Transfer His Share To An Outsider With
Without The Consent Of Any Other Partners. The Consent Of All Other Partners.
Explanation:
Q60) Which of the following is a revenue expenses Marks : 1.0
Id: 44730
1) Raw material consumed 2) Plant purchased
3) Long term loan raised from bank 4) Share Capital
Explanation:
Q61) Financial information should be neutral and bias free" is the dictation of which one of Marks : 1.0
the following? Id: 44632
1) Completeness concept 2) Faithful representation Concept
3) Objectivity Concept 4) Duality Concept
Explanation:
Q62) Accounting is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44526
1) The art of recording, classifying and 2) A systematic and regular record of events
summarizing in a significant manner and in affecting a firm with a view to obtaining a clear
terms of money, transactions and events financial picture.
which are in part at best financial in character
and interpreting thereof.
3) Preparation of various financial statements
over a period of time of firm to measure its
performance in monetary terms.
4)
Nothing but Book keeping.
Explanation:
Q63) A partner who lends only his name to the firm is called as ____________ partner. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44810
1) active 2) nominal
3) slipping 4) minor
Explanation:
Q64) Which of the following is a noncurrent asset? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44684
1) Sundry debtors 2) Goodwill
3) Advance expenses 4) Inventory
Explanation:
Q65) During the lifetime of entity, accountants produce financial statement at arbitrary Marks : 1.0
points in time in accordance with which basic accounting principle? Id: 44506
1) Matching 2) Periodicity
3) Conservatism 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q66) Using "lower of cost and net realisable value" for the purpose of inventory valuation Marks : 1.0
is the implementation of which of the following concept? Id: 38731
1) The going concern concept 2) The separate entity concept
3) The prudence concept 4) Matching concept
Explanation:
Q67) Which of the following branches of accounting provides information that helps Marks : 1.0
planning, control and decision making? Id: 44529
1) Cost Accounting 2) Inflation Accounting
3) Financial Accounting 4) Management Accounting
Explanation:
Q68) Calculate inventory Current ratio is 2.6:1 Liquid ratio is 1.5:1 and Current liabilities Marks : 1.0
40000 Id: 44536
1) 40000 2) 42000
3) 44000 4) 48000
Explanation:
Q69) In double entity book keeping system, every transaction affects at least Marks : 1.0
______account(s). Id: 44762
1) One 2) Two
3) Three 4) Four
Explanation:
Q70) Capital structure designing has nothing to do with: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44682
1) Profitability 2) Solvency
3) Flexibility 4) Transferability
Explanation:
Q71) A businessman who cannot pay his debt is called as _________. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44614
1) Insolvent 2) Solvent
3) Book Debt 4) Bank Debt
Explanation:
Q72) If two or more transactions of the same nature are journalized together having either Marks : 1.0
the debit or the credit account common is known as Id: 44654
1) Compound journal entry 2) Separate journal entry
3) Posting 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q73) Ram and Gopal are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2:1. Gopal gave Marks : 1.0
a loan of Rs.12,000 to the firm. They did not have any specific agreement about Id: 44754
interest on loan mentioned in the partnership deed. Gopal claims interest on loan @
10% p.a. The interest on loan as per rules of Partnership Act, 1932 will be:
1) 840 2) 820
3) 720 4) 960
Explanation:
Q74) Which of the following is not a transaction? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44758
1) Goods are purchased on cash basis for 2) Salaries paid for the month of May, 2006.
Rs.1,000.
3) Land is purchased for Rs.10 lacs.
4) An employee dismissed from the job.
Explanation:
Q75) Mr. XYZ buys clothing of Rs. 50,000 paying cash Rs. 20,000. What is the amount of Marks : 1.0
expense as per the accrual concept? Id: 44776
1) 50000 2) 20000
3) 30000 4) Nil.
Explanation:
Q76) Effective management of liquidity and financial risk in business is known as Marks : 1.0
management Id: 44668
1) Risk 2) Financial
3) Cash 4) Treasury
Explanation:
Q77) A ________ debt is a debt which cannot be recovered. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44578
1) Good 2) Book
3) Recoverable 4) Bad
Explanation:
Q78) Balance Sheet is a Marks : 1.0
Id: 44736
1) Statement showing financial effect of recorded 2) Statement of assets and liabilities on a
transactions particular point of time
3) Is one of the accounting reports 4) Both (b) and (c) above
Explanation:
Q79) Depreciation arises because of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44774
1) Fall in the market value of the asset. 2) Fall in the value of money.
3) Physical wear and tear of the asset. 4) None of the three.
Explanation:
Q80) The accounting measurement that is not consistent with the Going Concern concept Marks : 1.0
is Id: 44708
1) Historical Cost 2) Realization
3) The Transaction Approach 4) Liquidation Value
Explanation:
Q81) A change in accounting policy is justified when Marks : 1.0
Id: 44643
1) To comply with accounting standard 2) To ensure more appropriate presentation of
the financial statement of the enterprise
3) To comply with law 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q82) Match the following: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44528
Accounting Function Branch of Accounting
(1) Preparation of Financial Statements (a) Management Accounting
(2) Determination of Cost of Product (b) Financial Accounting
(3) Making Managerial Decisions (c) Cost Accounting
1) (1) c (2) a (3) b 2) (1) b (2) c (3) a
3) (1) a (2) c (4) b 4) (1) c (2) b (3) a
Explanation:
Q83) Which of the following are correct? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44553
Account to be debited Account to be credited
Bought office wooden table for cash office wooden table cash
Ramesh sold goods on credited to Ram sales cash
Introduce capital by cheque capital Bank
Paid to creditor Sita by cheque Sita Bank
1) (ii) (iii)(i) 2) (iii)(iv)(ii)
3) (i)(iii)(iv) 4) (i)(iv)
Explanation:
Q84) Which of the following is NOT Capital Expenditure? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44401
1) Expenditure incurred to acquire a tangible 2) Expenditure incurred to acquire the right to
asset carry on business
3) Expenses incurred for repairs and 4) Expenditure for the extension of or
maintenance of fixed asset improvement, modification in fixed asset
Explanation:
Q85) Which of the following is correct Marks : 1.0
Id: 44555
1) Assets = Liabilities + Capital 2) Assets = Liabilities Capital
3) Assets = external equities 4) Assets + Liabilities = Capital
Explanation:
Q86) If partnership deed remains silent on interest on partner’s loan, it should be paid @ Marks : 1.0
_____. Id: 44813
1) 0.09 2) 0.06
3) 0.07 4) 0.1
Explanation:
Q87) Which one of the following statement is false: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44806
1) A transaction is concerned with money and 2) Solvent person is a person whose assets are
money’s worth. more than his liabilities.
3) Bookkeeping and accounting is one and the 4) The double entry systems is based on “Dual
same thing. Aspect” concept.
Explanation:
Q88) Economic life of an enterprise is split into the periodic interval as per Marks : 1.0
___________________ concept. Id: 44803
1) Money Measurment 2) Matching
3) Going Concern 4) Accrual
Explanation:
Q89) A balance sheet is useful because Marks : 1.0
Id: 44584
1) Indicates how much finance is required by the 2) Indicates the profitability of the firm
firm.
3) Helps in assessment of financial position of
the firm.
4) Tells about current asset and current liability
Explanation:
Q90) Which of the following activities is NOT an accounting function? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44463
1) Management consultancy 2) Taxation
3) Costing 4) Auditing
Explanation:
Q91) A company sells goods on credit valued at Rs. 2,50,000 to a customer. At what point Marks : 1.0
in the sales cycle should this sale be recognized in the accounts? Id: 44488
1) When the customer’s order is received 2) When the goods are ready for dispatch to the
customer
3) When the goods are sent, accepted and 4) When the customer pays
invoiced
Explanation:
Q92) Management accounting is concerned with Marks : 1.0
Id: 44483
1) Recording of transactions 2) Reporting of costs
3) Preparation of financial statements 4) Analysis and interpretation of data
Explanation:
Q93) In Accounting 'Money measurement Concept' means ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44412
1) A firm or business is regarded as separate & 2) All business transactions are regarded as
distinct from the owner. having a dual aspect.
3) All transactions are recorded in terms of 4) Accounting is made on the assumption that a
money. business will continue in future and will use its
property in operations rather than sell them.
Explanation:
Q94) Opening stock of the year is Rs.20,000, Goods purchased during the year is Marks : 1.0
Rs.1,00,000, Carriage Rs.2,000 and Selling expenses Rs.2,000.Sales during the year is Id: 44765
Rs.1,50,000 and closing stock is Rs.25,000. The gross profit will be
1) 53000 2) 55000
3) 80000 4) 51000
Explanation:
Q95) Planning and forecasting is the functions of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44636
1) Financial accounting 2) Bookkeeping
3) cost accounting 4) Management accounting
Explanation:
Q96) Accounting does not record non financial transactions because of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44711
1) Entity Concept 2) Accrual Concept
3) Cost Concept 4) Money Measurement Concept
Explanation:
Q97) Calculate current liabilities if Current ratio is 2:1 and current assets are 2200000 Marks : 1.0
Id: 44542
1) 1100000 2) 1125000
3) 1175000 4) 1130000
Explanation:
Q98) Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a business is divided Marks : 1.0
for the purpose of preparing financial statements? Id: 44454
1) Fiscal year 2) Accrual period
3) Accounting period 4) Calendar year
Explanation:
Q99) Which of the following shows summary of a company's financial position at a Marks : 1.0
specific date Id: 38727
1) Profit & Loss Account 2) ) Cash Flow Statement
3) Balance Sheet 4) Income & Expenditure Account
Explanation:
Q100) Following is the example of external users Marks : 1.0
Id: 44655
1) Government 2) Owners
3) Management 4) Employees
Explanation:
Q101) The money spent on heavy advertising, whose benefit is continues for 3 years to Marks : 1.0
come, is a ______. Id: 44385
1) Capital Expenditure 2) Revenue Expenditure
3) Deferred revenue expenditure 4) Income
Explanation:
Q102) fundamental accounting equation, Assets = Equities is the formal expression of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44478
1) Dual aspect 2) Matching concept
3) Going concern concept 4) Money measurement concept
Explanation:
Q103) Which of the following characteristics of accounting information primarily allows Marks : 1.0
users of financial statements to generate predictions about an organization Id: 44456
1) Reliability 2) Timeliness
3) Neutrality 4) Relevance
Explanation:
Q104) Which of the below statement is correct? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44393
1) Debtors are liability. 2) Capital is an asset.
3) Goodwill is current asset. 4) Bills payables are liabilities
Explanation:
Q105) The basic concepts related to P & L Account are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44700
1) Realization Concept 2) Matching Concept
3) Cost Concept 4) Both (a) and (b) above
Explanation:
Q106) Accounting concepts are based on Marks : 1.0
Id: 44689
1) Certain assumptions 2) Certain facts and figures
3) Certain accounting records 4) Government guidelines
Explanation:
Q107) Balance sheet is used to ascertain the financial position Marks : 1.0
Id: 44556
1) For a particular period 2) For the accounting period of the firm
3) For a period of one year 4) On a particular date
Explanation:
Q108) Which of the following equation is INCORRECT? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44489
1) Liabilities + Capital = Assets 2) Liabilities + Assets = Capital
3) Assets Liabilities = Capital 4) Assets Capital = Liabilities
Explanation:
Q109) Journal is _____________Books of account is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44419
1) Basic 2) Primary
3) Secondary 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q110) Diya & Co. Is a Marks : 1.0
Id: 44775
1) Personal A/c 2) Real account
3) Nominal account 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q111) Ledger is also called Marks : 1.0
Id: 44572
1) Principle book 2) Subsidiary book
3) Day book 4) Proper book
Explanation:
Q112) If during the accounting period the assets increased by Rs. 10,000, and equity Marks : 1.0
increased by Rs. 2,000, then how did liabilities change? Id: 44795
1) Increased by Rs. 8,000 2) Increased by Rs. 12,000
3) Decreased by Rs. 8,000 4) Decreased by Rs. 12,000
Explanation:
Q113) Features of Partnership firm are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44511
1) Two or more persons carrying common 2) Sharing profit and losses in agreed ratio
business under an agreement
3) Business carried by all or one of them acting
for all
4) All the above
Explanation:
Q114) The information provided in the annual financial statements of an enterprise pertains Marks : 1.0
to Id: 44554
1) industry as a whole 2) Individual organisation
3) Global economy 4) Economy as a whole
Explanation:
Q115) Managerial Accounting Information Marks : 1.0
Id: 44503
1) Relates To The Entity As A Whole And Is 2) Relates To SubUnits Of The Entity And May
Highly Aggregated Be Very Detailed
3) Is Prepared Only Once A Year 4) Is Constrained By The Requirements Of
Generally Accepted Accounting Principles
Explanation:
Q116) Bad debts means ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44416
1) goods unsold lying with a business on any 2) an allowance given on the sales price of
given date. goods.
3) debts which are due by the firm 4) debts which are irrecoverable.
Explanation:
Q117) When an owner credits or debits any amount, he cannot put that transaction in Marks : 1.0
financial account records of organisation. This is known as .............. Id: 44457
1) Money Measurement Concept 2) Cost Concept
3) Business Entity Concept 4) Conservatism
Explanation:
Q118) Standard Gross Profit ratio is between Marks : 1.0
Id: 44597
1) 10% to 20% 2) 15% to 25%
3) 30% to 40% 4) 20% to 30%
Explanation:
Q119) If current ratio is less than 1 it can be definitely said that Marks : 1.0
Id: 44605
1) Net working capital is negative 2) Net working capital is positive
3) Inventories are in adequate 4) Cash in hand is inadequate
Explanation:
Q120) During the life time of an entity, accountants produce financial statements at Marks : 1.0
arbitrary points in time in accordance with which basic accounting principle Id: 44450
1) Conservatism 2) Going Concern
3) Materiality 4) Periodicity
Explanation:
Q121) A business transaction that involves a purchase on account is considered to be a(n) Marks : 1.0
____. Id: 44622
1) cash transaction 2) credit transaction
3) investment by the owner 4) expense transaction
Explanation:
Q122) As production increases, fixed cost per unit _____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44387
1) Decreases 2) Increases
3) We can’t tell 4) Do not change
Explanation:
Q123) Management accounting provides invaluable services to management in performing Marks : 1.0
……….. Id: 44505
1) All Management functions 2) Controlling functions
3) Interpret the financial data 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q124) Which of following is/are problems in Financial statement analysis Marks : 1.0
Id: 44604
1) Window dressing 2) Price level changes l
3) Interpretation of results 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q125) If the profit sharing ratio of partners is not given than partner share profit Marks : 1.0
Id: 44618
1) As per capital ratio 2) equally
3) as per work load 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q126) Who are the customers of cost and management accounting? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44675
1) Managers 2) Creditors
3) Lenders 4) Consumers
Explanation:
Q127) Loss on issue of debenture is treated as Marks : 1.0
Id: 44657
1) Intangible Asset 2) Current Asset
3) Current Liability 4) Miscellaneous Expenditure
Explanation:
Q128) Which of the following is not a concept of financial accounting Marks : 1.0
Id: 44451
1) Single aspect concept 2) Accrual concept
3) Going concern concept 4) Separate entity concept
Explanation:
Q129) Management accounting does not encompass Marks : 1.0
Id: 44467
1) Calculating product cost 2) Calculating earnings per share
3) Determining cost behavior 4) Profit planning
Explanation:
Q130) How are the following items arranged on the asset side of the Balance Sheet of a Marks : 1.0
Company? Id: 44679
i. Profit and loss A/c
ii. Miscellaneous expenditure
iii. Fixed assets
iv. Current assets, loans and advances
v. Investments
1) (iii) (v) (iv) (i) (ii) 2) (iii) (iv) (v) (i) (ii)
3) (iii) (i) (ii) (v) (iv) 4) (iii) (v) (iv) (ii) (i)
Explanation:
Q131) ____________principle requires that the same accounting method should be used Marks : 1.0
from one accounting period to the next. Id: 44761
1) Conservatism. 2) Consistency.
3) Business entity. 4) Money measurement.
Explanation:
Q132) which of the following should be deducted in balance sheet of a company from the Marks : 1.0
share capital to find out paid up capital Id: 44562
1) calls in advance 2) calls in arreas
3) share forfeiture 4) discount on issue of shares
Explanation:
Q133) Which of the following is a capital expenditure? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44685
1) Wages paid for production of goods in the 2) Wages paid for installation of machinery
works
3) None of the above
4) Both of the above
Explanation:
Q134) The basic accounting principle/concept according to which business record must be Marks : 1.0
kept separate from the personal records of the owner is known as: Id: 44512
1) Goingconcern concept 2) Separate Business entity
3) Realization Concept 4) Conservatism
Explanation:
Q135) When benefit of a revenue expense extend beyond an accounting year, it is called Marks : 1.0
Id: 44721
1) Revenue Expenditure 2) Capital expenditure
3) Deferred Revenue Expenditure 4) Recurring profit
Explanation:
Q136) All the Incomes and Expensees of revenue nature are credited or debited to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44664
1) Trading A/c 2) Profit & Loss A/c
3) Balance Sheet 4) Either (a) or (b)
Explanation:
Q137) Bank overdraft is shown as Marks : 1.0
Id: 44509
1) Current Liability 2) Current asset
3) Unsecured loan 4) Purchases
Explanation:
Q138) Net Profit Ratio Signifies Marks : 1.0
Id: 44568
1) Operational Profitability 2) Liquidity Position
3) Bigterm Solvency 4) Profit for Lenders.
Explanation:
Q139) Accounting principles must satisfy following condition Marks : 1.0
Id: 44640
1) Reflect future predictions 2) Simple and explanatory
3) Based on real assumptions 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q140) The entity of a business is different from its owners Assumption is from Marks : 1.0
Id: 44649
1) Business entity Assumption 2) Going concern Assumption
3) Accounting period Assumption 4) Money Measurement Assumption
Explanation:
Q141) Transactions between owner and business are recorded as per Marks : 1.0
Id: 44756
1) Periodicity. 2) Going concern.
3) Prudence 4) Business Entity.
Explanation:
Q142) If you only knew a company’s total assets and total debt, which item could you easily Marks : 1.0
calculate? Id: 44565
1) Sales 2) Depreciation
3) Total equity 4) Inventory
Explanation:
Q143) The amount or goods taken by the proprietor for his personal use is called Marks : 1.0
Id: 44580
1) Additional capital 2) Fresh capital
3) Drawings 4) Personal expenses
Explanation:
Q144) The convention that states that the accounting practice should be followed Marks : 1.0
consistently over the years Id: 44720
1) Consistency 2) Conservation
3) Materiality 4) Disclosure
Explanation:
Q145) A business has prepared its accounts for a financial year and these show a profit of Marks : 1.0
Rs. 5,00,000. What profit amount will be after considering the following items which Id: 44429
are not included in the account?
• A likely loss on a contract of Rs. 25,000
• A possible Court ruling in favour of the company which is likely to increase profits
by Rs.10,000
• A possible Court ruling against the company which could result in damages of
between Rs.5,000 to Rs.15,000.
1) Rs. 4,80,000 2) Rs. 4,60,000
3) Rs. 4,75,000 4) Rs. 5,10,000
Explanation:
Q146) Calculate total assets if total sales 270000 and assets turn over is 0.30 times Marks : 1.0
Id: 44538
1) 700000 2) 800000
3) 900000 4) 1000000
Explanation:
Q147) Under which of the following concepts are shareholders treated as creditors for the Marks : 1.0
amount they paid on the shares they subscribed to? Id: 44706
1) Cost Concept 2) Duality Concept
3) Business Entity Concept 4) Since the shareholders own the business, they
are not treated as creditors
Explanation:
Q148) If debentures are issued at a discount of 20%, the discount on issue of debentures is Marks : 1.0
shown as: Id: 44732
1) Current asset 2) Interest asset
3) Current liabilities 4) Miscellaneous expenses
Explanation:
Q149) The companies act 1956 requires that the period of at least ________month must be Marks : 1.0
there between two calls Id: 44547
1) Three 2) One
3) Two 4) Five
Explanation:
Q150) Accounting Principles represent Marks : 1.0
Id: 44524
1) A consensus at a particular time to the 2) Inviolable laws fixed by a legal board
recording of accounting transactions
3) Laws fixed by accounting expert
4) Laws fixed by the respective governments
Explanation:
Q151) Business Entity assumption is applicable to ________ type of business enterprise Marks : 1.0
Id: 44477
1) Selected 2) Unique
3) Every 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q152) Which of the following is not an objective of accounting Marks : 1.0
Id: 44587
1) To provide information on the performance of 2) To provide information on the owner’s assets,
enterprise. liabilities and capital
3) To provide information on the enterprise, 4) To maintain records of business.
assets, liabilities and capital
Explanation:
Q153) The item “Interest accrued on Investment” appears in the Balance Sheet of a Marks : 1.0
Company under the category of ____________ Id: 44544
1) Secured Loan 2) Current assets, loans and advances
3) Investments 4) Current liabilities
Explanation:
Q154) Bank A/c is an Example of_____ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44424
1) Ledger 2) Balance Sheet
3) Jounal 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q155) Calculate Current assets : Current ratio is 2.6:1 , Current Liabilities 40000 Marks : 1.0
Id: 44534
1) 104000 2) 140000
3) 114000 4) 124000
Explanation:
Q156) Stock of Rs.12,500 was destroyed by fire occurred on 31st December, 2008 in the Marks : 1.0
godown of X Ltd.. Insurance company accepted Rs.9,500 in full settlement of claim. Id: 44784
The loss on account of fire is recorded by:
1) Debiting Profit and loss account for Rs. 12,500. 2) Crediting the trading account for Rs. 12,500.
3) Debiting Profit and loss account for Rs. 3,000. 4) Both (b) and (c)
Explanation:
Q157) Creditors for goods purchased come within the category of ______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44402
1) Current liability 2) Fixed liability
3) Capital 4) Current asset
Explanation:
Q158) Long term solvency is indicated by Marks : 1.0
Id: 44574
1) Liquidity ratio 2) DebtEquity ratio
3) Interest coverage ratio 4) Return on capital employed
Explanation:
Q159) College fees of owners son paid and accounted in books, 10000, then Marks : 1.0
Id: 44499
1) profit increased by 10000 2) profits decreased by 10000
3) profits decreased by 10000 and capital 4) profits increased by 10000 and capital
increased by 10000 decreased by 10000
Explanation:
Q160) Outstanding salaries are shown as: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44626
1) Added to Salaries while preparing P & La/c 2) Shown in liability side of Balance sheet under
current Liability
3) (a) &(b) above 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q161) Which of the following statements about differences between financial and Marks : 1.0
managerial accounting is incorrect? Id: 44446
1) Managerial accounting information is prepared 2) Financial accounting is aggregated;
primarily for external parties such as managerial accounting is focused on products
stockholders and creditors; financial and departments.
accounting is directed at internal users.
3) Managerial accounting pertains to both past
and future items; financial accounting focuses
primarily on past transactions and events.
4) Financial accounting is based on generally
accepted accounting practices; managerial
accounting faces no similar constraining
factors
Explanation:
Q162) The allocation of owner's private expenses to his/her business violates which of the Marks : 1.0
following? Id: 44635
1) Accrual concept 2) Matching concept
3) Separate business entity concept 4) Consistency concept
Explanation:
Q163) Discount on issue of debentures is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44656
1) Revenue Loss to be charged in the year of 2) Capital loss to be written off from capital
issue reserve
3) Capital loss to be written off over the tenure of 4) Capital loss to be shown as goodwill
the debentures
Explanation:
Q164) The asset that can be seen and touched is ____________ asset. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44613
1) Intangible 2) Tangible
3) Business 4) Current
Explanation:
Q165) From following find out sales : Gross profit margin is 20% gross profit 54000 Marks : 1.0
Id: 44537
1) 250000 2) 260000
3) 270000 4) 280000
Explanation:
Q166) The Amount which the firm has to pay others is known as Marks : 1.0
Id: 44650
1) Assets 2) Liabilities
3) Capital 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q167) Which of the following is not an objective of Financial Accounting? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44405
1) To identify financial events and transactions 2) To ensure the effecient cost control by
that occur in an organization. communicating essential data costs at regular
intervals.
3) To measure the value of the occurrences in 4) To organize the accumulated data into
terms of money. meaningful information.
Explanation:
Q168) Loss by fire A/c is classified as _________________ A/c. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44804
1) real 2) nominal
3) personal 4) current
Explanation:
Q169) Journal book is written in which order Marks : 1.0
Id: 44496
1) Chronological order 2) As per accountant
3) As per amount 4) As per owners instructions
Explanation:
Q170) The purchase of a desk on account will increase Office Furniture and will also Marks : 1.0
increase ____. Id: 44623
1) Cash in Bank 2) Accounts Payable
3) Accounts Receivable 4) Capital
Explanation:
Q171) The capital gearing ratio is high for a company.It indicates a position of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44545
1) Low debts 2) high preference capital
3) high equity 4) low debt equity ratio
Explanation:
Q172) The whole process of classifying, summarizing, analyzing and interpreting the Marks : 1.0
results of business transaction is known as Id: 44476
1) Accounting 2) Determination
3) Recording 4) Coding
Explanation:
Q173) In Accounting 'Going Concern Concept' means ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44413
1) A firm or business is regarded as separate & 2) All business transactions are regarded as
distinct from the owner. having a dual aspect.
3) All transactions are recorded in terms of 4) Accounting is made on the assumption that a
money. business will continue in future and will use its
property in operations rather than sell them.
Explanation:
Q174) In financial accounting classification of recorded facts, with entries of one nature at Marks : 1.0
one place is done in the book called Id: 44532
1) Trial Balance 2) Journal
3) Income statement 4) Ledger
Explanation:
Q175) Whenever errors are noticed in the accounting records, they should be rectified Marks : 1.0
Id: 44750
1) At the time of preparation of the trial balance. 2) Without waiting the accounting year to end.
3) After the preparation of final accounts. 4) In the next accounting year.
Explanation:
Q176) Global Depository Receipt is an instrument for: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44672
1) Foreign direct investment 2) Public bonds
3) Foreign institutional investment 4) All of above
Explanation:
Q177) The Financial Statement reveals the following data Marks : 1.0
Id: 44420
1) Important 2) Valuable
3) Financial 4) No of these
Explanation:
Q178) If cost of goods sold is Rs.1,00,000, sales is Rs.1,25,000, closing stock is Rs.20,000, Marks : 1.0
the gross profit will be Id: 44769
1) 45000 2) 5000
3) 25000 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q179) Capital means ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44415
1) all the properties, possessions and debits 2) expenditure whose benefit has been received.
owing to a business house.
3) total amount invested in the business by the
proprietor.
4) a person who owes something.
Explanation:
Q180) Cost refer to........ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44608
1) The present value of future benefits 2) All assets which has given benefit and is now
expired
3) The value of sacrifice made to get some goods 4) All the above
or services
Explanation:
Q181) Personal Accounts means _____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44407
1) The accounts of individuals, firms, limited 2) The accounts of properties, assets or
companies, local authorities, associations with professionals of the businessman.
whom the businessman deals.
3) Accounts representing incomes and expenses
or profits and gains.
4) The accounts which relate to things other than
persons.
Explanation:
Q182) Cost Accounting is different from financial accounting in respect of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44492
1) Inventory valuation 2) Ascertainment of cost
3) Recording of cost 4) Reporting of cost
Explanation:
Q183) What is more important for every business to achieve at the earliest? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44676
1) Budgeted Sales 2) Profits
3) Break Even Point 4) Market Share
Explanation:
Q184) The areas where in different accounting policies can be adopted are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44437
1) Providing depreciation 2) Valuation of inventories
3) Valuation of investment 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q185) Calculate liquid assets Liquid Ratio is 1.5:1 Current liabilities 40000 Marks : 1.0
Id: 44535
1) 50000 2) 60000
3) 70000 4) 80000
Explanation:
Q186) Goods or amount taken by proprietor for his personal use should be debited to: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44461
1) Sales 2) Drawings
3) Purchase 4) d) Cash
Explanation:
Q187) Which of the following is an example of Capital Expenditure? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44714
1) Insurance Premium 2) Taxes and Legal expenses
3) Discount allowed 4) Customs duty on Import of Machinery
Explanation:
Q188) ''Business will always go on'' which principle describe this Marks : 1.0
Id: 38725
1) accounting period concept 2) conservatism concept
3) going concern concept 4) consistency principle
Explanation:
Q189) The document used by account holder to deposit cash/cheque in to bank is called Marks : 1.0
Id: 44460
1) Receipt 2) Voucher
3) Payinslip 4) Withdrawal slip
Explanation:
Q190) Which accounting is concerned with the collecting, recording, classification and Marks : 1.0
interpretation of financial data to serve the purpose of management. Id: 44469
1) Cost accounting. 2) Management accounting.
3) Financial accounting…… 4) Business accounting.
Explanation:
Q191) Basic assumption in accounting principles is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44501
1) Prudence 2) consistency
3) materiality 4) ongoing concern
Explanation:
Q192) Which of the following is not a conventions of financial accounting? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44493
1) Consistency 2) NonMateriality
3) Full Disclosure 4) Conservatism
Explanation:
Q193) Current Ratio is ratio of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44602
1) Current assets to total assets 2) Current Liabilities to total liabilities
3) Current assets to Current Liabilities 4) Current assets to Fixed assets
Explanation:
Q194) Goods costing Rs. 10,000 is supplied to Ram at an invoice price of 10% above cost Marks : 1.0
and a trade discount of 5%. The amount of sales is Id: 44772
1) 11000 2) 10450
3) 10500 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q195) Management accounting information Marks : 1.0
Id: 44465
1) Relates to the entity as a whole and is highly 2) Relates to subunits of the entity and may be
aggregated very detailed
3) Is prepared only once a year 4) is constrained by the requirements of
generally accepted accounting principles
Explanation:
Q196) Which account will be debited, if Mohsin commenced business with cash? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44389
1) Cash account 2) Capital account
3) Mohsin’s account 4) Drawings account
Explanation:
Q197) Office equipment was purchased for cash. What effect did this transaction have on Marks : 1.0
the financial position of the company? Id: 44788
1) Assets, no change; Liabilities, no change; 2) Assets, decrease; Liabilities, increase;
Owners' Equity, no change Owners' Equity, no change
3) Assets, increase; Liabilities, increase; Owners' 4) Assets, no change; Liabilities, no change;
Equity, no change Owners' Equity, increase
Explanation:
Q198) Overdraft is short term finance to: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44674
1) Pay income, excise and VAT 2) Repay term loan
3) Purchase capital equipments 4) Meet circulating capital requirements
Explanation:
Q199) Which type of expenditure is done for making assets? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44571
1) Revenue Expenditure 2) Deferred Revenue Expenditure
3) Capital Expenditure 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q200) Which phrase best describes the current role of the managerial accountant? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44728
1) Managerial accountants prepare the financial 2) Managerial accountants facilitate the decision
statements for an organization. making process within an organization.
3) Managerial accountants make the key 4) Managerial accountants are primarily
decisions within an organization. information collectors.
Explanation:
Q201) Financial accounting provides financial information to all of the following external Marks : 1.0
users except: Id: 44453
1) Managers 2) Government agencies
3) Creditors 4) investors
Explanation:
Q202) The Term ‘Cost’ is refer as _________ incurred to produce particular Product. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44418
1) Value 2) Expenses
3) Price 4) All of these
Explanation:
Q203) Which of the following is not an Accounting concept? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44696
1) Matching concept 2) Dual Aspect concept
3) True and Fair concept 4) Going concern concept
Explanation:
Q204) Capital expenditure is an expenditure which Marks : 1.0
Id: 44718
1) Benefits the current accounting period 2) Will benefit the next accounting period
3) Results in the acquisition of a permanent asset 4) Results in the acquisition of a current asset
Explanation:
Q205) Creating Provision against fluctuation in the price of investment is an example of Marks : 1.0
which accounting convention Id: 44523
1) Convention of conservatism 2) Convention of full disclosure
3) Convention of materiality 4) Convention of consistency
Explanation:
Q206) Debit side is greater than credit side in trading account then it is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44550
1) Loss 2) Profit
3) Balanced 4) None
Explanation:
Q207) “Inventories should be out of godown in the sequence in which they arrive” is based Marks : 1.0
on Id: 44764
1) HIFO 2) LIFO
3) FIFO 4) Weighted Average
Explanation:
Q208) How do we calculate a company’s operating cash flow? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44567
1) EBIT taxes + depreciation 2) EBIT taxes depreciation
3) EBIT + taxes + depreciation 4) EBIT Sales
Explanation:
Q209) The amount of owner's equity in a business is not affected by: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44785
1) The percentage of total assets held in cash. 2) Investments made in the business by the
owner.
3) The profitability of the business. 4) The amount of dividends paid to stockholders.
Explanation:
Q210) ignore all profit and consider for all possible losses it is a philosophy of which Marks : 1.0
convention : Id: 44455
1) conservatism 2) consisteny
3) full disclosure 4) materiality
Explanation:
Q211) The reporting standard for external financial reports is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44598
1) Industryspecific 2) Companyspecific
3) Generally accepted accounting principles 4) Departmentspecific
Explanation:
Q212) Statements: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44695
i) Dividends can be paid only when there are profits
ii) Dividends can be paid when there are losses
1) Both are correct 2) Both are incorrect
3) (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect 4) (ii) is correct and (i) is incorrect
Explanation:
Q213) A business owned by its stockholders and organized as a legal entity separate from Marks : 1.0
its stockholders is referred to as an: Id: 44600
1) partnership. 2) corporation.
3) proprietorship. 4) entrepreneurship.
Explanation:
Q214) Dividend is paid as a percentage of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44658
1) Nominal Share Capital 2) Net Profit
3) Paid up Capital 4) Called up Capital
Explanation:
Q215) Small scale industry is defined in terms of: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44673
1) Volume by production 2) Number of employees
3) Amount of investment in plant and machinery 4) Sales turnover
Explanation:
Q216) Objective of cost accounting is........... Marks : 1.0
Id: 44508
1) To keep the management fully informed about 2) To summarise the financial performance of the
the latest position of concern business for external stakeholders
3) To create a common internal global language 4) To ascertain the profitability of the activities by
in decision making controlling the cost
Explanation:
Q217) Outstanding expense term in accounting comes primarily because of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44639
1) Periodicity 2) Matching
3) Accrual 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q218) Divya purchased a computer costing Rs.10,000. Repairing expenses Rs.1,000 and Marks : 1.0
miscellaneous expenses Rs.500 were incurred by her. She sold the computer at 20% Id: 44755
margin on selling price. The sales value will be
1) 12500 2) 11000
3) 14375 4) 13800
Explanation:
Q219) Business unit is separate and distinct from the person who supply capital to it. It is Marks : 1.0
based on Id: 44662
1) Money Measurement Concept 2) Going Concern Concept
3) Business Entity Concept 4) Dual Aspect Concept
Explanation:
Q220) Which of the following best describe the Conservatism convention? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44458
1) Assets to be reported at the highest possible 2) Profits to be reported at the highest possible
values values
3) Liabilities and expenses are to be reported at 4) All anticipated losses to be reported even
the lowest possible value before they occur
Explanation:
Q221) Which accounting principle differentiates between owners and managers: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44681
1) Going concern 2) Dual aspect
3) Separate entity 4) Conservatism
Explanation:
Q222) In financial accounting, a record is made only of information that can be expressed in Marks : 1.0
monetary terms. This is known as: Id: 44629
1) Historic cost convention 2) Business entity convention
3) Dualaspect concept 4) Money measurement convention
Explanation:
Q223) Book Keeping Includes Marks : 1.0
Id: 44641
1) Recording and Classifying 2) Recording and Summarizing
3) Recording and Analysis 4) None of the above is wholly correct
Explanation:
Q224) Sole traders differ from other types of trading organizations. Which of the following Marks : 1.0
statements correctly summarizes the key characteristics of a sole trader’s business? Id: 44530
1) Liability is limited to the providers of loan 2) The trader has unlimited liability and runs the
finance and only the trader takes an active part business in conjunction with the providers of
in managing the business loan finance
3) The trader has unlimited liability and must 4) The trader has unlimited liability, takes sole
have the business accounts audited responsibility for management of the business
and no audit is needed
Explanation:
Q225) The interest on capital is ____________ of the partnership firm. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44812
1) an income 2) gain
3) an expenditure 4) an asset
Explanation:
Q226) Journal is a book of _______ entries Marks : 1.0
Id: 44560
1) Generic 2) Duplicate
3) Original 4) Secondary
Explanation:
Q227) It is essential to standardize the accounting principles and policies in order to ensure Marks : 1.0
Id: 44435
1) Transparency 2) Consistency
3) Comparability 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q228) A business is in profit, when: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44557
1) Assets exceed Expenditure 2) Income exceeds Expenditure
3) Income exceeds Liabilities 4) Income exceeds Liabilities
Explanation:
Q229) The expenses and incomes pertaining to full trading period are taken to the Profit Marks : 1.0
and Loss Account of a business, irrespective of their payment or receipt. This is in Id: 44713
recognition of
1) Time period Concept 2) Going Concern Concept
3) Accrual Concept 4) Duality Concept
Explanation:
Q230) Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a business is divided Marks : 1.0
for the purpose of preparing financial statements? Id: 44631
1) Fiscal year 2) Calendar year
3) Accounting period 4) Accrual period
Explanation:
Q231) The underlying accounting principle(s) necessitating amortization of intangible Marks : 1.0
asset(s) is/are Id: 44705
1) Cost Concept 2) Realization Concept
3) Matching Concept 4) Both (a) and (c) above
Explanation:
Q232) Matching concept means Marks : 1.0
Id: 44444
1) assets = capital –liabilities 2) Assets = Liabilities
3) period of expenses = period of income 4) source of income & expenses are same
Explanation:
Q233) The accounting equation is....... Marks : 1.0
Id: 44472
1) Net income = Net expenses – Net revenues 2) Assets = Capital – Liabilties
3) Assets = Liabilities + Capital 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q234) Which of the following combination is CORRECT for Partnership Firm? (Minimum Marks : 1.0
and Maximum members) Id: 44596
1) Minimum 2 and Maximum 50 for nonbanking 2) Minimum 2 and Maximum 20 for all types of
business business
3) Minimum 2 and Maximum 20 for banking 4) Minimum 2 and Maximum 10 for banking
business business
Explanation:
Q235) Is it true that the trial balance totals should agree? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44591
1) No, there are sometimes good reasons why 2) No, because it is not a balance sheet
they differ
3) Yes, always
4) Yes, except where the trial balance is extracted
at the year end
Explanation:
Q236) Which of the following is not an accounting convention? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44794
1) Substance over form 2) Consistency
3) Depreciation 4) Matching
Explanation:
Q237) Which of the following are of capital nature? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44742
1) Purchase of a goods 2) Cost of repair
3) Wages paid for installation of machinery 4) Rent of a factory
Explanation:
Q238) Writing of transaction in the ledger is called________________ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44752
1) Costing 2) Balancing
3) Journalizing 4) Posting
Explanation:
Q239) A new firm commenced business on 1st January, 2006 and purchased goods costing Marks : 1.0
Rs. 90,000 during the year. A sum of Rs. 6,000 was spent on carriage inwards. At the Id: 44660
end of the year the cost of goods still unsold was Rs. 12,000. Sales during the year
was Rs.1,20,000. What is the gross profit earned by the firm?
1) 36000 2) 30000
3) 42000 4) 38000
Explanation:
Q240) “Assets should be valued at the price paid to acquire them“ is based on Marks : 1.0
Id: 44436
1) Accrual concept 2) Cost concept
3) Money measurement concept 4) Realization concept
Explanation:
Q241) Which of the following is taken into account while totaling the liabilities side of the Marks : 1.0
balance sheet? Id: 44546
1) Authorized Capital 2) Issued Capital
3) Subscribed Share Capital 4) Paidup capital
Explanation:
Q242) The accounting principle which refers to tendency of accountants to resolve Marks : 1.0
uncertainty and doubt in favour of understanding assets and revenues and Id: 44441
overstating the liabilities and expenses is known as
1) Conservatism 2) Materiality
3) Consistency 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q243) All the following statements are objectives of accounting except Marks : 1.0
Id: 44759
1) Providing details about the personal assets 2) Maintaining records of business.
and liabilities of the owner.
3) Providing information about the performance
of business entity.
4) Providing information about the assets,
liabilities and capital of business entity.
Explanation:
Q244) Owners and the business are separate as per the Marks : 1.0
Id: 38728
1) Seperate entity concept 2) Dual Aspect
3) Money measurement concept 4) None
Explanation:
Q245) State the case where the going concern concept is applied? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44663
1) When an enterprise was set up for a particular 2) When a receiver or liquidator has been
purpose, which has been achieved, or to be appointed in case of as a company which is to
achieved shortly be liquidated
3) Fixed assets are acquired for use in the 4) When an enterprise is declared sick
business for earning revenues and are not
meant for resale
Explanation:
Q246) Holding all other things constant, which of the following represents a cash outflow? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44566
1) The company sells a machine 2) The company acquires inventory
3) The company receives a bank loan 4) The company increases accounts payable.
Explanation:
Q247) Which of the following records is not a book of prime entry? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44799
1) Bank statements 2) Petty cash book
3) Journal 4) Sales returns day book.
Explanation:
Q248) Concept of similar accounts being treated similarly year after year is due to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44513
1) Prudence 2) consistency
3) materiality 4) on going concern
Explanation:
Q249) Following is the external user of accounting information Marks : 1.0
Id: 44482
1) Manager 2) Creditor
3) Employee 4) Owner
Explanation:
Q250) The convention of consistency refers to consistent use of accounting principles: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44801
1) Within industries 2) Throughout the accounting period
3) Among enterprises belonging to different 4) Across accounting periods
industries
Explanation:
Q251) Payment of personal expenses of the owners of the business need to be recorded as Marks : 1.0
Id: 44760
1) Drawings 2) Liability
3) Expenses 4) None of the three.
Explanation:
Q252) Below are 4 statements: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44403
A) Vehicle used for business purpose is an asset of business,
B) Cash withdrew for personal use is drawings from business,
C) Bad debts should be deducted from debtors,
D) Interest received is expenditure.
Which of the above statements are true?
1) Statement A ONLY 2) Statements A and B
3) Statements A, B and C 4) Statements A and C
Explanation:
Q253) In Double Entry System of Bookkeeping every business transaction affects Marks : 1.0
Id: 44653
1) Two accounts 2) Two sides of the same account
3) The same account on two different dates 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q254) Three fundamental accounting assumptions are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44638
1) Going concern, accrual and dual aspect 2) Going concern, dual aspect and consistency
3) consistency, dual aspect and going concern 4) Consistency, accrual and going concern
Explanation:
Q255) While finalizing the current year’s profit, the company realized that there was an error Marks : 1.0
in the valuation of closing stock of the previous year. In the previous year, closing Id: 44740
stock was valued more by Rs.50,000. As a result
1) Previous year’s profit is overstated and 2) Previous year’s profit is understated and
current year’s profit is also overstated current year’s profit is overstated
3) Previous year’s profit is understated and 4) Previous year’s profit is overstated and
current year’s profit is also understated current year’s profit is understated
Explanation:
Q256) Which of the following does not appear under the head “Share Capital”of a Balance Marks : 1.0
Sheet. a.Preference Share Capital b.Minority interest in subsidiaries c.Equity Share Id: 44552
Capital d.Capital Reserve Account
1) a&b 2) b&c
3) c&d 4) b&d
Explanation:
Q257) Which one of the following is not an example of Intangible Assets? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44633
1) Patents and Trade Marks 2) Copyright
3) Slogan 4) Land
Explanation:
Q258) Which of the following financial statements reflects the overall financial position of Marks : 1.0
the business? Id: 44599
1) Statement of cash flows 2) Income Statement
3) Balance Sheet 4) Statement of owner’s equity
Explanation:
Q259) In Accounting 'Dual aspect Concept' means ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44411
1) A firm or business is regarded as separate & 2) All business transactions are regarded as
distinct from the owner. having a dual aspect.
3) All transactions are recorded in terms of 4) Accounting is made on the assumption that a
money. business will continue in future and will use its
property in operations rather than sell them.
Explanation:
Q260) A company has received a penalty order from excise department. Penalty imposed is Marks : 1.0
Rs. 15.00 Lacs. Order was received on 15.01.2008 and company has filed appeal on Id: 44782
10.02.2008, result of which is pending as on 31.03.2008. The company should
1) Disclose the fact in financial statements by 2) Not disclose anything
recognizing liability
3) Disclose it as contingent liability
4) Should put this matter in Board of directors
meeting
Explanation:
Q261) Salary has been paid for 11 months from April 2005 to February, 2006 amounting Marks : 1.0
Rs.22,000. The amount of outstanding salary shown in the balance sheet will be: Id: 44770
1) 1833 2) 2000
3) 1000 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q262) Every entry recorded in Journal, must be posted into Marks : 1.0
Id: 38729
1) Day Book 2) Cash Book
3) Ledger 4) Sales Books
Explanation:
Q263) After preparing the trial balance, the accountant finds that the total of a credit side is Marks : 1.0
short by RS 1500. This difference will be Id: 44549
1) Credited to suspense a/c 2) Debited to suspense a/c
3) Adjusted to any of the debit balance account 4) Adjusted to any of the credit balance account
Explanation:
Q264) Which of the following transactions represent an expense? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44431
1) The owner withdrew Rs. 1,600 from the 2) Purchased a photocopying machine for Rs.
business for personal use 2,750 cash
3) Purchased medical supplies for cash from 4) Received a telephone bill amounting to Rs. 550
Healthcare Labs. Rs. 1,630 to be paid within ten days.
Explanation:
Q265) In Accounting 'Business entity Concept' means ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44410
1) A firm or business is regarded as separate & 2) All business transactions are regarded as
distinct from the owner. having a dual aspect.
3) All transactions are recorded in terms of 4) Accounting is made on the assumption that a
money. business will continue in future and will use its
property in operations rather than sell them.
Explanation:
Q266) A business was commenced on 1st January and it purchased 5 vehicles, each Marks : 1.0
costing Rs.5000. During the year the business managed to sell 2 vehicles at the price Id: 38732
of Rs.12000. How should the remaining 3 vehicles be valued if the business is going
to continue its operations in the next year?
1) At the breakup value 2) On the basis of going concern
3) Liquidation value 4) More than market value
Explanation:
Q267) Purchases book records: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44739
1) All cash purchases. 2) All credit purchases.
3) Credit purchases of goods in trade. 4) None of the above.
Explanation:
Q268) An old furniture was purchased for Rs. 10,000 , it was repaired for Rs. 100.The repairs Marks : 1.0
account should be debited by Id: 44773
1) 10000 2) 10100
3) 100 4) NIL
Explanation:
Q269) While putting the value or price of an entity in financial records the lowest price is Marks : 1.0
recorded not the current price or current market value. This is known as........... Id: 44487
1) Business Entity Concept 2) Conservatism Concept
3) Cost Concept 4) Money Measurement Concept
Explanation:
Q270) The financial statement that reports the financial position of a business is the Marks : 1.0
Id: 44624
1) income statement. 2) balance sheet.
3) statement of cash flows. 4) footnotes to the financial statements.
Explanation:
Q271) Following is the example of external users: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44749
1) Government. 2) Owners.
3) Management. 4) Employees.
Explanation:
Q272) Retained earnings is classified as a part of — Marks : 1.0
Id: 44723
1) Owners Fund 2) Gross Block
3) Capital Working Progress 4) Stock in Trade
Explanation:
Q273) Which of the following statement is true regarding call in arrears? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44615
1) Calls in arrears are that part of called up 2) It is shown in theProfit & Loss A/c until the
capital remaining unpaid. defaulted shares are forfeited
3) The rate of interest on calls in arrears is 4) Charging of interest on calls in arrears need
chargeable at 9% p.a. if a company adopts not be permitted by the Articles of Association
Table A
Explanation:
Q274) Sold goods to Kamat for Rs. 50000 @ 2% TD & 5% CD. He paid 60% of the amount Marks : 1.0
immediately. Find the amount of cash paid by Kamat. Id: 44661
1) ` 26950 2) ` 27930
3) ` 29400 4) ` 28812
Explanation:
Q275) In financial statements of a company, Material Supplier preferably looks for....... Marks : 1.0
Id: 44595
1) Profitability of our company 2) Liquidity position of our company
3) Long Term Viability of our company 4) Fixed Asset base of our company
Explanation:
Q276) X Ltd., purchased goods for ` 5 lakh and sold 9/10th of the value of goods for ` 6 lakh. Marks : 1.0
Net expenses during the year were ` 25, 000. The company reported its net profit as ` Id: 44710
75,000. Which of the following concept is violated by the company?
1) Realization 2) Conservation
3) Matching 4) Accrual
Explanation:
Q277) The term depletion is used for Marks : 1.0
Id: 44767
1) Fixed assets. 2) Natural resources.
3) Intangible assets. 4) None of the three.
Explanation:
Q278) The market for long term loanable funds is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44692
1) Bond market 2) Money market
3) Capital market 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q279) If Assets = Rs. 98,500 and Owner's equity = Rs. 50,500 then Liabilities = ? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44590
1) 57000 2) 105700
3) 48000 4) Rs. 148, 500
Explanation:
Q280) Rent paid for owner's residence is debited to drawing account and not to rent Marks : 1.0
account , is based on which principle? Id: 44494
1) Going concern concept 2) Separate Entity concept
3) Money Measurement concept 4) Daul aspect concept
Explanation:
Q281) Calculate inventory if Cost of goods sold is 216000 and inventory turn over is 4 times Marks : 1.0
Id: 44539
1) 50000 2) 54000
3) 60000 4) 64000
Explanation:
Q282) Material Cost can be classify on the basis of Relationship as______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44427
1) Fixed & Variable 2) Direct & Indirect
3) Raw Material & WIP 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q283) “Assets should be valued at the price paid to acquire them” is based on Marks : 1.0
Id: 44763
1) Accrual concept. 2) Cost concept.
3) Money measurement concept. 4) Realisation concept.
Explanation:
Q284) Sales accounts appears on ______ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44394
1) Trading account debit side 2) P&L account credit side
3) Balancesheet asset side 4) Trading account credit side
Explanation:
Q285) Which of the following concept is not considered as basic principle of accounting? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44715
1) Logical Concept 2) Consistency Concept
3) Matching Concept 4) Materiality Concept
Explanation:
Q286) Calculate Fixed assets is 2600000 and fixed to current assets is 13:11 Marks : 1.0
Id: 44541
1) 2000000 2) 2200000
3) 2800000 4) 3000000
Explanation:
Q287) Low assets turnover may indicate Marks : 1.0
Id: 44577
1) Low assets 2) High cost of maintenance
3) Idle assets 4) Higher sales
Explanation:
Q288) Current ratio indicates Marks : 1.0
Id: 44606
1) amount of cash with company 2) Ability to repay debt installment
3) Capacity to meet current Liabilities 4) Non of above
Explanation:
Q289) From the accounting point of view, loss means Marks : 1.0
Id: 44719
1) Increase in Liability 2) Decrease in asset
3) Increase in owner’s equity 4) Decrease in Owner’s equity
Explanation:
Q290) The account Accounts Receivable is an example of a(n) ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44521
1) asset 2) liability
3) owner's equity 4) none of the above
Explanation:
Q291) External liabilities plus capital is equal to ______________. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44809
1) assets 2) net worth
3) net profit 4) gross profit
Explanation:
Q292) Which of the following is not a function of Cost Accounting ? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44724
1) Cost ascertainment 2) Planning and control
3) Decisionmaking 4) External reporting
Explanation:
Q293) A list of assets, liabilities and owner's equity of a business enterprise as of a specific Marks : 1.0
date is: Id: 44781
1) Income Statement 2) Cash Flow Statement
3) Balance sheet. 4) Profit and Loss Account
Explanation:
Q294) Sunk costs are: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44620
1) usually relevant 2) costs that will occur in the future.
3) not relevant. 4) costs that can be avoided.
Explanation:
Q295) Cost information facilitates many important decisions except : Marks : 1.0
Id: 44726
1) Introduction of a product 2) Whether to make or buy
3) Retention of profit 4) Exploration of an additional market
Explanation:
Q296) Which of the following statements is false? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44731
1) Issued capital can never be more than 2) In case of under subscription, issued capital
authorized capital will be less than the subscribed capital
3) Uncalled capital may be converted into reserve 4) Paid up capital is equal to called up capital
capital less calls in arrears
Explanation:
Q297) Reporting on the performance of the firm to essential external users is done through Marks : 1.0
which type of accounting: Id: 44485
1) Managerial accounting 2) Financial accounting
3) Internal accounting 4) Cost accounting
Explanation:
Q298) A bank that offers wide range of financial services including commercial and Marks : 1.0
investment banking is termed as Id: 44669
1) Universal Bank 2) Unit Bank
3) Multinational Bank 4) Merchant Bank
Explanation:
Q299) Depreciation of Fixed Assets is an example of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44665
1) Deferred Revenue Expenditure 2) Revenue Expenditure
3) Capital Expenditure 4) Capital Receipts
Explanation:
Q300) All the following statements are objective of accounting except Marks : 1.0
Id: 44517
1) Providing information about the assets, 2) Maintaining records of business
liabilities and capital of business entity
3) Providing information about the performance
of business entity
4) Providing details about the personal assets
and liability of the owner
Explanation:
Q301) Which of the following term is used to represent the proportionate relationship Marks : 1.0
between debt and equity ? Id: 44698
1) Cost of Capital 2) Capital Budgeting
3) Assets Structure 4) Capital Structure
Explanation:
Q302) In Bookkeeping only ____________ transactions are recorded. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44611
1) Monetary 2) Nonmonetary
3) Monetary & Nonmonetary 4) Private
Explanation:
Q303) Provision for bad debt is made as per the Marks : 1.0
Id: 44712
1) Entity Concept 2) Conservatism Concept
3) Cost Concept 4) Going Concern Concept
Explanation:
Q304) Accounting is defined as? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44474
1) An art of recording, classifying and 2) A systematic and regular record of events
summarizing in a significant manner and in clear financial picture
terms of money, transactions and events
which are in part at least, of a financial
character and interpreting the results thereof. 3) A method of ascertaining profits & loss
4) Noting but book keeping
Explanation:
Q305) The bonds that are issued at heavy discount and pay no interest but are redeemable Marks : 1.0
at par at future date are Id: 44670
1) Convertible debentures 2) Green bonds
3) Zero Coupon Bonds 4) Govt. Security Bonds
Explanation:
Q306) Maximum __________ persons are required to form a partnership having trading Marks : 1.0
business. Id: 44815
1) 15 2) 8
3) 12 4) 20
Explanation:
Q307) Management Accounting seeks to serve the purpose of management to run a Marks : 1.0
business more efficiently and thus uses the techniques of : Id: 44725
1) Financial Accounting 2) Cost Accounting
3) Mathematics and Statistics 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q308) According to which of the following accounting principles, the owners of the Marks : 1.0
business are considered as creditors? Id: 44691
1) Money measurement 2) Separate Entity
3) Dual Aspect 4) Cost
Explanation:
Q309) A business's assets are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44625
1) equal to liabilities minus stockholders' equity. 2) the economic resources of the business.
3) Reported at current cost. 4) Reported on the income statement.
Explanation:
Q310) Which of the following transactions would increase Cash and cash equivalents and Marks : 1.0
increase Noncurrent liabilities? Id: 44628
1) A bank loan 2) Payment to a supplier
3) Purchasing goods on credit 4) Payment from a customer
Explanation:
Q311) Credit purchases entered in cash book it is called which error Marks : 1.0
Id: 44500
1) errors of omission 2) error of commission
3) compensation error 4) error of principle
Explanation:
Q312) comes in is to be debited, what goes out is to be credited. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44525
1) Rules of Personal 2) Rules of Real
3) Rules of Nominal 4) All of these
Explanation:
Q313) Managerial accounting information is generally prepared for Marks : 1.0
Id: 44473
1) Shareholders 2) Creditors
3) Regulatory agencies 4) Management
Explanation:
Q314) Financial Accounting ends with Marks : 1.0
Id: 44735
1) Preparation of Financial Statements 2) Preparation of Trial Balance
3) Preparation of P& L A/c 4) Preparation of Balance Sheet
Explanation:
Q315) Which one of the following qualities of useful accounting information requires such Marks : 1.0
information to (1) be capable of influencing a decision, (2) be timely, and (3) have Id: 44737
predictive and/or feedback value?
1) Understandable 2) Relevant
3) Reliable 4) Verifiable
Explanation:
Q316) Outstanding salary account is: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44768
1) Real account 2) Personal account
3) Nominal account 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q317) Sales are equal to: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44527
1) Cost of goods sold + gross profit 2) Cost of goods sold gross profit
3) Gross profit Cost of goods sold 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q318) Withdrawals by proprietor would Marks : 1.0
Id: 44717
1) Reduce both Assets and Owner’s Equity 2) Reduce Assets and increase Liabilities
3) Reduce Owner’s Equity and increase 4) Have no affect on the Balance Sheet
Liabilities
Explanation:
Q319) What are the considerations in designing the capital structure of a company Marks : 1.0
Id: 44677
1) Trading on equity 2) Cost of capital
3) Profitability 4) All of above
Explanation:
Q320) Which of the following would NOT be a goal of external users reading a company’s Marks : 1.0
financial statement? Id: 44396
1) Understanding the current financial state of 2) Assessing the company's contribution to
the company social and environmental policies
3) Predicting the company's future financial 4) Evaluating the company's ability to generate
performance cash from sales
Explanation:
Q321) Which of the following is not an asset ? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44609
1) Land and Building 2) Sundry Debtors
3) Loan from Shri Kulkarni 4) Cash balance
Explanation:
Q322) Accounting means recording of _________________ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44647
1) Transactions 2) Events
3) Both (a) and (b) 4) Neither (a) nor (b)
Explanation:
Q323) Bank overdraft is shown as a Marks : 1.0
Id: 44586
1) Current liability 2) Fixed asset
3) Contingent liability 4) Current asset
Explanation:
Q324) Which of the following is not an example of intangible assets? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44588
1) Patents 2) Plant & Machinery
3) Franchise rights 4) Goodwill
Explanation:
Q325) The charging of depreciation expense over the life of an asset rather than the Marks : 1.0
immediate full expensing of its costs is an example of: Id: 44800
1) Reliability 2) Consistency
3) Prudence 4) Matching
Explanation:
Q326) Accounting means_________ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44417
1) Summarizing the Business transactions 2) Recording of business transactions.
3) identifying& Communicating economic 4) All of these
information
Explanation:
Q327) Normally, the following accounts are balanced Marks : 1.0
Id: 44440
1) Real a/c and nominal a/c 2) Personal a/c and real a/c
3) Only nominal a/c 4) All a/c
Explanation:
Q328) If Cost of goods sold is Rs.80,700, Opening stock Rs.5,800 and Closing stock Marks : 1.0
Rs.6,000. Then the amount of purchase will be Id: 44743
1) 80500 2) 74900
3) 74700 4) 80900
Explanation:
Q329) The financial statement that shows the financial position of an enterprise at a Marks : 1.0
particular point in time is the: Id: 44630
1) Explanatory notes to the financial statements 2) Statement of changes in equity
3) Balance sheet 4) Cash flow statement
Explanation:
Q330) On 31st march while closing accounts COGS=35000, closing stock 8000/, opening Marks : 1.0
stock 10000/ purchase returns 5000/ then cost of goods purchased is Id: 44498
1) 35000 2) 38000
3) 5000 4) 27000
Explanation:
Q331) The functions planning and forecasting are attributed to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44481
1) Cost Accounting 2) Financial Accounting
3) Management Accounting 4) Book Keeping
Explanation:
Q332) Outstanding salaries are shown as _____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44392
1) An expense 2) A liability
3) An asset 4) An income
Explanation:
Q333) Accounting Starts where Marks : 1.0
Id: 44648
1) Book keeping ends 2) Business ends
3) Accounting period ends 4) None of above
Explanation:
Q334) If a business suffers a loss, the _________ of the proprietor decreases. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44612
1) Profit 2) Drawings
3) Capital 4) Expenditure
Explanation:
Q335) If the Going Concern concept is no longer valid, which of the following is true? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44704
1) All prepaid assets would be completely 2) Total contributed Capital and Retained
writtenoff immediately Earnings would remain unchanged
3) Intangible Assets would continue to be carried 4) Land held as an Investment would be valued at
at net Amortized historical cost its realizable value
Explanation:
Q336) Which of the following is a noncurrent liability? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44780
1) Bills Payable 2) Sundry Creditors
3) Bank Overdraft 4) Long term Loans
Explanation:
Q337) A company forfeited 2,000 shares of Rs.10 each (which were issued at par) held by Marks : 1.0
Mr. John for nonpayment of allotment money of Rs.4 per share. The calledup value Id: 44745
per share was Rs.9. They were reissued as fully paid to Mr. Mathews for Rs. 7. What
is the profit on reissue of shares to the company?
1) 2000 2) 4000
3) 6000 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q338) Accounting records Marks : 1.0
Id: 44471
1) Qualitative aspects of business 2) Economic aspects of business
3) Financial aspects of business 4) Quantitative aspects of business
Explanation:
Q339) For assessing future market value of company it is best to depend on Marks : 1.0
Id: 44607
1) turn over ratios 2) Earning ratios
3) profitability ratios 4) Liquidity ratios
Explanation:
Q340) The rent paid to the landlord should be debited to _____________ A/c. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44808
1) rent 2) drawings
3) cash 4) land
Explanation:
Q341) Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of financial accounting Marks : 1.0
in a limited liability company? Id: 44531
1) To assist in the daytoday management of the 2) To enable the business to pay the correct
company amount of tax
3) To ensure that the business pays the correct 4) To help the directors discharge their
dividend obligations to the shareholders
Explanation:
Q342) At the end of the accounting period the provision is made for the amount outstanding Marks : 1.0
for the electricity that has been consumed during the said period the statement is Id: 44445
based on
1) accrual concept 2) matching
3) realization 4) money measurement
Explanation:
Q343) The accounting equation can be expressed as which of the following? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44787
1) Assets plus liabilities equal owners' equity 2) Assets plus owners' equity equals liabilities
3) Assets equal liabilities plus owners' equity 4) Either A or C
Explanation:
Q344) Which financial statement can be compared to a still photograph: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44693
1) Income statement 2) Balance sheet
3) Cash flow statement 4) Fund flow statement
Explanation:
Q345) The separate entity concept is applicable to which of following types of businesses? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44484
1) Partnership 2) Sole proprietorship
3) Corporation 4) All the above
Explanation:
Q346) Overstating ending inventory will understate: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44798
1) assets. 2) cost of goods sold.
3) net income. 4) owner's equity.
Explanation:
Q347) According to schedule VI Companies Act which item is not shown on Asset side of Marks : 1.0
Balance sheet Id: 44627
1) Investment 2) Current Loan & Advances
3) Provision 4) Lease Holds
Explanation:
Q348) What is the order in which the accounting transactions and events are recorded in Marks : 1.0
the books? Id: 44778
1) Journal, Subsidiary books, Ledger, Balance 2) Ledger, Journal, Ledger, Balance sheet , Profit
sheet , Profit and loss account. and loss account
3) Journal, Ledger, Profit and loss account, 4) Profit and loss account, Ledger, Balance
Balance sheet . sheet, Journal.
Explanation:
Q349) Management Accounting Reports Can Be Described As Marks : 1.0
Id: 44504
1) GeneralPurpose 2) MacroReports
3) SpecialPurpose 4) Classified Financial Statements
Explanation:
Q350) Double entry bookkeeping was fathered by: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44502
1) F.W.Taylor 2) Henry Fayol
3) Lucas Pacioli. 4) Peter Drucker
Explanation:
Q351) A very high current ratio indicates Marks : 1.0
Id: 44548
1) High efficiency 2) flabby inventory
3) position of more short term funds 4) B or C
Explanation:
Q352) For which step of accounting process the accountants of business entity prepare Marks : 1.0
financial statements? Id: 44533
1) Identification of economic event 2) Communication of financial information
3) Recording financial information 4) Making decisions about business
Explanation:
Q353) A expense that gives benefit for a period of less than twelve months is known as Marks : 1.0
Id: 44589
1) Capital Expense 2) Deferred Expense
3) Revenue Receipt 4) Revenue Expense
Explanation:
Q354) Which of the following is false regarding the balance sheet? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44734
1) The accounts shown on a balance sheet does 2) The retained earnings balance shown on the
not represent the basic accounting equation balance sheet must agree with the ending
for a particular business entity. retained earnings balance shown on the
statement of retained earnings.
3) The balance sheet reports the changes in 4) The balance sheet reports the amount of
specific account balances over a period of assets, liabilities, and stockholders’ equity of
time. an accounting entity at a point in time.
Explanation:
Q355) Wages paid for installation of machinery should be debited to: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44462
1) Wages 2) Machinery
3) Cash 4) Installatio
Explanation:
Q356) When units produce increase, total variable costs ______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44386
1) Increase in proportion of units produced 2) Increase at a greater rate than units produced
3) Increase at a lesser rate than units produced 4) Do not change
Explanation:
Q357) Rs.5,000 was spent by Mrs. Saroj for addition to machinery in order to increase the Marks : 1.0
production capacity. The amount is: Id: 44771
1) Capital in nature. 2) Deferred revenue in nature.
3) Revenue in nature. 4) Liability in nature.
Explanation:
Q358) The main focus of managerial accounting is: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44520
1) decision making. 2) the preparation of financial statements.
3) the preparation of budgets. 4) documenting cash flows.
Explanation:
Q359) Management accounting involves Marks : 1.0
Id: 44443
1) Recording of costs 2) Recording of transactions
3) Preparation of financial statement 4) Analysis and interpretation of data
Explanation:
Q360) Accounting has certain norms to be observed by the accountants in recording of Marks : 1.0
transactions and preparation of financial statements. These norms reduce the Id: 44666
vagueness and chances of misunderstanding by harmonizing the varied accounting
practices. These norms are
1) Accounting Regulations 2) Accounting Guidance Notes
3) Accounting Standards 4) Accounting Framework
Explanation:
Q361) If the realized collection period is more than term of trade it can be said that Marks : 1.0
Id: 44576
1) Collection job is poor 2) The quality of debtor is poor
3) Average daily sales are low 4) both A& B above
Explanation:
Q362) In cost sheet Carriage outward cost relates with______ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44423
1) Selling &Distribution 2) Prime Cost
3) direct Material cost 4) Factory Cost
Explanation:
Q363) Which of the following concepts assumes that a business will last indefinitely? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44716
1) Business Entity 2) Going Concern
3) Periodicity 4) Consistency
Explanation:
Q364) The short term solvency ratio is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44779
1) Current Ratio 2) Proprietory Ratio
3) Net Profit Ratio 4) Debtors Turnvover Ratio
Explanation:
Q365) Conservatism principle says Marks : 1.0
Id: 38726
1) Anticipate losses not profit 2) Anticipate profit
3) Anticipate profit and losses 4) None
Explanation:
Q366) Calculate debtors if credit sales are 216000 and debtors turn over is 18 Marks : 1.0
Id: 44540
1) 12000 2) 15000
3) 18000 4) 20000
Explanation:
Q367) Under which form of business are the owners directly responsible for the debts of Marks : 1.0
the business? Id: 44792
1) Sole proprietorship 2) Partnership
3) A and B 4) Corporation
Explanation:
Q368) The assumption that the business enterprise would not be sold or liquidated in the Marks : 1.0
near future is known as the Id: 44449
1) Conservatism 2) Materiality
3) Going concern 4) Matching
Explanation:
Q369) Financial statements for external users can be described as Marks : 1.0
Id: 44468
1) Userspecific 2) Generalpurpose
3) Specialpurpose 4) Specialpurpose
Explanation:
Q370) As per the Double entry concept Marks : 1.0
Id: 44701
1) Assets+ Liabilities = Capital 2) Capital = Assets – Liabilities
3) Capital – Liabilities = Assets 4) Capital + Assets = Liabilities
Explanation:
Q371) A land purchased at a price of Rs. 5,00,000 has a market value of Rs 10,00,000. While Marks : 1.0
recording in the books of accounts it is shown at the purchase price of Rs 5,00,000 Id: 44495
This is the application of which principle?
1) Separate entity concept 2) Historical cost concept
3) Principle of conservatism 4) Materiality concept
Explanation:
Q372) Fundamental accounting assumptions are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44637
1) Materiality 2) Business entity
3) Going concern 4) Dual aspect
Explanation:
Q373) Assets Less Liabilities = ___________. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44579
1) Drawings 2) Capital
3) Profit 4) Loss
Explanation:
Q374) Which account is the odd one out? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44652
1) Office Furniture & Equipment 2) Freehold Land and Buildings
3) Stock of raw materials 4) Plant and Machinery
Explanation:
Q375) Purchases of raw materials for cash results in Marks : 1.0
Id: 44651
1) No change in Current Assets 2) Increase in Assets
3) Decrease in capital 4) Decrease in Liabilities
Explanation:
Q376) A second hand car is purchased for Rs. 10,000, the amount of Rs. 1,000 is spent on Marks : 1.0
its repairs, Rs. 500 is incurred to get the car registered in owner’s name and Rs. 1,200 Id: 44744
is paid as dealer’s commission. The amount debited to car account will be
1) 10000 2) 10500
3) 11500 4) 12700
Explanation:
Q377) A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, plus long Marks : 1.0
distance charges, would be classified as a: Id: 44479
1) Variable cost 2) Committed fixed cost
3) Direct cost 4) Semi variable cost
Explanation:
Q378) Management accounting information is generally prepared for Marks : 1.0
Id: 44464
1) Shareholders 2) Creditors
3) Managers 4) Regulatory agencies
Explanation:
Q379) Which of the following is a liability Marks : 1.0
Id: 44610
1) Motor Vehicles 2) Machinery
3) Creditors for goods 4) Cash at Bank
Explanation:
Q380) Drawings A/c is classified as __________________ A/c. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44807
1) Real 2) Nominal
3) Personal 4) Impersonal
Explanation:
Q381) The basic concepts related to Balance Sheet are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44699
1) Cost Concept 2) Business Entity Concept
3) Accounting Period Concept 4) Both (a) and (b) above
Explanation:
Q382) When money is withdrawn from bank, the bank: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44783
1) Credits Customer’s Account 2) Credit and debit Customers Account
3) Debits Customers Account 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q383) Revenue from sale of products, is generally, realized in the period in which Marks : 1.0
Id: 44746
1) Cash is collected. 2) Sale is made.
3) Products are manufactured. 4) None of the above.
Explanation:
Q384) Which is the non monetory transaction? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44414
1) Payment of wages of Rs.500 to a worker. 2) Ramesh gives his cycle to his friend Suresh
for a single day use.
3) Ramesh gives his cycle to his friend Suresh on 4) Shankar gives his bullock to gopal in
hire basis for a day. exchange of horse.
Explanation:
Q385) The company collected an account receivable of Rs.4,200. What effect did this Marks : 1.0
transaction have on the financial position of the company? Id: 44791
1) Assets, no change; Liabilities, no change; 2) Assets, decrease; Liabilities, increase;
Owners' Equity, no change Owners' Equity, no change
3) Assets, increase; Liabilities, increase; Owners' 4) Assets, decrease; Liabilities, no change;
Equity, no change Owners' Equity, decrease
Explanation:
Q386) If sales are Rs. 2,000 and the rate of gross profit on cost of goods sold is 25%, then Marks : 1.0
the cost of goods sold will be Id: 44748
1) 2000 2) 1500
3) 1600 4) None of the above.
Explanation:
Q387) What will be debited, if Arun commenced business with cash? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44559
1) Capital account 2) Proprietor account
3) Cash account 4) Drawings account
Explanation:
Q388) Periodical ascertainment of profit helps in judging the______ of a business unit. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44581
1) Profit 2) Capability
3) Performance 4) Accuracy
Explanation:
Q389) Which of the following is not the financial statement Marks : 1.0
Id: 44510
1) Profit & Loss account 2) Trial Balance
3) Profit & Loss appropriation account 4) Balance sheet
Explanation:
Q390) Sweat equity shares are equity shares issued by a company to its ____________. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44814
1) debtors 2) creditors
3) employees 4) lenders
Explanation:
Q391) Cost = Material+_______+Expenses Marks : 1.0
Id: 44422
1) Overhead 2) Direct Exp
3) Labour 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q392) The immediate recognition of loss is supported by the concept/convention of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44805
1) materiality 2) objective
3) consistency 4) conservatism
Explanation:
Q393) Which of the following regarding retained earnings is false? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44398
1) Retained earnings is increased by net income 2) Retained earnings is a component of
stockholders' equity on the balance sheet
3) Retained earnings is an asset on the balance 4) Retained earnings represents earnings not
sheet distributed to stockholders in the form of
dividends
Explanation:
Q394) As a gesture of goodwill, office supplies of Rs.1,000 were sold to a neighboring Marks : 1.0
business that paid cash for the supplies. What effect did this transaction have on the Id: 44790
financial position of the company?
1) Assets, no change; Liabilities, no change; 2) Assets, decrease; Liabilities, increase;
Owners' Equity, no change Owners' Equity, no change
3) Assets, increase; Liabilities, increase; Owners' 4) Assets, decrease; Liabilities, no change;
Equity, no change Owners' Equity, decrease
Explanation:
Q395) A company at the start of a financial period had a provision for doubtful debts of Marks : 1.0
Rs.7,000. By the end of the year the provision for doubtful debts was Rs.5,000. The Id: 44397
relevant entry in the profit and loss account would be:
1) Profit decreases by Rs. 2,000 2) Profit decreases by Rs. 5,000
3) Profit decreases by Rs. 12,000 4) Profit increases by Rs. 2,000
Explanation:
Q396) Omission of paise and showing the round figures in financial statements is based on Marks : 1.0
Id: 44709
1) Conservatism Concept 2) Consistency Concept
3) Materiality Concept 4) Realization Concept
Explanation:
Q397) Accounting has certain norms to be observed by the accountant in recording of Marks : 1.0
transaction and preparation of financial statement. These norms reduce the Id: 44438
vagueness and chance of misunderstanding the varied accounting practices. These
norms are
1) Accounting standards 2) Accounting frame work
3) Accounting regulation 4) Accounting guidance notes
Explanation:
Q398) Sales are equal to _____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44391
1) Cost of goods sold + Profit 2) Cost of goods sold Gross Profit
3) Gross Profit – Cost of goods sold 4) Gross profit – net profit
Explanation:
Q399) Which of the following have some similarities? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44486
1) Financial Accounting & Management 2) Cost Accounting and Management Accounting
Accounting
3) Financial Accounting & Cost Accounting
4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q400) The long term solvency position are measured by Marks : 1.0
Id: 44601
1) Coverage Ratio 2) Earning Ratio
3) Structural Ratios 4) Both A&C
Explanation:
Q401) Which of the following should NOT be called ‘Sales’? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44593
1) Goods sold for cash 2) Goods sold on credit
3) Sale of item previously included in ‘Purchases’ 4) Office fixtures sold
Explanation:
Q402) What is the minimum number of partners required to commence a partnership Marks : 1.0
business? Id: 44558
1) 20 2) 4
3) 10 4) 2
Explanation:
Q403) Statements: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44687
i. Agency theory relates to the relationship between management and employees
ii. Agency theory relates to middlemen
1) Both are correct 2) Both are incorrect
3) (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect 4) (ii) is correct and (i) is incorrect
Explanation:
Q404) Furniture for a cloth dealer is a ______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44390
1) Wasting Asset 2) Current Asset
3) Current Liability 4) Fixed Asset
Explanation:
Q405) The information provided in the annual financial statements of an enterprise pertain Marks : 1.0
to Id: 44757
1) Business Industry. 2) Individual business entity.
3) Economy. 4) None of the three.
Explanation:
Q406) Mr. A purchased a machinery costing `1,00,000 on 1st October, 2005. Transportation Marks : 1.0
and installation charges were incurred amounting `10,000 and ` 4,000 respectively. Id: 44659
Market value of the machine was estimated at ` 1,20,000 on 31st March 2006. While
finalising the annual accounts, A values the machinery at ` 1,20,000 in his books.
Which of the following concepts was violated by A?
1) Historical Cost Concept 2) Matching Concept
3) Realization Concept 4) Periodicity Concept
Explanation:
Q407) Four accounts are given below: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44404
A) Sales Account, B) Interest Account, C) Rent Account, D) Furniture Account.
Which of the above is/ are NOT nominal accounts?
1) Option D ONLY 2) Option A ONLY
3) Options A, B and C 4) Options A and C
Explanation:
Q408) Prepaid expenses are ______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44395
1) Assets of business 2) Liabilities of business
3) Expenses of business 4) Earnings for business
Explanation:
Q409) Which of the following is not a subfield of accounting? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44516
1) Management accounting 2) Cost accounting
3) Financial accounting 4) Book keeping
Explanation:
Q410) A person sells goods to another on credit basis then he becomes what for business: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44459
1) Creditor 2) Debtor
3) Both of above 4) None of above
Explanation:
Q411) All the expenditures and receipts of revenue nature go to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44751
1) Trading account. 2) Profit and loss account.
3) Balance sheet. 4) Either to (a) or (b)
Explanation:
Q412) The main purpose of cost accounting is to : Marks : 1.0
Id: 44727
1) Maximize profits 2) Help in inventory valuation
3) Provide information to management for 4) Aid in the fixation of selling price
decision making
Explanation:
Q413) __________ is the art of recording, classifying and summarizing the transactions and Marks : 1.0
events of a business and interpreting the results thereof. Id: 44388
1) Management 2) Accounting
3) Auditing 4) Bookkeeping
Explanation:
Q414) Which of the following is a source of own long term finance? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44686
1) Share capital 2) Term loan
3) Debentures 4) Bank credit
Explanation:
Q415) P & L Account is prepared for a period of one year by following Marks : 1.0
Id: 44703
1) Consistency Concept 2) Conservatism Concept
3) Accounting Period Concept 4) Cost Concept
Explanation:
Q416) Which of the following is an example of current asset Marks : 1.0
Id: 44585
1) Long term loan 2) Accounts payable
3) Land and building 4) Accounts receivable
Explanation:
Q417) Which of the following practices is not in consonance with the convention of Marks : 1.0
conservatism? Id: 44707
1) Creating Provision for Bad debts 2) Creating Provision for Discount on Creditors
3) Creating Provision for Discount on Debtors 4) Creating Provision for tax
Explanation:
Q418) Office equipment was purchased by issuing a check for Rs.5,000 and a bills payable Marks : 1.0
for the balance of Rs.45,000. What effect did this transaction have on the financial Id: 44789
position of the company?
1) Assets, no change; Liabilities, no change; 2) Assets, decrease; Liabilities, increase;
Owners' Equity, no change Owners' Equity, no change
3) Assets, increase; Liabilities, increase; Owners' 4) Assets, decrease; Liabilities, no change;
Equity, no change Owners' Equity, decrease
Explanation:
Q419) Notes to the financial statements about law suits, pledged assets, contractual Marks : 1.0
commitments, and due dates on large liabilities that help the users interpret the Id: 44793
financial statements are required under an important generally accepted accounting
principle (GAAP) known as which of the following?
1) Window dressing 2) Disclosure
3) Goingconcern 4) Cost
Explanation:
Q420) The going concern concept assumes that Marks : 1.0
Id: 44634
1) The entity continue running for foreseeable 2) The entity continue running until the end of
future accounting period
3) The entity will close its operating in 10 years 4) The entity can't be liquidated
Explanation:
Q421) Management Accounting is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44491
1) Extension of Financial Accounting 2) Extension of Financial Management
3) Accounting for Management 4) Concerned with the provision of information to
people within the organization to help them to
make better decisions
Explanation:
Q422) In financial accounting _______ is prepared for the calculation of business income Marks : 1.0
Id: 44582
1) Trading A/C 2) Balance sheet
3) Profit & Loss A/C 4) Fund flow statement
Explanation:
Q423) Match the following: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44680
1) Matching principle i. Ignores future profit estimates
2) Materiality principle ii. Normal basis for valuing assets
3) Conservatism principle iii. Revenues and expenses of a particular period
4) Cost principle iv. Relates to relative size or importance of item or event
1) [ 1 – i], [2 – ii], [3 – iii], [4 – iv] 2) [1 ii ], [2 i], [3 iv], [4 iii]
3) [1 iv ], [2 i], [3 ii], [4 iii ] 4) [1 iii], [2 iv], [3 i], [4 ii]
Explanation:
Q424) Management accounting and cost accounting are.... Marks : 1.0
Id: 44442
1) Supplementary to each other 2) Complementary to each other
3) Dependent of each other 4) Opposite of each other
Explanation:
Q425) Prepaid insurance premium should be classified as a : Marks : 1.0
Id: 44519
1) Current asset. 2) Fictitious asset.
3) Noncurrent asset. 4) None of the above.
Explanation:
Q426) Which of the following is a perfect Accounting Process? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44490
1) Identification of Transaction – Preparation of 2) Preparation of Business Documents –
Business Documents – Recording of Identification of Transaction – Recording of
Transaction in Journal – Posting to Ledger – Transaction in Journal – Posting to Ledger –
Preparation of Unadjusted Trial Balance – Preparation of Unadjusted Trial Balance –
Passing Adjusting Entries – Preparation of Passing Adjusting Entries – Preparation of
Adjusted Trial Balance – Preparation of Adjusted Trial Balance – Preparation of
Financial Statements Financial Statements
3) Preparation of Unadjusted Trial Balance – 4) Identification of Transaction – Preparation of
Identification of Transaction – Preparation of Business Documents – Preparation of
Business Documents – Recording of Unadjusted Trial Balance – Passing Adjusting
Transaction in Journal – Posting to Ledger – Entries – Recording of Transaction in Journal
Passing Adjusting Entries – Preparation of – Posting to Ledger – Preparation of Adjusted
Adjusted Trial Balance – Preparation of Trial Balance – Preparation of Financial
Financial Statements Statements
Explanation:
Q427) Which of the following accounting information is correct? Marks : 1.0
Id: 38722
1) Assests=Liabilities+capital 2) Assests=Liabilities
3) Assests=Liabilitiescapital 4) None
Explanation:
Q428) A company is said to be multinational if: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44671
1) Production and marketing are done in many 2) Domestically produced items are sold round
countries the world
3) Workers are hired from all countries 4) Raw materials are acquired from many
countries
Explanation:
Q429) It is generally assumed that business will not liquidate in the near foreseeable future Marks : 1.0
because of Id: 44646
1) Periodicity 2) Materiality
3) Matching 4) Going concern
Explanation:
Q430) Accrued expenses affects: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44797
1) assets and expenses. 2) liabilities and revenues.
3) assets and revenues. 4) expenses and liabilities.
Explanation:
Q431) Interest on drawings in normal course is calculated for Marks : 1.0
Id: 44617
1) 12 months 2) 6 months
3) 6.5 months 4) 5 months
Explanation:
Q432) Current ratio is used to assess Marks : 1.0
Id: 44575
1) Effective utilization of capital 2) Application of debt
3) Liquidity position 4) Levels of inventory
Explanation:
Q433) Which of the following account need to prepare separately in Partnership? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44594
1) Trading Account 2) Profit & Loss Account / Income Statement
3) Capital Account 4) Assets Account
Explanation:
Q434) Modern Method of Accounting was introduced by Marks : 1.0
Id: 44802
1) R.N.Carter 2) Luco Pacioli
3) J.R. Batlibai 4) M.S. Gosav
Explanation:
Q435) A business has the following items in it: Owners equity Rs.600,000 Total liabilities Marks : 1.0
Rs.1,400,000. Assets.What is the value of Assets…………… Id: 44522
1) 600000 2) 1400000
3) 2000000 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q436) Nominal Accounts means ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44408
1) The accounts of individuals, firms, limited 2) The accounts of properties, assets or
companies, local authorities, associations with professionals of the businessman.
whom the businessman deals.
3) Accounts representing incomes and expenses
or profits and gains.
4) The accounts which relate to things other than
persons.
Explanation:
Q437) The Final Accounts (or Financial Statements) of a Sole Trader comprise Marks : 1.0
Id: 38730
1) b, c and d 2) Trading Account
3) Profit and Loss Account 4) Balance Sheet
Explanation:
Q438) Internal users of accounting information are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44475
1) Owners 2) Creditors
3) Management 4) Government
Explanation:
Q439) _____ Discount is not recorded in the books of Accounts. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44426
1) Cash 2) Trade
3) Both A & B 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q440) Which of the following items can be found on an income statement? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44564
1) Accounts receivable 2) Longterm debt
3) Sales 4) Inventory
Explanation:
Q441) An assets liquidity measures Marks : 1.0
Id: 44603
1) Its potential to generate a profit 2) its usefulness to organization
3) Its ease and cost of being converted into cash 4) Proportion of Equity financing
Explanation:
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DNYANSAGAR INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH
Q. no Question Answer
1. Managerial accounting information is generally prepared for C
…………………
a. Shareholders
b. Creditors
c. Managers
d. Regulatory agencies
a. Creditor
b. Department manager
c. Controller
d. Treasurer
a. Service entities
b. Manufacturing entities
c. Non profit entities
d. All of these
8 Which type of asset class includes those assets which have only D
definite use and become valueless when the yield is over?
a. Fixed asset
b. Current asset
c. Fictitious asset
d. Wasting asset
9 An accounting that deals with the accounting and reporting of B
information to managementregarding the detail information is
a. Financial accounting
b. Management accounting
c. Cost accounting
d. Real Accounting
10
13. Cost of goods sold= opening stock+ net purchases+ expenses on Purchases – D
sales Which part of formula is wrong?
a. opening stock
b. net purchases
c. expenses on Purchases
d. sales
28 cost refers to those cost which have already been incurred and cannot be B
altered by any decision in the future.
a. Opportunity cost
b. Sunk Cost
c. Incremental cost
d. Decremental cost
31. cost will still be incurred although a plant is shut down temporarily. C
a. Cost of raw material
b. Advertising
c. Depreciation
d. Carriage
32 Accounting principles are generally based upon: A
a. Practicability
b. Subjectivity
c. Convenience in recording
d. None of the above
33 The system of recording based on dual aspect concept is called: B
a. Double account system
b. Double entry system
c. Single entry system
d. All the above
34 The practice of appending notes regarding contingent liabilities in accounting D
statements is in pursuance to:
a. Convention of consistency
b. Money measurement concept
c. Convention of conservatism
d. Convention of disclosure
35 Sales are equal to: A
a. Cost of goods sold + gross profit
b. Cost of goods sold - gross profit
c. Gross profit- Cost of goods sold
d. None of the above
36 Interest on drawings is: C
a. Expenditure for the business
b. Cost for the business
c. Gain for the business
d. None of the above
37 Goods given as samples should be credited to: C
a. Advertisement account
b. Sales account
c. Purchase account
d. None of the above
38. Outstanding salaries are shown as: C
a. Added to Salaries while preparing P & La/c
b. Shown in liability side of Balance sheet under current Liability.
c. (a) &(b) above
d. None of the above
39 Income tax paid by a sole proprietor on his business income should be: C
a. Debited to trading account
b. Debited to profit and loss account
c. Deducted from capital account in the balance sheet
d. None of the above
40. All direct & indirect expenses related to business are charged: C
a. Profit and loss account
b. Trading account
c. Trading account Profit and Loss account
d. Directly to Balance sheet
43 Investment of X company profit in shares of other company PQR Pvt. ltd are A
recorded in……………….
a. Asset side of Balance Sheet
b. Liability side of Balance Sheet
c. Profit & Loss a/c
d. Not recorded in Balance Sheet
a. Remains fixed
b. Fluctuates with volume of production
c. Varies in consideration with the volume of sales
d. None of the above
a. Increases assets
b. Results in no change in the total assets
c. Decreases assets
d. Increases liability
63 Cost of asset should always be equal to the cost of the liabilities. This concept B
is
a. Realization Concept
b. Matching Concept
c. Cost Concept
d. Both a and b above
a. Consistency concept
b. Conservatism concept
c. Accounting period concept
d. Cost Concept
a. Current assets
b. Current liabilities
c. Fixed asset
d. Fixed liability
69 Reserve for doubtful debts appearing in the trial balance should be: E
a. Debtors
b. Investors
c. Creditors
d. Shareholders
71 According to which concept business is treated as a unit apart from owner C
a. Dual concept
b. Divider concept
c. Entity concept
d. Landlord concept
72 Authorized capital, also known as A
a. Nominal capital
b. Paid up capital
c. Issues capital
d. None of these
73 True & fair profit and loss a/c of a company know by D
a. Preparing trial balance
b. Preparing respective ledger of account
c. Preparing trading a/c
d. Preparing trading & profit & loss a/c
74 Credit balance of profit & loss a/c shown on B
a. Asset side of balance sheet
b. Liability side of balance sheet
c. Not shown in balance sheet
d. Half on asset side and half on liability side
75 Under which concept it is assumed that the enterprises has neither the C
intention nor the necessity of liquidation or of curtailing materiality the scale
of operation
a. Revenue realization concept
b. Matching cost concept
c. Going concern concept
d. None of these
76 Making the provision for doubtful debts and discount on debtors in A
anticipation of actual bad debts and discount is an example for which concept
a. Conservatism concept
b. Continuity concept
c. Realization concept
d. All of these
82 Which of the following account balance will be shown on debit side of Trial D
Balance?
a. Outstanding expenses
b. Cash a/c
c. Short term loan
d. creditors
83 The reduction in the value of the fixed assets which can arise due to time B
factor is
a. Discount
b. Depreciation
c. Reduction
d. None of the above
92 Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of: B
a. Separate entity
b. Going concern
c. Consistency
d. Time period
a. Income Statement
b. Cash Flow Statement
c. Balance Sheet
d. Fund Flow Statement
95 Which of the following is a liability? A
a. Loan from Mr.Y
b. loan to Mr.y
c. Both (a) (b)
d. None of these
92 Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of: B
e. Separate entity
f. Going concern
g. Consistency
h. Time period
e. Income Statement
f. Cash Flow Statement
g. Balance Sheet
h. Fund Flow Statement
95 Which of the following is a liability? A
e. Loan from Mr.Y
f. loan to Mr.y
g. Both (a) (b)
h. None of these
97 Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of: B
a. Separate entity
b. Going concern
c. Consistency
d. Time period
a. Fiscal year
b. Calendar year
c. Accounting period
d. Accrual period
107 Using "lower of cost and net realisable value(Market Value)" for the purpose C
of inventory valuation is the implementation of which of the following
concepts?
a. The going concern concept
b. The separate entity concept
c. The prudence concept
d. Matching concept
108 The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following D
types of businesses?
a. Sole proprietorship
b. Corporation
c. Partnership
d. All of them
109 The revenue recognition principal dictates that all types of incomes should be C
recorded or recognized when
a. Cash is received
b. At the end of accounting period
c. When they are earned
d. When interest is paid
110 The allocation of owner's private expenses to his/her business violates which C
of the following?
a. Accrual concept
b. Matching concept
c. Separate business entity concept
d. Consistency concept
112 Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a C
business is divided for the purpose of preparing financial statements?
a. Fiscal year
b. Calendar year
c. Accounting period
d. Accrual period
113 Showing purchased office equipments in financial statements is the B
application of which accounting concept?
a. Historical cost convention
b. Materiality
c. Prudence
d. Matching concept
114 Information about an item is if its omission or misstatement might D
influence the financial decision of the users taken on the basis of that
information
a. Concrete
b. Complete
c. Immaterial
d. Material
115 "Financial information should be neutral and bias free" is the dictation of C
which one of the following?
a. Completeness concept
b. Faithful representation Concept
c. Objectivity Concept
d. Duality Concept
116 Accounting principles are divided into two types. These are --- D
a. Accounting Concepts
b. Accounting Conventions
c. Accounting Standards
d. Accounting Concepts &Accounting Conventions
117 Which of the following is not related with Money Measurement Concept ? B
a. All business transaction should be expressed only in money
b. The transactions which cannot be expressed in money, will not be
recorded in accounting books
c. Business is treated as separate from the proprietor
d. None of These
118 Which of the following equation is related with Dual Aspect Concept ? D
a. Total Assets = Total Liabilities
b. Total Assets = Capital + Outsider’s Liabilities
c. Capital = Total Assets - Outsider’s Liabilities
d. All of the above
119 If the total assets of the company amount to Rs 1,50,000 and owner’s B
equity is Rs 70,000, the amount of liabilities will be –
a. Rs 70,000
b. Rs 80,000
c. Rs 90,000
d. Rs 1,00,000
c. Controlling function
d. None of these
131 The convention of conservatism when applied to the balance sheet result A
in.
a. Understand the asset
b. Understand the liabilities
c. Overstatement of capital
d. None of these
c. Providing depreciation
d. None of these
133 The amount brought in by the proprietor in the business should be credited B
to
a. Cash a/c
b. Capital a/c
c. Drawing a/c
d. Bank a/c
134 The amount of salary paid to Suresh should be debited to B
a. The account of Suresh
b. Salaries a/c
c. Cash a/c
d. Bank a/c
141 The convention of disclosure implies that all material information should be A
a. Disclosed in the account
b. Disclosed in the accounts which is required to owner
c. Not disclosed
d. None of these
143 Custom and traditions which guide the accountant while preparing the C
accounting statements
a. Accounting convention
b. Accounting concepts
c. Accounting principles
d. None of these
145 system in which accounting entries are made on the basis of amounts having B
become due for payment or receipt is called
a. Cash concept
b. Accrual concept
c. Matching concept
d. On-going concept
147 Debit what come in Credit what goes out rule for A
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
148 Debit all expenses and losses Credit all gains and income. C
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
150 Transferring the debit and credit item from the journal to the respective B
accounts is called
a. Compound Journal
b. Ledger
c. Trial balance
d. None of these
152 The transferring of debit and credit items from journal to the respective B
accounts in the ledger is called as
a. Ledger
b. Posting
c. Forward journal
d. None of these
153 Which of the following items would not fall under the definition of an asset? D
a. Land
b. Machine
c. Cash
d. Owner Equity
154 Which one of the following items would fall under the definition of a C
liability
a. Cash
b. Debtor
c. Owner’s equity
d. None of these
a. Rs.200, 000
b. Rs.700, 000
c. Rs.800, 000
d. Rs1, 100,000
Creditors Rs.50,000
What is the value of the land…………………..
a. 1,000,000
b. 1,550,000
c. 800,000
d. None of these
160 Which of the following equations properly represents a derivation of the D
fundamental accounting equation?
a. Only (a)
b. Both (a) (b)
c. All (a)(b)(c)(d)
d. d) None of these
161 Retained earnings will change over time because of several factors. Which B
of the following factors would explain an increase in retained earnings?
a. Net Loss
b. Net income
c. Dividend
d. Investment by share holder.
164 XYZltd.has provided the following information about its balance sheet: B
Cash Rs.100
a. Rs.200
b. Rs.1900
c. Rs.1200
d. Rs.1700
165 The full disclosure principle, as adopted by the accounting profession, is D
best described by which of the following?
a. All information related to an entity's business and operating
objectives is required to be disclosed in the financial statements.
b. Information about each account balance appearing in the financial
statements is to be included in the notes to the financial
statements.
c. Enough information should be disclosed in the financial statements
so a person wishing to invest in the stock of the company can make
a profitable decision.
d. Disclosure of any financial facts significant enough to influence the
judgment of an informed reader
166 Which of the following is a real (permanent) account? D
a. Goodwill
b. Sales
c. Accounts Receivable
d. Both Goodwill and Accounts Receivable
167 Which of the following statements is not an objective of financial B
reporting?
a. Provide information that is useful in investment and credit
decisions.
b. Provide information regarding policy of organization
c. Provide information that is useful in assessing cash flow
prospective
d. None of theses
168 The Cash account on the balance sheet should not include which of the A
following items?
a. Travel advances to employees
b. Currency
c. Money orders
d. Deposits in transit
170 The following comments all relate to the recording process. Which of these B
statements is correct?
a. The general ledger is a chronological record of transactions.
b. The general ledger is posted from transactions recorded in the general
journal.
c. The trial balance provides the primary source document for recording
transactions into the general journal.
d. Transposition is the transfer of information from the general journal to
the general ledger.
171 The following comments each relate to the recording of journal entries. Which D
statement is true?
a. For any given journal entry, debits must exceed credits.
b. It is customary to record credits on the left and debits on the right.
c. The chart of accounts reveals the amount to debit and credit to the
affected accounts.
d. Journalization is the process of converting transactions and events into
debit/credit format.
172 The trial balance is ………………………….. D
173 Which of the following errors will be disclosed in the preparation of a trial C
balance?
a. Recording transactions in the wrong account.
b. Duplication of a transaction in the accounting records.
c. Posting only the debit portion of a particular journal entry.
d. Recording the wrong amount for a transaction to both the account
debited and the account credited.
174 The basic sequence in the accounting process can best be described as: D
a. Transaction, journal entry, source document, ledger account, trial
balance.
b. Source document, transaction, ledger account, journal entry, trial
balance.
c. Transaction, source document, journal entry, trial balance, ledger
account.
d. d. Transaction, source document, journal entry, ledger account,
trial balance.
181 Manufacturing costs are also known as product costs. Which of the C
following best describes those costs which are considered to be
manufacturing costs?
a. Direct materials, direct labor, and factory overhead.
b. Direct materials and direct labor only.
c. Direct materials, direct labor, factory overhead, and administrative
overhead.
d. Direct labor and factory overhead.
182 A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, D
plus long distance charges, would be classified as a:
a. Variable cost
b. Committed fixed cost
c. Direct cost
d. Semi variable cost
a. Sundry creditors
b. Acceptances
c. Unclaimed dividend
d. Short term investment
193 Financial accounting deals with: B
a. Determination of cost
b. Determination of profit
c. Determination of price
d. Determination of selling price
194 Financial account record only A
a. Actual figures
b. Budgeted figures
c. Standard figures
d. Management Figure
195 The term Management Accounting was first used in C
a. 1910
b. 1939
c. 1950
d. 1960
d. Six months
205 A budget is tool which helps the management in planning and control of… A
a. All business activities
b. Production activities
c. Purchase activities
d. Sales activities
206 Budgetary control system acts as a friend, philosopher and guide to the… A
a. Management
b. Share holders
c. Creditors
d. Employees
207 Budgetary control system defines the objectives and policies of the… D
a. Production department
b. Finance department
c. Marketing department
d. All
208 Budgetary control system facilitates centralized control with… C
a. Decentralized activity
b. Centralized activity
c. Both
d. None
209 Budgetary control facilitates easy introduction of the… C
a. Marginal costing
b. Ratio analysis
c. Standard costing
d. Subjective matter
210 Budgetary control helps the management in… A
a. Obtaining bank credit
b. Issue of shares
c. Getting grants from government
d. All of these
211 Budgetary control system helps the management to eliminate… C
a. Undercapitalization
b. Overcapitalization
c. Both
d. Subjective matter
212 Budgetary control provides a basis for… C
a. Bonus shares
b. Rights shares
c. Remuneration plans
d. None
213 Budgetary control helps to introduce a suitable incentive and B
remuneration based
on…
a. Changes in government policies
b. Inflationary conditions
c. Both
d. None
229 On the basis of flexibility budget is classified into two types such as fixed A
budget and
________ budget.
a. variable
b. Semi-variable
c. Constant
230 Variable budget is also known as _______ budget. C
a. Fixed
b. Semi-variable
c. Flexible
231 The budget prepared according to ________ is known as functional C
budgets.
a. Period
b. Controls
c. Functions
232 ……………….. budget is a budget which is designed to remain unchanged C
irrespective of the volume of output or turnover achieved.
a. Flexible
b. Cash
c. Fixed
233 A Flexible budget is one which permits the change in accordance with the B
changes
in the level of activity.
a. Fixed
b. Flexible
c. Sales
234 Flexible budgets are more useful in actual practice because it is more A
realistic and
has great practical utility in the business.
a. realistic
b. non-realistic
c. Predictable
235 A _______ budget is the budget which shows the quantity and value of C
goods to be
purchased during the budget period to meet the day-to-day needs of the
business.
a. Sales
b. Cash
c. Purchase
236 One of the basic purpose to prepare _______ budget is to estimate the A
cash
requirements for the purchases to be made during the budgeted period.
a. purchase
b. cash
c. sales
247 Given the budgeted output in second quarter is 8,000 units. In the first A
quarter,
Fixed overheads were Rs 40,000 Variable overheads were Rs 5 per unit ( Rs
40,000)
and semi variable were 20,000 ( 60% varying @ Rs 3 per unit). Determine
the total
manufacturing overhead budget for the second quarter.
a. Rs 1,12,000
b. 1,12,000 units
c. Insufficient data
d. None of the above
248 Budgetary control system defines the objectives and policies of the… D
a. Production department
b. Finance department
c. Marketing department
d. All
249 Budgetary control system facilitates centralized control with… C
a. Decentralized activity
b. Centralized activity
c. Both
d. None
Q. no Question Answer
1. Managerial accounting information is generally prepared for C
…………………
a. Shareholders
b. Creditors
c. Managers
d. Regulatory agencies
a. Creditor
b. Department manager
c. Controller
d. Treasurer
a. Service entities
b. Manufacturing entities
c. Non profit entities
d. All of these
8 Which type of asset class includes those assets which have only D
definite use and become valueless when the yield is over?
a. Fixed asset
b. Current asset
c. Fictitious asset
d. Wasting asset
9 An accounting that deals with the accounting and reporting of B
information to managementregarding the detail information is
a. Financial accounting
b. Management accounting
c. Cost accounting
d. Real Accounting
10
13. Cost of goods sold= opening stock+ net purchases+ expenses on Purchases – D
sales Which part of formula is wrong?
a. opening stock
b. net purchases
c. expenses on Purchases
d. sales
28 cost refers to those cost which have already been incurred and cannot be B
altered by any decision in the future.
a. Opportunity cost
b. Sunk Cost
c. Incremental cost
d. Decremental cost
31. cost will still be incurred although a plant is shut down temporarily. C
a. Cost of raw material
b. Advertising
c. Depreciation
d. Carriage
32 Accounting principles are generally based upon: A
a. Practicability
b. Subjectivity
c. Convenience in recording
d. None of the above
33 The system of recording based on dual aspect concept is called: B
a. Double account system
b. Double entry system
c. Single entry system
d. All the above
34 The practice of appending notes regarding contingent liabilities in accounting D
statements is in pursuance to:
a. Convention of consistency
b. Money measurement concept
c. Convention of conservatism
d. Convention of disclosure
35 Sales are equal to: A
a. Cost of goods sold + gross profit
b. Cost of goods sold - gross profit
c. Gross profit- Cost of goods sold
d. None of the above
36 Interest on drawings is: C
a. Expenditure for the business
b. Cost for the business
c. Gain for the business
d. None of the above
37 Goods given as samples should be credited to: C
a. Advertisement account
b. Sales account
c. Purchase account
d. None of the above
38. Outstanding salaries are shown as: C
a. Added to Salaries while preparing P & La/c
b. Shown in liability side of Balance sheet under current Liability.
c. (a) &(b) above
d. None of the above
39 Income tax paid by a sole proprietor on his business income should be: C
a. Debited to trading account
b. Debited to profit and loss account
c. Deducted from capital account in the balance sheet
d. None of the above
40. All direct & indirect expenses related to business are charged: C
a. Profit and loss account
b. Trading account
c. Trading account Profit and Loss account
d. Directly to Balance sheet
43 Investment of X company profit in shares of other company PQR Pvt. ltd are A
recorded in……………….
a. Asset side of Balance Sheet
b. Liability side of Balance Sheet
c. Profit & Loss a/c
d. Not recorded in Balance Sheet
a. Remains fixed
b. Fluctuates with volume of production
c. Varies in consideration with the volume of sales
d. None of the above
a. Increases assets
b. Results in no change in the total assets
c. Decreases assets
d. Increases liability
63 Cost of asset should always be equal to the cost of the liabilities. This concept B
is
a. Realization Concept
b. Matching Concept
c. Cost Concept
d. Both a and b above
a. Consistency concept
b. Conservatism concept
c. Accounting period concept
d. Cost Concept
a. Current assets
b. Current liabilities
c. Fixed asset
d. Fixed liability
69 Reserve for doubtful debts appearing in the trial balance should be: E
a. Debtors
b. Investors
c. Creditors
d. Shareholders
71 According to which concept business is treated as a unit apart from owner C
a. Dual concept
b. Divider concept
c. Entity concept
d. Landlord concept
72 Authorized capital, also known as A
a. Nominal capital
b. Paid up capital
c. Issues capital
d. None of these
73 True & fair profit and loss a/c of a company know by D
a. Preparing trial balance
b. Preparing respective ledger of account
c. Preparing trading a/c
d. Preparing trading & profit & loss a/c
74 Credit balance of profit & loss a/c shown on B
a. Asset side of balance sheet
b. Liability side of balance sheet
c. Not shown in balance sheet
d. Half on asset side and half on liability side
75 Under which concept it is assumed that the enterprises has neither the C
intention nor the necessity of liquidation or of curtailing materiality the scale
of operation
a. Revenue realization concept
b. Matching cost concept
c. Going concern concept
d. None of these
76 Making the provision for doubtful debts and discount on debtors in A
anticipation of actual bad debts and discount is an example for which concept
a. Conservatism concept
b. Continuity concept
c. Realization concept
d. All of these
82 Which of the following account balance will be shown on debit side of Trial D
Balance?
a. Outstanding expenses
b. Cash a/c
c. Short term loan
d. creditors
83 The reduction in the value of the fixed assets which can arise due to time B
factor is
a. Discount
b. Depreciation
c. Reduction
d. None of the above
92 Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of: B
a. Separate entity
b. Going concern
c. Consistency
d. Time period
a. Income Statement
b. Cash Flow Statement
c. Balance Sheet
d. Fund Flow Statement
95 Which of the following is a liability? A
a. Loan from Mr.Y
b. loan to Mr.y
c. Both (a) (b)
d. None of these
92 Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of: B
e. Separate entity
f. Going concern
g. Consistency
h. Time period
e. Income Statement
f. Cash Flow Statement
g. Balance Sheet
h. Fund Flow Statement
95 Which of the following is a liability? A
e. Loan from Mr.Y
f. loan to Mr.y
g. Both (a) (b)
h. None of these
97 Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of: B
a. Separate entity
b. Going concern
c. Consistency
d. Time period
a. Fiscal year
b. Calendar year
c. Accounting period
d. Accrual period
107 Using "lower of cost and net realisable value(Market Value)" for the purpose C
of inventory valuation is the implementation of which of the following
concepts?
a. The going concern concept
b. The separate entity concept
c. The prudence concept
d. Matching concept
108 The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following D
types of businesses?
a. Sole proprietorship
b. Corporation
c. Partnership
d. All of them
109 The revenue recognition principal dictates that all types of incomes should be C
recorded or recognized when
a. Cash is received
b. At the end of accounting period
c. When they are earned
d. When interest is paid
110 The allocation of owner's private expenses to his/her business violates which C
of the following?
a. Accrual concept
b. Matching concept
c. Separate business entity concept
d. Consistency concept
112 Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a C
business is divided for the purpose of preparing financial statements?
a. Fiscal year
b. Calendar year
c. Accounting period
d. Accrual period
113 Showing purchased office equipments in financial statements is the B
application of which accounting concept?
a. Historical cost convention
b. Materiality
c. Prudence
d. Matching concept
114 Information about an item is if its omission or misstatement might D
influence the financial decision of the users taken on the basis of that
information
a. Concrete
b. Complete
c. Immaterial
d. Material
115 "Financial information should be neutral and bias free" is the dictation of C
which one of the following?
a. Completeness concept
b. Faithful representation Concept
c. Objectivity Concept
d. Duality Concept
116 Accounting principles are divided into two types. These are --- D
a. Accounting Concepts
b. Accounting Conventions
c. Accounting Standards
d. Accounting Concepts &Accounting Conventions
117 Which of the following is not related with Money Measurement Concept ? B
a. All business transaction should be expressed only in money
b. The transactions which cannot be expressed in money, will not be
recorded in accounting books
c. Business is treated as separate from the proprietor
d. None of These
118 Which of the following equation is related with Dual Aspect Concept ? D
a. Total Assets = Total Liabilities
b. Total Assets = Capital + Outsider’s Liabilities
c. Capital = Total Assets - Outsider’s Liabilities
d. All of the above
119 If the total assets of the company amount to Rs 1,50,000 and owner’s B
equity is Rs 70,000, the amount of liabilities will be –
a. Rs 70,000
b. Rs 80,000
c. Rs 90,000
d. Rs 1,00,000
c. Controlling function
d. None of these
131 The convention of conservatism when applied to the balance sheet result A
in.
a. Understand the asset
b. Understand the liabilities
c. Overstatement of capital
d. None of these
c. Providing depreciation
d. None of these
133 The amount brought in by the proprietor in the business should be credited B
to
a. Cash a/c
b. Capital a/c
c. Drawing a/c
d. Bank a/c
134 The amount of salary paid to Suresh should be debited to B
a. The account of Suresh
b. Salaries a/c
c. Cash a/c
d. Bank a/c
141 The convention of disclosure implies that all material information should be A
a. Disclosed in the account
b. Disclosed in the accounts which is required to owner
c. Not disclosed
d. None of these
143 Custom and traditions which guide the accountant while preparing the C
accounting statements
a. Accounting convention
b. Accounting concepts
c. Accounting principles
d. None of these
145 system in which accounting entries are made on the basis of amounts having B
become due for payment or receipt is called
a. Cash concept
b. Accrual concept
c. Matching concept
d. On-going concept
147 Debit what come in Credit what goes out rule for A
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
148 Debit all expenses and losses Credit all gains and income. C
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
150 Transferring the debit and credit item from the journal to the respective B
accounts is called
a. Compound Journal
b. Ledger
c. Trial balance
d. None of these
152 The transferring of debit and credit items from journal to the respective B
accounts in the ledger is called as
a. Ledger
b. Posting
c. Forward journal
d. None of these
153 Which of the following items would not fall under the definition of an asset? D
a. Land
b. Machine
c. Cash
d. Owner Equity
154 Which one of the following items would fall under the definition of a C
liability
a. Cash
b. Debtor
c. Owner’s equity
d. None of these
a. Rs.200, 000
b. Rs.700, 000
c. Rs.800, 000
d. Rs1, 100,000
Creditors Rs.50,000
What is the value of the land…………………..
a. 1,000,000
b. 1,550,000
c. 800,000
d. None of these
160 Which of the following equations properly represents a derivation of the D
fundamental accounting equation?
a. Only (a)
b. Both (a) (b)
c. All (a)(b)(c)(d)
d. d) None of these
161 Retained earnings will change over time because of several factors. Which B
of the following factors would explain an increase in retained earnings?
a. Net Loss
b. Net income
c. Dividend
d. Investment by share holder.
164 XYZltd.has provided the following information about its balance sheet: B
Cash Rs.100
a. Rs.200
b. Rs.1900
c. Rs.1200
d. Rs.1700
165 The full disclosure principle, as adopted by the accounting profession, is D
best described by which of the following?
a. All information related to an entity's business and operating
objectives is required to be disclosed in the financial statements.
b. Information about each account balance appearing in the financial
statements is to be included in the notes to the financial
statements.
c. Enough information should be disclosed in the financial statements
so a person wishing to invest in the stock of the company can make
a profitable decision.
d. Disclosure of any financial facts significant enough to influence the
judgment of an informed reader
166 Which of the following is a real (permanent) account? D
a. Goodwill
b. Sales
c. Accounts Receivable
d. Both Goodwill and Accounts Receivable
167 Which of the following statements is not an objective of financial B
reporting?
a. Provide information that is useful in investment and credit
decisions.
b. Provide information regarding policy of organization
c. Provide information that is useful in assessing cash flow
prospective
d. None of theses
168 The Cash account on the balance sheet should not include which of the A
following items?
a. Travel advances to employees
b. Currency
c. Money orders
d. Deposits in transit
170 The following comments all relate to the recording process. Which of these B
statements is correct?
a. The general ledger is a chronological record of transactions.
b. The general ledger is posted from transactions recorded in the general
journal.
c. The trial balance provides the primary source document for recording
transactions into the general journal.
d. Transposition is the transfer of information from the general journal to
the general ledger.
171 The following comments each relate to the recording of journal entries. Which D
statement is true?
a. For any given journal entry, debits must exceed credits.
b. It is customary to record credits on the left and debits on the right.
c. The chart of accounts reveals the amount to debit and credit to the
affected accounts.
d. Journalization is the process of converting transactions and events into
debit/credit format.
172 The trial balance is ………………………….. D
173 Which of the following errors will be disclosed in the preparation of a trial C
balance?
a. Recording transactions in the wrong account.
b. Duplication of a transaction in the accounting records.
c. Posting only the debit portion of a particular journal entry.
d. Recording the wrong amount for a transaction to both the account
debited and the account credited.
174 The basic sequence in the accounting process can best be described as: D
a. Transaction, journal entry, source document, ledger account, trial
balance.
b. Source document, transaction, ledger account, journal entry, trial
balance.
c. Transaction, source document, journal entry, trial balance, ledger
account.
d. d. Transaction, source document, journal entry, ledger account,
trial balance.
181 Manufacturing costs are also known as product costs. Which of the C
following best describes those costs which are considered to be
manufacturing costs?
a. Direct materials, direct labor, and factory overhead.
b. Direct materials and direct labor only.
c. Direct materials, direct labor, factory overhead, and administrative
overhead.
d. Direct labor and factory overhead.
182 A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, D
plus long distance charges, would be classified as a:
a. Variable cost
b. Committed fixed cost
c. Direct cost
d. Semi variable cost
a. Sundry creditors
b. Acceptances
c. Unclaimed dividend
d. Short term investment
193 Financial accounting deals with: B
a. Determination of cost
b. Determination of profit
c. Determination of price
d. Determination of selling price
194 Financial account record only A
a. Actual figures
b. Budgeted figures
c. Standard figures
d. Management Figure
195 The term Management Accounting was first used in C
a. 1910
b. 1939
c. 1950
d. 1960
d. Six months
205 A budget is tool which helps the management in planning and control of… A
a. All business activities
b. Production activities
c. Purchase activities
d. Sales activities
206 Budgetary control system acts as a friend, philosopher and guide to the… A
a. Management
b. Share holders
c. Creditors
d. Employees
207 Budgetary control system defines the objectives and policies of the… D
a. Production department
b. Finance department
c. Marketing department
d. All
208 Budgetary control system facilitates centralized control with… C
a. Decentralized activity
b. Centralized activity
c. Both
d. None
209 Budgetary control facilitates easy introduction of the… C
a. Marginal costing
b. Ratio analysis
c. Standard costing
d. Subjective matter
210 Budgetary control helps the management in… A
a. Obtaining bank credit
b. Issue of shares
c. Getting grants from government
d. All of these
211 Budgetary control system helps the management to eliminate… C
a. Undercapitalization
b. Overcapitalization
c. Both
d. Subjective matter
212 Budgetary control provides a basis for… C
a. Bonus shares
b. Rights shares
c. Remuneration plans
d. None
213 Budgetary control helps to introduce a suitable incentive and B
remuneration based
on…
a. Changes in government policies
b. Inflationary conditions
c. Both
d. None
229 On the basis of flexibility budget is classified into two types such as fixed A
budget and
________ budget.
a. variable
b. Semi-variable
c. Constant
230 Variable budget is also known as _______ budget. C
a. Fixed
b. Semi-variable
c. Flexible
231 The budget prepared according to ________ is known as functional C
budgets.
a. Period
b. Controls
c. Functions
232 ……………….. budget is a budget which is designed to remain unchanged C
irrespective of the volume of output or turnover achieved.
a. Flexible
b. Cash
c. Fixed
233 A Flexible budget is one which permits the change in accordance with the B
changes
in the level of activity.
a. Fixed
b. Flexible
c. Sales
234 Flexible budgets are more useful in actual practice because it is more A
realistic and
has great practical utility in the business.
a. realistic
b. non-realistic
c. Predictable
235 A _______ budget is the budget which shows the quantity and value of C
goods to be
purchased during the budget period to meet the day-to-day needs of the
business.
a. Sales
b. Cash
c. Purchase
236 One of the basic purpose to prepare _______ budget is to estimate the A
cash
requirements for the purchases to be made during the budgeted period.
a. purchase
b. cash
c. sales
247 Given the budgeted output in second quarter is 8,000 units. In the first A
quarter,
Fixed overheads were Rs 40,000 Variable overheads were Rs 5 per unit ( Rs
40,000)
and semi variable were 20,000 ( 60% varying @ Rs 3 per unit). Determine
the total
manufacturing overhead budget for the second quarter.
a. Rs 1,12,000
b. 1,12,000 units
c. Insufficient data
d. None of the above
248 Budgetary control system defines the objectives and policies of the… D
a. Production department
b. Finance department
c. Marketing department
d. All
249 Budgetary control system facilitates centralized control with… C
a. Decentralized activity
b. Centralized activity
c. Both
d. None
1 The cost that tends to remain constant irrespective of the level of activity is called
_______.
(a) Variable cost
(b) Fixed cost
(c) Total cost
(d) All of the above
2 Cost Accounting restrict itself with _______ transactions.
(a) Financial
(b) Spot
(c) Historical
(d) Administrative
3 Following is (are) the method(s) of measuring labour turnover.
(a) Replacement Method
(b) Separation Method
(c) Flux Method
(d) All of the above
4 Following is (are) the example(s) of semi-variable overheads.
(a) Maintenance cost
(b) Electricity
(c) Health and Accident Insurance
(d) All of the above
5 _________ indicates the financial status of the business at given period.
(a) Balance sheet
(b) Accounting ledger
(c) General ledger
(d) All of the above
6 In Cash budget, Non operating cash inflow include(s)
(a) Receipt of loan/borrowings
(b) Issue of shares
(c) Sale of fixed assets
(d) All of the above
7 Sales Budget is a forecast expressed in -
(a) Quantity
(b) Money
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
8 Following is used as tool for Cost Control
(a) Marginal cost
(b) Historical cost
(c) Standard cost
(d) All of the above
9 Management accounting assists the management
(a) Only in control
(b) Only in direction
(c) Only in planning
(d) In planning, direction and control
10 Management accounting is deals with -
(a) Quantitative Information
(b) Qualitative Information
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
11 Which of the following is an advantage of standard costing?
(a) Measuring efficiency
(b) Facilitates cost control
(c) Determination of variance
(d) All of the above
12 Which of the following is not a functional budget?
(a) Labour budget
(b) Cash budget
(c) Materials budget
(d) Expenses budget
13 Which is the mostly likely purpose of budgeting?
(a) Planning and control of an organization's income and expenditure
(b) Preparation of a five-year business plan
(c) Company valuation
(d) Assess the non-financial performance of an organization
14 __________ Accounting becomes a source of information for Management Accounting.
(a) Financial
(b) Cost
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
15 Calculate the production budget from the following data: sales 89,350 units; opening
inventory 23,864 units; closing inventory 33,156 units.
(a) 80,058 units
(b) 1,46,370 units
(c) 32,320 units
(d) 98,642 units
16 Fixed budget is useless for comparison when the level of activity -
(a) Increases
(b) Fluctuates both ways
(c) Decreases
(d) Constant
17 The budget committee consists of -
(a) Managers
(b) Budget officers
(c) Creditors
(d) None of the above
18 A budget centre is -
(a) Department or part of the department
(b) Meeting place for budget committee
(c) Office of the budget officer
(d) None of the above
19 The main objective of budgetary control is -
(a) To define the goal of the firm
(b) To coordinate different departments
(c) To plan to achieve its goals
(d) All of the above
20 Production budget is -
(a) Dependent on purchase budget
(b) Dependent on sales budget
(c) Dependent on cash budget
(d) None of the above
21 Sales budget shows the sales details as -
(a) Month wise
(b) Product wise
(c) Area wise
(d) All of the above
22 An example of long period budget is -
(a) R & D budget
(b) Master budget
(c) Sales budget
(d) Personnel budget
23 The budgets are classified on the basis of -
(a) Time
(b) Function
(c) Flexibility
(d) All of the above
24 Budget relating to the key factor is prepared -
(a) After other budgets
(b) With other budgets
(c) Before other budgets
(d) None of the above
25 Key factor is also known as -
(a) Limiting factor
(b) Governing factor
(c) Principal factor
(d) All of the above
26 In responsibility accounting system -
(a) Budgets are prepared
(b) Actual performance is recorded
(c) The performance is reported
(d) All of the above
27 The responsibility accounting emphasizes the performance of -
(a) System
(b) Men
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
28 The responsibility accounting is also called -
(a) Profitability accounting
(b) Activity accounting
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
29 The responsibility accounting is the part of -
(a) Financial accounting
(b) Management accounting
(c) Mechanized accounting
(d) None of these
30 The responsibility accounting is a controlling tool for -
(a) Top‐level management
(b) Lower level management
(c) Middle level management
(d) None of these
31 Which of the following system emphasizes on cost control ?
(a) Cost accounting
(b) Responsibility accounting
(c) Financial accounting
(d) None of these
32 The responsibility centres come under the responsibility of -
(a) Cost accountants
(b) Management accountant
(c) Responsibility managers
(d) Auditor
33 The subdivision of responsibility centre is -
(a) Expense centre
(b) Profit centre
(c) Investment centre
(d) All of the above
34 The accounting department in an organization is -
(a) Investment centre
(b) Expense centre
(c) Profit centre
(d) All of the above
35 What is the main advantage of responsibility accounting ?
(a) Improves performance
(b) It fixes responsibility
(c) Helpful in decision making
(d) All of the above
36 The responsibility accounting is a system by which the responsibility is assigned to the
concerned persons -
(a) To increase sales
(b) To control cash
(c) To increase production
(d) All of the above
37 The contribution of accounting department in an organization -
(a) Cannot be measured in monetary terms
(b) Can be measured in monetary terms
(c) May or may not be measured in monetary terms
(d) None of the above
38 According to responsibility accounting, the entire organization is divided into various -
(a) Business centre
(b) Profit centre
(c) Responsibility centre
(d) None of the above
39 It may not be ______ to measure exactly the output of service departments in an
organization.
(a) Feasible
(b) Necessary
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) None of these
40 Internal transfer of process at profit _________ of the company.
(a) Will not increase the asset
(b) Will increase the asset
(c) Can’t say
(d) Inadequate information
41 Budgetary control __________ replace management in decision‐making.
(a) Can
(b) Cannot
(c) Sometimes
(d) Inadequate data
42 The success of budgetary control system depends upon the willing cooperation of ….…
(a) Shareholders
(b) Management
(c) Creditors
(d) All the functional areas of management
43 A key factor is one which restricts ……
(a) The volume of production
(b) The volume of sales
(c) The volume of purchase
(d) All of the above
44 The classification of fixed and variable cost is useful for the preparation of ……
(a) Master budget
(b) Flexible budget
(c) Cash budget
(d) Capital budget
45 The primary objective of management accounting is –
(a) To provide shareholders and potential investors with useful information for decision
making
(b) To provide banks and other creditors with information useful in making credit
decisions
(c) To provide management with information useful for planning and control of
operations
(d) To provide the relevant taxation authorities with information about taxable income
46 In ‘make or buy’ decision, it is profitable to buy from outside only when the supplier’s
price is below the firm’s own ___________.
(a) Fixed Cost
(b) Variable Cost
(c) Total Cost
(d) Prime Cost
47 __________ is a detailed budget of cash receipts and cash expenditure incorporating
both revenue and capital items.
(a) Cash Budget
(b) Capital Expenditure Budget
(c) Sales Budget
(d) Overhead Budget
48 Sunk costs are __________.
(a) Relevant for decision making
(b) Not relevant for decision making
(c) Cost to be incurred in future
(d) Future costs
49 Abnormal cost is the cost ___________.
(a) Cost normally incurred at a given level of output
(b) Cost not normally incurred at a given level of output
(c) Cost which is charged to customer
(d) Cost which is included in the cost of the product
50 Responsibility Centre can be categorised into ___________.
(a) Cost Centres only
(b) Profit Centres only
(c) Investment Centres only
(d) All of the above
51 A profit centre is a centre ___________.
(a) Where the manager has the responsibility of generating and maximising profits
(b) Which is concerned with earning an adequate Return on Investment
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Which manages cost
52 Management Accounting is and financial accounting differ in that management
accounting information is prepared –
(a) Following prescribed rules
(b) Using whatever methods the company finds beneficial
(c) For shareholders
(d) To summarize the whole company with little detail
53 Purpose of Management Accounting is to –
(a) Past orientation
(b) Help banks make decisions
(c) Help managers make decisions
(d) Help investors make decisions
54 Management Accounting is the branch of accounting concerned with reporting to –
(a) Internal Managers
(b) Shareholders
(c) The Government
(d) Bankers
55 Which of the following does NOT describe management accounting?
(a) Evaluation of segments or products within the firm
(b) Emphasis on the future
(c) Externally focused
(d) Detailed information
56 Management accounting reports are prepared
(a) To meet the needs of decision makers within the firm
(b) Whenever shareholders request them
(c) According to guidelines prepared by the shares and Financial Services Authority
(d) According to financial accounting standards
57 Management accounting is primarily concerned with -
(a) Providing investors with useful information for valuing securities.
(b) Providing creditors information on the status of their loans.
(c) Providing managers with relevant information to help achieve organizational goals.
(d) Providing the relevant taxation authorities with information to determine the amount
of taxes owed.
58 Which matters are taken into consideration while preparing production budget ?
(a) The estimate of the number of units to be produced during the budget period.
(b) Estimate of number of units to be sold.
(c) Policy regarding the wage fixation for labourers.
(d) Policy regarding the selection of suppliers from whom materials would be purchased.
59 Which of the following matter is to be taken into account which preparing Material
Purchase Budget ?
(a) The supplier from whom materials are to be purchased.
(b) The procedure of storing and preserving materials after they are received.
(c) The prices at which receipts and issues of materials are to be recorded in stores
ledger.
(d) The maximum and minimum quantities of materials to be purchased.
60 Which of the following matter is relevant with cash receipts and disbursement method of
preparing Cash Budget ?
(a) While determining the cash payments, it is necessary to estimate the credit sales.
(b) While estimating cash receipts, it is not necessary to estimate the figure of credit
sales.
(c) Debtors Ratio is used to estimate the timings when cash collections would be
obtained from credit sales.
(d) While estimating the total amount of cash payment for purchases, it is necessary to
decide from which suppliers materials are to be purchased.
61 Budget period depends upon -
(a) The type of budget
(b) The nature of business
(c) The length of trade cycles
(d) All of the above
62 Usually the production budget is stated in terms of -
(a) Money
(b) Quantity
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
63 Recording of actual performance is -
(a) An advantage of budgetary control
(b) A step in budgetary control
(c) A limitation of budgetary control
(d) None of the above
64 Budgetary control system helps the management to eliminate -
(a) Undercapitalization
(b) Overcapitalization
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
65 Budgetary control facilitates easy introduction of the -
(a) Marginal costing
(b) Ratio analysis
(c) Standard costing
(d) Subjective matter
66 Budgetary control system acts as a friend, philosopher and guide to the -
(a) Management
(b) Share holders
(c) Creditors
(d) Employees
67 Budgetary control system defines the objectives and policies of the -
(a) Production department
(b) Finance department
(c) Marketing department
(d) Subjective matter
68 A budget is tool which helps the management in planning and control of -
(a) All business activities
(b) Production activities
(c) Purchase activities
(d) Sales activities
69 In responsibility centre, the output is called as -
(a) Revenue
(b) Cost
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
70 If the responsibility centre gets more revenue from output, then it is called -
(a) Investment centre
(b) Cost centre
(c) Profit centre
(d) Expense centre
71 Cost Unit is defined as -
(a) Unit of quantity of product, service or time in relation to which costs may be
ascertained or expressed
(b) A location, person or an item of equipment or a group of these for which costs are
ascertained and used for cost control.
(c) Centres having the responsibility of generating and maximising profits
(d) Centres concerned with earning an adequate return on investment
72 Fixed cost is a cost -
(a) Which changes in total in proportion to changes in output
(b) Which is partly fixed and partly variable in relation to output
(c) Which do not change in total during a given period despise changes in output
(d) Which remains same for each unit of output
73 Uncontrollable costs are the costs which be influenced by the action of a specified
member of an undertaking. -
(a) can not
(b) can
(c) may or may not
(d) must
74 Element/s of Cost of a product are -
(a) Material only
(b) Labour only
(c) Expenses only
(d) Material, Labour and expenses
75 Overhead refers to -
(a) Direct or Prime Cost
(b) All Indirect costs
(c) Only Factory indirect costs
(d) Only indirect expenses
76 Which of the following is not a method of cost absorption?
(a) Percentage of direct material cost
(b) Machine hour rate
(c) Labour hour rate
(d) Repeated distribution method
77 A Local Authority is preparing cash Budget for its refuse disposal department. Which of
the following items would not be included in the cash budget?
(a) Capital cost of a new collection vehicle
(b) Depreciation of the machinery
(c) Operatives wages
(d) Fuel for the collection Vehicles
78 Which of the following characteristics does NOT pertain to management accounting?
(a) Provides information and estimates about future activity
(b) Generates specific-purpose financial statements and reports
(c) Provides financial and operating data multidisciplinary in scope
(d) Has externally imposed standards
79 A budget which is prepared in a manner so as to give the budgeted cost for any level of
activity is known as -
(a) Master budget
(b) Zero base budget
(c) Functional budget
(d) Flexible budget
80 ___________ is a summary of all functional budgets in a capsule form.
(a) Functional Budget
(b) Master Budget
(c) Long Period Budget
(d) Flexible Budget
81 When the sales increase from Rs. 40,000 to Rs. 60,000 and profit increases by Rs. 5,000,
the P/V ratio is -
(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 25%
(d) 40%
82 From following which is not a principle of good reporting ?
(a) Simplicity
(b) Accountability
(c) Promptness
(d) Accuracy
83 From day to day operation which report is prepare ?
(a) Routine
(b) Special
(c) Investigative
(d) External
84 Any special event happen into the business then which report is prepared ?
(a) Routine
(b) Special
(c) External
(d) Control
85 Internal report use for _______________ .
(a) Share holders
(b) Government
(c) Managerial personnel
(d) Creditors
86 External report use for _______________ .
(a) Top level management
(b) Middle level management
(c) Lower level management
(d) Shareholders
87 From following which is not a routine report ?
(a) Production report
(b) Sales report
(c) Investigation
(d) Administration report
89. Financial accounting is primarily concerned with providing financial reports to all of
the following EXCEPT
a. creditors such as banks and other financial institutions.
b. creditors such as suppliers.
c. shareholders of the company.
d. management of the firm.
90. Management accounting and financial accounting differ in that management accounting
information is prepared
a. following prescribed rules.
b. using whatever methods the company finds beneficial.
c. for shareholders.
d. to summarize the whole company with little detail.
97. Which of the following costing activities is associated with the financial accounting
system?
a. determining the cost of a department
b. determining the cost of goods sold for financial statements
c. preparing budgets
d. determining the cost of a customer
98. Which of the following activities is NOT associated with the financial accounting
information system?
a. reporting on the cost of quality
b. reporting to the shareholders
c. preparing reports for the tax authorities
d. preparing a statement of cash flows
99. Which of the following cost management tools supports the firm's concentration on the
delivery of value to the customer?
a. service industry growth
b. global competition
c. preparing an earnings report for external reporting
d. value-chain analysis
100. Factors that have led to a global market for manufacturing and service firms are
a. improved transportation and communications systems.
b. improved telemarketing and communications.
c. improved distribution and transportation systems.
d. None of these factors have contributed.
101. Which of the following activities is NOT significant to the advancement of information
technology?
a. enterprise resource planning software
b. emergence of electronic commerce
c. theory of constraints
d. decision support systems
102. Software that has integrated system capability using real time data is
a. enterprise resource planning software.
b. on-line analytic programs.
c. computer-assisted engineering software.
d. none of the above.
103. Automation of the manufacturing environment is associated with increases in
a. inventory.
b. capacity.
c. processing time.
d. none of these.
104. Total quality management emphasizes
a. zero defects.
b. continual improvement.
c. elimination of waste.
d. all of the above.
105. Which of the following emerging themes in cost accounting deals with managers striving
to create an environment that will enable workers to manufacture perfect (zero-defect)
products?
a. advances in information technology
b. time as a competitive element
c. global competition
d. total quality management
106. Competitive advantage is established by
a. providing more customer products than competitors.
b. providing better quality than competitors.
c. providing greater customer value for less cost than competitors.
d. providing greater efficiencies than competitors.
108. Which of the following statements is NOT true about world-class firms?
a. World-class firms are firms that are poor in customer support.
b. World-class firms know their market and their products.
c. World-class firms strive continually to improve product design, manufacture,
and delivery.
d. World-class firms can compete with the best of the best in a global environment.
109. Monitoring the number of defects produced is an example of the management function of
a. planning.
b. control.
c. decision making.
d. both a and c.
111. Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes between financial and
management accounting?
a. Management accounting reports on the whole organization.
b. Financial accounting is oriented toward the future.
c. Financial accounting is primarily concerned with providing information for
internal users.
d. Management accounting is oriented more toward the planning and control
aspects of management.
112. Setting the company's profit targets for the upcoming year is an example of the
management function of
a. planning.
b. control.
c. variance analysis.
d. internal auditing.
33. are the amounts the business earns by selling its products or providing
services to customers.
(a) Assets (b) Goods
(c) Investments (d) Revenues
34. are the costs incurred by a business in the process of earning revenue.
(a) Assets (b) Expenses
(c) Investments (d) Revenues
35. are persons and/or other entities who owe to an enterprise an amount for
receiving goods and services on credit.
(a) Debtors (b) Creditors
(c) Shareholders (d) Suppliers
36. are persons and/or other entities that have to be paid by an enterprise an
amount for providing the enterprise goods and services on credit.
(a) Debtors (b) Creditors
(c) Shareholders (d) Customers
37. is a list of the entire general ledger account names and balances; it is
prepared to prove the ledger.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Trial Balance
38. The difference of two sides of an account is called as .
(a) Debit (b) Credit
(c) Balance (d) Cash
39. deals with expenses related to or identified with products, which may only
be a part of the organization.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
40. In stocks are valued at lower of cost or market value.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
41. The primary objective of is to provide necessary information to the
management in the process of its planning, controlling, and performance evaluation, and
decision-making.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
42. The Success of does not depend upon Management Accounting system.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
43. In no statutory requirement of audit for reports.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
44. Which is the most popular and acceptable software?
(a) Tally (b) Marg
(c) Saral (d) SAP
45. The Advantage/s of Accounting Software .
(a) Accounting softwares save Time and Money.
(b) No scope for mistakes and errors.
(c) Provides accurate and updated information as and when require(d)
(d) All of the above
46. Internal and external parties are the users of .
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
47. Capital A/c generally shows balance.
(a) Cash (b) Debit
(c) Credit (d) Overdraft
48. Asset A/c shows balance.
(a) Cash (b) Debit
(c) Credit (d) Overdraft
49. There are columns in Journal.
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) Five
50. Explanatory note written below an entry recorded in the Journal is called as .
(a) Narration (b) Explanation
(c) Brief information (d) Detail information
Answer Key of Chapter 1
4. Imputed cost is a .
A. notional cost.
B. real cost.
C. normal cost.
D. variable cost.
ANSWER: A
8. Wages paid to a labour who was engaged in production activities can be termed as.
A. direct cost.
B. indirect cost.
C. sunk cost.
D. imputed cost.
ANSWER: A
16. Which one of the following is not considered for preparation of cost sheet?
A. Factory cost.
B. Goodwill written off.
C. Selling cost.
D. Labour cost.
ANSWER: B
12. If Fixed Cost is ₨. 2,50,000 and P/V Ratio is 60%, then what is BEP in
₨.?(a) ₨. 4,16,667 (b) ₨. 3,83,333
(c) ₨. 3,75,000 (d) ₨. 4,10,000
13. If Fixed Cost is ₨. 2,50,000 and Profit is ₨. 3,50,000, then what is the amount of
Contribution? (a) ₨. 1,00,000 (b) ₨. 6,00,000
(c) ₨. 3,75,000 (d) ₨. 4,10,000
14. If Sales are ₨. 50,000 and P/V Ratio is 20%, then what is the amount of Variable
Cost? (a) ₨. 40,000 (b) ₨. 10,000
(c) ₨. 25,000 (d) ₨. 30,000
15. If contribution is ₨. 3,00,000 and Profit is ₨. 1,00,000, then what is the amount of Fixed
Cost?(a) ₨. 4,00,000 (b) ₨.2,00,000
(c) ₨. 2,50,000 (d) ₨.3,00,000
16. If Sales are ₨. 3,00,000 and P/V ratio is 20%, then what is the amount of Variable
Cost?(a) ₨. 2,40,000 (b) ₨. 80,000
(c) ₨. 2,70,000 (d) ₨. 2,00,000
17. The correct formula of Contribution is .
(a) Contribution = Sales – Variable Cost
(b) Contribution = Fixed Cost + Profit or – Loss
(c) Contribution = Sales × P/ V Ratio
(d) All of the above
18. The correct formula of P/V Ratio is .
(a) P/ V Ratio = [Contribution/Sales ] × 100
(b) P/ V Ratio = [Change in Profit/Change in Sales ] × 100
(c) P/ V Ratio = [Sales−Variable Cost/Sales] × 100
(d) All of the above
19. Marginal Costing is a Costing .
(a) Technique (b) Method
(c) System (d) Convention
20. Under absorption and over absorption of overheads problems are not arisen under
.
(a) Marginal Costing (b) Standard Costing
(c) Job Costing (d) Budgetary Control
21. Standard cost is the cost.
(a) Pre-determined (b) Pre-decided
(c) Pre-planned (d) None of the above
22. Small organizations cannot adopt technique.
(a) Standard Costing (b) Marginal Costing
(c) Budgetary Control (d) None of the above
23. means difference between standard cost and actual cost.
(a) Balance Cost (b) Variance
(c) Marginal Cost (d) Variable Cost
24. helps management to understand the present costs and then to control the
future costs.
(a) ABC Analysis (b) Variance Analysis
(c) Marginal Analysis (d) Budget Analysis
25. Variances are classified in categories.
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
26. If Standard Cost ₨. 80 and Actual Cost ₨. 70, then what is the amount of Material Cost
Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 150 (d) 20
27. If Standard Price ₨. 8 & Standard Qty.10, Actual Price ₨. 7 & Actual Qty.10, then what is
theamount of Material Price Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 150 (d) 20
28. If Standard Price ₨. 8 & Standard Qty.10, Actual Price ₨. 7 & Actual Qty.10, then what is
theamount of Material Usage Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 50 (d) 0
29. If Standard Rate ₨. 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ₨. 2 & Actual Hours 1500,
thenwhat is the amount of Labour Cost Variance?
(a) 600 (b) –600
(c) 500 (d) 400
30. If Standard Rate ₨. 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ₨. 2 & Actual Hours 1500,
thenwhat is the amount of Labour Rate Variance?
(a) 750 (b) –750
(c) 600 (d) 400
31. If Standard Rate ₨ 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ₨.2 & Actual Hours 1500,
then what is the amount of Labour Efficiency Variance?
(a) 150 (b) –150
(c) 300 (d) 200
32. The correct formula for verification of Material Cost Variance is .
(a) MCV = MPV + MUV (b) MCV = MPV – MUV
(c) MCV = MPV × MUV (d) None of the above
33. The correct formula for verification of Labour Cost Variance is .
(a) LCV = LRV + LEV (b) LCV = LRV – LEV
(c) LCV = LRV × LEV (d) None of the above
34. In Standard Costing comparison between is carried out.
(a) Standard Cost and Actual Cost (b) Fixed Cost and Variable Cost
(c) Normal Cost and Abnormal Cost (d) None of the above
35. The Disadvantages of Standard Costing is/are .
(a) Establishments of standards are difficult in practice.
(b) Standards are requires to revise continuously.
(c) Inaccurate, unreliable and outdated standards do more harm than benefit
(d) All of the above
36. is a concrete precise picture of the total operation of an enterprise in
monetary terms.
(a) Budget (b) Plan
(c) Strategy (d) Goal
37. Accuracy cannot be maintained is a limitation of .
(a) Budgetary Control (b) Scientific Planning
(c) Standard Costing (d) Marginal Costing
38. Pre- requisitions for effective implementation of Budgetary Control system is/are
.
(a) Deciding budget centres & budget period
(b) Preparation of a budget manual
(c) Determination of budget key factor
(d) All of the above
39. is the budget in which adjustment is possible according to change in
business conditions.
(a) Flexible Budget (b) Fixed Budget
(c) Sales Budget (d) Cash Budget
40. When forecasts about budget shows greater revenue to be received or generated than the
expenses to be incurred during budgeted period that is known as .
(a) Surplus Budget (b) Best Budget
(c) Favourable Budget (d) Non-favourable Budget
41. budget highlights that the expenditures to be incurred in budget period will
be greater than the revenues to be received during the same period.
(a) Surplus Budget (b) Deficit Budget
(c) Favourable Budget (d) Non-favourable Budget
42. The establishment of budgets relating the responsibilities of executives to the requirements of
a policy and the continuous comparison of actual with budgeted results, either to secure by
individual action the objective of that policy or to provide basis for its revision is called as
.
(a) Budget (b) Budgeting
(c) Budgetary Control (d) None of the above
43. A is a powerful tool available to the management for the purpose of
maximizing profits.
(a) Budget (b) Decrease in selling price
(c) Standard Norm (d) Increase in selling price
44. Fixed Budget is also known as .
(a) Static Budget (b) Standard Budget
(c) Master Budget (d) Flexible Budget
45. Normal Profit means .
(a) No Profit No Loss (b) Less Profit
(c) Expected Profit (d) None of the above
46. Personnel Budget is also called as .
(a) Cost Budget (b) Labour Budget
(c) Employee Budget (d) None of the above
47. In cash budget, transactions are considered.
(a) Cash (b) Credit
(c) all financial (d) None of the above
48. Budget is prepared for a period of time.
(a) Fixed
(b) One Month
(c) One Year
(d) None of the above
49. Purchase Budget is also called as .
(a) Production Budget (b) Material Budget
(c) Cost Budget (d) None of the above
50. is the plan of proposed investment in the fixed assets.
(a) Fixed Budget (b) Capital Expenditure Budget
(c) Cash Budget (d) Purchase Budget
Answer Key of Chapter 4
Chapter 4 Marginal Costing
1. Contribution margin is equal to .
A. fixed cost - loss .
B. profit + variable cost.
C. sales — fixed cost- profit .
D. sales – profit.
ANSWER: A
8. Angie of incidence is .
A. the angle between the sales line and the total cost line.
B. the angle between the sales line and the y-axis.
C. the angle between the sales line and the x-axis.
D. the angle between the sales line and the total profit line.
ANSWER: A
11. 1f₨. fixed costs decrease while variable cost per unit remains constant, the new B.E.P in
relation to the old B.E.P will be .
A. lower .
B. higher.
C. unchanged .
D. indeterminate.
E. ANSWER: B
12. If fixed costs decrease while the variable cost per unit remains constant, the new contribution
margin in relation to the old contribution margin will be .
A. lower .
B. unchanged .
C. higher.
D. indeterminate.
E. ANSWER: B
13. Selling price per unit Rs. 10; Variable cost Rs. 8 per unit; Fixed cost Rs. 20,000; Break-even
production in units____ .
A. 10,000.
B. 16,300.
C. 2,000.
D. 2,500. ANSWER: D
14. Sales Rs. 25,000; Variable cost Rs. 8,000; Fixed cost Rs. 5,000; Break-even sales in value__.
A. Rs. 7,936.
B. Rs. 7,353.
C. Rs. 8,333.
D. Rs. 9,090. ANSWER: B
15. Fixed cost Rs. 80,000; Variable cost Rs. 2 per unit; Selling price_Rs. 10 per unit; turnover
required for a profit target of Rs. 60,000.
A. Rs. 1,75,000.
B. Rs. 1,17,400.
C. Rs. 1.57,000.
D. Rs. 1,86,667. ANSWER: A
16. Sales Rs. 25,000; Variable cost Rs. 15,000; Fixed cost Rs .4,000; P/V Ratio is .
A. 40% .
B. 80%
C. 15%
D. 30%. ANSWER: A
17. Sales Rs. 50,000; Variable cost Rs. 30,000; Net profit Rs. 6,000; fixed cost is .
A. Rs. 10,000.
B. b. Rs. l4,000 .
C. Rs. 12,000.
D. Rs. 8,000. ANSWER: B
18. Actual sales Rs .4,00,000; Break-even sales Rs. 2,50,000; Margin of Safety in percentage is_.
A. 33.33%.
B. 66.67%
C. 37.5% .
D. 76.33%.
E. ANSWER: C
19. P/V Ratio 50%; Variable cost of the produce Rs. 25; Selling price is .
A. Rs. 50 .
B. Rs. 40.
C. Rs. 30 .
D. Rs. 55. ANSWER: A
20. Fixed cost Rs. 2,00,000; Sales Rs. 8,00,000; P/V Ratio 30%; the amount of' profit is .
A. Rs. 50,000.
B. Rs. 40,000 .
C. Rs. 35,000 .
D. Rs. 45,000 . ANSWER: B
21. P/V Ratio is 25% and Margin of Safety is Rs; 3,00,000, the amount of profit is .
A. Rs. 1,00,000.
B. Rs. 80,000.
C. Rs. 75,000.
D. . Rs. 60,000. ANSWER: C
22. Total sales Rs. 20,00,000; Fixed expenses Rs. 4,00,000; P/V Ratio 40%; Break-even capacity
in percentage is .
A. 40% .
B. 60% .
C. 50% .
D. 45%. ANSWER: C
23. Break - even point occurs at 40% of₨. total capacity, margin of safety will be .
A. 40% .
B. 60% .
C. 80% .
D. 85% . ANSWER: B
24. If the P/V Ratio of a product is 30% and selling price is Rs. 25 per unit, the marginal cost of
the product would be .
A. Rs.18.75 .
B. Rs.16 .
C. Rs. 15 .
D. Rs.20 . ANSWER: A
27. Material consumed is Rs. 5,00,000 Opening stock of raw material is Rs. 50,000 and Closing
stock of raw material is Rs. 25,000. What is the cost of raw material purchased?
A. Rs. 4,50,000.
B. Rs. 4,75,000.
C. Rs. 5,25,000.
D. Rs. 5, 50,000.
ANSWER: B
28. If selling price is Rs. 25,000 and profit is Rs. 5,000 then what is the percentage of profit on
cast?
A. 20%.
B. 25%.
C. 33.33%.
D. 35%.
ANSWER: B
Chapter 5 Exercising Control
1. Material control involves .
A. consumption of material
B. issue of material.
C. purchase of material.
D. purchase, storage and issue of material.
ANSWER: C
6. The budget prepared for replacement of assets, expansion of production facilities, adoption of
new technologies etc. is .
A. Capital expenditure budget.
B. Production overhead budget.
C. Administration overhead budget.
D. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
ANSWER: A
10. The budget prepared to estimate expenditure to be incurred to sell the product and its
distribution is
A. Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Master budget
ANSWER: C
11. The budget prepared to estimate the research and development expenditure to be incurred
during a specific period is .
A. Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Research and development budget.
ANSWER: D
12. The budget is a .
A. a post-mortem analysis .
B. a substitute of management
C. an aid to management
D. calculation .
ANSWER: C
15. The budget which usually takes the form of budgeted profit and loss account and balance
sheet is known as
A. Flexible budget .
B. Master budget.
C. Cash budget .
D. Purchase budget.
ANSWER: B
17. The fixed-variable cost classification has `a special significance in the preparation of .
A. Capital budget.
B. Cash budget.
C. Master budget .
D. Flexible budget .
ANSWER: D
19. Preparing budget figures for different levels of activity within a range under flexible
budgeting is
A. .
B. Formula method.
C. Multi-activity method.
D. Budget cost allowance method.
E. Proportionate method.
ANSWER: B
20. What type of budget is designed to take into account forecast change in costs, prices, etc?
A. Master budget.
B. Rolling budget.
C. Flexible budget .
D. Functional budget.
ANSWER: B
25. Budget designed to remain constant irrespective of the level of activity attained is called .
A. Fixed budget.
B. Flexible budget.
C. Sales budget.
D. Production budget
ANSWER: A
27. The budget which shows the budgeted quantity of output to be produced during a specific
period is.
A. Fixed budget.
B. Flexible budget.
C. Sales budget.
D. Production budget
ANSWER: D
29. Material budget consists of two parts, one is the consumption budget and another Is .
A. Material purchase budget.
B. Material sales budget.
C. Material production budget.
D. Material budget.
ANSWER: A
33. Budget of indirect costs in the form of indirect wages, indirect material and indirect expenses
in the factory is .
A. Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Master budget.
ANSWER: A
MCQs
101 – MANAGERIAL ACCOUNTING
5. The work of factory employees that can be physically associated with converting raw
material into finished goods is classified as
a. Manufacturing overhead
b. Indirect materials
c. Indirect labour
d. Direct labour
8. Which type of asset class includes those assets which have only definite use and
Become valueless when the yield is over?
a. Fixed asset
b. Current asset
c. Fictitious asset
d. Wasting asset
9. An accounting that deals with the accounting and reporting of information to management
regarding the detail information is
a. Financial accounting
b. Management accounting
c. Cost accounting
d. Real Accounting
28. ………………cost refers to those cost which have already been incurred and cannot be
altered by any decision in the future.
a. Opportunity cost
b. Sunk Cost
c. Incremental cost
d. Decremental cost
29. Amortization of intangible Asset Such as Goodwill which has indefinite life is an example
of accounting concept
a. Conservatism Concept
b. Continuity Concept
c. Realisation Concept
d. Measurement Concept
31. ………………cost will still be incurred although a plant is shut down temporarily.
a. Cost of raw material
b. Advertising
c. Depreciation
d. Carriage
32. Accounting principles are generally based upon:
a. Practicability
b. Subjectivity
c. Convenience in recording
d. None of the above
34. The practice of appending notes regarding contingent liabilities in accounting statements
is in pursuance to:
a. Convention of consistency
b. Money measurement concept
c. Convention of conservatism
d. Convention of disclosure
39. Income tax paid by a sole proprietor on his business income should be:
a. Debited to trading account
b. Debited to profit and loss account
c. Deducted from capital account in the balance sheet
d. None of the above
40. All direct & indirect expenses related to business are charged:
a. Profit and loss account
b. Trading account
c. Trading account Profit and Loss account
d. Directly to Balance sheet
41. According to schedule VI Companies Act which item is not shown on Asset side of
Balance sheet
a. Investment
b. Current Loan & Advances
c. Provision
d. Lease Holds
43. Investment of X company profit in shares of other company PQR Pvt. ltd are recorded
in……………….
a. Asset side of Balance Sheet
b. Liability side of Balance Sheet
c. Profit & Loss a/c
d. Not recorded in Balance Sheet
53. Cost of asset should always be equal to the cost of the liabilities. This concept is
a. Double Entry Bookkeeping
b. Matching Concept
c. Consistency
d. Money measurement Concept
59. Reserve for doubtful debts appearing in the trial balance should be:
a. credited to P & L a/c
b. Shown as liability side in balance sheet
c. Reduced from related asset in the balance sheet
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
61. According to which concept business is treated as a unit apart from owner
a. Limited resources for training and development
b. Organisational culture
c. Failure of management
d. Inability to access learning material
63. True & fair profit and loss a/c of a company know by
a. Preparing trial balance
b. Preparing respective ledger of account
c. Preparing trading a/c
d. Preparing trading & profit & loss a/c
64. Credit balance of profit & loss a/c shown on
a. Asset side of balance sheet
b. Liability side of balance sheet
c. c) Not shown in balance sheet
d. d) Half on asset side and half on liability sides
65. Under which concept it is assumed that the enterprises has neither the intention nor the
necessity of liquidation or of curtailing materiality the scale of operation
a. Revenue realization concept
b. Matching cost concept
c. Going concern concept
d. None of these
66. Making the provision for doubtful debts and discount on debtors in anticipation of actual
bad debts and discount is an example for which concept
a. Conservatism concept
b. Continuity concept
c. Realization concept
d. All of these
72. Which of the following account balance will be shown on debit side of Trial Balance?
a. Outstanding expenses
b. Cash a/c
c. Short term loan
d. creditors
73. The reduction in the value of the fixed assets which can arise due to time factor is
a. Discount
b. Depreciation
c. Reduction
d. None of the above
81. Proposed dividends" is shown in the Balance Sheet of a company under the head:
a. Provision
b. Reserves and Surplus
c. Current Liabilities
d. Other Liabilities
82. Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of:
a. Separate entity
b. Going concern
c. Consistency
d. Time period
83. Proprietor (owner) is treated as creditor of business due to:
a. Periodicity concept
b. Materiality Principle
c. Entity Concept
d. Consistency concept
84. Which financial statement represents the accounting equation ASSETS = LIABILITIES +
OWNER'S EQUITY
a. Income Statement
b. Cash Flow Statement
c. Balance Sheet
d. Fund Flow Statement
86. Which of the following are correct? Account to be debited Account to be credited
Bought office wooden table for cash office wooden table cash
Ramesh sold goods on credited to Ram sales cash
Introduce capital by cheque capital Bank
Paid to creditor Sita by cheque Sita Bank
a. (ii) (iii)(i)
b. (iii)(iv)(ii)
c. (i)(iii)(iv) Wide
d. (i)(iv)
88. Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of:
a. Separate entity
b. Going concern
c. Consistency
d. Time period
89. Which of the following is correct
a. Profit does not alter capital
b. Capital can only come from profit
c. Profit reduces capital
d. Profit increases capital
92. The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following types of businesses?
a. Sole proprietorship
b. Corporation
c. Partnership
d. All of them
93. Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a business is divided for
the purpose of preparing financial statements?
a. Fiscal year
b. Calendar year
c. Accounting period
d. Accrual period
97. Which of the following is not regarded as the fundamental accounting concept?
a. The going concern concept
b. The separate entity concept
c. The prudence (conservatism) concept
d. Correction concept
98. Using "lower of cost and net realisable value(Market Value)" for the purpose of inventory
valuation is the implementation of which of the following concepts?
a. The going concern concept
b. The separate entity concept
c. The prudence concept
d. Matching concept
99. The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following types of businesses?
a. Sole proprietorship
b. Corporation
c. Partnership
d. All of them
100. The revenue recognition principal dictates that all types of incomes should be recorded or
recognized when
a. Cash is received
b. At the end of accounting period
c. When they are earned
d. When interest is paid
101. The allocation of owner's private expenses to his/her business violates which of the
following?
a. Accrual concept
b. Matching concept
c. Separate business entity concept
d. Consistency concept
103. Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a business is divided for
the purpose of preparing financial statements?
a. Fiscal year
b. Calendar year
c. Accounting period
d. Accrual period
104. Showing purchased office equipment’s in financial statements is the application of which
accounting concept?
a. Historical cost convention
b. Materiality
c. Prudence
d. Matching concept
105. Information about an item is ________ if its omission or misstatement might influence the
financial decision of the users taken on the basis of that information
a. Concrete
b. Complete
c. Immaterial
d. Material
106. "Financial information should be neutral and bias free" is the dictation of which one of the
following?
a. Completeness concept
b. Faithful representation Concept
c. Objectivity Concept
d. Duality Concept
107. Accounting principles are divided into two types. These are ---
a. Accounting Concepts
b. Accounting Conventions
c. Accounting Standards
d. Accounting Concepts &Accounting Conventions
108. Which of the following is not related with Money Measurement Concept?
a. All business transaction should be expressed only in money
b. The transactions which cannot be expressed in money, will not be recorded in
accounting books
c. Business is treated as separate from the proprietor
d. None of These
109. Which of the following equation is related with Dual Aspect Concept?
a. Total Assets = Total Liabilities
b. Total Assets = Capital + Outsider’s Liabilities
c. Capital = Total Assets - Outsider’s Liabilities
d. All of the above
110. If the total assets of the company amount to Rs 1,50,000 and owner’s equity is Rs.
70,000,the amount of liabilities will be –
a. Rs 70,000
b. Rs 80,000
c. Rs 90,000
d. Rs 1,00,000
122. The system of recording transaction based on dual aspect concept is called
a. Double account system
b. Double entry system
c. Single entry system
d. None of these
123. The practice of appending notes regarding contingent liabilities in accounting statement is
pursuant of
a. Convention of consistency
b. Money measurement concept
c. Convention of conservatism
d. Convention of disclosure
124. According to the money measurement concept the following will be recorded in the books
of accounts of the business
a. Health of the managing director of the company
b. Quality of company goods
c. Value of plant and machinery
d. Health of labour in factory
125. The convention of conservatism when applied to the balance sheet result in.
a. Understand the asset
b. Understand the liabilities
c. Overstatement of capital
d. None of these
136. Accountant should follow the same principles of accounting continuously is as per which
accounting convention
a. Convention of conservatism
b. Convention of full disclosure
c. Convention of consistency
d. None of these
137. Accounting principles are …………………………. which are adopted by the accountant
universally while recording accounting transaction.
a. Rules of action or conduct
b. Which u can change as per accountant
c. Which keep changing every year
d. None of these
138. The convention of disclosure implies that all material information should be
a. Disclosed in the account
b. Disclosed in the accounts which is required to owner
c. Not disclosed
d. None of these
140. Custom and traditions which guide the accountant while preparing the accounting
Statements
a. Accounting convention
b. Accounting concepts
c. Accounting principles
d. None of these
141. Rules of action or conduct adopted by the accountants universally while recording
accounting transaction
a. Accounting convention
b. Accounting concepts
c. Accounting principles
d. None of these
142. Basic assumptions or conditions upon which the science of accounting is based.
a. Accounting convention
b. Accounting concepts
c. Accounting principles
d. None of these.
143. A system in which accounting entries are made on the basis of amounts having become
due for payment or receipt is called
a. Cash concept
b. Accrual concept
c. Matching concept
d. On-going concept
145. Debit what come in Credit what goes out rule for
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
146. Debit all expenses and losses Credit all gains and income.
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
147. A book containing a chronological record of business transaction & original record
a. Journal
b. Ledger
c. Trial balance
d. None of these
148. Transferring the debit and credit item from the journal to the respective accounts is called
a. Compound Journal
b. Ledger
c. Trial balance
d. None of these
150. The transferring of debit and credit items from journal to the respective accounts in the
ledger is called as
a. Ledger
b. Posting
c. Forward journal
d. None of these
151. Which of the following items would not fall under the definition of an asset?
a. Land
b. Machine
c. Cash
d. Owner Equity
152. Which one of the following items would fall under the definition of a liability
a. Cash
b. Debtor
c. Owner’s equity
d. None of these
153. Which of the following statements are false?
a. All liability is a debt for your business
b. Debtor are a asset for business
c. The accounting equation shows how much of your assets belong to the owner, and how
much belong to people outside business
d. None of the above
154. business has the following items in it: Land Rs.1,000,000 Machinery Rs.20,000 Cash
Rs.10,000 Debt Rs.0 Owner’s equity ? What is the valve of owner’s equity?
a. Rs.1020000
b. Rs.1010000
c. Rs.1030000
d. None of the above
155. A business has the following items in it: Owners’ equity Rs.6,00,000 Liabilities
Rs.14,00,000. What is the value of Assets……………
a. 600,000
b. 1,400,000
c. 2,000,000
d. None of these
156. A business has the following items in it: Land Rs.1, 500,000 Machinery Rs.80, 000
Cash Rs.20, 000 Owners equity Rs.900, 000 Loan Rs.500, 000 Creditors?
a. Rs.200, 000
b. Rs.700, 000
c. Rs.800, 000
d. Rs1, 100,000
157. A business has following items in itLand ? Vehicles Rs.600,000 Debtors Rs. 1,20,000
Cash Rs.30,000 Owners ‘Equity Rs.1,000,000 Loan 5,00,000 Creditors Rs.50,000
What is the value of the land…………………..
a. 000,000
b. 1,550,000
c. 800,000
d. None of these
158. Which of the following equations properly represents a derivation of the fundamental
accounting equation? a) Assets + liabilities = Owner Equity b) Asset = Owner Equity c) Cash =
Assets d) Assets – Liabilities = Owner Equity
a. Only (a)
b. Both (a) (b)
c. All (a)(b)(c)(d)
d. None of these
159. Retained earnings will change over time because of several factors. Which of the
following factors would explain an increase in retained earnings?
a. Net Loss
b. Net income
c. Dividend
d. Investment by share holder.
163. The full disclosure principle, as adopted by the accounting profession, is best described by
which of the following?
a. All information related to an entity's business and operating objectives is required to be
disclosed in the financial statements.
b. Information about each account balance appearing in the financial statements is to be
included in the notes to the financial statements.
c. Enough information should be disclosed in the financial statements so a person wishing
to invest in the stock of the company can make a profitable decision.
d. Disclosure of any financial facts significant enough to influence the judgment of an
informed reader
166. The Cash account on the balance sheet should not include which of the following items?
a. Travel advances to employees
b. Currency
c. Money orders
d. Deposits in transit
168. The following comments all relate to the recording process. Which of these statements is
correct?
a. The general ledger is a chronological record of transactions.
b. The general ledger is posted from transactions recorded in the general journal.
c. The trial balance provides the primary source document for recording transactions into
the general journal.
d. Transposition is the transfer of information from the general journal to the general
ledger.
169. The following comments each relate to the recording of journal entries. Which statement
is true?
a. For any given journal entry, debits must exceed credits.
b. It is customary to record credits on the left and debits on the right.
c. The chart of accounts reveals the amount to debit and credit to the affected accounts.
d. Journalization is the process of converting transactions and events into
debit/credit format.
171. Which of the following errors will be disclosed in the preparation of a trial balance?
a. Recording transactions in the wrong account.
b. Duplication of a transaction in the accounting records.
c. Posting only the debit portion of a particular journal entry.
d. Recording the wrong amount for a transaction to both the account debited and the
account credited.
172. The basic sequence in the accounting process can best be described as:
a. Transaction, journal entry, source document, ledger account, trial balance.
b. Source document, transaction, ledger account, journal entry, trial balance.
c. Transaction, source document, journal entry, trial balance, ledger account.
d. Transaction, source document, journal entry, ledger account, trial balance.
177. Which of the following statements about differences between financial and managerial
accounting is incorrect?
a. Managerial accounting information is prepared primarily for external parties
such as stockholders and creditors; financial accounting is directed at internal users.
b. Financial accounting is aggregated; managerial accounting is focused on products and
departments.
c. Managerial accounting pertains to both past and future items; financial accounting
focuses primarily on past transactions and events.
d. Financial accounting is based on generally accepted accounting practices; managerial
accounting faces no similar constraining factors.
179. Manufacturing costs are also known as product costs. Which of the following best
describes those costs which are considered to be manufacturing costs?
a. Direct materials, direct labor, and factory overhead.
b. Direct materials and direct labor only.
c. Direct materials, direct labor, factory overhead, and administrative overhead.
d. Direct labor and factory overhead.
180. A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, plus long
distance charges, would be classified as a:
a. Variable cost
b. Committed fixed cost
c. Direct cost
d. Semi variable cost
199. Which items does not come under the balance sheet
a. sales
b. Share capital
c. Reserves and surplus
d. Unsecured loan
205. _____________ system records only actual cash receipts and payments
a. Cash basis
b. Accrual basis
c. Mercantile basis
d. Single entry basis
206. Which of the following is true for: -“In accounts recording is done of_ _ _ _ _”
a. only financial transaction
b. only non- financial transaction
c. Both
d. Personal transaction of Proprietor
212. All costs other than direct materials cost, direct labour cost and direct expenses are known
as:
a. Indirect material cost
b. Overhead
c. Indirect labour cost
d. Indirect expenses
213. A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, plus long distance
charges, would be classified as a:
a. Variable cost
b. Committed fixed cost
c. Direct cost
d. Semi variable cost
215. The work of factory employees that can be physically associated with converting raw
material into finished goods is classified ase)
a. Manufacturing overhead
b. Indirect materials
c. Indirect labour
d. Direct labour
216. Which one of the following would not be classified as manufacturing overhead?
a. Indirect labour
b. Direct materials
c. Insurance on factory building
d. Indirect materials
218. A manufacturing process requires small amounts of glue. The glue used in the process is
classified as
a. A prime cost
b. An indirect material
c. A direct material
d. Miscellaneous expense
224. Aggregate of cost of goods sold and selling and distribution overheads is known as:
a. Total Cost
b. Office Cost
c. Cost of sales
d. Selling overhead
227. Calculate the prime cost from the following information: Direct material purchased: Rs.
1,00,000 Direct material consumed: Rs. 90,000 Direct labour: Rs. 60,000 Direct expenses: Rs.
20,000 Manufacturing overheads: Rs. 30,000
a. Rs. 1,80,000
b. Rs. 2,00,000
c. Rs. 1,70,000
d. Rs. 2,10,000
Answers
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32, (c) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (e) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (d)
51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (e) 59. (e) 60. (a)
61. (c) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (b) 66. (c) 67. (a) 68. (c) 69. (c) 70. (b)
71. (b) 72. (b) 73. (e) 74. (d) 75. (d) 76. (e) 77. (a) 78. (a) 79. (d) 80. (d)
81. (a) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (c) 85. (a) 86. (d) 87. (d) 88. (b) 89. (d) 90. (a)
91. (c) 92. (d) 93. (c) 94. (d) 95. (b) 96. (c) 97. (d) 98. (c) 99. (d) 100. (c)
101.(c) 102.(a) 103.(c) 104.(d) 105.(b) 106.(c) 107.(d) 108.(b) 109.(d) 110.(b)
111.(b) 112.(a) 113.(a) 114.(d) 115.(b) 116.(d) 117.(c) 118.(b) 119.(a) 120.(a)
121.(a) 122.(b) 123.(c) 124.(c) 125.(a) 126.(b) 127.(b) 128.(b) 129.(b) 130.(a)
131.(c) 132.(c) 133.(a) 134.(a) 135.(a) 136.(c) 137.(a) 138.(a) 139.(b) 140.(c)
141.(c) 142.(b) 143.(b) 144.(b) 145.(a) 146.(c) 147.(a) 148.(b) 149.(c) 150.(b)
151.(d) 152.(c) 153.(d) 154.(c) 155.(c) 156.(a) 157.(c) 158.(d) 159.(b) 160.(d)
161.(c) 162.(b) 163.(d) 164.(d) 165.(b) 166.(a) 167.(c) 168.(b) 169.(d) 170.(d)
171.(c) 172.(d) 173.(a) 174.() 175.(b) 176.(c) 177.(d) 178.(a) 179.(d) 180.(c)
181.(d) 182.(b) 183.(b) 184.(a) 185.(b) 186.(c) 187.(c) 188.(a) 189.(d) 190.(d)
191.(b) 192.(a) 193.(c) 194.(c) 195.(b) 196.(d) 197.(d) 198.(a) 199.(a) 200.(c)
201.(a) 202.(c) 203.(b) 204.(b) 205.(a) 206.(a) 207.(b) 208.(d) 209.(c) 210.(b)
211.(b) 212.(b) 213.(d) 214.(d) 215.(d) 216.(b) 217.(d) 218.(b) 219.(c) 220.(a)
221.(d) 222.(b) 223.(b) 224.(a) 225.(b) 226.(b) 227.(c)
Managerial Accounting (101)
4. Imputed cost is a .
A. notional cost.
B. real cost.
C. normal cost.
D. variable cost.
ANSWER: A
10. Multiple costing is a technique of using two or more costing methods for ascertainment of cost by.
A. the same firm.
B. the several firms.
C. the same industry.
D. the several industries.
ANSWER: A
11. Wages paid to a labour who was engaged in production activities can be termed as.
A. direct cost.
B. indirect cost.
C. sunk cost.
D. imputed cost.
ANSWER: A
12. The cost which is to be incurred even when a business unit is closed is a.
A. imputed cost.
B. historical cost.
C. sunk cost.
D. shutdown cost
ANSWER: D
B. factory cost.
C. labour cost.
D. cost of goods sold.
ANSWER: B
19. Which one of the following is not considered for preparation of cost sheet?
A. Factory cost.
B. Goodwill written off.
C. Selling cost.
D. Labour cost.
ANSWER: B
31. The ratios which reflect managerial efficiency in handling the assets is.
A. turnover ratios
B. profitability ratios.
C. short term solvency ratio.
D. long term solvency ratio.
ANSWER: A
32. he ratios which reveal the final result of the managerial policies and performance is .
A. turnover ratios.
B. profitability ratios.
C. short term solvency ratio.
D. long term solvency ratio.
ANSWER: B
40. The ratio which measures the profit in relation to capital employed is known as
A. return on investment.
B. gross profit ratio.
C. operating ratio.
D. operating profit ratio.
ANSWER: A
41. The ratio which determines the profitability from the shareholder’s point of view is .
A. return on investment.
B. gross profit ratio.
C. return on shareholders funds.
D. operating profit ratio.
ANSWER: C
42. Return on equity is also called
A. . return on investment.
B. gross profit ratio.
C. return on shareholders funds.
D. return on net worth.
ANSWER: D
45. The ratio which is calculated to measure the productivity of total assets is
A. return on equity.
B. return on share holders funds.
C. return on total assets.
D. return on equity share holders’ funds.
ANSWER: C
46. The ratio which shows the proportion of profits retained in the business out of the current year’s profits
is
A. . retained earnings ratio.
B. pay out ratio
C. earnings per share.
D. price earnings ratio.
ANSWER: A
47. The ratio which indicates earnings per share reflected by the market price is .
A. retained earnings ratio.
B. pay out ratio.
C. earnings per share.
D. price earnings ratio.
ANSWER: D
48. The ratio establishes the relationship between profit before interest and tax and fixed interest charges
is .
A. interest cover ratio.
B. fixed dividend cover ratio.
C. debt service coverage ratio.
D. dividend yield ratio.
ANSWER: A
49. The ratio shows the preference dividend as a proportion of profit available for shareholders is
.
A. interest cover ratio.
B. fixed dividend cover ratio.
C. debt service coverage ratio.
D. dividend yield ratio.
ANSWER: B
53. Which ratio is calculated to ascertain the efficiency of inventory management in terms of capital
investment?
A. stock velocity ratio.
8
B. debtors velocity ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: A
54. The ratio which measures the relationship between the cost of goods sold and the amount of average
inventory is
A. stock turnover ratio.
B. debtors velocity ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: A
57. Which ratio measures the number of times the receivables are rotated in a year in terms of sales?
A. stock turnover ratio.
B. debtors turnover ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: B
9
60. The indicates the number of times the payables rotate in a year is _.
A. stock turnover ratio.
B. stock turnover ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: C
62. All those assets which are converted into cash in the normal course of business within one year are
known as .
A. fixed assets.
B. current assets.
C. fictitious assets.
D. wasting assets.
ANSWER: B
63. All those liabilities which are payable in cash in the normal course of business within a period of one
year are called _.
A. long term liabilities.
B. overdraft.
C. short term loans.
D. current liabilities.
ANSWER: D
64. Any transaction between a current account and another current account does not
Affect .
A. profit.
B. funds.
C. working capital.
D. capital.
ANSWER: B
65. Any transaction between a non current account and another non current account does not
affect .
A. profit.
B. funds.
C. working capital.
D. capital.
ANSWER: B
66. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement -Increase in current asset .
A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital.
C. decrease fixed capital.
D. increase fixed capital.
ANSWER: A
67. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement - Decrease in current asset .
A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital.
C. decrease fixed capital.
D. increase fixed capital.
ANSWER: B
68. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement -Increase in current liability .
A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital.
C. decrease fixed capital.
D. increase fixed capital.
ANSWER: B
69. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement -Decrease in current Liability .
A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital.
C. decrease fixed capital
D. increase fixed capital.
ANSWER: A
72. One of the primary differences between marginal costing and absorption costing regarding
the treatment of .
A. prime cost .
B. fixed overheads.
C. variable overheads .
D. direct materials.
ANSWER: B
85. 1f` fixed costs decrease while variable cost per unit remains constant, the new B.E.P in relation to the
old B.E.P will be .
A. lower .
B. higher.
C. . unchanged .
D. indeterminate.
ANSWER: B
86. If fixed costs decrease while the variable cost per unit remains constant, the new contribution margin in
relation to the old contribution margin will be .
A. lower .
B. unchanged .
C. higher.
D. indeterminate.
ANSWER: B
87. Selling price per unit Rs. 10; Variable cost Rs. 8 per unit; Fixed cost Rs. 20,000; Break-even
production in units .
A. 10,000.
B. 16,300.
C. 2,000.
D. 2,500.
ANSWER: D
88. Sales Rs. 25,000; Variable cost Rs. 8,000; Fixed cost Rs. 5,000; Break-even sales
in value .
A. Rs. 7,936.
B. Rs. 7,353.
C. Rs. 8,333.
D. Rs. 9,090.
ANSWER: B
89. Fixed cost Rs. 80,000; Variable cost Rs. 2 per unit; Selling price_Rs. 10 per unit; turnover required
for a profit target of Rs. 60,000.
A. Rs. 1,75,000.
B. Rs. 1,17,400.
C. Rs. 1.57,000.
D. Rs. 1,86,667.
ANSWER: A
90. Sales Rs. 25,000; Variable cost Rs. 15,000; Fixed cost Rs .4,000; P/V Ratio is .
A. 40% .
B. 80%
C. 15%
D. 30%.
ANSWER: A
91. Sales Rs. 50,000; Variable cost Rs. 30,000; Net profit Rs. 6,000; fixed cost is .
A. Rs. 10,000.
B. b. Rs. l4,000 .
C. Rs. 12,000.
D. Rs. 8,000.
ANSWER: B
92. Actual sales Rs .4,00,000; Break-even sales Rs. 2,50,000; Margin of Safety in
percentage is _.
A. 33.33%.
B. 66.67%
C. 37.5% .
D. 76.33%.
ANSWER: C
93. P/V Ratio 50%; Variable cost of the produce Rs. 25; Selling price is .
A. Rs. 50 .
B. Rs. 40.
C. Rs. 30 .
D. Rs. 55.
ANSWER: A
94. Fixed cost Rs. 2,00,000; Sales Rs. 8,00,000; P/V Ratio 30%; the amount of' profit is .
A. Rs. 50,000.
B. Rs. 40,000 .
C. Rs. 35,000 .
D. Rs. 45,000 .
ANSWER: B
95. P/V Ratio is 25% and Margin of Safety is Rs; 3,00,000, the amount of profit is .
A. Rs. 1,00,000.
B. Rs. 80,000.
C. Rs. 75,000.
D. . Rs. 60,000.
ANSWER: C
96. Total sales Rs. 20,00,000; Fixed expenses Rs. 4,00,000; P/V Ratio 40%; Break-even capacity
in percentage is .
A. 40% .
B. 60% .
C. 50% .
D. 45%.
ANSWER: C
97. Break - even point occurs at 40% of` total capacity, margin of safety will be .
A. 40% .
B. 60% .
C. 80% .
D. 85% .
ANSWER: B
98. If the P/V Ratio of a product is 30% and selling price is Rs. 25 per unit, the marginal cost of the
product would be .
A. Rs.18.75 .
B. Rs.16 .
C. Rs. 15 .
D. Rs.20 .
ANSWER: A
104. The budget which usually takes the form of budgeted profit and loss account and balance sheet is
known as
A. Flexible budget .
B. Master budget.
C. Cash budget .
D. Purchase budget.
ANSWER: B
106. The fixed-variable cost classification has `a special significance in the preparation of .
A. Capital budget.
B. Cash budget.
C. Master budget .
D. Flexible budget .
ANSWER: D
108. Preparing budget figures for different levels of activity within a range under flexible budgeting is
.
A. Formula method.
B. Multi-activity method.
C. Budget cost allowance method.
D. Proportionate method.
ANSWER: B
109. What type of budget is designed to take into account forecast change in costs, prices, etc?
A. Master budget.
B. Rolling budget.
C. Flexible budget .
D. Functional budget.
ANSWER: B
C. Budgeting.
D. Controlling.
ANSWER: C
ANSWER: C
116. The budget which shows the budgeted quantity of output to be produced during a specific period is.
A. Fixed budget.
B. Flexible budget.
C. Sales budget.
D. Production budget
ANSWER: D
118. Material budget consists of two parts, one is the consumption budget and another Is .
18
C. Material production budget.
D. Material budget.
ANSWER: B
122. Budget of indirect costs in the form of indirect wages, indirect material and indirect expenses in the
factory is .
A. Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Master budget.
ANSWER: A
123. The budget prepared to estimate the expenditure to be incurred for planning, organizing, direction and
control function of the management is .
A. . Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Master budget.
ANSWER: B
124. The budget prepared to estimate expenditure to be incurred to sell the product and its distribution is
.
A. Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Master budget
ANSWER: C
125. The budget prepared to estimate the research and development expenditure to be incurred during a
specific period is .
A. Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Research and development budget.
19
ANSWER: D
126. The budget prepared to estimate the expenditure on fixed assets is known as.
A. Capital expenditure budget
B. Production overhead budget.
C. Administration overhead budget.
D. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
ANSWER: A
127. The budget prepared for replacement of assets, expansion of production facilities, adoption of new
technologies etc. is .
A. Capital expenditure budget.
B. Production overhead budget.
C. Administration overhead budget.
D. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
ANSWER: A
20
C. Job In Time.
D. Job Inventory Time.
ANSWER: A
134. FIFO is .
A. Fast Investment in Future Order.
B. First In First Out.
C. Fast In Fast Out
D. Fast Issue Of Fast Order.
ANSWER: D
137. Scrap is .
A. residue of material.
B. wastage of material.
C. surplus material.
D. abnormal loss of material.
ANSWER: A
138. Material is issued by store keeper against.
A. material requisition.
B. material order.
C. goods received note.
D. purchase requisition.
ANSWER: A
140. The document which is prepared after receiving and inspecting material .
A. material record note.
B. goods received note.
C. bill of material.
D. inventory record.
ANSWER: B
146. Material consumed is Rs. 5,00,000 Opening stock of raw material is Rs. 50,000 and Closing stock of
raw material is Rs. 25,000. What is the cost of raw material purchased?
A. Rs. 4,50,000.
B. Rs. 4,75,000.
C. Rs. 5,25,000.
D. Rs. 5, 50,000.
ANSWER: B
147. If selling price is Rs. 25,000 and profit is Rs. 5,000 then what is the percentage of profit on
cast?
A. 20%.
B. 25%.
C. 33.33%.
D. 35%.
ANSWER: B
Dr
Date
5
1st Feb
Dr.
Date
8
1stFeb
Dr
Date
31
Date
31
Dr.
Date
30
1st Feb
Dr
Date
30
1st Feb
Dr
Date
31
1st Feb
LEDGER ACCOUNTS
Cash A/c
Particulars J.F. Amount(RS.) Date Particulars J.F.
Capital A/c
Particulars J.F. Amount(RS.) Date Particulars J.F.
To balance carried down 50,000 1 By Cash A/c
Credit balance
50,000
1-Feb By balance brought down
20,000
1srt Feb By Balance brought down
Computer A/c
Particulars J.F. Amount(RS.) Date Particulars J.F.
To Cash A/c 58,000 31 By balance carried down
58,000
To balance carried down 58,000
Computer Supplies A/c
Particulars J.F. Amount(RS.) Date Particulars J.F.
To Creditors A/c 6,000 31 By balance carried down
6,000
To balance brought down 6,000
Creditors A/c
Particulars J.F. Amount(RS.) Date Particulars J.F.
To Cash A/c 2,000 8 By Computer Supplies A/c
To balance carried down Credit 4,000
6,000
1st Feb By balance brought down
20,000
1st Feb By balance brought down
Salary A/c
Particulars J.F. Amount(RS.) Date Particulars J.F.
To Cash A/c 4,000 31 By balance carried down
4,000
To balance brought down 4,000
Office Rent A/c
Particulars J.F. Amount(RS.) Date Particulars J.F.
To Cash 1,200 31 By balance carried down
1,200
To balance brought down 1,200
Debotrs A/c
Particulars J.F. Amount(RS.) Date Particulars J.F.
To Software income A/c 8,000 31 By balance carried down
8,000
To balance brought down 8,000
Suresh began business wit
Cr. The firm took a loan from
Amount(RS.) Bought for cash a compute
58,000 Bought computer supplies
2,000 Received payment for soft
4,000 Paid creditor for supplies R
1,200 Paid salaries Rs. 4000 and
16,800 Debit balance Sold software on credit Rs.
82,000
Cr
Amount(RS.)
58,000 debit balance
58,000
Cr
Amount(RS.)
6,000 debit balance
6,000
Cr
Amount(RS.)
6,000
6,000
4,000
Amount(RS.)
12,000
8,000
20,000
20,000
Amount(RS.)
4,000 debit balance
4,000
Amount(RS.)
1,200 debit balance
1,200
Amount(RS.)
8,000 debit balance
8,000
gan business with cash Rs. 50000
ook a loan from Manish Rs. 20000
cash a computer Rs. 58000
mputer supplies on credit Rs. 6000
ayment for software sales Rs. 12000
or for supplies Rs. 2000
es Rs. 4000 and office rent Rs. 1200
are on credit Rs. 8000
Trading and Profit and Loss A/c for the year ended
Dr
Particulars Amount(Rs.)
To Depreciation on Computers 8,700
To Salary 4,000
Add: Outstanding salary 2,000 6,000
To office rent 1,200
To Net Proft carried to balance sheet 4,100
20,000
Balance Sheet as at
Liabilities Amount (Rs.)
S. Capital 50,000
Less: Drawings 6,500
43,500
Add: Net profit earned 4,100 47,600
Creditors 4,000
Outstanding salary 2,000
Manish's Loan 20,000
20,000
nce Sheet as at
Assets Amount(Rs)
Computer 58,000
Less: Depreciation@15% 8,700 49,300
Cash 16,800
Less: Drawings 6,500 10,300
Computer Supplies 6,000
Debtors 8,000
73,600
Journal entries in the books of _____________ for the period _____________
Date Particulars L.F. Debit(Rs.) Credit (Rs.)
1.10.2017 Cash A/c Dr. 50,000
To Owner's Capital A/c 50,000
(Being business started with cash)
5.10.2017 Petrol A/c Dr. 1,000
To Cash A/c 1,000
(Being cash paid for petrol)
10.10.2017Cash A/c Dr. 5,000
To Rent received A/c 5,000
(Being cash received towards rent)
Adjustments:
(a) Closing stock Rs, 25,000.
(b) Provision for doubtful debts at 2.5% of sundry debtors.
(c) Depreciation furniture and machinery by 10%.
(d) Commission of Rs. 4,200 has been earned but not received till the closing of accounts.
(e) Wages of Rs. 400 are outstanding/unpaid.
(f) Insurance premium is paid for the entire year starting 1.10.2019.
(g) Goods worth Rs. 2,500 were distributed as free sample
d) First effect = balance sheet asset side, second effect = profit and loss A/c credit side add to commission
e) First effect = balance sheet liability side, second effect = trading A/c debit side add to wages
f) first effect = balance sheet asset side, second effect = profit and loss A/c debit side less from insurance premium
g) first effect = trading A/c credit side, second effect = profit and loss A/c debit side
o prepare Trading and Profit & Loss Account and Balance Sheet as at June 30, 2020.
o commission
om insurance premium
Trading A/c of Maya & Co for the year ended 30.06.2020
Dr
Particulars Amount
To opening stock 11,400
To purchases 145,000
Less: purchase return
To wages 23,600
Add: outstanding wages 400 24,000
To Carriage inward 2,040
Profit and Loss A/c of Maya & Co for the year ended 30.06.2020
Dr
Particulars Amount
To Bad debts (Trial balance) 0
Add: Bad debts (Adjustment) 0
add: Provision for doubtful debts (Adj) 1,300
Less: Provision for doubtful debts (T/B) 0 1,300
To Depreciation on furniture 350
To Depreciation on machinery 2,400
To Insurance Premium 2,400
Less: Prepaid insurance premium 600 1,800
To loss due to distribution of goods as free samples 2,500
To Salary 8,420
To motor car expenses 3,600
To general expenses 2,680
To carriage outward 1,630
To transportation charges 6,430
To rent and taxes 3,600
o for the year ended 30.06.2020
Cr
Particulars Amount
By Sales 292,000
Less: Sales Return 2,600 289,400
Cr
Particulars Amount
By Commission 0
Add: Oustanding commission 4,200
Balance sheet of Maya & Co as at 30.06.2020
50,700
3,150
21,600
4,200
600
2.392
22,000
2,508
6,200
Trading A/c of for the year ended
Dr. Cr
Particulars Amount Particulars Amount
To opening stock (goods, raw material) xxx By Sales (goods,
xxx finished product)
To Purchases ( of goods, raw material) xxx Less: Sales Return
xxx xxx
Less:Purchase Return xxx xxx By Goods gone as free xxx
samples/ fire/
To Wages xxx theft
Add: Outstanding wages xxx
OR By Closing stock (goods, raw material)
Less: Prepaid wages xxx xxx
To Carriage inward xxx
To Gross Profit carried to Profit and Loss A/c xxx By Gross Loss carried toxxx
Profit and Loss A/c
Adjustments:
· Stock at the end of year Rs. 4,300 and Three months Excise duties is due, but not paid Rs. 50.
· 10 percent depreciation to be written-off on furniture and write-off further bad debts Rs. 50.
· The provision for bad debts to be Rs. 400 and provision for discount on debtor @ 2.5 % to be made.
· During the year machinery was purchased for Rs. 5,000, but was debited to Purchase account.
Provide 10% depreciation of machinery
nt and Balance Sheet.
Accrued concept
Accounting period concept Sales 100,000.00 12 months
Matching concept Salary 12000 12 months
1,000 p.m.
600
Insurance premium 2,400 12 months
12 months 1.10.2019
200 p.m. 2,400
12 months
1.7.2019 30.06.2020
13,000 13 months
1,000 1 month
12,000 12 months
30.09.2020
30.06.2020
MCQ for Managerial Accounting Practice Set-1
b) Creditors
c) Managers
d) Regulatory agencies
d) Treasurer
b) Manufacturing entities
c) Non-profit entities
d) All of these
c) Convention of materiality
d) Convention of consistency
5. The work of factory employees that can be physically associated with converting raw
material into finished goods is classified as-
a) Manufacturing overhead
b) Indirect materials
c) Indirect labour
d) Direct labour
c) Management
d) All
8. Which type of asset class includes those assets which have only definite use and
become valueless when the yield is over?
a) Fixed asset
b) Current asset
c) Fictitious asset
d) Wasting asset
c) Cost accounting
d) Real Accounting
c) Sales account
d) Creditors account
13. Cost of goods sold= opening stock+ net purchases+ expenses on Purchases – sales
Which part of formula is wrong?
a) opening stock
b) net purchases
c) expenses on Purchases
d) sales
d) Purchase account
b) Mahesh Account
c) Sales account
d) Purchase account
c) Cash account
d) Expense account
b) Customer’s account
c) Sales account
d) Cash account
b) Forward looking
c) Analytical
d) Social
c) Labour unrest
d) Limitations of financial accounting
b) Only to government
c) Only to consumers
d) To management, workers, consumers and government
b) Variable cost
c) Semi variable cost
c) Cost object
d) Cost estimation
b) Factory overhead
c) Selling overhead
d) Office overhead
28. ………………cost refers to those cost which have already been incurred and cannot
be altered by any decision in the future.
a) Opportunity cost
b) Sunk Cost
c) Incremental cost
d) Detrimental cost
29. Amortization of intangible Asset Such as Goodwill which has indefinite life is an
example of accounting concept
a) Conservatism Concept
b) Continuity Concept
c) Realisation Concept
d) Measurement Concept
c) Secured Loan
d) Advance by Manager & director
c) Depreciation
d) Carriage
b) Subjectivity
c) Convenience in recording
d) None of the above
d) Convention of disclosure
b) Sales account
c) Purchase account
d) None of the above
39. Income tax paid by a sole proprietor on his business income should be:
a) Debited to trading account
b) Trading account
c) Trading account Profit and Loss account
d) Lease Holds
43. Investment of X company profit in shares of other company PQR Pvt. ltd are
recorded in……………….
a) Asset side of Balance Sheet
b) Liability side of Balance Sheet
c) Journal
d) Both a and b
e) All of a, b, c above
d) Increases liability
c) Cash
d) Creditor
53. Cost of asset should always be equal to the cost of the liabilities. This concept is
a) Double Entry Bookkeeping
b) Matching Concept
c) Consistency
d) Money measurement Concept
b) Bank Balance
c) Plant Patents
d) Goodwill
b) Matching Concept
c) Cost Concept
b) Current liabilities
c) Fixed asset
d) Fixed liability
b) A liability
59. Reserve for doubtful debts appearing in the trial balance should be:
a) credited to P & L a/c
b) Shown as liability side in balance sheet
d) Both a and b
e) Both a and c
b) Investors
c) Creditors
d) Shareholders
c) Entity concept
d) Landlord concept
b) Paid up capital
c) Issues capital
d) None of these
63. True & fair profit and loss a/c of a company know by
a) Preparing trial balance
65. Under which concept it is assumed that the enterprises has neither the intention nor
the necessity of liquidation or of curtailing materiality the scale of operation
a) Revenue realization concept
d) None of these
b) Continuity concept
c) Realization concept
d) All of these
d) Art or Science
b) Duplicate
c) Personal
d) Nominal
c) Rules of Nominal
d) All of these
72. Which of the following account balance will be shown on debit side of Trial
Balance?
a) Outstanding expenses
b) Cash a/c
c) Short term loan
d) Creditors
73. The reduction in the value of the fixed assets which can arise due to time factor is
a) Discount
b) Depreciation
c) Reduction
d) None of these
76. Liabilities in balance sheet include the following items
a) Long term loan
b) Short term loan
c) Owner’s fund
b) Current liability
c) Short term liability
d) None of these
b) Net profit
c) Gross profit
d) Selling price
b) Government only
c) Investor only
d) All of these
c) Continuity concept
81. Proposed dividends" is shown in the Balance Sheet of a company under the head:
a) Provisions
b) Reserves and Surplus
c) Current Liabilities
d) Other Liabilities
c) Consistency
d) Time period
b) Materiality Principle
c) Entity Concept
d) Consistency concept
d) None of these
a) (ii) (iii)(i)
b) (iii)(iv)(ii)
d) (i)(iv)
c) Continuity concept
d) Money measurement concept
88. Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of:
a) Separate entity
b) Going concern
c) Consistency
d) Time period
b) It is a special account
b) Balancesheet
c. Partnership
d. All of them
93. Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a business is divided
for the purpose of preparing financial statements?
a) Fiscal year
b) Calendar year
c) Accounting period
d) Accrual period
b) Impersonal a/c
c) Real a/c
d) Nominal a/c
b) Disclosure of profit
c) Disclosure of all information which are important for investor
97. Which of the following is not regarded as the fundamental accounting concept?
a. The going concern concept
98. Using "lower of cost and net realisable value(Market Value)" for the purpose of
inventory valuation is the implementation of which of the following concepts?
a) The going concern concept
b) The separate entity concept
d) Matching concept
c) Partnership
d) All of them
100. The revenue recognition principal dictates that all types of incomes should be
recorded or recognized when
a) Cash is received
101. The allocation of owner's private expenses to his/her business violates which of the
following?
a) Accrual concept
b) Matching concept
d) Consistency concept
b) Calendar year
c) Accounting period
d) Accrual period
b) Materiality
c) Prudence
d) Matching concept
c) Immaterial
d) Material
106."Financial information should be neutral and bias free" is the dictation of which
one of the following?
a) Completeness concept
d) Duality Concept
107. Accounting principles are divided into two types. These are ---
a) Accounting Concepts
b) Accounting Conventions
c) Accounting Standards
d) None of These
109. Which of the following equation is related with Dual Aspect Concept ?
a) Total Assets = Total Liabilities
110.If the total assets of the company amount to Rs 1,50,000 and owner’s equity is Rs
70,000,the amount of liabilities will be –
a) Rs 70,000
b) Rs 80,000
c) Rs 90,000
d) Rs 1,00,000
c) Loss
d) None of these
c) Company
d) Books of A/c
c) Salary
d) Stationary
b) Liabilities
c) Capital
d) All of these
b) Trade Marks
c) Copyright
d) Land
c) Controlling function
d) None of these
c) Convenience in recording
d) None of these
d) None of these
c) Convention of conservatism
d) Convention of disclosure
125.The convention of conservatism when applied to the balance sheet result in.
a) Understand the asset
d) None of these
b) Capital a/c
c) Drawing a/c
d) Bank a/c
128.The amount of salary paid to Suresh should be debited to
a) The account of Suresh
b) Salaries a/c
c) Cash a/c
d) Bank a/c
129.The return of goods by the customer should be debited to
a) Customer a/c
b) Sales return a/c
c) Goods a/c
b) Mahesh a/c
c) Sales a/c
b) Rent a/c
c) Cash a/c
d) Tenant a/c
b) Customer a/c
c) Sales a/c
d) None of these
c) Sales a/c
d) Purchase a/c
d) None of these
d) None of these
136. Accountant should follow the same principles of accounting continuously is as per
which accounting convention
a) Convention of conservatism
c) Convention of consistency
d) None of these
d) None of these
d) None of these
139.In accounting all business transaction are recorded as having
a) Single aspect
b) Dual aspect
c) Triple aspect
d) None of these
140. Custom and traditions which guide the accountant while preparing the accounting
statements
a) Accounting convention
b) Accounting concepts
c) Accounting principles
d) None of these
b) Accounting concepts
c) Accounting principles
d) None of these
b) Accounting concepts
c) Accounting principles
d) None of these.
143.A system in which accounting entries are made on the basis of amounts having
become due for payment or receipt is called
a) Cash concept
b) Accrual concept
c) Matching concept
d) On-going concept
c) Nominal a/c
d) None of these
c) Nominal a/c
d) None of these
146.Debit all expenses and losses Credit all gains and income.
a) Real a/c
b) Personal a/c
d) None of these
147. A book containing a chronological record of business transaction & original record
a) Journal
b) Ledger
c) Trial balance
d) None of these
148. Transferring the debit and credit item from the journal to the respective accounts
is called
a) Compound Journal
b) Ledger
c) Trial balance
d) None of these
b) Ledger
c) Trial balance
d) None of these
150.The transferring of debit and credit items from journal to the respective accounts in
the ledger is called as
a) Ledger
b) Posting
c) Forward journal
d) None of these
151. Which of the following items would not fall under the definition of an asset?
a) Land
b) Machine
c) Cash
d) Owner Equity
c) Owner’s equity
d) None of these
c) The accounting equation shows how much of your assets belong to the owner, and how
much belong to people outside business
Machinery Rs.20,000
Cash Rs.10,000
b) Rs.1010000
c) Rs.1030000
c) 2,000,000
d) None of these
c) Rs.800, 000
d) Rs1, 100,000
Land ?
Vehicles Rs.600,000
Cash Rs.30,000
Owners’Equity Rs.1,000,000
Loan 5,00,000
Creditors Rs.50,000
b) 1,550,000
c) 800,000
d) None of these
b) Asset = OwnerEquity
c) Cash = Assets
d) None of these
159. Retained earnings will change over time because of several factors. Which of the
following factors would explain an increase in retained earnings?
a) Net Loss
b) Net income
c) Dividend
d) Investment by share holder.
b) Accounts receivable
c) Sales
d) Cash
b) Rs.1900
c) Rs.1200
d) Rs.1700
d.None of theses
166. The Cash account on the balance sheet should not include which of the following
items?
a. Travel advances to employees
b. Currency
c. Money orders
d. Deposits in transit
b. The general ledger is posted from transactions recorded in the general journal.
c. The trial balance provides the primary source document for recording transactions into the
general journal.
d. Transposition is the transfer of information from the general journal to the general ledger.
169. The following comments each relate to the recording of journal entries. Which
statement is true?
a. For any given journal entry, debits must exceed credits.
b. It is customary to record credits on the left and debits on the right.
c. The chart of accounts reveals the amount to debit and credit to the affected accounts.
d. Journalization is the process of converting transactions and events into debit/credit format.
171.Which of the following errors will be disclosed in the preparation of a trial balance?
a. Recording transactions in the wrong account.
b. Duplication of a transaction in the accounting records.
172. The basic sequence in the accounting process can best be described as:
a. Transaction, journal entry, source document, ledger account, trial balance.
b) Decision making
c) Control
d) All of these
178. Which of the following statements about differences between financial and
managerial accounting is incorrect?
a) Managerial accounting information is prepared primarily for external parties such as
stockholders and creditors; financial accounting is directed at internal users.
b) Financial accounting is aggregated; managerial accounting is focused on products and
departments.
c) Managerial accounting pertains to both past and future items; financial accounting focuses
primarily on past transactions and events.
180. Manufacturing costs are also known as product costs. Which of the following best
describes those costs which are considered to be manufacturing costs?
a. Direct materials, direct labor, and factory overhead.
181. A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, plus long
distance charges, would be classified as a:
a. Variable cost
b. Committed fixed cost
c. Direct cost
d) Thoughts of accountant
c) Owners
d) Debtors and creditors
b) Liability
c) Accounts
c) recorded facts
b) Estimates of profits
c) Estimates of costs
c) Bankers
d) All of the above
b) Acceptances
c) Unclaimed dividend
d) Short term investment
b) Determination of profit
c) Determination of price
d) Determination of selling price
b) Budgeted figures
c) Standard figures
d) Management Figure
b) 1939
c) 1950
d) 1960
b) Optional
c) Obligation
d) Statutory requirement
b) Investment
c) Current asset
d) Owners equity
c) Non financial
d) None of these
199. Which items does not come under the balance sheet
a) sales
b) Share capital
d) Unsecured loan
b) Director’s Report
b) Wheldon
c) LucoPacioli
d) R. N. Carter
b) Clerical
c) Executive
d) Non- executive
c) Mercantile basis
d) Single entry basis
206. Which of the following is true for: -“In accounts recording is done of_ _ _ _ _”
a) only financial transaction
c) Both
d) Personal transaction of Proprietor
b) Revenue
c) Direct
d) Non- cash
b) Real Account
c) Artificial person’s account
b) Trial Balance
c) Ledger
d) Journal
b) capital account
c) drawings account
b) Salaries account
c) Cash account
d) Outstanding expenses
212.All costs other than direct materials cost, direct labour cost and direct expenses are
known as:
a) Indirect material cost
b) Overhead
c) Indirect labour cost
d) Indirect expenses
213. A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, plus long
distance charges, would be classified as a:
a. Variable cost
c. Direct cost
g. Semi variable cost
215. The work of factory employees that can be physically associated with converting
raw material into finished goods is classified as-
e. Manufacturing overhead
f. Indirect materials
g. Indirect labour
h. Direct labour
218. A manufacturing process requires small amounts of glue. The glue used in the
process is classified as
a) A prime cost
b) An indirect material
c) A direct material
d) Miscellaneous expense
b) Direct materials
c) Indirect materials
d) Immaterial items
b) Direct materials
c) Manufacturing overhead
d) Advertising
c) Direct Expenses
d) Prime Cost
b) Work Cost
c) Cost of Production
d) Direct Cost
b) Factory Overhead
c) Selling overhead
d) Office overhead
224. Aggregate of cost of goods sold and selling and distribution overheads is known as :
a) Total Cost
b) Office Cost
c) Cost of sales
d) Selling overhead
a. Robert Anthony
b. James H Bliss
c. J. Batty
d. Michael Porter
a. Decision making
b. Planning
c. Direction
a. 1960
b. 1930
c. 1950
d. 1910
a. Compulsory
b. Optional
c. Mandatory
a. Simulation
d. KPIs
a. Ratio analysis
b. Standard costing
c. Budgetary control
a. Robert Anthony
b. James H Bliss
c. J. Batty
d. Michael Porter
a. Financial accounting
b. Cost accounting
c. Tax accounting
d. None of these.
a. Accounting information
b. Future oriented
c. Management oriented
d. Compulsory accounting.
10.The process of quantifying the efficiency and effectiveness of past actions is called:
a. Simulation
b. Decision accounting
c. Revaluation accounting
d. Performance measurement.
a. ROI
b. EVA
c. Residual income
d. All of these.
a. EVA
c. Residual income
d. ROI
a. ROI
b. EVA
c. Residual income
d. EBIT
14. Net profit before Tax-(average capital employed x Desired minimum rate of return)
=?
a. ROI
b. EVA
c. Residual income
d. EBIT
a. ROI
b. EVA
c. Residual income
d. EBIT
a. Michael Porter
b. Du Pont Company
c. Taichi Okno
d. None of these
b. Residual income
c. NOPAT
a. Jimmy Carter
b. Art Schneiderman
c. Taichi Okno
d. Robert Anthony
b. WACC
d. SCBA
a. Internal process
b. Customer
c. Financial perspective
d. Value chain
a. Financial perspective
b. Internal process
c. Customer
a. Financial perspective
b. Internal process
c. Customer
24.Defect rates and lead times are tools of performance measure in balance score card
under------------- perspective.
a. Financial perspective
b. Internal process
c. Customer
25.Operating income and sales growth are tools of performance measure in balance
score card under------------- perspective.
a. Financial perspective
b. Internal process
c. Customer
b. De nova budgeting
d. All of these
a. Abraham Lincon
b. Jimmy Carter
c. Peter A phyrr
d. Alex Ouchy
a. Art Schneiderman
b. Jimmy Carter
c. Peter A phyrr
d. Taichi Okno
a. ZBB
b. ABB
c. Performance budgeting
d. Traditional budgeting
30. --------- budgets are prepared after justifying the cost drivers.
a. ZBB
b. ABB
c. Flexible budget
d. Cost budget
a. Contribution
c. Margin of safety
d. Gross margin
32.Net Avoidable fixed cost divided by Contribution per unit is equal to:
a. PV ratio
c. Contribution
d. Shutdown point
a. Variable cost
b. Fixed cost
c. Variable Overhead
d. Direct expenses
a. Fixed cost
c. Market price
d. Variable cost
a. Profit
b. Loss
c. Contribution
d. Sales
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remain unchanged
a. Prime cost
c. Cost of production
d. Cost of sales
a. Increases PV ratio
b. Decreases PV ratio
c. Increases Profit
d. Increases contribution
a. Profit
b. Contribution
c. BEP
d. Margin of Safety
a. BEP
b. Sales
c. Fixed cost
d. Variable cost
a. Net profit
b. Contribution
c. BEP
d. Margin of Safety
42. Sales price per unit Rs.10, Variable cost Rs.8 per unit and fixed cost is Rs.20,000,
then BEP in units is----------
a. 10,000
b. 16,000
c. 2,000
d. 2,500
a. Fixed cost
b. Variable cost
c. Net profit
d. Net loss
44.Actual sales is Rs.5,00,000 and BEP sales is 3,00,000, then margin of safety
percentage is:
a. 20%
b. 40%
c. 33.33%
d. 25%
a. 80,000
b. 50,000
c. 1,00,000
d. 25,000
a. BEP
b. Angle of incidence
d. Profit.
a. Share Capital
b. Gross profit
c. Gross margin
d. Margin of safety
48. -----------is formed as curve by the intersection of total cost and total revenue.
a. BEP
b. Angle of incidence
c. Margin of safety
d. Key factor
49.Variable cost of a product is Rs.10 and firm has an overall PV ratio @ 60%, what
will be its selling price?
a. Rs.60
b. Rs.6
c. Rs.25
d. Rs.16
50.While making make or buy decision under marginal costing, external purchase price
of the articles must be compared with:
54.Fixed cost Rs.50,000, Profit Rs.30,000, cost of goods sold Rs.170,000, what is PV
ratio?
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 20%
d. 40%
a. Maximum
b. Average
c. Minimum
d. Zero
a. p,d
b. b,f
c. e, p
a. Debt-equity mix
b. Dividend
c. EBIT
d. EAT
a. Cost of equity
c. Cost of debt
59.Which of the following is/ are the method of calculating cost of equity?
d. All of these.
60. ------------- is the rate of return the firm requires from investment in order to
increase the value of the firm in the market place
d. Cost of capital.
a. Specific cost
b. Marginal cost
c. Composite cost
d. Any of these.
62.The span of time within which the investment made for the project will be recovered
by the net returns of the project is known as:
a. Period of return
b. Payback period
c. Span of return
65.The values of the future net incomes discounted by the cost of capital are called:
67.The internal Rate of Return (IRR) criterion for project acceptance, under
theoretically infinite funds is: accept all projects which have:
b. Profitability index
70.Where capital availability is unlimited and the projects are not mutually exclusive,
for the same cost of capital, following criterion is used.
c. Profitability Index
72.With limited finance and a number of project proposals at hand, select that package
of projects which has:
a. Sensitivity index
d. All of these
d. Profitability index
77.Which of the following is not a method of capital budgeting, under risk and
uncertainty?
a. Probability assignment
c. Certainty equivalent
78.Under which method, three types of cash flows such as optimistic, pessimistic and
most likely cash flows are estimated?
a. Probability assignment
c. Certainty equivalent
d. Sensitivity analysis
79. --------- is graphical representation of alternative courses of action and the possible
outcomes and the risk associated with each action.
a. Pivot table
b. Sensitivity analysis
c. Decision tree
d. All of these.
d. CE Co-efficient
a. Probability assignment
b. Sensitivity analysis
c. Profitability index
d. Standard deviation.
a. Standard deviation
b. Sensitivity analysis
c. Profitability index
d. Probability assignment.
a. Profitability
b. Return
c. Risk
d. Capital
84. ------------ is a comprehensive view of all the possibilities associated with a proposed
project.
a. Co-efficient of variation
b. Probability assignment
c. Sensitivity analysis
d. Decision tree.
b. Ouchy
c. Taichi Okno
d. Moulin
b. Target costing
d. Standard costing.
a. Cost driver
b. Target cost
c. Cost pool
d. Cost object.
88.In activity based costing, ---------are the factors which influences the cost.
a. Cost pool
b. Cost centre
c. Cost driver
d. Cost object.
b. Target costing
d. Standard costing.
90. ---------- Technique of costing considers all the cost to be incurred during the entire
life of the project.
b. Target costing
d. Standard costing.
a. Activity cost
b. Upstream cost
c. Downstream cost
d. Target cost
92.Under ------------ total cost are classified into upstream cost, manufacturing cost and
downstream cost.
b. Target costing
d. Standard costing.
a. Full costing
d. All of these.
94. ------------ refers to the system of cost reduction based on a series of gradual and
small improvements rather than drastic changes in the manufacturing process.
a. Throughput costing
b. Quality costing
c. Kaizen costing
d. Transaction costing
a. Throughput costing
b. Quality costing
c. Kaizen costing
a. Direct material
b. Direct labour
c. Direct expense
d. Indirect cost
a. Kan Ban
b. Kaizen
c. JIT
d. TQM
a. Robert S Kaplan
b. Robin Cooper
d. Waldron
99.Under life cycle costing, research and development cost, design cost etc., are
considered as:
a. Activity cost
b. Upstream cost
c. Downstream cost
d. Target cost
100. -------------- is a practice of identifying, studying and building upon the best
practices of organizational role models.
a. Core competency
b. Bench marking
c. Spying
d. Conglomerating
a. Cost of failure
c. Appraisal cost
d. None of these
102.Which of the following is/ are the primary activities under Porter’s Value chain?
a. Inbound logistics
b. Procurement
d. All of these.
a. Infrastructure
b. HRM
c. Procurement
d. All of these.
a. Floatation cost
b. No floatation cost
d. None of these.
105. ----------- Method of capital budgeting also known as ‘trial and error’ method.
a. ARR
b. NPV
c. BCR
d. IRR
a. Capital budgeting
b. Project screening
c. Capital rationing
d. Capital expending
a. Robert S Kaplan
b. Michael Porter
c. R.Cooper
d. Taichi Okno
a. TQM
b. JIT
c. VED system
a. IRR
c. Discounted Payback
a. Cost reduction
b. Variability increase
d. Quality improvement.
a. Low inventory
b. Employee empowerment
c. Card
d. Continuous improvement.
c. employee empowerment
b. Poke-yoke diagram
c. Kaizen diagram
d. Taguchi diagram
a. Marginal costing
b. Absorption costing
c. Differential costing
d. None of these
a. Profit
b. Contribution
c. Costs
d. None of these
118.Given sales = Rs.1,50,000, Fixed costs = Rs.30,000, Profit =Rs. 40,000.The variable
cost is Rs………….
a. 110000
b. 80000
c. 120000
d. 10000
a. Profit
b. Marginal cost
c. Contribution
d. None of these
d. all of these
a. 1,40,000
b. 14,00,000
c. 20,00,000
d. 2,00,000
a. variable
b. fixed
c. semi variable
d. all of these
a. Contribution
b. Net Profit
c. Gross Sales
d. none of these
124. Which of the following shows the shows the degree of profitability?
a. Angle of contribution
b. Angle of incidence
c. Margin of safety
a. Variable cost
b. Fixed price
c. Profit
d. None of these
a. GP Ratio
b. NP Ratio
c. PV Ratio
d. OP ratio
a. Fixed overheads
b. Variable overheads
c. Contribution
d. Work cost
128.When fixed cost is deducted from contribution, the balance will be--------
a. Variable cost
b. Gross profit
c. Total cost
d. sales
129.When sales are Rs.30000 and P/V ratio is 20% then contribution will be--------
a. 2000
b. 4000
c. 6000
d. 8000
130.When fixed costs are Rs.4000 and Gross margin ratio is 25%, then breakeven point
will be- - - - - - - -
a. 40000
b. 20000
c. 16000
d. 10000
a. 10000
b. 25000
c. 30000
d. 50000
132. Fixed costs Rs.6000, Profit required Rs.4000 and P/v ratio is 50% , then sales
required will be---------
a. 6000
b. 4000
c. 10000
d. 20000
133. Variable cost ratio is 60% Sales Rs.20000 and fixed cost Rs.5000, then profit will be
……..
a. 15000
b. 12000
c. 3000
d. 10000
a. Profitability
b. Management
c. Authority
d. None of these
a. Responsibility
b. Cost
c. Profit
d. None of these
a. Costs
b. Inputs
c. a or b
d. None of these
a. Cost
b. Profit
c. Revenue
d. All of these
138. In Activity based Costing, a factor which causes cost is usually called as.
a. Cost driver
b. Governing factor
c. Key factor
d. Limiting factor
d. None of these
a. Cost centre
b. Revenue centre
c. Investment centre
d. Sales Centre
a. cost control
b. planning
c. decision making
d. pricing
a. ROI
b. Residual Income
c. NPV
d. Operating profit
d. Insider rationing.
d. Insider rationing.
b. Target costing
d. All of these.
d. All of these.
a. Export of goods
b. Import of goods
150. Variable cost per unit is Rs.20 and over all PV ratio is 20%, then price of the
product will be-----------
a. 40
b. 24
c. 25
d. 30
a. Labour cost
b. Storage cost
c. Defectives
a. Restricting factors
b. Governing factors
c. Limiting factor
d. All of these.
154. Where key factor is present, from alternative best project must be selected on the
basis of:
a. PV Ratio
c. BEP
a. Analytical BE chart
b. Profit graph
c. Curvilinear BE chart
d. Contribution BE chart
a. Contribution
b. ROI
c. BEP
d. Residual income.
157. Average rate of return is also known as Accounting rate of return since it
considers:
a. Cash inflows
b. Cash outflow
d. All of these
159. The purpose of ------------- is to attain a real and permanent declain in cost.
a. Cost control
b. Budgeting
c. Decremented costing
d. Cost reduction.
a. Differential costing
b. Budgeting
c. Standard costing
d. Cost reduction.
d cost.
B. semi-variable cost.
C. contribution.
D. break-even point.
ANSWER: C
125. Total sales – total variable cost ____.
A. fixed cost.
B. semi-variable cost.
C. contribution.
D. break-even point.
ANSWER: C
126. Fixed cost + net profit =__________.
A. BEP
B. semi-variable cost.
C. margin of safety.
D. contribution.
ANSWER: D
127. A high P/V ratio indicates_____.
A. high profitability.
B. low profitability.
C. high loss.
D. break even.
ANSWER: A
128. Fixed cost / P/V ratio =___________.
A. Contribution
B. Margin of safety.
C. Break-even point.
D. Variable cost.
ANSWER: C
129. Profit / P/V ratio =_____________.
A. Break-even point.
B. Margin of safety.
C. Contribution.
D. Variable cost.
ANSWER: B
130. Marginal costing is a technique of _.
A. cost reduction.
B. cost control.
C. budgeting.
D. standard costing.
ANSWER: B
131. The budget is a________.
A. post-mortem analysis.
B. substitute of management.
C. an aid to management.
D. calculation.
ANSWER: C
132. One of the most important tools of cost planning is_________.
A. budget.
B. direct cost.
C. unit cost.
D. cost sheet.
ANSWER: A
133. Sales budget is a______.
A. functional budget.
B. expenditure budget.
C. master budget.
D. flexible budget.
ANSWER: A
134. The budget which usually takes the form of budgeted profit and loss account and balance sheet
is known as _____.
A. flexible budget.
B. master budget.
C. cash budget.
D. purchase budget.
ANSWER: B
135. Which of the following is usually a long-term budget?
A. Fixed budget.
B. Cash budget.
C. Sales budget.
D. Capital expenditure budget.
ANSWER: D
136. The fixed and variable cost classification has a special significance in the preparation of __.
A. capital budget.
B. cash budget.
C. master budget.
D. flexible budget.
ANSWER: D
137. The budget, which is prepared first of all is_________.
A. master budget.
B. cash budget.
C. budget for key factor.
D. none of these.
ANSWER: C
138. Preparing budget figures for different levels of activity within a range under flexible budgeting
is_____________.
A. formula method.
B. multi-activity method.
C. budget cost allowance method.
D. none of these.
ANSWER: B
139. What type of budget is designed to take into account forecast change in costs, prices, etc?
A. master budget.
B. rolling budget.
C. flexible budget.
D. functional budget.
ANSWER: B
140. Operation budgets normally cover a period of ____.
A. one to ten years.
B. one to two years.
C. one to five years.
D. one year or less.
ANSWER: D
141. The entire process of preparing the budgets is known as ___.
A. planning.
B. organizing.
C. budgeting.
D. controlling.
ANSWER: C
142. Budgetary control starts with ____.
A. planning.
B. organizing.
C. budgeting.
D. controlling.
ANSWER: C
143. Budgetary control ends with ___.
A. planning.
B. organizing.
C. budgeting.
D. control.
ANSWER: D
144. Budget designed to remain constant irrespective of the level of activity attained is called ____.
A. fixed budget.
B. flexible budget
C. sales budget.
D. production budget.
ANSWER: A
145. Long-term budgets are prepared for ____.
A. 1 year.
B. 1-3 years
C. 1-5 years.
D. 5-10 years.
ANSWER: D
146. The budget prepared for various levels of activity by classification of expenditure under fixed,
variable and semi-fixed categories is ______.
A. fixed budget.
B. flexible budget.
C. sales budget.
D. production budget.
ANSWER: B
147. Budget which shows the quantity of finished products to be sold and the price at which they are
to be sold is____________.
A. fixed budget.
B. flexible budget.
C. sales budget.
D. production budget.
ANSWER: C
148. The budget which shows the budgeted quantity of output to be produced during a specific
period is_____________.
A. fixed budget
B. flexible budget.
C. sales budget.
D. production budget.
ANSWER: D
149. Material consumption budget is prepared on the basis of ____.
A. sales budget.
B. production budget.
C. fixed budget.
D. flexible budget.
ANSWER: B
150. Budget of indirect costs in the form of indirect wages, indirect material and indirect expenses in
the factory is __.
A. pro
11.A 12.B 13.D 14. B 15.A 16.C 17.B 18. C 19. C 20. A
21.C 22.D 23.D 24. D 25.B 26.B 27.B 28. B 29. A 30. C
31.C 32.A 33.B 34. D 35.A 36.C 37.C 38. C 39. C 40. C
41.C 42.B 43.A 44. D 45.B 46.E 47.A 48. C 49. C 50. D
51. C 52.A 53.B 54.B 55.D 56.C 57.A 58. E 59. E 60. C
61.C 62.A 63.D 64. B 65.C 66.A 67.C 68. C 69. B 70. A
71.A 72.B 73.B 74. A 75.B 76.D 77.A 78. A 79. D 80. D
81.A 82.B 83.C 84. C 85.A 86.D 87.D 88. B 89. D 90. A
91.C 92.D 93.C 94. D 95.B 96.C 97.D 98. C 99. D 100. C
101. C 102. A 103. C 104. B 105. D 106. C 107. D 108. B 109. D 110.B
111.B 112. A 113. A 114. D 115. B 116. D 117. C 118. B 119. A 120. A
121.A 122.B 123. C 124. C 125. A 126. B 127.B 128. B 129. B 130. A
131. C 132.B 133. A 134. A 135. A 136.C 137. A 138. B 139. B 140. C
141. C 142. B 143. B 144. B 145. A 146.C 147. A 148. B 149. C 150.B
151. D 152. C 153. D 154. C 155. C 156.A 157. C 158. D 159. B 160. D
161. C 122. B 163. D 164. D 165. B 166.A 167. C 168. B 169. D 170. D
171. C 172. D 173. A 174. 175. B 176.C 177. D 178. A 179. D 180. C
181. D 182. B 183. B 184.A 185. C 186C. 187. C 188. A 189. D 190. D
191. B 192. A 193. C 194. C 195. B 196. D 197. D 198. A 199. A 200. C
201.A 202. C 203. B 204. B 205. A 206. A 207. B 208. D 209. B 210. B
211.B 212. B 213. D 214. D 215. D 216. B 217. D 218.B 219.C 220.A
A) Period cost
B) Prime cost
C) Overhead cost
D) Variable cost
2. Of the following________: provides strategic, decision based financial and operative information to
the board of directors.
A) Management Accountant
B) Cost Accountant
C) Financial Accountant
D) Accounts Clerk
3. The difference between fixed and Variable cost has a special significance in the preparation
of__________?
A) Flexible Budget
B) Master Budget
C) Cash Budget
D) Sales Budget
4. If fixed costs decrease while the variable cost per unit remains constant, the new contribution
margin in relation to the old contribution margin will be________?
A) Lower
B) Unchanged
C) Higher
D) Indeterminate
A) A technique of costing
B) Method of costing
C) A system of costing
D) A stage in Accounting process
A) Flexible Budget
B) Cash Budget
C) Fixed Budget
D) Master Budget
A) Decision Making
B) Planning
C) Controlling
D) All Managerial Functions
A) Budgeted Ratio
B) Capacity Ratio
C) Activity Ratio
D) Efficiency Ratio
A) Reduces contribution
B) Increases the profit
C) Increases P/V ratio
D) Decreases Break even point
A) Nothing
B) Quantitative information
C) Qualitative information
D) both quantitative and qualitative information
A) Control
B) Generate losses
C) Increase losses
D) Dissolve
A) Soundness of business
B) Over production
C) Under production
D) Over capitalization
14. Amount of sales Rs. 50000 Variable cost are Rs. 30000 find P/V ratio ?
A) 40 percentage
B) 30 percentage
C) 50 percentage
D) 60 percentage
15. An estimate made about future production, sales and financial requirements in the specific period
is called as_______?
A) Forecasting
B) Planning
C) Budgeting
D) Decision making
16. Accounting designed to serve management in decision making process is called as_______?
A) Cost accounting
B) Financial accounting
C) Management accounting
D) Trusteeship accounting
A) Management accounting
B) Cost accounting
C) Financial accounting
D) Responsibility accounting
A) Insufficient advertising
B) Restrictions imposed by quota
C) Government Policy
D) Low market demand
A) Variable costing
B) Fixed costing
C) Standard costing
D) Semi fixed costing
A) Estimate
B) Future plan
C) Long term plan
D) Budget
25. The factors whose influence should be measured before preparing Budget is called as_______?
A) Important factor
B) Influential factor
C) Key factor
D) Economic factor
A) Cashier
B) Sales manager
C) Production manager
D) Chief Accountant
A) Distribution
B) Functional
C) Production
D) Selling
A) Sales
B) Variable costs
C) Fixed cost
D) Profit
35. Under marginal costing method, cost per unit ascertained only on the basis of________?
A) Fixed cost
B) Variable cost
C) Semi fixed cost
D) None of these
B COM SEMESTER 6- MCQ
Management Accounting
1. Statement of cash flows includes
A) Financing Activities
B) Operating Activities
C) Investing Activities
D) All of the Above
2. In cash flows, when a firm invests in fixed assets and short-term financial investments
results in
A) Increased Equity
B) Increased Liabilities
C) Decreased Cash
D) Increased Cash
3. A firm that issues stocks and bonds to raise funds results in
A) Decreases Cash
B) Increases Cash
C) Increases Equity
D) Increases Liabilities
4. The purchase value of assets over its serviceable life is categorised as
A) Appreciated Liabilities
B) Appreciated Assets
C) Depreciation
D) Appreciation
5. The basic financial statements include
A) Statement of Cash Flows
B) Statement of Retained Earnings
C) Balance Sheet and Income Statement
D) None of the Above
6. The statement of cash flow clarifies cash flows according to
A) Operating and Non-operating Flows
B) Inflow and Outflow
C) Investing and Non-operating Flows
D) Operating, Investing, and Financing Activities
7. Cash flow example from a financial activity is
A) Payment of Dividend
B) Receipt of Dividend on Investment
C) Cash Received from Customers
D) Purchase of Fixed Asset
8. Cash flow example from an investing activity is
A) Issue of Debenture
B) Repayment of Long-term Loan
C) Purchase of Raw Materials for Cash
D) Sale of Investment by Non-Financial Enterprise
9. Cash flow example from an operating activity is
A) Purchase of Own Debenture
B) Sale of Fixed Assets
C) Interest Paid on Term-deposits by a Bank
D) Issue of Equity Share Capital
10. Which item comes under financial activities in cash flow?
A) Redemption of Preference Share
B) Issue of Preference Share
C) Interest Paid
D) All of the above
11. As per AS-3, Cash Flow Statement is mandatory for
A) All enterprises
B) Companies listed on a stock exchange
C) Companies with a turnover of more than Rs 50 crores
a) Both A and B
b) Both A and C
c) Both C and B
12. Listed Enterprises need to prepare Cash Flow Statement only under indirect method.
a) True
b) False
13. In the case of financial enterprises, the cash flow resulting from interest and dividend
received and interest paid should be classified as cash flow from
a) Operating activities
b) Financing activities
c) Investing activities
d) None of the above
14. In case of other enterprises cash flow arising from interest paid should be classified as cash
flow from ________ while dividends and interest received should be stated as cash flow
from ____.
a) Operating activities, financing activities
b) Financing activities, investing activities
c) Investing activities, operating activities
d) None of the above
15. Issue of bonus shares and conversion of debentures into equity are shown as a footnote to
the Cash Flow Statement.
a) True
b) False
16. When a fixed asset is bought as hire purchase, interest element is classified under ______
and loan element is classified under________.
a) Operating activities, financing activities
b) Financing activities, investing activities
c) Investing activities, operating activities
d) None of the above
17. Which of the following statements are false?
A) Old Furniture written off doesn’t affect cash flow.
B) Cash flow statement is a substitute for cash account.
C) Appropriation of retained earnings is not shown in Cash flow statement.
D) Net cash flow during a period can never be negative.
a) A, B, C
b) B, C, D
c) C, D, A
d) None of the above
18. Which of the following is not a cash inflow?
a) Decrease in debtors
b) Issue of shares
c) Decrease in creditors
d) Sale of fixed assets
19. Which of the following is not a cash outflow?
a) Increase in Prepaid expenses
b) Increase in debtors
c) Increase in stock
d) Increase in creditors
20. Which of the following is a conventional method of ascertaining cost?
a) Absorption costing
b) Full Costing
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
21. Under absorption costing, profit is ascertained
a) On the basis of difference between sales and total cost.
b) By computation as per desired rate of profit on sales or cost
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above.
22. While ascertaining gross profit under absorption costing, only that portion of
manufacturing overheads is deducted from sales revenue which is associated with the
goods sold.
a) True
b) False
23. Under absorption costing among fixed expenses
a) Fixed manufacturing expenses are included in unit cost
b) Fixed non-manufacturing expenses are included in unit cost
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
24. Absorption costing is used for
a) Price determination on basis of full cost
b) Solution of separation of costs
c) Calculation of gross and net profit
d) All of the above
25. Absorption costs helps in
a) Difference between product cost and period cost
b) Charged of fixed factory overheads on inventory
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
26. Which of the following statements are true?
A) Absorption costing helps in preparation of fixed budget.
B) Absorption costing is dependent on level of level of output.
C) Absorption costing is very helpful in taking managerial decisions.
D) Absorption costing helps to conform with accrual and matching concept.
a) A and B
b) B and C
c) A and D
d) B and D
27. Fixed expenses decrease per unit with the increases in production and increases per unit
with the decrease in production.
a) True
b) False
28. Marginal costs is taken as equal to
a) Prime Cost plus all variable overheads
b) Prime Cost minus all variable overheads
c) Variable overheads
d) None of the above
29. If total cost of 100 units is Rs 5000 and those of 101 units is Rs 5030 then increase of Rs
30 in total cost is
a) Marginal cost
b) Prime cost
c) All variable overheads
d) None of the above
30. Marginal cost is computed as
a) Prime cost + All Variable overheads
b) Direct material + Direct labor + Direct Expenses + All variable overheads
c) Total costs – All fixed overheads
d) All of the above
31. Marginal costing is also known as
a) Direct costing
b) Variable costing
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
32. Which of the following statements are true?
A. Marginal costing is not an independent system of costing.
B. In marginal costing all elements of cost are divided into fixed and variable components.
C. In marginal costing fixed costs are treated as product cost.
D. Marginal costing is not a technique of cost analysis.
a) A and B
b) B and C
c) A and D
d) B and D
33. While computation of profit in marginal costing
a) Total marginal cost is deducted from total sales revenues
b) Total marginal cost is added to total sales revenues
c) Fixed cost is added to contribution
d) None of the above
34. Which of the following are the assumptions of marginal costing?
A) All the elements of cost can be divided into fixed and variable components.
B) Total fixed cost remains constant at all levels of output.
C) Total variable costs varies in proportion to the volume of output.
D) Per unit selling price remain unchanged at all levels of operating activity.
a) A and B
b) B and C
c) A and D
d) A, B C and D
35. In two periods total costs amounts to Rs 50000 and Rs 40000 against production of 20000
and 15000 units respectively. Determine marginal cost per unit and fixed cost.
a) Rs 2 and Rs 10,000
b) Rs 4 and Rs 5000
c) Rs 10 and Rs 8000
d) None of the above
36. Under High and Low Point method, the output at two different levels is compared with the
amount of __________ incurred at these two points.
a) Total fixed costs
b) Total costs
c) Total fixed costs
d) None of the above
37. Given Maximum value of production and minimum value of production is 10,000 and
5000 units respectively. Maximum total cost is RS 25,000 and minimum total cost is Rs
15,000. Determine total fixed cost and per unit marginal cost.
a) Rs 2 per unit, Rs 5,000
b) Rs 5 per unit, Rs 2000
c) Rs 10 per unit, Rs 10,000
d) None of the above
38. Under method of least squares, a linear equation is developed in the form of ______
wherein Y is total cost, a=fixed cost, b= marginal cost and X is output.
a) Y=a+bX
b) Y=a-bX
c) Y=a*bX
d) None of the above
39. In Analytical method of calculating marginal costing, it is determined on the basis of past
records.
a) True
b) False
40. Theory of contribution is the excess of sales over variable costs.
a) a)True
b) b)False
41. Which of the following statements related to Contribution Analysis are ture?
a) If contribution is zero, there is loss equal to fixed costs
b) If contribution is negative, loss is less than fixed costs
c) If contribution is positive and more than fixed cost there will be profit.
d) All of the above
42. When contribution is negative but less than fixed cost,
a) There is loss equal to fixed costs
b) There is loss more than fixed costs
c) There will be loss less than fixed costs
d) All of above are false
43. When contribution is positive but equal to fixed cost,
a) There is loss equal to fixed costs
b) There is loss more than fixed costs
c) There will be loss less than fixed costs
d) There will be neither profit not loss
44. Opportunities to achieve further growth within current businesses are:
a) Intensive Opportunities
b) Integrative Opportunities
c) Diversification Opportunities
d) None of the above
45. Absorption costing is also known as
a) Historical costing
b) Total costing
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
46. Given production is 1,00,000 units, fixed costs is Rs 2,00,000 Selling price is Rs 10 per
unit and variable cost is Rs 6 per unit. Determine profit using technique of marginal
costing.
a) Rs 2,00,000
b) Rs 8,00,000
c) Rs 6,00,000
d) None of the above
47. Which of the following statements are true?
a) In absorption costing, cost is divided into three major parts while in marginal costing cost
is divided into two main parts.
b) IN absorption costing period is important and in marginal costing product is important.
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
48. In context of net operating profit, which of the following statements are true?
a) If all costs are variable, the amount of profit obtained in marginal costing and absorption
costing will be same.
b) If the volume of sales and output is equal in a period, profit will be same in absorption
costing and marginal costing.
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
49. Under absorption costing, managerial decisions are based on
a) Profit
b) Contribution
c) Profit volume ratio
d) None of the above
50. If sales is less than production and there is no opening stock, it suggests there is closing
stock. In such a scenario, profit under marginal costing will be less than the one shown by
absorption costing.
a) True
b) False
51. In the calculation of return on shareholders investments the referred investment deals with
A. All reserves
B. Preference and equity capital only
C. All appropriations
D. All of the above
52. Which of the following is an advantage of standard costing?
A. Measuring efficiency
B. Facilitates cost control
C. Determination of variance
D. All of the above
53. The assets of a business can be classified as
A. Only fixed assets
B. Only current assets
C. Fixed and current assets
D. None of the above
54. Which of the following is the test of the long term liquidity of a business?
A. Interest coverage ratio
B. Stock turnover ratio
C. Operating ratio
D. Current ratio
55. The term management accounting was first coined in
a) 1960
b) 1950
c) 1945
d) 1955
56. Management accounting is
A) Subjective
B) Objective
a) Only A
b) Only B
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
57. The use of management accounting is
a) Optional
b) Compulsory
c) Legally obligatory
d) Compulsory to some and optional to others
58. The management accounting can be stated an extension of
A) Cost Accounting
B) Financial Accounting
C) Responsibility Accounting
a) Both A and B
b) Both A and C
c) Both B and C
d) A, B, C
59. Which of the following is true about management accounting?
A) Management accounting is associated with presentation of accounting data.
B) Management accounting is extremely sensitive to investors needs.
a) Only A
b) Only B
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
60. Management accounting assists the management
a) Only in control
b) Only in direction
c) Only in planning
d) In planning, direction and control
61. Which of the following are tools of management accounting?
A) Decision accounting
B) Standard costing
C) Budgetary control
D) Human Resources Accounting
a) A, B and D
b) A, C and D
c) A, B and C
d) A, B , C, D
62. Management accounting is related with
a) The problem of choice making
b) Recording of transactions
c) Cause and effect relationships
A. A and B
B. B and C
C. A and C
D. All are false
63. Management accountancy is a structure for
A. Costing
B. Accounting
C. Decision making
D. Management
64. Who coined the concept of management accounting?
A. R.N Anthony
B. James H. Bliss
C. J. Batty
D. American Accounting
65. Management accounting deals with
A. Quantitative information
B. Qualitative information
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
66. Management accounting highlights staff relationship with top management as well as other
personnel.
A. True
B. False
67. The definition â˜Management Accounting is the presentation of accounting information
in such a way as to assist management in the creation of policy and the day-to-day
operation of an undertaking.â™
A. Ango-American Council on Productivity
B. AICPA
C. Robert N. Anthony
D. All of the above
68. The second term for Horizontal Analysis is
A. Dynamic Analysis
B. Inter-firm Analysis
C. Time-series Analysis
D. All of the above
69. Vertical analysis is also known as
A. Static analysis
B. Structural analysis
C. Cross-sectional analysis
D. All of the above
70. The assessment of financial statements by a shareholder is an example of
A. Vertical Analysis
B. Horizontal Analysis
C. Internal Analysis
D. External Analysis
71. Trend percentages and trend ratios are used in
A. Static Analysis
B. Dynamic Analysis
C. Horizontal Analysis
D. Vertical Analysis
72. Which of the following statements are true?
A) Vertical Analysis is also termed as dynamic analysis.
B) Horizontal analysis is also termed as dynamic analysis.
C) Static Analysis is not extremely useful for the long-term financial planning.
A. Both A and B
B. Both A and C
C. Both B and C
D. A, B , C
73. Which of the following statements are true?
A) Funds Flow statement is one of the ways to analysis & interpret financial statements.
B) Cash Flow Statement is one of the ways to analysis & interprets financial statements.
C) Common-size statement one of the ways to analysis & interprets financial statements.
A. Both A and B
B. Both A and C
C. Both B and C
D. A, B, C
74. Which of the following statements are true about Horizontal Analysis?
A) It do not examines the periodical trend
B) It is useful for long-term analysis.
C) It is useful for long â“term planning.
A. Both A and B
B. Both A and C
C. Both B and C
D. A, B, C
75. Which of the following statements are true?
A) Comparative financial statement is an example of horizontal analysis.
B) Trend Analysis is an example of vertical analysis.
C) Cash flow analysis is an example of horizontal analysis.
A. Both A and B
B. Both A and C
C. Both B and C
D. A, B, C
76. John N. Myer stated that vertical and horizontal analysis forms the back-bone of financial
statement analysis technique.
A. True
B. False
77. Ratio analysis is an important approach of horizontal analysis.
A. True
B. False
78. The 3 Ps, i.e. the three objectives of analysis and interpretation of financial statements are :
Progress, Position and Prospects.
A. True
B. False
79. Comparison of financial statements highlights the trend of the _________ of the business.
A. Financial position
B. Performance
C. Profitability
D. All of the above
80. Analysis of any financial Statement comprises
A. Balance sheet
B. P&L Account
C. Trading account
D. All of the above
81. Which of the following are techniques, tools or methods of analysis and interpretation of
financial statements?
A. Ratio Analysis
B. Average Analysis
C. Trend Analysis
D. All of the above
82. Interpretation of accounts is the
A. Art and science of translating the figures
B. To know financial strengths and weaknesses of a business
C. To know the causes for the prevailing performance of business
D. All of the above
83. The only feasible purpose of financial management is
A. Wealth Maximization
B. Sales Maximization
C. Profit Maximization
D. Assets maximization
84. Financial management process deals with
A. Investments
B. Financing decisions
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
85. Agency cost consists of
A. Binding
B. Monitoring
C. Opportunity and structure cost
D. All of the above
86. Finance Function comprises
A. Safe custody of funds only
B. Expenditure of funds only
C. Procurement of finance only
D. Procurement & effective use of funds
87. The objective of wealth maximization takes into account
A. Amount of returns expected
B. Timing of anticipated returns
C. Risk associated with uncertainty of returns
D. All of the above
88. Financial management mainly focuses on
A. Efficient management of every business
B. Brand dimension
C. Arrangement of funds
D. All elements of acquiring and using means of financial resources for financial
activities
89. Time value of money indicates that
A. A unit of money obtained today is worth more than a unit of money obtained in
future
B. A unit of money obtained today is worth less than a unit of money obtained in
future
C. There is no difference in the value of money obtained today and tomorrow
D. None of the above
90. Time value of money supports the comparison of cash flows recorded at different time
period by
A. Discounting all cash flows to a common point of time
B. Compounding all cash flows to a common point of time
C. Using either a or b
D. None of the above.
91. If the nominal rate of interest is 10% per annum and there is quarterly compounding, the
effective rate of interest will be:
A. 10% per annum
B. 10.10 per annum
C. 10.25%per annum
D. 10.38% per annum
92. Relationship between annual nominal rate of interest and annual effective rate of interest,
if frequency of compounding is greater than one:
A. Effective rate > Nominal rate
B. Effective rate < Nominal rate
C. Effective rate = Nominal rate
D. None of the above
93. Mr. X takes a loan of Rs 50,000 from HDFC Bank. The rate of interest is 10% per annum.
The first installment will be paid at the end of year 5. Determine the amount of equal
annual installments if Mr. X wishes to repay the amount in five installments.
A. Rs 19500
B. Rs 19400
C. Rs 19310
D. None of the above
94. If nominal rate of return is 10% per annum and annual effective rate of interest is 10.25%
per annum, determine the frequency of compounding:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. None of the above
95. Present value tables for annuity cannot be straight away applied to varied stream of cash
flows.
A. True
B. False
96. Heterogeneous cash flows can be made comparable by
A. Discounting technique
B. Compounding technique
C. Either a or b
D. None of the above
97. Risk of two securities with different expected return can be compared with:
A. Coefficient of variation
B. Standard deviation of securities
C. Variance of Securities
D. None of the above
98. Efficient portfolios can be defined as those portfolios which for a given level of risk
provides
A. Maximum return
B. Average return
C. Minimum return
D. None of the above
99. CAPM accounts for:
A. Unsystematic risk
B. Systematic risk
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
100. Which among the following presents a bird's-eyeview of the operations for the entire
period of a business?
A. Balance sheet
B. Profit and loss a/c
C. Cash flow statements
D. Position statement
101. ________ is the relationship between quick assets and current liabilities .
A. Current ratio
B. Absolute liquidity ratio
C. Acid test ratio
D. Proprietary ratio
102. When the concept of ratio is defined in respected to the items shown in the financial
statements, it is termed as
A. Accounting ratio
B. Financial ratio
C. Costing ratio
D. None of the above
103. The definition, “The term accounting ratio is used to describe significant relationship
which exist between figures shown in a balance sheet, in a profit and loss account, in a
budgetary control system or in a any part of the accounting organization” is given by
A. Biramn and Dribin
B. Lord Keynes
C. J. Betty
D. None of the above.
104. The relationship between two financial variables can be expressed in:
A. Pure ratio
B. Percentage
C. Rate or time
D. Either of the above
105. Liquidity ratios are expressed in
A. Pure ratio form
B. Percentage
C. Rate or time
D. None of the above
106. Which of the following statements are true about Ratio Analysis?
A) Ratio analysis is useful in financial analysis.
B) Ratio analysis is helpful in communication and coordination
C) Ratio Analysis is not helpful in identifying weak spots of the business.
D) Ratio Analysis is helpful in financial planning and forecasting.
a) A, B and D
b) A, C and D
c) A, B and C
d) A, B , C, D
107. Profit for the objective of calculating a ratio may be taken as
A. Profit before tax but after interest
B. Profit before interest and tax
C. Profit after interest and tax
D. All of the above
108. Which of the following falls under Profitability ratios?
A) General Profitability ratios
B) Overall Profitability ratios
C) Comprehensive Profitability ratios
A. A and B
B. A and C
C. B and C
D. None of the above
109. General Profitability ratios are based on
A. Investments
B. Sales
C. a & B
D. None of the above
110. Gross Profit ratio is also termed as
A. Gross Profit Margin
B. Gross Margin to net sales
C. Both a and b
D. All of the above
111. While calculating Gross Profit ratio,
A. Closing stock is deducted from cost of goods sold
B. Closing stock is added to cost of goods sold
C. Closing stock is ignored
D. None of the above
112. While calculating Gross Profit, if net profit is given,
A. It can be converted into gross profit by adding interest to it
B. It can be converted into Gross profit by adding indirect expenses to it
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
113. Gross profit ratio is calculated by
A. (Gross Profit/Gross sales)*100
B. (Gross Profit/Net sales)*100
C. (Net Profit/Gross sales)*100
D. None of the above
114. Given Sales is 1, 20,000 and Gross Profit is 30,000, the gross profit ratio is
A. 24%
B. 25%
C. 40%
D. 44%%
115. What will be the Gross Profit if, total sales is Rs 2,60,000 Cost of net goods sold is Rs
2,00,000 and Sales return is Rs 10,000?
A. 13%
B. 28%
C. 26%
D. 20%
116. If selling price is fixed 25% above the cost, the Gross Profit ratio is
A. 13%
B. 28%
C. 26%
D. 20%
117. Gross Profit ratio should be adequate to cover
A. Selling expenses
B. Administrative expenses
C. Dividends
D. All of the above
118. Which statement is prepared in the process of funds flow analysis?
A. Schedule of changes in working capital
B. Funds Flow Statement
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
119. Funds Flow Statement is prepared on the basis of data of P&L statement and two
consecutive balance sheets.
A. True
B. False
C. Value delivery
D. None of the above
120. Which of the following rules stands true while preparation of Schedule of changes in
working capital?
A) An increase in current assets increases working capital.
B) An increase in current assets decreases working capital.
C) An increase in current liabilities decreases working capital.
D) An increase in current liabilities increases working capital
A. A and C
B. A and D
C. B and D
D. A, B, C and D
121. If reserve for bad and doubtful debts is mentioned in the question of Funds Flow Statement
Preparation, it can be shown as
A. In the schedule by deducting from total debtors under current assets
B. In the schedule separately under the heading of capital liabilities
C. Both a & b
D. None of the above
122. Funds Flow Statement is also known as
A. Statement of Funds Flow
B. Statement of Sources and Application of Funds
C. Statement of Sources and Uses of Funds
D. All of the above
123. Given Net profit for the year Rs 2, 50,000 Transferred to general reserves Rs 40,000 and
old machinery bought for Rs 50,000 was sold for Rs 20,000. Calculate funds from
operations.
A. Rs 2, 80,000
B. Rs 2, 20,000
C. Rs 2, 90,000
D. Rs 3, 00,000
124. Which of the following are sources of funds?
A) Issue of bonus shares
B) Issue of shares against the purchase of fixed assets
C) Conversion of debentures into shares
D) Conversion of loans into shares
a) A and C
b) A and D
c) A, B, C and D
d) None of the above
125. The share capital of A Ltd. stood at Rs 20,00,000 in 2013 and at Rs 26 lac in 2014. As per
records, the company bought asset of another company for Rs 6 lac payable in fully paid
shares. These assets included Goodwill Rs 2,00,000 Machinery Rs 1, 83, 600 and Stock Rs
2,16,400. What is the fund from issue of shares?
A. Rs 2,15,600
B. Rs 2,16,400
C. Rs 2,00,000
D. None of the above
126. Debentures are Rs 2,50,000 and Rs 3,50,000 in the balance sheet of 2013 and 2014. 1000
of the debentures of Rs 100 each were issued at par in 2014 of which 400 debentures were
issued to a supplier for the purchase of a machine. Determine amount of issue for
debentures for the purpose of funds flow statement.
A. Rs 60,000
B. Rs 40,000
C. RS 10,000
D. None of the above
127. In the balance sheet of Praveen for 2013 and 2014, 4% debentures are Rs 5,00,000 and Rs
4,00,000, respectively. Profit on redemption of debentures in 2013 is nil while in 2014 is
Rs 4,000. What is the amount of redemption for the purpose of funds flow statement?
A. Rs 96,000
B. Rs 1,04,000
C. Rs 9,00,000
D. Rs 9,04,000
128. The balance of property at cost has been RS 20,000 and Rs 17,000 in 2013 and 2014
respectively. The profit on sale of property of Rs 2000 is credited to Capital Reserves
Account. New property costing Rs 5000 bought in 2014. Determine sale of proceeds from
land.
A. Rs 3000
B. Rs 10,000
C. Rs 7000
D. Rs 15,000
129. of Ram at end of 2013 and 2014 disclose investments in shares of Rs 2000 and Rs 3000,
respectively. Rs 100 as pre-acquisition dividend has been credited to investments account.
Determine purchase of investments.
A. RS 5000
B. Rs 1000
C. Rs 1,100
D. None of the above
130. The balance of fixed assets of Y Ltd. at cost at the end of 2013 and 2014 were Rs 5,70,800
and Rs 6,15,300. During the year 2014 a machinery costing Rs 60,000 was sold.
Determine the purchase of fixed assets.
A. Rs 1,04,500
B. Rs 1,40,500
C. Rs 1,64,500
D. None of the above
131. Which of the following are applications of funds?
A. Payment of dividend on share capital
B. Payment of tax
C. Increase in working capital
D. All of above
132. Which of the following are treated as long term investments?
A. Non-current investments
B. Trade Investments
C. Sinking fund investments
D. All of the above
133. Provision of taxation is treated as
A. As a current liability
B. As an appropriation of profits
C. Either a or b
D. None of the above
134. As per accounting standard AS3, provision for taxation should be treated as
A. As a current liability
B. As an appropriation of profits
C. Either a or b
D. None of the above
135. Which of the following statement is true?
A. If the amount of good will increases during current year, the difference is treated as
purchase of goodwill.
B. If the amount of good will decreases during current year, It will treated as written
off.
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
136. The opening and closing balance of general reserves are Rs 10,000 and Rs 9,000,
respectively. It is stated in addition information that a loss of Rs 1000 has been written off
in general reserves. In such a case, decline in reserve and loss on investment will be
adjusted in P&L account.
A. True
B. False
137. As per Accounting Standard-3, Cash Flow is classified into
A. Operating activities and investing activities
B. Investing activities and financing activities
C. Operating activities and financing activities
D. Operating activities, financing activities and investing activities
138. Cash Flow Statement is also known as
A. Statement of Changes in Financial Position on Cash basis
B. Statement accounting for variation in cash
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above.
139. The objectives of Cash Flow Statement are
A) Analysis of cash position
B) Short-term cash planning
C) Evaluation of liquidity
D) Comparison of operating Performance
a) Both A and B
b) Both A and C
c) Both B and D
d) A, B, C, D
140. In cash flow statement, the item of interest is shown in
A) Operating Activities
B) Financing Activities
C) Investing Activities
A. Both A and B
B. Both A and C
C. Both B and C
D. A, B, C
141. Cash Flow Statement is based upon
A. Cash basis of accounting
B. Accrual basis of accounting
C. Credit basis of accounting
D. None of the above
142. Which of the following statements are false?
A) Cash Flow Statement is helpful in the formation of policies.
B) Cash Flow Statement is useful for external analysis
C) Cash Flow Statement is helpful in estimating future cash flow
A. Both A and B
B. Both A and C
C. Both B and C
D. None of the above
143. Which of the following statements are true?
A) Cash flow reveals only the inflow of cash
B) Cash flow reveals only the outflow of cash
C) Cash flow is a substitute for income statement
D) Cash flow statement is not a replacement of funds flow statement.
A. Only A
B. Only B
C. Both B and C
D. Only D
144. Cash flow statement is based upon _________ while Funds Flow Statement recognizes
_______.
A. Cash basis of accounting, accrual basis of accounting
B. Accrual basis of accounting, cash basis of accounting
C. Both are based on cash basis of accounting
D. None of the above
145. Statement of changes in working capital is prepared separately in
A. Cash Flow Statement
B. Funds Flow Statement
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
146. Cash Flow Statement studies causes of change in working capital.
A. True
B. False
147. _________ reconciles the opening cash balance with the closing cash balance of a given
period on the basis of net decrease or increase in cash during that period.
A. Cash Flow Statement
B. Funds Flow Statement
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
148. Which of the following statements are true?
A) Cash flow statement is more useful for short term cash planning.
B) Funds Flow statement is more useful in planning medium term and long term
financing.
C) Cash Flow statement discloses the position of liquidity in a better way
A. Only A
B. Only B
C. Only C
D. A, B and C
149. _____ has/have accepted cash flow statement is more useful than funds flow statement,
particularly from view of analysis of liquidity of a firm.
A. Institute Of Chartered Accountants of India
B. FASB, America
C. SEBI
D. All of the above
150. Cash Flow Statement is prepared from
A. Profit and loss account
B. Balance Sheet
C. Additional Information
D. All of the above
151. Which of the following are cash flow from operating activities?
A) Cash Receipts from customers
B) Cash Paid to Supplier and Employees
C) Purchase of fixed assets
D) Sale of fixed assets
A. Both A and B
B. Both A and C
C. Both B and C
D. Both C and D
152. Match the column
A) Taxes Paid ------------------ i) Cash flow from investing activities
B) Repayment of loans -------------- ii) Cash flow from operating activities
C) Sale of fixed assets ----------------------- iii) Cash Flow from financing activities
A. A-ii), B-iii), C-i)
B. A-i), B-ii), C-iii)
C. A-iii), B-i), C-ii)
153. Cash payment to suppliers for services and goods is example of cash outflow.
A. True
B. False
154. For the calculation of cash flow from operating activities, payments and receipts shown in
Profit & Loss account are converted into payments and receipts actually in cash.
A. True
B. False
155. For the calculation of cash flow from operating activities, payments and receipts shown in
Profit & Loss account are converted into payments and receipts actually in cash by
eliminating
A. Non-cash revenue from the revenue earned
B. Non-cash expenses from expenses incurred
C. Both a & b
D. None of the above
156. While preparing Cash Flow Statement, non-cash items and non-operating items are not
required to be adjusted under________
A. Indirect method
B. Direct method
C. Both a & b
D. None of the above
157. Cash flow from sales is calculated by
A. Cash sales + Cash Collections
B. Sales + Opening debtors+ Opening B/R â“Closing Debtors â“ Closing B/R
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
158. Cash outflow on purchases is calculated by
A. Purchases + Opening Creditors + Opening B/P â“Closing Creditors-Closing B/P
B. Purchases + Opening Creditors - Closing Creditors +Closing B/P
C. Purchases - Opening Creditors - Opening B/P + Closing Creditors +Closing B/P
D. None of the above
159. The amount of operating expenses which are actually been paid in cash are shown under:
A. Cash flow from sales
B. Cash outflow on purchases
C. Cash outflow on expenses
D. All of above are false
160. Given salary expenses Rs 40,000, Outstanding in the beginning of the year: Rs 5,000 and
outstanding at the end of the year Rs 10,000. Cash outflow on salary will be:
A. Rs 45,000
B. Rs 35000
C. Rs 55,000
D. Rs 15,000
161. In indirect method, net cash flow from operating activities is calculated on the basis of
A. Net Profit after tax
B. Net profit before tax
C. Both and b
D. None of the above
162. Which of the following are added to net profit after tax and extraordinary items to reach to
net profit before tax and extraordinary items?
A) Provision for tax made during the year
B) Proposed dividend made during the year
C) Interim dividend
D) Transfer to General reserves and other reserves
A. Both A and B
B. Both A and C
C. Both B and C
D. A, B, C and D
163. Which of the following are cash flow from investing activities?
A) Interest received
C) Dividend received
D) Sale of fixed assets
E) Purchase of fixed assets
a) Both A and B
b) Both A and C
c) Both B and C
d) A, B, C and D
164. Which of the following are cash flow from financing activities?
A) Interest received
B) Dividend received
C) Interest paid
D) Dividend paid
A. Both A and B
B. Both A and C
C. Both C and D
D. A, B, C and D
165. Acquisition and disposal of long term assets is included in
A. Cash flow from investing activities
B. Cash flow from financing activities
C. Cash flow from operating activities
D. None of the above
166. Which of the following statements represent example of cash flow from investing
activities?
A. Cash advances and loans made by financial enterprises
B. Cash advances and loans made to third parties
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
167. ABC Ltd had investment of Rs 68,000 as on 31.3.2013 and investment of Rs 56,000 as on
31.3.2014. During the year ABC Ltd sold 40% of its investments being held in the
beginning of period at a profit of Rs 16,800. Determine cash flow from investing activities.
A. Rs 59,200
B. Rs 28,800
C. Rs 72,800
D. None of the above
168. Financing activities brings changes in
A. Size and composition of ownerâ™s equities
B. Borrowing of the enterprise
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
169. For year 2013 Equity Share Capital is Rs 3,00,000 Preference Share Capital is 1,00,000
10% debentures is 2,00,000 and Share premium is 30,000. For year 2014 Equity Share
Capital is Rs 4,00,000 Preference Share Capital is 60,000 10% debentures is 1,00,000 and
Share premium is 40,000. Also given, Dividend paid on shares Rs 15,000 and Interest paid
on debentures RS 20,000. Determine net cash flow from financing activities.
A. Cash inflow of Rs 65,000
B. Cash outflow of Rs 65,000
C. Cash inflow of Rs 56,000
D. Cash outflow of Rs 56,000
170. As per AS-3, Cash Flow Statement is mandatory for
A) All enterprises
B) Companies listed on a stock exchange
C) Companies with a turnover of more than Rs 50 crores
A. Both A and B
B. Both A and C
C. Both C and B
171. Listed Enterprises need to prepare Cash Flow Statement only under indirect method.
A. True
B. False
172. In the case of financial enterprises, the cash flow resulting from interest and dividend
received and interest paid should be classified as cash flow from
A. Operating activities
B. Financing activities
C. Investing activities
D. None of the above
173. In case of other enterprises cash flow arising from interest paid should be classified as cash
flow from ________ while dividends and interest received should be stated as cash flow
from ____.
A. Operating activities, financing activities
B. Financing activities, investing activities
C. Investing activities, operating activities
D. None of the above
174. Issue of bonus shares and conversion of debentures into equity are shown as a footnote to
the Cash Flow Statement.
A. True
B. False
175. When a fixed asset is bought as hire purchase, interest element is classified under ______
and loan element is classified under________.
A. Operating activities, financing activities
B. Financing activities, investing activities
C. Investing activities, operating activities
D. None of the above
176. Which of the following statements are false?
A) Old Furniture written off doesn’t affect cash flow.
B) Cash flow statement is a substitute for cash account.
C) Appropriation of retained earnings is not shown in Cash flow statement.
D) Net cash flow during a period can never be negative.
A. A, B, C
B. B, C, D
C. C, D, A
D. None of the above
177. Which of the following is not a cash inflow?
A. Decrease in debtors
B. Issue of shares
C. Decrease in creditors
D. Sale of fixed assets
178. Which of the following is not a cash outflow?
A. Increase in Prepaid expenses
B. Increase in debtors
C. Increase in stock
D. Increase in creditors
179. Which of the following is a conventional method of ascertaining cost?
A. Absorption costing
B. Full Costing
C. Both a & b
D. None of the above
180. Under absorption costing, profit is ascertained
A. On the basis of difference between sales and total cost.
B. By computation as per desired rate of profit on sales or cost
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above.
181. All costs are classified under ______ segments under absorption costing.
A. Five
B. Six
C. Four
D. Three
182. While ascertaining gross profit under absorption costing, only that portion of
manufacturing overheads is deducted from sales revenue which is associated with the
goods sold.
A. True
B. False
183. Under absorption costing among fixed expenses
A. Fixed manufacturing expenses are included in unit cost
B. Fixed non-manufacturing expenses are included in unit cost
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
184. Absorption costing is used for
A. Price determination on basis of full cost
B. Solution of separation of costs
C. Calculation of gross and net profit
D. All of the above
185. Absorption costs helps in
A. Difference between product cost and period cost
B. Charged of fixed factory overheads on inventory
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
186. Fixed expenses decrease per unit with the increases in production and increases per unit
with the decrease in production.
A. True
B. False
187. Marginal costs is taken as equal to
A. Prime Cost plus all variable overheads
B. Prime Cost minus all variable overheads
C. Variable overheads
D. None of the above
188. If total cost of 100 units is Rs 5000 and those of 101 units is Rs 5030 then increase of Rs
30 in total cost is
A. Marginal cost
B. Prime cost
C. All variable overheads
D. None of the above
189. Marginal cost is computed as
A. Prime cost + All Variable overheads
B. Direct material + Direct labor + Direct Expenses + All variable overheads
C. Total costs – All fixed overheads
D. All of the above
190. Marginal costing is also known as
A. Direct costing
B. Variable costing
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
191. Under High and Low Point method, the output at two different levels is compared with the
amount of __________ incurred at these two points.
A. Total fixed costs
B. Total costs
C. Total fixed costs
D. None of the above
192. In Analytical method of calculating marginal costing, it is determined on the basis of past
records.
A. True
B. False
193. When contribution is positive but equal to fixed cost,
A. There is loss equal to fixed costs
B. There is loss more than fixed costs
C. There will be loss less than fixed costs
D. There will be neither profit not loss
194. Opportunities to achieve further growth within current businesses are:
A. Intensive Opportunities
B. Integrative Opportunities
C. Diversification Opportunities
D. None of the above
195. Absorption costing is also known as
A. Historical costing
B. Total costing
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
196. Under absorption costing, managerial decisions are based on
A. Profit
B. Contribution
C. Profit volume ratio
D. None of the above
197. Managers utilizes marginal costing for
A. Make or buy decision
B. Utilization of additional capacity
C. Determination of dumping price
D. All of the above
198. The problems associated with marginal costing are
A. Difficulties in divisions of costs
B. Problem of valuation of stocks
C. Ignores time elements
D. All of the above
199. ___________ is not suitable where selling price is determined on the basis of cost-plus
method.
A. Absorption costing
B. Marginal costing
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
200. Which of the following are added to net profit after tax and extraordinary items to reach to
net profit before tax and extraordinary items?
A. Provision for tax made during the year
B. Proposed dividend made during the year
C. Interim dividend
D. Transfer to General reserves and other reserves
a. Both A and B
b. Both A and C
c. Both B and C
d. A, B, C and D
201. Absorption costing is used for
A. Price determination on basis of full cost
B. Solution of separation of costs
C. Calculation of gross and net profit
D. All of the above
Answers
1. D) All of the Above 35. a) Rs 2 and Rs 10,000
36. b) Total costs
2. C) Decreased Cash 37. a) Rs 2 per unit, Rs 5,000
3. B) Increases Cash 38. a) Y=a+bX
4. C) Depreciation 39. a) True
5. D) None of the Above 40. a)True
6. D) Operating, Investing and 41. a) If contribution is zero, there is loss
Financing Activities equal to fixed costs
7. D) Purchase of Fixed Asset 42. c) There will be loss less than fixed
8. D) Sale of Investment by Non- costs
Financial Enterprise 43. d) There will be neither profit not
9. C) Interest Paid on Term-deposits by loss
a Bank 44. a) Intensive Opportunities
10. D) All of the above 45. c) Both a and b
11. c) Both C and B 46. a) Rs 2,00,000
12. a) True 47. c) Both a and b
13. a) Operating activities 48. c) Both a and b
14. b) Financing activities, investing 49. a) Profit
activities 50. a) True
15. a) True 51. D) All of the Above
16. b) Financing activities, investing 52. D) All of the Above
activities 53. Fixed and current assets
17. b) B, C, D 54. A) Interest coverage ratio
18. c) Decrease in creditors
19. d) Increase in creditors 55. b) 1950
20. c) Both a & b 56. a) Only A
21. c) Both a and b 57. a) Optional
22. a) True 58. d) A, B, C
23. a) Fixed manufacturing expenses are 59. a) Only A
included in unit cost 60. d) In planning, direction and control
24. a) Price determination on basis of full 61. c) A, B and C
cost 62. c) a and c
25. c) Both a and b 63. c) Decision making
26. d) B and D 64. b) James H. Bliss
27. a) True 65. c) Both a and b
28. a) Prime Cost plus all variable 66. b) False
overheads 67. a) Ango-American Council on
29. a) Marginal cost Productivity
30. a) Prime cost + All Variable 68. d) All of the above
overheads 69. d) All of the above
31. c) Both a and b 70. d) External Analysis
71. a) Static Analysis
32. a) A and B 72. c) Both B and C
33. a) Total marginal cost is deducted 73. d) A, B, C
from total sales revenues 74. c) Both B and C
34. d) A, B C and D 75. b) Both A and C
76. a) True 115. D) 20 %
77. b) False 116. B) 20%
78. a) True 117. D) All of the above
79. d) All of the above 118. A) Schedule of changes in working
80. d) All of the above capital
81. d) All of the above 119. A) True
82. d) All of the above 120. A) A and C
83. a) Wealth Maximization 121. C) Both a and b
84. b) Financing decisions 122. D) All of the above
85. d) All of the above 123. A) 2,80,000
86. d) Procurement & effective use of 124. d) None of the above
funds 125. B) Rs. 2,16,400
87. d) All of the above 126. A) Rs 60,000
88. d) All elements of acquiring and 127. A) 96,000
using means of financial resources for 128. B) 10,000
financial activities 129. C) 1,100
89. a) A unit of money obtained today is 130. A) 1,04,500
worth more than a unit of money 131. d) All of above
obtained in future 132. d) All of the above
90. c) Using either a or b 133. c) Either a or b
91. d) 10.38% per annum 134. b) As an appropriation of profits
92. a) Effective rate > Nominal rate 135. c) Both a and b
93. c) Rs 19310 136. b) False
94. b) 2 137. d) Operating activities, financing
95. a) True activities and investing activities
96. c) Either a or b 138. c) Both a and b
97. a) Coefficient of variation 139. d) A, B, C, D
98. a) Maximum return 140. c) Both B and C
99. b) Systematic risk 141. a) Cash basis of accounting
100. b) Profit and loss a/c 142. d) None of the above
101. c) Acid test ratio 143. D) only D
102. a) Accounting ratio 144. a) Cash basis of accounting, accrual
103. c) J. Betty basis of accounting
104. Either of the above 145. b) Funds Flow Statement
105. A) Pure ratio form 146. b) False
106. a) A, B and D 147. a) Cash Flow Statement
107. D) All of the above 148. d) A, B and C
108. A) A and B 149. d) All of the above
109. B) Sales 150. D) All of the above
110. C) Both A and B 151. a) Both a and b
111. A) Closing stock is deducted from 152. a) A-ii), B-iii), C-i)
cost of goods sold 153. b) False
112. a) It can be converted into gross 154. : a) True
profit by adding interest to it 155. c) Both a & b
113. ) (Gross profit / net sales) * 100 156. b) Direct method
157. c) Both a and b
114. B) 25 %
158. a) Purchases + Opening Creditors + 181. d) Three
Opening B/P â“Closing Creditors- 182. a) True
Closing B/P 183. a) Fixed manufacturing expenses are
159. c) Cash outflow on expenses included in unit cost
160. b) Rs 35000 184. a) Price determination on basis of full
161. b) Net profit before tax cost
185. c) Both a and b
162. d) A, B, C and D 186. a) True
163. d) A, B, C and D 187. a) Prime Cost plus all variable
164. c) Both C and D overheads
165. a) Cash flow from investing activities 188. a) Marginal cost
166. b) Cash advances and loans made to 189. a) Prime cost + All Variable
third parties overheads
167. b) Rs 28,800 190. c) Both a and b
168. c) Both a and b 191. b) Total costs
169. b) Cash outflow of Rs 65,000 192. a) True
170. c) Both C and B 193. d) There will be neither profit not
171. a) True loss
172. a) Operating activities 194. a) Intensive Opportunities
173. b) Financing activities, investing 195. c) Both a and b
activities 196. a) Profit
174. a) True 197. d) All of the above
175. b) Financing activities, investing 198. d) All of the above
activities 199. b) Marginal costing
176. b) B, C, D 200. d) A, B, C and D
177. c) Decrease in creditors 201. a) Price determination on basis of full
178. d) Increase in creditors cost
179. c) Both a & b
180. c) Both a and b
Marginal Costing and Break Even Point Analysis
Absorption Costing
Under Absorption Costing, all fixed as well as variable costs are allocated to cost units and total
overheads are absorbed according to activity level. Thus all costs, whether fixed or variable are
charged to operations, products or processes.
Absorption Costing is also called ‘Cost plus Costing’ where a fixed percentage is added to total
cost, to cover for profit.
TC=FC+VC (TOTAL)
SP 100
Less: VC 30
Less: FC 25 55 (TC)
Profit 45
Marginal Cost is defined as the amount at any given volume of output, by which the aggregate
costs are changed if the volume of output is increased or decreased by one unit. It is the variable
cost of one unit of a product or service.
SP 100
Contribution 70
Profit 45
1
Example:
SP=Rs. 100
VC pu= Rs.30
(Units) (Rs.)
2
Prod & sales FC VC TC Profit
Per Per Per Per
unit unit unit Unit
SP-TC
0 - 0
1 350 30
2 175 30
3 116.66 30
4 87.5 30
5 70 30
7 50 30 80 20
10 35 30 65 35
Rule: Variable cost per unit remains constant. The total variable cost increases in direct
proportion to increase in production.
Total fixed cost remains constant. The fixed cost per unit decreases in direct proportion to
increase in output.
Marginal Costing is a principle whereby variable costs are charged to cost units and the fixed
costs of the relevant period is written off in full against the contribution for that period. Thus
Marginal costing is the ascertainment of marginal cost and the effect on profit of changes in
volume or type of output by differentiating between fixed costs and variable cost.
3
Absorption Costing Marginal Costing
Total Cost, both fixed and variable is charged Only variable cost is charged to products and
to the cost of products and inventory valuation. inventory valuation.
Fixed cost is transferred to Costing Profit and
Loss Account.
Opening and closing stock is valued at total Stock is valued only at variable cost. Hence the
cost, which included both fixed and variable stock value is lower in Marginal costing than
cost. Hence stock values in Absorption costing in Absorption costing
are higher than in Marginal costing.
Profitability is measured by the profit earned Profitability is measured by the ‘contribution’
by various products or departments. made by various products or departments.
Cost data are arrived on conventional pattern Cost data helps to know the total contribution
and hence only the net profit for each product and contribution of each product.
is arrived at.
Marginal Costing is a technique frequently used for short-term decision making. The following
are the practical applications of Marginal Costing.
Marginal costing is useful when there is a scarcity of resources. For example, there may be a
limit to the availability of a particular grade of labor, shortage of raw materials, limit to
machine capacity or shortage of working capital. Then the decision is taken based on the
maximum contribution per unit of the scarce resource.
2. Profit Planning
Marginal costing is used for profit planning. A profit target is fixed and the management tries
to achieve it by bringing changes in the factors affecting the profit like selling price, quantity
sold, variable cost per unit, total fixed costs and sales mix. With the help of marginal costing,
the impact of the changes in the above variables can be easily evaluated and desired profit
can be achieved by the management. It helps in doing sensitivity analysis by observing
different cost and revenue situations and its resultant impact on profit and guides in the
determination of activity level to achieve target profit.
4
must be selected. Product mix is the ratio in which various products are produced and sold.
The marginal costing technique helps the management in taking decisions regarding
changing the ratio of product mix which gives maximum contribution or in dropping
unprofitable product line. The product which gives less contribution may be reduced or
discontinued. A multi-product company seeks to choose as its product mix that combination
of products which will yield the largest total contribution.
A manufacturing industry may make some products, parts or tools related to operation or
sometimes it may buy the same thing from outside. The management must decide which is
more profitable to the firm. Make or Buy decisions are best taken with full knowledge of the
marginal or variable cost of making rather than buying a product. But it is also helpful to
know through Marginal Costing what contribution to fixed costs will result from a ‘Make’
decision.
5
taking such decisions by enabling management to compare the contribution at different
levels of activities.
9. Market Expansion
Marginal costing provides relevant information in taking market expansion or contraction
decisions. This may include increasing the sales volume within the usual territories or by
tapping new territories. The customers may be earlier attached to the products of a
competitor, and removal of competition may involve higher selling and distribution costs.
6
12. Margin of Safety(units)=Actual sales(units) -Break even sales(units)
13. Margin of Safety(units) +Break even sales(units) =Actual Sales (units)
2. It is assumed that all fixed costs remain constant at various levels of activity.
But in practice, it may not be fixed in the long run.
3. The variable costs change in direct proportion to the volume of output. Thus the variable
cost per unit remains constant.
7
In practice, this may not be exactly true.
4. It is assumed that production units are equal to sales units and there is no opening or
closing inventory.
In practice, there is always existence of inventory.
5. Selling price remains constant at all levels of output and there is no change in sales mix.
In the real world, sometimes, it becomes necessary to change the selling price and sales
mix of the products, in order to increase the sales.
7. It ignores the capital employed in the business, which is one of the important factors in
determination of profitability of the company and its products.
8. A break even chart can depict the position of only one product and fails to present various
products in the sales mix in one chart. Different charts are required to be drawn for
different products.
9. The break even charts assume that total cost and total revenue can be represented in
straight lines.
8
9. Provision of data on relevant costs for special decisions relating to pricing, keeping or
dropping product lines, accepting or rejecting particular orders, make or buy decision,
sales mix planning, altering plant layout, channels of distribution specification,
promotional activities etc.
10. Guide in fixation of selling price where the volume has a close relationship with the price
level.
11. Evaluates the impact of cost factors on profit.
Sums
FAM book, pg. 163, sum4
P/V ratio=C/S *100
P/V ratio= S-V *100
S
=6000-3600 *100
6000
=40%
=1200+1800
40%
=Rs. 7,500
9
=1,32,000*20
=Rs. 26,40,000
New BEP= F
C per unit
=7,92,000
4
= 1,98,000 units
Pg.163 sum 5
Calculation of contribution per unit
Particulars Rs. Rs.
10
Contribution 100
a. BEP(units) = F_____
C per unit
= 6,00,000
100
=6000 units
Sales (Rs.)=Sales(units)*S.P
= 7000 *400
=Rs. 28,00,000
(Ans) Sales to make a profit of Rs. 1,00,000 will be 7000 units amounting to Rs.
28,00,000
Sales (units)=Sales(Rs.)
S.P
= 11,50,000
11.50
=1,00,000 units
11
Sales (units)= F+P
C per unit
1,00,000= 2,00,000+P
11.50-7.50
Profit =Rs.2,00,000
The management wants to maintain profit at Rs.2,00,000 and reduce selling price
to Rs. 10 per unit.
New contribution=new S.P -VC
=10-7.50
=Rs. 2.50
Sum 7 pg 166
(i) BEP (units)= F
C per unit
= 80,000
40-30
= 8000 units
BEP (Rs.)=BEP(units)*S.P
= 8000*40
=Rs. 3,20,000
12
SP=16+30
=Rs. 46
Sum 8 pg 168
P/V ratio=50%
Margin of safety=40%
Sales=F+P
P/V ratio
50,00,000=F+P
50%
F+P=Rs. 25,00,000
BEP=Rs. 50,00,000*60%
BEP=Rs. 30,00,000
BEP(Rs.)=F
P/V ratio
30,00,000=F
50%
30,00,000*50%=F
15,00,000=F
F+P=Rs. 25,00,000
15,00,000+P=25,00,000
P=Rs. 10,00,000
13
Pg 168 sum 9
= 10-6 *100
10
= 40%
= 10-6
BEP (units)= F
C per unit
= 4000
4
=1000 units
= 1000*10
=Rs. 10,000
S.P
=5000
10
14
Therefore, MOS(units)=500 units
= 30 *100
50
= 60%
2. BEP (units)= F
C per unit
= 75000
30
=2500 units
= 2500*50
=Rs. 1,25,000
15
3. sales (units)= Fixed cost+profit
Contribution per unit
= 75000+1,50,000
30
=7500 units
Sales (Rs.)=Sales (units)*SP
=7500*50
=Rs. 3,75,000
4.If selling price is reduced by 20%
New S.P=50-20%
=Rs. 40
New C=New SP-VC
=40-20
=Rs.20 per unit
= 3750*40
=Rs. 1,50,000
Pg.187 sum14
1. BEP (units)= F
C per unit
= 1,20,000
80
=1500 units
= 1500*180
=Rs. 2,70,000
16
2 P/V ratio=C *100
= 80 *100
180
= 44.44%
5 New SP=180+20%
=Rs. 216
= 1035*216
17
=Rs. 2,23,560
BEP=Fixed cost
P/V ratio
= 50,000
44.44%
18
= Rs. 112511.25
Solution
Change in sales
= 4000 *100
20000
= 20%
Year 2004
Contribution=1,00,000*20%
=Rs. 20,000
P/V ratio
90,000 = 10000+profit
20%
19
18000-`10000=profit
Profit=Rs. 8000
P/V ratio
40,000 = 10000+profit
20%
8000-`10000=profit
Loss=Rs. 2000
P/V ratio
= 10000+20,000
20%
P/V ratio
= 10000
20%
20
SUM 14 PG 175
Solution:-
Change in sales
= 64800-21600 *100
10,26,000-8,10,000
= 43200 *100
2,16,000
= 20%
Contribution=8,10,000*20%
=Rs. 1,62,000
P/V ratio
21
6,48,000=1,40,400+P
20%
Profit=Rs. 129600-140400
Loss=Rs. 10,800
P/V ratio
=1,40,400+1,08,000
20%
Sales=Rs. 12,42,000
Change in sales
= 2,000 *100
10,000
= 20%
22
First half of the year
Contribution=60,000*20%
=Rs. 12,000
It is given that fixed expenses are paid equally for the whole year. This is fixed cost for 6 months.
P/V ratio
=12,000
20%
BEP=Rs. 60,000
= Rs. 1,30,000
=1,30,000-60,000
=Rs. 70,000
23
24
Chapter 1 Question Review 1
Chapter 1 Questions
Multiple Choice
1. A business organized as a separate legal entity is a
a. corporation.
b. proprietor.
c. government unit.
d. partnership.
2. Which of the following is not one of the three forms of business organization?
a. Corporations
b. Partnerships
c. Proprietorships
d. Investors
3. Which of the following would not be considered an internal user of accounting data for the Xanadu
Company?
a. President of the company
b. Production manager
c. Merchandise inventory clerk
d. President of the employees' labor union
4. The liability created by a business when it purchases coffee beans and coffee cups on credit from
suppliers is termed a(n)
a. account payable.
b. account receivable.
c. revenue.
d. expense.
10. To show how successfully your business performed during a period of time, you would report its
revenues and expenses in the
a. balance sheet.
b. income statement.
c. statement of cash flows.
d. retained earnings statement.
11. Ashley’s Accessory Shop started the year with total assets of $210,000 and total liabilities of
$120,000. During the year the business recorded $330,000 in revenues, $165,000 in expenses, and
dividends of $60,000. The net income reported by Ashley’s Accessory Shop for the year was
a. $120,000.
b. $150,000.
c. $195,000.
d. $165,000.
12. Rodgers Company compiled the following financial information as of December 31, 20XX:
Sales revenue $1,120,000
Common stock 240,000
Buildings 320,000
Operating expenses 1,000,000
Cash 280,000
Dividends 80,000
Inventory 40,000
Accounts payable 160,000
Accounts receivable 120,000
Retained earnings, 1/1/20XX 600,000
13. As of January 1, 20XX, Elena’s Store had a balance in its retained earnings account of $100,000. During
the year Elena’s Store had revenues of $80,000 and expenses of $45,000. In addition, the business paid
cash dividends of $20,000. What is the balance in Retained Earnings at December 31, 20XX for Elena’s
Store?
a. $100,000
b. $115,000
c. $135,000
d. $155,000
14. Which of the following financial statements is concerned with the company at a point in time?
a. Balance sheet
b. Income statement
c. Retained earnings statement
d. Statement of cash flows
Exercises
1. Indicate in the space provided by each item whether it would appear on the income statement (IS),
balance sheet (BS), or retained earnings statement (RE):
2. Use the following information to calculate for the year ended December 31, 20XX
(a) net income (net loss)
(b) ending retained earnings
(c) total assets.
Chapter 1 Solutions
Multiple Choice Solutions
1. A
2. D
3. D
4. A
5. B
6. B
7. D
8. B
9. A
10. B
11. D
12. D
13. B
14. A
15. D
Exercise Solutions
1.
a. IS g. BS
b. IS h. BS
c. BS i. BS
d. BS j. IS
e. BS k. RE
f. IS l. BS
2.
a) Shareholders
b) Creditors
c) Managers
d) Regulatory agencies
a) Creditor
b) Department manager
c) Controller
d) Treasurer
a) Service entities
b) Manufacturing entities
c) Non profit entities
d) All of these
5. The work of factory employees that can be physically associated with converting raw
material into finished goods is classified as-
a) Manufacturing overhead
b) Indirect materials
c) Indirect labour
d) Direct labour
37
c) Management
d) All
8. Which type of asset class includes those assets which have only definite use and become
valueless when the yield is over?
a) Fixed asset
b) Current asset
c) Fictitious asset
d) Wasting asset
9. An accounting that deals with the accounting and reporting of information to management
regarding the detail information is
a) Financial accounting
b) Management accounting
c) Cost accounting
d) Real Accounting
a) Debtors account
b) Bad debts account
c) Sales account
d) Creditors account
37
a) Nominal account- debit all expenses & losses
b) Real account- credit what comes in
c)Nominal account- credit all incomes & gains
d) Personal account- debit the receiver
13. Cost of goods sold= opening stock+ net purchases+ expenses on Purchases – sales
Which part of formula is wrong? a) opening stock
b) net purchases
c) expenses on Purchases
d)sales
a) Cash account
b) Mahesh Account
c) Sales account
d) Purchase account
37
b) Customer’s account
c) Sales account
d) Cash account
37
b) Large business enterprise only
c) Small business concerns only
d) Manufacturing and service concern
26. is a person or item for which cost may be ascertained. a) Cost unit
b) Cost centre
c) Cost object
d) Cost estimation
29. Amortization of intangible Asset Such as Goodwill which has indefinite life is an example of
accounting concept
a) Conservatism Concept
b) Continuity Concept
c) Realisation Concept
d) Measurement Concept
31. cost will still be incurred although a plant is shut down temporarily.
a) Cost of raw material
b) Advertising
c) Depreciation
d) Carriage
37
32. Accounting principles are generally based upon:
a) Practicability
b) Subjectivity
c) Convenience in recording
d) None of the above
34. The practice of appending notes regarding contingent liabilities in accounting statements is in
pursuance to:
a) Convention of consistency
b) Money measurement concept
c) Convention of conservatism
d) Convention of disclosure
39. Income tax paid by a sole proprietor on his business income should be:
a) Debited to trading account
37
b) Debited to profit and loss account
c) Deducted from capital account in the balance sheet
d) None of the above
40. All direct & indirect expenses related to business are charged:
a) Profit and loss account
b) Trading account
c) Trading account Profit and Loss account
d) Directly to Balance sheet
41. According to schedule VI Companies Act which item is not shown on Asset side of Balance
sheet
a) Investment
b) Current Loan & Advances
c) Provision
d) Lease Holds
43. Investment of X company profit in shares of other company PQR Pvt. ltd are recorded
in……………….
a) Asset side of Balance Sheet
b) Liability side of Balance Sheet
c) Profit & Loss a/c
d) Not recorded in Balance Sheet
a) Remains fixed
b) Fluctuates with volume of production
c) Varies in consideration with the volume of sales
d) None of the above
37
46. The books to be compulsorily maintained by a company are:
a) Increases assets
b) Results in no change in the total assets
c) Decreases assets
d) Increases liability
37
d) Debiting employee a/c ; crediting salary a/c
53. Cost of asset should always be equal to the cost of the liabilities. This concept is
a) Realization Concept
b) Matching Concept
c) Cost Concept
d) Both a and b above
a) Consistency concept
b) Conservatism concept
c) Accounting period concept
d) Cost Concept
a) Current assets
b) Current liabilities
c) Fixed asset
d) Fixed liability
59. Reserve for doubtful debts appearing in the trial balance should be:
37
b) Shown as liability side in balance sheet
c) Reduced from related asset in the balance sheet
d) Both a and b
e) Both a and c
a) Debtors
b) Investors
c) Creditors
d) Shareholders
61. According to which concept business is treated as a unit apart from owner
a) Dual concept
b) Divider concept
c) Entity concept
d) Landlord concept
62. Authorized capital, also known as
a) Nominal capital
b) Paid up capital
c) Issues capital
d) None of these
63. True & fair profit and loss a/c of a company know by
a) Preparing trial balance
b) Preparing respective ledger of account
c) Preparing trading a/c
d) Preparing trading & profit & loss a/c
65. Under which concept it is assumed that the enterprises has neither the intention nor the
necessity of liquidation or of curtailing materiality the scale of operation
a) Revenue realization concept
b) Matching cost concept
37
c) Going concern concept
d) None of these
66. Making the provision for doubtful debts and discount on debtors in anticipation of actual
bad debts and discount is an example for which concept
a) Conservatism concept
b) Continuity concept
c) Realization concept
d) All of these
72. . Which of the following account balance will be shown on debit side of Trial Balance?
a) Outstanding expenses
b) Cash a/c
37
c) Short term loan
d) creditors
73. The reduction in the value of the fixed assets which can arise due to time factor is
a)Discount
b) Depreciation
c)Reduction
d) None of the above
37
b) Cost concept
c) Continuity concept
d) Money measurement concept
81. Proposed dividends" is shown in the Balance Sheet of a company under the head:
a) Provisions
b) Reserves and Surplus
c) Current Liabilities
d) Other Liabilities
82. Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of:
a) Separate entity
b) Going concern
c) Consistency
d) Time period
a) Income Statement
b) Cash Flow Statement
c) Balance Sheet
d) Fund Flow Statement
Bought office wooden table for cash office wooden table cash
Ramesh sold goods on credited to Ram sales cash
37
Introduce capital by cheque capital Bank
Paid to creditor Sita by cheque Sita Bank
a) (ii) (iii)(i)
b) (iii)(iv)(ii)
c) (i)(iii)(iv)
d) (i)(iv)
88. Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of:
a) Separate entity
b) Going concern
c) Consistency
d) Time period
37
92. The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following types of businesses? a.
Sole proprietorship
b. Corporation
c. Partnership
d. All of them
93. Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a business is divided for the
purpose of preparing financial statements?
a) Fiscal year
b) Calendar year
c) Accounting period
d) Accrual period
97. Which of the following is not regarded as the fundamental accounting concept?
a. The going concern concept
b. The separate entity concept
c. The prudence (conservatism) concept
d. Correction concept
98. Using "lower of cost and net realisable value(Market Value)" for the purpose of inventory
valuation is the implementation of which of the following concepts?
a) The going concern concept
b) The separate entity concept
c) The prudence concept
d) Matching concept
37
99. The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following types of businesses?
a) Sole proprietorship
b) Corporation
c) Partnership
d) All of them
100. The revenue recognition principal dictates that all types of incomes should be recorded or
recognized when
a) Cash is received
b) At the end of accounting period
c) When they are earned
d) When interest is paid
101. The allocation of owner's private expenses to his/her business violates which of the
following?
a) Accrual concept
b) Matching concept
c) Separate business entity concept
d) Consistency concept
102. The going concern concept assumes that
37
c) Immaterial
d) Material
106. "Financial information should be neutral and bias free" is the dictation of which one of the
following?
a) Completeness concept
b) Faithful representation Concept
c) Objectivity Concept
d) Duality Concept
107. Accounting principles are divided into two types. These are ---
a) Accounting Concepts
b) Accounting Conventions
c) Accounting Standards
d) Accounting Concepts &Accounting Conventions
108. Which of the following is not related with Money Measurement Concept ?
a) All business transaction should be expressed only in money
b) The transactions which cannot be expressed in money, will not be recorded in
accounting books
c) Business is treated as separate from the proprietor
d) None of These
109. Which of the following equation is related with Dual Aspect Concept ?
a) Total Assets = Total Liabilities
b) Total Assets = Capital + Outsider’s Liabilities
c) Capital = Total Assets - Outsider’s Liabilities
d) All of the above
110. If the total assets of the company amount to Rs 1,50,000 and owner’s equity is Rs 70,000,the
amount of liabilities will be –
a) Rs 70,000
b) Rs 80,000
c) Rs 90,000
d) Rs 1,00,000
a) Profit
37
b) Assets
c) Company
d) Books of A/c
a) Depreciation
b) Wages
c) Salary
d) Stationary
a) Patents
b) Trade Marks
c) Copyright
d) Land
117. The prime function of accounting is to
37
c) Controlling function
d) None of these
120.Book keeping is mainly concerned with
a) Practicability
b) Subjectivity
c) Convenience in recording
d) None of these
122. The system of recording transaction based on dual aspect concept is called
125. The convention of conservatism when applied to the balance sheet result in.
37
c) Providing depreciation
d) None of these
127. The amount brought in by the proprietor in the business should be credited to
a) Cash a/c
b) Capital a/c
c) Drawing a/c
d) Bank a/c
a) Customer a/c
b) Sales return a/c
c) Goods a/c
d) Purchase return a/c
a) Cash a/c
b) Mahesh a/c
c) Sales a/c
d) Sales return a/c
a) Discount a/c
b) Customer a/c
c) Sales a/c
d) None of these
133. In case of a debt becoming bad, the amount should be credited to
a) Debtors Accounts
b) Bad debts a/c
c) Sales a/c
37
a) Ascertain the cost of goods and services
b) Ascertain the profit
c) Presentation of all data
d) None of these
a) Convention of conservatism
b) Convention of full disclosure
c) Convention of consistency
d) None of these
136. Accountant should follow the same principles of accounting continuously is as per which
accounting convention
a) Convention of conservatism
b) Convention of full disclosure
c) Convention of consistency
d) None of these
138. The convention of disclosure implies that all material information should be
a) Single aspect
b) Dual aspect
c) Triple aspect
d) None of these
140. Custom and traditions which guide the accountant while preparing the accounting
statements
a) Accounting convention
37
b) Accounting concepts
c) Accounting principles
d) None of these
141. Rules of action or conduct adopted by the accountants universally while recording
accounting transaction
a) Accounting convention
b) Accounting concepts
c) Accounting principles
d) None of these
142. Basic assumptions or conditions upon which the science of accounting is based.
a) Accounting convention
b) Accounting concepts
c) Accounting principles
d) None of these.
A. system in which accounting entries are made on the basis of amounts having become due
for payment or receipt is called
a) Cash concept
b) Accrual concept
c) Matching concept
d) On-going concept
a) Real a/c
b) Personal a/c
c) Nominal a/c
d) None of these
145. Debit what come in Credit what goes out rule for
a) Real a/c
b) Personal a/c
c) Nominal a/c
d) None of these
146. Debit all expenses and losses Credit all gains and income.
a) Real a/c
b) Personal a/c
c) Nominal a/c
d) None of these
147. A book containing a chronological record of business transaction & original record
a) Journal
37
b) Ledger
c) Trial balance
d) None of these
148. Transferring the debit and credit item from the journal to the respective accounts is
150. The transferring of debit and credit items from journal to the respective accounts in the
ledger is called as
a) Ledger
b) Posting
c) Forward journal
d) None of these
151. Which of the following items would not fall under the definition of an asset? a)
Land
b) Machine
c) Cash
d) Owner Equity
152. Which one of the following items would fall under the definition of a liability a)
Cash
b) Debtor
c) Owner’s equity
d) None of these
37
154.A business has the following items in it:
Land Rs.1,000,000
Machinery Rs.20,000
Cash Rs.10,000
Debt Rs.0
Owner’s equity ?
a) Rs.200, 000
b) Rs.700, 000
c) Rs.800, 000
d) Rs1, 100,000
157.A business has following items in it
Land ?
Vehicles Rs.600,000
Debtors Rs. 1,20,000
Cash Rs.30,000
Owners’Equity Rs.1,000,000
Loan 5,00,000
37
Creditors Rs.50,000
What is the value of the land…………………..
e) 1,000,000
f) 1,550,000
g) 800,000
h) None of these
158. Which of the following equations properly represents a derivation of the fundamental
accounting equation?
a) Only (a)
b) Both (a) (b)
c) All (a)(b)(c)(d)
d) None of these
159. Retained earnings will change over time because of several factors. Which of the following
factors would explain an increase in retained earnings?
a) Net Loss
b) Net income
c) Dividend
d) Investment by share holder.
Cash Rs.100
37
Accounts Receivable Rs.500
Stock holder equity Rs.700
Accounts Payable Rs.200
Bank Loan Rs.1,000
a) Rs.200
b) Rs.1900
c) Rs.1200
d) Rs.1700
163. The full disclosure principle, as adopted by the accounting profession, is best described by
which of the following?
a) All information related to an entity's business and operating objectives is required to be
disclosed in the financial statements.
b) Information about each account balance appearing in the financial statements is to be
included in the notes to the financial statements.
c) Enough information should be disclosed in the financial statements so a person wishing
to invest in the stock of the company can make a profitable decision.
d) Disclosure of any financial facts significant enough to influence the judgment of an
informed reader
166. The Cash account on the balance sheet should not include which of the following items?
a. Travel advances to employees
b. Currency
c. Money orders
d. Deposits in transit
37
b. Assets and equity.
168. The following comments all relate to the recording process. Which of these statements is
correct?
b. The general ledger is posted from transactions recorded in the general journal.
c. The trial balance provides the primary source document for recording transactions into
the general journal.
d. Transposition is the transfer of information from the general journal to the general
ledger.
169. The following comments each relate to the recording of journal entries. Which statement is
true?
c. The chart of accounts reveals the amount to debit and credit to the affected accounts.
171. . Which of the following errors will be disclosed in the preparation of a trial balance?
37
d. Recording the wrong amount for a transaction to both the account debited and the
account credited.
172. The basic sequence in the accounting process can best be described as:
173. Inventory accounts should be classified in which section of a balance sheet? a. Current
assets
b. Investments
c. Property, plant, and equipment
d. Intangible assets
Planning
b) Decision making
c) Control
d) All of these
178. Which of the following statements about differences between financial and managerial
accounting is incorrect?
37
a) Managerial accounting information is prepared primarily for external parties
such as stockholders and creditors; financial accounting is directed at internal
users.
b) Financial accounting is aggregated; managerial accounting is focused on products and
departments.
c) Managerial accounting pertains to both past and future items; financial accounting
focuses primarily on past transactions and events.
d) Financial accounting is based on generally accepted accounting practices; managerial
accounting faces no similar constraining factors.
180. Manufacturing costs are also known as product costs. Which of the following best describes
those costs which are considered to be manufacturing costs?
181. A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, plus long distance
charges, would be classified as a:
a. Variable cost
b. Committed fixed cost
c. Direct cost
d. Semi variable cost
37
184. Business entity concept distinguishes between:
a) Asset
b) Liability
c) Accounts
187. Financial statements are:
a) Estimates of facets
b) Anticipated facts
c) recorded facts
188. Retained earnings statement depicts:
a) Appropriation of profits
b) Estimates of profits
c) Estimates of costs
a) Management
b) Creditors
c) Bankers
d) All of the above
37
a) Sundry creditors
b) Acceptances
c) Unclaimed dividend
d) Short term investment
191. Financial accounting deals with:
a) Determination of cost
b) Determination of profit
c) Determination of price
d) Determination of selling price
a) Actual figures
b) Budgeted figures
c) Standard figures
d) Management Figure
a) 1910
b) 1939
c) 1950
d) 1960
37
c) Current asset
d) Owners equity
a) Financial
b) Economic
c) Non financial
d) None of these
199. Which items does not come under the balance sheet
a) sales
b) Share capital
c) Reserves and surplus
d) Unsecured loan
b) Clerical
37
c) Executive
d) Non- executive
204. Depreciation is a . a)
Cash operating expenditure
b) Accrual basis
c) Mercantile basis
d) Single entry basis
206. Which of the following is true for: -“In accounts recording is done of ” a)
only financial transaction
b) Revenue
c) Direct
d) Non- cash
37
a) Nominal account
b) Real Account
b) Trial Balance
c) Ledger
d) Journal
210. Amount brought in by proprietor should be credited to
a) cash account
b) capital account
c) drawings account
d) creditors account
b) Salaries account
c) Cash account
d) Outstanding expenses
212. All costs other than direct materials cost, direct labour cost and direct expenses are known as:
a) Indirect material cost
b) Overhead
c) Indirect labour cost
d) Indirect expenses
213. A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, plus long distance
charges, would be classified as a:
e. Variable cost
f. Committed fixed cost
37
g. Direct cost
h. Semi variable cost
215. The work of factory employees that can be physically associated with converting raw
material into finished goods is classified as-
e. Manufacturing overhead
f. Indirect materials
g. Indirect labour
h. Direct labour
216. Which one of the following would not be classified as manufacturing overhead? a) Indirect
labour
b) Direct materials
c) Insurance on factory building
d) Indirect materials
218. A manufacturing process requires small amounts of glue. The glue used in the process is
classified as
a) A prime cost
b) An indirect material
c) A direct material
d) Miscellaneous expense
37
220. Because of automation, which component of product cost is declining? a)
Direct labour
b) Direct materials
c) Manufacturing overhead
d) Advertising
224. Aggregate of cost of goods sold and selling and distribution overheads is known as : a)
Total Cost
b) Office Cost
c) Cost of sales
d) Selling overhead
37
Direct material purchased: Rs. 1,00,000
Direct material consumed: Rs. 90,000
Direct labour: Rs. 60,000
Direct expenses: Rs. 20,000
Manufacturing overheads: Rs. 30,000
(a) Rs. 1,80,000
(b) Rs. 2,00,000
(c) Rs. 1,70,000
(d) Rs. 2,10,000
37
Cost Sheet/Unit Costing
Cost Sheet is defined as a document which provides for the assembly of the estimated detailed cost in
respect of a cost center or cost unit.
Thus, a Cost Sheet is a statement usually prepared to present the analytical cost of total production
during a particular period.
Sales
1
2. Cost Sheet with Stock Adjustments
In the books of Company A
Cost sheet for the period ended ____
Name of the Product- _________ Units Produced-_______________ Units Sold-___________
Particulars Total cost (Rs.) Unit cost (Rs.)
Opening stock of Raw Materials
Add: Purchases of Raw Materials
Add: Expenses on purchases of Raw Materials
Less: Closing stock of Raw Materials
Less: Purchase returns
Less: Sale of scrap or defectives of raw materials
Cost of Materials Consumed (1)
Add: Direct Labour
Add: Direct expenses
Prime Cost (2)
Sales (7)
2
Sums:
1. Accounting for Business Decisions, Nirali Prakashan, Pg. 3.30
Sum of Mumbai Traders
In the books of Mumbai Traders, Mumbai
Cost Sheet for the year ending 31st March, 2013
Particulars Amount (Rs.) Amount (Rs.)
Cost of Direct Materials 2,00,000
Add: Direct Wages 1,00,000
Add: Direct expenses
1. Cost of special patterns 40,000
2. Other direct expenses 2,000
3. Royalty 8,000
3
= 20,000* 100
4,00,000
= 5% on sales
4
Total Cost 1,15,300
Note: Interest on debentures is a financial expense and goodwill written off is an
intangible asset written off, and therefore they will not be shown in the cost sheet.
5
Profit CP
20 80
? 1,10,000
Therefore, 1,10,000*20 =Rs. 27,500
80
3. Universal Furniture Manufacturing Ltd. Sum. 7 Pg. 131, FAM, B.S. Shah
6
Carriage outward 10,000
50,000 05
Cost of Sales/ Total Cost 7,70,000 77
Note: 1. Interest on investment, profit on sale of machinery, provision for taxation are items
which do not appear in the cost sheet.
2.Since there is no opening and closing stock of finished goods, production=sales=10,000 units.
7
Add: Opening stock of finished goods 1,20,000
Less: closing stock of finished goods (65,000)
Cost of production of goods sold 3,15,000 63
(divide by
sales units)
Add: selling & distribution expenses (Rs.5 25,000 5
*5000 units)
Total Cost/Cost of Sales (4) 3,40,000 68
Sales 4,00,000 80
1. Quantity of sales
Opening stock of finished goods(tons) +production(tons)-closing stock of finished goods (tons)= sales
(tons)
1000+16000-2000=15000 tons is the quantity of sales
Cost Sheet for the period from 1st July, 2005 to 31st December, 2005
Production- 16,000 tons Sales- 15,000 tons
8
Particulars Cost (Rs.) Total cost Unit cost
(Rs.) (Rs.)
Raw materials consumed
Opening stock of raw material 20,000
Add: Purchases of raw material 1,20,000
Add: carriage inwards 1,440
Less: closing stock of raw material (22,240)
Cost of Raw materials consumed
1,19,200 7.45
Add: Direct Labour wages 1,00,000 6.25
Sales 3,00,000 20
9
Basic Concepts of Accounting
Chapter 1
Basic Concepts of Accounting
1. ______________ is nothing but the right process of selecting an appropriate, logical, practical
and achievable option from the available alternatives.
(a) Business Decision (b) Planning
(c) Organizing (d) Strategy
2. ______________ is a person who carried on business exclusively by and for himself.
(a) Partner (b) Sole-trader
(c) Executive (d) Manager
3. The relationship between persons who agree to carry on business in a common with a view to
private gain.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole-trading Firm
(c) Joint Stock Company (d) Co-operative Society
4. A ______________ is a form of business organization in which the funds of large number of
investors are managed by a few persons for the purpose of earning profits.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole-trading Firm
(c) Joint Stock Company (d) Co-operative Society
5. ______________ is the language of business.
(a) Marketing (b) Profit Earning Capacity
(c) Accounting (d) Selling
6. The object/s of accounting ______________.
(a) To calculate net profit or net loss of the business.
(b) To know the financial condition of the firm.
(c) To provide information to the management for important managerial decisions.
(d) All of the above
7. Out of the following, which is not the branch of Accounting.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
8. Accounting ______________ are the Rules of Action or the Methods and Procedures of
Accounting commonly adopted while recording Business transactions.
(a) Principles (b) Concepts
(c) Conventions (d) Systems
2 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
21. Debit the receiver, credit the giver is the rule of ______________.
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
22. Debit what comes in, credit what goes out is the rule of ______________.
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
23. Debit all expenses and losses, credit all incomes and gains is the rule of ______________.
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
24. ______________ is a record of transaction in the books of Accounts.
(a) Entry (b) Recording
(c) Monetary Transaction (d) Ledger
25. ______________ is an exchange of money or money’s worth.
(a) Entry (b) Recording
(c) Transaction (d) Ledger
26. ______________ is a book of original entry.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Subsidiary Book
27. ______________ is a bound book of different accounts.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Subsidiary Book
28. ______________ is a summarized record of transactions related to one person, one asset, one
head of expense/loss and one head of income/gain.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Account
29. ______________ means totaling of sums in the books of accounts.
(a) Casting (b) Summarizing
(c) Journalizing (d) Ledger Posting
30. ______________ are obligations or debts that the enterprise must pay in money or services at
some time in the future.
(a) Assets (b) Liabilities
(c) Responsibilities (d) Salaries
31. ______________ are economic resources of an enterprise that can be usefully expressed in
monetary terms.
(a) Assets (b) Liabilities
(c) Cash & Bank Balance (d) Funds
32. ______________ are commodities, purchased or manufactured for resale with a view to earn
profit.
(a) Assets (b) Goods
(c) Investments (d) Resources
4 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
33. ______________ are the amounts the business earns by selling its products or providing
services to customers.
(a) Assets (b) Goods
(c) Investments (d) Revenues
34. ______________ are the costs incurred by a business in the process of earning revenue.
(a) Assets (b) Expenses
(c) Investments (d) Revenues
35. ______________ are persons and/or other entities who owe to an enterprise an amount for
receiving goods and services on credit.
(a) Debtors (b) Creditors
(c) Shareholders (d) Suppliers
36. ______________ are persons and/or other entities that have to be paid by an enterprise an
amount for providing the enterprise goods and services on credit.
(a) Debtors (b) Creditors
(c) Shareholders (d) Customers
37. ______________ is a list of the entire general ledger account names and balances; it is
prepared to prove the ledger.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Trial Balance
38. The difference of two sides of an account is called as ______________.
(a) Debit (b) Credit
(c) Balance (d) Cash
39. ______________ deals with expenses related to or identified with products, which may only
be a part of the organization.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
40. In ______________ stocks are valued at lower of cost or market value.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
41. The primary objective of ______________ is to provide necessary information to the
management in the process of its planning, controlling, and performance evaluation, and
decision-making.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
42. The Success of ______________ does not depend upon Management Accounting system.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
43. In______________ no statutory requirement of audit for reports.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 5
Chapter 2
Understanding of Financial Statements
1. ______________ shows the firm’s assets, liabilities, and stockholders’ equity as of the report
date.
(a) Cash Flow (b) Funds Flow
(c) Income Statement (d) Balance Sheet
2. ______________ shows the results of the firm’s operations and financial activities for the
reporting period.
(a) Trading and Profit & Loss Account (b) Expense Statement
(c) Income Statement (d) Balance Sheet
3. ______________ includes explanations of various activities, additional details of some
accounts, and other items as mandated by the regulatory authorities, bodies from time to time.
(a) Trading and Profit & Loss Account (b) Expense Statement
(c) Income Statement (d) Supplementary Note
4. ______________ is a formal official record of the financial activities and position of a
business, person, or other entity.
(a) Financial Statement (b) Trading Account
(c) Profit & Loss Account (d) Supplementary Note
5. ______________ provides the vital information related to the profitability, liquidity and
solvency of the business.
(a) Financial Statement (b) Trading Account
(c) Profit & Loss Account (d) Cash Flow & Funds Flow
6. ______________ is the simplest business form under which one can operate a business.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole Trading Firm
(c) Private Ltd. Company (d) Public Company
7. ______________ is not a separate legal entity.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole Proprietorship Firm
(c) Private Ltd. Company (d) One Man Company
8. For every item given in Trial Balance, ______________ effect should be given.
(a) Dual (b) Single
(c) Triple (d) None of the above
9. For every item given in Adjustment, ______________ effect should be given.
(a) Dual (b) Single
(c) Triple (d) None of the above
10. ______________ are nothing but the entries which are not included in the original Trial
Balance.
(a) Journal Proper (b) Ledger
(c) Adjustments (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 7
Chapter 3
Cost Accounting
1. ______________ provides a specialized technique, which provides prompt and accurate
information regarding the cost of producing and selling an article.
(a) Cost Accounting (b) Financial Accounting
(c) Management Accounting (d) Cost & Financial Accounting
2. The amount of expenditure incurred on, or attributable to a given thing is called as
______________.
(a) Cost (b) Price
(c) Expense (d) Fixed Cost
3. The techniques and process of ascertaining cost is called as ______________.
(a) Costing (b) Accounting
(c) Financing (d) Management Accounting
4. With the help of ______________, we can control the cost.
(a) Costing Methods (b) Cost Accounting
(c) Management Accounting (d) Costing Techniques
5. With the help of ______________, we can find out the cost.
(a) Costing Methods (b) Cost Accounting
(c) Management Accounting (d) Costing Techniques
6. The total of Direct Material + Direct Labour + Direct Expenses is called as ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Factory Cost
(c) Prime Cost (d) Main Cost
7. Direct Expenses are also called as ______________.
(a) Chargeable Expenses (b) Factory Expenses
(c) Works Expenses (d) General Expenses
8. Depreciation is an example of ______________.
(a) Direct Expenses (b) Factory Expenses
(c) General Expenses (d) Indirect Expenses
9. The aggregate of all indirect expenses is ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Total Expense
(c) Overheads (d) Factory Overheads
10. Factory Cost is also called as ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Cost of Production
(c) Works Cost (d) Factory Overheads
11. Cost of Sales is also called as ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Cost of Production
(c) Works Cost (d) Factory Cost
12 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
25. A Location, person, or item of equipment (or a group of these) for which costs may be
ascertained and used for the purpose of control is called as ______________.
(a) Cost Unit (b) Cost Centre
(c) Cost Department (d) Cost Division
26. ______________ a statement, which shows various components of total cost of a product.
(a) Cost Sheet (b) Cost Account
(c) Cost Report (d) Cost Classification
27. ______________ is prepared on the basis of actual cost incurred.
(a) Historical Cost Sheet (b) Cost Account
(c) Cost Report (d) Estimated Cost Sheet
28. Haulage Charges is an example of ______________.
(a) Fixed Overheads (b) Direct Cost
(c) Factory Overheads (d) Administration Overheads
29. Counting House Salaries is an example of ______________.
(a) Fixed Overheads (b) Selling Overheads
(c) Factory Overheads (d) Administration Overheads
30. Carriage Outward is an example of ______________.
(a) Fixed Overheads (b) Selling Overheads
(c) Factory Overheads (d) Administration Overheads
31. Opening Stock of Finished Goods is added in ______________.
(a) Factory Cost (b) Prime Cost
(c) Cost of Production (d) Works Cost
32. Direct Labour Charges is also called as ______________.
(a) Factory Cost (b) Prime Cost
(c) Fixed Wages (d) Productive Wages
33. Cost unit is divided into ______________.
(a) Units of Production (b) Units of Services
(c) Both a and b (d) None of the above
34. Cost of converting raw material into finished goods is also called as ______________.
(a) Factory Cost (b) Prime Cost
(c) Conversion Cost (d) Productive Cost
35. According to Elements, Cost is divided into ______________ categories.
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
36. ______________ means the amount spent to sell a company’s products.
(a) Revenue Cost (b) Differential Cost
(c) Fixed Cost (d) Variable Cost
14 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
48. Sale of Scrap is ______________ after addition of factory overheads in Prime Cost.
(a) Added (b) Deducted
(c) Not Considered (d) None of the above
49. Cleaning Charges is an example of ______________.
(a) Direct Expenses (b) Factory Overheads
(c) Office Overheads (d) Selling Overheads
50. ______________ is the process of ascertaining costs whereas ______________ is the process
of recording various costs in a systematic manner, in order to prepare statistical date to
ascertain cost.
(a) Costing, Cost Accounting (b) Cost Accounting, Costing
(c) Costing and Allocation Cost (d) Costing and Absorption of Cost
Chapter 4
Cost Control
1. Cost of storing the goods as well as the interest on the capital is called as ______________.
(a) Inventory Carrying Cost (b) Order Placing Cost
(c) Buying Cost (d) Fixed Cost
2. Cost of placing the orders and receiving the goods are called as ______________.
(a) Inventory Carrying Cost (b) Variable Cost
(c) Buying Cost (d) Fixed Cost
3. The main objective of EOQ is to ______________ the total costs.
(a) Minimize (b) Control
(c) Maintain (d) Avoid
4. ______________ analysis is based on Selective Inventory Management.
(a) EOQ (b) JIT
(c) ABC (d) HML
5. Calculate EOQ if Cost of material per unit ` 40, Annual requirement 1600 units, Cost of
placing and receiving one purchase order ` 50, Annual carrying cost of inventory is 10% of
inventory value.
(a) 200 Units (b) 175 Units
(c) 225 Units (d) 250 Units
6. A level of inventory that should never be exceeded is ______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level
(c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
7. A level below which stock should not be allowed to fall is ______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level
(c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
8. A level at which store keeper should intimate purchase department for fresh/new supply is
______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level
(c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
9. A level below which the stock should never be allowed to fall under emergency
circumstances is ______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level
(c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
10. A strategy for inventory management in which raw materials and components are delivered
from the vendor or supplier immediately before they are needed in the manufacturing process
is ______________.
(a) Scientific Purchasing (b) Immediate Buying
(c) JIT (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 17
30. Out of the following, which factor/s affecting the Labour Cost.
(a) Assessment of Manpower Requirement
(b) Time and Motion Study
(c) Control over Idle Time and Overtime
(d) All of the above
31. Which department/s is/are closely associated with the Control of Labour Cost?
(a) Personnel and Payroll Department
(b) Time Keeping Department
(c) Engineering and Work Study Department
(d) All of the above
32. ______________ arises from replacement of workers who leave the organization.
(a) Direct Labour Cost (b) Preventive Cost
(c) Maintenance Cost (d) Replacement Cost
33. Method/s of Time Keeping is/are ______________.
(a) Attendance Register Method
(b) Token or Disc Method
(c) Time Recording Clocks & Dial Time Records
(d) All of the above
34. Method/s of Time Booking is/are ______________.
(a) Daily Time Sheet (b) Weekly Time Sheet
(c) Job Cards or Job Tickets (d) All of the above
35. ______________ refers to the estimation of standard time, i.e., the time allowed for
completing one piece of job using the given metho(d)
(a) Work Measurement (b) Time Measurement
(c) Period Measurement (d) None of the above
36. ______________ costs are the operating costs of a business enterprise which cannot be traced
to a particular unit of output.
(a) Material (b) Labour
(c) Overhead (d) Foxed & Variable
37. The ______________ is the process of recording each item of cost in the books of accounts
maintained for the purpose of ascertainment of cost of each Cost Centre or Cost Unit.
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead
(c) Apportionment of Overhead (d) Classification of Overhead
38. ______________ means, the allotment of whole items of cost to cost centres or cost units.
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead
(c) Apportionment of Overhead (d) Classification of Overhead
39. ______________ means, the allotment to two or more departments or cost centers of
proportions of common items of cost on estimated basis of benefit received.
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead
(c) Apportionment of Overhead (d) Classification of Overhead
20 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
Chapter 5
Decision-making Tools
1. Marginal Costing is also called as ______________.
(a) Variable Costing (b) Standard Costing
(c) Material Costing (d) Job Costing
2. In ______________ total costs cannot be easily segregated into fixed costs and variable costs.
(a) Marginal Costing (b) Standard Costing
(c) Material Costing (d) Job Costing
3. P/V Ratio is mainly known as ______________.
(a) Contribution to Sales Ratio (b) Contribution Margin Ratio
(c) Variable Profit Ratio (d) All of the above
4. ______________ analysis classifies all costs as either fixed or variable.
(a) CVP (b) ABC
(c) JIT (d) HML
5. ______________ that point where no profit or no loss position is observed.
(a) Centre Point (b) BEP
(c) Starting Point (d) Ending Point
6. ______________ is the difference between sales revenue and variable cost.
(a) P/V Ratio (b) BEP
(c) MOS (d) Contribution
7. Contribution is also called as ______________.
(a) P/V Ratio (b) Net Margin
(c) MOS (d) Gross Margin
8. ______________ is the difference between actual sales or output and the break even sales.
(a) P/V Ratio (b) Net Margin
(c) MOS (d) Gross Margin
9. ______________ is an angle where sales line intersects total cost line which indicates profit
earning capacity over the BEP.
(a) Angle of Incidence (b) Contribution
(c) Margin of Safety (d) Gross Margin
10. If contribution is ` 3,00,000 and Sales is ` 10,00,000, then what is P/V Ratio?
(a) 20% (b) 30%
(c) 33.33% (d) 1/3
11. If P/V Ratio is 25%, then what is the % of Variable Cost?
(a) 70% (b) 80%
(c) ¾ (d) ½
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 23
12. If Fixed Cost is ` 2,50,000 and P/V Ratio is 60%, then what is BEP in `?
(a) ` 4,16,667 (b) ` 3,83,333
(c) ` 3,75,000 (d) ` 4,10,000
13. If Fixed Cost is ` 2,50,000 and Profit is ` 3,50,000, then what is the amount of Contribution?
(a) ` 1,00,000 (b) ` 6,00,000
(c) ` 3,75,000 (d) ` 4,10,000
14. If Sales are ` 50,000 and P/V Ratio is 20%, then what is the amount of Variable Cost?
(a) ` 40,000 (b) ` 10,000
(c) ` 25,000 (d) ` 30,000
15. If contribution is ` 3,00,000 and Profit is ` 1,00,000, then what is the amount of Fixed Cost?
(a) ` 4,00,000 (b) `2,00,000
(c) ` 2,50,000 (d) `3,00,000
16. If Sales are ` 3,00,000 and P/V ratio is 20%, then what is the amount of Variable Cost?
(a) ` 2,40,000 (b) ` 80,000
(c) ` 2,70,000 (d) ` 2,00,000
17. The correct formula of Contribution is ______________.
(a) Contribution = Sales – Variable Cost
(b) Contribution = Fixed Cost + Profit or – Loss
(c) Contribution = Sales × P/ V Ratio
(d) All of the above
18. The correct formula of P/V Ratio is ____________.
(a) P/ V Ratio = [Contribution/Sales ] × 100
(b) P/ V Ratio = [Change in Profit/Change in Sales ] × 100
(c) P/ V Ratio = [Sales−Variable Cost/Sales] × 100
(d) All of the above
19. Marginal Costing is a Costing ______________.
(a) Technique (b) Method
(c) System (d) Convention
20. Under absorption and over absorption of overheads problems are not arisen under
______________.
(a) Marginal Costing (b) Standard Costing
(c) Job Costing (d) Budgetary Control
21. Standard cost is the ______________ cost.
(a) Pre-determined (b) Pre-decided
(c) Pre-planned (d) None of the above
22. Small organizations cannot adopt ______________ technique.
(a) Standard Costing (b) Marginal Costing
(c) Budgetary Control (d) None of the above
24 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
23. ______________ means difference between standard cost and actual cost.
(a) Balance Cost (b) Variance
(c) Marginal Cost (d) Variable Cost
24. ______________ helps management to understand the present costs and then to control the
future costs.
(a) ABC Analysis (b) Variance Analysis
(c) Marginal Analysis (d) Budget Analysis
25. Variances are classified in ______________ categories.
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
26. If Standard Cost ` 80 and Actual Cost ` 70, then what is the amount of Material Cost
Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 150 (d) 20
27. If Standard Price ` 8 & Standard Qty.10, Actual Price ` 7 & Actual Qty.10, then what is the
amount of Material Price Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 150 (d) 20
28. If Standard Price ` 8 & Standard Qty.10, Actual Price ` 7 & Actual Qty.10, then what is the
amount of Material Usage Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 50 (d) 0
29. If Standard Rate ` 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ` 2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Cost Variance?
(a) 600 (b) –600
(c) 500 (d) 400
30. If Standard Rate ` 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ` 2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Rate Variance?
(a) 750 (b) –750
(c) 600 (d) 400
31. If Standard Rate ` 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate `2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Efficiency Variance?
(a) 150 (b) –150
(c) 300 (d) 200
32. The correct formula for verification of Material Cost Variance is ______________.
(a) MCV = MPV + MUV (b) MCV = MPV – MUV
(c) MCV = MPV × MUV (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 25
33. The correct formula for verification of Labour Cost Variance is ______________.
(a) LCV = LRV + LEV (b) LCV = LRV – LEV
(c) LCV = LRV × LEV (d) None of the above
34. In Standard Costing comparison between ______________ is carried out.
(a) Standard Cost and Actual Cost (b) Fixed Cost and Variable Cost
(c) Normal Cost and Abnormal Cost (d) None of the above
35. The Disadvantages of Standard Costing is/are ______________.
(a) Establishments of standards are difficult in practice.
(b) Standards are requires to revise continuously.
(c) Inaccurate, unreliable and outdated standards do more harm than benefit
(d) All of the above
36. ______________ is a concrete precise picture of the total operation of an enterprise in
monetary terms.
(a) Budget (b) Plan
(c) Strategy (d) Goal
37. Accuracy cannot be maintained is a limitation of ______________.
(a) Budgetary Control (b) Scientific Planning
(c) Standard Costing (d) Marginal Costing
38. Pre- requisitions for effective implementation of Budgetary Control system is/are
______________.
(a) Deciding budget centres & budget period
(b) Preparation of a budget manual
(c) Determination of budget key factor
(d) All of the above
39. ______________ is the budget in which adjustment is possible according to change in
business conditions.
(a) Flexible Budget (b) Fixed Budget
(c) Sales Budget (d) Cash Budget
40. When forecasts about budget shows greater revenue to be received or generated than the
expenses to be incurred during budgeted period that is known as ______________.
(a) Surplus Budget (b) Best Budget
(c) Favourable Budget (d) Non-favourable Budget
41. ______________ budget highlights that the expenditures to be incurred in budget period will
be greater than the revenues to be received during the same period.
(a) Surplus Budget (b) Deficit Budget
(c) Favourable Budget (d) Non-favourable Budget
26 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
42. The establishment of budgets relating the responsibilities of executives to the requirements of
a policy and the continuous comparison of actual with budgeted results, either to secure by
individual action the objective of that policy or to provide basis for its revision is called as
______________.
(a) Budget (b) Budgeting
(c) Budgetary Control (d) None of the above
43. A ______________ is a powerful tool available to the management for the purpose of
maximizing profits.
(a) Budget (b) Decrease in selling price
(c) Standard Norm (d) Increase in selling price
44. Fixed Budget is also known as ______________.
(a) Static Budget (b) Standard Budget
(c) Master Budget (d) Flexible Budget
45. Normal Profit means ______________.
(a) No Profit No Loss (b) Less Profit
(c) Expected Profit (d) None of the above
46. Personnel Budget is also called as ______________.
(a) Cost Budget (b) Labour Budget
(c) Employee Budget (d) None of the above
47. In cash budget, ______________ transactions are considered.
(a) Cash (b) Credit
(c) all financial (d) None of the above
48. Budget is prepared for a ______________ period of time.
(a) Fixed (b) One Month
(c) One Year (d) None of the above
49. Purchase Budget is also called as ______________.
(a) Production Budget (b) Material Budget
(c) Cost Budget (d) None of the above
50. ______________ is the plan of proposed investment in the fixed assets.
(a) Fixed Budget (b) Capital Expenditure Budget
(c) Cash Budget (d) Purchase Budget
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 27
Dr. D. Y. Patil Unitech Society’s
Dr. D.Y. PATIL INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT & RESEARCH,
Sant Tukaram Nagar, Pimpri, Pune-411018, Maharashtra, India.
33. are the amounts the business earns by selling its products or providing
services to customers.
(a) Assets (b) Goods
(c) Investments (d) Revenues
34. are the costs incurred by a business in the process of earning revenue.
(a) Assets (b) Expenses
(c) Investments (d) Revenues
35. are persons and/or other entities who owe to an enterprise an amount for
receiving goods and services on credit.
(a) Debtors (b) Creditors
(c) Shareholders (d) Suppliers
36. are persons and/or other entities that have to be paid by an enterprise an
amount for providing the enterprise goods and services on credit.
(a) Debtors (b) Creditors
(c) Shareholders (d) Customers
37. is a list of the entire general ledger account names and balances; it is
prepared to prove the ledger.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Trial Balance
38. The difference of two sides of an account is called as .
(a) Debit (b) Credit
(c) Balance (d) Cash
39. deals with expenses related to or identified with products, which may only
be a part of the organization.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
40. In stocks are valued at lower of cost or market value.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
41. The primary objective of is to provide necessary information to the
management in the process of its planning, controlling, and performance evaluation, and
decision-making.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
42. The Success of does not depend upon Management Accounting system.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
43. In no statutory requirement of audit for reports.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 11
44. Which is the most popular and acceptable software?
(a) Tally (b) Marg
(c) Saral (d) SAP
45. The Advantage/s of Accounting Software .
(a) Accounting softwares save Time and Money.
(b) No scope for mistakes and errors.
(c) Provides accurate and updated information as and when require(d)
(d) All of the above
46. Internal and external parties are the users of .
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
47. Capital A/c generally shows balance.
(a) Cash (b) Debit
(c) Credit (d) Overdraft
48. Asset A/c shows balance.
(a) Cash (b) Debit
(c) Credit (d) Overdraft
49. There are columns in Journal.
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) Five
50. Explanatory note written below an entry recorded in the Journal is called as .
(a) Narration (b) Explanation
(c) Brief information (d) Detail information
Chapter 2
Understanding of Financial Statements
1. shows the firm’s assets, liabilities, and stockholders’ equity as of the report
date.
(a) Cash Flow (b) Funds Flow
(c) Income Statement (d) Balance Sheet
2. shows the results of the firm’s operations and financial activities for the
reporting period.
(a) Trading and Profit & Loss Account (b) Expense Statement
(c) Income Statement (d) Balance Sheet
3. includes explanations of various activities, additional details of some
accounts, and other items as mandated by the regulatory authorities, bodies from time to time.
(a) Trading and Profit & Loss Account (b) Expense Statement
(c) Income Statement (d) Supplementary Note
4. is a formal official record of the financial activities and position of a
business, person, or other entity.
(a) Financial Statement (b) Trading Account
(c) Profit & Loss Account (d) Supplementary Note
5. provides the vital information related to the profitability, liquidity and
solvency of the business.
(a) Financial Statement (b) Trading Account
(c) Profit & Loss Account (d) Cash Flow & Funds Flow
6. is the simplest business form under which one can operate a business.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole Trading Firm
(c) Private Ltd. Company (d) Public Company
7. is not a separate legal entity.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole Proprietorship Firm
(c) Private Ltd. Company (d) One Man Company
8. For every item given in Trial Balance, effect should be given.
(a) Dual (b) Single
(c) Triple (d) None of the above
9. For every item given in Adjustment, effect should be given.
(a) Dual (b) Single
(c) Triple (d) None of the above
10. are nothing but the entries which are not included in the original Trial
Balance.
(a) Journal Proper (b) Ledger
(c) Adjustments (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 11
11. Every adjustment has two effects, i.e., .
(a) One Debit & One Credit (b) Debit
(c) Credit (d) None of the above
12. Depreciation is debited to .
(a) BRS (b) Balance Sheet
(c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
13. Income Accrued but Not Received is recorded to .
(a) Profit and Loss A/c Debit Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side
(c) Trading A/c Debit Side (d) Trading A/c Credit Side
14. Prepaid Expenses shown at .
(a) Balance Sheet Asset Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side
(c) Trading A/c Debit Side (d) Trading A/c Credit Side
15. Closing Stock is recorded to .
(a) Profit and Loss A/c Debit Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side
(c) Trading A/c Debit Side (d) Trading A/c Credit Side
16. Outstanding Expenses shown at .
(a) Balance Sheet Liability Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side
(c) Balance Sheet Asset Side (d) Trading A/c Credit Side
17. Goods Withdrawn from business is considered as .
(a) Sales (b) Purchases
(c) Capital (d) Drawings
18. Interest on Capital is debited to .
(a) Capital A/c (b) Balance Sheet
(c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
19. Interest on Drawings is credited to .
(a) Journal A/c (b) Balance Sheet
(c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
20. Goods Distributed as Free Samples is debited to .
(a) Capital A/c (b) Personal A/c
(c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
21. Reserve for Discount on Creditors is credited to .
(a) Capital A/c (b) Personal A/c
(c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
22. information is ignored in the financial statements.
(a) Cash (b) Credit
(c) Qualitative (d) Quantitative
23. The financial statements are based on the accounting .
(a) Accounting Concepts and Conventions
(b) Accounting Concepts
10 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
12. If Fixed Cost is Rs. 2,50,000 and P/V Ratio is 60%, then what is BEP in
`? (a) ` 4,16,667 (b) ` 3,83,333
(c) ` 3,75,000 (d) ` 4,10,000
13. If Fixed Cost is Rs. 2,50,000 and Profit is Rs. 3,50,000, then what is the amount of
Contribution? (a) ` 1,00,000 (b) ` 6,00,000
(c) ` 3,75,000 (d) ` 4,10,000
14. If Sales are Rs. 50,000 and P/V Ratio is 20%, then what is the amount of Variable
Cost? (a) ` 40,000 (b) ` 10,000
(c) ` 25,000 (d) ` 30,000
15. If contribution is Rs. 3,00,000 and Profit is ` 1,00,000, then what is the amount of Fixed
Cost? (a) ` 4,00,000 (b) `2,00,000
(c) ` 2,50,000 (d) `3,00,000
16. If Sales are Rs. 3,00,000 and P/V ratio is 20%, then what is the amount of Variable
Cost? (a) ` 2,40,000 (b) ` 80,000
(c) ` 2,70,000 (d) ` 2,00,000
17. The correct formula of Contribution is .
(a) Contribution = Sales – Variable Cost
(b) Contribution = Fixed Cost + Profit or – Loss
(c) Contribution = Sales × P/ V Ratio
(d) All of the above
18. The correct formula of P/V Ratio is .
(a) P/ V Ratio = [Contribution/Sales ] × 100
(b) P/ V Ratio = [Change in Profit/Change in Sales ] × 100
(c) P/ V Ratio = [Sales−Variable Cost/Sales] × 100
(d) All of the above
19. Marginal Costing is a Costing .
(a) Technique (b) Method
(c) System (d) Convention
20. Under absorption and over absorption of overheads problems are not arisen under
.
(a) Marginal Costing (b) Standard Costing
(c) Job Costing (d) Budgetary Control
21. Standard cost is the cost.
(a) Pre-determined (b) Pre-decided
(c) Pre-planned (d) None of the above
22. Small organizations cannot adopt technique.
(a) Standard Costing (b) Marginal Costing
(c) Budgetary Control (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 11
23. means difference between standard cost and actual cost.
(a) Balance Cost (b) Variance
(c) Marginal Cost (d) Variable Cost
24. helps management to understand the present costs and then to control the
future costs.
(a) ABC Analysis (b) Variance Analysis
(c) Marginal Analysis (d) Budget Analysis
25. Variances are classified in categories.
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
26. If Standard Cost Rs. 80 and Actual Cost Rs. 70, then what is the amount of Material Cost
Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 150 (d) 20
27. If Standard Price Rs. 8 & Standard Qty.10, Actual Price Rs. 7 & Actual Qty.10, then what is
the amount of Material Price Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 150 (d) 20
28. If Standard Price Rs. 8 & Standard Qty.10, Actual Price Rs. 7 & Actual Qty.10, then what is
the amount of Material Usage Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 50 (d) 0
29. If Standard Rate Rs. 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ` 2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Cost Variance?
(a) 600 (b) –600
(c) 500 (d) 400
30. If Standard Rate Rs. 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ` 2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Rate Variance?
(a) 750 (b) –750
(c) 600 (d) 400
31. If Standard Rate Rs. 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate Rs. 2 & Actual Hours 1500,
then what is the amount of Labour Efficiency Variance?
(a) 150 (b) –150
(c) 300 (d) 200
32. The correct formula for verification of Material Cost Variance is .
(a) MCV = MPV + MUV (b) MCV = MPV – MUV
(c) MCV = MPV × MUV (d) None of the above
10 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
Chapter 3 - Demand and Supply - Sample Questions
Answers are at the end fo this file
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) A relative price is 1)
A) the ratio of one price to another.
B) the difference between one price and another.
C) the slope of the supply curve.
D) the slope of the demand curve.
2) If the price of a candy bar is $1 and the price of a fast food meal is $5, 2)
A) the money price of a fast food meal is 1/5 of a candy bar.
B) the money price of a candy bar is 1/5 of a fast food meal.
C) the relative price of a fast food meal is 5 candy bars.
D) the relative price of a candy bar is 5 fast food meals.
1
7) Demands differ from wants in that 7)
A) wants require a plan to acquire a good but demands require no such plan.
B) demands are unlimited, whereas wants are limited by income.
C) wants imply a decision about which demands to satisfy, while demands involve no specific
plan to acquire the good.
D) demands reflect a decision about which wants to satisfy and a plan to buy the good, while
wants are unlimited and involve no specific plan to acquire the good.
10) The law of demand states that, other things remaining the same, the higher the price of a good, the 10)
A) smaller is the demand for the good.
B) smaller is the quantity of the good demanded.
C) larger is the quantity of the good demanded.
D) larger is the demand for the good.
11) The law of demand implies that, other things remaining the same, 11)
A) as the demand for cheeseburgers increases, the price of a cheeseburger will fall.
B) as the price of a cheeseburger rises, the quantity of cheeseburgers demanded will decrease.
C) as income increases, the quantity of cheeseburgers demanded will increase.
D) as the price of a cheeseburger rises, the quantity of cheeseburgers demanded will increase.
12) The law of demand states that the quantity of a good demanded varies 12)
A) inversely with its price.
B) directly with population.
C) directly with income.
D) inversely with the price of substitute goods.
13) Which of the following is consistent with the law of demand? 13)
A) A decrease in the price of a gallon of milk causes a decrease in the quantity of milk demanded.
B) An increase in the price of a soda causes a decrease in the quantity of soda demanded.
C) An increase in the price of a tape causes an increase in the quantity of tapes demanded.
D) A decrease in the price of juice causes no change in the quantity of juice demanded.
2
14) The law of demand implies that if nothing else changes, there is 14)
A) a linear relationship between price of a good and the quantity demanded.
B) a positive relationship between the price of a good and the quantity demanded.
C) a negative relationship between the price of a good and the quantity demanded.
D) an exponential relationship between price of a good and the quantity demanded.
15) Which of the following influences people's buying plans and varies moving along a demand curve? 15)
A) preferences B) the price of the good
C) income D) the prices of related goods
19) A drop in the price of a compact disc shifts the demand curve for prerecorded tapes leftward. From 19)
that you know compact discs and prerecorded tapes are
A) normal goods. B) substitutes. C) inferior goods. D) complements.
21) People buy more of good 1 when the price of good 2 rises. These goods are 21)
A) normal goods. B) complements. C) substitutes. D) inferior goods.
22) Which of the following pairs of goods are most likely substitutes? 22)
A) compact discs and compact disc players B) lettuce and salad dressing
C) cola and lemon lime soda D) peanut butter and gasoline
3
23) The demand for a good increases when the price of a substitute ________ and also increases when 23)
the price of a complement ________.
A) falls; falls B) rises; falls C) rises; rises D) falls; rises
25) Suppose people buy more of good 1 when the price of good 2 falls. These goods are 25)
A) substitutes. B) inferior. C) normal. D) complements.
27) People come to expect that the price of a gallon of gasoline will rise next week. As a result, 27)
A) next week's supply of gasoline decreases.
B) the price of a gallon of gasoline falls today.
C) today's supply of gasoline increases.
D) today's demand for gasoline increases.
28) The demand curve for a normal good shifts leftward if income ________ or the expected future 28)
price ________.
A) decreases; falls B) increases; rises C) increases; falls D) decreases; rises
31) Normal goods are those for which demand decreases as 31)
A) the price of a substitute falls. B) the price of a complement falls.
C) the good's own price rises. D) income decreases.
4
32) A normal good is a good for which 32)
A) there are very few complements.
B) demand decreases when income increases.
C) demand increases when income increases.
D) there are few substitutes.
35) Inferior goods are those for which demand increases as 35)
A) income decreases. B) income increases.
C) the price of a substitute rises. D) the price of a substitute falls.
37) If a good is an inferior good, then purchases of that good will decrease when 37)
A) the demand for it increases. B) population increases.
C) income increases. D) the price of a substitute rises.
39) When economists speak of preferences as influencing demand, they are referring to 39)
A) the availability of a good to all income classes.
B) directly observable changes in prices and income.
C) the excess of wants over the available supplies.
D) an individual's attitudes toward goods and services.
40) In 2000 there were 200,000 gas grills demanded at a price of $500. In 2001 there were more than 40)
200,000 gas grills demanded at the same price. This increase could be the result any of the
following EXCEPT
A) an increase in the supply of gas grills.
B) an increase in population.
C) an increase in income if gas grills are a normal good.
D) a fall in the price of natural gas, a complement for a gas grill.
5
41) A change in the price of a good 41)
A) shifts the good's demand curve but does not cause a movement along it.
B) does not shift the good's demand curve but does cause a movement along it.
C) shifts the good's demand curve and also causes a movement along it.
D) neither shifts the good's demand curve nor causes a movement along it.
44) A change in which of the following alters buying plans for cars but does NOT shift the demand 44)
curve for cars?
A) a 10 percent decrease in the price of car insurance
B) a 20 percent increase in the price of a car
C) a 5 percent increase in people's income
D) an increased preference for walking rather than driving
45) Which of the following would NOT shift the demand curve for turkey? 45)
A) a change in tastes for turkey B) a decrease in the price of ham
C) an increase in income D) a change in the price of a turkey
6
47) In the figure above, which movement reflects an increase in demand? 47)
A) from point a to point e B) from point a to point c
C) from point a to point b D) from point a to point d
48) In the figure above, which movement reflects a decrease in demand? 48)
A) from point a to point d B) from point a to point e
C) from point a to point c D) from point a to point b
49) In the figure above, which movement reflects a decrease in quantity demanded but NOT a 49)
decrease in demand?
A) from point a to point c B) from point a to point e
C) from point a to point d D) from point a to point b
50) In the figure above, which movement reflects how consumers would react to an increase in the 50)
price of a non-fruit snack?
A) from point a to point b B) from point a to point d
C) from point a to point c D) from point a to point e
51) In the figure above, which movement reflects an increase in the price of a substitute for fruit 51)
snacks?
A) from point a to point d B) from point a to point e
C) from point a to point b D) from point a to point c
52) In the figure above, which movement reflects an increase in the price of a complement for fruit 52)
snacks?
A) from point a to point b B) from point a to point d
C) from point a to point e D) from point a to point c
7
53) In the figure above, which movement reflects how consumers would react to an increase in the 53)
price of a fruit snack that is expected to occur in the future?
A) from point a to point b B) from point a to point e
C) from point a to point c D) from point a to point d
54) In the figure above, which movement reflects an increase in income if fruit snacks are an inferior 54)
good?
A) from point a to point d B) from point a to point c
C) from point a to point b D) from point a to point e
55) In the figure above, which movement reflects an increase in income if fruit snacks are a normal 55)
good?
A) from point a to point d B) from point a to point e
C) from point a to point b D) from point a to point c
56) In the figure above, which movement reflects a decrease in population? 56)
A) from point a to point d B) from point a to point c
C) from point a to point e D) from point a to point b
58) The quantity supplied of a good or service is the quantity that a producer 58)
A) actually sells at a particular price during a given time period.
B) should sell at a particular price during a given time period.
C) is willing to sell at a particular price during a given time period.
D) needs to sell at a particular price during a given time period.
59) A fall in the price of a good causes producers to reduce the quantity of the good they are willing to 59)
produce. This fact illustrates
A) a change in supply. B) the law of demand.
C) the nature of an inferior good. D) the law of supply.
8
61) Because of increasing marginal cost, most supply curves 61)
A) are horizontal. B) have a negative slope.
C) are vertical. D) have a positive slope.
62) A supply curve shows the relation between the quantity of a good supplied and 62)
A) the price of the good. Usually a supply curve has negative slope.
B) income. Usually a supply curve has positive slope.
C) income. Usually a supply curve has negative slope.
D) the price of the good. Usually a supply curve has positive slope.
63) A supply curve differs from a supply schedule because a supply curve 63)
A) is a graph and the supply schedule is a table.
B) holds the number of suppliers constant, whereas the supply schedule allows the number to
vary.
C) holds resource prices constant, whereas the supply schedule allows them to vary.
D) represents one firm, whereas the supply schedule represents all firms in the market.
64) Which of the following is NOT held constant while moving along a supply curve? 64)
A) prices of resources used in production B) expected future prices
C) the number of sellers D) the price of the good itself
65) If a producer can use resources to produce either good A or good B, then A and B are 65)
A) substitutes in consumption. B) complements in consumption.
C) complements in production. D) substitutes in production.
66) Good A and good B are substitutes in production. The demand for good A increases so that the 66)
price of good A rises. The increase in the price of good A shifts the
A) demand curve for good B rightward. B) demand curve for good B leftward.
C) supply curve of good B rightward. D) supply curve of good B leftward.
67) Blank tapes and prerecorded tapes are substitutes in production. An increase in the price of a blank 67)
tape will cause
A) a decrease in the supply of prerecorded tapes.
B) an increase in the quantity supplied of prerecorded tapes but not in the supply.
C) a decrease in the quantity supplied of prerecorded tapes but not in the supply.
D) an increase in the supply of prerecorded tapes.
68) Good A and good B are substitutes in production. The demand for good A decreases, which lowers 68)
the price of good A. The decrease in the price of good A
A) increases the demand for good B. B) decreases the demand for good B.
C) increases the supply of good B. D) decreases the supply of good B.
9
69) An increase in the number of fast-food restaurants 69)
A) increases the demand for substitutes for fast-food meals.
B) raises the price of fast-food meals.
C) increases the supply of fast-food meals.
D) increases the demand for fast-food meals.
70) Over the past decade technological improvements that have lowered the cost of producing an 70)
automobile have increased
A) the demand but not the supply of automobiles.
B) both the supply and the demand for automobiles.
C) the supply but not the demand for automobiles.
D) neither the supply nor the demand for automobiles.
71) Which of the following will shift the supply curve for good X leftward? 71)
A) a situation in which quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied
B) an increase in the cost of the machinery used to produce X
C) a decrease in the wages of workers employed to produce X
D) a technological improvement in the production of X
72) Which of the following does NOT shift the supply curve? 72)
A) an increase in the price of the good
B) a fall in the price of a substitute in production
C) a decrease in the wages of labor used in production of the good
D) a technological advance
73) If the price of a good changes but everything else influencing suppliers' planned sales remains 73)
constant, there is a
A) rotation of the initial supply curve around the initial price.
B) new supply curve that is to the right of the initial supply curve.
C) new supply curve that is to the left of the initial supply curve.
D) movement along the supply curve.
75) Which of the following causes an increase in the quantity supplied of good X but NOT in the 75)
supply of good X?
A) an increase in the price of X
B) an increase in the price of good Y, a complement in the production of X
C) an improvement in the technology for producing X
D) a reduction in the price of resources used to produce X
10
76) In the figure above, an increase in the supply of oil would result in a movement from 76)
A) point a to point d. B) point a to point e.
C) point a to point b. D) point a to point c.
77) In the figure above, an increase in the quantity of oil supplied but NOT in the supply of oil is 77)
shown by a movement from
A) point a to point c. B) point a to point b.
C) point a to point e. D) point a to point d.
78) In the figure above, a decrease in the quantity of oil supplied but NOT in the supply of oil is shown 78)
by a movement from
A) point a to point e. B) point a to point d.
C) point a to point b. D) point a to point c.
79) In the figure above, which movement could be caused by an increase in the wages of oil workers? 79)
A) point a to point d B) point a to point b
C) point a to point c D) point a to point e
80) In the figure above, which movement could be caused by the development of a new, more efficient 80)
refining technology?
A) point a to point e B) point a to point c
C) point a to point b D) point a to point d
11
81) The figure above represents the market for candy. People become more concerned that eating 81)
candy causes them to gain weight, which they do not like. As a result, the
A) demand curve will not shift, and the supply curve shifts from S1 to S2.
B) demand curve shifts from D1 to D2and the supply curve shifts from S1 to S2.
C) demand curve shifts from D2 to D1 and the supply curve shifts from S2 to S1.
D) demand curve shifts from D2 to D1 and the supply curve will not shift.
82) The above figure represents the market for oil. Because of the development of a new deep sea 82)
drilling technology the
A) demand curve shifts from D1 to D2 and the supply curve shifts from S1 to S2.
B) demand curve shifts from D1 to D2 and the supply curve will not shift.
C) demand curve will not shift, and the supply curve shifts from S1 to S2.
D) demand curve will not shift, and the supply curve shifts from S2 to S1.
83) The above figure represents the market for oil. When terrorists blow up a major refinery the 83)
A) demand curve for oil will not shift, and the supply curve for oil shifts from S2 to S1.
B) demand curve for oil shifts from D1 to D2 and the supply curve for oil will not shift.
C) demand curve for oil shifts from D1 to D2 and the supply curve for oil shifts from S2 to S1.
D) demand curve for oil will not shift, and the supply curve for oil shifts from S1 to S2.
84) The above figure represents the market for bicycles. When there is a physical fitness craze the 84)
A) demand curve for bicycles shifts from D1 to D2.
B) demand curve for bicycles shifts from D2 to D1.
C) supply curve of bicycles shifts from S1 to S2.
D) demand curve and the supply curve of bicycles do not shift.
12
85) The above figure represents the market for french fries at fast food joints. If the price of potatoes 85)
rises and simultaneously people become concerned that french fries can cause heart attacks
A) the demand curve for french fries will shift from D2 to D1 and the supply curve of french fries
will shift from S2 to S1.
B) the demand curve for french fries will shift from D2 to D1 and the supply curve of french fries
will not shift.
C) the demand curve for french fries will not shift, and the supply curve of french fries will shift
from S1 to S2.
D) the demand curve for french fries will shift from D2 to D1 and the supply curve of french fries
will shift from S1 to S2.
13
88) In the above figure, if the demand curve is D2, then 88)
A) an increase in price will cause the demand curve to shift to D3.
B) the equilibrium price will be P1 and the equilibrium quantity will be Q2.
C) the equilibrium price will be P1 and the equilibrium quantity will be Q1.
D) there will be a shortage equal to Q2 - Q1.
89) When the price is below the equilibrium price, the quantity demanded 89)
A) is less than the equilibrium quantity. The quantity supplied exceeds the equilibrium quantity.
B) exceeds the equilibrium quantity. The quantity supplied is less than the equilibrium quantity.
C) exceeds the equilibrium quantity. So does the quantity supplied.
D) is less than the equilibrium quantity. So is the quantity supplied.
91) Which of the following correctly describes how price adjustments eliminate a shortage? 91)
A) As the price falls, the quantity demanded increases while the quantity supplied decreases.
B) As the price rises, the quantity demanded decreases while the quantity supplied increases.
C) As the price falls, the quantity demanded decreases while the quantity supplied increases.
D) As the price rises, the quantity demanded increases while the quantity supplied decreases.
14
93) If the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied, then there is 93)
A) a shortage and the price is above the equilibrium price.
B) a surplus and the price is below the equilibrium price.
C) a shortage and the price is below the equilibrium price.
D) a surplus and the price is above the equilibrium price.
95) If the quantity supplied exceeds the quantity demanded, then there is 95)
A) a shortage and the price is below the equilibrium price.
B) a surplus and the price is below the equilibrium price.
C) a surplus and the price is above the equilibrium price.
D) a shortage and the price is above the equilibrium price.
15
98) The equilibrium quantity in the above figure is 98)
A) 400 units. B) 300 units. C) 600 units. D) 200 units.
101) If the good in the above figure is a normal good and income rises, then the new equilibrium 101)
quantity
A) is more than 300 units.
B) is less than 300 units.
C) could be less than, equal to, or more than 300 units.
D) is 300 units.
102) The initial supply and demand curves for a good are illustrated in the above figure. If there are 102)
technological advances in the production of the good, then the new price for the good
A) is $6.
B) is more than $6.
C) could be less than, equal to, or more than $6.
D) is less than $6.
103) The initial supply and demand curves for a good are illustrated in the above figure. If there is a rise 103)
in the price of the resources used to produce the good, then the new price
A) is less than $6.
B) is more than $6.
C) could be less than, equal to, or more than $6.
D) is $6.
16
The Market for Wapanzo Beans
Quantity Demanded Price Quantity Supplied
(millions of pounds (dollars per (millions of pounds
per year) pound) per year)
Case Case Case Case Case Case
1 2 3 A B C
15 10 5 1 2 3
12 8 4 2 2 4 6
9 6 3 3 3 6 9
6 3 2 4 4 8 12
3 2 1 5 5 10 15
104) Refer to the table above. Suppose that in normal years demand is represented by Case 2 and 104)
supply is represented by Case B. In a normal year the price of wapanzo beans will be
A) $3 per pound. B) $4 per pound. C) $2 per pound. D) $1 per pound.
105) Refer to the table above. Suppose that in normal years demand is represented by Case 2 and 105)
supply is represented by Case B. In a normal year the equilibrium quantity of wapanzo beans will
be
A) 8 million pounds. B) 4 million pounds.
C) 6 million pounds. D) 2 million pounds.
106) Refer to the table above. Suppose that in normal years demand is represented by Case 2 and 106)
supply is represented by Case B. If there is a drought in the wapanzo bean growing region then
supply will ________ and demand will ________.
A) stay at case B; become case 3 B) stay at case B; become case 1
C) become case A; become case 1 D) become case A; stay at case 2
107) Refer to the table above. Suppose that in normal years demand is represented by Case 2 and 107)
supply is represented by Case B. If there is exceptionally good growing weather in the wapanzo
bean growing region then supply will ________ and demand will ________.
A) stay at case B; become case 1 B) become case C; stay at case 2
C) become case C; become case 3 D) become case C; become case 1
108) Refer to the table above. Suppose that in normal years demand is represented by Case 2 and 108)
supply is represented by Case B. If it is discovered that wapanzo beans help prevent cancer then
supply will ________ and demand will ________.
A) stay at case B; become case 1 B) become case C; stay at case 2
C) become case A; become case 1 D) become case C; become case 1
109) When the demand for a good decreases, its equilibrium price ________ and equilibrium quantity 109)
________.
A) rises; decreases B) falls; decreases C) falls; increases D) rises; increases
17
110) If good A is a normal good and income increases, the equilibrium price of A 110)
A) and the equilibrium quantity will increase.
B) and the equilibrium quantity will decrease.
C) will rise and the equilibrium quantity will decrease.
D) will fall and the equilibrium quantity will increase.
111) The price of a gallon of milk falls. Which of the following is a possible cause? 111)
A) a discovery that milk cause diabetes
B) a drought that reduces supplies of feed grains fed to cows that produce milk
C) an increase in the income of the average household, with milk being a normal good
D) a decrease in the price of oatmeal, a complement to milk
112) Assume that beef and pork are substitutes for consumers. There is a drought in the cattle grazing 112)
areas. The drought will cause the
A) supply curve for pork to shift rightward. B) supply curve for pork to shift leftward.
C) demand curve for pork to shift leftward. D) demand curve for pork to shift rightward.
114) Goods A and B are complementary goods (in consumption). The cost of a resource used in the 114)
production of A decreases. As a result,
A) the equilibrium price of B will fall and the equilibrium price of A will rise.
B) the equilibrium prices of both A and B will rise.
C) the equilibrium price of B will rise and the equilibrium price of A will fall.
D) the equilibrium prices of both A and B will fall.
115) When demand decreases and supply does not change, the equilibrium price 115)
A) rises and the equilibrium quantity decreases.
B) rises and the equilibrium quantity increases.
C) falls and the equilibrium quantity increases.
D) falls and the equilibrium quantity decreases.
116) When supply decreases and demand does not change, the equilibrium quantity 116)
A) decreases and the price rises. B) increases and the price falls.
C) decreases and the price falls. D) increases and the price rises.
18
117) Beef and leather belts are complements in production. If people's concern about health shifts the 117)
demand curve for beef leftward, the result in the market for leather belts will be a
A) lower equilibrium price for a leather belt because there is an increase in the supply of leather
belts.
B) higher equilibrium price for a leather belt because there is a decrease in the supply of leather
belts.
C) lower equilibrium price for a leather belt because there is a decrease in the supply of leather
belts.
D) higher equilibrium price for a leather belt because there is an increase in the supply of leather
belts.
118) You observe that the price of a good rises and the quantity decreases. These observations can be 118)
the result of
A) the supply curve shifting rightward. B) the demand curve shifting rightward.
C) the demand curve shifting leftward. D) the supply curve shifting leftward.
119) Leather belts and leather shoes are substitutes in production. If style changes increase the demand 119)
for leather belts, the supply curve of leather shoes will shift
A) rightward and the equilibrium price of leather shoes will fall.
B) leftward and the equilibrium price of leather shoes will rise.
C) leftward and the equilibrium price of leather shoes will fall.
D) rightward and the equilibrium price of leather shoes will rise.
120) If both demand and supply increase, what will be the effect on the equilibrium price and quantity? 120)
A) The price will rise but the quantity could either increase, decrease, or remain the same.
B) The quantity will increase but the price could either rise, fall, or remain the same.
C) Both the price and the quantity will increase.
D) The price will fall but the quantity will increase.
121) If both the demand and supply increase, the equilibrium quantity 121)
A) decreases and the price rises.
B) increases and the effect on price is indeterminate.
C) decreases and the effect on price is indeterminate.
D) increases and the price falls.
122) The price will rise and the equilibrium quantity might increase, decrease, or stay the same when 122)
the
A) demand and the supply of a good both increase.
B) demand and the supply of a good both decrease.
C) demand for a good decreases and the supply of it increases.
D) demand for a good increases and the supply of it decreases.
19
123) The price will fall and the equilibrium quantity might increase, decrease, or stay the same when the 123)
A) demand for a good increases and the supply of it decreases.
B) demand and the supply of a good both decrease.
C) demand for a good decreases and the supply of it increases.
D) demand and the supply of a good both increase.
124) The equilibrium quantity will decrease and the price might rise, fall, or stay the same when the 124)
A) demand and the supply of a good both decrease.
B) demand for a good increases and the supply of it decreases.
C) demand for a good decreases and the supply of it increases.
D) demand and the supply of a good both increase.
125) The equilibrium quantity of a good will increase and its equilibrium price might rise, fall, or stay 125)
the same when
A) its demand decreases and supply increases.
B) its demand increases and supply decreases.
C) its demand and supply both increase.
D) its demand and supply both decrease.
126) The price of compact disc players fell over the past decade because a combination of improving 126)
technology, rising incomes, and falling prices of compact discs caused the
A) demand curve for compact disc players to shift rightward faster than the supply curve of
compact disc players shifted rightward.
B) supply curve of compact disc players to shift rightward faster than the demand curve for
compact disc players shifted rightward.
C) demand curve for compact disc players to shift leftward and the supply curve of compact disc
players to shift leftward.
D) supply curve of compact disc players to shift rightward and the demand curve for compact
disc players to shift leftward.
127) Which of the following will always raise the equilibrium price? 127)
A) an increase in demand combined with a decrease in supply
B) a decrease in both demand and supply
C) an increase in both demand and supply
D) a decrease in demand combined with an increase in supply
20
128) In the above figure, a change in quantity demanded with unchanged demand is represented by a 128)
movement from
A) point a to point c.
B) point a to point e.
C) point a to point b.
D) None of the above represent a change in the quantity demanded with an unchanged demand.
129) In the above figure, a change in quantity supplied with unchanged supply is represented by a 129)
movement from
A) point b to point e. B) point b to point a.
C) point e to point c. D) point a to point e.
130) In the above figure, if D2 is the demand curve, then a price of P3 would result in 130)
A) a surplus of Q3 - Q1. B) a shortage of Q4 - Q3.
C) a surplus of Q4 - Q0. D) a shortage of Q3 - Q1.
131) In the above figure, if D2 is the original demand curve for a normal good and income decreases, 131)
which price and quantity may result?
A) point c, with price P3 and quantity Q3 B) point a, with price P2 and quantity Q2
C) point b, with price P1 and quantity Q1 D) point d, with price P1 and quantity Q3
132) In the above figure, if D2 is the original demand curve and the price of a substitute in consumption 132)
rises, which price and quantity may result?
A) point c, with price P3 and quantity Q3 B) point d, with price P1 and quantity Q3
C) point a, with price P2 and quantity Q2 D) point b, with price P1 and quantity Q1
21
133) In the above figure, if D2 is the original demand curve and consumers come to expect that the price 133)
of the good will rise in the future, which price and quantity may result?
A) point a, with price P2 and quantity Q2 B) point c, with price P3 and quantity Q3
C) point d, with price P1 and quantityQ3 D) point b, with price P1 and quantity Q1.
134) In the above figure, if D2 is the original demand curve and the population falls, which price and 134)
quantity may result?
A) point d, with price P1 and quantity Q3 B) point c, with price P3 and quantity Q3
C) point b, with price P1 and quantity Q1 D) point a, with price P2 and quantity Q2
135) In the figure, the equilibrium price is initially $3 per bushel of wheat. If suppliers come to expect 135)
that the price of a bushel of wheat will rise in the future, but buyers do not, the current equilibrium
price will
A) not change.
B) fall.
C) rise.
D) perhaps rise, fall, or stay the same, depending on whether there are more demanders or
suppliers in the market.
136) In the figure, the equilibrium price is initially $3 per bushel of wheat. If buyers come to expect that 136)
the price of a bushel of wheat will rise in the future, but sellers do not, the current equilibrium price
will
A) rise.
B) fall.
C) not change.
D) perhaps rise, fall, or stay the same, depending on whether there are more demanders or
suppliers in the market.
22
137) Let Qd stand for the quantity demanded, Qs stand for the quantity supplied, and P stand for price. 137)
If Qd = 20 - 2P and Qs = 5 + 3P, then the equilibrium price is
A) $2. B) $3. C) $4. D) $1.
138) LetQd stand for the quantity demanded, Qs stand for the quantity supplied, and P stand for price. 138)
If Qd = 20 - 2P andQs = 5 + 3P, then the equilibrium quantity is
A) 14. B) 5. C) 20. D) 3.
141) If a decrease in the price of gasoline increases the demand for large cars, then 141)
A) gasoline and large cars are complements in consumption.
B) large cars are an inferior good.
C) gasoline is an inferior good.
D) gasoline and large cars are substitutes in consumption.
144) A rise in the price of a good causes producers to supply more of the good. This statement 144)
illustrates
A) the nature of an inferior good. B) the law of demand.
C) the law of supply. D) a change in supply.
23
145) The price of jet fuel falls. This fall shifts the 145)
A) supply curve of airplane trips rightward.
B) demand curve for airplane trips leftward.
C) demand curve for airplane trips rightward.
D) supply curve of airplane trips leftward.
146) If there is surplus of a good, then the quantity demanded ________ the quantity supplied and the 146)
price will ________.
A) is less than; rise B) is less than; fall
C) is greater than; fall D) is greater than; rise
147) Pizza and hamburgers are substitutes for consumers. A fall in the price of a pizza ________ the 147)
price of a hamburger and ________ the quantity of hamburgers.
A) raises; decreases B) lowers; decreases
C) raises; increases D) lowers; increases
148) How does an unusually warm winter affect the equilibrium price and quantity of gloves? 148)
A) It lowers both the price and the quantity.
B) It raises both the price and the quantity.
C) It raises the price and decreases the quantity.
D) It lowers the price and increases the quantity.
149) You notice that the price and quantity of wheat both decrease. This observation can be the result of 149)
the
A) demand curve for wheat shifting leftward.
B) supply curve of wheat shifting rightward.
C) demand curve for wheat shifting rightward.
D) supply curve of wheat shifting leftward.
150) A technological improvement lowers the cost of producing coffee. At the same time, consumers' 150)
preferences for coffee increase. The equilibrium price of coffee will
A) rise, fall, or stay the same, depending on the relative size of the shifts in the demand and
supply curves.
B) remain the same.
C) fall.
D) rise.
151) Which of the following definitely causes a fall in the equilibrium price? 151)
A) a decrease in both demand and supply
B) an increase in demand combined with a decrease in supply
C) a decrease in demand combined with an increase in supply
D) an increase in both demand and supply
24
152) CD players rise in price while pre-recorded audio tapes fall in price. The combined effect of these 152)
two changes is to create
A) a leftward shift of the demand curve for portable audio tape players, such as a Walkman.
B) a rightward shift of the demand curve for portable audio tape players, such as a Walkman.
C) a rightward shift of the supply curve for portable audio tape players, such as a Walkman.
D) a leftward shift of the supply curve of portable audio tape players, such as a Walkman.
153) Walkman Watch expects a recession to occur. Knowing that a Walkman is a normal good, you 153)
predict that the demand for a Walkman
A) will increase. B) might increase or decrease.
C) will decrease. D) will remain unchanged.
154) Wages for workers producing Walkmans and similar products will rise next year. Walkman Watch 154)
asks you to predict the effect of this change in next year's market for Walkmans. You predict that
the major effect will be that the
A) demand curve for a Walkman will shift leftward.
B) supply curve for a Walkman will shift rightward.
C) supply curve for a Walkman will shift leftward.
D) demand curve for a Walkman will shift rightward.
155) Producers of Walkmans are able to lower the wage rate that they pay to their workers. Walkman 155)
Watch asks you to predict the effect on the Walkmans. You predict that the
A) quantity supplied will decrease. B) price will rise.
C) supply curve will shift leftward. D) supply curve will shift rightward.
156) The wage rate paid by Walkman producers falls and at the same time the price of raw materials 156)
used in the production of Walkmans rises. You predict that the supply curve of Walkmans will
A) surely shift leftward. B) surely become steeper.
C) shift either leftward or rightward. D) surely shift rightward.
157) Walkmans play cassette tapes. Producers of Walkmans expect that a new technology for producing 157)
CD players will be available next year. Walkman Watch asks you to predict the effect of the new
technology on the market for Walkmans. You predict that
A) the demand curve for Walkmans will shift leftward and the price will fall.
B) the price will rise, and so will the quantity demanded.
C) the price will fall, and the quantity demanded will increase.
D) the demand curve for Walkmans will shift rightward and the price will rise.
158) Producers of Walkmans will be able to lower the wage rate that they pay to their workers. 158)
Walkman Watch asks you to predict the effects on the supply of Walkmans, and the price of a
Walkman. You predict that the supply curve shifts
A) leftward, and the price is constant. B) rightward, and the price falls.
C) leftward, and the price rises. D) rightward, and the price is constant.
25
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED3.TST
1) A
2) A
3) C
4) B
5) D
6) C
7) D
8) A
9) A
10) B
11) B
12) A
13) B
14) C
15) B
16) B
17) C
18) A
19) B
20) C
21) C
22) C
23) B
24) A
25) D
26) D
27) D
28) A
29) C
30) C
31) D
32) C
33) C
34) A
35) A
36) D
37) C
38) B
39) D
40) A
41) B
42) A
43) A
44) B
45) D
46) D
47) D
48) C
49) B
50) B
1
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED3.TST
51) A
52) D
53) D
54) B
55) A
56) B
57) C
58) C
59) D
60) C
61) D
62) D
63) A
64) D
65) D
66) D
67) A
68) C
69) C
70) C
71) B
72) A
73) D
74) B
75) A
76) C
77) C
78) D
79) A
80) C
81) D
82) C
83) A
84) A
85) A
86) A
87) D
88) B
89) B
90) B
91) B
92) B
93) C
94) B
95) C
96) B
97) D
98) B
99) A
100) D
2
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED3.TST
101) A
102) D
103) B
104) A
105) C
106) D
107) B
108) A
109) B
110) A
111) A
112) D
113) D
114) C
115) D
116) A
117) B
118) D
119) B
120) B
121) B
122) D
123) C
124) A
125) C
126) B
127) A
128) B
129) B
130) A
131) C
132) A
133) B
134) C
135) C
136) A
137) B
138) A
139) D
140) A
141) A
142) B
143) C
144) C
145) A
146) B
147) B
148) A
149) A
150) A
3
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED3.TST
151) C
152) B
153) C
154) C
155) D
156) C
157) A
158) B
4
M.Com First Semester- MCQs on AMD
Prepared by:
Praveen MV
Asst.Professor of commerce
c. Customer
d. Learning and growth.
25.Operating income and sales growth are tools of performance measure in balance score
card under------------- perspective.
a. Financial perspective
b. Internal process
c. Customer
d. Learning and growth.
26.Zero based budgeting is also known as:
a. Scratch based budgeting
b. De nova budgeting
c. Priority based budgeting
d. All of these
27.Zero based budgeting was first applied by:
a. Abraham Lincon
b. Jimmy Carter
c. Peter A phyrr
d. Alex Ouchy
28.ZBB coined out by :
a. Art Schneiderman
b. Jimmy Carter
c. Peter A phyrr
d. Taichi Okno
29.---------- budgeting pay more attention on overhead costs.
a. ZBB
b. ABB
c. Performance budgeting
d. Traditional budgeting
30.--------- budgets are prepared after justifying the cost drivers.
a. ZBB
b. ABB
c. Flexible budget
d. Cost budget
31.The difference between actual sales and break even sales is:
a. Contribution
b. Profit volume rate
c. Margin of safety
d. Gross margin
32.Net Avoidable fixed cost divided by Contribution per unit is equal to:
a. PV ratio
b. Break Even point
c. Contribution
d. Shutdown point
33.Marginal cost does not include----------
a. Variable cost
b. Fixed cost
c. Variable Overhead
d. Direct expenses
34.In marginal costing, stock of finished goods valued at-----------
a. Fixed cost
b. Cost or market price whichever is less
c. Market price
d. Variable cost
35.At break Even Point--------- is equal to fixed cost.
a. Profit
b. Loss
c. Contribution
d. Sales
36.The BEP -------- when selling price is increased.
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remain unchanged
d. 2,500
43.The difference between gross profit and gross margin is----------
a. Fixed cost
b. Variable cost
c. Net profit
d. Net loss
44.Actual sales is Rs.5,00,000 and BEP sales is 3,00,000, then margin of safety percentage
is:
a. 20%
b. 40%
c. 33.33%
d. 25%
45.If sales is Rs.2,50,000 and PV ratio is 40%, contribution will be:
a. 80,000
b. 50,000
c. 1,00,000
d. 25,000
46.Margin of safety x Profit volume ratio is:
a. BEP
b. Angle of incidence
c. Margin of safety in units
d. Profit.
47.Contribution is also known as:
a. Share Capital
b. Gross profit
c. Gross margin
d. Margin of safety
48.-----------is formed as curve by the intersection of total cost and total revenue.
a. BEP
b. Angle of incidence
c. Margin of safety
d. Key factor
49.Variable cost of a product is Rs.10 and firm has an overall PV ratio @ 60%, what will be
its selling price?
a. Rs.60
b. Rs.6
c. Rs.25
d. Rs.16
50.While making make or buy decision under marginal costing, external purchase price of
the articles must be compared with:
a. Its Fixed cost
b. Its total cost
c. Its variable cost
d. Its prime cost.
51.Shut down cost is:
a. Avoidable fixed cost
b. Unavoidable fixed cost
c. Avoidable Variable cost
d. Unavoidable variable cost.
52.Profit volume ratio can be improved by:
a. Reducing variable cost
b. Reducing the selling price
c. Increasing the fixed cost
d. Increasing the key factor
53.Profit volume ratio cannot be calculated by using:
a. Profit / volume of sales
b. Profit / volume of costs
c. Changes in profit / changes in sales
d. Changes in profit / changes in contribution
54.Fixed cost Rs.50,000, Profit Rs.30,000, cost of goods sold Rs.170,000, what is PV ratio?
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 20%
d. 40%
55.Cost of capital is the ---------- rate of return expected by the investors.
a. Maximum
b. Average
c. Minimum
d. Zero
56.In relation to cost of capital, k = r0 +----------+-----------
a. p,d
b. b,f
c. e, p
d. Any of the above.
57.According to traditional approach cost of capital is effected by--------
a. Debt-equity mix
b. Dividend
c. EBIT
d. EAT
58.------------ is the opportunity cost of dividend foregone by the shareholders.
a. Cost of equity
b. Cost of retained earnings
c. Cost of debt
d. Cost of preference shares.
59.Which of the following is/ are the method of calculating cost of equity?
a. Dividend yield method
b. Earning yield method
c. Realized yield method
d. All of these.
60.------------- is the rate of return the firm requires from investment in order to increase the
value of the firm in the market place
a. Net Present Value
b. Internal Rate of Return
a. Probability assignment
b. Risk adjusted discount rate
c. Certainty equivalent
d. Sensitivity analysis
79.--------- is graphical representation of alternative courses of action and the possible
outcomes and the risk associated with each action.
a. Pivot table
b. Sensitivity analysis
c. Decision tree
d. All of these.
80.Risk free cash flow /risky cash flow =------------.
a. Expected cash flow
b. Probable cash flow
c. Net terminal Value
d. CE Co-efficient
81.An investment appraisal approach which gives a precise measure of risk associated with a
project is:
a. Probability assignment
b. Sensitivity analysis
c. Profitability index
d. Standard deviation.
82.----------- provides absolute measure of risk in a project.
a. Standard deviation
b. Sensitivity analysis
c. Profitability index
d. Probability assignment.
83.The higher the co-efficient of variation, higher is the-------- in the project
a. Profitability
b. Return
c. Risk
d. Capital
d. Standard costing.
90.---------- Technique of costing considers all the cost to be incurred during the entire life of
the project.
a. Life Cycle costing
b. Target costing
c. Activity based costing
d. Standard costing.
91.------------ is the difference between target selling price and desired profit margin.
a. Activity cost
b. Upstream cost
c. Downstream cost
d. Target cost
92.Under ------------ total cost are classified into upstream cost, manufacturing cost and
downstream cost.
a. Life Cycle costing
b. Target costing
c. Activity based costing
d. Standard costing.
93.Traditional costing is also known as:
a. Full costing
b. Volume based costing
c. Proportion based costing
d. All of these.
94.------------ refers to the system of cost reduction based on a series of gradual and small
improvements rather than drastic changes in the manufacturing process.
a. Throughput costing
b. Quality costing
c. Kaizen costing
d. Transaction costing
95.Which of the following is also known as transaction costing/accounting?.
a. Throughput costing
b. Quality costing
c. Kaizen costing
d. Activity based costing
96.Under ‘throughput costing’, only ---------- is treated as direct cost.
a. Direct material
b. Direct labour
c. Direct expense
d. Indirect cost
97.Which of the following Japanese concept means ‘Change for better’?
a. Kan Ban
b. Kaizen
c. JIT
d. TQM
98.‘Theory of Constraints’ was developed by:
a. Robert S Kaplan
b. Robin Cooper
c. Goldratt and J.Cox
d. Waldron
99.Under life cycle costing, research and development cost, design cost etc., are considered
as:
a. Activity cost
b. Upstream cost
c. Downstream cost
d. Target cost
100.-------------- is a practice of identifying, studying and building upon the best practices of
organizational role models.
a. Core competency
b. Bench marking
c. Spying
d. Conglomerating
101.Which of the following is not a component of Quality costing?
a. Cost of failure
b. Cost of quality maintenance
c. Appraisal cost
d. None of these
102.Which of the following is/ are the primary activities under Porter’s Value chain?
a. Inbound logistics
b. Procurement
c. Marketing and selling
d. All of these.
103.Which of the following is/are considered as supportive activities under Porter’s Value
Chain?
a. Infrastructure
b. HRM
c. Procurement
d. All of these.
104.Cost of new debentures incorporates:
a. Floatation cost
b. No floatation cost
c. Only a part of floatation cost
d. None of these.
105.----------- Method of capital budgeting also known as ‘trial and error’ method.
a. ARR
b. NPV
c. BCR
d. IRR
106.The process of selecting a combination of investment proposals for the purpose of
effectively utilizing firm’s limited fund is known as:
a. Capital budgeting
b. Project screening
c. Capital rationing
d. Capital expending
a. Low inventory
b. Employee empowerment
c. Card
d. Continuous improvement.
114.which one of the following is not a requirement of JIT system
a. quality deliveries on time
b. low set up time
c. employee empowerment
d. Strong job specialization.
115. “Fish bone diagram is also known as:
a. Cause and effect diagram
b. Poke-yoke diagram
c. Kaizen diagram
d. Taguchi diagram
116.………………is the practice of charging all costs, both variable and fixed,
to operations, processes, or products.
a. Marginal costing
b. Absorption costing
c. Differential costing
d. None of thes
c. 120000
d. 10000
b. Net Profit
c. Gross Sales
d. none of these
124. Which of the following shows the shows the degree of profitability?
a. Angle of contribution
b. Angle of incidence
c. Margin of safety
d. Both b and c above
128.When fixed cost is deducted from contribution, the balance will be--------
a. Variable cost
b. Gross profit
c. Total cost
d. sales
129.When sales are Rs.30000 and P/V ratio is 20% then contribution will be--------
a. 2000
b. 4000
c. 6000
d. 8000
130.When fixed costs are Rs.4000 and Gross margin ratio is 25%, then
breakeven point will be- - - - - - - -
a. 40000
b. 20000
c. 16000
d. 10000
131.When Profit is Rs.5000 and P/v ratio is 20%, Margin of safety is---------
a. 10000
b. 25000
c. 30000
d. 50000
132.Fixed costs Rs.6000, Profit required Rs.4000 and P/v ratio is 50% , then
sales required will be---------
a. 6000
b. 4000
c. 10000
d. 20000
133.Variable cost ratio is 60% Sales Rs.20000 and fixed cost Rs.5000, then
profit will be ……..
a. 15000
b. 12000
c. 3000
d. 10000
a. Cost
b. Profit
c. Revenue
d. All of these
138. In Activity based Costing, a factor which causes cost is usually called as.
a. Cost driver
b. Governing factor
c. Key factor
d. Limiting factor
d. All of these.
149. The Concept of ‘Transfer Pricing’ is applied for transactions in:
a. Export of goods
b. Import of goods
c. Mergers and Acquisition
d. Inter-unit transfer of goods
150. Variable cost per unit is Rs.20 and over all PV ratio is 20%, then price of the product
will be-----------
a. 40
b. 24
c. 25
d. 30
151. The term “Six Sigma” related to the management of:
a. Labour cost
b. Storage cost
c. Defectives
d. None of the above
154. Where key factor is present, from alternative best project must be selected on the basis
of:
a. PV Ratio
b. Contribution per Unit
c. BEP
d. Contribution per key factor
157. Average rate of return is also known as Accounting rate of return since it considers:
a. Cash inflows
b. Cash outflow
c. Profit after tax
d. All of these
159. The purpose of ------------- is to attain a real and permanent declain in cost.
a. Cost control
b. Budgeting
c. Decremented costing
d. Cost reduction.
160. --------------- is superior to cost control.
a. Differential costing
b. Budgeting
c. Standard costing
d. Cost reduction.
Answers
19 c 59 d 99 b 139 a
20 c 60 d 100 b 140 b
21 d 61 c 101 d 141 c
22 c 62 b 102 a 142 a
23 d 63 a 103 d 143 b
24 b 64 d 104 a 144 b
25 a 65 d 105 d 145 a
26 d 66 a 106 c 146 c
27 b 67 b 107 d 147 d
28 c 68 d 108 d 148 d
29 b 69 c 109 b 149 d
30 b 70 d 110 d 150 c
31 c 71 d 111 b 151 c
32 d 72 a 112 d 152 d
33 b 73 a 113 c 153 d
34 d 74 c 114 d 154 d
35 c 75 b 115 a 155 c
36 b 76 c 116 b 156 c
37 b 77 d 117 a 157 c
38 b 78 d 118 b 158 c
39 b 79 c 119 c 159 d
40 b 80 d 120 d 160 d
CHAPTER NO3
QUESTION
______provide a speacilised tecnique which provide prompt and accurate information regarding the cost
of producing and selling and article
the amount of expenditure incurred on, attributable to a given thing is called as ____
the technique and process of ascertaining cost is called as
with the help of ______we can control the cost
with the help of ____we can find out the cost
the total of direct material + direct labour+ direct expenses is called as
direct expenses are also called as
depreciation is an example of
the aggregate of all indirect expenses is
factory cost is also called
cost of sales is also called as
telephone bill, electricity bill is an example of
fixed cost is also called as
material and labour is an example of _____
repair and maintenance is an example of ________
cost incurred because of lock outs is an example of _____
one-time set up cost of a plant or project is called as
standard cost is also called as
variable cost is also called as
rent is an example of
______is the difference between cost of two alternative
cost incurred as per the policy of top management is called as
notional cost is nothing but _________
depreciation on plant and rent is an example __________
a location, person or item of equipment (or a group these )for which cost may be a ascertained and used
for the purpose of control is called as
_______a statement which show various componentsof total cost of a product
_______is prepared on the basis of actual cost incurred
haulage charges is an example of _____
counting house salaries is an example of
carriage outward is an example of
opening stock of finished gooods is added in
direct labour charge is also called as
cost unit is divided into
cost of converting raw material into finshed goods is also called as
accourding to elements, cost is divided into _____catogeries
______means the amount spend to sell a company’s products
insurance is an example of _____
________cost directly varies with volume of output
the expenditure which has been incurred in a accounting period but it is applicable further periods also is
_______
the estimate of expenditure for different business operation for a specific period is ________
an up-gradation of machine , change in service / distribution channel are the example of ______
the value of benefit sacrificed in favour of an alternative cource of action is ___________ cost
opening stock of W.I.P and closing stock of W.I.P is added and deducted after addition of ________in
prime cost
carriage inward is added while calculating _____
profit margine is added in __________
abnormal wastage of material is added in ___________
discount allowed is an example of _________
sale of scrap is __________after addition of factory overhead in prime cost
cleaning charges is an example of _____________-
_____is the process of ascertaining cost whereas_______is the process of recording various costs in a
systematic manner, in order to prepare statistical date to ascertain cost
CHAPTER NO 4
QUESTION
Marginal costing is also called as
In --- total cost can not be easily segregated binto fixed costs and variable costs.
P/V ratio is mainly known as ---------
_____ analysis classifies all costs as either fixed or variable
___ that point where no profit no loss position is observed
____ is the difference between sales revenue and variable cost
Contribution is also called as
____ is the difference between actual sales and break even sales
_____ is an angle where sales line intersects total cost line which indicates profit earning capacity over
the BEP
If contribution is Rs.3,00,000 and sales Rs.10,00,000 then what is P/V ratio?
If P/V ratio is 25% then what is the % of variable cost?
If Fixed cost is Rs.2,50,000 and profit is rs. 3,50,000 then what is the amount of contribution?
If Fixed cost is Rs.2,50,000 and P/V ratio is 60% then what is BEP in Rs?
If sales are Rs.50,000 and P/V ratio is 20% then what is the amount of variable cost?
If cotribution is Rs.3,00,000 and profit is Rs.1,00,000 then what is the amount of Fixed cost?
If sales are Rs.3,00,000 and P/V ratio is 20% then what is the amount of Fixed cost?
The correct formula of Contribution is _______
The correct formula for P/V ratio is __________
Marginal costing is a costing ________
Under absorption and over absorption of overheads problems are not arisen under
CHAPTER NO 5
QUESTION
Standard cost is the ______ cost
Small organizations can not adopt ____ technique
____ means difference between Standard cost and Actual cost
_____ helps the management to understand the present costs and then to control future costs
Variances are classified in _____ categories
If Standard cost is Rs.100 and actual cost is rs. 70 then what is the amount of Material Cost variance
If Standard price is Rs.8 and standard qty 10 Actual price is Rs7 and Actual qty 10 then what is the
amount of material price variance?
If Standard price is Rs.8 and standard qty 10 Actual price is Rs7 and Actual qty 10 then what is the
amount of material usage variance?
If Standard rate is Rs.1.50 and Standard hours are 1600 Actual rate Rs.2 and Actual hours 1500 then
what is the amount of Labour cost Variance?
If Standard rate is Rs.1.50 and Standard hours are 1600 Actual rate Rs.2 and Actual hours 1500 then
what is the amount of Labour rate Variance?
If Standard rate is Rs.1.50 and Standard hours are 1600 Actual rate Rs.2 and Actual hours 1500 then
what is the amount of Labour efficiency Variance?
The correct formula for verification of Material Cost Variance is _____
The correct formula for verification of Labour Cost Variance is _____
The establishment of budgets relating to the responsibilities of executives to the requirements of a policy
and the contineous comparison of actual with budgeted results either to secure by individual action the
objective of that policy or to provide basis for its revision is called as _______
A ___ is a poweful tool available to the management for the purpose of maximising profits.
Fixed budget is also known as
Normal profit means ________
Personal budget is also called as ______
In Cash Budget _______ transactions are considered
Budget is prepared for a ______ period of time
Purchase budget is also called as _____
A B C
cash flow funds flow income statement
trading and profit and loss a/c expenses statement income statement
trading and profit and loss a/c expenses statement income statement
financial statement trading a/c profit and loss a/c
financial statement trading a/c profit and loss a/c
partnership firm sole trading firm private ltd co.
partnership firm sole proprietorship firm private ltd co.
dual single triple
dual single triple
journal proper ledger adjustment
one debit and one credit debit credit
BRS balancesheet trading a/c
profit and loss a/c DR.SIDE profit and loss a/c CR. Side trading a/c dr. side
balance sheet assets side profit and loss a/c CR. Side trading a/c dr. side
profit and loss a/c DR.SIDE profit and loss a/c CR. Side trading a/c dr. side
balance sheets liability side profit and loss a/c CR. Side balance sheets assests side
sales purchase capital
capital a/c balancesheet trading
journal a/c balancesheet trading a/c
capital a/c personal a/c trading a/c
capital a/c personal a/c trading a/c
cash credit qualitative
accounting concept and convention
accounting concept accounting convention
1st jan 1st april 1 st march
31st jan 31st aug 31 st march
sales purchase stock
sales purchase stock
capital a/c personal a/c trading a/c
capital a/c personal a/c trading a/c
capital a/c balancesheet assets side trading a/c
added deducted not added
sole proprietorship partnership co-operative
profit and loss a/c DR.SIDE profit and loss a/c CR. Side trading a/c dr. side
added in respective assets added in respective liability added in respective expenses
deducted from respective assets added in respective liability deducted form respective expenses
capital a/c balance sheet trading a/c
income expenses liability
profit and loss a/c DR.SIDE profit and loss a/c CR. Side trading a/c dr. side
inward outward return inward
inward outward return inward
sales purchase creditor
depreciation discount purchase
income expenses assets
profit and loss a/c DR.SIDE profit and loss a/c CR. Side trading a/c dr. side
profit and loss a/c DR.SIDE profit and loss a/c CR. Side trading a/c dr. side
profit and loss a/c DR.SIDE profit and loss a/c CR. Side balance sheets liability side
stock investment cash
land building machinery
capital loan bill payble
trading a/c income a/c capital a/c
A B C
costing , cost accounting cost accounting ,costing costing and allocation cost
A B C
A B C
pre determine cost Pre decided Pre Planned
Standard costing Marginal Costing Budgetory control
Balance cost Variance marginal cost
ABC Analysis Variance Analysis Marginal Analysis
one Two Three
10 -10 150
10 -10 150
10 -10 50
D Answer
balance sheets D
balance sheets A
supplimentary note D
supplimentary note A
cash flow and fund flow A
public co. B
one man co. B
none of the above B
none of the above A
none of the above C
none of the above A
profit and loss a/c D
trading a/c cr.side B
trading a/c cr.side A
trading a/c cr.side D
trading a/c cr.side A
drawing D
profit and loss a/c D
profit and loss a/c D
profit and loss a/c D
profit and loss a/c D
quantitative C
none of the above A
1st june B
31 st dec C
closing stock B
closing stock A
profit and loss a/c C
profit and loss a/c D
profit and loss a/c B
not deducted A
departmental A
trading a/c cr.side C
added in respective income C
added in respective income C
profit and loss a/c D
assets B
trading a/c cr.side C
return outward D
return outward C
debtors D
creditors A
liability D
trading a/c cr.side A
trading a/c cr.side C
balance sheets assets side D
goodwill D
debtors D
creditors A
assets a/c C
D Answer
cost division B
cost classification A
estimated cost sheet A
administrative overhead C
administrative overhead D
administrative overhead B
work cost C
product wages D
none of the above C
productive cost C
four C
variable cost A
variable cost C
variable cost D
variable cost C
variable cost A
future cost A
future C
selling overhead B
cost of direct material D
cost of goods sold A
none of the above D
selling overhead D
none of the above B
selling overhead B
costing and absorption
of cost A
D Answer
Job costing A
Job costing A
All of the above A
HML A
Ending point B
Contribution D
Gross margin D
Gross margin C
Gross margin A
40% B
50% C
410,000 B
410,000 A
30,000 A
300,000 B
200,000 A
All of the above D
All of the above D
convention A
Budgetory control A
D Answer
none of the above A
none of the above A
variable cost B
Budget Analysis B
four D
20
A
20
A
0
D
400
B
400
B
200
A
none of the above A
none of the above A
D
Goal A
Marginal costing A
Purchase budget C
MCQ for Accounting for business decision
a) Shareholders
b) Creditors
c) Managers
d) Regulatory agencies
a) Creditor
b) Department manager
c) Controller
d) Treasurer
a) Service entities
b) Manufacturing entities
c) Non profit entities
d) All of these
5. The work of factory employees that can be physically associated with converting raw
material into finished goods is classified as-
a) Manufacturing overhead
b) Indirect materials
c) Indirect labour
d) Direct labour
1
c) Management
d) All
8. Which type of asset class includes those assets which have only definite use and become
valueless when the yield is over?
a) Fixed asset
b) Current asset
c) Fictitious asset
d)Wasting asset
9. An accounting that deals with the accounting and reporting of information to management
regarding the detail information is
a) Financial accounting
b) Management accounting
c) Cost accounting
d) Real Accounting
a) Debtors account
b) Bad debts account
c) Sales account
d) Creditors account
2
a) Nominal account- debit all expenses & losses
b)Real account- credit what comes in
c)Nominal account- credit all incomes & gains
d) Personal account- debit the receiver
13. Cost of goods sold= opening stock+ net purchases+ expenses on Purchases – sales
Which part of formula is wrong? a) opening stock
b) net purchases
c) expenses on Purchases
d)sales
a) Cash account
b) Mahesh Account
c) Sales account
d) Purchase account
3
b)Customer’s account
c) Sales account
d) Cash account
4
b) Large business enterprise only
c) Small business concerns only
d) Manufacturing and service concern
26. ………………..is a person or item for which cost may be ascertained. a) Cost unit
b) Cost centre
c) Cost object
d) Cost estimation
29. Amortization of intangible Asset Such as Goodwill which has indefinite life is an example of
accounting concept
a) Conservatism Concept
b) Continuity Concept
c) Realisation Concept
d) Measurement Concept
31. ………………cost will still be incurred although a plant is shut down temporarily.
a) Cost of raw material
b) Advertising
c) Depreciation
d) Carriage
5
32. Accounting principles are generally based upon:
a) Practicability
b) Subjectivity
c) Convenience in recording
d) None of the above
34. The practice of appending notes regarding contingent liabilities in accounting statements is in
pursuance to:
a) Convention of consistency
b) Money measurement concept
c) Convention of conservatism
d) Convention of disclosure
39. Income tax paid by a sole proprietor on his business income should be:
a) Debited to trading account
6
b) Debited to profit and loss account
c) Deducted from capital account in the balance sheet
d) None of the above
41. According to schedule VI Companies Act which item is not shown on Asset side of Balance
sheet
a) Investment
b) Current Loan & Advances
c) Provision
d) Lease Holds
43. Investment of X company profit in shares of other company PQR Pvt. ltd are recorded
in……………….
a) Asset side of Balance Sheet
b) Liability side of Balance Sheet
c) Profit & Loss a/c
d) Not recorded in Balance Sheet
a) Remains fixed
b) Fluctuates with volume of production
c) Varies in consideration with the volume of sales
d) None of the above
7
46. The books to be compulsorily maintained by a company are:
a) Increases assets
b) Results in no change in the total assets
c) Decreases assets
d) Increases liability
8
d) Debiting employee a/c ; crediting salary a/c
53. Cost of asset should always be equal to the cost of the liabilities. This concept is
a) Realization Concept
b) Matching Concept
c) Cost Concept
d) Both a and b above
a) Consistency concept
b) Conservatism concept
c) Accounting period concept
d) Cost Concept
a) Current assets
b) Current liabilities
c) Fixed asset
d) Fixed liability
59. Reserve for doubtful debts appearing in the trial balance should be:
9
b) Shown as liability side in balance sheet
c) Reduced from related asset in the balance sheet
d) Both a and b
e) Both a and c
a) Debtors
b) Investors
c) Creditors
d) Shareholders
61. According to which concept business is treated as a unit apart from owner
a) Dual concept
b) Divider concept
c) Entity concept
d) Landlord concept
63. True & fair profit and loss a/c of a company know by
a) Preparing trial balance
b) Preparing respective ledger of account
c) Preparing trading a/c
d) Preparing trading & profit & loss a/c
65. Under which concept it is assumed that the enterprises has neither the intention nor the
necessity of liquidation or of curtailing materiality the scale of operation
a) Revenue realization concept
b) Matching cost concept
10
c) Going concern concept
d) None of these
66. Making the provision for doubtful debts and discount on debtors in anticipation of actual
bad debts and discount is an example for which concept
a) Conservatism concept
b) Continuity concept
c) Realization concept
d) All of these
72. . Which of the following account balance will be shown on debit side of Trial Balance?
a) Outstanding expenses
b) Cash a/c
11
c) Short term loan
d) creditors
73. The reduction in the value of the fixed assets which can arise due to time factor is
a)Discount
b) Depreciation
c)Reduction
d) None of the above
12
b) Cost concept
c) Continuity concept
d) Money measurement concept
81. Proposed dividends" is shown in the Balance Sheet of a company under the head:
a) Provisions
b) Reserves and Surplus
c) Current Liabilities
d) Other Liabilities
82. Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of:
a) Separate entity
b) Going concern
c) Consistency
d) Time period
a) Income Statement
b) Cash Flow Statement
c) Balance Sheet
d) Fund Flow Statement
Bought office wooden table for cash office wooden table cash
Ramesh sold goods on credited to Ram sales cash
13
Introduce capital by cheque capital Bank
Paid to creditor Sita by cheque Sita Bank
a) (ii) (iii)(i)
b) (iii)(iv)(ii)
c) (i)(iii)(iv)
d) (i)(iv)
88. Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of:
a) Separate entity
b) Going concern
c) Consistency
d) Time period
14
92. The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following types of businesses? a.
Sole proprietorship
b. Corporation
c. Partnership
d. All of them
93. Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a business is divided for the
purpose of preparing financial statements?
a) Fiscal year
b) Calendar year
c) Accounting period
d) Accrual period
97. Which of the following is not regarded as the fundamental accounting concept?
a. The going concern concept
b. The separate entity concept
c. The prudence (conservatism) concept
d. Correction concept
98. Using "lower of cost and net realisable value(Market Value)" for the purpose of inventory
valuation is the implementation of which of the following concepts?
a) The going concern concept
b) The separate entity concept
c) The prudence concept
d) Matching concept
15
99. The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following types of businesses?
a) Sole proprietorship
b) Corporation
c) Partnership
d) All of them
100. The revenue recognition principal dictates that all types of incomes should be recorded or
recognized when
a) Cash is received
b) At the end of accounting period
c) When they are earned
d) When interest is paid
101. The allocation of owner's private expenses to his/her business violates which of the
following?
a) Accrual concept
b) Matching concept
c) Separate business entity concept
d) Consistency concept
102. The going concern concept assumes that
a) Fiscal year
b) Calendar year
c) Accounting period
d) Accrual period
104. Showing purchased office equipments in financial statements is the application of which
accounting concept?
a) Historical cost convention
b) Materiality
c) Prudence
d) Matching concept
105. Information about an item is ________ if its omission or misstatement might influence
the financial decision of the users taken on the basis of that information
a) Concrete
b) Complete
16
c) Immaterial
d) Material
106."Financial information should be neutral and bias free" is the dictation of which one of the
following?
a) Completeness concept
b) Faithful representation Concept
c) Objectivity Concept
d) Duality Concept
107. Accounting principles are divided into two types. These are ---
a) Accounting Concepts
b) Accounting Conventions
c) Accounting Standards
d) Accounting Concepts &Accounting Conventions
108. Which of the following is not related with Money Measurement Concept ?
a) All business transaction should be expressed only in money
b) The transactions which cannot be expressed in money, will not be recorded in
accounting books
c) Business is treated as separate from the proprietor
d) None of These
109. Which of the following equation is related with Dual Aspect Concept ?
a) Total Assets = Total Liabilities
b) Total Assets = Capital + Outsider’s Liabilities
c) Capital = Total Assets - Outsider’s Liabilities
d) All of the above
110.If the total assets of the company amount to Rs 1,50,000 and owner’s equity is Rs 70,000,the
amount of liabilities will be –
a) Rs 70,000
b) Rs 80,000
c) Rs 90,000
d) Rs 1,00,000
a) Profit
17
b) Assets
c) Company
d) Books of A/c
a) Depreciation
b) Wages
c) Salary
d) Stationary
18
c) Controlling function
d) None of these
120.Book keeping is mainly concerned with
a) Practicability
b) Subjectivity
c) Convenience in recording
d) None of these
19
c) Providing depreciation
d) None of these
127.The amount brought in by the proprietor in the business should be credited to
a) Cash a/c
b) Capital a/c
c) Drawing a/c
d) Bank a/c
128.The amount of salary paid to Suresh should be debited to
a) The account of Suresh
b) Salaries a/c
c) Cash a/c
d) Bank a/c
a) Cash a/c
b) Mahesh a/c
c) Sales a/c
d) Sales return a/c
131.The rent paid to land lord to be credited to
a) Land lord a/c
b) Rent a/c
c) Cash a/c
d) Tenant a/c
a) Debtors Accounts
b) Bad debts a/c
c) Sales a/c
134.The primary objective of cost accounting is
20
a) Ascertain the cost of goods and services
b) Ascertain the profit
c) Presentation of all data
d) None of these
a) Convention of conservatism
b) Convention of full disclosure
c) Convention of consistency
d) None of these
136. Accountant should follow the same principles of accounting continuously is as per which
accounting convention
a) Convention of conservatism
b) Convention of full disclosure
c) Convention of consistency
d) None of these
137 Accounting principles are …………………………. which are adopted by the accountant
universally while recording accounting transaction.
21
b) Accounting concepts
c) Accounting principles
d) None of these
141. Rules of action or conduct adopted by the accountants universally while recording
accounting transaction
a) Accounting convention
b) Accounting concepts
c) Accounting principles
d) None of these
a) Real a/c
b) Personal a/c
c) Nominal a/c
d) None of these
146.Debit all expenses and losses Credit all gains and income.
a) Real a/c
b) Personal a/c
c) Nominal a/c
d) None of these
147. A book containing a chronological record of business transaction & original record
a) Journal
22
b) Ledger
c) Trial balance
d) None of these
148. Transferring the debit and credit item from the journal to the respective accounts is
called a) Compound Journal
b) Ledger
c) Trial balance
d) None of these
150.The transferring of debit and credit items from journal to the respective accounts in the
ledger is called as
a) Ledger
b) Posting
c) Forward journal
d) None of these
151. Which of the following items would not fall under the definition of an asset? a)
Land
b) Machine
c) Cash
d) Owner Equity
152.Which one of the following items would fall under the definition of a liability a)
Cash
b) Debtor
c) Owner’s equity
d) None of these
23
154.A business has the following items in it:
Land Rs.1,000,000
Machinery Rs.20,000
Cash Rs.10,000
Debt Rs.0
Owner’s equity ?
a) Rs.200, 000
b) Rs.700, 000
c) Rs.800, 000
d) Rs1, 100,000
157.A business has following items in it
Land ?
Vehicles Rs.600,000
Debtors Rs. 1,20,000
Cash Rs.30,000
Owners’Equity Rs.1,000,000
Loan 5,00,000
24
Creditors Rs.50,000
What is the value of the land…………………..
e) 1,000,000
f) 1,550,000
g) 800,000
h) None of these
158. Which of the following equations properly represents a derivation of the fundamental
accounting equation?
a) Only (a)
b) Both (a) (b)
c) All (a)(b)(c)(d)
d) None of these
159. Retained earnings will change over time because of several factors. Which of the following
factors would explain an increase in retained earnings?
a) Net Loss
b) Net income
c) Dividend
d) Investment by share holder.
Cash Rs.100
25
Accounts Receivable Rs.500
Stock holder equity Rs.700
Accounts Payable Rs.200
Bank Loan Rs.1,000
a) Rs.200
b) Rs.1900
c) Rs.1200
d) Rs.1700
163. The full disclosure principle, as adopted by the accounting profession, is best described by
which of the following?
a) All information related to an entity's business and operating objectives is required to be
disclosed in the financial statements.
b) Information about each account balance appearing in the financial statements is to be
included in the notes to the financial statements.
c) Enough information should be disclosed in the financial statements so a person wishing
to invest in the stock of the company can make a profitable decision.
d) Disclosure of any financial facts significant enough to influence the judgment of an
informed reader
166. The Cash account on the balance sheet should not include which of the following items?
a. Travel advances to employees
b. Currency
c. Money orders
d. Deposits in transit
26
b. Assets and equity.
168. The following comments all relate to the recording process. Which of these statements is
correct?
b. The general ledger is posted from transactions recorded in the general journal.
c. The trial balance provides the primary source document for recording transactions into
the general journal.
d. Transposition is the transfer of information from the general journal to the general
ledger.
169. The following comments each relate to the recording of journal entries. Which statement is
true?
c. The chart of accounts reveals the amount to debit and credit to the affected accounts.
171. . Which of the following errors will be disclosed in the preparation of a trial balance?
27
d. Recording the wrong amount for a transaction to both the account debited and the
account credited.
172. The basic sequence in the accounting process can best be described as:
173. Inventory accounts should be classified in which section of a balance sheet? a. Current
assets
b. Investments
c. Property, plant, and equipment
d. Intangible assets
Planning
b) Decision making
c) Control
d) All of these
178. Which of the following statements about differences between financial and managerial
accounting is incorrect?
28
a) Managerial accounting information is prepared primarily for external parties
such as stockholders and creditors; financial accounting is directed at internal
users.
b) Financial accounting is aggregated; managerial accounting is focused on products and
departments.
c) Managerial accounting pertains to both past and future items; financial accounting
focuses primarily on past transactions and events.
d) Financial accounting is based on generally accepted accounting practices; managerial
accounting faces no similar constraining factors.
180. Manufacturing costs are also known as product costs. Which of the following best describes
those costs which are considered to be manufacturing costs?
181. A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, plus long distance
charges, would be classified as a:
a. Variable cost
b. Committed fixed cost
c. Direct cost
d. Semi variable cost
29
184. Business entity concept distinguishes between:
30
a) Sundry creditors
b) Acceptances
c) Unclaimed dividend
d) Short term investment
191. Financial accounting deals with:
a) Determination of cost
b) Determination of profit
c) Determination of price
d) Determination of selling price
192. Financial account record only
a) Actual figures
b) Budgeted figures
c) Standard figures
d) Management Figure
31
c) Current asset
d) Owners equity
a) Financial
b) Economic
c) Non financial
d) None of these
199. Which items does not come under the balance sheet
a) sales
b) Share capital
c) Reserves and surplus
d) Unsecured loan
200.The word accounting can be classified in to:
a) Financial accounting and management accounting
b) Financial accounting and cost accounting
c) Financial accounting, management accounting and cost accounting
d) Cannot be classified
c) LucoPacioli
d) R. N. Carter
b) Clerical
32
c) Executive
d) Non- executive
b) Accrual basis
c) Mercantile basis
206. Which of the following is true for: -“In accounts recording is done of_ _ _ _ _” a)
only financial transaction
b) Revenue
c) Direct
d) Non- cash
33
a) Nominal account
b) Real Account
b) Trial Balance
c) Ledger
d) Journal
b) Salaries account
c) Cash account
d) Outstanding expenses
212.All costs other than direct materials cost, direct labour cost and direct expenses are known as:
a) Indirect material cost
b) Overhead
c) Indirect labour cost
d) Indirect expenses
213. A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, plus long distance
charges, would be classified as a:
e. Variable cost
f. Committed fixed cost
34
g. Direct cost
h. Semi variable cost
215. The work of factory employees that can be physically associated with converting raw
material into finished goods is classified as-
e. Manufacturing overhead
f. Indirect materials
g. Indirect labour
h. Direct labour
216. Which one of the following would not be classified as manufacturing overhead? a) Indirect
labour
b) Direct materials
c) Insurance on factory building
d) Indirect materials
218. A manufacturing process requires small amounts of glue. The glue used in the process is
classified as
a) A prime cost
b) An indirect material
c) A direct material
d) Miscellaneous expense
35
220. Because of automation, which component of product cost is declining? a)
Direct labour
b) Direct materials
c) Manufacturing overhead
d) Advertising
224. Aggregate of cost of goods sold and selling and distribution overheads is known as : a)
Total Cost
b) Office Cost
c) Cost of sales
d) Selling overhead
36
Direct material purchased: Rs. 1,00,000
Direct material consumed: Rs. 90,000
Direct labour: Rs. 60,000
Direct expenses: Rs. 20,000
Manufacturing overheads: Rs. 30,000
(a) Rs. 1,80,000
(b) Rs. 2,00,000
(c) Rs. 1,70,000
(d) Rs. 2,10,000
37
Basic Concepts of Accounting
Chapter 1
Basic Concepts of Accounting
1. ______________ is nothing but the right process of selecting an appropriate, logical, practical
and achievable option from the available alternatives.
(a) Business Decision (b) Planning
(c) Organizing (d) Strategy
2. ______________ is a person who carried on business exclusively by and for himself.
(a) Partner (b) Sole-trader
(c) Executive (d) Manager
3. The relationship between persons who agree to carry on business in a common with a view to
private gain.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole-trading Firm
(c) Joint Stock Company (d) Co-operative Society
4. A ______________ is a form of business organization in which the funds of large number of
investors are managed by a few persons for the purpose of earning profits.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole-trading Firm
(c) Joint Stock Company (d) Co-operative Society
5. ______________ is the language of business.
(a) Marketing (b) Profit Earning Capacity
(c) Accounting (d) Selling
6. The object/s of accounting ______________.
(a) To calculate net profit or net loss of the business.
(b) To know the financial condition of the firm.
(c) To provide information to the management for important managerial decisions.
(d) All of the above
7. Out of the following, which is not the branch of Accounting.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
8. Accounting ______________ are the Rules of Action or the Methods and Procedures of
Accounting commonly adopted while recording Business transactions.
(a) Principles (b) Concepts
(c) Conventions (d) Systems
2 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
21. Debit the receiver, credit the giver is the rule of ______________.
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
22. Debit what comes in, credit what goes out is the rule of ______________.
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
23. Debit all expenses and losses, credit all incomes and gains is the rule of ______________.
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
24. ______________ is a record of transaction in the books of Accounts.
(a) Entry (b) Recording
(c) Monetary Transaction (d) Ledger
25. ______________ is an exchange of money or money’s worth.
(a) Entry (b) Recording
(c) Transaction (d) Ledger
26. ______________ is a book of original entry.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Subsidiary Book
27. ______________ is a bound book of different accounts.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Subsidiary Book
28. ______________ is a summarized record of transactions related to one person, one asset, one
head of expense/loss and one head of income/gain.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Account
29. ______________ means totaling of sums in the books of accounts.
(a) Casting (b) Summarizing
(c) Journalizing (d) Ledger Posting
30. ______________ are obligations or debts that the enterprise must pay in money or services at
some time in the future.
(a) Assets (b) Liabilities
(c) Responsibilities (d) Salaries
31. ______________ are economic resources of an enterprise that can be usefully expressed in
monetary terms.
(a) Assets (b) Liabilities
(c) Cash & Bank Balance (d) Funds
32. ______________ are commodities, purchased or manufactured for resale with a view to earn
profit.
(a) Assets (b) Goods
(c) Investments (d) Resources
4 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
33. ______________ are the amounts the business earns by selling its products or providing
services to customers.
(a) Assets (b) Goods
(c) Investments (d) Revenues
34. ______________ are the costs incurred by a business in the process of earning revenue.
(a) Assets (b) Expenses
(c) Investments (d) Revenues
35. ______________ are persons and/or other entities who owe to an enterprise an amount for
receiving goods and services on credit.
(a) Debtors (b) Creditors
(c) Shareholders (d) Suppliers
36. ______________ are persons and/or other entities that have to be paid by an enterprise an
amount for providing the enterprise goods and services on credit.
(a) Debtors (b) Creditors
(c) Shareholders (d) Customers
37. ______________ is a list of the entire general ledger account names and balances; it is
prepared to prove the ledger.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Trial Balance
38. The difference of two sides of an account is called as ______________.
(a) Debit (b) Credit
(c) Balance (d) Cash
39. ______________ deals with expenses related to or identified with products, which may only
be a part of the organization.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
40. In ______________ stocks are valued at lower of cost or market value.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
41. The primary objective of ______________ is to provide necessary information to the
management in the process of its planning, controlling, and performance evaluation, and
decision-making.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
42. The Success of ______________ does not depend upon Management Accounting system.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
43. In______________ no statutory requirement of audit for reports.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 5
Chapter 2
Understanding of Financial Statements
1. ______________ shows the firm’s assets, liabilities, and stockholders’ equity as of the report
date.
(a) Cash Flow (b) Funds Flow
(c) Income Statement (d) Balance Sheet
2. ______________ shows the results of the firm’s operations and financial activities for the
reporting period.
(a) Trading and Profit & Loss Account (b) Expense Statement
(c) Income Statement (d) Balance Sheet
3. ______________ includes explanations of various activities, additional details of some
accounts, and other items as mandated by the regulatory authorities, bodies from time to time.
(a) Trading and Profit & Loss Account (b) Expense Statement
(c) Income Statement (d) Supplementary Note
4. ______________ is a formal official record of the financial activities and position of a
business, person, or other entity.
(a) Financial Statement (b) Trading Account
(c) Profit & Loss Account (d) Supplementary Note
5. ______________ provides the vital information related to the profitability, liquidity and
solvency of the business.
(a) Financial Statement (b) Trading Account
(c) Profit & Loss Account (d) Cash Flow & Funds Flow
6. ______________ is the simplest business form under which one can operate a business.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole Trading Firm
(c) Private Ltd. Company (d) Public Company
7. ______________ is not a separate legal entity.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole Proprietorship Firm
(c) Private Ltd. Company (d) One Man Company
8. For every item given in Trial Balance, ______________ effect should be given.
(a) Dual (b) Single
(c) Triple (d) None of the above
9. For every item given in Adjustment, ______________ effect should be given.
(a) Dual (b) Single
(c) Triple (d) None of the above
10. ______________ are nothing but the entries which are not included in the original Trial
Balance.
(a) Journal Proper (b) Ledger
(c) Adjustments (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 7
Chapter 3
Cost Accounting
1. ______________ provides a specialized technique, which provides prompt and accurate
information regarding the cost of producing and selling an article.
(a) Cost Accounting (b) Financial Accounting
(c) Management Accounting (d) Cost & Financial Accounting
2. The amount of expenditure incurred on, or attributable to a given thing is called as
______________.
(a) Cost (b) Price
(c) Expense (d) Fixed Cost
3. The techniques and process of ascertaining cost is called as ______________.
(a) Costing (b) Accounting
(c) Financing (d) Management Accounting
4. With the help of ______________, we can control the cost.
(a) Costing Methods (b) Cost Accounting
(c) Management Accounting (d) Costing Techniques
5. With the help of ______________, we can find out the cost.
(a) Costing Methods (b) Cost Accounting
(c) Management Accounting (d) Costing Techniques
6. The total of Direct Material + Direct Labour + Direct Expenses is called as ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Factory Cost
(c) Prime Cost (d) Main Cost
7. Direct Expenses are also called as ______________.
(a) Chargeable Expenses (b) Factory Expenses
(c) Works Expenses (d) General Expenses
8. Depreciation is an example of ______________.
(a) Direct Expenses (b) Factory Expenses
(c) General Expenses (d) Indirect Expenses
9. The aggregate of all indirect expenses is ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Total Expense
(c) Overheads (d) Factory Overheads
10. Factory Cost is also called as ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Cost of Production
(c) Works Cost (d) Factory Overheads
11. Cost of Sales is also called as ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Cost of Production
(c) Works Cost (d) Factory Cost
12 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
25. A Location, person, or item of equipment (or a group of these) for which costs may be
ascertained and used for the purpose of control is called as ______________.
(a) Cost Unit (b) Cost Centre
(c) Cost Department (d) Cost Division
26. ______________ a statement, which shows various components of total cost of a product.
(a) Cost Sheet (b) Cost Account
(c) Cost Report (d) Cost Classification
27. ______________ is prepared on the basis of actual cost incurred.
(a) Historical Cost Sheet (b) Cost Account
(c) Cost Report (d) Estimated Cost Sheet
28. Haulage Charges is an example of ______________.
(a) Fixed Overheads (b) Direct Cost
(c) Factory Overheads (d) Administration Overheads
29. Counting House Salaries is an example of ______________.
(a) Fixed Overheads (b) Selling Overheads
(c) Factory Overheads (d) Administration Overheads
30. Carriage Outward is an example of ______________.
(a) Fixed Overheads (b) Selling Overheads
(c) Factory Overheads (d) Administration Overheads
31. Opening Stock of Finished Goods is added in ______________.
(a) Factory Cost (b) Prime Cost
(c) Cost of Production (d) Works Cost
32. Direct Labour Charges is also called as ______________.
(a) Factory Cost (b) Prime Cost
(c) Fixed Wages (d) Productive Wages
33. Cost unit is divided into ______________.
(a) Units of Production (b) Units of Services
(c) Both a and b (d) None of the above
34. Cost of converting raw material into finished goods is also called as ______________.
(a) Factory Cost (b) Prime Cost
(c) Conversion Cost (d) Productive Cost
35. According to Elements, Cost is divided into ______________ categories.
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
36. ______________ means the amount spent to sell a company’s products.
(a) Revenue Cost (b) Differential Cost
(c) Fixed Cost (d) Variable Cost
14 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
48. Sale of Scrap is ______________ after addition of factory overheads in Prime Cost.
(a) Added (b) Deducted
(c) Not Considered (d) None of the above
49. Cleaning Charges is an example of ______________.
(a) Direct Expenses (b) Factory Overheads
(c) Office Overheads (d) Selling Overheads
50. ______________ is the process of ascertaining costs whereas ______________ is the process
of recording various costs in a systematic manner, in order to prepare statistical date to
ascertain cost.
(a) Costing, Cost Accounting (b) Cost Accounting, Costing
(c) Costing and Allocation Cost (d) Costing and Absorption of Cost
Chapter 4
Cost Control
1. Cost of storing the goods as well as the interest on the capital is called as ______________.
(a) Inventory Carrying Cost (b) Order Placing Cost
(c) Buying Cost (d) Fixed Cost
2. Cost of placing the orders and receiving the goods are called as ______________.
(a) Inventory Carrying Cost (b) Variable Cost
(c) Buying Cost (d) Fixed Cost
3. The main objective of EOQ is to ______________ the total costs.
(a) Minimize (b) Control
(c) Maintain (d) Avoid
4. ______________ analysis is based on Selective Inventory Management.
(a) EOQ (b) JIT
(c) ABC (d) HML
5. Calculate EOQ if Cost of material per unit ` 40, Annual requirement 1600 units, Cost of
placing and receiving one purchase order ` 50, Annual carrying cost of inventory is 10% of
inventory value.
(a) 200 Units (b) 175 Units
(c) 225 Units (d) 250 Units
6. A level of inventory that should never be exceeded is ______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level
(c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
7. A level below which stock should not be allowed to fall is ______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level
(c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
8. A level at which store keeper should intimate purchase department for fresh/new supply is
______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level
(c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
9. A level below which the stock should never be allowed to fall under emergency
circumstances is ______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level
(c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
10. A strategy for inventory management in which raw materials and components are delivered
from the vendor or supplier immediately before they are needed in the manufacturing process
is ______________.
(a) Scientific Purchasing (b) Immediate Buying
(c) JIT (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 17
30. Out of the following, which factor/s affecting the Labour Cost.
(a) Assessment of Manpower Requirement
(b) Time and Motion Study
(c) Control over Idle Time and Overtime
(d) All of the above
31. Which department/s is/are closely associated with the Control of Labour Cost?
(a) Personnel and Payroll Department
(b) Time Keeping Department
(c) Engineering and Work Study Department
(d) All of the above
32. ______________ arises from replacement of workers who leave the organization.
(a) Direct Labour Cost (b) Preventive Cost
(c) Maintenance Cost (d) Replacement Cost
33. Method/s of Time Keeping is/are ______________.
(a) Attendance Register Method
(b) Token or Disc Method
(c) Time Recording Clocks & Dial Time Records
(d) All of the above
34. Method/s of Time Booking is/are ______________.
(a) Daily Time Sheet (b) Weekly Time Sheet
(c) Job Cards or Job Tickets (d) All of the above
35. ______________ refers to the estimation of standard time, i.e., the time allowed for
completing one piece of job using the given metho(d)
(a) Work Measurement (b) Time Measurement
(c) Period Measurement (d) None of the above
36. ______________ costs are the operating costs of a business enterprise which cannot be traced
to a particular unit of output.
(a) Material (b) Labour
(c) Overhead (d) Foxed & Variable
37. The ______________ is the process of recording each item of cost in the books of accounts
maintained for the purpose of ascertainment of cost of each Cost Centre or Cost Unit.
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead
(c) Apportionment of Overhead (d) Classification of Overhead
38. ______________ means, the allotment of whole items of cost to cost centres or cost units.
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead
(c) Apportionment of Overhead (d) Classification of Overhead
39. ______________ means, the allotment to two or more departments or cost centers of
proportions of common items of cost on estimated basis of benefit received.
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead
(c) Apportionment of Overhead (d) Classification of Overhead
20 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
Chapter 5
Decision-making Tools
1. Marginal Costing is also called as ______________.
(a) Variable Costing (b) Standard Costing
(c) Material Costing (d) Job Costing
2. In ______________ total costs cannot be easily segregated into fixed costs and variable costs.
(a) Marginal Costing (b) Standard Costing
(c) Material Costing (d) Job Costing
3. P/V Ratio is mainly known as ______________.
(a) Contribution to Sales Ratio (b) Contribution Margin Ratio
(c) Variable Profit Ratio (d) All of the above
4. ______________ analysis classifies all costs as either fixed or variable.
(a) CVP (b) ABC
(c) JIT (d) HML
5. ______________ that point where no profit or no loss position is observed.
(a) Centre Point (b) BEP
(c) Starting Point (d) Ending Point
6. ______________ is the difference between sales revenue and variable cost.
(a) P/V Ratio (b) BEP
(c) MOS (d) Contribution
7. Contribution is also called as ______________.
(a) P/V Ratio (b) Net Margin
(c) MOS (d) Gross Margin
8. ______________ is the difference between actual sales or output and the break even sales.
(a) P/V Ratio (b) Net Margin
(c) MOS (d) Gross Margin
9. ______________ is an angle where sales line intersects total cost line which indicates profit
earning capacity over the BEP.
(a) Angle of Incidence (b) Contribution
(c) Margin of Safety (d) Gross Margin
10. If contribution is ` 3,00,000 and Sales is ` 10,00,000, then what is P/V Ratio?
(a) 20% (b) 30%
(c) 33.33% (d) 1/3
11. If P/V Ratio is 25%, then what is the % of Variable Cost?
(a) 70% (b) 80%
(c) ¾ (d) ½
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 23
12. If Fixed Cost is ` 2,50,000 and P/V Ratio is 60%, then what is BEP in `?
(a) ` 4,16,667 (b) ` 3,83,333
(c) ` 3,75,000 (d) ` 4,10,000
13. If Fixed Cost is ` 2,50,000 and Profit is ` 3,50,000, then what is the amount of Contribution?
(a) ` 1,00,000 (b) ` 6,00,000
(c) ` 3,75,000 (d) ` 4,10,000
14. If Sales are ` 50,000 and P/V Ratio is 20%, then what is the amount of Variable Cost?
(a) ` 40,000 (b) ` 10,000
(c) ` 25,000 (d) ` 30,000
15. If contribution is ` 3,00,000 and Profit is ` 1,00,000, then what is the amount of Fixed Cost?
(a) ` 4,00,000 (b) `2,00,000
(c) ` 2,50,000 (d) `3,00,000
16. If Sales are ` 3,00,000 and P/V ratio is 20%, then what is the amount of Variable Cost?
(a) ` 2,40,000 (b) ` 80,000
(c) ` 2,70,000 (d) ` 2,00,000
17. The correct formula of Contribution is ______________.
(a) Contribution = Sales – Variable Cost
(b) Contribution = Fixed Cost + Profit or – Loss
(c) Contribution = Sales × P/ V Ratio
(d) All of the above
18. The correct formula of P/V Ratio is ____________.
(a) P/ V Ratio = [Contribution/Sales ] × 100
(b) P/ V Ratio = [Change in Profit/Change in Sales ] × 100
(c) P/ V Ratio = [Sales−Variable Cost/Sales] × 100
(d) All of the above
19. Marginal Costing is a Costing ______________.
(a) Technique (b) Method
(c) System (d) Convention
20. Under absorption and over absorption of overheads problems are not arisen under
______________.
(a) Marginal Costing (b) Standard Costing
(c) Job Costing (d) Budgetary Control
21. Standard cost is the ______________ cost.
(a) Pre-determined (b) Pre-decided
(c) Pre-planned (d) None of the above
22. Small organizations cannot adopt ______________ technique.
(a) Standard Costing (b) Marginal Costing
(c) Budgetary Control (d) None of the above
24 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
23. ______________ means difference between standard cost and actual cost.
(a) Balance Cost (b) Variance
(c) Marginal Cost (d) Variable Cost
24. ______________ helps management to understand the present costs and then to control the
future costs.
(a) ABC Analysis (b) Variance Analysis
(c) Marginal Analysis (d) Budget Analysis
25. Variances are classified in ______________ categories.
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
26. If Standard Cost ` 80 and Actual Cost ` 70, then what is the amount of Material Cost
Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 150 (d) 20
27. If Standard Price ` 8 & Standard Qty.10, Actual Price ` 7 & Actual Qty.10, then what is the
amount of Material Price Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 150 (d) 20
28. If Standard Price ` 8 & Standard Qty.10, Actual Price ` 7 & Actual Qty.10, then what is the
amount of Material Usage Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 50 (d) 0
29. If Standard Rate ` 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ` 2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Cost Variance?
(a) 600 (b) –600
(c) 500 (d) 400
30. If Standard Rate ` 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ` 2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Rate Variance?
(a) 750 (b) –750
(c) 600 (d) 400
31. If Standard Rate ` 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate `2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Efficiency Variance?
(a) 150 (b) –150
(c) 300 (d) 200
32. The correct formula for verification of Material Cost Variance is ______________.
(a) MCV = MPV + MUV (b) MCV = MPV – MUV
(c) MCV = MPV × MUV (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 25
33. The correct formula for verification of Labour Cost Variance is ______________.
(a) LCV = LRV + LEV (b) LCV = LRV – LEV
(c) LCV = LRV × LEV (d) None of the above
34. In Standard Costing comparison between ______________ is carried out.
(a) Standard Cost and Actual Cost (b) Fixed Cost and Variable Cost
(c) Normal Cost and Abnormal Cost (d) None of the above
35. The Disadvantages of Standard Costing is/are ______________.
(a) Establishments of standards are difficult in practice.
(b) Standards are requires to revise continuously.
(c) Inaccurate, unreliable and outdated standards do more harm than benefit
(d) All of the above
36. ______________ is a concrete precise picture of the total operation of an enterprise in
monetary terms.
(a) Budget (b) Plan
(c) Strategy (d) Goal
37. Accuracy cannot be maintained is a limitation of ______________.
(a) Budgetary Control (b) Scientific Planning
(c) Standard Costing (d) Marginal Costing
38. Pre- requisitions for effective implementation of Budgetary Control system is/are
______________.
(a) Deciding budget centres & budget period
(b) Preparation of a budget manual
(c) Determination of budget key factor
(d) All of the above
39. ______________ is the budget in which adjustment is possible according to change in
business conditions.
(a) Flexible Budget (b) Fixed Budget
(c) Sales Budget (d) Cash Budget
40. When forecasts about budget shows greater revenue to be received or generated than the
expenses to be incurred during budgeted period that is known as ______________.
(a) Surplus Budget (b) Best Budget
(c) Favourable Budget (d) Non-favourable Budget
41. ______________ budget highlights that the expenditures to be incurred in budget period will
be greater than the revenues to be received during the same period.
(a) Surplus Budget (b) Deficit Budget
(c) Favourable Budget (d) Non-favourable Budget
26 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
42. The establishment of budgets relating the responsibilities of executives to the requirements of
a policy and the continuous comparison of actual with budgeted results, either to secure by
individual action the objective of that policy or to provide basis for its revision is called as
______________.
(a) Budget (b) Budgeting
(c) Budgetary Control (d) None of the above
43. A ______________ is a powerful tool available to the management for the purpose of
maximizing profits.
(a) Budget (b) Decrease in selling price
(c) Standard Norm (d) Increase in selling price
44. Fixed Budget is also known as ______________.
(a) Static Budget (b) Standard Budget
(c) Master Budget (d) Flexible Budget
45. Normal Profit means ______________.
(a) No Profit No Loss (b) Less Profit
(c) Expected Profit (d) None of the above
46. Personnel Budget is also called as ______________.
(a) Cost Budget (b) Labour Budget
(c) Employee Budget (d) None of the above
47. In cash budget, ______________ transactions are considered.
(a) Cash (b) Credit
(c) all financial (d) None of the above
48. Budget is prepared for a ______________ period of time.
(a) Fixed (b) One Month
(c) One Year (d) None of the above
49. Purchase Budget is also called as ______________.
(a) Production Budget (b) Material Budget
(c) Cost Budget (d) None of the above
50. ______________ is the plan of proposed investment in the fixed assets.
(a) Fixed Budget (b) Capital Expenditure Budget
(c) Cash Budget (d) Purchase Budget
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 27
EXECUTIVE PROGRAMME
COST AND MANAGEMENT ACCOUNTING
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
(This test paper is for practice and self study only and not to be sent to the institute)
[Attempt all questions. Each question carries 1 mark. There is no negative mark for incorrect answers.]
Q.18. Out of the following, what is not the work of purchase department:
(a) Receiving purchase requisition
(b) Exploring the sources of material supply
(c) Preparation and execution of purchase orders
(d) Accounting for material received
Q.22. Economic order quantity is that quantity at which cost of holding and carrying inventory is:
(a) Maximum and equal
(b) Minimum and equal
(c) It can be maximum or minimum depending upon case to case.
(d) Minimum and unequal
Q.24. Which one out of the following is not an inventory valuation method?
(a) FIFO
(b) LIFO
(c) Weighted Average
(d) EOQ
Q.29. Calculate the value of closing stock from the following according to FIFO method:
1st January, 2014: Opening balance: 50 units @ Rs. 4
Receipts:
5th January, 2014: 100 units @ Rs. 5
12th January, 2014: 200 units @ Rs. 4.50
Issues:
2nd January, 2014: 30 units
18th January, 2014: 150 units
(a) Rs. 765
(b) Rs. 805
(c) Rs. 786
(d) Rs. 700
Q.30. Calculate the value of closing stock from the following according to LIFO method:
1st January, 2014: Opening balance: 50 units @ Rs. 4
Receipts:
5th January, 2014: 100 units @ Rs. 5
12th January, 2014: 200 units @ Rs. 4.50
Issues:
2nd January, 2014: 30 units
18th January, 2014: 150 units
(a) Rs. 765
(b) Rs. 805
(c) Rs. 786
(d) Rs. 700
Q.31. Calculate the value of closing stock from the following according to Weighted Average method:
1st January, 2014: Opening balance: 50 units @ Rs. 4
Receipts:
5th January, 2014: 100 units @ Rs. 5
12th January, 2014: 200 units @ Rs. 4.50
Issues:
2nd January, 2014: 30 units
18th January, 2014: 150 units
(a) Rs. 765
(b) Rs. 805
(c) Rs. 786
(d) Rs. 700
Q.34. From the following information, calculate the extra cost of material by following EOQ:
Annual consumption: = 45000 units
Ordering cost per order: = Rs. 10
Carrying cost per unit per annum: = Rs. 10
Purchase price per unit = Rs. 50
Re-order quantity at present = 45000 units
There is discount of 10% per unit in case of purchase of 45000 units in bulk.
(a) No saving
(b) Rs. 2,00,000
(c) Rs. 2,22,010
(d) Rs. 2,990
Q.36. If overtime is resorted to at the desire of the customer, then the overtime premium:
(a) should be charged to costing profit and loss account;
(b) should not be charged at all
(c) should be charged to the job directly
(d) should be charged to the highest profit making department
Q.39. Costs associated with the labour turnover can be categorised into:
(a) Preventive Costs only
(b) Replacement costs only
(c) Both of the above
(d) Machine costs
Labour turnover rates are 20%, 10% and 6% respectively under Flux method, Replacement method and
Separation method. No. of workers replaced during the quarter is 80.
(a) 112
(b) 80
(c) 48
(d) 64
Q.42. Calculate the labour turnover rate according to replacement method from the following:
No. of workers on the payroll:
- At the beginning of the month: 500
- At the end of the month: 600
During the month, 5 workers left, 20 workers were discharged and 75 workers were recruited. Of
these, 10 workers were recruited in the vacancies of those leaving and while the rest were
engaged for an expansion scheme.
(a) 4.55%
(b) 1.82%
(c) 6%
(d) 3%
Q.43. Calculate the labour turnover rate according to Separation method from the following:
No. of workers on the payroll:
- At the beginning of the month: 500
- At the end of the month: 600
During the month, 5 workers left, 20 workers were discharged and 75 workers were recruited. Of these,
10 workers were recruited in the vacancies of those leaving and while the rest were engaged for an
expansion scheme.
(a) 4.55%
(b) 1.82%
(c) 6%
(d) 3%
Q.44. A worker is allowed 60 hours to complete the job on a guaranteed wage of Rs. 10 per hour. Under
the Rowan Plan, he gets an hourly wage of Rs. 12 per hour. For the same saving in time, how much he
will get under the Halsey Plan?
(a) Rs. 720
(b) Rs. 540
(c) Rs. 600
(d) Rs. 900
Q.46. Allotment of whole item of cost to a cost centre or cost unit is known as:
(a) Cost Apportionment
(b) Cost Allocation
(c) Cost Absorption
(d) Machine hour rate
Q.49. Most suitable basis for apportioning insurance of machine would be:
(a) Floor Area
(b) Value of Machines
(c) No. of Workers
(d) No. of Machines
Q.51. AT Co makes a single product and is preparing its material usage budget for next year. Each unit of
product requires 2kg of material, and 5,000 units of product are to be produced next year.
Opening inventory of material is budgeted to be 800 kg and AT co budgets to increase material inventory
at the end of next year by 20%
Q.52. During a period 17, 500 labour hours were worked at a standard cost of Rs 6.50 per hour. The
labour efficiency variance was Rs 7,800 favourable.
How many standard hours were produced?
(a) 1,200
(b) 16,300
(c) 17,500
(d) 18,700
Q.53. Which of the following is not a reason for an idle time variance?
(a) Wage rate increase
(b) Machine breakdown
(c) Illness or injury to worker
(d) Non- availability of material
Q.54. During September, 300 labour hours were worked for a total cost of Rs 4800. The variable
overhead expenditure variance was Rs 600 (A). Overheads are assumed to be related to direct labour
hours of active working.
Q.55. Which of the following would explain an adverse variable production overhead efficiency variance?
1. Employees were of a lower skill level than specified in the standard
2. Unexpected idle time resulted from a series of machine breakdown
3. Poor Quality material was difficult to process
(a) (1), (2) and (3)
(b) (1) and (2)
(c) (2) and (3)
(d) (1) and (3)
Q.56. Budgeted sales of X for March are 18000 units. At the end of the production process for X, 10% of
production units are scrapped as defective. Opening inventories of X for March are budgeted to be 15000
units and closing inventories will be 11,400 units. All inventories of finished goods must have successfully
passed the quality control check. The production budget for X for March, in units is:
(a) 12,960
(b) 14,400
(c) 15,840
(d) 16,000
Q.57. CG Co manufactures a single product T. Budgeted production output of product T during June is
200 units. Each unit of product T requires 6 labour hours for completion and CG Co anticipates 20 per
cent idle time. Labour is paid at a rate of Rs7 per hour. The direct labour cost budget for March is
(a) Rs 6,720
(b) 8,400
(c) 10,080
(d) 10,500
Q.58. A Local Authority is preparing cash Budget for its refuse disposal department. Which of the
following items would not be included in the cash budget?
(a) Capital cost of a new collection vehicle
(b) Depreciation of the machinery
(c) Operatives wages
(d) Fuel for the collection Vehicles
Q.59. BDL Ltd. is currently preparing its cash budget for the year to 31 March 2014. An extract from its
sales budget for the same year shows the following sales values.
Rs
March 60,000
April 70,000
May 55,000
June 65,000
40% of its sales are expected to be for cash. Of its credit sales, 70% are expected to pay in month after
sale and take a 2% discount. 27% are expected to pay in the second month after the sale, and the
remaining 3% are expected to be bad debts. The value of sales budget to be shown in the cash budget
for May 2013 is
(a) Rs 60,532
(b) Rs 61,120
(c) Rs 66,532
(d) Rs 86,620
Q.60. The actual output of 162,500 units and actual fixed costs of Rs. 87000 were exactly as budgeted.
However, the actual expenditure of Rs 300,000 was Rs. 18,000 over budget.
What was the budget variable cost per unit?
(a) Rs 1.20
(b) Rs 1.31
(c) Rs1.42
(d) Rs 1.50
Q.61. CA Co manufactures a single product and has drawn up the following flexed budget for the year.
What would be the total cost in a budget that is prepared at the 77% level of activity?
(a) Rs 330,300
(b) Rs 370,300
(c) Rs 373,300
(d) Rs 377,300
Q.62. A ltd is a manufacturing company that has no production resource limitations for the foreseeable
future. The Managing Director has asked the company mangers to coordinate the preparation of their
budgets for the next financial year. In what order should the following budgets be prepared?
(1) Sales budget
(2) Cash budget
(3) Production budget
(4) Purchase budget
(5) Finished goods inventory budget
(a) (2), (3), (4), (5), (1)
(b) (1), (5), (3), (4), (2)
(c) (1), (4), (5), (3), (2)
(d) (4), (5), (3), (1), (2)
Q.63. S produces and sells one product, P, for which the data are as follows:
Selling price Rs 28
Variable cost Rs 16
Fixed cost Rs 4
The fixed costs are based on a budgeted production and sales level of 25,000 units for the next period.
Due to market changes both the selling price and the variable cost are expected to increase above the
budgeted level in the next period.
If the selling price and variable cost per unit increase by 10% and 8% respectively, by how much must
sales volume change, compared with the original budgeted level, in order to achieve the original
budgeted profit for the period?
(a) 10.1% decrease
(b) 11.2% decrease
(c) 13.3% decrease
(d) 16.0% decrease
Q.65. Process B had no opening inventory. 13,500 units of raw material were transferred in at Rs 4.50
per unit. Additional material at Rs1.25per unit was added in process. Labour and overheads were Rs 6.25
per completed unit and Rs 2.50 per unit incomplete.
If 11,750completed units were transferred out, what was the closing inventory in Process B?
Q.66. A process costing system for J Co used an input of 3,500Kg of materials at Rs20 per Kg and labour
hours of 2,750 at Rs25 per hour. Normal loss is 20% and losses can be sold at a scrap value of Rs5per
Kg. Output was 2,950 Kg. What is the value of the output?
(a) Rs 142,485
(b) Rs 146,183
(c) Rs 149,746
(d) Rs 152,986
Q.67. In process costing, if an abnormal loss arises, the process account is generally
(a) Debited with the scrap value of the abnormal loss units
(b) Debited with the full production cost of the abnormal loss units
(c) Credited with the scrap value of the abnormal loss units
(d) Credited with the full production cost of the abnormal loss units
Q.69. A job is budgeted to require 3,300 productive hours after incurring 25% idle time. If the total labour
cost budgeted for the job is Rs36,300. What is the labour cost per hour( to the nearest cent)?
(a) Rs 8.25
(b) Rs 8.80
(c) Rs 11.00
(d) Rs 14.67
Q.70. A company calculates the prices of jobs by adding overheads to the prime cost and adding 30% to
total costs as a profit margin. Job number Y256 was sold for Rs1690 and incurred overheads of Rs 694.
What was the prime cost of the job?
(a) Rs 489
(b) Rs 606
(c) Rs 996
(d) Rs 1300
Q.71. State which of the following are the characteristics of service costing.
1. High levels of indirect costs as a proportion of total costs
2. Use of composite cost units
3. Use of equivalent units
(a) (1) only
(b) (1) and (2) only
(c) (2) only
(d) (2) and (3) only
Q.72. Which of the following organisations should not be advised to use service costing?
(a) Distribution service
(b) Hospital
(c) Maintenance division of a manufacturing company
(d) A light engineering company
Q.73. Calculate the most appropriate unit cost for a distribution division of a multinational company using
the following information.
Miles travelled 636,500
Tonnes carried 2,479
Number of drivers 20
Hours worked by drivers 35,520
Tonnes miles carried 375,200
Cost incurred 562,800
(a) Rs .88
(b) Rs 1.50
(c) Rs 15.84
(d) Rs28, 140
Q.74. The following information is available for the W hotel for the latest thirty day period.
Number of rooms available per night 40
Percentage occupancy achieved 65%
Room servicing cost incurred Rs. 3900
The room servicing cost per occupied room-night last period, to the nearest Rs, was:
(a) Rs 3.25
(b) Rs 5.00
(c) Rs 97.50
(d) Rs 150.00
Q.75. A company makes a single product and incurs fixed costs of Rs. 30,000 per annum. Variable cost
per unit is Rs. 5 and each unit sells for Rs. 15. Annual sales demand is 7,000 units. The breakeven point
is:
(a) 2,000 units
(b) 3,000 units
(c) 4,000 units
(d) 6,000 units
Q.76. A company manufactures a single product for which cost and selling price data are as follows:
Selling price per unit - Rs. 12
Variable cost per unit - Rs. 8
Fixed cost for a period - Rs. 98,000
Budgeted sales for a period - 30,000 units
The margin of safety, expressed as a percentage of budgeted sales,is:
(a) 20%
b) 25%
(c) 73%
(d) 125%
b) 8,333 units
Q.78. How many units must be sold if company wants to achieve a profit of Rs. 11,000 for the year?
Q.79. It is now expected that the variable production cost per unit and the selling price per unit will each
increase by 10%, and fixed production cost will rise by 25%. What will be the new break even point?
(a) 8,788 units
(b) 11,600 units
(c) 11,885 units
(d) 12,397 units
Q.80. A company's break even point is 6,000 units per annum. The selling price is Rs. 90 per unit and
the variable cost is Rs. 40 per unit. What are the company's annual fixed costs?
(a) Rs. 120
(b) Rs. 2,40,000
(c) Rs. 3,00,000
Q.82. After inviting tenders for supply of raw materials, two quotations are received as follows—
Supplier P Rs. 2.20 per unit, Supplier Q Rs. 2.10 per unit plus Rs. 2,000 fixed charges irrespective of the
units ordered. The order quantity for which the purchase price per unit will be the same—
(a) 22,000 units
(b) 20,000 units
(c) 21,000 units
(d) None of the above.
Q.83. In case of joint products, the main objective of accounting of the cost is to apportion the joint costs
incurred up to the split off point. For cost apportionment one company has chosen Physical Quantity
Method. Three joint products ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ are produced in the same process. Up to the point of split off
the total production of A, B and C is 60,000 kg, out of which ‘A’ produces 30,000 kg and joint costs are
Rs. 3,60,000. Joint costs allocated to product A is
(a) Rs. 1,20,000
(b) Rs. 60,000
(c) Rs. 1,80,000
(d) None of the these
Q.84. A transport company is running five buses between two towns, which are 50 kms apart. Seating
capacity of each bus is 50 passengers. Actually passengers carried by each bus were 75% of seating
capacity. All buses ran on all days of the month. Each bus made one round trip per day.
Passenger kms are:
(a) 2,81,250
(b) 1,87,500
(c) 5,62,500
(d) None of the above
Q.85. The cost per unit of a product manufactured in a factory amounts to Rs. 160 (75% variable) when
the production is 10,000 units. When production increases by 25%, the cost of production will be Rs. per
unit.
(a) Rs. 145
(b) Rs. 150
(c) Rs. 152
(d) Rs. 140
Q.86. In ‘make or buy’ decision, it is profitable to buy from outside only when the supplier’s price is below
the firm’s own ______________.
(a) Fixed Cost
(b) Variable Cost
(c) Total Cost
(d) Prime Cost
Q.87. A budget which is prepared in a manner so as to give the budgeted cost for any level of activity is
known as:
(a) Master budget
(b) Zero base budget
((c) Functional budget
(d) Flexible budget
Q.90. _____________ is a detailed budget of cash receipts and cash expenditure incorporating both
revenue and capital items.
(a) Cash Budget
(b) Capital Expenditure Budget
(c) Sales Budget
(d) Overhead Budget
Q.92. For the financial year ended as on March 31, 2013 the figures extracted from the balance sheet of
Xerox Limited as under:
Opening Stock Rs. 29,000; Purchases Rs. 2,42,000; Sales Rs. 3,20,000; Gross Profit 25% of Sales.
Stock Turnover Ratio will be :-
(a) 8 times
(b) 6 times
(c) 9 times
(d) 10 times
Q.93. If credit sales for the year is Rs. 5,40,000 and Debtors at the end of year is Rs. 90,000 the Average
Collection Period will be
(a) 30 days
(b) 61 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 120 days
Q.94. The summarized balance sheet of Rakesh udyog Limited shows the balances of previous and
current year of provision for taxation Rs. 50,000 and Rs. 65,000. If taxed paid during the current year
amounted to Rs. 70,000 then amount charge from Profit and Loss Account will be:
(a) Rs. 55,000
(b) Rs. 85,000
(c) Rs. 45,000
(d) Rs. 1,85,000
Q.95. The summarized balance sheet of Autolight Limited shows the balances of previous and current
year of retained earnings Rs. 25,000 and Rs. 35,000. If dividend paid during the current year amounted to
Rs. 5,000 then profit earned during the year will be:
(a) Rs. 5,000
(b) Rs. 55,000
(c) Rs. 15,000
(d) Rs. 65,000
Q.96. Following information is available of XYZ Limited for quarter ended June, 2013
Fixed cost Rs. 5,00,000
Variable cost Rs. 10 per unit
Selling price Rs. 15 per unit
Output level 1,50,000 units
What will be amount of profit earned during the quarter using the marginal costing technique?
(a) Rs. 2,50,000
(b) Rs. 10,00,000
(c) Rs. 5,00,000
(d) Rs. 17,50,000
Q.97. The P/v ratio of a company is 50% and margin of safety is 40%. If present sales is Rs. 30,00,000
then Break Even Point in Rs. will be
(a) Rs. 9,00,000
(b) Rs. 18,00,000
(c) Rs. 5,00,000
(d) None of the above
Q.98. Following information is available of PQR for year ended March, 2013: 4,000 units in process,
3,800 units output, 10% of input is normal wastage, Rs. 2.50 per unit is scrap value and Rs. 46,000
incurred towards total process cost then amount on account of abnormal gain to be transferred to Costing
P&L will be:-
(a) Rs. 2,500
(b) Rs. 2,000
(c) Rs. 4,000
(d) Rs. 3,500
Q.99. In element-wise classification of overheads, which one of the following is not included —
(a) Fixed overheads
(b) Indirect labour
(c) Indirect materials
(d) Indirect expenditure.
Q.100. When the sales increase from Rs. 40,000 to Rs. 60,000 and profit increases by Rs. 5,000, the P/V
ratio is —
(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 25%
(d) 40%.
Test Papers 581
ANSWERS
1. d 35. d 69. a
2. a 36. c 70. b
3. d 37. b 71. b
4. a 38. d 72. d
5. c 39. c 73. b
6. a 40. c 74. b
7. d 41. a 75. b
8. b 42. b 76. a
9. b 43. a 77. d
10. b 44. b 78. d
11. a 45. b 79. c
12. b 46. b 80. c
13. c 47. d 81. b
14. c 48. c 82. b
15. b 49. b 83. c
16. c 50. a 84. c
17. c 51. c 85. c
18. d 52. d 86. b
19. b 53. a 87. d
20. a 54. a 88. a
21. a 55. d 89. b
22. b 56. d 90. a
23. c 57. d 91. b
24. d 58. b 92. a
25. b 59. a 93. b
26. a 60. a 94. b
27. b 61. b 95. c
28. a 62. b 96. a
29. a 63. b 97. b
30. b 64. b 98. a
31. c 65. c 99. a
32. b 66. a 100. c
33. d 67. d
34. d 68. c
BBA Semester-VI
Subject : Management Accounting
Multiple Choice Questions
1 The cost that tends to remain constant irrespective of the level of activity is called
_______.
(a) Variable cost
(b) Fixed cost
(c) Total cost
(d) All of the above
2 Cost Accounting restrict itself with _______ transactions.
(a) Financial
(b) Spot
(c) Historical
(d) Administrative
3 Following is (are) the method(s) of measuring labour turnover.
(a) Replacement Method
(b) Separation Method
(c) Flux Method
(d) All of the above
4 Following is (are) the example(s) of semi-variable overheads.
(a) Maintenance cost
(b) Electricity
(c) Health and Accident Insurance
(d) All of the above
5 _________ indicates the financial status of the business at given period.
(a) Balance sheet
(b) Accounting ledger
(c) General ledger
(d) All of the above
6 In Cash budget, Non operating cash inflow include(s)
(a) Receipt of loan/borrowings
(b) Issue of shares
(c) Sale of fixed assets
(d) All of the above
7 Sales Budget is a forecast expressed in -
(a) Quantity
(b) Money
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
8 Following is used as tool for Cost Control
(a) Marginal cost
(b) Historical cost
(c) Standard cost
(d) All of the above
9 Management accounting assists the management
(a) Only in control
(b) Only in direction
(c) Only in planning
(d) In planning, direction and control
10 Management accounting is deals with -
(a) Quantitative Information
(b) Qualitative Information
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
11 Which of the following is an advantage of standard costing?
(a) Measuring efficiency
(b) Facilitates cost control
(c) Determination of variance
(d) All of the above
12 Which of the following is not a functional budget?
(a) Labour budget
(b) Cash budget
(c) Materials budget
(d) Expenses budget
13 Which is the mostly likely purpose of budgeting?
(a) Planning and control of an organization's income and expenditure
(b) Preparation of a five-year business plan
(c) Company valuation
(d) Assess the non-financial performance of an organization
14 __________ Accounting becomes a source of information for Management Accounting.
(a) Financial
(b) Cost
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
15 Calculate the production budget from the following data: sales 89,350 units; opening
inventory 23,864 units; closing inventory 33,156 units.
(a) 80,058 units
(b) 1,46,370 units
(c) 32,320 units
(d) 98,642 units
16 Fixed budget is useless for comparison when the level of activity -
(a) Increases
(b) Fluctuates both ways
(c) Decreases
(d) Constant
17 The budget committee consists of -
(a) Managers
(b) Budget officers
(c) Creditors
(d) None of the above
18 A budget centre is -
(a) Department or part of the department
(b) Meeting place for budget committee
(c) Office of the budget officer
(d) None of the above
19 The main objective of budgetary control is -
(a) To define the goal of the firm
(b) To coordinate different departments
(c) To plan to achieve its goals
(d) All of the above
20 Production budget is -
(a) Dependent on purchase budget
(b) Dependent on sales budget
(c) Dependent on cash budget
(d) None of the above
21 Sales budget shows the sales details as -
(a) Month wise
(b) Product wise
(c) Area wise
(d) All of the above
22 An example of long period budget is -
(a) R & D budget
(b) Master budget
(c) Sales budget
(d) Personnel budget
23 The budgets are classified on the basis of -
(a) Time
(b) Function
(c) Flexibility
(d) All of the above
24 Budget relating to the key factor is prepared -
(a) After other budgets
(b) With other budgets
(c) Before other budgets
(d) None of the above
25 Key factor is also known as -
(a) Limiting factor
(b) Governing factor
(c) Principal factor
(d) All of the above
26 In responsibility accounting system -
(a) Budgets are prepared
(b) Actual performance is recorded
(c) The performance is reported
(d) All of the above
27 The responsibility accounting emphasizes the performance of -
(a) System
(b) Men
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
28 The responsibility accounting is also called -
(a) Profitability accounting
(b) Activity accounting
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
29 The responsibility accounting is the part of -
(a) Financial accounting
(b) Management accounting
(c) Mechanized accounting
(d) None of these
30 The responsibility accounting is a controlling tool for -
(a) Top‐level management
(b) Lower level management
(c) Middle level management
(d) None of these
31 Which of the following system emphasizes on cost control ?
(a) Cost accounting
(b) Responsibility accounting
(c) Financial accounting
(d) None of these
32 The responsibility centres come under the responsibility of -
(a) Cost accountants
(b) Management accountant
(c) Responsibility managers
(d) Auditor
33 The subdivision of responsibility centre is -
(a) Expense centre
(b) Profit centre
(c) Investment centre
(d) All of the above
34 The accounting department in an organization is -
(a) Investment centre
(b) Expense centre
(c) Profit centre
(d) All of the above
35 What is the main advantage of responsibility accounting ?
(a) Improves performance
(b) It fixes responsibility
(c) Helpful in decision making
(d) All of the above
36 The responsibility accounting is a system by which the responsibility is assigned to the
concerned persons -
(a) To increase sales
(b) To control cash
(c) To increase production
(d) All of the above
37 The contribution of accounting department in an organization -
(a) Cannot be measured in monetary terms
(b) Can be measured in monetary terms
(c) May or may not be measured in monetary terms
(d) None of the above
38 According to responsibility accounting, the entire organization is divided into various -
(a) Business centre
(b) Profit centre
(c) Responsibility centre
(d) None of the above
39 It may not be ______ to measure exactly the output of service departments in an
organization.
(a) Feasible
(b) Necessary
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) None of these
40 Internal transfer of process at profit _________ of the company.
(a) Will not increase the asset
(b) Will increase the asset
(c) Can’t say
(d) Inadequate information
41 Budgetary control __________ replace management in decision‐making.
(a) Can
(b) Cannot
(c) Sometimes
(d) Inadequate data
42 The success of budgetary control system depends upon the willing cooperation of ….…
(a) Shareholders
(b) Management
(c) Creditors
(d) All the functional areas of management
43 A key factor is one which restricts ……
(a) The volume of production
(b) The volume of sales
(c) The volume of purchase
(d) All of the above
44 The classification of fixed and variable cost is useful for the preparation of ……
(a) Master budget
(b) Flexible budget
(c) Cash budget
(d) Capital budget
45 The primary objective of management accounting is –
(a) To provide shareholders and potential investors with useful information for decision
making
(b) To provide banks and other creditors with information useful in making credit
decisions
(c) To provide management with information useful for planning and control of
operations
(d) To provide the relevant taxation authorities with information about taxable income
46 In ‘make or buy’ decision, it is profitable to buy from outside only when the supplier’s
price is below the firm’s own ___________.
(a) Fixed Cost
(b) Variable Cost
(c) Total Cost
(d) Prime Cost
47 __________ is a detailed budget of cash receipts and cash expenditure incorporating
both revenue and capital items.
(a) Cash Budget
(b) Capital Expenditure Budget
(c) Sales Budget
(d) Overhead Budget
48 Sunk costs are __________.
(a) Relevant for decision making
(b) Not relevant for decision making
(c) Cost to be incurred in future
(d) Future costs
49 Abnormal cost is the cost ___________.
(a) Cost normally incurred at a given level of output
(b) Cost not normally incurred at a given level of output
(c) Cost which is charged to customer
(d) Cost which is included in the cost of the product
50 Responsibility Centre can be categorised into ___________.
(a) Cost Centres only
(b) Profit Centres only
(c) Investment Centres only
(d) All of the above
51 A profit centre is a centre ___________.
(a) Where the manager has the responsibility of generating and maximising profits
(b) Which is concerned with earning an adequate Return on Investment
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Which manages cost
52 Management Accounting is and financial accounting differ in that management
accounting information is prepared –
(a) Following prescribed rules
(b) Using whatever methods the company finds beneficial
(c) For shareholders
(d) To summarize the whole company with little detail
53 Purpose of Management Accounting is to –
(a) Past orientation
(b) Help banks make decisions
(c) Help managers make decisions
(d) Help investors make decisions
54 Management Accounting is the branch of accounting concerned with reporting to –
(a) Internal Managers
(b) Shareholders
(c) The Government
(d) Bankers
55 Which of the following does NOT describe management accounting?
(a) Evaluation of segments or products within the firm
(b) Emphasis on the future
(c) Externally focused
(d) Detailed information
56 Management accounting reports are prepared
(a) To meet the needs of decision makers within the firm
(b) Whenever shareholders request them
(c) According to guidelines prepared by the shares and Financial Services Authority
(d) According to financial accounting standards
57 Management accounting is primarily concerned with -
(a) Providing investors with useful information for valuing securities.
(b) Providing creditors information on the status of their loans.
(c) Providing managers with relevant information to help achieve organizational goals.
(d) Providing the relevant taxation authorities with information to determine the amount
of taxes owed.
58 Which matters are taken into consideration while preparing production budget ?
(a) The estimate of the number of units to be produced during the budget period.
(b) Estimate of number of units to be sold.
(c) Policy regarding the wage fixation for labourers.
(d) Policy regarding the selection of suppliers from whom materials would be purchased.
59 Which of the following matter is to be taken into account which preparing Material
Purchase Budget ?
(a) The supplier from whom materials are to be purchased.
(b) The procedure of storing and preserving materials after they are received.
(c) The prices at which receipts and issues of materials are to be recorded in stores
ledger.
(d) The maximum and minimum quantities of materials to be purchased.
60 Which of the following matter is relevant with cash receipts and disbursement method of
preparing Cash Budget ?
(a) While determining the cash payments, it is necessary to estimate the credit sales.
(b) While estimating cash receipts, it is not necessary to estimate the figure of credit
sales.
(c) Debtors Ratio is used to estimate the timings when cash collections would be
obtained from credit sales.
(d) While estimating the total amount of cash payment for purchases, it is necessary to
decide from which suppliers materials are to be purchased.
61 Budget period depends upon -
(a) The type of budget
(b) The nature of business
(c) The length of trade cycles
(d) All of the above
62 Usually the production budget is stated in terms of -
(a) Money
(b) Quantity
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
63 Recording of actual performance is -
(a) An advantage of budgetary control
(b) A step in budgetary control
(c) A limitation of budgetary control
(d) None of the above
64 Budgetary control system helps the management to eliminate -
(a) Undercapitalization
(b) Overcapitalization
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
65 Budgetary control facilitates easy introduction of the -
(a) Marginal costing
(b) Ratio analysis
(c) Standard costing
(d) Subjective matter
66 Budgetary control system acts as a friend, philosopher and guide to the -
(a) Management
(b) Share holders
(c) Creditors
(d) Employees
67 Budgetary control system defines the objectives and policies of the -
(a) Production department
(b) Finance department
(c) Marketing department
(d) Subjective matter
68 A budget is tool which helps the management in planning and control of -
(a) All business activities
(b) Production activities
(c) Purchase activities
(d) Sales activities
69 In responsibility centre, the output is called as -
(a) Revenue
(b) Cost
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
70 If the responsibility centre gets more revenue from output, then it is called -
(a) Investment centre
(b) Cost centre
(c) Profit centre
(d) Expense centre
71 Cost Unit is defined as -
(a) Unit of quantity of product, service or time in relation to which costs may be
ascertained or expressed
(b) A location, person or an item of equipment or a group of these for which costs are
ascertained and used for cost control.
(c) Centres having the responsibility of generating and maximising profits
(d) Centres concerned with earning an adequate return on investment
72 Fixed cost is a cost -
(a) Which changes in total in proportion to changes in output
(b) Which is partly fixed and partly variable in relation to output
(c) Which do not change in total during a given period despise changes in output
(d) Which remains same for each unit of output
73 Uncontrollable costs are the costs which be influenced by the action of a specified
member of an undertaking. -
(a) can not
(b) can
(c) may or may not
(d) must
74 Element/s of Cost of a product are -
(a) Material only
(b) Labour only
(c) Expenses only
(d) Material, Labour and expenses
75 Overhead refers to -
(a) Direct or Prime Cost
(b) All Indirect costs
(c) Only Factory indirect costs
(d) Only indirect expenses
76 Which of the following is not a method of cost absorption?
(a) Percentage of direct material cost
(b) Machine hour rate
(c) Labour hour rate
(d) Repeated distribution method
77 A Local Authority is preparing cash Budget for its refuse disposal department. Which of
the following items would not be included in the cash budget?
(a) Capital cost of a new collection vehicle
(b) Depreciation of the machinery
(c) Operatives wages
(d) Fuel for the collection Vehicles
78 Which of the following characteristics does NOT pertain to management accounting?
(a) Provides information and estimates about future activity
(b) Generates specific-purpose financial statements and reports
(c) Provides financial and operating data multidisciplinary in scope
(d) Has externally imposed standards
79 A budget which is prepared in a manner so as to give the budgeted cost for any level of
activity is known as -
(a) Master budget
(b) Zero base budget
(c) Functional budget
(d) Flexible budget
80 ___________ is a summary of all functional budgets in a capsule form.
(a) Functional Budget
(b) Master Budget
(c) Long Period Budget
(d) Flexible Budget
81 When the sales increase from Rs. 40,000 to Rs. 60,000 and profit increases by Rs. 5,000,
the P/V ratio is -
(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 25%
(d) 40%
82 From following which is not a principle of good reporting ?
(a) Simplicity
(b) Accountability
(c) Promptness
(d) Accuracy
83 From day to day operation which report is prepare ?
(a) Routine
(b) Special
(c) Investigative
(d) External
84 Any special event happen into the business then which report is prepared ?
(a) Routine
(b) Special
(c) External
(d) Control
85 Internal report use for _______________ .
(a) Share holders
(b) Government
(c) Managerial personnel
(d) Creditors
86 External report use for _______________ .
(a) Top level management
(b) Middle level management
(c) Lower level management
(d) Shareholders
87 From following which is not a routine report ?
(a) Production report
(b) Sales report
(c) Investigation
(d) Administration report
89. Financial accounting is primarily concerned with providing financial reports to all of
the following EXCEPT
a. creditors such as banks and other financial institutions.
b. creditors such as suppliers.
c. shareholders of the company.
d. management of the firm.
90. Management accounting and financial accounting differ in that management accounting
information is prepared
a. following prescribed rules.
b. using whatever methods the company finds beneficial.
c. for shareholders.
d. to summarize the whole company with little detail.
97. Which of the following costing activities is associated with the financial accounting
system?
a. determining the cost of a department
b. determining the cost of goods sold for financial statements
c. preparing budgets
d. determining the cost of a customer
98. Which of the following activities is NOT associated with the financial accounting
information system?
a. reporting on the cost of quality
b. reporting to the shareholders
c. preparing reports for the tax authorities
d. preparing a statement of cash flows
99. Which of the following cost management tools supports the firm's concentration on the
delivery of value to the customer?
a. service industry growth
b. global competition
c. preparing an earnings report for external reporting
d. value-chain analysis
100. Factors that have led to a global market for manufacturing and service firms are
a. improved transportation and communications systems.
b. improved telemarketing and communications.
c. improved distribution and transportation systems.
d. None of these factors have contributed.
101. Which of the following activities is NOT significant to the advancement of information
technology?
a. enterprise resource planning software
b. emergence of electronic commerce
c. theory of constraints
d. decision support systems
102. Software that has integrated system capability using real time data is
a. enterprise resource planning software.
b. on-line analytic programs.
c. computer-assisted engineering software.
d. none of the above.
103. Automation of the manufacturing environment is associated with increases in
a. inventory.
b. capacity.
c. processing time.
d. none of these.
104. Total quality management emphasizes
a. zero defects.
b. continual improvement.
c. elimination of waste.
d. all of the above.
105. Which of the following emerging themes in cost accounting deals with managers striving
to create an environment that will enable workers to manufacture perfect (zero-defect)
products?
a. advances in information technology
b. time as a competitive element
c. global competition
d. total quality management
106. Competitive advantage is established by
a. providing more customer products than competitors.
b. providing better quality than competitors.
c. providing greater customer value for less cost than competitors.
d. providing greater efficiencies than competitors.
108. Which of the following statements is NOT true about world-class firms?
a. World-class firms are firms that are poor in customer support.
b. World-class firms know their market and their products.
c. World-class firms strive continually to improve product design, manufacture,
and delivery.
d. World-class firms can compete with the best of the best in a global environment.
109. Monitoring the number of defects produced is an example of the management function of
a. planning.
b. control.
c. decision making.
d. both a and c.
111. Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes between financial and
management accounting?
a. Management accounting reports on the whole organization.
b. Financial accounting is oriented toward the future.
c. Financial accounting is primarily concerned with providing information for
internal users.
d. Management accounting is oriented more toward the planning and control
aspects of management.
112. Setting the company's profit targets for the upcoming year is an example of the
management function of
a. planning.
b. control.
c. variance analysis.
d. internal auditing.
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1. Which phrase best describes the current role of the managerial accountant?
a. Managerial accountants prepare the financial statements for an organization.
b. Managerial accountants facilitate the decision-making process within an organization.
c. Managerial accountants make the key decisions within an organization.
d. Managerial accountants are primarily information collectors.
e. Managerial Accountants are solely staff advisors in an organization.
Volume Cost
1 unit $ 15
10 units 150
100 units 1500
8. Which of the following statements regarding graphs of fixed and variable costs is true?
a. Variable costs can be represented by a straight line where costs are the same for each
data point.
b. Fixed costs can be represented by a straight line starting at the origin and continuing
through each data point.
c. Fixed costs are zero when production is equal to zero.
d. Variable costs are zero when production is equal to zero.
e. Fixed and Variable costs are curvilinear form above zero on the “Y” axis.
10. Broihan Corporation has the following purchases budget for the last half of 2002:
Historically, the company pays one half at the time of purchase and the remainder in the month
following purchase.
The activities for large and small yard systems were as follows:
Large Small
purchase orders 15,000 20,000
shipments received 7,500 12,500
inspections 11,500 11,000
If a customer requested a bid on a specially designed sprinkler that would probably require four
inspections, how much quality inspection overhead would you include in the bid?
a. $ 0
b. $40
c. $80
d. $120.
e. $160.
A B C Total
Sales $10,000 9,000 12,000 31,000
Variable costs 4,500 7,000 6,000 17,500
Contribution Margin 5,500 2,000 6,000 13,500
Fixed costs 3,500 6,000 3,000 12,500
Net income 2,000 (4,000) 3,000 1,000
Product line B appears unprofitable, and management is considering discontinuing the line. How
would the discontinuation of Product line B affect net income?
a. increase by $4,000
b. decrease by $4,000
c. increase by $2,000
d. decrease by $2,000
e. increase by $6,000
13. Coed Novelties manufactures key chains for college bookstores. During 2003, the company
had the following costs:
35,000 units produced were in 2003. What is the product cost per unit?
a. approximately $1.24
b. $1.80
c. approximately $3.04
d. $1.40
e. approximately $1.82
15. The Unique Bookshelf Company is considering the purchase of a custom delivery van
costing approximately $50,000. Using a discount rate of 20%, the present value of future cost
savings is estimated at $51,200. To yield the 20% return, the actual cost of the van should not
exceed the $50,000 estimate by more than:
a. $50,000
b. $51,200
c. $25,000
d. $ 1,200
e. 20%
16. The Cape Cod Cotton Candy Company had the following information available regarding
last year's operations:
If sales were to increase by 200 units, what would be the effect on net income?
a. $400 increase
b. $200 increase
c. $150 increase
d. $100 increase
e. $200 loss
Sample Test for Management Accounting
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS: B
2. ANS: B
3. ANS: D
4. ANS: A
5. ANS: D
6. ANS: B
7. ANS: B
8. ANS: D
9. ANS: C
10. ANS: B
11. ANS: C
12. ANS: D
13. ANS: B
14. ANS: C
15. ANS: D
16. ANS: B
B COM SEMESTER 6- MCQ
Management Accounting
1. Statement of cash flows includes
A) Financing Activities
B) Operating Activities
C) Investing Activities
D) All of the Above
2. In cash flows, when a firm invests in fixed assets and short-term financial investments
results in
A) Increased Equity
B) Increased Liabilities
C) Decreased Cash
D) Increased Cash
3. A firm that issues stocks and bonds to raise funds results in
A) Decreases Cash
B) Increases Cash
C) Increases Equity
D) Increases Liabilities
4. The purchase value of assets over its serviceable life is categorised as
A) Appreciated Liabilities
B) Appreciated Assets
C) Depreciation
D) Appreciation
5. The basic financial statements include
A) Statement of Cash Flows
B) Statement of Retained Earnings
C) Balance Sheet and Income Statement
D) None of the Above
6. The statement of cash flow clarifies cash flows according to
A) Operating and Non-operating Flows
B) Inflow and Outflow
C) Investing and Non-operating Flows
D) Operating, Investing, and Financing Activities
7. Cash flow example from a financial activity is
A) Payment of Dividend
B) Receipt of Dividend on Investment
C) Cash Received from Customers
D) Purchase of Fixed Asset
8. Cash flow example from an investing activity is
A) Issue of Debenture
B) Repayment of Long-term Loan
C) Purchase of Raw Materials for Cash
D) Sale of Investment by Non-Financial Enterprise
9. Cash flow example from an operating activity is
A) Purchase of Own Debenture
B) Sale of Fixed Assets
C) Interest Paid on Term-deposits by a Bank
D) Issue of Equity Share Capital
10. Which item comes under financial activities in cash flow?
A) Redemption of Preference Share
B) Issue of Preference Share
C) Interest Paid
D) All of the above
11. As per AS-3, Cash Flow Statement is mandatory for
A) All enterprises
B) Companies listed on a stock exchange
C) Companies with a turnover of more than Rs 50 crores
a) Both A and B
b) Both A and C
c) Both C and B
12. Listed Enterprises need to prepare Cash Flow Statement only under indirect method.
a) True
b) False
13. In the case of financial enterprises, the cash flow resulting from interest and dividend
received and interest paid should be classified as cash flow from
a) Operating activities
b) Financing activities
c) Investing activities
d) None of the above
14. In case of other enterprises cash flow arising from interest paid should be classified as cash
flow from ________ while dividends and interest received should be stated as cash flow
from ____.
a) Operating activities, financing activities
b) Financing activities, investing activities
c) Investing activities, operating activities
d) None of the above
15. Issue of bonus shares and conversion of debentures into equity are shown as a footnote to
the Cash Flow Statement.
a) True
b) False
16. When a fixed asset is bought as hire purchase, interest element is classified under ______
and loan element is classified under________.
a) Operating activities, financing activities
b) Financing activities, investing activities
c) Investing activities, operating activities
d) None of the above
17. Which of the following statements are false?
A) Old Furniture written off doesn’t affect cash flow.
B) Cash flow statement is a substitute for cash account.
C) Appropriation of retained earnings is not shown in Cash flow statement.
D) Net cash flow during a period can never be negative.
a) A, B, C
b) B, C, D
c) C, D, A
d) None of the above
18. Which of the following is not a cash inflow?
a) Decrease in debtors
b) Issue of shares
c) Decrease in creditors
d) Sale of fixed assets
19. Which of the following is not a cash outflow?
a) Increase in Prepaid expenses
b) Increase in debtors
c) Increase in stock
d) Increase in creditors
20. Which of the following is a conventional method of ascertaining cost?
a) Absorption costing
b) Full Costing
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
21. Under absorption costing, profit is ascertained
a) On the basis of difference between sales and total cost.
b) By computation as per desired rate of profit on sales or cost
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above.
22. While ascertaining gross profit under absorption costing, only that portion of
manufacturing overheads is deducted from sales revenue which is associated with the
goods sold.
a) True
b) False
23. Under absorption costing among fixed expenses
a) Fixed manufacturing expenses are included in unit cost
b) Fixed non-manufacturing expenses are included in unit cost
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
24. Absorption costing is used for
a) Price determination on basis of full cost
b) Solution of separation of costs
c) Calculation of gross and net profit
d) All of the above
25. Absorption costs helps in
a) Difference between product cost and period cost
b) Charged of fixed factory overheads on inventory
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
26. Which of the following statements are true?
A) Absorption costing helps in preparation of fixed budget.
B) Absorption costing is dependent on level of level of output.
C) Absorption costing is very helpful in taking managerial decisions.
D) Absorption costing helps to conform with accrual and matching concept.
a) A and B
b) B and C
c) A and D
d) B and D
27. Fixed expenses decrease per unit with the increases in production and increases per unit
with the decrease in production.
a) True
b) False
28. Marginal costs is taken as equal to
a) Prime Cost plus all variable overheads
b) Prime Cost minus all variable overheads
c) Variable overheads
d) None of the above
29. If total cost of 100 units is Rs 5000 and those of 101 units is Rs 5030 then increase of Rs
30 in total cost is
a) Marginal cost
b) Prime cost
c) All variable overheads
d) None of the above
30. Marginal cost is computed as
a) Prime cost + All Variable overheads
b) Direct material + Direct labor + Direct Expenses + All variable overheads
c) Total costs – All fixed overheads
d) All of the above
31. Marginal costing is also known as
a) Direct costing
b) Variable costing
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
32. Which of the following statements are true?
A. Marginal costing is not an independent system of costing.
B. In marginal costing all elements of cost are divided into fixed and variable components.
C. In marginal costing fixed costs are treated as product cost.
D. Marginal costing is not a technique of cost analysis.
a) A and B
b) B and C
c) A and D
d) B and D
33. While computation of profit in marginal costing
a) Total marginal cost is deducted from total sales revenues
b) Total marginal cost is added to total sales revenues
c) Fixed cost is added to contribution
d) None of the above
34. Which of the following are the assumptions of marginal costing?
A) All the elements of cost can be divided into fixed and variable components.
B) Total fixed cost remains constant at all levels of output.
C) Total variable costs varies in proportion to the volume of output.
D) Per unit selling price remain unchanged at all levels of operating activity.
a) A and B
b) B and C
c) A and D
d) A, B C and D
35. In two periods total costs amounts to Rs 50000 and Rs 40000 against production of 20000
and 15000 units respectively. Determine marginal cost per unit and fixed cost.
a) Rs 2 and Rs 10,000
b) Rs 4 and Rs 5000
c) Rs 10 and Rs 8000
d) None of the above
36. Under High and Low Point method, the output at two different levels is compared with the
amount of __________ incurred at these two points.
a) Total fixed costs
b) Total costs
c) Total fixed costs
d) None of the above
37. Given Maximum value of production and minimum value of production is 10,000 and
5000 units respectively. Maximum total cost is RS 25,000 and minimum total cost is Rs
15,000. Determine total fixed cost and per unit marginal cost.
a) Rs 2 per unit, Rs 5,000
b) Rs 5 per unit, Rs 2000
c) Rs 10 per unit, Rs 10,000
d) None of the above
38. Under method of least squares, a linear equation is developed in the form of ______
wherein Y is total cost, a=fixed cost, b= marginal cost and X is output.
a) Y=a+bX
b) Y=a-bX
c) Y=a*bX
d) None of the above
39. In Analytical method of calculating marginal costing, it is determined on the basis of past
records.
a) True
b) False
40. Theory of contribution is the excess of sales over variable costs.
a) a)True
b) b)False
41. Which of the following statements related to Contribution Analysis are ture?
a) If contribution is zero, there is loss equal to fixed costs
b) If contribution is negative, loss is less than fixed costs
c) If contribution is positive and more than fixed cost there will be profit.
d) All of the above
42. When contribution is negative but less than fixed cost,
a) There is loss equal to fixed costs
b) There is loss more than fixed costs
c) There will be loss less than fixed costs
d) All of above are false
43. When contribution is positive but equal to fixed cost,
a) There is loss equal to fixed costs
b) There is loss more than fixed costs
c) There will be loss less than fixed costs
d) There will be neither profit not loss
44. Opportunities to achieve further growth within current businesses are:
a) Intensive Opportunities
b) Integrative Opportunities
c) Diversification Opportunities
d) None of the above
45. Absorption costing is also known as
a) Historical costing
b) Total costing
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
46. Given production is 1,00,000 units, fixed costs is Rs 2,00,000 Selling price is Rs 10 per
unit and variable cost is Rs 6 per unit. Determine profit using technique of marginal
costing.
a) Rs 2,00,000
b) Rs 8,00,000
c) Rs 6,00,000
d) None of the above
47. Which of the following statements are true?
a) In absorption costing, cost is divided into three major parts while in marginal costing cost
is divided into two main parts.
b) IN absorption costing period is important and in marginal costing product is important.
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
48. In context of net operating profit, which of the following statements are true?
a) If all costs are variable, the amount of profit obtained in marginal costing and absorption
costing will be same.
b) If the volume of sales and output is equal in a period, profit will be same in absorption
costing and marginal costing.
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
49. Under absorption costing, managerial decisions are based on
a) Profit
b) Contribution
c) Profit volume ratio
d) None of the above
50. If sales is less than production and there is no opening stock, it suggests there is closing
stock. In such a scenario, profit under marginal costing will be less than the one shown by
absorption costing.
a) True
b) False
51. In the calculation of return on shareholders investments the referred investment deals with
A. All reserves
B. Preference and equity capital only
C. All appropriations
D. All of the above
52. Which of the following is an advantage of standard costing?
A. Measuring efficiency
B. Facilitates cost control
C. Determination of variance
D. All of the above
53. The assets of a business can be classified as
A. Only fixed assets
B. Only current assets
C. Fixed and current assets
D. None of the above
54. Which of the following is the test of the long term liquidity of a business?
A. Interest coverage ratio
B. Stock turnover ratio
C. Operating ratio
D. Current ratio
55. The term management accounting was first coined in
a) 1960
b) 1950
c) 1945
d) 1955
56. Management accounting is
A) Subjective
B) Objective
a) Only A
b) Only B
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
57. The use of management accounting is
a) Optional
b) Compulsory
c) Legally obligatory
d) Compulsory to some and optional to others
58. The management accounting can be stated an extension of
A) Cost Accounting
B) Financial Accounting
C) Responsibility Accounting
a) Both A and B
b) Both A and C
c) Both B and C
d) A, B, C
59. Which of the following is true about management accounting?
A) Management accounting is associated with presentation of accounting data.
B) Management accounting is extremely sensitive to investors needs.
a) Only A
b) Only B
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
60. Management accounting assists the management
a) Only in control
b) Only in direction
c) Only in planning
d) In planning, direction and control
61. Which of the following are tools of management accounting?
A) Decision accounting
B) Standard costing
C) Budgetary control
D) Human Resources Accounting
a) A, B and D
b) A, C and D
c) A, B and C
d) A, B , C, D
62. Management accounting is related with
a) The problem of choice making
b) Recording of transactions
c) Cause and effect relationships
A. A and B
B. B and C
C. A and C
D. All are false
63. Management accountancy is a structure for
A. Costing
B. Accounting
C. Decision making
D. Management
64. Who coined the concept of management accounting?
A. R.N Anthony
B. James H. Bliss
C. J. Batty
D. American Accounting
65. Management accounting deals with
A. Quantitative information
B. Qualitative information
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
66. Management accounting highlights staff relationship with top management as well as other
personnel.
A. True
B. False
67. The definition â˜Management Accounting is the presentation of accounting information
in such a way as to assist management in the creation of policy and the day-to-day
operation of an undertaking.â™
A. Ango-American Council on Productivity
B. AICPA
C. Robert N. Anthony
D. All of the above
68. The second term for Horizontal Analysis is
A. Dynamic Analysis
B. Inter-firm Analysis
C. Time-series Analysis
D. All of the above
69. Vertical analysis is also known as
A. Static analysis
B. Structural analysis
C. Cross-sectional analysis
D. All of the above
70. The assessment of financial statements by a shareholder is an example of
A. Vertical Analysis
B. Horizontal Analysis
C. Internal Analysis
D. External Analysis
71. Trend percentages and trend ratios are used in
A. Static Analysis
B. Dynamic Analysis
C. Horizontal Analysis
D. Vertical Analysis
72. Which of the following statements are true?
A) Vertical Analysis is also termed as dynamic analysis.
B) Horizontal analysis is also termed as dynamic analysis.
C) Static Analysis is not extremely useful for the long-term financial planning.
A. Both A and B
B. Both A and C
C. Both B and C
D. A, B , C
73. Which of the following statements are true?
A) Funds Flow statement is one of the ways to analysis & interpret financial statements.
B) Cash Flow Statement is one of the ways to analysis & interprets financial statements.
C) Common-size statement one of the ways to analysis & interprets financial statements.
A. Both A and B
B. Both A and C
C. Both B and C
D. A, B, C
74. Which of the following statements are true about Horizontal Analysis?
A) It do not examines the periodical trend
B) It is useful for long-term analysis.
C) It is useful for long â“term planning.
A. Both A and B
B. Both A and C
C. Both B and C
D. A, B, C
75. Which of the following statements are true?
A) Comparative financial statement is an example of horizontal analysis.
B) Trend Analysis is an example of vertical analysis.
C) Cash flow analysis is an example of horizontal analysis.
A. Both A and B
B. Both A and C
C. Both B and C
D. A, B, C
76. John N. Myer stated that vertical and horizontal analysis forms the back-bone of financial
statement analysis technique.
A. True
B. False
77. Ratio analysis is an important approach of horizontal analysis.
A. True
B. False
78. The 3 Ps, i.e. the three objectives of analysis and interpretation of financial statements are :
Progress, Position and Prospects.
A. True
B. False
79. Comparison of financial statements highlights the trend of the _________ of the business.
A. Financial position
B. Performance
C. Profitability
D. All of the above
80. Analysis of any financial Statement comprises
A. Balance sheet
B. P&L Account
C. Trading account
D. All of the above
81. Which of the following are techniques, tools or methods of analysis and interpretation of
financial statements?
A. Ratio Analysis
B. Average Analysis
C. Trend Analysis
D. All of the above
82. Interpretation of accounts is the
A. Art and science of translating the figures
B. To know financial strengths and weaknesses of a business
C. To know the causes for the prevailing performance of business
D. All of the above
83. The only feasible purpose of financial management is
A. Wealth Maximization
B. Sales Maximization
C. Profit Maximization
D. Assets maximization
84. Financial management process deals with
A. Investments
B. Financing decisions
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
85. Agency cost consists of
A. Binding
B. Monitoring
C. Opportunity and structure cost
D. All of the above
86. Finance Function comprises
A. Safe custody of funds only
B. Expenditure of funds only
C. Procurement of finance only
D. Procurement & effective use of funds
87. The objective of wealth maximization takes into account
A. Amount of returns expected
B. Timing of anticipated returns
C. Risk associated with uncertainty of returns
D. All of the above
88. Financial management mainly focuses on
A. Efficient management of every business
B. Brand dimension
C. Arrangement of funds
D. All elements of acquiring and using means of financial resources for financial
activities
89. Time value of money indicates that
A. A unit of money obtained today is worth more than a unit of money obtained in
future
B. A unit of money obtained today is worth less than a unit of money obtained in
future
C. There is no difference in the value of money obtained today and tomorrow
D. None of the above
90. Time value of money supports the comparison of cash flows recorded at different time
period by
A. Discounting all cash flows to a common point of time
B. Compounding all cash flows to a common point of time
C. Using either a or b
D. None of the above.
91. If the nominal rate of interest is 10% per annum and there is quarterly compounding, the
effective rate of interest will be:
A. 10% per annum
B. 10.10 per annum
C. 10.25%per annum
D. 10.38% per annum
92. Relationship between annual nominal rate of interest and annual effective rate of interest,
if frequency of compounding is greater than one:
A. Effective rate > Nominal rate
B. Effective rate < Nominal rate
C. Effective rate = Nominal rate
D. None of the above
93. Mr. X takes a loan of Rs 50,000 from HDFC Bank. The rate of interest is 10% per annum.
The first installment will be paid at the end of year 5. Determine the amount of equal
annual installments if Mr. X wishes to repay the amount in five installments.
A. Rs 19500
B. Rs 19400
C. Rs 19310
D. None of the above
94. If nominal rate of return is 10% per annum and annual effective rate of interest is 10.25%
per annum, determine the frequency of compounding:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. None of the above
95. Present value tables for annuity cannot be straight away applied to varied stream of cash
flows.
A. True
B. False
96. Heterogeneous cash flows can be made comparable by
A. Discounting technique
B. Compounding technique
C. Either a or b
D. None of the above
97. Risk of two securities with different expected return can be compared with:
A. Coefficient of variation
B. Standard deviation of securities
C. Variance of Securities
D. None of the above
98. Efficient portfolios can be defined as those portfolios which for a given level of risk
provides
A. Maximum return
B. Average return
C. Minimum return
D. None of the above
99. CAPM accounts for:
A. Unsystematic risk
B. Systematic risk
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
100. Which among the following presents a bird's-eyeview of the operations for the entire
period of a business?
A. Balance sheet
B. Profit and loss a/c
C. Cash flow statements
D. Position statement
101. ________ is the relationship between quick assets and current liabilities .
A. Current ratio
B. Absolute liquidity ratio
C. Acid test ratio
D. Proprietary ratio
102. When the concept of ratio is defined in respected to the items shown in the financial
statements, it is termed as
A. Accounting ratio
B. Financial ratio
C. Costing ratio
D. None of the above
103. The definition, “The term accounting ratio is used to describe significant relationship
which exist between figures shown in a balance sheet, in a profit and loss account, in a
budgetary control system or in a any part of the accounting organization” is given by
A. Biramn and Dribin
B. Lord Keynes
C. J. Betty
D. None of the above.
104. The relationship between two financial variables can be expressed in:
A. Pure ratio
B. Percentage
C. Rate or time
D. Either of the above
105. Liquidity ratios are expressed in
A. Pure ratio form
B. Percentage
C. Rate or time
D. None of the above
106. Which of the following statements are true about Ratio Analysis?
A) Ratio analysis is useful in financial analysis.
B) Ratio analysis is helpful in communication and coordination
C) Ratio Analysis is not helpful in identifying weak spots of the business.
D) Ratio Analysis is helpful in financial planning and forecasting.
a) A, B and D
b) A, C and D
c) A, B and C
d) A, B , C, D
107. Profit for the objective of calculating a ratio may be taken as
A. Profit before tax but after interest
B. Profit before interest and tax
C. Profit after interest and tax
D. All of the above
108. Which of the following falls under Profitability ratios?
A) General Profitability ratios
B) Overall Profitability ratios
C) Comprehensive Profitability ratios
A. A and B
B. A and C
C. B and C
D. None of the above
109. General Profitability ratios are based on
A. Investments
B. Sales
C. a & B
D. None of the above
110. Gross Profit ratio is also termed as
A. Gross Profit Margin
B. Gross Margin to net sales
C. Both a and b
D. All of the above
111. While calculating Gross Profit ratio,
A. Closing stock is deducted from cost of goods sold
B. Closing stock is added to cost of goods sold
C. Closing stock is ignored
D. None of the above
112. While calculating Gross Profit, if net profit is given,
A. It can be converted into gross profit by adding interest to it
B. It can be converted into Gross profit by adding indirect expenses to it
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
113. Gross profit ratio is calculated by
A. (Gross Profit/Gross sales)*100
B. (Gross Profit/Net sales)*100
C. (Net Profit/Gross sales)*100
D. None of the above
114. Given Sales is 1, 20,000 and Gross Profit is 30,000, the gross profit ratio is
A. 24%
B. 25%
C. 40%
D. 44%%
115. What will be the Gross Profit if, total sales is Rs 2,60,000 Cost of net goods sold is Rs
2,00,000 and Sales return is Rs 10,000?
A. 13%
B. 28%
C. 26%
D. 20%
116. If selling price is fixed 25% above the cost, the Gross Profit ratio is
A. 13%
B. 28%
C. 26%
D. 20%
117. Gross Profit ratio should be adequate to cover
A. Selling expenses
B. Administrative expenses
C. Dividends
D. All of the above
118. Which statement is prepared in the process of funds flow analysis?
A. Schedule of changes in working capital
B. Funds Flow Statement
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
119. Funds Flow Statement is prepared on the basis of data of P&L statement and two
consecutive balance sheets.
A. True
B. False
C. Value delivery
D. None of the above
120. Which of the following rules stands true while preparation of Schedule of changes in
working capital?
A) An increase in current assets increases working capital.
B) An increase in current assets decreases working capital.
C) An increase in current liabilities decreases working capital.
D) An increase in current liabilities increases working capital
A. A and C
B. A and D
C. B and D
D. A, B, C and D
121. If reserve for bad and doubtful debts is mentioned in the question of Funds Flow Statement
Preparation, it can be shown as
A. In the schedule by deducting from total debtors under current assets
B. In the schedule separately under the heading of capital liabilities
C. Both a & b
D. None of the above
122. Funds Flow Statement is also known as
A. Statement of Funds Flow
B. Statement of Sources and Application of Funds
C. Statement of Sources and Uses of Funds
D. All of the above
123. Given Net profit for the year Rs 2, 50,000 Transferred to general reserves Rs 40,000 and
old machinery bought for Rs 50,000 was sold for Rs 20,000. Calculate funds from
operations.
A. Rs 2, 80,000
B. Rs 2, 20,000
C. Rs 2, 90,000
D. Rs 3, 00,000
124. Which of the following are sources of funds?
A) Issue of bonus shares
B) Issue of shares against the purchase of fixed assets
C) Conversion of debentures into shares
D) Conversion of loans into shares
a) A and C
b) A and D
c) A, B, C and D
d) None of the above
125. The share capital of A Ltd. stood at Rs 20,00,000 in 2013 and at Rs 26 lac in 2014. As per
records, the company bought asset of another company for Rs 6 lac payable in fully paid
shares. These assets included Goodwill Rs 2,00,000 Machinery Rs 1, 83, 600 and Stock Rs
2,16,400. What is the fund from issue of shares?
A. Rs 2,15,600
B. Rs 2,16,400
C. Rs 2,00,000
D. None of the above
126. Debentures are Rs 2,50,000 and Rs 3,50,000 in the balance sheet of 2013 and 2014. 1000
of the debentures of Rs 100 each were issued at par in 2014 of which 400 debentures were
issued to a supplier for the purchase of a machine. Determine amount of issue for
debentures for the purpose of funds flow statement.
A. Rs 60,000
B. Rs 40,000
C. RS 10,000
D. None of the above
127. In the balance sheet of Praveen for 2013 and 2014, 4% debentures are Rs 5,00,000 and Rs
4,00,000, respectively. Profit on redemption of debentures in 2013 is nil while in 2014 is
Rs 4,000. What is the amount of redemption for the purpose of funds flow statement?
A. Rs 96,000
B. Rs 1,04,000
C. Rs 9,00,000
D. Rs 9,04,000
128. The balance of property at cost has been RS 20,000 and Rs 17,000 in 2013 and 2014
respectively. The profit on sale of property of Rs 2000 is credited to Capital Reserves
Account. New property costing Rs 5000 bought in 2014. Determine sale of proceeds from
land.
A. Rs 3000
B. Rs 10,000
C. Rs 7000
D. Rs 15,000
129. of Ram at end of 2013 and 2014 disclose investments in shares of Rs 2000 and Rs 3000,
respectively. Rs 100 as pre-acquisition dividend has been credited to investments account.
Determine purchase of investments.
A. RS 5000
B. Rs 1000
C. Rs 1,100
D. None of the above
130. The balance of fixed assets of Y Ltd. at cost at the end of 2013 and 2014 were Rs 5,70,800
and Rs 6,15,300. During the year 2014 a machinery costing Rs 60,000 was sold.
Determine the purchase of fixed assets.
A. Rs 1,04,500
B. Rs 1,40,500
C. Rs 1,64,500
D. None of the above
131. Which of the following are applications of funds?
A. Payment of dividend on share capital
B. Payment of tax
C. Increase in working capital
D. All of above
132. Which of the following are treated as long term investments?
A. Non-current investments
B. Trade Investments
C. Sinking fund investments
D. All of the above
133. Provision of taxation is treated as
A. As a current liability
B. As an appropriation of profits
C. Either a or b
D. None of the above
134. As per accounting standard AS3, provision for taxation should be treated as
A. As a current liability
B. As an appropriation of profits
C. Either a or b
D. None of the above
135. Which of the following statement is true?
A. If the amount of good will increases during current year, the difference is treated as
purchase of goodwill.
B. If the amount of good will decreases during current year, It will treated as written
off.
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
136. The opening and closing balance of general reserves are Rs 10,000 and Rs 9,000,
respectively. It is stated in addition information that a loss of Rs 1000 has been written off
in general reserves. In such a case, decline in reserve and loss on investment will be
adjusted in P&L account.
A. True
B. False
137. As per Accounting Standard-3, Cash Flow is classified into
A. Operating activities and investing activities
B. Investing activities and financing activities
C. Operating activities and financing activities
D. Operating activities, financing activities and investing activities
138. Cash Flow Statement is also known as
A. Statement of Changes in Financial Position on Cash basis
B. Statement accounting for variation in cash
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above.
139. The objectives of Cash Flow Statement are
A) Analysis of cash position
B) Short-term cash planning
C) Evaluation of liquidity
D) Comparison of operating Performance
a) Both A and B
b) Both A and C
c) Both B and D
d) A, B, C, D
140. In cash flow statement, the item of interest is shown in
A) Operating Activities
B) Financing Activities
C) Investing Activities
A. Both A and B
B. Both A and C
C. Both B and C
D. A, B, C
141. Cash Flow Statement is based upon
A. Cash basis of accounting
B. Accrual basis of accounting
C. Credit basis of accounting
D. None of the above
142. Which of the following statements are false?
A) Cash Flow Statement is helpful in the formation of policies.
B) Cash Flow Statement is useful for external analysis
C) Cash Flow Statement is helpful in estimating future cash flow
A. Both A and B
B. Both A and C
C. Both B and C
D. None of the above
143. Which of the following statements are true?
A) Cash flow reveals only the inflow of cash
B) Cash flow reveals only the outflow of cash
C) Cash flow is a substitute for income statement
D) Cash flow statement is not a replacement of funds flow statement.
A. Only A
B. Only B
C. Both B and C
D. Only D
144. Cash flow statement is based upon _________ while Funds Flow Statement recognizes
_______.
A. Cash basis of accounting, accrual basis of accounting
B. Accrual basis of accounting, cash basis of accounting
C. Both are based on cash basis of accounting
D. None of the above
145. Statement of changes in working capital is prepared separately in
A. Cash Flow Statement
B. Funds Flow Statement
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
146. Cash Flow Statement studies causes of change in working capital.
A. True
B. False
147. _________ reconciles the opening cash balance with the closing cash balance of a given
period on the basis of net decrease or increase in cash during that period.
A. Cash Flow Statement
B. Funds Flow Statement
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
148. Which of the following statements are true?
A) Cash flow statement is more useful for short term cash planning.
B) Funds Flow statement is more useful in planning medium term and long term
financing.
C) Cash Flow statement discloses the position of liquidity in a better way
A. Only A
B. Only B
C. Only C
D. A, B and C
149. _____ has/have accepted cash flow statement is more useful than funds flow statement,
particularly from view of analysis of liquidity of a firm.
A. Institute Of Chartered Accountants of India
B. FASB, America
C. SEBI
D. All of the above
150. Cash Flow Statement is prepared from
A. Profit and loss account
B. Balance Sheet
C. Additional Information
D. All of the above
151. Which of the following are cash flow from operating activities?
A) Cash Receipts from customers
B) Cash Paid to Supplier and Employees
C) Purchase of fixed assets
D) Sale of fixed assets
A. Both A and B
B. Both A and C
C. Both B and C
D. Both C and D
152. Match the column
A) Taxes Paid ------------------ i) Cash flow from investing activities
B) Repayment of loans -------------- ii) Cash flow from operating activities
C) Sale of fixed assets ----------------------- iii) Cash Flow from financing activities
A. A-ii), B-iii), C-i)
B. A-i), B-ii), C-iii)
C. A-iii), B-i), C-ii)
153. Cash payment to suppliers for services and goods is example of cash outflow.
A. True
B. False
154. For the calculation of cash flow from operating activities, payments and receipts shown in
Profit & Loss account are converted into payments and receipts actually in cash.
A. True
B. False
155. For the calculation of cash flow from operating activities, payments and receipts shown in
Profit & Loss account are converted into payments and receipts actually in cash by
eliminating
A. Non-cash revenue from the revenue earned
B. Non-cash expenses from expenses incurred
C. Both a & b
D. None of the above
156. While preparing Cash Flow Statement, non-cash items and non-operating items are not
required to be adjusted under________
A. Indirect method
B. Direct method
C. Both a & b
D. None of the above
157. Cash flow from sales is calculated by
A. Cash sales + Cash Collections
B. Sales + Opening debtors+ Opening B/R â“Closing Debtors â“ Closing B/R
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
158. Cash outflow on purchases is calculated by
A. Purchases + Opening Creditors + Opening B/P â“Closing Creditors-Closing B/P
B. Purchases + Opening Creditors - Closing Creditors +Closing B/P
C. Purchases - Opening Creditors - Opening B/P + Closing Creditors +Closing B/P
D. None of the above
159. The amount of operating expenses which are actually been paid in cash are shown under:
A. Cash flow from sales
B. Cash outflow on purchases
C. Cash outflow on expenses
D. All of above are false
160. Given salary expenses Rs 40,000, Outstanding in the beginning of the year: Rs 5,000 and
outstanding at the end of the year Rs 10,000. Cash outflow on salary will be:
A. Rs 45,000
B. Rs 35000
C. Rs 55,000
D. Rs 15,000
161. In indirect method, net cash flow from operating activities is calculated on the basis of
A. Net Profit after tax
B. Net profit before tax
C. Both and b
D. None of the above
162. Which of the following are added to net profit after tax and extraordinary items to reach to
net profit before tax and extraordinary items?
A) Provision for tax made during the year
B) Proposed dividend made during the year
C) Interim dividend
D) Transfer to General reserves and other reserves
A. Both A and B
B. Both A and C
C. Both B and C
D. A, B, C and D
163. Which of the following are cash flow from investing activities?
A) Interest received
C) Dividend received
D) Sale of fixed assets
E) Purchase of fixed assets
a) Both A and B
b) Both A and C
c) Both B and C
d) A, B, C and D
164. Which of the following are cash flow from financing activities?
A) Interest received
B) Dividend received
C) Interest paid
D) Dividend paid
A. Both A and B
B. Both A and C
C. Both C and D
D. A, B, C and D
165. Acquisition and disposal of long term assets is included in
A. Cash flow from investing activities
B. Cash flow from financing activities
C. Cash flow from operating activities
D. None of the above
166. Which of the following statements represent example of cash flow from investing
activities?
A. Cash advances and loans made by financial enterprises
B. Cash advances and loans made to third parties
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
167. ABC Ltd had investment of Rs 68,000 as on 31.3.2013 and investment of Rs 56,000 as on
31.3.2014. During the year ABC Ltd sold 40% of its investments being held in the
beginning of period at a profit of Rs 16,800. Determine cash flow from investing activities.
A. Rs 59,200
B. Rs 28,800
C. Rs 72,800
D. None of the above
168. Financing activities brings changes in
A. Size and composition of ownerâ™s equities
B. Borrowing of the enterprise
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
169. For year 2013 Equity Share Capital is Rs 3,00,000 Preference Share Capital is 1,00,000
10% debentures is 2,00,000 and Share premium is 30,000. For year 2014 Equity Share
Capital is Rs 4,00,000 Preference Share Capital is 60,000 10% debentures is 1,00,000 and
Share premium is 40,000. Also given, Dividend paid on shares Rs 15,000 and Interest paid
on debentures RS 20,000. Determine net cash flow from financing activities.
A. Cash inflow of Rs 65,000
B. Cash outflow of Rs 65,000
C. Cash inflow of Rs 56,000
D. Cash outflow of Rs 56,000
170. As per AS-3, Cash Flow Statement is mandatory for
A) All enterprises
B) Companies listed on a stock exchange
C) Companies with a turnover of more than Rs 50 crores
A. Both A and B
B. Both A and C
C. Both C and B
171. Listed Enterprises need to prepare Cash Flow Statement only under indirect method.
A. True
B. False
172. In the case of financial enterprises, the cash flow resulting from interest and dividend
received and interest paid should be classified as cash flow from
A. Operating activities
B. Financing activities
C. Investing activities
D. None of the above
173. In case of other enterprises cash flow arising from interest paid should be classified as cash
flow from ________ while dividends and interest received should be stated as cash flow
from ____.
A. Operating activities, financing activities
B. Financing activities, investing activities
C. Investing activities, operating activities
D. None of the above
174. Issue of bonus shares and conversion of debentures into equity are shown as a footnote to
the Cash Flow Statement.
A. True
B. False
175. When a fixed asset is bought as hire purchase, interest element is classified under ______
and loan element is classified under________.
A. Operating activities, financing activities
B. Financing activities, investing activities
C. Investing activities, operating activities
D. None of the above
176. Which of the following statements are false?
A) Old Furniture written off doesn’t affect cash flow.
B) Cash flow statement is a substitute for cash account.
C) Appropriation of retained earnings is not shown in Cash flow statement.
D) Net cash flow during a period can never be negative.
A. A, B, C
B. B, C, D
C. C, D, A
D. None of the above
177. Which of the following is not a cash inflow?
A. Decrease in debtors
B. Issue of shares
C. Decrease in creditors
D. Sale of fixed assets
178. Which of the following is not a cash outflow?
A. Increase in Prepaid expenses
B. Increase in debtors
C. Increase in stock
D. Increase in creditors
179. Which of the following is a conventional method of ascertaining cost?
A. Absorption costing
B. Full Costing
C. Both a & b
D. None of the above
180. Under absorption costing, profit is ascertained
A. On the basis of difference between sales and total cost.
B. By computation as per desired rate of profit on sales or cost
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above.
181. All costs are classified under ______ segments under absorption costing.
A. Five
B. Six
C. Four
D. Three
182. While ascertaining gross profit under absorption costing, only that portion of
manufacturing overheads is deducted from sales revenue which is associated with the
goods sold.
A. True
B. False
183. Under absorption costing among fixed expenses
A. Fixed manufacturing expenses are included in unit cost
B. Fixed non-manufacturing expenses are included in unit cost
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
184. Absorption costing is used for
A. Price determination on basis of full cost
B. Solution of separation of costs
C. Calculation of gross and net profit
D. All of the above
185. Absorption costs helps in
A. Difference between product cost and period cost
B. Charged of fixed factory overheads on inventory
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
186. Fixed expenses decrease per unit with the increases in production and increases per unit
with the decrease in production.
A. True
B. False
187. Marginal costs is taken as equal to
A. Prime Cost plus all variable overheads
B. Prime Cost minus all variable overheads
C. Variable overheads
D. None of the above
188. If total cost of 100 units is Rs 5000 and those of 101 units is Rs 5030 then increase of Rs
30 in total cost is
A. Marginal cost
B. Prime cost
C. All variable overheads
D. None of the above
189. Marginal cost is computed as
A. Prime cost + All Variable overheads
B. Direct material + Direct labor + Direct Expenses + All variable overheads
C. Total costs – All fixed overheads
D. All of the above
190. Marginal costing is also known as
A. Direct costing
B. Variable costing
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
191. Under High and Low Point method, the output at two different levels is compared with the
amount of __________ incurred at these two points.
A. Total fixed costs
B. Total costs
C. Total fixed costs
D. None of the above
192. In Analytical method of calculating marginal costing, it is determined on the basis of past
records.
A. True
B. False
193. When contribution is positive but equal to fixed cost,
A. There is loss equal to fixed costs
B. There is loss more than fixed costs
C. There will be loss less than fixed costs
D. There will be neither profit not loss
194. Opportunities to achieve further growth within current businesses are:
A. Intensive Opportunities
B. Integrative Opportunities
C. Diversification Opportunities
D. None of the above
195. Absorption costing is also known as
A. Historical costing
B. Total costing
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
196. Under absorption costing, managerial decisions are based on
A. Profit
B. Contribution
C. Profit volume ratio
D. None of the above
197. Managers utilizes marginal costing for
A. Make or buy decision
B. Utilization of additional capacity
C. Determination of dumping price
D. All of the above
198. The problems associated with marginal costing are
A. Difficulties in divisions of costs
B. Problem of valuation of stocks
C. Ignores time elements
D. All of the above
199. ___________ is not suitable where selling price is determined on the basis of cost-plus
method.
A. Absorption costing
B. Marginal costing
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
200. Which of the following are added to net profit after tax and extraordinary items to reach to
net profit before tax and extraordinary items?
A. Provision for tax made during the year
B. Proposed dividend made during the year
C. Interim dividend
D. Transfer to General reserves and other reserves
a. Both A and B
b. Both A and C
c. Both B and C
d. A, B, C and D
201. Absorption costing is used for
A. Price determination on basis of full cost
B. Solution of separation of costs
C. Calculation of gross and net profit
D. All of the above
Answers
1. D) All of the Above 35. a) Rs 2 and Rs 10,000
36. b) Total costs
2. C) Decreased Cash 37. a) Rs 2 per unit, Rs 5,000
3. B) Increases Cash 38. a) Y=a+bX
4. C) Depreciation 39. a) True
5. D) None of the Above 40. a)True
6. D) Operating, Investing and 41. a) If contribution is zero, there is loss
Financing Activities equal to fixed costs
7. D) Purchase of Fixed Asset 42. c) There will be loss less than fixed
8. D) Sale of Investment by Non- costs
Financial Enterprise 43. d) There will be neither profit not
9. C) Interest Paid on Term-deposits by loss
a Bank 44. a) Intensive Opportunities
10. D) All of the above 45. c) Both a and b
11. c) Both C and B 46. a) Rs 2,00,000
12. a) True 47. c) Both a and b
13. a) Operating activities 48. c) Both a and b
14. b) Financing activities, investing 49. a) Profit
activities 50. a) True
15. a) True 51. D) All of the Above
16. b) Financing activities, investing 52. D) All of the Above
activities 53. Fixed and current assets
17. b) B, C, D 54. A) Interest coverage ratio
18. c) Decrease in creditors
19. d) Increase in creditors 55. b) 1950
20. c) Both a & b 56. a) Only A
21. c) Both a and b 57. a) Optional
22. a) True 58. d) A, B, C
23. a) Fixed manufacturing expenses are 59. a) Only A
included in unit cost 60. d) In planning, direction and control
24. a) Price determination on basis of full 61. c) A, B and C
cost 62. c) a and c
25. c) Both a and b 63. c) Decision making
26. d) B and D 64. b) James H. Bliss
27. a) True 65. c) Both a and b
28. a) Prime Cost plus all variable 66. b) False
overheads 67. a) Ango-American Council on
29. a) Marginal cost Productivity
30. a) Prime cost + All Variable 68. d) All of the above
overheads 69. d) All of the above
31. c) Both a and b 70. d) External Analysis
71. a) Static Analysis
32. a) A and B 72. c) Both B and C
33. a) Total marginal cost is deducted 73. d) A, B, C
from total sales revenues 74. c) Both B and C
34. d) A, B C and D 75. b) Both A and C
76. a) True 115. D) 20 %
77. b) False 116. B) 20%
78. a) True 117. D) All of the above
79. d) All of the above 118. A) Schedule of changes in working
80. d) All of the above capital
81. d) All of the above 119. A) True
82. d) All of the above 120. A) A and C
83. a) Wealth Maximization 121. C) Both a and b
84. b) Financing decisions 122. D) All of the above
85. d) All of the above 123. A) 2,80,000
86. d) Procurement & effective use of 124. d) None of the above
funds 125. B) Rs. 2,16,400
87. d) All of the above 126. A) Rs 60,000
88. d) All elements of acquiring and 127. A) 96,000
using means of financial resources for 128. B) 10,000
financial activities 129. C) 1,100
89. a) A unit of money obtained today is 130. A) 1,04,500
worth more than a unit of money 131. d) All of above
obtained in future 132. d) All of the above
90. c) Using either a or b 133. c) Either a or b
91. d) 10.38% per annum 134. b) As an appropriation of profits
92. a) Effective rate > Nominal rate 135. c) Both a and b
93. c) Rs 19310 136. b) False
94. b) 2 137. d) Operating activities, financing
95. a) True activities and investing activities
96. c) Either a or b 138. c) Both a and b
97. a) Coefficient of variation 139. d) A, B, C, D
98. a) Maximum return 140. c) Both B and C
99. b) Systematic risk 141. a) Cash basis of accounting
100. b) Profit and loss a/c 142. d) None of the above
101. c) Acid test ratio 143. D) only D
102. a) Accounting ratio 144. a) Cash basis of accounting, accrual
103. c) J. Betty basis of accounting
104. Either of the above 145. b) Funds Flow Statement
105. A) Pure ratio form 146. b) False
106. a) A, B and D 147. a) Cash Flow Statement
107. D) All of the above 148. d) A, B and C
108. A) A and B 149. d) All of the above
109. B) Sales 150. D) All of the above
110. C) Both A and B 151. a) Both a and b
111. A) Closing stock is deducted from 152. a) A-ii), B-iii), C-i)
cost of goods sold 153. b) False
112. a) It can be converted into gross 154. : a) True
profit by adding interest to it 155. c) Both a & b
113. ) (Gross profit / net sales) * 100 156. b) Direct method
157. c) Both a and b
114. B) 25 %
158. a) Purchases + Opening Creditors + 181. d) Three
Opening B/P â“Closing Creditors- 182. a) True
Closing B/P 183. a) Fixed manufacturing expenses are
159. c) Cash outflow on expenses included in unit cost
160. b) Rs 35000 184. a) Price determination on basis of full
161. b) Net profit before tax cost
185. c) Both a and b
162. d) A, B, C and D 186. a) True
163. d) A, B, C and D 187. a) Prime Cost plus all variable
164. c) Both C and D overheads
165. a) Cash flow from investing activities 188. a) Marginal cost
166. b) Cash advances and loans made to 189. a) Prime cost + All Variable
third parties overheads
167. b) Rs 28,800 190. c) Both a and b
168. c) Both a and b 191. b) Total costs
169. b) Cash outflow of Rs 65,000 192. a) True
170. c) Both C and B 193. d) There will be neither profit not
171. a) True loss
172. a) Operating activities 194. a) Intensive Opportunities
173. b) Financing activities, investing 195. c) Both a and b
activities 196. a) Profit
174. a) True 197. d) All of the above
175. b) Financing activities, investing 198. d) All of the above
activities 199. b) Marginal costing
176. b) B, C, D 200. d) A, B, C and D
177. c) Decrease in creditors 201. a) Price determination on basis of full
178. d) Increase in creditors cost
179. c) Both a & b
180. c) Both a and b
Arihant Education Foundation’s
ARIHANT COLLEGE OF ARTS, COMMERCE AND SCIENCE,
Camp, Pune – 411001.
COMMERCE DEPARTMENT
FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING – I
F.Y.B.COM (SEMESTER – I)
Prepared By
Mangesh Takpire
Asst. Professor, ACACSC, Camp, Pune
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.1 Accounting is called as ……….. of business. Que.2 Specific business entity separate from
personnel affair of the owner is?
A. Concepts
B. Language A. Objectivity principle
C. Methods B. Stable currency principle
D. None of the above. C. Entity principle
D. Matching principle
Que.3 According to money measurement concept, Que.4 Contingent liability appears as a footnote in the
which one of the following will be recorded in the balance sheet. This is in accordance with the
books of accounts? accounting principle?
A. Excellent moral of workers A. Consistency
B. Cost of Machinery B. Disclosure
C. Managing ability of the manager C. Conservatism
D. Quality control in the business D. Materiality
Que.5 Connected with cost principles, assets required Que.6 Which one of the following concept may be
for used not for resale? stated as "for every debit, there is a credit"?
A. Cost principle A. Separate Entity Concept
B. Accounting principle B. Dual Aspect Concept
C. Going concern assumption C. Money Measurement Concept
D. None of them D. Accounting Period Concept
Que.7 Which of the following is the GAAP that Que.8 When the cost incurred on recruiting, training
requires the recording of depreciation? and developing the employees is considered for
determining the value of employees, it is called
A. Materially constraints
B. Matching principle A. the replacement cost approach
C. Cost principle B. the historical cost approach
D. Time-period principle C. the opportunity cost approach
D. none of the above
Que.9 Inflation Accounting is the practice of adjusting Que.10 The accounting methodology that deals with
financial statements according to……… energetics, ecology and economics is termed as……….
A. Book Record A. Inflation Accounting
B. Books of Accounts B. Creative Accounting
C. Prices indexes C. Economic Accounting
D. None of the above D. Environmental Accounting
Page - 1
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.11 Forensic Accounting is a form of ………… Que.12 ………… capital means the capital which is more
accounting than the required capital according to the share of
profit an individual partner is sharing.
A. Investment
B. Investigative A. Fixed
C. International B. Current
D. None of the above C. Surplus
D. Deficit
Que.13 According to …….. concept, all expenses even Que.14 Accounting ……… are the general rules of
though not paid but under obligation to pay in near action or conduct, which are adopted by the
future, are also to be recorded. accountants universally while recording business
transactions.
A. Cash
B. Entity A. Records
C. Money measurement B. Entries
D. Accrual C. Principles
D. Methods
Que.15 GAAP stands for: Que.16 Which accounting principle states that
companies and owners should be treated as separate
A. Generally Accepted Accounting Provisions
entities.
B. Generally Accepted Accounting Policies
C. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles A. Monetary Unit Assumption
D. None of these B. Business Entity Concept
C. Periodicity Assumption
D. Going Concern Concept
Que.17 Cost or expenses must be recorded at the Que.18 The correct form of Accounting equation is
same time as the revenue to which they correspond is
A. Assets – Receivable = Equity
specified by which principle?
B. Assets + Receivable = Equity
A. Matching Principle C. Assets – Liabilities = Equity
B. Going Concern Principle D. Assets + Liabilities = Equity
C. Consistency Principle
D. Prudence Principle
Que.19 As per revenue recognition principle, sales Que.20 Due to which concept, accounting does not
revenues should be recognized at the time when? record non-financial transactions?
A. Order is taken for merchandise A. Going concern concept
B. Ownership of goods gets transferred from the B. Money measurement concept
seller to the buyer C. Accrual concept
C. Cash is received D. Cost concept
D. All of the above
Page - 2
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.21 The owner of the business is treated as a Que.22 As per the accrual concept of accounting, any
creditor of the business according to which of the financial or business transaction should be recorded:
following concept?
A. when profit is computed
A. Entity concept B. when balance sheet is prepared
B. Materiality concept C. when cash is received or paid
C. Consistency concept D. when transaction occurs
D. Periodicity concept
Que.25 Which is not external Liability? Que.26 In Piecemeal Distribution of Cash which
liability paid off preferentially?
A. Loan from partners
B. Govt. Dues A. Realisation exp.
C. Realisation Expenses B. Govt. Dues
D. Secured Assets C. Loan from partner
D. Capital
Que.27 Surplus capital method is also known as_____ Que.28 Maximum Loss method is also known as____
A. Quotient method A. Surplus Capital Method
B. Maximum Loss Method B. High Relative Capital Method
C. National Loss Method C. National Loss Method
D. None of all these D. Excess Capital Method
Page - 3
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.31 When is Garner V/s Murray Rulings is Que.32 Maximum Loss = Total of capital A/c. Balance
applicable? less __________
A. When insolvent partner did not able to pay off his A. Cash available
capital deficiency B. Cash paid
B. When insolvent partner able to pay off his capital C. Profit
deficiency D. None of these
C. When solvent partner did not able pay off his
capital deficiency
D. When solvent partner pay off his capital deficiency
Que.33 In Piecemeal distribution amounts realised Que.34 The liability of partners in a firm is..........
from assets are payable in the following order:
A. Limited
A. Realisation expenses, Outside Liabilities, Partners B. Certain
Loan, Partners Capital C. Unlimited
B. Partners Capital, outside Liabilities, Partners Loan, D. Fixed
Realisation Expenses
C. Partners Capital, Partners Loan, outside Liabilities,
Realisation Expenses
D. None of the above
Que.35 Reserve fund is distributed among the Que.36 Under Surplus Capital method in Piecemeal
partners in their.......ratio. Distribution, after the repayment of all outsider
liabilities, the.............are to be discharged on pro-rata
A. New
basis.
B. Profit sharing
C. Old A. partners capital
D. Partner B. partners loans
C. partners assets
D. none of the above
Que.37 In piecemeal distribution, first pay Que.38 Single entry systems are maintained by
the.............liabilities.
A. Company
A. Unsecured B. Income tax authorities
B. Preferential C. Government
C. Secured D. Sole trader
D. none of the above
Que.39 Single entry system of book keeping is Que.40 If closing capital is >opening capital, it denotes
A. Simple A. Loss
B. Unauthorized by tax authorities B. Profit
C. Unscientific C. No profit no loss
D. all of these D. Profit, if there is no introduction of fresh capital
Page - 4
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.41 If closing capital is < opening capital, it Que.42 If capital at the end of the year is 40,000:
denotes that capital introduced during the year Rs. 30,000; drawings
20,000 and loss for the year is 60,000; then Capital at
A. Loss
the beginning of the year was:
B. Profit
C. No profit no loss A. 90000
D. Loss, if there is no introduction of fresh capital B. 80000
C. 70000
D. 10000
Que.43 If capital at the end of the year is 50,000: Que.44 Profit = capital at the end + drawings -
capital introduced during the year Rs. 30,000; drawings additional capital - …………..
20,000 and profit for the year is 30,000; then Capital at
A. Opening capital
the beginning of the year
B. Closing capital
A. 10,000 C. Loss
B. 30000 D. None of these
C. 20000
D. 35000
Que.45 What should be added in closing capital for Que.46 When the amount of closing capital (after
calculating opening capital? adjusting drawings ) is less than that of opening capital
the difference will be treated as:-
A. Loss and drawing
B. Profit and drawing A. Loss
C. Profit only B. Profit
D. Loss only C. Additional capital
D. None of them
Que.47 If opening capital is 24,000; closing capital Que.48 A system of accounting which is not based on
40,000; drawing 7,000; fresh capital 8,000. Calculate double entry system is called-
profit or loss.
A. Cash system
A. Profit 15,000 B. Mahajani system of accounting
B. Loss 15,000 C. Incomplete accounting system
C. Profit 20,000 D. None of these.
D. Loss 20,000
Que.49 Accounts which are maintained under single Que.50 Statement of affairs is prepared to-
entry system-
A. Know about assets
A. Personal accounts B. Know about liabilities
B. Impersonal accounts C. Calculate capital
C. (a) & (b) both D. Know financial position.
D. None of these.
Page - 5
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.51 Liabilities and assets amount to Rs. 50,000 and Que.52 Generally incomplete records are maintained
Rs. 78,000 respectively. The difference amount will by-
represent-
A. Trader
A. Creditors B. Society
B. Debentures C. Company
C. Profit D. Government.
D. Capital.
Que.53 Statements of assets & liabilities prepared Que.54 In Single entry mostly:
under single entry system is called:
A. Personal aspects of transaction are recorded
A. Balance sheet B. Nominal aspects of transaction are recorded
B. Profit & loss statement C. Real aspects of transaction are recorded
C. Statement of affairs D. All of the above
D. Income Statement
Que.57 In India GST became effective from Que.58 In India GST came effective from July 1st, 2017
India chosen________ model of dual GST
A. 1st April, 2017
B. 1st January, 2017 A. USA
C. 1st July, 2017 B. UK
D. 1st March, 2017 C. Canadian
D. China
Que.59 GST is a ___________ based tax on Que.60 Indian GST model has________rate structure
consumption of goods and services
A. 3
A. Duration B. 4
B. Destination C. 5
C. Dividend D. 6
D. Development
Page - 6
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Business Regulatory Framework (M.Law)
Que.61 What does "I" stands for in IGST Que.62 How many types of taxes will be in Indian GST
A. International A. 2
B. Intention B. 3
C. Integrated C. 4
D. Intra D. 5
Que.63 What are the taxes lavied on an Intra state Que.64 what is the maximum rate of cgst prescribed
supply under cgst act 2017?
A. CGST A. 0.28
B. SGST B. 0.2
C. CGST & SGST C. 0.12
D. IGST D. 0.18
Que.65 Which of the following tax was abolished by Que.66 The incidence of tax on tax is called
GST?
A. Tax Cascading
A. Corporate Tax B. Tax Pyramiding
B. Income Tax C. Tax evasion
C. Service Tax D. Indirect tax
D. Wealth Tax
Que.67 UTGST is applicable when Que.68 Integrated Goods and Services Tax is
applicable when
A. Sold from Union territory
B. Goods are purchased by Central Government A. Sold in Union territory
C. Sold from one union territory to another union B. Sold from one GST dealer to another GST dealer
territory C. Sold within a state
D. There is interstate supply D. There is interstate supply
Que.69 SGST is applicable when Que.70 When a GST dealer in Kerala sells a product o
a GST dealer or customer in Tamilnadu, the tax
A. Goods are sold within a state
collected is
B. Goods are sold from one GST dealer to a customer
C. Goods are sold by a GST dealer to another GST A. CGST
dealer B. SGST
D. Interstate supply C. CGST & SGST
D. IGST
Page - 7
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01
Answer Keys
Que 1 - Option B Que 2 - Option C Que 3 - Option B Que 4 - Option B Que 5 - Option C
Que 6 - Option B Que 7 - Option C Que 8 - Option B Que 9 - Option C Que 10 - Option D
Que 11 - Option B Que 12 - Option C Que 13 - Option D Que 14 - Option C Que 15 - Option C
Que 16 - Option B Que 17 - Option A Que 18 - Option C Que 19 - Option B Que 20 - Option B
Que 21 - Option A Que 22 - Option D Que 23 - Option B Que 24 - Option A Que 25 - Option A
Que 26 - Option A Que 27 - Option A Que 28 - Option C Que 29 - Option A Que 30 - Option A
Que 31 - Option A Que 32 - Option A Que 33 - Option A Que 34 - Option C Que 35 - Option B
Que 36 - Option B Que 37 - Option B Que 38 - Option D Que 39 - Option D Que 40 - Option D
Que 41 - Option D Que 42 - Option A Que 43 - Option A Que 44 - Option A Que 45 - Option A
Que 46 - Option A Que 47 - Option A Que 48 - Option C Que 49 - Option A Que 50 - Option C
Que 51 - Option D Que 52 - Option A Que 53 - Option C Que 54 - Option A Que 55 - Option B
Que 56 - Option C Que 57 - Option C Que 58 - Option C Que 59 - Option B Que 60 - Option 6
Que 61 - Option C Que 62 - Option B Que 63 - Option C Que 64 - Option B Que 65 - Option C
Que 66 - Option A Que 67 - Option A Que 68 - Option C Que 69 - Option A Que 70 - Option D
Page - 8
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS ON BASIC ACCOUNTING
Q1] Which accounting concept satisfy the valuation criteria
A] Going concern, Realisation, Cost b) Going concern, Cost, Dual aspect
c) Cost, Dual aspect, Conservatism d) Realisation, Conservatism, Going concern.
Q2] A trader has made a sale of Rs.75,500 out of which cash sales amounted to
Rs.25,500. He showed trade receivables on 31-3-2014 at Rs.25,500. Which concept is
followed by him?
a) Going concern b) Cost c) Accrual d) Money measurement
Q3] In which of the following cases, accounting estimates are needed?
a) Employs benefit schemes b) Impairment of losses c) Inventory obsolescence d) All of
the above
Q4] Deewali advance given to an employee is
a) Revenue Expenditure b) Capital Expenditure c) Deferred Revenue Expenditure d) Not
an Expenditure
Q5] A firm has reported a profit of Rs.1,47,000 for the year ended 31-3-2014 after taking
into consideration the following items.
(i) The cost of an asset Rs.23,000 has been taken as an expense
(ii) The firm anticipated a profit of Rs.12,000 on the sale of an old furniture
(iii) Salary of Rs.7,000 outstanding for the year has not been taken into account.
(iv) An asset of Rs.85,000 was purchased for Rs.75,000 and was recorded in the books at
Rs.85,000.
What is the correct amount of profit to be reported in the books?
a) Rs.1,47,000 b) Rs. 1,51,000 c) Rs.1,63,000 d) Rs.1,41,000
Q7] Rohit carrying on real estate business sold a piece of land for Rs.4,00,00,000 (cost
Rs.3,50,00,000) then the type of receipt is ______ nature and profit on sale is
a) Capital & transferred to capital reserve b) Revenue & transferred to P & L a/c c)
Capital & transferred to P & L a/c d) Revenue & transferred to general reserve
Q8] In income measurement & recognisation of assets & liabilities which of the
following concepts goes together ?
(a) Periodicity, Accural, Matching
(b) Cost, Accural, matching
(c) Going concern, cost, Realization
(d) Going concern, Periodicity, Reliability
Q9] Interpretation means
(a) Explanation of meaning and significance of the data in Financial Statements.
(b) Concerned with preparation and presentation of classified data
(c) Systematic analysis of recorded data
(d) Methodical classification of data given in Financial Statements.
Q10] A trader purchases goods for Rs. 2500000, of these 70% of goods were sold
during the year. At the end of 31st December 2009, the market value of such goods
were Rs. 500000. But the trader recorded in his books for Rs. 750000. Which of the
following concept is violated.
(a) Money measurement
(b) Conservatism
(c) Consistency
(d) None of these
Q 13]If nothing is given in the financial statements about the three accounting
assumptions then it is to be treated as it
a) Is assumed that it is not followed
b) Is assumed to be followed
c) Is assumed to be followed to some extent
d) None of the above
Q14] The proprietor of the business is treated as creditor for the capital introduced
by him due to_____ concept.
a) Money measurement b) Cost c) Entity d) Dual aspect
Q15] Fixed assets are held by business for _____
a) Converting into cash b) Generating revenue c) Resale d) None of the above
Q16] Which accounting concept specifies the practice of crediting closing stock to
the trading account?
a) Cost b) Realisation c) Going concern d) Matching
Q18] Change in the capital A/c of proprietor may occur due to ______
a) Profit earned b) Loss incurred c) Capital Introduced d) All of the above
Q20] If one of the cars purchased by a car dealer is used for business purpose,
instead of resale, then it should be recorded by_____
a) Dr Drawing A/c & Cr Purchases A/c b) Dr Office Expenses A/c & Cr Motor Car A/c
c) Dr Motor Car A/c & Cr Purchases A/c d) Dr Motor Car & Cr Sales A/c
Q21] If wages are paid for construction of business premises ______ A/c is credited
and _____ A/c is debited.
a) Wages, Cash b) Premises, Cash c) Cash, Wages d) Cash, Premises
Q22] Human resources will not appear in the balance sheet according to ______
concept.
a) Accrual b) Going concern c) Money measurement concept d) None
Q27] M/s Stationery Mart will debit the purchase of stationery to _______
a) Purchases A/c b) General Expenses A/c c) Stationery A/c d) None
Q28] Small items like, pencils, pens, files, etc. are written off within a year according
to _ concept.
a) Materiality b) consistency c) Conservatism d) Realisation
Q29] Business enterprise is separate from its owner according to _____ concept.
a) Money measurement concept b) Matching concept c) Entity concept d) Dual aspect
concept
Q30] The policy of anticipate no profit and provide for all possible losses arise due to
the concept of _____
a) Consistency b) Disclosure c) Conservatism d) Matching
Q33] If the Market value of closing Inventory is less than its cost price, inventory will
he shown at ____
a) Marketable value b) Fair Market value c) Both d) none
Q34] The Market price of good declined than the cost price. Then the concept that
plays a key role is ____
a) Materiality b) Going concern concept c) Realization d) Consistency
Q35] Fixed assets are double the current assets and half the capital. The current
assets are Rs.3,00,000 and investments are Rs.4,00,000. Then the current liabilities
recorded in balance sheet will be
a) 2,00,000 b) 1,00,000 c) 3,00,000 d) 4,00,000
Q36] Which of the following provide frame work and accounting policies so that the
financial statements of different enterprises become comparable.
a) Business Standards b) Accounting Standards c) Market Standards d) None
Q37] Which of the following factor is not considered while selecting accounting
policies?
a) Prudence b) Substance over form c) Accountancy d) Materiality
Q38] Debit the receiver & credit the giver is _____ account
a) Personal b) Real c) Nominal d) All the above
Q41] Mr. X sold goods to Mr. Y ask Mr. X to keep the goods with him for some time
a) symbolic delivery b) actual delivery c) constructive delivery d) none of these
Q45] The principle “Debit the receiver and credit the giver” is related to_____
a) Personal a/c b) Real a/c c) Nominal a/c d) None
Q49] Valuation of stock in accounting follows the principle of cost price or ____ which ever is
lower.
a) Market Price b) Average Price c) Net realizable Value d) None of these.
Q55] The comparison of financial statement of one year with that of another is
possible only when ----------------concept is followed
A] Going concern B] Accrual
C] Consistency D] Materiality
Q58] An asset was purchased for Rs.1000000 with the down payment of Rs.200000
and bills accepted for Rs.800000/-. What would be the effect on the total asset and
total liabilities in the balance sheet?
A] Assets increased by Rs.800000 and liabilities decreased by Rs.800000
B] Assets decreased by Rs.800000 and liabilities increased by Rs.800000
C] Assets increased by Rs.1000000 and liabilities increased by Rs.800000
D] Assets increased by Rs.800000 and liabilities increased by Rs.800000
Q59] The rule debit all expenses and losses and credit all income and gains relates to
A] Personal account B] Real account C] Nominal accounts
D] All
1] a 2]c 3] d 4] d 5] b 6] a 7] b 8] a 9] a 10] b
11] d 12] a 13] b 14] c 15] b 16] d 17] a 18] d 19] c 20] c
21] d 22] c 23] b 24] c 25] d 26] d 27] a 28] a 29] c 30] c
31] c 32] b 33] a 34] c 35] b 36] b 37] c 38] a 39] a 40] c
41] a 42] b 43] a 44] b 45] a 46] a 47] a 48] a 49]c 50] a
51] c 52] b 53] d 54] a 55] c 56] d 57] d 58] d 59] c 60] d
Chapter 1 Basic Concepts of Accounting
1. ______________ is nothing but the right process of selecting an appropriate, logical, practical and
achievable option from the available alternatives.
3. The relationship between persons who agree to carry on business in a common with a view to private
gain.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole-trading Firm (c) Joint Stock Company (d) Co-operative Society
4. A ______________ is a form of business organization in which the funds of large number of investors
are managed by a few persons for the purpose of earning profits.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole-trading Firm (c) Joint Stock Company (d) Co-operative Society
(a) Marketing (b) Profit Earning Capacity (c) Accounting (d) Selling
(a) To calculate net profit or net loss of the business. (b) To know the financial condition of the firm. (c)
To provide information to the management for important managerial decisions. (d) All of the above
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting (c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost
Accounting
8. Accounting ______________ are the Rules of Action or the Methods and Procedures of Accounting
commonly adopted while recording Business transactions.
9. According to ______________ concept, assets purchased are generally recorded in accounting books at
the cost at which they are purchase(d)
(a) Business Entity Concept (b) Going Concern Concept (c) Money Measurement Concept (d) Cost
Concept
10. According to ______________ concept, revenue is recognized only when the sale is performed.
(a) Business Entity Concept (b) Going Concern Concept (c) Money Measurement Concept (d)
Realization Concept
11. Accounting ______________ are the traditions, usage andcustoms which are in used since long.
(a) Convention of Consistency (b) Convention of Disclosure (c) Convention of Conservatism (d)
Convention of Realization
(a) Non-Cash Entry System (b) Cash System (c) Single Entry System (d) Double Entry System
14. Out of the following, which Transactions are not to be recorded in the Books of Accounts
(a) Cash Transaction (b) Credit Transaction (c) Financial Transaction (d) Ordinary Transaction
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account (c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account (c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
17. Accounts in the respect of expenses and incomes are known as ______________.
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account (c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
18. Every transaction must have ______________ aspects and involve ______________ accounts.
(a) two, two (b) one, one (c) one, two (d) two, one
19. A ______________ is an accounting entry that either increases an asset or expense account, or
decreases a liability or equity account.
20. A ______________ is an accounting entry that either increases a liability or equity account, or
decreases an asset or expense account.
21. Debit the receiver, credit the giver is the rule of ______________.
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account (c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
22. Debit what comes in, credit what goes out is the rule of ______________.
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account (c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
23. Debit all expenses and losses, credit all incomes and gains is the rule of ______________.
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account (c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
(a) Journal (b) Ledger (c) Cash Book (d) Subsidiary Book
(a) Journal (b) Ledger (c) Cash Book (d) Subsidiary Book
28. ______________ is a summarized record of transactions related to one person, one asset, one head of
expense/loss and one head of income/gain.
30. ______________ are obligations or debts that the enterprise must pay in money or services at some
time in the future.
31. ______________ are economic resources of an enterprise that can be usefully expressed in monetary
terms.
(a) Assets (b) Liabilities (c) Cash & Bank Balance (d) Funds
32. ______________ are commodities, purchased or manufactured for resale with a view to earn profit.
33. ______________ are the amounts the business earns by selling its products or providing services to
customers.
34. ______________ are the costs incurred by a business in the process of earning revenue.
36. ______________ are persons and/or other entities that have to be paid by an enterprise an amount for
providing the enterprise goods and services on credit.
37. ______________ is a list of the entire general ledger account names and balances; it is prepared to
prove the ledger.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger (c) Cash Book (d) Trial Balance
39. ______________ deals with expenses related to or identified with products, which may only be a part
of the organization.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting (c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost
Accounting
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting (c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost
Accounting
41. The primary objective of ______________ is to provide necessary information to the management in
the process of its planning, controlling, and performance evaluation, and decision-making.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting (c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost
Accounting
42. The Success of ______________ does not depend upon Management Accounting system.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting (c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost
Accounting
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting (c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost
Accounting
(a) Accounting softwares save Time and Money. (b) No scope for mistakes and errors. (c) Provides
accurate and updated information as and when require(d) (d) All of the above
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting (c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost
Accounting
50. Explanatory note written below an entry recorded in the Journal is called as ______________.
(a) Narration (b) Explanation (c) Brief information (d) Detail information
(a) Cash Flow (b) Funds Flow (c) Income Statement (d) Balance Sheet
2. ______________ shows the results of the firm’s operations and financial activities for the reporting
period.
(a) Trading and Profit & Loss Account (b) Expense Statement (c) Income Statement (d) Balance Sheet
3. ______________ includes explanations of various activities, additional details of some accounts, and
other items as mandated by the regulatory authorities, bodies from time to time.
(a) Trading and Profit & Loss Account (b) Expense Statement (c) Income Statement (d) Supplementary
Note
4. ______________ is a formal official record of the financial activities and position of a business,
person, or other entity.
(a) Financial Statement (b) Trading Account (c) Profit & Loss Account (d) Supplementary Note
5. ______________ provides the vital information related to the profitability, liquidity and solvency of
the business.
(a) Financial Statement (b) Trading Account (c) Profit & Loss Account (d) Cash Flow & Funds Flow
6. ______________ is the simplest business form under which one can operate a business.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole Trading Firm (c) Private Ltd. Company (d) Public Company
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole Proprietorship Firm (c) Private Ltd. Company (d) One Man Company
8. For every item given in Trial Balance, ______________ effect should be given.
(a) Dual (b) Single (c) Triple (d) None of the above
(a) Dual (b) Single (c) Triple (d) None of the above
10. ______________ are nothing but the entries which are not included in the original Trial Balance.
(a) Journal Proper (b) Ledger (c) Adjustments (d) None of the above
(a) One Debit & One Credit (b) Debit (c) Credit (d) None of the above
(a) BRS (b) Balance Sheet (c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
(a) Profit and Loss A/c Debit Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side (c) Trading A/c Debit Side (d)
Trading A/c Credit Side
(a) Balance Sheet Asset Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side (c) Trading A/c Debit Side (d) Trading
A/c Credit Side
(a) Profit and Loss A/c Debit Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side (c) Trading A/c Debit Side (d)
Trading A/c Credit Side
(a) Capital A/c (b) Balance Sheet (c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
(a) Journal A/c (b) Balance Sheet (c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
(a) Capital A/c (b) Personal A/c (c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
(a) Capital A/c (b) Personal A/c (c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
(a) Accounting Concepts and Conventions (b) Accounting Concepts (c) Accounting Conventions (d)
None of the above
(a) 1st January (b) 1st April (c) 1st March (d) 1st June
(a) 31st January (b) 31st August (c) 31st March (d) 31st December
(a) Capital A/c (b) Personal A/c (c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
29. Carriage outward is debited to ______________.
(a) Capital A/c (b) Personal A/c (c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
(a) Capital A/c (b) Balance Sheet Asset Side (c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
(a) Added (b) Deducted (c) Not Added (d) Not deducted
32. In ______________ business, all incomes and losses are taxed on the individual’s personal income
tax return.
(a) Profit and Loss A/c Debit Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side (c) Trading A/c Debit Side (d)
Trading A/c Credit Side
(a) Added in respective asset (b) Added in respective liability (c) Added in respective expense (d) Added
in respective income
(a) Deducted from respective asset (b) Added in respective liability (c) Deducted from respective
expense (d) Added in respective income
(a) Capital A/c (b) Balance Sheet (c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
(a) Profit and Loss A/c Debit Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side (c) Trading A/c Debit Side (d)
Trading A/c Credit Side
(a) Inward (b) Outward (c) Return Inward (d) Return Outward
40. Sales Return is also called as ______________.
(a) Inward (b) Outward (c) Return Inward (d) Return Outward
(a) Profit and Loss A/c Debit Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side (c) Trading A/c Debit Side (d)
Trading A/c Credit Side
(a) Profit and Loss A/c Debit Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side (c) Trading A/c Debit Side (d)
Trading A/c Credit Side
(a) Profit and Loss A/c Debit Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side (c) Balance Sheet Liability Side (d)
Balance Sheet Asset Side
(a) Trading A/c (b) Income A/c (c) Capital A/c (d) Asset A/c
Chapter 3 Cost Accounting
1. ______________ provides a specialized technique, which provides prompt and accurate information
regarding the cost of producing and selling an article.
(a) Cost Accounting (b) Financial Accounting (c) Management Accounting (d) Cost & Financial
Accounting
2. The amount of expenditure incurred on, or attributable to a given thing is called as ______________.
(a) Costing Methods (b) Cost Accounting (c) Management Accounting (d) Costing Techniques
(a) Costing Methods (b) Cost Accounting (c) Management Accounting (d) Costing Techniques
6. The total of Direct Material + Direct Labour + Direct Expenses is called as ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Factory Cost (c) Prime Cost (d) Main Cost
(a) Chargeable Expenses (b) Factory Expenses (c) Works Expenses (d) General Expenses
(a) Direct Expenses (b) Factory Expenses (c) General Expenses (d) Indirect Expenses
(a) Total Cost (b) Total Expense (c) Overheads (d) Factory Overheads
(a) Total Cost (b) Cost of Production (c) Works Cost (d) Factory Overheads
(a) Total Cost (b) Cost of Production (c) Works Cost (d) Factory Cost
(a) Total Cost (b) Fixed Overheads (c) Variable Overheads (d) Semi-variable Overheads
13. Fixed Cost is also called as ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Direct Cost (c) Works Cost (d) Period Cost
(a) Fixed Cost (b) Controllable Cost (c) Non-controllable Cost (d) Period Cost
(a) Fixed Cost (b) Avoidable Cost (c) Non-controllable Cost (d) Normal Cost
(a) Fixed Cost (b) Unavoidable Cost (c) Abnormal Cost (d) Normal Cost
(a) Fixed Cost (b) Direct Cost (c) Capital Cost (d) Normal Cost
(a) Predetermined Cost (b) Direct Cost (c) Capital Cost (d) Fixed Cost
(a) Predetermined Cost (b) Direct Cost (c) Marginal Cost (d) Fixed Cost
(a) Predetermined Cost (b) Direct Cost (c) Unavoidable Cost (d) Standard Cost
(a) Differential Cost (b) Semi-variable Cost (c) Variable Cost (d) Standard Cost
(a) Differential Cost (b) Programmed Cost (c) Normal Cost (d) Fixed Cost
(a) Standard Cost (b) Programmed Cost (c) Normal Cost (d) Imaginary Cost
(a) Committed Cost (b) Programmed Cost (c) General Cost (d) Imaginary Cost
25. A Location, person, or item of equipment (or a group of these) for which costs may be ascertained and
used for the purpose of control is called as ______________.
(a) Cost Unit (b) Cost Centre (c) Cost Department (d) Cost Division
26. ______________ a statement, which shows various components of total cost of a product.
(a) Cost Sheet (b) Cost Account (c) Cost Report (d) Cost Classification
(a) Historical Cost Sheet (b) Cost Account (c) Cost Report (d) Estimated Cost Sheet
(a) Fixed Overheads (b) Direct Cost (c) Factory Overheads (d) Administration Overheads
(a) Fixed Overheads (b) Selling Overheads (c) Factory Overheads (d) Administration Overheads
(a) Fixed Overheads (b) Selling Overheads (c) Factory Overheads (d) Administration Overheads
(a) Factory Cost (b) Prime Cost (c) Cost of Production (d) Works Cost
(a) Factory Cost (b) Prime Cost (c) Fixed Wages (d) Productive Wages
(a) Units of Production (b) Units of Services (c) Both a and b (d) None of the above
34. Cost of converting raw material into finished goods is also called as ______________.
(a) Factory Cost (b) Prime Cost (c) Conversion Cost (d) Productive Cost
(a) Revenue Cost (b) Differential Cost (c) Fixed Cost (d) Variable Cost
(a) Revenue Cost (b) Differential Cost (c) Fixed Cost (d) Variable Cost
(a) Revenue Cost (b) Differential Cost (c) Fixed Cost (d) Variable Cost
39. The Expenditure which has been incurred in an accounting period but it is applicable further periods
also is ______________.
(a) Revenue Cost (b) Differential Cost (c) Differed Revenue Cost (d) Variable Cost
40. The estimate of expenditure for different business operations for a specific period is ______________.
(a) Budgeted Cost (b) Differential Cost (c) Differed Revenue Cost (d) Variable Cost
(a) Incremental Cost (b) Differential Cost (c) Opportunity Cost (d) Future Cost
42. The value of benefit sacrificed in favour of an alternative course of action is ______________ cost.
43. Opening Stock of WIP & Closing Stock of WIP is added and deducted after addition of
______________ in Prime Cost.
(a) Direct Expenses (b) Factory Overheads (c) Office Overheads (d) Selling Overheads
(a) Cost of Direct Expenses (b) Cost of Direct Overheads (c) Cost of Direct Labour (d) Cost of Direct
Material
(a) Cost of Sales (b) Fixed Cost (c) Cost of Production (d) Cost of Goods Sold
(a) Cost of Sales (b) Cost of Production (c) Cost of Goods Sold (d) None of the above
(a) Direct Expenses (b) Factory Overheads (c) Office Overheads (d) Selling Overheads
48. Sale of Scrap is ______________ after addition of factory overheads in Prime Cost.
(a) Added (b) Deducted (c) Not Considered (d) None of the above
(a) Direct Expenses (b) Factory Overheads (c) Office Overheads (d) Selling Overheads
50. ______________ is the process of ascertaining costs whereas ______________ is the process of
recording various costs in a systematic manner, in order to prepare statistical date to ascertain cost.
(a) Costing, Cost Accounting (b) Cost Accounting, Costing (c) Costing and Allocation Cost (d) Costing
and Absorption of Cost
(a) Inventory Carrying Cost (b) Order Placing Cost (c) Buying Cost (d) Fixed Cost
2. Cost of placing the orders and receiving the goods are called as ______________.
(a) Inventory Carrying Cost (b) Variable Cost (c) Buying Cost (d) Fixed Cost
5. Calculate EOQ if Cost of material per unit ` 40, Annual requirement 1600 units, Cost of placing and
receiving one purchase order ` 50, Annual carrying cost of inventory is 10% of inventory value.
(a) 200 Units (b) 175 Units (c) 225 Units (d) 250 Units
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level (c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level (c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
8. A level at which store keeper should intimate purchase department for fresh/new supply is
______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level (c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
9. A level below which the stock should never be allowed to fall under emergency circumstances is
______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level (c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
10. A strategy for inventory management in which raw materials and components are delivered from the
vendor or supplier immediately before they are needed in the manufacturing process is ______________.
(a) Scientific Purchasing (b) Immediate Buying (c) JIT (d) None of the above
11. Out of the following, which is the method of issuing material.
(a) LIFO (b) FIFO (c) Simple Average (d) All of the above
(a) Latest in First Out (b) Last in First Out (c) Largest in First Out (d) Lowest in First Out
(a) Maximum Consumption × Maximum Reorder Period (b) Reorder Level − (Normal Consumption
× Normal Reorder Period) (c) Reorder Level + Reorder Quantity − (Minimum Consumption × Minimum
Reorder Period) (d) Average Usage × Maximum Reorder Period for Emergency Purchases
(a) Maximum Consumption× Maximum Reorder Period (b) Reorder Level − (Normal Consumption ×
Normal Reorder Period) (c) Reorder Level + Reorder Quantity − (Minimum Consumption × Minimum
Reorder Period) (d) Average Usage × Maximum Reorder Period for Emergency Purchases
(a) Maximum Consumption× Maximum Reorder Period (b) Reorder Level − (Normal Consumption ×
Normal Reorder Period) (c) Reorder Level + Reorder Quantity − (Minimum Consumption ×
Minimum Reorder Period) (d) Average Usage × Maximum Reorder Period for Emergency Purchases
(a) Maximum Consumption× Maximum Reorder Period (b) Reorder Level − (Normal Consumption ×
Normal Reorder Period) (c) Reorder Level + Reorder Quantity − (Minimum Consumption × Minimum
Reorder Period) (d) Average Usage × Maximum Reorder Period for Emergency Purchases
17. Material Losses are generally classified into two categories, i.e., ______________.
(a) Normal and Abnormal (b) Avoidable and Unavoidable (c) Controllable and Non-controllable (d)
Fixed and Variable
(a) Wastage (b) Scarp (c) Spoilage or Defectives (d) All of the above
(a) Fixed Cost Control (b) Debtors Control (c) Inventory Control (d) Creditors Control
(a) To protect materials from losses and damages (b) To avoid over and under-stocking of materials (c)
To minimize the storage costs of materials (d) All of the above
21. Wages which can be indentified with and allocated to cost centers and cost units is ______________.
(a) Direct Labour Cost (b) Indirect Labour Cost (c) Fixed Labour Cost (d) Variable Labour Cost
22. ______________ is defined as the rate of change of labour force in an organization during a specified
period.
(a) Labour Turnover (b) Labour Rate (c) Labour Cost (d) Employee Change Rate
(a) Personal Causes (b) Avoidable Causes (c) Unavoidable Causes (d) All of the above
24. ______________ includes all those costs which are incurred to keep the workers satisfied, so that they
are prevented from leaving the organization.
(a) Direct Labour Cost (b) Preventive Cost (c) Maintenance Cost (d) Variable Labour Cost
(a) Separation Method (b) Replacement Method (c) Flux Method (d) All of the above
26. ______________ is recording of incoming and outgoing time of all employees in factory.
(a) Time Keeping (b) Time Booking (c) Time Noting (d) All of the above
(a) Time Keeping (b) Time Booking (c) Time Noting (d) All of the above
28. ______________ study is concerned with determining the proper method for performing the job so
that there is no wastage in movement.
29. ______________ study is concerned with the determination of standard time required by a person of
average ability to perform a jo(b)
30. Out of the following, which factor/s affecting the Labour Cost.
(a) Assessment of Manpower Requirement (b) Time and Motion Study (c) Control over Idle Time and
Overtime (d) All of the above
31. Which department/s is/are closely associated with the Control of Labour Cost?
(a) Personnel and Payroll Department (b) Time Keeping Department (c) Engineering and Work Study
Department (d) All of the above
32. ______________ arises from replacement of workers who leave the organization.
(a) Direct Labour Cost (b) Preventive Cost (c) Maintenance Cost (d) Replacement Cost
(a) Attendance Register Method (b) Token or Disc Method (c) Time Recording Clocks & Dial Time
Records (d) All of the above
(a) Daily Time Sheet (b) Weekly Time Sheet (c) Job Cards or Job Tickets (d) All of the above
35. ______________ refers to the estimation of standard time, i.e., the time allowed for completing one
piece of job using the given metho(d)
(a) Work Measurement (b) Time Measurement (c) Period Measurement (d) None of the above
36. ______________ costs are the operating costs of a business enterprise which cannot be traced to a
particular unit of output.
(a) Material (b) Labour (c) Overhead (d) Foxed & Variable
37. The ______________ is the process of recording each item of cost in the books of accounts
maintained for the purpose of ascertainment of cost of each Cost Centre or Cost Unit.
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead (c) Apportionment of Overhead (d) Classification
of Overhead
38. ______________ means, the allotment of whole items of cost to cost centres or cost units.
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead (c) Apportionment of Overhead (d) Classification
of Overhead
39. ______________ means, the allotment to two or more departments or cost centers of proportions of
common items of cost on estimated basis of benefit received.
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead (c) Apportionment of Overhead (d)
Classification of Overhead
(a) Primary Distribution of Overhead (b) Secondary Distribution of Overhead (c) Simultaneous Equation
Method of Overhead (d) All of the above
42. The overhead, which can be easily identified with a particular department that is charged only to the
specific department, is called ______________.
(a) Collection (b) Allocation (c) Apportionment (d) Classification
(a) Value of Plant (b) Ratio of Plant (c) Quantity of Production (d) None of the above
(a) No. of Workers (b) Days Spend by Workers (c) Time Spent by Workers (d) None of the above
(a) Horse Power (b) KWH (c) No. of Machine Hours (d) All of the above
(a) Value of Materials (b) No. of Stores Requisitions (c) Weight or Value of Materials (d) All of the
above
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead (c) Apportionment of Overhead (d) Classification
of Overhead
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead (c) Apportionment of Overhead (d)
Classification of Overhead
(a) Variable Costing (b) Standard Costing (c) Material Costing (d) Job Costing
2. In ______________ total costs cannot be easily segregated into fixed costs and variable costs.
(a) Marginal Costing (b) Standard Costing (c) Material Costing (d) Job Costing
(a) Centre Point (b) BEP (c) Starting Point (d) Ending Point
(a) P/V Ratio (b) Net Margin (c) MOS (d) Gross Margin
8. ______________ is the difference between actual sales or output and the break even sales.
(a) P/V Ratio (b) Net Margin (c) MOS (d) Gross Margin
9. ______________ is an angle where sales line intersects total cost line which indicates profit earning
capacity over the BEP.
(a) Angle of Incidence (b) Contribution (c) Margin of Safety (d) Gross Margin
10. If contribution is ` 3,00,000 and Sales is ` 10,00,000, then what is P/V Ratio?
12. If Fixed Cost is ` 2,50,000 and P/V Ratio is 60%, then what is BEP in `?
13. If Fixed Cost is ` 2,50,000 and Profit is ` 3,50,000, then what is the amount of Contribution?
14. If Sales are ` 50,000 and P/V Ratio is 20%, then what is the amount of Variable Cost?
15. If contribution is ` 3,00,000 and Profit is ` 1,00,000, then what is the amount of Fixed Cost?
(a) Contribution = Sales – Variable Cost (b) Contribution = Fixed Cost + Profit or – Loss (c) Contribution
= Sales × P/ V Ratio (d) All of the above
(a) P/ V Ratio = [Contribution/Sales ] × 100 (b) P/ V Ratio = [Change in Profit/Change in Sales ] × 100
(c) P/ V Ratio = [Sales−Variable Cost/Sales] × 100 (d) All of the above
20. Under absorption and over absorption of overheads problems are not arisen under ______________.
(a) Marginal Costing (b) Standard Costing (c) Job Costing (d) Budgetary Control
(a) Pre-determined (b) Pre-decided (c) Pre-planned (d) None of the above
(a) Standard Costing (b) Marginal Costing (c) Budgetary Control (d) None of the above
23. ______________ means difference between standard cost and actual cost. (a) Balance Cost (b)
Variance (c) Marginal Cost (d) Variable Cost
24. ______________ helps management to understand the present costs and then to control the future
costs.
(a) ABC Analysis (b) Variance Analysis (c) Marginal Analysis (d) Budget Analysis
26. If Standard Cost ` 80 and Actual Cost ` 70, then what is the amount of Material Cost Variance?
27. If Standard Price ` 8 & Standard Qty.10, Actual Price ` 7 & Actual Qty.10, then what is the amount of
Material Price Variance?
29. If Standard Rate ` 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ` 2 & Actual Hours 1500, then what is
the amount of Labour Cost Variance?
30. If Standard Rate ` 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ` 2 & Actual Hours 1500, then what is
the amount of Labour Rate Variance?
31. If Standard Rate ` 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate `2 & Actual Hours 1500, then what is the
amount of Labour Efficiency Variance?
32. The correct formula for verification of Material Cost Variance is ______________.
(a) MCV = MPV + MUV (b) MCV = MPV – MUV (c) MCV = MPV × MUV (d) None of the above
33. The correct formula for verification of Labour Cost Variance is ______________.
(a) LCV = LRV + LEV (b) LCV = LRV – LEV (c) LCV = LRV × LEV (d) None of the above
(a) Standard Cost and Actual Cost (b) Fixed Cost and Variable Cost (c) Normal Cost and Abnormal
Cost (d) None of the above
(a) Establishments of standards are difficult in practice. (b) Standards are requires to revise continuously.
(c) Inaccurate, unreliable and outdated standards do more harm than benefit (d) All of the above
36. ______________ is a concrete precise picture of the total operation of an enterprise in monetary
terms.
(a) Budgetary Control (b) Scientific Planning (c) Standard Costing (d) Marginal Costing
38. Pre- requisitions for effective implementation of Budgetary Control system is/are ______________.
(a) Deciding budget centres & budget period (b) Preparation of a budget manual (c) Determination of
budget key factor (d) All of the above
39. ______________ is the budget in which adjustment is possible according to change in business
conditions.
(a) Flexible Budget (b) Fixed Budget (c) Sales Budget (d) Cash Budget
40. When forecasts about budget shows greater revenue to be received or generated than the expenses to
be incurred during budgeted period that is known as ______________.
(a) Surplus Budget (b) Best Budget (c) Favourable Budget (d) Non-favourable Budget
41. ______________ budget highlights that the expenditures to be incurred in budget period will be
greater than the revenues to be received during the same period.
(a) Surplus Budget (b) Deficit Budget (c) Favourable Budget (d) Non-favourable Budget
42. The establishment of budgets relating the responsibilities of executives to the requirements of a policy
and the continuous comparison of actual with budgeted results, either to secure by individual action the
objective of that policy or to provide basis for its revision is called as ______________.
(a) Budget (b) Budgeting (c) Budgetary Control (d) None of the above
43. A ______________ is a powerful tool available to the management for the purpose of maximizing
profits.
(a) Budget (b) Decrease in selling price (c) Standard Norm (d) Increase in selling price
(a) Static Budget (b) Standard Budget (c) Master Budget (d) Flexible Budget
(a) No Profit No Loss (b) Less Profit (c) Expected Profit (d) None of the above
(a) Cost Budget (b) Labour Budget (c) Employee Budget (d) None of the above
(a) Cash (b) Credit (c) all financial (d) None of the above
(a) Fixed (b) One Month (c) One Year (d) None of the above
(a) Production Budget (b) Material Budget (c) Cost Budget (d) None of the above
A) Period cost
B) Prime cost
C) Overhead cost
D) Variable cost
2. Of the following____: provides strategic, decision based financial and operative information to the
board of directors.
A) Management Accountant
B) Cost Accountant
C) Financial Accountant
D) Accounts Clerk
3. The difference between fixed and Variable cost has a special significance in the preparation of____?
A) Flexible Budget
B) Master Budget
C) Cash Budget
D) Sales Budget
4. If fixed costs decrease while the variable cost per unit remains constant, the new contribution margin in
relation to the old contribution margin will be____?
A) Lower
B) Unchanged
C) Higher
D) Indeterminate
A) A technique of costing
B) Method of costing
C) A system of costing
D) Predict profits
7. A Budget which is designed to remain unchanged in respect of the level of activity actually attained is
called_____?
A) Flexible Budget
B) Cash Budget
C) Fixed Budget
D) Master Budget
8. Management Accounting communicates relevant information to the management to perform their
function of___?
A) Decision Making
B) Planning
C) Controlling
A) Budgeted Ratio
B) Capacity Ratio
C) Activity Ratio
D) Efficiency Ratio
A) Reduces contribution
A) Nothing
B) Quantitative information
C) Qualitative information
D) both quantitative and qualitative information
A) Control
B) Generate losses
C) Increase losses
D) Dissolve
A) Soundness of business
B) Over production
C) Under production
D) Over capitalization
14. Amount of sales Rs. 50000 Variable cost are Rs. 30000 find P/V ratio ?
A) 40 percentage
B) 30 percentage
C) 50 percentage
D) 60 percentage
15. An estimate made about future production, sales and financial requirements in the specific period is
called as___?
A) Forecasting
B) Planning
C) Budgeting
D) Decision making
16. Accounting designed to serve management in decision making process is called as___?
A) Cost accounting
B) Financial accounting
C) Management accounting
D) Trusteeship accounting
B) Fixed assets
C) Creditors
D) Expenses
A) Management accounting
B) Cost accounting
C) Financial accounting
D) Responsibility accounting
D) Interpretation of date
A) Insufficient advertising
C) Government Policy
A) Variable costing
B) Fixed costing
C) Standard costing
C) Safety operation
D) Marginal costs
23. The basic function of accounting is to_____?
A) Estimate
B) Future plan
D) Budget
25. The factors whose influence should be measured before preparing Budget is called as___?
A) Important factor
B) Influential factor
C) Key factor
D) Economic factor
A) Cashier
B) Sales manager
C) Production manager
D) Chief Accountant
D) None of these
A) Distribution
B) Functional
C) Production
D) Selling
A) Sales
B) Variable costs
C) Fixed cost
D) Profit
35. Under marginal costing method, cost per unit ascertained only on the basis of____?
A) Fixed cost
B) Variable cost
D) None of these
ANSWER: B
A. overproduction.
B. overcapitalization.
D. undercapitalization.
ANSWER: C
103. Angle of incidence is ____.
A. the angle between the sales line and the total cost line.
ANSWER: A
ANSWER: B
105. The capital of the company is divided into two categories ——— and fluctuating capital.
A. fixed
B. equity
C. preference
D. variable
ANSWER: A
106. 1f` fixed costs decrease while variable cost per unit remains constant, the new B.E.P in relation to
the old B.E.P will be ___.
A. lower.
B. higher.
C. unchanged.
D. indeterminate.
ANSWER: B
107. If fixed costs decrease while the variable cost per unit remains constant, the new contribution margin
in relation to the old contribution margin will be __.
A. lower.
B. unchanged.
C. higher.
D. indeterminate.
ANSWER: B
108. Selling price per unit Rs. 10; Variable cost Rs. 8 per unit; Fixed cost Rs. 20,000; Break-even
production
in units ___.
A. 10,000.
B. 16,300.
C. 2,000.
D. 2,500.
ANSWER: A
109. Sales Rs. 25,000; Variable cost Rs. 8,000; Fixed cost Rs. 5,000; Break-even sales in value ____.
A. Rs. 7,936.
B. Rs. 7,353.
C. Rs. 8,333.
D. Rs. 9,090.
ANSWER: B
110. Fixed cost Rs. 80,000; Variable cost Rs. 2 per unit; Selling price_Rs. 10 per unit; Turnover required
for a
A. Rs. 1,75,000.
B. Rs. 1,17,400.
C. Rs. .57,000.
D. Rs. 1,86,667.
ANSWER: A
111. Sales Rs. 25,000; Variable cost Rs. 15,000; Fixed cost Rs .4,000; P/V Ratio is __.
A. 40 percent
B. 80 percent
C. 15 percent
D. 30 percent
ANSWER: A
112. Sales Rs. 50,000; Variable cost Rs. 30,000; Net profit Rs. 6,000; fixed cost is____.
A. Rs. I0,000.
B. Rs.l4,000.
C. Rs. 12,000.
D. Rs. 8,000.
ANSWER: B
113. Actual sales Rs .4,00,000; Break-even sales Rs. 2,50,000; Margin of Safety in percentage is___.
A. 33.3 percent
B. 66.67 percent
C. 37.5 percent
D. 76.33 percent
ANSWER: C
114. P/V Ratio 50%; Variable cost of the produce Rs. 25; Selling price is ____.
A. Rs. 50.
B. Rs. 40.
C. Rs. 30.
D. Rs. 55.
ANSWER: A
115. Fixed cost Rs. 2,00,000; Sales Rs. 8,00,000; P/V Ratio 30%; the amount of’ profit is____.
A. Rs. 50,000.
B. Rs. 40,000.
C. Rs. 35,000.
D. Rs. 45,000.
ANSWER: B
116. P/V Ratio is 25% and Margin of Safety is Rs; 3,00,000, the amount of profit is___.
A. Rs. 1,00,000.
B. Rs. 80,000.
C. Rs. 75,000.
D. Rs. 60,000.
ANSWER: C
117. Total sales Rs. 20,00,000; Fixed expenses Rs. 4,00,000; P/V Ratio 40 percent Break-even capacity in
percentage is___.
A. 40
B. 60
C. 50
D. 45
ANSWER: C
118. Break-even point occurs at 40 percent of total capacity, margin of safety will be ___ percent.
A. 40
B. 60
C. 80
D. 85
ANSWER: B
119. If the P/V Ratio of a product is 30 percent and selling price is Rs. 25 per unit, the marginal cost of
the product would be _____.
A. Rs.18.75.
B. Rs.16.
C. Rs. 15.
D. Rs.20.
ANSWER: A
A. historical costing.
B. real costing.
C. marginal costing.
D. real costing.
ANSWER: A
A. cost less
B. cost more.
C. variable cost.
D. market price.
ANSWER: C
A. production.
B. sales.
C. marketing.
D. advertising.
ANSWER: A
A. production.
B. sales.
C. marketing.
D. advertising.
ANSWER: B
A. fixed cost.
B. semi-variable cost.
C. contribution.
D. break-even point.
ANSWER: C
A. fixed cost.
B. semi-variable cost.
C. contribution.
D. break-even point.
ANSWER: C
A. BEP
B. semi-variable cost.
C. margin of safety.
D. contribution.
ANSWER: D
A. high profitability.
B. low profitability.
C. high loss.
D. break even.
ANSWER: A
B. Margin of safety.
C. Break-even point.
D. Variable cost.
ANSWER: C
A. Break-even point.
B. Margin of safety.
C. Contribution.
D. Variable cost.
ANSWER: B
A. cost reduction.
B. cost control.
C. budgeting.
D. standard costing.
ANSWER: B
A. post-mortem analysis.
B. substitute of management.
C. an aid to management.
D. calculation.
ANSWER: C
A. budget.
B. direct cost.
C. unit cost.
D. cost sheet.
ANSWER: A
A. functional budget.
B. expenditure budget.
C. master budget.
D. flexible budget.
ANSWER: A
134. The budget which usually takes the form of budgeted profit and loss account and balance sheet is
known as ___.
A. flexible budget.
B. master budget.
C. cash budget.
D. purchase budget.
ANSWER: B
A. Fixed budget.
B. Cash budget.
C. Sales budget.
ANSWER: D
136. The fixed and variable cost classification has a special significance in the preparation of __.
A. capital budget.
B. cash budget.
C. master budget.
D. flexible budget.
ANSWER: D
A. master budget.
B. cash budget.
D. none of these.
ANSWER: C
138. Preparing budget figures for different levels of activity within a range under flexible budgeting
is_____.
A. formula method.
B. multi-activity method.
D. none of these.
ANSWER: B
139. What type of budget is designed to take into account forecast change in costs, prices, etc?
A. master budget.
B. rolling budget.
C. flexible budget.
D. functional budget.
ANSWER: B
ANSWER: D
B. organizing.
C. budgeting.
D. controlling.
ANSWER: C
A. planning.
B. organizing.
C. budgeting.
D. controlling.
ANSWER: C
A. planning.
B. organizing.
C. budgeting.
D. control.
ANSWER: D
144. Budget designed to remain constant irrespective of the level of activity attained is called ____.
A. fixed budget.
B. flexible budget
C. sales budget.
D. production budget.
ANSWER: A
A. 1 year.
B. 1-3 years
C. 1-5 years.
D. 5-10 years.
ANSWER: D
146. The budget prepared for various levels of activity by classification of expenditure under fixed,
variable and semi-fixed categories is ____.
A. fixed budget.
B. flexible budget.
C. sales budget.
D. production budget.
ANSWER: B
147. Budget which shows the quantity of finished products to be sold and the price at which they are to be
sold is______.
A. fixed budget.
B. flexible budget.
C. sales budget.
D. production budget.
ANSWER: C
148. The budget which shows the budgeted quantity of output to be produced during a specific period
is_____.
A. fixed budget
B. flexible budget.
C. sales budget.
D. production budget.
ANSWER: D
A. sales budget.
B. production budget.
C. fixed budget.
D. flexible budget.
ANSWER: B
150. Budget of indirect costs in the form of indirect wages, indirect material and indirect expenses in the
factory is __.
D. master budget.
ANSWER: A
MCQs
a. Shareholders
b. Creditors
c. Managers
d. Regulatory agencies
a. Creditor
b Department manager
c. Controller
d. Treasurer
a. Service entities
b. Manufacturing entities
d. All of
accounting convention.
a. Convention of conservatism
c. Convention of materiality
d. Convention of consistency
5. The work of factory employees that can be physically associated with converting raw
b. Indirect materials
c. Indirect labour
d. Direct labour
a. Cost
b. Financial
c. Management
d. All
d. None of these
8. Which type of asset class includes those assets which have only definite use and
a. Fixed asset
b. Current asset
c. Fictitious asset
d. Wasting asset
9. An accounting that deals with the accounting and reporting of information to management
a. Financial accounting
b. Management accounting
c. Cost accounting
d. Real Accounting
d. None of these
a. Debtors account
c. Sales account
d. Creditors account
13. Cost of goods sold= opening stock+ net purchases+ expenses on Purchases – sales
a. opening stock
b. net purchases
c. expenses on Purchases
d. sales
a. Customers account
b. Sales return account
c. Goods account
d. Purchase account
a. Cash account
b. Mahesh Account
c. Sales account
d. Purchase account
a. Landlords account
b. Rent account
c. Cash account
d. Expense account
a. Discount account
b. Customer’s account
c. Sales account
d. Cash account
Stock = …………………
a. Sales, Purchases
a. Historical
b. Forward looking
c. Analytical
d. Social
a. Statutory requirements
c. Labour unrest
a. Only to workers
b. Only to government
c. Only to consumers
a. Fixed cost
b. Variable cost
a. Cost unit
b. Cost centre
c. Cost object
d. Cost estimation
a. Prime cost
b. Factory overhead
c. Selling overhead
d. Office overhead
28. ………………cost refers to those cost which have already been incurred and cannot be
a. Opportunity cost
b. Sunk Cost
c. Incremental cost
d. Decremental cost
29. Amortization of intangible Asset Such as Goodwill which has indefinite life is an example
of accounting concept
a. Conservatism Concept
b. Continuity Concept
c. Realisation Concept
d. Measurement Concept
a. Loan
b. Unsecured Loan
c. Secured Loan
d. Advance by Manager & director
31. ………………cost will still be incurred although a plant is shut down temporarily.
b. Advertising
c. Depreciation
d. Carriage
a. Practicability
b. Subjectivity
c. Convenience in recording
34. The practice of appending notes regarding contingent liabilities in accounting statements
is in pursuance to:
a. Convention of consistency
c. Convention of conservatism
d. Convention of disclosure
a. Advertisement account
b. Sales account
c. Purchase account
39. Income tax paid by a sole proprietor on his business income should be:
40. All direct & indirect expenses related to business are charged:
b. Trading account
41. According to schedule VI Companies Act which item is not shown on Asset side of
Balance sheet
a. Investment
c. Provision
d. Lease Holds
42. Trade Payables are recorded in…………….
c. P & L a/c
43. Investment of X company profit in shares of other company PQR Pvt. ltd are recorded
in……………….
a. Remains fixed
c. Journal
d. Both a and b
e. All of a, b, c above
a. Increases assets
c. Decreases assets
d. Increases liability
a. Machinery
b. Building
c. Cash
d. Creditor
53. Cost of asset should always be equal to the cost of the liabilities. This concept is
a. Double Entry Bookkeeping
b. Matching Concept
c. Consistency
a. Building
b. Bank Balance
c. Plant Patents
d. Goodwill
a. Realization Concept
b. Matching Concept
c. Cost Concept
a. Consistency concept
b. Conservatism concept
d. Cost Concept
a. Current assets
b. Current liabilities
c. Fixed asset
d. Fixed liability
b. A liability
59. Reserve for doubtful debts appearing in the trial balance should be:
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
a. Dual concept
b. Divider concept
c. Entity concept
d. Landlord concept
61. According to which concept business is treated as a unit apart from owner
b. Organisational culture
c. Failure of management
a. Nominal Capital
c. Issues capital
d. None of these
63. True & fair profit and loss a/c of a company know by
65. Under which concept it is assumed that the enterprises has neither the intention nor the
d. None of these
66. Making the provision for doubtful debts and discount on debtors in anticipation of actual
a. Conservatism concept
b. Continuity concept
c. Realization concept
d. All of these
a. Projected data
c. Historic data
b. Art
c. Science
d. Art or Science
a. Original
b. Duplicate
c. Personal
d. Nominal
a. Rules of Personal
b. Rules of Real
c. Rules of Nominal
d. All of these
72. Which of the following account balance will be shown on debit side of Trial Balance?
a. Outstanding expenses
b. Cash a/c
d. creditors
73. The reduction in the value of the fixed assets which can arise due to time factor is
a. Discount
b. Depreciation
c. Reduction
d. None of these
c. Owner’s fund
d. All of these
a. Current asset
b. Current liability
d. None of these
a. Cost
b. Net profit
c. Gross profit
d. Selling price
a. Management only
b. Government only
c. Investor only
d. All of these
a. Provision
c. Current Liabilities
d. Other Liabilities
81. Proposed dividends" is shown in the Balance Sheet of a company under the head:
a. Provision
b. Reserves and Surplus
c. Current Liabilities
d. Other Liabilities
82. Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of:
a. Separate entity
b. Going concern
c. Consistency
d. Time period
a. Periodicity concept
b. Materiality Principle
c. Entity Concept
d. Consistency concept
84. Which financial statement represents the accounting equation ASSETS = LIABILITIES +
OWNER'S EQUITY
a. Income Statement
c. Balance Sheet
b. loan to Mr.y
d. None of these
86. Which of the following are correct? Account to be debited Account to be credited
Bought office wooden table for cash office wooden table cash
b. (iii)(iv)(ii)
c. (i)(iii)(iv) Wide
d. (i)(iv)
a. Accrual concept
b. Cost concept
c. Continuity concept
88. Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of:
a. Separate entity
b. Going concern
c. Consistency
d. Time period
b. It is a special account
a. Trading a/c
b. Balance sheet
d. Trial balance.
92. The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following types of businesses?
a. Sole proprietorship
b. Corporation
c. Partnership
d. All of them
93. Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a business is divided for
a. Fiscal year
b. Calendar year
c. Accounting period
d. Accrual period
a. Personal a/c
b. Impersonal a/c
c. Real a/c
d. Nominal a/c
a. Disclosure of loss
b. Disclosure of profit
97. Which of the following is not regarded as the fundamental accounting concept?
d. Correction concept
98. Using "lower of cost and net realisable value(Market Value)" for the purpose of inventory
d. Matching concept
99. The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following types of businesses?
a. Sole proprietorship
b. Corporation
c. Partnership
d. All of them
100.The revenue recognition principal dictates that all types of incomes should be recorded or
recognized when
a. Cash is received
101. The allocation of owner's private expenses to his/her business violates which of the
following?
a. Accurual concept
b. Matching concept
d. Consistency concept
103. Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a business is divided for
a. Fiscal year
b. Calendar year
c. Accounting period
d. Accrual period
104. Showing purchased office equipment’s in financial statements is the application of which
accounting concept?
b. Materiality
c. Prudence
d. Matching concept
105. Information about an item is ________ if its omission or misstatement might influence the
a. Concrete
b. Complete
c. Immaterial
d. Material
106. "Financial information should be neutral and bias free" is the dictation of which one of the
following?
a. Completeness concept
c. Objectivity Concept
d. Duality Concept
107. Accounting principles are divided into two types. These are ---
a. Accounting Concepts
b. Accounting Conventions
c. Accounting Standards
d. Accounting Concepts &Accounting Conventions
108. Which of the following is not related with Money Measurement Concept?
b. The transactions which cannot be expressed in money, will not be recorded in accounting books
d. None of These
109. Which of the following equation is related with Dual Aspect Concept?
110. If the total assets of the company amount to Rs 1,50,000 and owner’s equity is Rs.
a. Rs 70,000
b. Rs 80,000
c. Rs 90,000
d. Rs 1,00,000
a. Revenue Profit
b. Capital Profit 18
c. Loss
d. None of these
a. Profit
b. Assets
c. Company
d. Books of A/c
a. Depreciation
b. Wages
c. Salary
d. Stationary
a. Assets
b. Liabilities
c. Capital
d. All of these
a. Patents
b. Trade Marks
c. Copyright
d. Land
c. Controlling function
d. None of these
a. Practicability
b. Subjectivity
c. Convenience in recording
d. None of these
122. The system of recording transaction based on dual aspect concept is called
d. None of these
123. The practice of appending notes regarding contingent liabilities in accounting statement is
pursuant of
a. Convention of consistency
c. Convention of conservatism
d. Convention of disclosure
124. According to the money measurement concept the following will be recorded in the books
c. Overstatement of capital
d. None of these
c. Providing depreciation
d. None of these
127. The amount brought in by the proprietor in the business should be credited to
a. Cash a/c
b. Capital a/c
c. Drawing a/c
d. Bank a/c
b. Salaries a/c
c. Cash a/c
d. Bank a/c
a. Customer a/c
c. Goods a/c
a. Cash a/c
b. Mahesh a/c
c. Sales a/c
d. Sales return a/c
b. Rent a/c
c. Cash a/c
d. Tenant a/c
a. Discount a/c
b. Customer a/c
c. Sales a/c
d. None of these
a. Debtors Accounts
c. Sales a/c
d. None of these
accounting concept
a. Convention of conservatism
c. Convention of consistency
d. None of these
136. Accountant should follow the same principles of accounting continuously is as per which
accounting convention
a. Convention of conservatism
b. Convention of full disclosure
c. Convention of consistency
d. None of these
137. Accounting principles are …………………………. which are adopted by the accountant
d. None of these
138. The convention of disclosure implies that all material information should be
c. Not disclosed
d. None of these
a. Single aspect
b. Dual aspect
c. Triple aspect
d. None of these
140. Custom and traditions which guide the accountant while preparing the accounting
Statements
a. Accounting convention
b. Accounting concepts
c. Accounting principles
d. None of these
141. Rules of action or conduct adopted by the accountants universally while recording
accounting transaction
a. Accounting convention
b. Accounting concepts
c. Accounting principles
d. None of these
142. Basic assumptions or conditions upon which the science of accounting is based.
a. Accounting convention
b. Accounting concepts
c. Accounting principles
d. None of these.
143. A system in which accounting entries are made on the basis of amounts having become
a. Cash concept
b. Accrual concept
c. Matching concept
d. On-going concept
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
145. Debit what come in Credit what goes out rule for
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
146. Debit all expenses and losses Credit all gains and income.
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
147. A book containing a chronological record of business transaction & original record
a. Journal
b. Ledger
c. Trial balance
d. None of these
148. Transferring the debit and credit item from the journal to the respective accounts is called
a. Compound Journal
b. Ledger
c. Trial balance
d. None of these
a. Compound Journal
b. Ledger
c. Trial balance
d. None of these
150. The transferring of debit and credit items from journal to the respective accounts in the
ledger is called as
a. Ledger
b. Posting
c. Forward journal
d. None of these
151. Which of the following items would not fall under the definition of an asset?
a. Land
b. Machine
c. Cash
d. Owner Equity
152. Which one of the following items would fall under the definition of a liability
a. Cash
b. Debtor
c. Owner’s equity
d. None of these
c. The accounting equation shows how much of your assets belong to the owner, and how
154. business has the following items in it: Land Rs.1,000,000 Machinery Rs.20,000 Cash
Rs.10,000 Debt Rs.0 Owner’s equity ? What is the valve of owner’s equity?
a. Rs.1020000
b. Rs.1010000
c. Rs.1030000
155. A business has the following items in it: Owners’ equity Rs.6,00,000 Liabilities
a. 600,000
b. 1,400,000
c. 2,000,000
d. None of these
156. A business has the following items in it: Land Rs.1, 500,000 Machinery Rs.80, 000
Cash Rs.20, 000 Owners equity Rs.900, 000 Loan Rs.500, 000 Creditors?
a. Rs.200, 000
b. Rs.700, 000
c. Rs.800, 000
d. Rs1, 100,000
157. A business has following items in itLand ? Vehicles Rs.600,000 Debtors Rs. 1,20,000
a. 000,000
b. 1,550,000
c. 800,000
d. None of these
158. Which of the following equations properly represents a derivation of the fundamental
accounting equation? a) Assets + liabilities = Owner Equity b) Asset = Owner Equity c) Cash =
a. Only (a)
c. All (a)(b)(c)(d)
d. None of these
159. Retained earnings will change over time because of several factors. Which of the
a. Net Loss
b. Net income
c. Dividend
a. Accounts payable
b. Accounts receivable
c. Sales
d. Cash
162. XYZltd.has provided the following information about its balance sheet: Cash Rs.100
Accounts Receivable Rs.500 Stock holder equity Rs.700 Accounts Payable Rs.200
Bank Loan Rs.1,000. Based on the information provided, how much are XYZ ltd.Total
liabilities?
a. Rs.200
b. Rs.1900
c. Rs.1200
d. Rs.1700
163. The full disclosure principle, as adopted by the accounting profession, is best described by
informed reader
a. Goodwill
b. Sales
c. Accounts Receivable
d. None of theses
166. The Cash account on the balance sheet should not include which of the following items?
b. Currency
c. Money orders
d. Deposits in transit
168. The following comments all relate to the recording process. Which of these statements is
correct?
b. The general ledger is posted from transactions recorded in the general journal.
c. The trial balance provides the primary source document for recording transactions into
d. Transposition is the transfer of information from the general journal to the general
ledger.
169. The following comments each relate to the recording of journal entries. Which statement
is true?
c. The chart of accounts reveals the amount to debit and credit to the affected accounts.
debit/credit format.
171. Which of the following errors will be disclosed in the preparation of a trial balance?
d. Recording the wrong amount for a transaction to both the account debited and the
account credited.
172. The basic sequence in the accounting process can best be described as:
a. Current assets
b. Investments
d. Intangible assets
d. None of these
a. Planning
b. Decision making
c. Control
d. All of these
177. Which of the following statements about differences between financial and managerial
accounting is incorrect?
departments.
c. Managerial accounting pertains to both past and future items; financial accounting
d. All of these
179. Manufacturing costs are also known as product costs. Which of the following best
180. A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, plus long
a. Variable cost
c. Direct cost
d. Thoughts of accountant
a. Certain assumptions
d. Practice experience
c. Owners
a. Market values
d. Asset = liability
a. Asset
b. Liability
c. Accounts
a. Estimates of facets
b. Anticipated facts
c. recorded facts
a. Appropriation of profits
b. Estimates of profits
c. Estimates of costs
a. Management
b. Creditors
c. Bankers
a. Sundry creditors
b. Acceptances
c. Unclaimed dividend
a. Determination of cost
b. Determination of profit
c. Determination of price
a. Actual figures
b. Budgeted figures
c. Standard figures
d. Management Figure
a. 1910
b. 1939
c. 1950
d. 1960
a. Compulsory
b. Optional
c. Obligation
d. Statutory requirement
a. Trading account
c. Balance sheet
a. Fixed asset
b. Investment
c. Current asset
d. Owners equity.
a. Financial
b. Economic
c. Non financial
d. None of these.
199. Which items does not come under the balance sheet
a. sales
b. Share capital
c. Reserves and surplus
d. Unsecured loan
d. Cannot be classified
a. Balance Sheet
b. Director’s Report
d. Chairman’s report
a. M. S. Gosav
b. Wheldon
c. LucoPacioli
d. R. N. Carter
a. Analytical
b. Clerical
c. Executive
d. Non- executive
205. _____________ system records only actual cash receipts and payments
a. Cash basis
b. Accrual basis
c. Mercantile basis
206. Which of the following is true for: -“In accounts recording is done of_ _ _ _ _”
c. Both
a. Capital
b. Revenue
c. Direct
d. Non- cash
a) Nominal account
b) Real Account
a) Balance sheet
b) Trial Balance
c) Ledger
d) Journal
a. cash account
b. capital account
c. drawings account
d. creditors account
b. Salaries account
c. Cash account
d. Outstanding expenses
212. All costs other than direct materials cost, direct labour cost and direct expenses are known
as:
b. Overhead
d. Indirect expenses
213. A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, plus long distance
a. Variable cost
c. Direct cost
d. All of these
215. The work of factory employees that can be physically associated with converting raw
a. Manufacturing overhead
b. Indirect materials
c. Indirect labour
d. Direct labour
216. Which one of the following would not be classified as manufacturing overhead?
a. Indirect labour
b. Direct materials
d. Indirect materials
218. A manufacturing process requires small amounts of glue. The glue used in the process is
classified as
a. A prime cost
b. An indirect material
c. A direct material
d. Miscellaneous expense
a. Miscellaneous expense
b. Direct materials
c. Indirect materials
d. Immaterial items
a. Direct labour
b. Direct materials
c. Manufacturing overhead
d. Advertising
b. Direct Wages
c. Direct Expenses
d. Prime Cost
222. Aggregate of prime cost and Factory overhead is known as:
a. Work on cost
b. Work Cost
c. Cost of Production
d. Direct Cost
a. Prime Cost
b. Factory Overhead
c. Selling overhead
d. Office overhead
224. Aggregate of cost of goods sold and selling and distribution overheads is known as:
a. Total Cost
b. Office Cost
c. Cost of sales
d. Selling overhead
d. future costs
227. Calculate the prime cost from the following information: Direct material purchased: Rs.
1,00,000 Direct material consumed: Rs. 90,000 Direct labour: Rs. 60,000 Direct expenses: Rs.
a. Rs. 1,80,000
b. Rs. 2,00,000
c. Rs. 1,70,000
d. Rs. 2,10,000
Answers
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32, (c) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (e) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (d)
51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (e) 59. (e) 60. (a)
61. (c) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (b) 66. (c) 67. (a) 68. (c) 69. (c) 70. (b)
71. (b) 72. (b) 73. (e) 74. (d) 75. (d) 76. (e) 77. (a) 78. (a) 79. (d) 80. (d)
81. (a) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (c) 85. (a) 86. (d) 87. (d) 88. (b) 89. (d) 90. (a)
91. (c) 92. (d) 93. (c) 94. (d) 95. (b) 96. (c) 97. (d) 98. (c) 99. (d) 100. (c)
101.(c) 102.(a) 103.(c) 104.(d) 105.(b) 106.(c) 107.(d) 108.(b) 109.(d) 110.(b)
111.(b) 112.(a) 113.(a) 114.(d) 115.(b) 116.(d) 117.(c) 118.(b) 119.(a) 120.(a)
121.(a) 122.(b) 123.(c) 124.(c) 125.(a) 126.(b) 127.(b) 128.(b) 129.(b) 130.(a)
131.(c) 132.(c) 133.(a) 134.(a) 135.(a) 136.(c) 137.(a) 138.(a) 139.(b) 140.(c)
141.(c) 142.(b) 143.(b) 144.(b) 145.(a) 146.(c) 147.(a) 148.(b) 149.(c) 150.(b)
151.(d) 152.(c) 153.(d) 154.(c) 155.(c) 156.(a) 157.(c) 158.(d) 159.(b) 160.(d)
161.(c) 162.(b) 163.(d) 164.(d) 165.(b) 166.(a) 167.(c) 168.(b) 169.(d) 170.(d)
171.(c) 172.(d) 173.(a) 174.() 175.(b) 176.(c) 177.(d) 178.(a) 179.(d) 180.(c)
181.(d) 182.(b) 183.(b) 184.(a) 185.(b) 186.(c) 187.(c) 188.(a) 189.(d) 190.(d)
191.(b) 192.(a) 193.(c) 194.(c) 195.(b) 196.(d) 197.(d) 198.(a) 199.(a) 200.(c)
201.(a) 202.(c) 203.(b) 204.(b) 205.(a) 206.(a) 207.(b) 208.(d) 209.(c) 210.(b)
211.(b) 212.(b) 213.(d) 214.(d) 215.(d) 216.(b) 217.(d) 218.(b) 219.(c) 220.(a)
1 The cost that tends to remain constant irrespective of the level of activity is called
_______.
(a) Variable cost
(b) Fixed cost
(c) Total cost
(d) All of the above
2 Cost Accounting restrict itself with _______ transactions.
(a) Financial
(b) Spot
(c) Historical
(d) Administrative
3 Following is (are) the method(s) of measuring labour turnover.
(a) Replacement Method
(b) Separation Method
(c) Flux Method
(d) All of the above
4 Following is (are) the example(s) of semi-variable overheads.
(a) Maintenance cost
(b) Electricity
(c) Health and Accident Insurance
(d) All of the above
5 _________ indicates the financial status of the business at given period.
(a) Balance sheet
(b) Accounting ledger
(c) General ledger
(d) All of the above
6 In Cash budget, Non operating cash inflow include(s)
(a) Receipt of loan/borrowings
(b) Issue of shares
(c) Sale of fixed assets
(d) All of the above
7 Sales Budget is a forecast expressed in -
(a) Quantity
(b) Money
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
8 Following is used as tool for Cost Control
(a) Marginal cost
(b) Historical cost
(c) Standard cost
(d) All of the above
9 Management accounting assists the management
(a) Only in control
(b) Only in direction
(c) Only in planning
(d) In planning, direction and control
10 Management accounting is deals with -
(a) Quantitative Information
(b) Qualitative Information
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
11 Which of the following is an advantage of standard costing?
(a) Measuring efficiency
(b) Facilitates cost control
(c) Determination of variance
(d) All of the above
12 Which of the following is not a functional budget?
(a) Labour budget
(b) Cash budget
(c) Materials budget
(d) Expenses budget
13 Which is the mostly likely purpose of budgeting?
(a) Planning and control of an organization's income and expenditure
(b) Preparation of a five-year business plan
(c) Company valuation
(d) Assess the non-financial performance of an organization
14 __________ Accounting becomes a source of information for Management Accounting.
(a) Financial
(b) Cost
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
15 Calculate the production budget from the following data: sales 89,350 units; opening
inventory 23,864 units; closing inventory 33,156 units.
(a) 80,058 units
(b) 1,46,370 units
(c) 32,320 units
(d) 98,642 units
16 Fixed budget is useless for comparison when the level of activity -
(a) Increases
(b) Fluctuates both ways
(c) Decreases
(d) Constant
17 The budget committee consists of -
(a) Managers
(b) Budget officers
(c) Creditors
(d) None of the above
18 A budget centre is -
(a) Department or part of the department
(b) Meeting place for budget committee
(c) Office of the budget officer
(d) None of the above
19 The main objective of budgetary control is -
(a) To define the goal of the firm
(b) To coordinate different departments
(c) To plan to achieve its goals
(d) All of the above
20 Production budget is -
(a) Dependent on purchase budget
(b) Dependent on sales budget
(c) Dependent on cash budget
(d) None of the above
21 Sales budget shows the sales details as -
(a) Month wise
(b) Product wise
(c) Area wise
(d) All of the above
22 An example of long period budget is -
(a) R & D budget
(b) Master budget
(c) Sales budget
(d) Personnel budget
23 The budgets are classified on the basis of -
(a) Time
(b) Function
(c) Flexibility
(d) All of the above
24 Budget relating to the key factor is prepared -
(a) After other budgets
(b) With other budgets
(c) Before other budgets
(d) None of the above
25 Key factor is also known as -
(a) Limiting factor
(b) Governing factor
(c) Principal factor
(d) All of the above
26 In responsibility accounting system -
(a) Budgets are prepared
(b) Actual performance is recorded
(c) The performance is reported
(d) All of the above
27 The responsibility accounting emphasizes the performance of -
(a) System
(b) Men
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
28 The responsibility accounting is also called -
(a) Profitability accounting
(b) Activity accounting
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
29 The responsibility accounting is the part of -
(a) Financial accounting
(b) Management accounting
(c) Mechanized accounting
(d) None of these
30 The responsibility accounting is a controlling tool for -
(a) Top‐level management
(b) Lower level management
(c) Middle level management
(d) None of these
31 Which of the following system emphasizes on cost control ?
(a) Cost accounting
(b) Responsibility accounting
(c) Financial accounting
(d) None of these
32 The responsibility centres come under the responsibility of -
(a) Cost accountants
(b) Management accountant
(c) Responsibility managers
(d) Auditor
33 The subdivision of responsibility centre is -
(a) Expense centre
(b) Profit centre
(c) Investment centre
(d) All of the above
34 The accounting department in an organization is -
(a) Investment centre
(b) Expense centre
(c) Profit centre
(d) All of the above
35 What is the main advantage of responsibility accounting ?
(a) Improves performance
(b) It fixes responsibility
(c) Helpful in decision making
(d) All of the above
36 The responsibility accounting is a system by which the responsibility is assigned to the
concerned persons -
(a) To increase sales
(b) To control cash
(c) To increase production
(d) All of the above
37 The contribution of accounting department in an organization -
(a) Cannot be measured in monetary terms
(b) Can be measured in monetary terms
(c) May or may not be measured in monetary terms
(d) None of the above
38 According to responsibility accounting, the entire organization is divided into various -
(a) Business centre
(b) Profit centre
(c) Responsibility centre
(d) None of the above
39 It may not be ______ to measure exactly the output of service departments in an
organization.
(a) Feasible
(b) Necessary
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) None of these
40 Internal transfer of process at profit _________ of the company.
(a) Will not increase the asset
(b) Will increase the asset
(c) Can’t say
(d) Inadequate information
41 Budgetary control __________ replace management in decision‐making.
(a) Can
(b) Cannot
(c) Sometimes
(d) Inadequate data
42 The success of budgetary control system depends upon the willing cooperation of ….…
(a) Shareholders
(b) Management
(c) Creditors
(d) All the functional areas of management
43 A key factor is one which restricts ……
(a) The volume of production
(b) The volume of sales
(c) The volume of purchase
(d) All of the above
44 The classification of fixed and variable cost is useful for the preparation of ……
(a) Master budget
(b) Flexible budget
(c) Cash budget
(d) Capital budget
45 The primary objective of management accounting is –
(a) To provide shareholders and potential investors with useful information for decision
making
(b) To provide banks and other creditors with information useful in making credit
decisions
(c) To provide management with information useful for planning and control of
operations
(d) To provide the relevant taxation authorities with information about taxable income
46 In ‘make or buy’ decision, it is profitable to buy from outside only when the supplier’s
price is below the firm’s own ___________.
(a) Fixed Cost
(b) Variable Cost
(c) Total Cost
(d) Prime Cost
47 __________ is a detailed budget of cash receipts and cash expenditure incorporating
both revenue and capital items.
(a) Cash Budget
(b) Capital Expenditure Budget
(c) Sales Budget
(d) Overhead Budget
48 Sunk costs are __________.
(a) Relevant for decision making
(b) Not relevant for decision making
(c) Cost to be incurred in future
(d) Future costs
49 Abnormal cost is the cost ___________.
(a) Cost normally incurred at a given level of output
(b) Cost not normally incurred at a given level of output
(c) Cost which is charged to customer
(d) Cost which is included in the cost of the product
50 Responsibility Centre can be categorised into ___________.
(a) Cost Centres only
(b) Profit Centres only
(c) Investment Centres only
(d) All of the above
51 A profit centre is a centre ___________.
(a) Where the manager has the responsibility of generating and maximising profits
(b) Which is concerned with earning an adequate Return on Investment
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Which manages cost
52 Management Accounting is and financial accounting differ in that management
accounting information is prepared –
(a) Following prescribed rules
(b) Using whatever methods the company finds beneficial
(c) For shareholders
(d) To summarize the whole company with little detail
53 Purpose of Management Accounting is to –
(a) Past orientation
(b) Help banks make decisions
(c) Help managers make decisions
(d) Help investors make decisions
54 Management Accounting is the branch of accounting concerned with reporting to –
(a) Internal Managers
(b) Shareholders
(c) The Government
(d) Bankers
55 Which of the following does NOT describe management accounting?
(a) Evaluation of segments or products within the firm
(b) Emphasis on the future
(c) Externally focused
(d) Detailed information
56 Management accounting reports are prepared
(a) To meet the needs of decision makers within the firm
(b) Whenever shareholders request them
(c) According to guidelines prepared by the shares and Financial Services Authority
(d) According to financial accounting standards
57 Management accounting is primarily concerned with -
(a) Providing investors with useful information for valuing securities.
(b) Providing creditors information on the status of their loans.
(c) Providing managers with relevant information to help achieve organizational goals.
(d) Providing the relevant taxation authorities with information to determine the amount
of taxes owed.
58 Which matters are taken into consideration while preparing production budget ?
(a) The estimate of the number of units to be produced during the budget period.
(b) Estimate of number of units to be sold.
(c) Policy regarding the wage fixation for labourers.
(d) Policy regarding the selection of suppliers from whom materials would be purchased.
59 Which of the following matter is to be taken into account which preparing Material
Purchase Budget ?
(a) The supplier from whom materials are to be purchased.
(b) The procedure of storing and preserving materials after they are received.
(c) The prices at which receipts and issues of materials are to be recorded in stores
ledger.
(d) The maximum and minimum quantities of materials to be purchased.
60 Which of the following matter is relevant with cash receipts and disbursement method of
preparing Cash Budget ?
(a) While determining the cash payments, it is necessary to estimate the credit sales.
(b) While estimating cash receipts, it is not necessary to estimate the figure of credit
sales.
(c) Debtors Ratio is used to estimate the timings when cash collections would be
obtained from credit sales.
(d) While estimating the total amount of cash payment for purchases, it is necessary to
decide from which suppliers materials are to be purchased.
61 Budget period depends upon -
(a) The type of budget
(b) The nature of business
(c) The length of trade cycles
(d) All of the above
62 Usually the production budget is stated in terms of -
(a) Money
(b) Quantity
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
63 Recording of actual performance is -
(a) An advantage of budgetary control
(b) A step in budgetary control
(c) A limitation of budgetary control
(d) None of the above
64 Budgetary control system helps the management to eliminate -
(a) Undercapitalization
(b) Overcapitalization
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
65 Budgetary control facilitates easy introduction of the -
(a) Marginal costing
(b) Ratio analysis
(c) Standard costing
(d) Subjective matter
66 Budgetary control system acts as a friend, philosopher and guide to the -
(a) Management
(b) Share holders
(c) Creditors
(d) Employees
67 Budgetary control system defines the objectives and policies of the -
(a) Production department
(b) Finance department
(c) Marketing department
(d) Subjective matter
68 A budget is tool which helps the management in planning and control of -
(a) All business activities
(b) Production activities
(c) Purchase activities
(d) Sales activities
69 In responsibility centre, the output is called as -
(a) Revenue
(b) Cost
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
70 If the responsibility centre gets more revenue from output, then it is called -
(a) Investment centre
(b) Cost centre
(c) Profit centre
(d) Expense centre
71 Cost Unit is defined as -
(a) Unit of quantity of product, service or time in relation to which costs may be
ascertained or expressed
(b) A location, person or an item of equipment or a group of these for which costs are
ascertained and used for cost control.
(c) Centres having the responsibility of generating and maximising profits
(d) Centres concerned with earning an adequate return on investment
72 Fixed cost is a cost -
(a) Which changes in total in proportion to changes in output
(b) Which is partly fixed and partly variable in relation to output
(c) Which do not change in total during a given period despise changes in output
(d) Which remains same for each unit of output
73 Uncontrollable costs are the costs which be influenced by the action of a specified
member of an undertaking. -
(a) can not
(b) can
(c) may or may not
(d) must
74 Element/s of Cost of a product are -
(a) Material only
(b) Labour only
(c) Expenses only
(d) Material, Labour and expenses
75 Overhead refers to -
(a) Direct or Prime Cost
(b) All Indirect costs
(c) Only Factory indirect costs
(d) Only indirect expenses
76 Which of the following is not a method of cost absorption?
(a) Percentage of direct material cost
(b) Machine hour rate
(c) Labour hour rate
(d) Repeated distribution method
77 A Local Authority is preparing cash Budget for its refuse disposal department. Which of
the following items would not be included in the cash budget?
(a) Capital cost of a new collection vehicle
(b) Depreciation of the machinery
(c) Operatives wages
(d) Fuel for the collection Vehicles
78 Which of the following characteristics does NOT pertain to management accounting?
(a) Provides information and estimates about future activity
(b) Generates specific-purpose financial statements and reports
(c) Provides financial and operating data multidisciplinary in scope
(d) Has externally imposed standards
79 A budget which is prepared in a manner so as to give the budgeted cost for any level of
activity is known as -
(a) Master budget
(b) Zero base budget
(c) Functional budget
(d) Flexible budget
80 ___________ is a summary of all functional budgets in a capsule form.
(a) Functional Budget
(b) Master Budget
(c) Long Period Budget
(d) Flexible Budget
81 When the sales increase from Rs. 40,000 to Rs. 60,000 and profit increases by Rs. 5,000,
the P/V ratio is -
(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 25%
(d) 40%
82 From following which is not a principle of good reporting ?
(a) Simplicity
(b) Accountability
(c) Promptness
(d) Accuracy
83 From day to day operation which report is prepare ?
(a) Routine
(b) Special
(c) Investigative
(d) External
84 Any special event happen into the business then which report is prepared ?
(a) Routine
(b) Special
(c) External
(d) Control
85 Internal report use for _______________ .
(a) Share holders
(b) Government
(c) Managerial personnel
(d) Creditors
86 External report use for _______________ .
(a) Top level management
(b) Middle level management
(c) Lower level management
(d) Shareholders
87 From following which is not a routine report ?
(a) Production report
(b) Sales report
(c) Investigation
(d) Administration report
89. Financial accounting is primarily concerned with providing financial reports to all of
the following EXCEPT
a. creditors such as banks and other financial institutions.
b. creditors such as suppliers.
c. shareholders of the company.
d. management of the firm.
90. Management accounting and financial accounting differ in that management accounting
information is prepared
a. following prescribed rules.
b. using whatever methods the company finds beneficial.
c. for shareholders.
d. to summarize the whole company with little detail.
97. Which of the following costing activities is associated with the financial accounting
system?
a. determining the cost of a department
b. determining the cost of goods sold for financial statements
c. preparing budgets
d. determining the cost of a customer
98. Which of the following activities is NOT associated with the financial accounting
information system?
a. reporting on the cost of quality
b. reporting to the shareholders
c. preparing reports for the tax authorities
d. preparing a statement of cash flows
99. Which of the following cost management tools supports the firm's concentration on the
delivery of value to the customer?
a. service industry growth
b. global competition
c. preparing an earnings report for external reporting
d. value-chain analysis
100. Factors that have led to a global market for manufacturing and service firms are
a. improved transportation and communications systems.
b. improved telemarketing and communications.
c. improved distribution and transportation systems.
d. None of these factors have contributed.
101. Which of the following activities is NOT significant to the advancement of information
technology?
a. enterprise resource planning software
b. emergence of electronic commerce
c. theory of constraints
d. decision support systems
102. Software that has integrated system capability using real time data is
a. enterprise resource planning software.
b. on-line analytic programs.
c. computer-assisted engineering software.
d. none of the above.
103. Automation of the manufacturing environment is associated with increases in
a. inventory.
b. capacity.
c. processing time.
d. none of these.
104. Total quality management emphasizes
a. zero defects.
b. continual improvement.
c. elimination of waste.
d. all of the above.
105. Which of the following emerging themes in cost accounting deals with managers striving
to create an environment that will enable workers to manufacture perfect (zero-defect)
products?
a. advances in information technology
b. time as a competitive element
c. global competition
d. total quality management
106. Competitive advantage is established by
a. providing more customer products than competitors.
b. providing better quality than competitors.
c. providing greater customer value for less cost than competitors.
d. providing greater efficiencies than competitors.
108. Which of the following statements is NOT true about world-class firms?
a. World-class firms are firms that are poor in customer support.
b. World-class firms know their market and their products.
c. World-class firms strive continually to improve product design, manufacture,
and delivery.
d. World-class firms can compete with the best of the best in a global environment.
109. Monitoring the number of defects produced is an example of the management function of
a. planning.
b. control.
c. decision making.
d. both a and c.
111. Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes between financial and
management accounting?
a. Management accounting reports on the whole organization.
b. Financial accounting is oriented toward the future.
c. Financial accounting is primarily concerned with providing information for
internal users.
d. Management accounting is oriented more toward the planning and control
aspects of management.
112. Setting the company's profit targets for the upcoming year is an example of the
management function of
a. planning.
b. control.
c. variance analysis.
d. internal auditing.
4. Imputed cost is a .
A. notional cost.
B. real cost.
C. normal cost.
D. variable cost.
ANSWER: A
10. Multiple costing is a technique of using two or more costing methods for ascertainment of cost by.
A. the same firm.
B. the several firms.
C. the same industry.
D. the several industries.
ANSWER: A
11. Wages paid to a labour who was engaged in production activities can be termed as.
A. direct cost.
B. indirect cost.
C. sunk cost.
D. imputed cost.
ANSWER: A
12. The cost which is to be incurred even when a business unit is closed is a.
A. imputed cost.
B. historical cost.
C. sunk cost.
D. shutdown cost
ANSWER: D
B. factory cost.
C. labour cost.
D. cost of goods sold.
ANSWER: B
19. Which one of the following is not considered for preparation of cost sheet?
A. Factory cost.
B. Goodwill written off.
C. Selling cost.
D. Labour cost.
ANSWER: B
31. The ratios which reflect managerial efficiency in handling the assets is.
A. turnover ratios
B. profitability ratios.
C. short term solvency ratio.
D. long term solvency ratio.
ANSWER: A
32. he ratios which reveal the final result of the managerial policies and performance is .
A. turnover ratios.
B. profitability ratios.
C. short term solvency ratio.
D. long term solvency ratio.
ANSWER: B
40. The ratio which measures the profit in relation to capital employed is known as
A. return on investment.
B. gross profit ratio.
C. operating ratio.
D. operating profit ratio.
ANSWER: A
41. The ratio which determines the profitability from the shareholder’s point of view is .
A. return on investment.
B. gross profit ratio.
C. return on shareholders funds.
D. operating profit ratio.
ANSWER: C
42. Return on equity is also called
A. . return on investment.
B. gross profit ratio.
C. return on shareholders funds.
D. return on net worth.
ANSWER: D
45. The ratio which is calculated to measure the productivity of total assets is
A. return on equity.
B. return on share holders funds.
C. return on total assets.
D. return on equity share holders’ funds.
ANSWER: C
46. The ratio which shows the proportion of profits retained in the business out of the current year’s profits
is
A. . retained earnings ratio.
B. pay out ratio
C. earnings per share.
D. price earnings ratio.
ANSWER: A
47. The ratio which indicates earnings per share reflected by the market price is .
A. retained earnings ratio.
B. pay out ratio.
C. earnings per share.
D. price earnings ratio.
ANSWER: D
48. The ratio establishes the relationship between profit before interest and tax and fixed interest charges
is .
A. interest cover ratio.
B. fixed dividend cover ratio.
C. debt service coverage ratio.
D. dividend yield ratio.
ANSWER: A
49. The ratio shows the preference dividend as a proportion of profit available for shareholders is
.
A. interest cover ratio.
B. fixed dividend cover ratio.
C. debt service coverage ratio.
D. dividend yield ratio.
ANSWER: B
53. Which ratio is calculated to ascertain the efficiency of inventory management in terms of capital
investment?
A. stock velocity ratio.
8
B. debtors velocity ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: A
54. The ratio which measures the relationship between the cost of goods sold and the amount of average
inventory is
A. stock turnover ratio.
B. debtors velocity ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: A
57. Which ratio measures the number of times the receivables are rotated in a year in terms of sales?
A. stock turnover ratio.
B. debtors turnover ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: B
9
60. The indicates the number of times the payables rotate in a year is _.
A. stock turnover ratio.
B. stock turnover ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: C
62. All those assets which are converted into cash in the normal course of business within one year are
known as .
A. fixed assets.
B. current assets.
C. fictitious assets.
D. wasting assets.
ANSWER: B
63. All those liabilities which are payable in cash in the normal course of business within a period of one
year are called _.
A. long term liabilities.
B. overdraft.
C. short term loans.
D. current liabilities.
ANSWER: D
64. Any transaction between a current account and another current account does not
Affect .
A. profit.
B. funds.
C. working capital.
D. capital.
ANSWER: B
65. Any transaction between a non current account and another non current account does not
affect .
A. profit.
B. funds.
C. working capital.
D. capital.
ANSWER: B
66. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement -Increase in current asset .
A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital.
C. decrease fixed capital.
D. increase fixed capital.
ANSWER: A
67. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement - Decrease in current asset .
A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital.
C. decrease fixed capital.
D. increase fixed capital.
ANSWER: B
68. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement -Increase in current liability .
A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital.
C. decrease fixed capital.
D. increase fixed capital.
ANSWER: B
69. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement -Decrease in current Liability .
A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital.
C. decrease fixed capital
D. increase fixed capital.
ANSWER: A
72. One of the primary differences between marginal costing and absorption costing regarding
the treatment of .
A. prime cost .
B. fixed overheads.
C. variable overheads .
D. direct materials.
ANSWER: B
85. 1f` fixed costs decrease while variable cost per unit remains constant, the new B.E.P in relation to the
old B.E.P will be .
A. lower .
B. higher.
C. . unchanged .
D. indeterminate.
ANSWER: B
86. If fixed costs decrease while the variable cost per unit remains constant, the new contribution margin in
relation to the old contribution margin will be .
A. lower .
B. unchanged .
C. higher.
D. indeterminate.
ANSWER: B
87. Selling price per unit Rs. 10; Variable cost Rs. 8 per unit; Fixed cost Rs. 20,000; Break-even
production in units .
A. 10,000.
B. 16,300.
C. 2,000.
D. 2,500.
ANSWER: D
88. Sales Rs. 25,000; Variable cost Rs. 8,000; Fixed cost Rs. 5,000; Break-even sales
in value .
A. Rs. 7,936.
B. Rs. 7,353.
C. Rs. 8,333.
D. Rs. 9,090.
ANSWER: B
89. Fixed cost Rs. 80,000; Variable cost Rs. 2 per unit; Selling price_Rs. 10 per unit; turnover required
for a profit target of Rs. 60,000.
A. Rs. 1,75,000.
B. Rs. 1,17,400.
C. Rs. 1.57,000.
D. Rs. 1,86,667.
ANSWER: A
90. Sales Rs. 25,000; Variable cost Rs. 15,000; Fixed cost Rs .4,000; P/V Ratio is .
A. 40% .
B. 80%
C. 15%
D. 30%.
ANSWER: A
91. Sales Rs. 50,000; Variable cost Rs. 30,000; Net profit Rs. 6,000; fixed cost is .
A. Rs. 10,000.
B. b. Rs. l4,000 .
C. Rs. 12,000.
D. Rs. 8,000.
ANSWER: B
92. Actual sales Rs .4,00,000; Break-even sales Rs. 2,50,000; Margin of Safety in
percentage is _.
A. 33.33%.
B. 66.67%
C. 37.5% .
D. 76.33%.
ANSWER: C
93. P/V Ratio 50%; Variable cost of the produce Rs. 25; Selling price is .
A. Rs. 50 .
B. Rs. 40.
C. Rs. 30 .
D. Rs. 55.
ANSWER: A
94. Fixed cost Rs. 2,00,000; Sales Rs. 8,00,000; P/V Ratio 30%; the amount of' profit is .
A. Rs. 50,000.
B. Rs. 40,000 .
C. Rs. 35,000 .
D. Rs. 45,000 .
ANSWER: B
95. P/V Ratio is 25% and Margin of Safety is Rs; 3,00,000, the amount of profit is .
A. Rs. 1,00,000.
B. Rs. 80,000.
C. Rs. 75,000.
D. . Rs. 60,000.
ANSWER: C
96. Total sales Rs. 20,00,000; Fixed expenses Rs. 4,00,000; P/V Ratio 40%; Break-even capacity
in percentage is .
A. 40% .
B. 60% .
C. 50% .
D. 45%.
ANSWER: C
97. Break - even point occurs at 40% of` total capacity, margin of safety will be .
A. 40% .
B. 60% .
C. 80% .
D. 85% .
ANSWER: B
98. If the P/V Ratio of a product is 30% and selling price is Rs. 25 per unit, the marginal cost of the
product would be .
A. Rs.18.75 .
B. Rs.16 .
C. Rs. 15 .
D. Rs.20 .
ANSWER: A
104. The budget which usually takes the form of budgeted profit and loss account and balance sheet is
known as
A. Flexible budget .
B. Master budget.
C. Cash budget .
D. Purchase budget.
ANSWER: B
106. The fixed-variable cost classification has `a special significance in the preparation of .
A. Capital budget.
B. Cash budget.
C. Master budget .
D. Flexible budget .
ANSWER: D
108. Preparing budget figures for different levels of activity within a range under flexible budgeting is
.
A. Formula method.
B. Multi-activity method.
C. Budget cost allowance method.
D. Proportionate method.
ANSWER: B
109. What type of budget is designed to take into account forecast change in costs, prices, etc?
A. Master budget.
B. Rolling budget.
C. Flexible budget .
D. Functional budget.
ANSWER: B
C. Budgeting.
D. Controlling.
ANSWER: C
ANSWER: C
116. The budget which shows the budgeted quantity of output to be produced during a specific period is.
A. Fixed budget.
B. Flexible budget.
C. Sales budget.
D. Production budget
ANSWER: D
118. Material budget consists of two parts, one is the consumption budget and another Is .
18
C. Material production budget.
D. Material budget.
ANSWER: B
122. Budget of indirect costs in the form of indirect wages, indirect material and indirect expenses in the
factory is .
A. Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Master budget.
ANSWER: A
123. The budget prepared to estimate the expenditure to be incurred for planning, organizing, direction and
control function of the management is .
A. . Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Master budget.
ANSWER: B
124. The budget prepared to estimate expenditure to be incurred to sell the product and its distribution is
.
A. Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Master budget
ANSWER: C
125. The budget prepared to estimate the research and development expenditure to be incurred during a
specific period is .
A. Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Research and development budget.
19
ANSWER: D
126. The budget prepared to estimate the expenditure on fixed assets is known as.
A. Capital expenditure budget
B. Production overhead budget.
C. Administration overhead budget.
D. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
ANSWER: A
127. The budget prepared for replacement of assets, expansion of production facilities, adoption of new
technologies etc. is .
A. Capital expenditure budget.
B. Production overhead budget.
C. Administration overhead budget.
D. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
ANSWER: A
20
C. Job In Time.
D. Job Inventory Time.
ANSWER: A
134. FIFO is .
A. Fast Investment in Future Order.
B. First In First Out.
C. Fast In Fast Out
D. Fast Issue Of Fast Order.
ANSWER: D
137. Scrap is .
A. residue of material.
B. wastage of material.
C. surplus material.
D. abnormal loss of material.
ANSWER: A
138. Material is issued by store keeper against.
A. material requisition.
B. material order.
C. goods received note.
D. purchase requisition.
ANSWER: A
140. The document which is prepared after receiving and inspecting material .
A. material record note.
B. goods received note.
C. bill of material.
D. inventory record.
ANSWER: B
146. Material consumed is Rs. 5,00,000 Opening stock of raw material is Rs. 50,000 and Closing stock of
raw material is Rs. 25,000. What is the cost of raw material purchased?
A. Rs. 4,50,000.
B. Rs. 4,75,000.
C. Rs. 5,25,000.
D. Rs. 5, 50,000.
ANSWER: B
147. If selling price is Rs. 25,000 and profit is Rs. 5,000 then what is the percentage of profit on
cast?
A. 20%.
B. 25%.
C. 33.33%.
D. 35%.
ANSWER: B
Marks: 441 Roll No : ______________________________________________________
Duration: 20.0 Minutes Total : ______________________________________________________
Date : ______________________ Signature : ______________________
Q1) The main purpose of Cost Accounting is to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44690
1) assist management in decision making 2) maximise profits and minimise losses
3) comply norms issued by the Government of 4) prepare cost accounts in line with the
India from time to time accounting standards
Explanation:
Q2) SoleTrade Organization Is Also Called As ______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44573
1) Individual Proprietorship. 2) Partnership.
3) Joint Stock Company. 4) CoOperative Society.
Explanation:
Q3) Prereceived income is written on: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44433
1) Liabilities 2) Assets
3) Credit 4) Debit
Explanation:
Q4) Only the significant events which affect the business must be recorded as per the Marks : 1.0
principle of Id: 44702
1) Separate Entity 2) Accrual
3) Materiality 4) Going Concern
Explanation:
Q5) Management accounting is................ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44507
1) Extension of financial accounting 2) Extension of Financial Management
3) Accounting of Management 4) Concerned with the provision of information to
people within the organisation to help them to
make better decisions.
Explanation:
Q6) Which of the following highlights the correct order of the stages in the accounting Marks : 1.0
cycle Id: 38724
1) Journalizing, final accounts, posting to the 2) Journalizing, posting to the ledger, trial
ledger and trial balance balance and final accounts
3) Posting to the ledger, trial balance, final 4) Posting to the ledger, journalizing, final
accounts and journalizing accounts and trial balance
Explanation:
Q7) In accounting an Economic event is referred to as: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44452
1) Exchange of money 2) Transaction
3) Bank statement 4) Cash
Explanation:
Q8) A second hand car is purchased for Rs. 10000 the amount of Rs. 1000 is spent on its Marks : 1.0
repairs Rs 500 is incurred to get the car registered in owner’s name and Rs. 1200 is Id: 44551
paid dealer’s commission. The amount debited to car account will be
1) 10000 2) 10500
3) 11500 4) 12700
Explanation:
Q9) Which of the following statements best describes a limited liability company? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44563
1) It is normally owned and managed by the same 2) It is normally a nonprofit making organization
persons
3) In law it is regarded as having a separate
existence from its owners
4) It is normally owned by just one person
Explanation:
Q10) The opening stock of company is Rs. 40,000 and closing stock is Rs. 50,000. If the Marks : 1.0
purchases during the year are Rs. 2,00,000 the cost of goods sold will be: Id: 44399
1) Rs. 2,10,000 2) Rs. 1,90,000
3) Rs. 2,00,000 4) Rs. 1,80,000
Explanation:
Q11) In which type of expenditure the organization receives return during the same period Marks : 1.0
they paid for? Id: 44569
1) Capital Expenditure 2) Revenue Expenditure
3) Deferred Revenue Expenditure 4) Both (b) and (c)
Explanation:
Q12) A company gave in its balance sheet an foot note a case has been filed for which Marks : 1.0
they may have to pay 10 lakhs as damages. This is called : Id: 44616
1) revenue expenditure 2) capital expenditure
3) contingent liability 4) future liability
Explanation:
Q13) Four Accounts are given : Marks : 1.0
Id: 44400
A) Machinery Account, B) Ram's Account, C) Purchases Account, D) Bank of
Maharashtra's Account.
Which of the given is/are personal Account?
1) Option A ONLY 2) Options A and B
3) Options A, B and C 4) Options B and D
Explanation:
Q14) Management Accounting involves _______for management decision making. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44428
1) preparation of Financial statements 2) Recording of Cost
3) analysis & Interpretation of Data 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q15) Debtors always show which balance Marks : 1.0
Id: 44497
1) Debit 2) Credit
3) Nominal 4) Real
Explanation:
Q16) Which of the following is one of the basic accounting principles? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44642
1) Profit concern 2) Going concern
3) Online concern 4) Own concern
Explanation:
Q17) Accounting standards are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44777
1) Basis for selection of accounting policy. 2) Set of broad accounting policies to be
followed by an entity.
3) Basis for establishing and managing an entity. 4) All of the above.
Explanation:
Q18) Trail balance is_____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44425
1) statement, records all balances of Ledger A/c 2) Records all the transactions
3) A/c, records all balances of Ledger A/c 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q19) What is important object of accounting ? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44432
1) To maintain record 2) Depiction of financial position
3) Make information available to various groups 4) All of three
and users
Explanation:
Q20) 'Business will always go on'' which principle describe this Marks : 1.0
Id: 44448
1) accounting period concept 2) conservatism concept
3) going concern concept 4) consistency principle
Explanation:
Q21) New provision for PBDD is 7000, old provision 3000, old bad debts 2000 amount Marks : 1.0
accounted in P&L A/c is Id: 44430
1) 12000 dr side 2) 12000 cr side
3) 6000 dr side 4) 2000 cr side
Explanation:
Q22) Closing stock was not taken on 31.3.2006 but only on 7.4.2006. Following Marks : 1.0
transactions had taken place during the period from 1.4.2006 to 7.4.2006. Sales Id: 44766
Rs.2,50,000, purchases Rs.1,50,000, stock on 7.4.2006 was Rs.1,80,000 and the rate of
gross profit on sales was 20%. Closing stock on 31.3.2006 will be
1) Rs.3,80,000. 2) Rs.4,00,000.
3) Rs.2,30,000. 4) Rs.1,50,000.
Explanation:
Q23) Which aspect of financial accounting assumes importance because of the limitation Marks : 1.0
of human memory. Id: 44470
1) Classification 2) Recording
3) Summarising 4) Interpretation
Explanation:
Q24) The full disclosure principle, as adopted by the accounting profession, is best Marks : 1.0
described by which of the following? Id: 44447
1) All information related to an entity's business 2) Information about each account balance
and operating objectives is required to be appearing in the financial statements is to be
disclosed in the financial statements. included in the notes to the financial
statements.
3) Enough information should be disclosed in the 4) Disclosure of any financial facts significant
financial statements so a person wishing to enough to influence the judgment of an
invest in the stock of the company can make a informed reader
profitable decision.
Explanation:
Q25) Closing entries are used to transfer the net income or net loss for the accounting Marks : 1.0
period to the ____. Id: 44621
1) Cash in Bank account 2) revenue account
3) expense accounts 4) capital account
Explanation:
Q26) The final accounts of a manufacturing company generally include the following Marks : 1.0
statements : Id: 44697
(i) Balance Sheet
(ii) Manufacturing Account
(iii) Profit and Loss Account
(iv) Trading Account
(v) Profit and Loss Appropriation Account
The correct sequence in which the statements are prepared is :
1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) 2) (ii), (iv), (iii), (v), (i)
3) (v), (ii), (iv), (iii), (i) 4) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii), (v)
Explanation:
Q27) Benefit of revenue expenses extends to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44729
1) 10 Years 2) 5 Years
3) One accounting year 4) As long as the business continues
Explanation:
Q28) Which of the following is an example of business liability? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44561
1) Building 2) Creditors
3) Cash 4) Plant & Machinery
Explanation:
Q29) Identify the correct statement Marks : 1.0
Id: 44645
1) Capital is equal to assets minus liabilities 2) Capital is equal to assets plus liabilities
3) Assets are equal to liabilities minus capital 4) Liabilities is equal to capital plus assets
Explanation:
Q30) The disclosure of all accounting procedures has to be done by company according Marks : 1.0
to which standards Id: 44515
1) AS1 2) AS2
3) AS7 4) AS10
Explanation:
Q31) In the absence of any provision in the partnership agreement, profits and losses are Marks : 1.0
shared Id: 44741
1) In the ratio of capitals. 2) Equally.
3) In the ratio of loans given by them to the 4) None of the above.
partnership firm.
Explanation:
Q32) Real Accounts means _____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44409
1) The accounts of individuals, firms, limited 2) The accounts of properties, assets or
companies, local authorities, associations with professionals of the businessman.
whom the businessman deals.
3) Accounts representing incomes and expenses
or profits and gains.
4) The accounts which relate to things other than
persons.
Explanation:
Q33) Which of the following is not an internal user of management information? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44466
1) Creditor 2) Department manager
3) Controller 4) Treasurer
Explanation:
Q34) Which is the key factor that an entrepreneur should focus on, in ensuring survival of Marks : 1.0
his enterprises? Id: 44667
1) Profits 2) Cash Flow
3) Margin 4) Market Share
Explanation:
Q35) Identify the external user of financial information or financial statements Marks : 1.0
Id: 38723
1) Management 2) CFO
3) Employee 4) investor
Explanation:
Q36) A change in accounting policy is justified Marks : 1.0
Id: 44434
1) To comply with accounting standards 2) To ensure more appropriate presentation of
the financial statement of the enterprise
3) To comply with law 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q37) Suppose revenue is recognised and earned but was not realised in cash, according Marks : 1.0
to accrual concept it will give rise to Id: 44738
1) A liability 2) An asset
3) A expense 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q38) Which of the following best describes the meaning of ‘Purchases’? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44570
1) Goods bought for resale 2) Goods bought on credit
3) Items bought 4) Goods paid for
Explanation:
Q39) Profit / Loss is calculated at the stage of ____ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44733
1) Recording 2) Classifying
3) Interpretation 4) Summarising
Explanation:
Q40) Interest on drawings is: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44583
1) Expenditure for the business 2) Cost for the business
3) Gain for the business 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q41) The term accounts receivable is shown in the balance sheet under: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44694
1) Fixed assets 2) Current assets
3) Current liabilities 4) Miscellaneous expenditure
Explanation:
Q42) Present liability of uncertain amount, which can be measured reliably by using a Marks : 1.0
substantial degree of estimation, is termed as ________ Id: 44747
1) Provision 2) Liability
3) Contingent Liability 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q43) Sales are 300000 gross profit 30% cost of goods sold is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44543
1) 90000 2) 210000
3) 180000 4) 270000
Explanation:
Q44) Which of the following should be considered while selecting and applying Marks : 1.0
accounting policies? Id: 44644
1) Consistency 2) Going concern
3) Substance over form 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q45) Management accounting is applicable to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44480
1) Service entities 2) Manufacturing entities
3) Notforprofit entities 4) All of these
Explanation:
Q46) Which of the below statement is false? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44406
1) Financial accounting data and statements are 2) Management accounting reports and
developed for the definite period. statements are prepared whenever needed.
3) Financial Acconting provides detailed and 4) It is more or less obligatory on the part of
disaggregated information about products, every business concern to adopt financial
individual activities, division or plant. accounting.
Explanation:
Q47) Owners' equity in a business comes from which of the following? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44786
1) Investments in cash by the owners 2) Investments in assets other than cash by the
owners
3) Earnings from profitable operation of the 4) All of the above
business
Explanation:
Q48) Prime Cost Consist of ______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44421
1) All Indirect Exp. 2) Material+Overhead+Exp
3) All Direct Exp(Material+Labour+Exp) 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q49) Profit and loss account would not include? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44796
1) Salaries 2) Drawings.
3) Rent received. 4) Carriage outwards.
Explanation:
Q50) The maximum amount beyond which a company is not allowed to raise funds, by Marks : 1.0
issue of share is Id: 44722
1) Issued Capital 2) Nominal Capital
3) Subscribed Capital 4) Reserve Capital
Explanation:
Q51) Convention of accounting says that Marks : 1.0
Id: 44514
1) All expenses to be accounted when occurred 2) All incomes to be accounted when received
3) All incomes to be accounted when received 4) All expenses accounted if arising during said
period a& all incomes only when received
Explanation:
Q52) How are the following items arranged on the liability side of the Balance Sheet of a Marks : 1.0
Company? Id: 44678
i. Current liability
ii. Unsecured loan
iii. Share capital
iv. Reserves and surplus
v. Secured loan
1) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (v)
3) (iii) (iv) (v) (ii) (i) 4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (v) (i)
Explanation:
Q53) Accounting has certain norms to be observed by the accountants in recording of Marks : 1.0
transactions and preparation of financial statements. These norms reduce the Id: 44753
vagueness and chances of misunderstanding by harmonizing the varied accounting
practices. These norms are
1) Accounting regulations. 2) Accounting guidance notes.
3) Accounting standards. 4) Accounting framework.
Explanation:
Q54) The liability of the partners in a Limited Liability Partnership is ____________. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44811
1) zero 2) proportionate
3) unlimited 4) limited
Explanation:
Q55) Which of the following is a Revenue Expenditure? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44518
1) Construction of Factory shed 2) Sales Tax paid in connection with purchase of
Office Equipment
3) Legal Expenses in connection with defending 4) Installation of new Machinery
a title to firm’s property
Explanation:
Q56) Right shares enjoy preferential rights with regard to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44688
1) Payment of dividend 2) Payment of retained earnings
3) Repayment of capital 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q57) Which of the following is the source of short term finance? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44683
1) Trade credit 2) Short term borrowing
3) Bank credit 4) All of above
Explanation:
Q58) All of the following have debit balance except one. That account is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44619
1) Wages a/c 2) Debtors a/c
3) Bills payable a/c 4) Goodwill
Explanation:
Q59) A Partner In A Firm _______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44439
1) Cannot Transfer His Share To An Outsider. 2) Can Transfer His Share To An Outsider With
The Consent Of Majority Partners.
3) Can Transfer His Share To An Outsider 4) Can Transfer His Share To An Outsider With
Without The Consent Of Any Other Partners. The Consent Of All Other Partners.
Explanation:
Q60) Which of the following is a revenue expenses Marks : 1.0
Id: 44730
1) Raw material consumed 2) Plant purchased
3) Long term loan raised from bank 4) Share Capital
Explanation:
Q61) Financial information should be neutral and bias free" is the dictation of which one of Marks : 1.0
the following? Id: 44632
1) Completeness concept 2) Faithful representation Concept
3) Objectivity Concept 4) Duality Concept
Explanation:
Q62) Accounting is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44526
1) The art of recording, classifying and 2) A systematic and regular record of events
summarizing in a significant manner and in affecting a firm with a view to obtaining a clear
terms of money, transactions and events financial picture.
which are in part at best financial in character
and interpreting thereof.
3) Preparation of various financial statements
over a period of time of firm to measure its
performance in monetary terms.
4)
Nothing but Book keeping.
Explanation:
Q63) A partner who lends only his name to the firm is called as ____________ partner. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44810
1) active 2) nominal
3) slipping 4) minor
Explanation:
Q64) Which of the following is a noncurrent asset? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44684
1) Sundry debtors 2) Goodwill
3) Advance expenses 4) Inventory
Explanation:
Q65) During the lifetime of entity, accountants produce financial statement at arbitrary Marks : 1.0
points in time in accordance with which basic accounting principle? Id: 44506
1) Matching 2) Periodicity
3) Conservatism 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q66) Using "lower of cost and net realisable value" for the purpose of inventory valuation Marks : 1.0
is the implementation of which of the following concept? Id: 38731
1) The going concern concept 2) The separate entity concept
3) The prudence concept 4) Matching concept
Explanation:
Q67) Which of the following branches of accounting provides information that helps Marks : 1.0
planning, control and decision making? Id: 44529
1) Cost Accounting 2) Inflation Accounting
3) Financial Accounting 4) Management Accounting
Explanation:
Q68) Calculate inventory Current ratio is 2.6:1 Liquid ratio is 1.5:1 and Current liabilities Marks : 1.0
40000 Id: 44536
1) 40000 2) 42000
3) 44000 4) 48000
Explanation:
Q69) In double entity book keeping system, every transaction affects at least Marks : 1.0
______account(s). Id: 44762
1) One 2) Two
3) Three 4) Four
Explanation:
Q70) Capital structure designing has nothing to do with: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44682
1) Profitability 2) Solvency
3) Flexibility 4) Transferability
Explanation:
Q71) A businessman who cannot pay his debt is called as _________. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44614
1) Insolvent 2) Solvent
3) Book Debt 4) Bank Debt
Explanation:
Q72) If two or more transactions of the same nature are journalized together having either Marks : 1.0
the debit or the credit account common is known as Id: 44654
1) Compound journal entry 2) Separate journal entry
3) Posting 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q73) Ram and Gopal are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2:1. Gopal gave Marks : 1.0
a loan of Rs.12,000 to the firm. They did not have any specific agreement about Id: 44754
interest on loan mentioned in the partnership deed. Gopal claims interest on loan @
10% p.a. The interest on loan as per rules of Partnership Act, 1932 will be:
1) 840 2) 820
3) 720 4) 960
Explanation:
Q74) Which of the following is not a transaction? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44758
1) Goods are purchased on cash basis for 2) Salaries paid for the month of May, 2006.
Rs.1,000.
3) Land is purchased for Rs.10 lacs.
4) An employee dismissed from the job.
Explanation:
Q75) Mr. XYZ buys clothing of Rs. 50,000 paying cash Rs. 20,000. What is the amount of Marks : 1.0
expense as per the accrual concept? Id: 44776
1) 50000 2) 20000
3) 30000 4) Nil.
Explanation:
Q76) Effective management of liquidity and financial risk in business is known as Marks : 1.0
management Id: 44668
1) Risk 2) Financial
3) Cash 4) Treasury
Explanation:
Q77) A ________ debt is a debt which cannot be recovered. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44578
1) Good 2) Book
3) Recoverable 4) Bad
Explanation:
Q78) Balance Sheet is a Marks : 1.0
Id: 44736
1) Statement showing financial effect of recorded 2) Statement of assets and liabilities on a
transactions particular point of time
3) Is one of the accounting reports 4) Both (b) and (c) above
Explanation:
Q79) Depreciation arises because of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44774
1) Fall in the market value of the asset. 2) Fall in the value of money.
3) Physical wear and tear of the asset. 4) None of the three.
Explanation:
Q80) The accounting measurement that is not consistent with the Going Concern concept Marks : 1.0
is Id: 44708
1) Historical Cost 2) Realization
3) The Transaction Approach 4) Liquidation Value
Explanation:
Q81) A change in accounting policy is justified when Marks : 1.0
Id: 44643
1) To comply with accounting standard 2) To ensure more appropriate presentation of
the financial statement of the enterprise
3) To comply with law 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q82) Match the following: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44528
Accounting Function Branch of Accounting
(1) Preparation of Financial Statements (a) Management Accounting
(2) Determination of Cost of Product (b) Financial Accounting
(3) Making Managerial Decisions (c) Cost Accounting
1) (1) c (2) a (3) b 2) (1) b (2) c (3) a
3) (1) a (2) c (4) b 4) (1) c (2) b (3) a
Explanation:
Q83) Which of the following are correct? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44553
Account to be debited Account to be credited
Bought office wooden table for cash office wooden table cash
Ramesh sold goods on credited to Ram sales cash
Introduce capital by cheque capital Bank
Paid to creditor Sita by cheque Sita Bank
1) (ii) (iii)(i) 2) (iii)(iv)(ii)
3) (i)(iii)(iv) 4) (i)(iv)
Explanation:
Q84) Which of the following is NOT Capital Expenditure? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44401
1) Expenditure incurred to acquire a tangible 2) Expenditure incurred to acquire the right to
asset carry on business
3) Expenses incurred for repairs and 4) Expenditure for the extension of or
maintenance of fixed asset improvement, modification in fixed asset
Explanation:
Q85) Which of the following is correct Marks : 1.0
Id: 44555
1) Assets = Liabilities + Capital 2) Assets = Liabilities Capital
3) Assets = external equities 4) Assets + Liabilities = Capital
Explanation:
Q86) If partnership deed remains silent on interest on partner’s loan, it should be paid @ Marks : 1.0
_____. Id: 44813
1) 0.09 2) 0.06
3) 0.07 4) 0.1
Explanation:
Q87) Which one of the following statement is false: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44806
1) A transaction is concerned with money and 2) Solvent person is a person whose assets are
money’s worth. more than his liabilities.
3) Bookkeeping and accounting is one and the 4) The double entry systems is based on “Dual
same thing. Aspect” concept.
Explanation:
Q88) Economic life of an enterprise is split into the periodic interval as per Marks : 1.0
___________________ concept. Id: 44803
1) Money Measurment 2) Matching
3) Going Concern 4) Accrual
Explanation:
Q89) A balance sheet is useful because Marks : 1.0
Id: 44584
1) Indicates how much finance is required by the 2) Indicates the profitability of the firm
firm.
3) Helps in assessment of financial position of
the firm.
4) Tells about current asset and current liability
Explanation:
Q90) Which of the following activities is NOT an accounting function? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44463
1) Management consultancy 2) Taxation
3) Costing 4) Auditing
Explanation:
Q91) A company sells goods on credit valued at Rs. 2,50,000 to a customer. At what point Marks : 1.0
in the sales cycle should this sale be recognized in the accounts? Id: 44488
1) When the customer’s order is received 2) When the goods are ready for dispatch to the
customer
3) When the goods are sent, accepted and 4) When the customer pays
invoiced
Explanation:
Q92) Management accounting is concerned with Marks : 1.0
Id: 44483
1) Recording of transactions 2) Reporting of costs
3) Preparation of financial statements 4) Analysis and interpretation of data
Explanation:
Q93) In Accounting 'Money measurement Concept' means ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44412
1) A firm or business is regarded as separate & 2) All business transactions are regarded as
distinct from the owner. having a dual aspect.
3) All transactions are recorded in terms of 4) Accounting is made on the assumption that a
money. business will continue in future and will use its
property in operations rather than sell them.
Explanation:
Q94) Opening stock of the year is Rs.20,000, Goods purchased during the year is Marks : 1.0
Rs.1,00,000, Carriage Rs.2,000 and Selling expenses Rs.2,000.Sales during the year is Id: 44765
Rs.1,50,000 and closing stock is Rs.25,000. The gross profit will be
1) 53000 2) 55000
3) 80000 4) 51000
Explanation:
Q95) Planning and forecasting is the functions of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44636
1) Financial accounting 2) Bookkeeping
3) cost accounting 4) Management accounting
Explanation:
Q96) Accounting does not record non financial transactions because of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44711
1) Entity Concept 2) Accrual Concept
3) Cost Concept 4) Money Measurement Concept
Explanation:
Q97) Calculate current liabilities if Current ratio is 2:1 and current assets are 2200000 Marks : 1.0
Id: 44542
1) 1100000 2) 1125000
3) 1175000 4) 1130000
Explanation:
Q98) Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a business is divided Marks : 1.0
for the purpose of preparing financial statements? Id: 44454
1) Fiscal year 2) Accrual period
3) Accounting period 4) Calendar year
Explanation:
Q99) Which of the following shows summary of a company's financial position at a Marks : 1.0
specific date Id: 38727
1) Profit & Loss Account 2) ) Cash Flow Statement
3) Balance Sheet 4) Income & Expenditure Account
Explanation:
Q100) Following is the example of external users Marks : 1.0
Id: 44655
1) Government 2) Owners
3) Management 4) Employees
Explanation:
Q101) The money spent on heavy advertising, whose benefit is continues for 3 years to Marks : 1.0
come, is a ______. Id: 44385
1) Capital Expenditure 2) Revenue Expenditure
3) Deferred revenue expenditure 4) Income
Explanation:
Q102) fundamental accounting equation, Assets = Equities is the formal expression of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44478
1) Dual aspect 2) Matching concept
3) Going concern concept 4) Money measurement concept
Explanation:
Q103) Which of the following characteristics of accounting information primarily allows Marks : 1.0
users of financial statements to generate predictions about an organization Id: 44456
1) Reliability 2) Timeliness
3) Neutrality 4) Relevance
Explanation:
Q104) Which of the below statement is correct? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44393
1) Debtors are liability. 2) Capital is an asset.
3) Goodwill is current asset. 4) Bills payables are liabilities
Explanation:
Q105) The basic concepts related to P & L Account are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44700
1) Realization Concept 2) Matching Concept
3) Cost Concept 4) Both (a) and (b) above
Explanation:
Q106) Accounting concepts are based on Marks : 1.0
Id: 44689
1) Certain assumptions 2) Certain facts and figures
3) Certain accounting records 4) Government guidelines
Explanation:
Q107) Balance sheet is used to ascertain the financial position Marks : 1.0
Id: 44556
1) For a particular period 2) For the accounting period of the firm
3) For a period of one year 4) On a particular date
Explanation:
Q108) Which of the following equation is INCORRECT? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44489
1) Liabilities + Capital = Assets 2) Liabilities + Assets = Capital
3) Assets Liabilities = Capital 4) Assets Capital = Liabilities
Explanation:
Q109) Journal is _____________Books of account is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44419
1) Basic 2) Primary
3) Secondary 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q110) Diya & Co. Is a Marks : 1.0
Id: 44775
1) Personal A/c 2) Real account
3) Nominal account 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q111) Ledger is also called Marks : 1.0
Id: 44572
1) Principle book 2) Subsidiary book
3) Day book 4) Proper book
Explanation:
Q112) If during the accounting period the assets increased by Rs. 10,000, and equity Marks : 1.0
increased by Rs. 2,000, then how did liabilities change? Id: 44795
1) Increased by Rs. 8,000 2) Increased by Rs. 12,000
3) Decreased by Rs. 8,000 4) Decreased by Rs. 12,000
Explanation:
Q113) Features of Partnership firm are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44511
1) Two or more persons carrying common 2) Sharing profit and losses in agreed ratio
business under an agreement
3) Business carried by all or one of them acting
for all
4) All the above
Explanation:
Q114) The information provided in the annual financial statements of an enterprise pertains Marks : 1.0
to Id: 44554
1) industry as a whole 2) Individual organisation
3) Global economy 4) Economy as a whole
Explanation:
Q115) Managerial Accounting Information Marks : 1.0
Id: 44503
1) Relates To The Entity As A Whole And Is 2) Relates To SubUnits Of The Entity And May
Highly Aggregated Be Very Detailed
3) Is Prepared Only Once A Year 4) Is Constrained By The Requirements Of
Generally Accepted Accounting Principles
Explanation:
Q116) Bad debts means ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44416
1) goods unsold lying with a business on any 2) an allowance given on the sales price of
given date. goods.
3) debts which are due by the firm 4) debts which are irrecoverable.
Explanation:
Q117) When an owner credits or debits any amount, he cannot put that transaction in Marks : 1.0
financial account records of organisation. This is known as .............. Id: 44457
1) Money Measurement Concept 2) Cost Concept
3) Business Entity Concept 4) Conservatism
Explanation:
Q118) Standard Gross Profit ratio is between Marks : 1.0
Id: 44597
1) 10% to 20% 2) 15% to 25%
3) 30% to 40% 4) 20% to 30%
Explanation:
Q119) If current ratio is less than 1 it can be definitely said that Marks : 1.0
Id: 44605
1) Net working capital is negative 2) Net working capital is positive
3) Inventories are in adequate 4) Cash in hand is inadequate
Explanation:
Q120) During the life time of an entity, accountants produce financial statements at Marks : 1.0
arbitrary points in time in accordance with which basic accounting principle Id: 44450
1) Conservatism 2) Going Concern
3) Materiality 4) Periodicity
Explanation:
Q121) A business transaction that involves a purchase on account is considered to be a(n) Marks : 1.0
____. Id: 44622
1) cash transaction 2) credit transaction
3) investment by the owner 4) expense transaction
Explanation:
Q122) As production increases, fixed cost per unit _____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44387
1) Decreases 2) Increases
3) We can’t tell 4) Do not change
Explanation:
Q123) Management accounting provides invaluable services to management in performing Marks : 1.0
……….. Id: 44505
1) All Management functions 2) Controlling functions
3) Interpret the financial data 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q124) Which of following is/are problems in Financial statement analysis Marks : 1.0
Id: 44604
1) Window dressing 2) Price level changes l
3) Interpretation of results 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q125) If the profit sharing ratio of partners is not given than partner share profit Marks : 1.0
Id: 44618
1) As per capital ratio 2) equally
3) as per work load 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q126) Who are the customers of cost and management accounting? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44675
1) Managers 2) Creditors
3) Lenders 4) Consumers
Explanation:
Q127) Loss on issue of debenture is treated as Marks : 1.0
Id: 44657
1) Intangible Asset 2) Current Asset
3) Current Liability 4) Miscellaneous Expenditure
Explanation:
Q128) Which of the following is not a concept of financial accounting Marks : 1.0
Id: 44451
1) Single aspect concept 2) Accrual concept
3) Going concern concept 4) Separate entity concept
Explanation:
Q129) Management accounting does not encompass Marks : 1.0
Id: 44467
1) Calculating product cost 2) Calculating earnings per share
3) Determining cost behavior 4) Profit planning
Explanation:
Q130) How are the following items arranged on the asset side of the Balance Sheet of a Marks : 1.0
Company? Id: 44679
i. Profit and loss A/c
ii. Miscellaneous expenditure
iii. Fixed assets
iv. Current assets, loans and advances
v. Investments
1) (iii) (v) (iv) (i) (ii) 2) (iii) (iv) (v) (i) (ii)
3) (iii) (i) (ii) (v) (iv) 4) (iii) (v) (iv) (ii) (i)
Explanation:
Q131) ____________principle requires that the same accounting method should be used Marks : 1.0
from one accounting period to the next. Id: 44761
1) Conservatism. 2) Consistency.
3) Business entity. 4) Money measurement.
Explanation:
Q132) which of the following should be deducted in balance sheet of a company from the Marks : 1.0
share capital to find out paid up capital Id: 44562
1) calls in advance 2) calls in arreas
3) share forfeiture 4) discount on issue of shares
Explanation:
Q133) Which of the following is a capital expenditure? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44685
1) Wages paid for production of goods in the 2) Wages paid for installation of machinery
works
3) None of the above
4) Both of the above
Explanation:
Q134) The basic accounting principle/concept according to which business record must be Marks : 1.0
kept separate from the personal records of the owner is known as: Id: 44512
1) Goingconcern concept 2) Separate Business entity
3) Realization Concept 4) Conservatism
Explanation:
Q135) When benefit of a revenue expense extend beyond an accounting year, it is called Marks : 1.0
Id: 44721
1) Revenue Expenditure 2) Capital expenditure
3) Deferred Revenue Expenditure 4) Recurring profit
Explanation:
Q136) All the Incomes and Expensees of revenue nature are credited or debited to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44664
1) Trading A/c 2) Profit & Loss A/c
3) Balance Sheet 4) Either (a) or (b)
Explanation:
Q137) Bank overdraft is shown as Marks : 1.0
Id: 44509
1) Current Liability 2) Current asset
3) Unsecured loan 4) Purchases
Explanation:
Q138) Net Profit Ratio Signifies Marks : 1.0
Id: 44568
1) Operational Profitability 2) Liquidity Position
3) Bigterm Solvency 4) Profit for Lenders.
Explanation:
Q139) Accounting principles must satisfy following condition Marks : 1.0
Id: 44640
1) Reflect future predictions 2) Simple and explanatory
3) Based on real assumptions 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q140) The entity of a business is different from its owners Assumption is from Marks : 1.0
Id: 44649
1) Business entity Assumption 2) Going concern Assumption
3) Accounting period Assumption 4) Money Measurement Assumption
Explanation:
Q141) Transactions between owner and business are recorded as per Marks : 1.0
Id: 44756
1) Periodicity. 2) Going concern.
3) Prudence 4) Business Entity.
Explanation:
Q142) If you only knew a company’s total assets and total debt, which item could you easily Marks : 1.0
calculate? Id: 44565
1) Sales 2) Depreciation
3) Total equity 4) Inventory
Explanation:
Q143) The amount or goods taken by the proprietor for his personal use is called Marks : 1.0
Id: 44580
1) Additional capital 2) Fresh capital
3) Drawings 4) Personal expenses
Explanation:
Q144) The convention that states that the accounting practice should be followed Marks : 1.0
consistently over the years Id: 44720
1) Consistency 2) Conservation
3) Materiality 4) Disclosure
Explanation:
Q145) A business has prepared its accounts for a financial year and these show a profit of Marks : 1.0
Rs. 5,00,000. What profit amount will be after considering the following items which Id: 44429
are not included in the account?
• A likely loss on a contract of Rs. 25,000
• A possible Court ruling in favour of the company which is likely to increase profits
by Rs.10,000
• A possible Court ruling against the company which could result in damages of
between Rs.5,000 to Rs.15,000.
1) Rs. 4,80,000 2) Rs. 4,60,000
3) Rs. 4,75,000 4) Rs. 5,10,000
Explanation:
Q146) Calculate total assets if total sales 270000 and assets turn over is 0.30 times Marks : 1.0
Id: 44538
1) 700000 2) 800000
3) 900000 4) 1000000
Explanation:
Q147) Under which of the following concepts are shareholders treated as creditors for the Marks : 1.0
amount they paid on the shares they subscribed to? Id: 44706
1) Cost Concept 2) Duality Concept
3) Business Entity Concept 4) Since the shareholders own the business, they
are not treated as creditors
Explanation:
Q148) If debentures are issued at a discount of 20%, the discount on issue of debentures is Marks : 1.0
shown as: Id: 44732
1) Current asset 2) Interest asset
3) Current liabilities 4) Miscellaneous expenses
Explanation:
Q149) The companies act 1956 requires that the period of at least ________month must be Marks : 1.0
there between two calls Id: 44547
1) Three 2) One
3) Two 4) Five
Explanation:
Q150) Accounting Principles represent Marks : 1.0
Id: 44524
1) A consensus at a particular time to the 2) Inviolable laws fixed by a legal board
recording of accounting transactions
3) Laws fixed by accounting expert
4) Laws fixed by the respective governments
Explanation:
Q151) Business Entity assumption is applicable to ________ type of business enterprise Marks : 1.0
Id: 44477
1) Selected 2) Unique
3) Every 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q152) Which of the following is not an objective of accounting Marks : 1.0
Id: 44587
1) To provide information on the performance of 2) To provide information on the owner’s assets,
enterprise. liabilities and capital
3) To provide information on the enterprise, 4) To maintain records of business.
assets, liabilities and capital
Explanation:
Q153) The item “Interest accrued on Investment” appears in the Balance Sheet of a Marks : 1.0
Company under the category of ____________ Id: 44544
1) Secured Loan 2) Current assets, loans and advances
3) Investments 4) Current liabilities
Explanation:
Q154) Bank A/c is an Example of_____ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44424
1) Ledger 2) Balance Sheet
3) Jounal 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q155) Calculate Current assets : Current ratio is 2.6:1 , Current Liabilities 40000 Marks : 1.0
Id: 44534
1) 104000 2) 140000
3) 114000 4) 124000
Explanation:
Q156) Stock of Rs.12,500 was destroyed by fire occurred on 31st December, 2008 in the Marks : 1.0
godown of X Ltd.. Insurance company accepted Rs.9,500 in full settlement of claim. Id: 44784
The loss on account of fire is recorded by:
1) Debiting Profit and loss account for Rs. 12,500. 2) Crediting the trading account for Rs. 12,500.
3) Debiting Profit and loss account for Rs. 3,000. 4) Both (b) and (c)
Explanation:
Q157) Creditors for goods purchased come within the category of ______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44402
1) Current liability 2) Fixed liability
3) Capital 4) Current asset
Explanation:
Q158) Long term solvency is indicated by Marks : 1.0
Id: 44574
1) Liquidity ratio 2) DebtEquity ratio
3) Interest coverage ratio 4) Return on capital employed
Explanation:
Q159) College fees of owners son paid and accounted in books, 10000, then Marks : 1.0
Id: 44499
1) profit increased by 10000 2) profits decreased by 10000
3) profits decreased by 10000 and capital 4) profits increased by 10000 and capital
increased by 10000 decreased by 10000
Explanation:
Q160) Outstanding salaries are shown as: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44626
1) Added to Salaries while preparing P & La/c 2) Shown in liability side of Balance sheet under
current Liability
3) (a) &(b) above 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q161) Which of the following statements about differences between financial and Marks : 1.0
managerial accounting is incorrect? Id: 44446
1) Managerial accounting information is prepared 2) Financial accounting is aggregated;
primarily for external parties such as managerial accounting is focused on products
stockholders and creditors; financial and departments.
accounting is directed at internal users.
3) Managerial accounting pertains to both past
and future items; financial accounting focuses
primarily on past transactions and events.
4) Financial accounting is based on generally
accepted accounting practices; managerial
accounting faces no similar constraining
factors
Explanation:
Q162) The allocation of owner's private expenses to his/her business violates which of the Marks : 1.0
following? Id: 44635
1) Accrual concept 2) Matching concept
3) Separate business entity concept 4) Consistency concept
Explanation:
Q163) Discount on issue of debentures is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44656
1) Revenue Loss to be charged in the year of 2) Capital loss to be written off from capital
issue reserve
3) Capital loss to be written off over the tenure of 4) Capital loss to be shown as goodwill
the debentures
Explanation:
Q164) The asset that can be seen and touched is ____________ asset. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44613
1) Intangible 2) Tangible
3) Business 4) Current
Explanation:
Q165) From following find out sales : Gross profit margin is 20% gross profit 54000 Marks : 1.0
Id: 44537
1) 250000 2) 260000
3) 270000 4) 280000
Explanation:
Q166) The Amount which the firm has to pay others is known as Marks : 1.0
Id: 44650
1) Assets 2) Liabilities
3) Capital 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q167) Which of the following is not an objective of Financial Accounting? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44405
1) To identify financial events and transactions 2) To ensure the effecient cost control by
that occur in an organization. communicating essential data costs at regular
intervals.
3) To measure the value of the occurrences in 4) To organize the accumulated data into
terms of money. meaningful information.
Explanation:
Q168) Loss by fire A/c is classified as _________________ A/c. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44804
1) real 2) nominal
3) personal 4) current
Explanation:
Q169) Journal book is written in which order Marks : 1.0
Id: 44496
1) Chronological order 2) As per accountant
3) As per amount 4) As per owners instructions
Explanation:
Q170) The purchase of a desk on account will increase Office Furniture and will also Marks : 1.0
increase ____. Id: 44623
1) Cash in Bank 2) Accounts Payable
3) Accounts Receivable 4) Capital
Explanation:
Q171) The capital gearing ratio is high for a company.It indicates a position of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44545
1) Low debts 2) high preference capital
3) high equity 4) low debt equity ratio
Explanation:
Q172) The whole process of classifying, summarizing, analyzing and interpreting the Marks : 1.0
results of business transaction is known as Id: 44476
1) Accounting 2) Determination
3) Recording 4) Coding
Explanation:
Q173) In Accounting 'Going Concern Concept' means ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44413
1) A firm or business is regarded as separate & 2) All business transactions are regarded as
distinct from the owner. having a dual aspect.
3) All transactions are recorded in terms of 4) Accounting is made on the assumption that a
money. business will continue in future and will use its
property in operations rather than sell them.
Explanation:
Q174) In financial accounting classification of recorded facts, with entries of one nature at Marks : 1.0
one place is done in the book called Id: 44532
1) Trial Balance 2) Journal
3) Income statement 4) Ledger
Explanation:
Q175) Whenever errors are noticed in the accounting records, they should be rectified Marks : 1.0
Id: 44750
1) At the time of preparation of the trial balance. 2) Without waiting the accounting year to end.
3) After the preparation of final accounts. 4) In the next accounting year.
Explanation:
Q176) Global Depository Receipt is an instrument for: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44672
1) Foreign direct investment 2) Public bonds
3) Foreign institutional investment 4) All of above
Explanation:
Q177) The Financial Statement reveals the following data Marks : 1.0
Id: 44420
1) Important 2) Valuable
3) Financial 4) No of these
Explanation:
Q178) If cost of goods sold is Rs.1,00,000, sales is Rs.1,25,000, closing stock is Rs.20,000, Marks : 1.0
the gross profit will be Id: 44769
1) 45000 2) 5000
3) 25000 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q179) Capital means ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44415
1) all the properties, possessions and debits 2) expenditure whose benefit has been received.
owing to a business house.
3) total amount invested in the business by the
proprietor.
4) a person who owes something.
Explanation:
Q180) Cost refer to........ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44608
1) The present value of future benefits 2) All assets which has given benefit and is now
expired
3) The value of sacrifice made to get some goods 4) All the above
or services
Explanation:
Q181) Personal Accounts means _____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44407
1) The accounts of individuals, firms, limited 2) The accounts of properties, assets or
companies, local authorities, associations with professionals of the businessman.
whom the businessman deals.
3) Accounts representing incomes and expenses
or profits and gains.
4) The accounts which relate to things other than
persons.
Explanation:
Q182) Cost Accounting is different from financial accounting in respect of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44492
1) Inventory valuation 2) Ascertainment of cost
3) Recording of cost 4) Reporting of cost
Explanation:
Q183) What is more important for every business to achieve at the earliest? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44676
1) Budgeted Sales 2) Profits
3) Break Even Point 4) Market Share
Explanation:
Q184) The areas where in different accounting policies can be adopted are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44437
1) Providing depreciation 2) Valuation of inventories
3) Valuation of investment 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q185) Calculate liquid assets Liquid Ratio is 1.5:1 Current liabilities 40000 Marks : 1.0
Id: 44535
1) 50000 2) 60000
3) 70000 4) 80000
Explanation:
Q186) Goods or amount taken by proprietor for his personal use should be debited to: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44461
1) Sales 2) Drawings
3) Purchase 4) d) Cash
Explanation:
Q187) Which of the following is an example of Capital Expenditure? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44714
1) Insurance Premium 2) Taxes and Legal expenses
3) Discount allowed 4) Customs duty on Import of Machinery
Explanation:
Q188) ''Business will always go on'' which principle describe this Marks : 1.0
Id: 38725
1) accounting period concept 2) conservatism concept
3) going concern concept 4) consistency principle
Explanation:
Q189) The document used by account holder to deposit cash/cheque in to bank is called Marks : 1.0
Id: 44460
1) Receipt 2) Voucher
3) Payinslip 4) Withdrawal slip
Explanation:
Q190) Which accounting is concerned with the collecting, recording, classification and Marks : 1.0
interpretation of financial data to serve the purpose of management. Id: 44469
1) Cost accounting. 2) Management accounting.
3) Financial accounting…… 4) Business accounting.
Explanation:
Q191) Basic assumption in accounting principles is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44501
1) Prudence 2) consistency
3) materiality 4) ongoing concern
Explanation:
Q192) Which of the following is not a conventions of financial accounting? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44493
1) Consistency 2) NonMateriality
3) Full Disclosure 4) Conservatism
Explanation:
Q193) Current Ratio is ratio of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44602
1) Current assets to total assets 2) Current Liabilities to total liabilities
3) Current assets to Current Liabilities 4) Current assets to Fixed assets
Explanation:
Q194) Goods costing Rs. 10,000 is supplied to Ram at an invoice price of 10% above cost Marks : 1.0
and a trade discount of 5%. The amount of sales is Id: 44772
1) 11000 2) 10450
3) 10500 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q195) Management accounting information Marks : 1.0
Id: 44465
1) Relates to the entity as a whole and is highly 2) Relates to subunits of the entity and may be
aggregated very detailed
3) Is prepared only once a year 4) is constrained by the requirements of
generally accepted accounting principles
Explanation:
Q196) Which account will be debited, if Mohsin commenced business with cash? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44389
1) Cash account 2) Capital account
3) Mohsin’s account 4) Drawings account
Explanation:
Q197) Office equipment was purchased for cash. What effect did this transaction have on Marks : 1.0
the financial position of the company? Id: 44788
1) Assets, no change; Liabilities, no change; 2) Assets, decrease; Liabilities, increase;
Owners' Equity, no change Owners' Equity, no change
3) Assets, increase; Liabilities, increase; Owners' 4) Assets, no change; Liabilities, no change;
Equity, no change Owners' Equity, increase
Explanation:
Q198) Overdraft is short term finance to: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44674
1) Pay income, excise and VAT 2) Repay term loan
3) Purchase capital equipments 4) Meet circulating capital requirements
Explanation:
Q199) Which type of expenditure is done for making assets? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44571
1) Revenue Expenditure 2) Deferred Revenue Expenditure
3) Capital Expenditure 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q200) Which phrase best describes the current role of the managerial accountant? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44728
1) Managerial accountants prepare the financial 2) Managerial accountants facilitate the decision
statements for an organization. making process within an organization.
3) Managerial accountants make the key 4) Managerial accountants are primarily
decisions within an organization. information collectors.
Explanation:
Q201) Financial accounting provides financial information to all of the following external Marks : 1.0
users except: Id: 44453
1) Managers 2) Government agencies
3) Creditors 4) investors
Explanation:
Q202) The Term ‘Cost’ is refer as _________ incurred to produce particular Product. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44418
1) Value 2) Expenses
3) Price 4) All of these
Explanation:
Q203) Which of the following is not an Accounting concept? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44696
1) Matching concept 2) Dual Aspect concept
3) True and Fair concept 4) Going concern concept
Explanation:
Q204) Capital expenditure is an expenditure which Marks : 1.0
Id: 44718
1) Benefits the current accounting period 2) Will benefit the next accounting period
3) Results in the acquisition of a permanent asset 4) Results in the acquisition of a current asset
Explanation:
Q205) Creating Provision against fluctuation in the price of investment is an example of Marks : 1.0
which accounting convention Id: 44523
1) Convention of conservatism 2) Convention of full disclosure
3) Convention of materiality 4) Convention of consistency
Explanation:
Q206) Debit side is greater than credit side in trading account then it is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44550
1) Loss 2) Profit
3) Balanced 4) None
Explanation:
Q207) “Inventories should be out of godown in the sequence in which they arrive” is based Marks : 1.0
on Id: 44764
1) HIFO 2) LIFO
3) FIFO 4) Weighted Average
Explanation:
Q208) How do we calculate a company’s operating cash flow? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44567
1) EBIT taxes + depreciation 2) EBIT taxes depreciation
3) EBIT + taxes + depreciation 4) EBIT Sales
Explanation:
Q209) The amount of owner's equity in a business is not affected by: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44785
1) The percentage of total assets held in cash. 2) Investments made in the business by the
owner.
3) The profitability of the business. 4) The amount of dividends paid to stockholders.
Explanation:
Q210) ignore all profit and consider for all possible losses it is a philosophy of which Marks : 1.0
convention : Id: 44455
1) conservatism 2) consisteny
3) full disclosure 4) materiality
Explanation:
Q211) The reporting standard for external financial reports is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44598
1) Industryspecific 2) Companyspecific
3) Generally accepted accounting principles 4) Departmentspecific
Explanation:
Q212) Statements: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44695
i) Dividends can be paid only when there are profits
ii) Dividends can be paid when there are losses
1) Both are correct 2) Both are incorrect
3) (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect 4) (ii) is correct and (i) is incorrect
Explanation:
Q213) A business owned by its stockholders and organized as a legal entity separate from Marks : 1.0
its stockholders is referred to as an: Id: 44600
1) partnership. 2) corporation.
3) proprietorship. 4) entrepreneurship.
Explanation:
Q214) Dividend is paid as a percentage of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44658
1) Nominal Share Capital 2) Net Profit
3) Paid up Capital 4) Called up Capital
Explanation:
Q215) Small scale industry is defined in terms of: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44673
1) Volume by production 2) Number of employees
3) Amount of investment in plant and machinery 4) Sales turnover
Explanation:
Q216) Objective of cost accounting is........... Marks : 1.0
Id: 44508
1) To keep the management fully informed about 2) To summarise the financial performance of the
the latest position of concern business for external stakeholders
3) To create a common internal global language 4) To ascertain the profitability of the activities by
in decision making controlling the cost
Explanation:
Q217) Outstanding expense term in accounting comes primarily because of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44639
1) Periodicity 2) Matching
3) Accrual 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q218) Divya purchased a computer costing Rs.10,000. Repairing expenses Rs.1,000 and Marks : 1.0
miscellaneous expenses Rs.500 were incurred by her. She sold the computer at 20% Id: 44755
margin on selling price. The sales value will be
1) 12500 2) 11000
3) 14375 4) 13800
Explanation:
Q219) Business unit is separate and distinct from the person who supply capital to it. It is Marks : 1.0
based on Id: 44662
1) Money Measurement Concept 2) Going Concern Concept
3) Business Entity Concept 4) Dual Aspect Concept
Explanation:
Q220) Which of the following best describe the Conservatism convention? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44458
1) Assets to be reported at the highest possible 2) Profits to be reported at the highest possible
values values
3) Liabilities and expenses are to be reported at 4) All anticipated losses to be reported even
the lowest possible value before they occur
Explanation:
Q221) Which accounting principle differentiates between owners and managers: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44681
1) Going concern 2) Dual aspect
3) Separate entity 4) Conservatism
Explanation:
Q222) In financial accounting, a record is made only of information that can be expressed in Marks : 1.0
monetary terms. This is known as: Id: 44629
1) Historic cost convention 2) Business entity convention
3) Dualaspect concept 4) Money measurement convention
Explanation:
Q223) Book Keeping Includes Marks : 1.0
Id: 44641
1) Recording and Classifying 2) Recording and Summarizing
3) Recording and Analysis 4) None of the above is wholly correct
Explanation:
Q224) Sole traders differ from other types of trading organizations. Which of the following Marks : 1.0
statements correctly summarizes the key characteristics of a sole trader’s business? Id: 44530
1) Liability is limited to the providers of loan 2) The trader has unlimited liability and runs the
finance and only the trader takes an active part business in conjunction with the providers of
in managing the business loan finance
3) The trader has unlimited liability and must 4) The trader has unlimited liability, takes sole
have the business accounts audited responsibility for management of the business
and no audit is needed
Explanation:
Q225) The interest on capital is ____________ of the partnership firm. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44812
1) an income 2) gain
3) an expenditure 4) an asset
Explanation:
Q226) Journal is a book of _______ entries Marks : 1.0
Id: 44560
1) Generic 2) Duplicate
3) Original 4) Secondary
Explanation:
Q227) It is essential to standardize the accounting principles and policies in order to ensure Marks : 1.0
Id: 44435
1) Transparency 2) Consistency
3) Comparability 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q228) A business is in profit, when: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44557
1) Assets exceed Expenditure 2) Income exceeds Expenditure
3) Income exceeds Liabilities 4) Income exceeds Liabilities
Explanation:
Q229) The expenses and incomes pertaining to full trading period are taken to the Profit Marks : 1.0
and Loss Account of a business, irrespective of their payment or receipt. This is in Id: 44713
recognition of
1) Time period Concept 2) Going Concern Concept
3) Accrual Concept 4) Duality Concept
Explanation:
Q230) Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a business is divided Marks : 1.0
for the purpose of preparing financial statements? Id: 44631
1) Fiscal year 2) Calendar year
3) Accounting period 4) Accrual period
Explanation:
Q231) The underlying accounting principle(s) necessitating amortization of intangible Marks : 1.0
asset(s) is/are Id: 44705
1) Cost Concept 2) Realization Concept
3) Matching Concept 4) Both (a) and (c) above
Explanation:
Q232) Matching concept means Marks : 1.0
Id: 44444
1) assets = capital –liabilities 2) Assets = Liabilities
3) period of expenses = period of income 4) source of income & expenses are same
Explanation:
Q233) The accounting equation is....... Marks : 1.0
Id: 44472
1) Net income = Net expenses – Net revenues 2) Assets = Capital – Liabilties
3) Assets = Liabilities + Capital 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q234) Which of the following combination is CORRECT for Partnership Firm? (Minimum Marks : 1.0
and Maximum members) Id: 44596
1) Minimum 2 and Maximum 50 for nonbanking 2) Minimum 2 and Maximum 20 for all types of
business business
3) Minimum 2 and Maximum 20 for banking 4) Minimum 2 and Maximum 10 for banking
business business
Explanation:
Q235) Is it true that the trial balance totals should agree? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44591
1) No, there are sometimes good reasons why 2) No, because it is not a balance sheet
they differ
3) Yes, always
4) Yes, except where the trial balance is extracted
at the year end
Explanation:
Q236) Which of the following is not an accounting convention? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44794
1) Substance over form 2) Consistency
3) Depreciation 4) Matching
Explanation:
Q237) Which of the following are of capital nature? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44742
1) Purchase of a goods 2) Cost of repair
3) Wages paid for installation of machinery 4) Rent of a factory
Explanation:
Q238) Writing of transaction in the ledger is called________________ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44752
1) Costing 2) Balancing
3) Journalizing 4) Posting
Explanation:
Q239) A new firm commenced business on 1st January, 2006 and purchased goods costing Marks : 1.0
Rs. 90,000 during the year. A sum of Rs. 6,000 was spent on carriage inwards. At the Id: 44660
end of the year the cost of goods still unsold was Rs. 12,000. Sales during the year
was Rs.1,20,000. What is the gross profit earned by the firm?
1) 36000 2) 30000
3) 42000 4) 38000
Explanation:
Q240) “Assets should be valued at the price paid to acquire them“ is based on Marks : 1.0
Id: 44436
1) Accrual concept 2) Cost concept
3) Money measurement concept 4) Realization concept
Explanation:
Q241) Which of the following is taken into account while totaling the liabilities side of the Marks : 1.0
balance sheet? Id: 44546
1) Authorized Capital 2) Issued Capital
3) Subscribed Share Capital 4) Paidup capital
Explanation:
Q242) The accounting principle which refers to tendency of accountants to resolve Marks : 1.0
uncertainty and doubt in favour of understanding assets and revenues and Id: 44441
overstating the liabilities and expenses is known as
1) Conservatism 2) Materiality
3) Consistency 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q243) All the following statements are objectives of accounting except Marks : 1.0
Id: 44759
1) Providing details about the personal assets 2) Maintaining records of business.
and liabilities of the owner.
3) Providing information about the performance
of business entity.
4) Providing information about the assets,
liabilities and capital of business entity.
Explanation:
Q244) Owners and the business are separate as per the Marks : 1.0
Id: 38728
1) Seperate entity concept 2) Dual Aspect
3) Money measurement concept 4) None
Explanation:
Q245) State the case where the going concern concept is applied? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44663
1) When an enterprise was set up for a particular 2) When a receiver or liquidator has been
purpose, which has been achieved, or to be appointed in case of as a company which is to
achieved shortly be liquidated
3) Fixed assets are acquired for use in the 4) When an enterprise is declared sick
business for earning revenues and are not
meant for resale
Explanation:
Q246) Holding all other things constant, which of the following represents a cash outflow? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44566
1) The company sells a machine 2) The company acquires inventory
3) The company receives a bank loan 4) The company increases accounts payable.
Explanation:
Q247) Which of the following records is not a book of prime entry? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44799
1) Bank statements 2) Petty cash book
3) Journal 4) Sales returns day book.
Explanation:
Q248) Concept of similar accounts being treated similarly year after year is due to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44513
1) Prudence 2) consistency
3) materiality 4) on going concern
Explanation:
Q249) Following is the external user of accounting information Marks : 1.0
Id: 44482
1) Manager 2) Creditor
3) Employee 4) Owner
Explanation:
Q250) The convention of consistency refers to consistent use of accounting principles: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44801
1) Within industries 2) Throughout the accounting period
3) Among enterprises belonging to different 4) Across accounting periods
industries
Explanation:
Q251) Payment of personal expenses of the owners of the business need to be recorded as Marks : 1.0
Id: 44760
1) Drawings 2) Liability
3) Expenses 4) None of the three.
Explanation:
Q252) Below are 4 statements: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44403
A) Vehicle used for business purpose is an asset of business,
B) Cash withdrew for personal use is drawings from business,
C) Bad debts should be deducted from debtors,
D) Interest received is expenditure.
Which of the above statements are true?
1) Statement A ONLY 2) Statements A and B
3) Statements A, B and C 4) Statements A and C
Explanation:
Q253) In Double Entry System of Bookkeeping every business transaction affects Marks : 1.0
Id: 44653
1) Two accounts 2) Two sides of the same account
3) The same account on two different dates 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q254) Three fundamental accounting assumptions are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44638
1) Going concern, accrual and dual aspect 2) Going concern, dual aspect and consistency
3) consistency, dual aspect and going concern 4) Consistency, accrual and going concern
Explanation:
Q255) While finalizing the current year’s profit, the company realized that there was an error Marks : 1.0
in the valuation of closing stock of the previous year. In the previous year, closing Id: 44740
stock was valued more by Rs.50,000. As a result
1) Previous year’s profit is overstated and 2) Previous year’s profit is understated and
current year’s profit is also overstated current year’s profit is overstated
3) Previous year’s profit is understated and 4) Previous year’s profit is overstated and
current year’s profit is also understated current year’s profit is understated
Explanation:
Q256) Which of the following does not appear under the head “Share Capital”of a Balance Marks : 1.0
Sheet. a.Preference Share Capital b.Minority interest in subsidiaries c.Equity Share Id: 44552
Capital d.Capital Reserve Account
1) a&b 2) b&c
3) c&d 4) b&d
Explanation:
Q257) Which one of the following is not an example of Intangible Assets? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44633
1) Patents and Trade Marks 2) Copyright
3) Slogan 4) Land
Explanation:
Q258) Which of the following financial statements reflects the overall financial position of Marks : 1.0
the business? Id: 44599
1) Statement of cash flows 2) Income Statement
3) Balance Sheet 4) Statement of owner’s equity
Explanation:
Q259) In Accounting 'Dual aspect Concept' means ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44411
1) A firm or business is regarded as separate & 2) All business transactions are regarded as
distinct from the owner. having a dual aspect.
3) All transactions are recorded in terms of 4) Accounting is made on the assumption that a
money. business will continue in future and will use its
property in operations rather than sell them.
Explanation:
Q260) A company has received a penalty order from excise department. Penalty imposed is Marks : 1.0
Rs. 15.00 Lacs. Order was received on 15.01.2008 and company has filed appeal on Id: 44782
10.02.2008, result of which is pending as on 31.03.2008. The company should
1) Disclose the fact in financial statements by 2) Not disclose anything
recognizing liability
3) Disclose it as contingent liability
4) Should put this matter in Board of directors
meeting
Explanation:
Q261) Salary has been paid for 11 months from April 2005 to February, 2006 amounting Marks : 1.0
Rs.22,000. The amount of outstanding salary shown in the balance sheet will be: Id: 44770
1) 1833 2) 2000
3) 1000 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q262) Every entry recorded in Journal, must be posted into Marks : 1.0
Id: 38729
1) Day Book 2) Cash Book
3) Ledger 4) Sales Books
Explanation:
Q263) After preparing the trial balance, the accountant finds that the total of a credit side is Marks : 1.0
short by RS 1500. This difference will be Id: 44549
1) Credited to suspense a/c 2) Debited to suspense a/c
3) Adjusted to any of the debit balance account 4) Adjusted to any of the credit balance account
Explanation:
Q264) Which of the following transactions represent an expense? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44431
1) The owner withdrew Rs. 1,600 from the 2) Purchased a photocopying machine for Rs.
business for personal use 2,750 cash
3) Purchased medical supplies for cash from 4) Received a telephone bill amounting to Rs. 550
Healthcare Labs. Rs. 1,630 to be paid within ten days.
Explanation:
Q265) In Accounting 'Business entity Concept' means ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44410
1) A firm or business is regarded as separate & 2) All business transactions are regarded as
distinct from the owner. having a dual aspect.
3) All transactions are recorded in terms of 4) Accounting is made on the assumption that a
money. business will continue in future and will use its
property in operations rather than sell them.
Explanation:
Q266) A business was commenced on 1st January and it purchased 5 vehicles, each Marks : 1.0
costing Rs.5000. During the year the business managed to sell 2 vehicles at the price Id: 38732
of Rs.12000. How should the remaining 3 vehicles be valued if the business is going
to continue its operations in the next year?
1) At the breakup value 2) On the basis of going concern
3) Liquidation value 4) More than market value
Explanation:
Q267) Purchases book records: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44739
1) All cash purchases. 2) All credit purchases.
3) Credit purchases of goods in trade. 4) None of the above.
Explanation:
Q268) An old furniture was purchased for Rs. 10,000 , it was repaired for Rs. 100.The repairs Marks : 1.0
account should be debited by Id: 44773
1) 10000 2) 10100
3) 100 4) NIL
Explanation:
Q269) While putting the value or price of an entity in financial records the lowest price is Marks : 1.0
recorded not the current price or current market value. This is known as........... Id: 44487
1) Business Entity Concept 2) Conservatism Concept
3) Cost Concept 4) Money Measurement Concept
Explanation:
Q270) The financial statement that reports the financial position of a business is the Marks : 1.0
Id: 44624
1) income statement. 2) balance sheet.
3) statement of cash flows. 4) footnotes to the financial statements.
Explanation:
Q271) Following is the example of external users: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44749
1) Government. 2) Owners.
3) Management. 4) Employees.
Explanation:
Q272) Retained earnings is classified as a part of — Marks : 1.0
Id: 44723
1) Owners Fund 2) Gross Block
3) Capital Working Progress 4) Stock in Trade
Explanation:
Q273) Which of the following statement is true regarding call in arrears? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44615
1) Calls in arrears are that part of called up 2) It is shown in theProfit & Loss A/c until the
capital remaining unpaid. defaulted shares are forfeited
3) The rate of interest on calls in arrears is 4) Charging of interest on calls in arrears need
chargeable at 9% p.a. if a company adopts not be permitted by the Articles of Association
Table A
Explanation:
Q274) Sold goods to Kamat for Rs. 50000 @ 2% TD & 5% CD. He paid 60% of the amount Marks : 1.0
immediately. Find the amount of cash paid by Kamat. Id: 44661
1) ` 26950 2) ` 27930
3) ` 29400 4) ` 28812
Explanation:
Q275) In financial statements of a company, Material Supplier preferably looks for....... Marks : 1.0
Id: 44595
1) Profitability of our company 2) Liquidity position of our company
3) Long Term Viability of our company 4) Fixed Asset base of our company
Explanation:
Q276) X Ltd., purchased goods for ` 5 lakh and sold 9/10th of the value of goods for ` 6 lakh. Marks : 1.0
Net expenses during the year were ` 25, 000. The company reported its net profit as ` Id: 44710
75,000. Which of the following concept is violated by the company?
1) Realization 2) Conservation
3) Matching 4) Accrual
Explanation:
Q277) The term depletion is used for Marks : 1.0
Id: 44767
1) Fixed assets. 2) Natural resources.
3) Intangible assets. 4) None of the three.
Explanation:
Q278) The market for long term loanable funds is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44692
1) Bond market 2) Money market
3) Capital market 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q279) If Assets = Rs. 98,500 and Owner's equity = Rs. 50,500 then Liabilities = ? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44590
1) 57000 2) 105700
3) 48000 4) Rs. 148, 500
Explanation:
Q280) Rent paid for owner's residence is debited to drawing account and not to rent Marks : 1.0
account , is based on which principle? Id: 44494
1) Going concern concept 2) Separate Entity concept
3) Money Measurement concept 4) Daul aspect concept
Explanation:
Q281) Calculate inventory if Cost of goods sold is 216000 and inventory turn over is 4 times Marks : 1.0
Id: 44539
1) 50000 2) 54000
3) 60000 4) 64000
Explanation:
Q282) Material Cost can be classify on the basis of Relationship as______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44427
1) Fixed & Variable 2) Direct & Indirect
3) Raw Material & WIP 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q283) “Assets should be valued at the price paid to acquire them” is based on Marks : 1.0
Id: 44763
1) Accrual concept. 2) Cost concept.
3) Money measurement concept. 4) Realisation concept.
Explanation:
Q284) Sales accounts appears on ______ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44394
1) Trading account debit side 2) P&L account credit side
3) Balancesheet asset side 4) Trading account credit side
Explanation:
Q285) Which of the following concept is not considered as basic principle of accounting? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44715
1) Logical Concept 2) Consistency Concept
3) Matching Concept 4) Materiality Concept
Explanation:
Q286) Calculate Fixed assets is 2600000 and fixed to current assets is 13:11 Marks : 1.0
Id: 44541
1) 2000000 2) 2200000
3) 2800000 4) 3000000
Explanation:
Q287) Low assets turnover may indicate Marks : 1.0
Id: 44577
1) Low assets 2) High cost of maintenance
3) Idle assets 4) Higher sales
Explanation:
Q288) Current ratio indicates Marks : 1.0
Id: 44606
1) amount of cash with company 2) Ability to repay debt installment
3) Capacity to meet current Liabilities 4) Non of above
Explanation:
Q289) From the accounting point of view, loss means Marks : 1.0
Id: 44719
1) Increase in Liability 2) Decrease in asset
3) Increase in owner’s equity 4) Decrease in Owner’s equity
Explanation:
Q290) The account Accounts Receivable is an example of a(n) ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44521
1) asset 2) liability
3) owner's equity 4) none of the above
Explanation:
Q291) External liabilities plus capital is equal to ______________. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44809
1) assets 2) net worth
3) net profit 4) gross profit
Explanation:
Q292) Which of the following is not a function of Cost Accounting ? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44724
1) Cost ascertainment 2) Planning and control
3) Decisionmaking 4) External reporting
Explanation:
Q293) A list of assets, liabilities and owner's equity of a business enterprise as of a specific Marks : 1.0
date is: Id: 44781
1) Income Statement 2) Cash Flow Statement
3) Balance sheet. 4) Profit and Loss Account
Explanation:
Q294) Sunk costs are: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44620
1) usually relevant 2) costs that will occur in the future.
3) not relevant. 4) costs that can be avoided.
Explanation:
Q295) Cost information facilitates many important decisions except : Marks : 1.0
Id: 44726
1) Introduction of a product 2) Whether to make or buy
3) Retention of profit 4) Exploration of an additional market
Explanation:
Q296) Which of the following statements is false? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44731
1) Issued capital can never be more than 2) In case of under subscription, issued capital
authorized capital will be less than the subscribed capital
3) Uncalled capital may be converted into reserve 4) Paid up capital is equal to called up capital
capital less calls in arrears
Explanation:
Q297) Reporting on the performance of the firm to essential external users is done through Marks : 1.0
which type of accounting: Id: 44485
1) Managerial accounting 2) Financial accounting
3) Internal accounting 4) Cost accounting
Explanation:
Q298) A bank that offers wide range of financial services including commercial and Marks : 1.0
investment banking is termed as Id: 44669
1) Universal Bank 2) Unit Bank
3) Multinational Bank 4) Merchant Bank
Explanation:
Q299) Depreciation of Fixed Assets is an example of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44665
1) Deferred Revenue Expenditure 2) Revenue Expenditure
3) Capital Expenditure 4) Capital Receipts
Explanation:
Q300) All the following statements are objective of accounting except Marks : 1.0
Id: 44517
1) Providing information about the assets, 2) Maintaining records of business
liabilities and capital of business entity
3) Providing information about the performance
of business entity
4) Providing details about the personal assets
and liability of the owner
Explanation:
Q301) Which of the following term is used to represent the proportionate relationship Marks : 1.0
between debt and equity ? Id: 44698
1) Cost of Capital 2) Capital Budgeting
3) Assets Structure 4) Capital Structure
Explanation:
Q302) In Bookkeeping only ____________ transactions are recorded. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44611
1) Monetary 2) Nonmonetary
3) Monetary & Nonmonetary 4) Private
Explanation:
Q303) Provision for bad debt is made as per the Marks : 1.0
Id: 44712
1) Entity Concept 2) Conservatism Concept
3) Cost Concept 4) Going Concern Concept
Explanation:
Q304) Accounting is defined as? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44474
1) An art of recording, classifying and 2) A systematic and regular record of events
summarizing in a significant manner and in clear financial picture
terms of money, transactions and events
which are in part at least, of a financial
character and interpreting the results thereof. 3) A method of ascertaining profits & loss
4) Noting but book keeping
Explanation:
Q305) The bonds that are issued at heavy discount and pay no interest but are redeemable Marks : 1.0
at par at future date are Id: 44670
1) Convertible debentures 2) Green bonds
3) Zero Coupon Bonds 4) Govt. Security Bonds
Explanation:
Q306) Maximum __________ persons are required to form a partnership having trading Marks : 1.0
business. Id: 44815
1) 15 2) 8
3) 12 4) 20
Explanation:
Q307) Management Accounting seeks to serve the purpose of management to run a Marks : 1.0
business more efficiently and thus uses the techniques of : Id: 44725
1) Financial Accounting 2) Cost Accounting
3) Mathematics and Statistics 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q308) According to which of the following accounting principles, the owners of the Marks : 1.0
business are considered as creditors? Id: 44691
1) Money measurement 2) Separate Entity
3) Dual Aspect 4) Cost
Explanation:
Q309) A business's assets are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44625
1) equal to liabilities minus stockholders' equity. 2) the economic resources of the business.
3) Reported at current cost. 4) Reported on the income statement.
Explanation:
Q310) Which of the following transactions would increase Cash and cash equivalents and Marks : 1.0
increase Noncurrent liabilities? Id: 44628
1) A bank loan 2) Payment to a supplier
3) Purchasing goods on credit 4) Payment from a customer
Explanation:
Q311) Credit purchases entered in cash book it is called which error Marks : 1.0
Id: 44500
1) errors of omission 2) error of commission
3) compensation error 4) error of principle
Explanation:
Q312) comes in is to be debited, what goes out is to be credited. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44525
1) Rules of Personal 2) Rules of Real
3) Rules of Nominal 4) All of these
Explanation:
Q313) Managerial accounting information is generally prepared for Marks : 1.0
Id: 44473
1) Shareholders 2) Creditors
3) Regulatory agencies 4) Management
Explanation:
Q314) Financial Accounting ends with Marks : 1.0
Id: 44735
1) Preparation of Financial Statements 2) Preparation of Trial Balance
3) Preparation of P& L A/c 4) Preparation of Balance Sheet
Explanation:
Q315) Which one of the following qualities of useful accounting information requires such Marks : 1.0
information to (1) be capable of influencing a decision, (2) be timely, and (3) have Id: 44737
predictive and/or feedback value?
1) Understandable 2) Relevant
3) Reliable 4) Verifiable
Explanation:
Q316) Outstanding salary account is: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44768
1) Real account 2) Personal account
3) Nominal account 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q317) Sales are equal to: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44527
1) Cost of goods sold + gross profit 2) Cost of goods sold gross profit
3) Gross profit Cost of goods sold 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q318) Withdrawals by proprietor would Marks : 1.0
Id: 44717
1) Reduce both Assets and Owner’s Equity 2) Reduce Assets and increase Liabilities
3) Reduce Owner’s Equity and increase 4) Have no affect on the Balance Sheet
Liabilities
Explanation:
Q319) What are the considerations in designing the capital structure of a company Marks : 1.0
Id: 44677
1) Trading on equity 2) Cost of capital
3) Profitability 4) All of above
Explanation:
Q320) Which of the following would NOT be a goal of external users reading a company’s Marks : 1.0
financial statement? Id: 44396
1) Understanding the current financial state of 2) Assessing the company's contribution to
the company social and environmental policies
3) Predicting the company's future financial 4) Evaluating the company's ability to generate
performance cash from sales
Explanation:
Q321) Which of the following is not an asset ? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44609
1) Land and Building 2) Sundry Debtors
3) Loan from Shri Kulkarni 4) Cash balance
Explanation:
Q322) Accounting means recording of _________________ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44647
1) Transactions 2) Events
3) Both (a) and (b) 4) Neither (a) nor (b)
Explanation:
Q323) Bank overdraft is shown as a Marks : 1.0
Id: 44586
1) Current liability 2) Fixed asset
3) Contingent liability 4) Current asset
Explanation:
Q324) Which of the following is not an example of intangible assets? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44588
1) Patents 2) Plant & Machinery
3) Franchise rights 4) Goodwill
Explanation:
Q325) The charging of depreciation expense over the life of an asset rather than the Marks : 1.0
immediate full expensing of its costs is an example of: Id: 44800
1) Reliability 2) Consistency
3) Prudence 4) Matching
Explanation:
Q326) Accounting means_________ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44417
1) Summarizing the Business transactions 2) Recording of business transactions.
3) identifying& Communicating economic 4) All of these
information
Explanation:
Q327) Normally, the following accounts are balanced Marks : 1.0
Id: 44440
1) Real a/c and nominal a/c 2) Personal a/c and real a/c
3) Only nominal a/c 4) All a/c
Explanation:
Q328) If Cost of goods sold is Rs.80,700, Opening stock Rs.5,800 and Closing stock Marks : 1.0
Rs.6,000. Then the amount of purchase will be Id: 44743
1) 80500 2) 74900
3) 74700 4) 80900
Explanation:
Q329) The financial statement that shows the financial position of an enterprise at a Marks : 1.0
particular point in time is the: Id: 44630
1) Explanatory notes to the financial statements 2) Statement of changes in equity
3) Balance sheet 4) Cash flow statement
Explanation:
Q330) On 31st march while closing accounts COGS=35000, closing stock 8000/, opening Marks : 1.0
stock 10000/ purchase returns 5000/ then cost of goods purchased is Id: 44498
1) 35000 2) 38000
3) 5000 4) 27000
Explanation:
Q331) The functions planning and forecasting are attributed to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44481
1) Cost Accounting 2) Financial Accounting
3) Management Accounting 4) Book Keeping
Explanation:
Q332) Outstanding salaries are shown as _____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44392
1) An expense 2) A liability
3) An asset 4) An income
Explanation:
Q333) Accounting Starts where Marks : 1.0
Id: 44648
1) Book keeping ends 2) Business ends
3) Accounting period ends 4) None of above
Explanation:
Q334) If a business suffers a loss, the _________ of the proprietor decreases. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44612
1) Profit 2) Drawings
3) Capital 4) Expenditure
Explanation:
Q335) If the Going Concern concept is no longer valid, which of the following is true? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44704
1) All prepaid assets would be completely 2) Total contributed Capital and Retained
writtenoff immediately Earnings would remain unchanged
3) Intangible Assets would continue to be carried 4) Land held as an Investment would be valued at
at net Amortized historical cost its realizable value
Explanation:
Q336) Which of the following is a noncurrent liability? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44780
1) Bills Payable 2) Sundry Creditors
3) Bank Overdraft 4) Long term Loans
Explanation:
Q337) A company forfeited 2,000 shares of Rs.10 each (which were issued at par) held by Marks : 1.0
Mr. John for nonpayment of allotment money of Rs.4 per share. The calledup value Id: 44745
per share was Rs.9. They were reissued as fully paid to Mr. Mathews for Rs. 7. What
is the profit on reissue of shares to the company?
1) 2000 2) 4000
3) 6000 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q338) Accounting records Marks : 1.0
Id: 44471
1) Qualitative aspects of business 2) Economic aspects of business
3) Financial aspects of business 4) Quantitative aspects of business
Explanation:
Q339) For assessing future market value of company it is best to depend on Marks : 1.0
Id: 44607
1) turn over ratios 2) Earning ratios
3) profitability ratios 4) Liquidity ratios
Explanation:
Q340) The rent paid to the landlord should be debited to _____________ A/c. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44808
1) rent 2) drawings
3) cash 4) land
Explanation:
Q341) Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of financial accounting Marks : 1.0
in a limited liability company? Id: 44531
1) To assist in the daytoday management of the 2) To enable the business to pay the correct
company amount of tax
3) To ensure that the business pays the correct 4) To help the directors discharge their
dividend obligations to the shareholders
Explanation:
Q342) At the end of the accounting period the provision is made for the amount outstanding Marks : 1.0
for the electricity that has been consumed during the said period the statement is Id: 44445
based on
1) accrual concept 2) matching
3) realization 4) money measurement
Explanation:
Q343) The accounting equation can be expressed as which of the following? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44787
1) Assets plus liabilities equal owners' equity 2) Assets plus owners' equity equals liabilities
3) Assets equal liabilities plus owners' equity 4) Either A or C
Explanation:
Q344) Which financial statement can be compared to a still photograph: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44693
1) Income statement 2) Balance sheet
3) Cash flow statement 4) Fund flow statement
Explanation:
Q345) The separate entity concept is applicable to which of following types of businesses? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44484
1) Partnership 2) Sole proprietorship
3) Corporation 4) All the above
Explanation:
Q346) Overstating ending inventory will understate: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44798
1) assets. 2) cost of goods sold.
3) net income. 4) owner's equity.
Explanation:
Q347) According to schedule VI Companies Act which item is not shown on Asset side of Marks : 1.0
Balance sheet Id: 44627
1) Investment 2) Current Loan & Advances
3) Provision 4) Lease Holds
Explanation:
Q348) What is the order in which the accounting transactions and events are recorded in Marks : 1.0
the books? Id: 44778
1) Journal, Subsidiary books, Ledger, Balance 2) Ledger, Journal, Ledger, Balance sheet , Profit
sheet , Profit and loss account. and loss account
3) Journal, Ledger, Profit and loss account, 4) Profit and loss account, Ledger, Balance
Balance sheet . sheet, Journal.
Explanation:
Q349) Management Accounting Reports Can Be Described As Marks : 1.0
Id: 44504
1) GeneralPurpose 2) MacroReports
3) SpecialPurpose 4) Classified Financial Statements
Explanation:
Q350) Double entry bookkeeping was fathered by: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44502
1) F.W.Taylor 2) Henry Fayol
3) Lucas Pacioli. 4) Peter Drucker
Explanation:
Q351) A very high current ratio indicates Marks : 1.0
Id: 44548
1) High efficiency 2) flabby inventory
3) position of more short term funds 4) B or C
Explanation:
Q352) For which step of accounting process the accountants of business entity prepare Marks : 1.0
financial statements? Id: 44533
1) Identification of economic event 2) Communication of financial information
3) Recording financial information 4) Making decisions about business
Explanation:
Q353) A expense that gives benefit for a period of less than twelve months is known as Marks : 1.0
Id: 44589
1) Capital Expense 2) Deferred Expense
3) Revenue Receipt 4) Revenue Expense
Explanation:
Q354) Which of the following is false regarding the balance sheet? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44734
1) The accounts shown on a balance sheet does 2) The retained earnings balance shown on the
not represent the basic accounting equation balance sheet must agree with the ending
for a particular business entity. retained earnings balance shown on the
statement of retained earnings.
3) The balance sheet reports the changes in 4) The balance sheet reports the amount of
specific account balances over a period of assets, liabilities, and stockholders’ equity of
time. an accounting entity at a point in time.
Explanation:
Q355) Wages paid for installation of machinery should be debited to: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44462
1) Wages 2) Machinery
3) Cash 4) Installatio
Explanation:
Q356) When units produce increase, total variable costs ______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44386
1) Increase in proportion of units produced 2) Increase at a greater rate than units produced
3) Increase at a lesser rate than units produced 4) Do not change
Explanation:
Q357) Rs.5,000 was spent by Mrs. Saroj for addition to machinery in order to increase the Marks : 1.0
production capacity. The amount is: Id: 44771
1) Capital in nature. 2) Deferred revenue in nature.
3) Revenue in nature. 4) Liability in nature.
Explanation:
Q358) The main focus of managerial accounting is: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44520
1) decision making. 2) the preparation of financial statements.
3) the preparation of budgets. 4) documenting cash flows.
Explanation:
Q359) Management accounting involves Marks : 1.0
Id: 44443
1) Recording of costs 2) Recording of transactions
3) Preparation of financial statement 4) Analysis and interpretation of data
Explanation:
Q360) Accounting has certain norms to be observed by the accountants in recording of Marks : 1.0
transactions and preparation of financial statements. These norms reduce the Id: 44666
vagueness and chances of misunderstanding by harmonizing the varied accounting
practices. These norms are
1) Accounting Regulations 2) Accounting Guidance Notes
3) Accounting Standards 4) Accounting Framework
Explanation:
Q361) If the realized collection period is more than term of trade it can be said that Marks : 1.0
Id: 44576
1) Collection job is poor 2) The quality of debtor is poor
3) Average daily sales are low 4) both A& B above
Explanation:
Q362) In cost sheet Carriage outward cost relates with______ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44423
1) Selling &Distribution 2) Prime Cost
3) direct Material cost 4) Factory Cost
Explanation:
Q363) Which of the following concepts assumes that a business will last indefinitely? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44716
1) Business Entity 2) Going Concern
3) Periodicity 4) Consistency
Explanation:
Q364) The short term solvency ratio is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44779
1) Current Ratio 2) Proprietory Ratio
3) Net Profit Ratio 4) Debtors Turnvover Ratio
Explanation:
Q365) Conservatism principle says Marks : 1.0
Id: 38726
1) Anticipate losses not profit 2) Anticipate profit
3) Anticipate profit and losses 4) None
Explanation:
Q366) Calculate debtors if credit sales are 216000 and debtors turn over is 18 Marks : 1.0
Id: 44540
1) 12000 2) 15000
3) 18000 4) 20000
Explanation:
Q367) Under which form of business are the owners directly responsible for the debts of Marks : 1.0
the business? Id: 44792
1) Sole proprietorship 2) Partnership
3) A and B 4) Corporation
Explanation:
Q368) The assumption that the business enterprise would not be sold or liquidated in the Marks : 1.0
near future is known as the Id: 44449
1) Conservatism 2) Materiality
3) Going concern 4) Matching
Explanation:
Q369) Financial statements for external users can be described as Marks : 1.0
Id: 44468
1) Userspecific 2) Generalpurpose
3) Specialpurpose 4) Specialpurpose
Explanation:
Q370) As per the Double entry concept Marks : 1.0
Id: 44701
1) Assets+ Liabilities = Capital 2) Capital = Assets – Liabilities
3) Capital – Liabilities = Assets 4) Capital + Assets = Liabilities
Explanation:
Q371) A land purchased at a price of Rs. 5,00,000 has a market value of Rs 10,00,000. While Marks : 1.0
recording in the books of accounts it is shown at the purchase price of Rs 5,00,000 Id: 44495
This is the application of which principle?
1) Separate entity concept 2) Historical cost concept
3) Principle of conservatism 4) Materiality concept
Explanation:
Q372) Fundamental accounting assumptions are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44637
1) Materiality 2) Business entity
3) Going concern 4) Dual aspect
Explanation:
Q373) Assets Less Liabilities = ___________. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44579
1) Drawings 2) Capital
3) Profit 4) Loss
Explanation:
Q374) Which account is the odd one out? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44652
1) Office Furniture & Equipment 2) Freehold Land and Buildings
3) Stock of raw materials 4) Plant and Machinery
Explanation:
Q375) Purchases of raw materials for cash results in Marks : 1.0
Id: 44651
1) No change in Current Assets 2) Increase in Assets
3) Decrease in capital 4) Decrease in Liabilities
Explanation:
Q376) A second hand car is purchased for Rs. 10,000, the amount of Rs. 1,000 is spent on Marks : 1.0
its repairs, Rs. 500 is incurred to get the car registered in owner’s name and Rs. 1,200 Id: 44744
is paid as dealer’s commission. The amount debited to car account will be
1) 10000 2) 10500
3) 11500 4) 12700
Explanation:
Q377) A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, plus long Marks : 1.0
distance charges, would be classified as a: Id: 44479
1) Variable cost 2) Committed fixed cost
3) Direct cost 4) Semi variable cost
Explanation:
Q378) Management accounting information is generally prepared for Marks : 1.0
Id: 44464
1) Shareholders 2) Creditors
3) Managers 4) Regulatory agencies
Explanation:
Q379) Which of the following is a liability Marks : 1.0
Id: 44610
1) Motor Vehicles 2) Machinery
3) Creditors for goods 4) Cash at Bank
Explanation:
Q380) Drawings A/c is classified as __________________ A/c. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44807
1) Real 2) Nominal
3) Personal 4) Impersonal
Explanation:
Q381) The basic concepts related to Balance Sheet are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44699
1) Cost Concept 2) Business Entity Concept
3) Accounting Period Concept 4) Both (a) and (b) above
Explanation:
Q382) When money is withdrawn from bank, the bank: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44783
1) Credits Customer’s Account 2) Credit and debit Customers Account
3) Debits Customers Account 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q383) Revenue from sale of products, is generally, realized in the period in which Marks : 1.0
Id: 44746
1) Cash is collected. 2) Sale is made.
3) Products are manufactured. 4) None of the above.
Explanation:
Q384) Which is the non monetory transaction? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44414
1) Payment of wages of Rs.500 to a worker. 2) Ramesh gives his cycle to his friend Suresh
for a single day use.
3) Ramesh gives his cycle to his friend Suresh on 4) Shankar gives his bullock to gopal in
hire basis for a day. exchange of horse.
Explanation:
Q385) The company collected an account receivable of Rs.4,200. What effect did this Marks : 1.0
transaction have on the financial position of the company? Id: 44791
1) Assets, no change; Liabilities, no change; 2) Assets, decrease; Liabilities, increase;
Owners' Equity, no change Owners' Equity, no change
3) Assets, increase; Liabilities, increase; Owners' 4) Assets, decrease; Liabilities, no change;
Equity, no change Owners' Equity, decrease
Explanation:
Q386) If sales are Rs. 2,000 and the rate of gross profit on cost of goods sold is 25%, then Marks : 1.0
the cost of goods sold will be Id: 44748
1) 2000 2) 1500
3) 1600 4) None of the above.
Explanation:
Q387) What will be debited, if Arun commenced business with cash? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44559
1) Capital account 2) Proprietor account
3) Cash account 4) Drawings account
Explanation:
Q388) Periodical ascertainment of profit helps in judging the______ of a business unit. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44581
1) Profit 2) Capability
3) Performance 4) Accuracy
Explanation:
Q389) Which of the following is not the financial statement Marks : 1.0
Id: 44510
1) Profit & Loss account 2) Trial Balance
3) Profit & Loss appropriation account 4) Balance sheet
Explanation:
Q390) Sweat equity shares are equity shares issued by a company to its ____________. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44814
1) debtors 2) creditors
3) employees 4) lenders
Explanation:
Q391) Cost = Material+_______+Expenses Marks : 1.0
Id: 44422
1) Overhead 2) Direct Exp
3) Labour 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q392) The immediate recognition of loss is supported by the concept/convention of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44805
1) materiality 2) objective
3) consistency 4) conservatism
Explanation:
Q393) Which of the following regarding retained earnings is false? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44398
1) Retained earnings is increased by net income 2) Retained earnings is a component of
stockholders' equity on the balance sheet
3) Retained earnings is an asset on the balance 4) Retained earnings represents earnings not
sheet distributed to stockholders in the form of
dividends
Explanation:
Q394) As a gesture of goodwill, office supplies of Rs.1,000 were sold to a neighboring Marks : 1.0
business that paid cash for the supplies. What effect did this transaction have on the Id: 44790
financial position of the company?
1) Assets, no change; Liabilities, no change; 2) Assets, decrease; Liabilities, increase;
Owners' Equity, no change Owners' Equity, no change
3) Assets, increase; Liabilities, increase; Owners' 4) Assets, decrease; Liabilities, no change;
Equity, no change Owners' Equity, decrease
Explanation:
Q395) A company at the start of a financial period had a provision for doubtful debts of Marks : 1.0
Rs.7,000. By the end of the year the provision for doubtful debts was Rs.5,000. The Id: 44397
relevant entry in the profit and loss account would be:
1) Profit decreases by Rs. 2,000 2) Profit decreases by Rs. 5,000
3) Profit decreases by Rs. 12,000 4) Profit increases by Rs. 2,000
Explanation:
Q396) Omission of paise and showing the round figures in financial statements is based on Marks : 1.0
Id: 44709
1) Conservatism Concept 2) Consistency Concept
3) Materiality Concept 4) Realization Concept
Explanation:
Q397) Accounting has certain norms to be observed by the accountant in recording of Marks : 1.0
transaction and preparation of financial statement. These norms reduce the Id: 44438
vagueness and chance of misunderstanding the varied accounting practices. These
norms are
1) Accounting standards 2) Accounting frame work
3) Accounting regulation 4) Accounting guidance notes
Explanation:
Q398) Sales are equal to _____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44391
1) Cost of goods sold + Profit 2) Cost of goods sold Gross Profit
3) Gross Profit – Cost of goods sold 4) Gross profit – net profit
Explanation:
Q399) Which of the following have some similarities? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44486
1) Financial Accounting & Management 2) Cost Accounting and Management Accounting
Accounting
3) Financial Accounting & Cost Accounting
4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q400) The long term solvency position are measured by Marks : 1.0
Id: 44601
1) Coverage Ratio 2) Earning Ratio
3) Structural Ratios 4) Both A&C
Explanation:
Q401) Which of the following should NOT be called ‘Sales’? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44593
1) Goods sold for cash 2) Goods sold on credit
3) Sale of item previously included in ‘Purchases’ 4) Office fixtures sold
Explanation:
Q402) What is the minimum number of partners required to commence a partnership Marks : 1.0
business? Id: 44558
1) 20 2) 4
3) 10 4) 2
Explanation:
Q403) Statements: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44687
i. Agency theory relates to the relationship between management and employees
ii. Agency theory relates to middlemen
1) Both are correct 2) Both are incorrect
3) (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect 4) (ii) is correct and (i) is incorrect
Explanation:
Q404) Furniture for a cloth dealer is a ______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44390
1) Wasting Asset 2) Current Asset
3) Current Liability 4) Fixed Asset
Explanation:
Q405) The information provided in the annual financial statements of an enterprise pertain Marks : 1.0
to Id: 44757
1) Business Industry. 2) Individual business entity.
3) Economy. 4) None of the three.
Explanation:
Q406) Mr. A purchased a machinery costing `1,00,000 on 1st October, 2005. Transportation Marks : 1.0
and installation charges were incurred amounting `10,000 and ` 4,000 respectively. Id: 44659
Market value of the machine was estimated at ` 1,20,000 on 31st March 2006. While
finalising the annual accounts, A values the machinery at ` 1,20,000 in his books.
Which of the following concepts was violated by A?
1) Historical Cost Concept 2) Matching Concept
3) Realization Concept 4) Periodicity Concept
Explanation:
Q407) Four accounts are given below: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44404
A) Sales Account, B) Interest Account, C) Rent Account, D) Furniture Account.
Which of the above is/ are NOT nominal accounts?
1) Option D ONLY 2) Option A ONLY
3) Options A, B and C 4) Options A and C
Explanation:
Q408) Prepaid expenses are ______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44395
1) Assets of business 2) Liabilities of business
3) Expenses of business 4) Earnings for business
Explanation:
Q409) Which of the following is not a subfield of accounting? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44516
1) Management accounting 2) Cost accounting
3) Financial accounting 4) Book keeping
Explanation:
Q410) A person sells goods to another on credit basis then he becomes what for business: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44459
1) Creditor 2) Debtor
3) Both of above 4) None of above
Explanation:
Q411) All the expenditures and receipts of revenue nature go to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44751
1) Trading account. 2) Profit and loss account.
3) Balance sheet. 4) Either to (a) or (b)
Explanation:
Q412) The main purpose of cost accounting is to : Marks : 1.0
Id: 44727
1) Maximize profits 2) Help in inventory valuation
3) Provide information to management for 4) Aid in the fixation of selling price
decision making
Explanation:
Q413) __________ is the art of recording, classifying and summarizing the transactions and Marks : 1.0
events of a business and interpreting the results thereof. Id: 44388
1) Management 2) Accounting
3) Auditing 4) Bookkeeping
Explanation:
Q414) Which of the following is a source of own long term finance? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44686
1) Share capital 2) Term loan
3) Debentures 4) Bank credit
Explanation:
Q415) P & L Account is prepared for a period of one year by following Marks : 1.0
Id: 44703
1) Consistency Concept 2) Conservatism Concept
3) Accounting Period Concept 4) Cost Concept
Explanation:
Q416) Which of the following is an example of current asset Marks : 1.0
Id: 44585
1) Long term loan 2) Accounts payable
3) Land and building 4) Accounts receivable
Explanation:
Q417) Which of the following practices is not in consonance with the convention of Marks : 1.0
conservatism? Id: 44707
1) Creating Provision for Bad debts 2) Creating Provision for Discount on Creditors
3) Creating Provision for Discount on Debtors 4) Creating Provision for tax
Explanation:
Q418) Office equipment was purchased by issuing a check for Rs.5,000 and a bills payable Marks : 1.0
for the balance of Rs.45,000. What effect did this transaction have on the financial Id: 44789
position of the company?
1) Assets, no change; Liabilities, no change; 2) Assets, decrease; Liabilities, increase;
Owners' Equity, no change Owners' Equity, no change
3) Assets, increase; Liabilities, increase; Owners' 4) Assets, decrease; Liabilities, no change;
Equity, no change Owners' Equity, decrease
Explanation:
Q419) Notes to the financial statements about law suits, pledged assets, contractual Marks : 1.0
commitments, and due dates on large liabilities that help the users interpret the Id: 44793
financial statements are required under an important generally accepted accounting
principle (GAAP) known as which of the following?
1) Window dressing 2) Disclosure
3) Goingconcern 4) Cost
Explanation:
Q420) The going concern concept assumes that Marks : 1.0
Id: 44634
1) The entity continue running for foreseeable 2) The entity continue running until the end of
future accounting period
3) The entity will close its operating in 10 years 4) The entity can't be liquidated
Explanation:
Q421) Management Accounting is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44491
1) Extension of Financial Accounting 2) Extension of Financial Management
3) Accounting for Management 4) Concerned with the provision of information to
people within the organization to help them to
make better decisions
Explanation:
Q422) In financial accounting _______ is prepared for the calculation of business income Marks : 1.0
Id: 44582
1) Trading A/C 2) Balance sheet
3) Profit & Loss A/C 4) Fund flow statement
Explanation:
Q423) Match the following: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44680
1) Matching principle i. Ignores future profit estimates
2) Materiality principle ii. Normal basis for valuing assets
3) Conservatism principle iii. Revenues and expenses of a particular period
4) Cost principle iv. Relates to relative size or importance of item or event
1) [ 1 – i], [2 – ii], [3 – iii], [4 – iv] 2) [1 ii ], [2 i], [3 iv], [4 iii]
3) [1 iv ], [2 i], [3 ii], [4 iii ] 4) [1 iii], [2 iv], [3 i], [4 ii]
Explanation:
Q424) Management accounting and cost accounting are.... Marks : 1.0
Id: 44442
1) Supplementary to each other 2) Complementary to each other
3) Dependent of each other 4) Opposite of each other
Explanation:
Q425) Prepaid insurance premium should be classified as a : Marks : 1.0
Id: 44519
1) Current asset. 2) Fictitious asset.
3) Noncurrent asset. 4) None of the above.
Explanation:
Q426) Which of the following is a perfect Accounting Process? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44490
1) Identification of Transaction – Preparation of 2) Preparation of Business Documents –
Business Documents – Recording of Identification of Transaction – Recording of
Transaction in Journal – Posting to Ledger – Transaction in Journal – Posting to Ledger –
Preparation of Unadjusted Trial Balance – Preparation of Unadjusted Trial Balance –
Passing Adjusting Entries – Preparation of Passing Adjusting Entries – Preparation of
Adjusted Trial Balance – Preparation of Adjusted Trial Balance – Preparation of
Financial Statements Financial Statements
3) Preparation of Unadjusted Trial Balance – 4) Identification of Transaction – Preparation of
Identification of Transaction – Preparation of Business Documents – Preparation of
Business Documents – Recording of Unadjusted Trial Balance – Passing Adjusting
Transaction in Journal – Posting to Ledger – Entries – Recording of Transaction in Journal
Passing Adjusting Entries – Preparation of – Posting to Ledger – Preparation of Adjusted
Adjusted Trial Balance – Preparation of Trial Balance – Preparation of Financial
Financial Statements Statements
Explanation:
Q427) Which of the following accounting information is correct? Marks : 1.0
Id: 38722
1) Assests=Liabilities+capital 2) Assests=Liabilities
3) Assests=Liabilitiescapital 4) None
Explanation:
Q428) A company is said to be multinational if: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44671
1) Production and marketing are done in many 2) Domestically produced items are sold round
countries the world
3) Workers are hired from all countries 4) Raw materials are acquired from many
countries
Explanation:
Q429) It is generally assumed that business will not liquidate in the near foreseeable future Marks : 1.0
because of Id: 44646
1) Periodicity 2) Materiality
3) Matching 4) Going concern
Explanation:
Q430) Accrued expenses affects: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44797
1) assets and expenses. 2) liabilities and revenues.
3) assets and revenues. 4) expenses and liabilities.
Explanation:
Q431) Interest on drawings in normal course is calculated for Marks : 1.0
Id: 44617
1) 12 months 2) 6 months
3) 6.5 months 4) 5 months
Explanation:
Q432) Current ratio is used to assess Marks : 1.0
Id: 44575
1) Effective utilization of capital 2) Application of debt
3) Liquidity position 4) Levels of inventory
Explanation:
Q433) Which of the following account need to prepare separately in Partnership? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44594
1) Trading Account 2) Profit & Loss Account / Income Statement
3) Capital Account 4) Assets Account
Explanation:
Q434) Modern Method of Accounting was introduced by Marks : 1.0
Id: 44802
1) R.N.Carter 2) Luco Pacioli
3) J.R. Batlibai 4) M.S. Gosav
Explanation:
Q435) A business has the following items in it: Owners equity Rs.600,000 Total liabilities Marks : 1.0
Rs.1,400,000. Assets.What is the value of Assets…………… Id: 44522
1) 600000 2) 1400000
3) 2000000 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q436) Nominal Accounts means ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44408
1) The accounts of individuals, firms, limited 2) The accounts of properties, assets or
companies, local authorities, associations with professionals of the businessman.
whom the businessman deals.
3) Accounts representing incomes and expenses
or profits and gains.
4) The accounts which relate to things other than
persons.
Explanation:
Q437) The Final Accounts (or Financial Statements) of a Sole Trader comprise Marks : 1.0
Id: 38730
1) b, c and d 2) Trading Account
3) Profit and Loss Account 4) Balance Sheet
Explanation:
Q438) Internal users of accounting information are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44475
1) Owners 2) Creditors
3) Management 4) Government
Explanation:
Q439) _____ Discount is not recorded in the books of Accounts. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44426
1) Cash 2) Trade
3) Both A & B 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q440) Which of the following items can be found on an income statement? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44564
1) Accounts receivable 2) Longterm debt
3) Sales 4) Inventory
Explanation:
Q441) An assets liquidity measures Marks : 1.0
Id: 44603
1) Its potential to generate a profit 2) its usefulness to organization
3) Its ease and cost of being converted into cash 4) Proportion of Equity financing
Explanation:
Managerial Accounting (101)
4. Imputed cost is a .
A. notional cost.
B. real cost.
C. normal cost.
D. variable cost.
ANSWER: A
10. Multiple costing is a technique of using two or more costing methods for ascertainment of cost by.
A. the same firm.
B. the several firms.
C. the same industry.
D. the several industries.
ANSWER: A
11. Wages paid to a labour who was engaged in production activities can be termed as.
A. direct cost.
B. indirect cost.
C. sunk cost.
D. imputed cost.
ANSWER: A
12. The cost which is to be incurred even when a business unit is closed is a.
A. imputed cost.
B. historical cost.
C. sunk cost.
D. shutdown cost
ANSWER: D
B. factory cost.
C. labour cost.
D. cost of goods sold.
ANSWER: B
19. Which one of the following is not considered for preparation of cost sheet?
A. Factory cost.
B. Goodwill written off.
C. Selling cost.
D. Labour cost.
ANSWER: B
31. The ratios which reflect managerial efficiency in handling the assets is.
A. turnover ratios
B. profitability ratios.
C. short term solvency ratio.
D. long term solvency ratio.
ANSWER: A
32. he ratios which reveal the final result of the managerial policies and performance is .
A. turnover ratios.
B. profitability ratios.
C. short term solvency ratio.
D. long term solvency ratio.
ANSWER: B
40. The ratio which measures the profit in relation to capital employed is known as
A. return on investment.
B. gross profit ratio.
C. operating ratio.
D. operating profit ratio.
ANSWER: A
41. The ratio which determines the profitability from the shareholder’s point of view is .
A. return on investment.
B. gross profit ratio.
C. return on shareholders funds.
D. operating profit ratio.
ANSWER: C
42. Return on equity is also called
A. . return on investment.
B. gross profit ratio.
C. return on shareholders funds.
D. return on net worth.
ANSWER: D
45. The ratio which is calculated to measure the productivity of total assets is
A. return on equity.
B. return on share holders funds.
C. return on total assets.
D. return on equity share holders’ funds.
ANSWER: C
46. The ratio which shows the proportion of profits retained in the business out of the current year’s profits
is
A. . retained earnings ratio.
B. pay out ratio
C. earnings per share.
D. price earnings ratio.
ANSWER: A
47. The ratio which indicates earnings per share reflected by the market price is .
A. retained earnings ratio.
B. pay out ratio.
C. earnings per share.
D. price earnings ratio.
ANSWER: D
48. The ratio establishes the relationship between profit before interest and tax and fixed interest charges
is .
A. interest cover ratio.
B. fixed dividend cover ratio.
C. debt service coverage ratio.
D. dividend yield ratio.
ANSWER: A
49. The ratio shows the preference dividend as a proportion of profit available for shareholders is
.
A. interest cover ratio.
B. fixed dividend cover ratio.
C. debt service coverage ratio.
D. dividend yield ratio.
ANSWER: B
53. Which ratio is calculated to ascertain the efficiency of inventory management in terms of capital
investment?
A. stock velocity ratio.
8
B. debtors velocity ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: A
54. The ratio which measures the relationship between the cost of goods sold and the amount of average
inventory is
A. stock turnover ratio.
B. debtors velocity ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: A
57. Which ratio measures the number of times the receivables are rotated in a year in terms of sales?
A. stock turnover ratio.
B. debtors turnover ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: B
9
60. The indicates the number of times the payables rotate in a year is _.
A. stock turnover ratio.
B. stock turnover ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: C
62. All those assets which are converted into cash in the normal course of business within one year are
known as .
A. fixed assets.
B. current assets.
C. fictitious assets.
D. wasting assets.
ANSWER: B
63. All those liabilities which are payable in cash in the normal course of business within a period of one
year are called _.
A. long term liabilities.
B. overdraft.
C. short term loans.
D. current liabilities.
ANSWER: D
64. Any transaction between a current account and another current account does not
Affect .
A. profit.
B. funds.
C. working capital.
D. capital.
ANSWER: B
65. Any transaction between a non current account and another non current account does not
affect .
A. profit.
B. funds.
C. working capital.
D. capital.
ANSWER: B
66. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement -Increase in current asset .
A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital.
C. decrease fixed capital.
D. increase fixed capital.
ANSWER: A
67. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement - Decrease in current asset .
A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital.
C. decrease fixed capital.
D. increase fixed capital.
ANSWER: B
68. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement -Increase in current liability .
A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital.
C. decrease fixed capital.
D. increase fixed capital.
ANSWER: B
69. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement -Decrease in current Liability .
A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital.
C. decrease fixed capital
D. increase fixed capital.
ANSWER: A
72. One of the primary differences between marginal costing and absorption costing regarding
the treatment of .
A. prime cost .
B. fixed overheads.
C. variable overheads .
D. direct materials.
ANSWER: B
85. 1f` fixed costs decrease while variable cost per unit remains constant, the new B.E.P in relation to the
old B.E.P will be .
A. lower .
B. higher.
C. . unchanged .
D. indeterminate.
ANSWER: B
86. If fixed costs decrease while the variable cost per unit remains constant, the new contribution margin in
relation to the old contribution margin will be .
A. lower .
B. unchanged .
C. higher.
D. indeterminate.
ANSWER: B
87. Selling price per unit Rs. 10; Variable cost Rs. 8 per unit; Fixed cost Rs. 20,000; Break-even
production in units .
A. 10,000.
B. 16,300.
C. 2,000.
D. 2,500.
ANSWER: D
88. Sales Rs. 25,000; Variable cost Rs. 8,000; Fixed cost Rs. 5,000; Break-even sales
in value .
A. Rs. 7,936.
B. Rs. 7,353.
C. Rs. 8,333.
D. Rs. 9,090.
ANSWER: B
89. Fixed cost Rs. 80,000; Variable cost Rs. 2 per unit; Selling price_Rs. 10 per unit; turnover required
for a profit target of Rs. 60,000.
A. Rs. 1,75,000.
B. Rs. 1,17,400.
C. Rs. 1.57,000.
D. Rs. 1,86,667.
ANSWER: A
90. Sales Rs. 25,000; Variable cost Rs. 15,000; Fixed cost Rs .4,000; P/V Ratio is .
A. 40% .
B. 80%
C. 15%
D. 30%.
ANSWER: A
91. Sales Rs. 50,000; Variable cost Rs. 30,000; Net profit Rs. 6,000; fixed cost is .
A. Rs. 10,000.
B. b. Rs. l4,000 .
C. Rs. 12,000.
D. Rs. 8,000.
ANSWER: B
92. Actual sales Rs .4,00,000; Break-even sales Rs. 2,50,000; Margin of Safety in
percentage is _.
A. 33.33%.
B. 66.67%
C. 37.5% .
D. 76.33%.
ANSWER: C
93. P/V Ratio 50%; Variable cost of the produce Rs. 25; Selling price is .
A. Rs. 50 .
B. Rs. 40.
C. Rs. 30 .
D. Rs. 55.
ANSWER: A
94. Fixed cost Rs. 2,00,000; Sales Rs. 8,00,000; P/V Ratio 30%; the amount of' profit is .
A. Rs. 50,000.
B. Rs. 40,000 .
C. Rs. 35,000 .
D. Rs. 45,000 .
ANSWER: B
95. P/V Ratio is 25% and Margin of Safety is Rs; 3,00,000, the amount of profit is .
A. Rs. 1,00,000.
B. Rs. 80,000.
C. Rs. 75,000.
D. . Rs. 60,000.
ANSWER: C
96. Total sales Rs. 20,00,000; Fixed expenses Rs. 4,00,000; P/V Ratio 40%; Break-even capacity
in percentage is .
A. 40% .
B. 60% .
C. 50% .
D. 45%.
ANSWER: C
97. Break - even point occurs at 40% of` total capacity, margin of safety will be .
A. 40% .
B. 60% .
C. 80% .
D. 85% .
ANSWER: B
98. If the P/V Ratio of a product is 30% and selling price is Rs. 25 per unit, the marginal cost of the
product would be .
A. Rs.18.75 .
B. Rs.16 .
C. Rs. 15 .
D. Rs.20 .
ANSWER: A
104. The budget which usually takes the form of budgeted profit and loss account and balance sheet is
known as
A. Flexible budget .
B. Master budget.
C. Cash budget .
D. Purchase budget.
ANSWER: B
106. The fixed-variable cost classification has `a special significance in the preparation of .
A. Capital budget.
B. Cash budget.
C. Master budget .
D. Flexible budget .
ANSWER: D
108. Preparing budget figures for different levels of activity within a range under flexible budgeting is
.
A. Formula method.
B. Multi-activity method.
C. Budget cost allowance method.
D. Proportionate method.
ANSWER: B
109. What type of budget is designed to take into account forecast change in costs, prices, etc?
A. Master budget.
B. Rolling budget.
C. Flexible budget .
D. Functional budget.
ANSWER: B
C. Budgeting.
D. Controlling.
ANSWER: C
ANSWER: C
116. The budget which shows the budgeted quantity of output to be produced during a specific period is.
A. Fixed budget.
B. Flexible budget.
C. Sales budget.
D. Production budget
ANSWER: D
118. Material budget consists of two parts, one is the consumption budget and another Is .
18
C. Material production budget.
D. Material budget.
ANSWER: B
122. Budget of indirect costs in the form of indirect wages, indirect material and indirect expenses in the
factory is .
A. Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Master budget.
ANSWER: A
123. The budget prepared to estimate the expenditure to be incurred for planning, organizing, direction and
control function of the management is .
A. . Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Master budget.
ANSWER: B
124. The budget prepared to estimate expenditure to be incurred to sell the product and its distribution is
.
A. Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Master budget
ANSWER: C
125. The budget prepared to estimate the research and development expenditure to be incurred during a
specific period is .
A. Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Research and development budget.
19
ANSWER: D
126. The budget prepared to estimate the expenditure on fixed assets is known as.
A. Capital expenditure budget
B. Production overhead budget.
C. Administration overhead budget.
D. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
ANSWER: A
127. The budget prepared for replacement of assets, expansion of production facilities, adoption of new
technologies etc. is .
A. Capital expenditure budget.
B. Production overhead budget.
C. Administration overhead budget.
D. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
ANSWER: A
20
C. Job In Time.
D. Job Inventory Time.
ANSWER: A
134. FIFO is .
A. Fast Investment in Future Order.
B. First In First Out.
C. Fast In Fast Out
D. Fast Issue Of Fast Order.
ANSWER: D
137. Scrap is .
A. residue of material.
B. wastage of material.
C. surplus material.
D. abnormal loss of material.
ANSWER: A
138. Material is issued by store keeper against.
A. material requisition.
B. material order.
C. goods received note.
D. purchase requisition.
ANSWER: A
140. The document which is prepared after receiving and inspecting material .
A. material record note.
B. goods received note.
C. bill of material.
D. inventory record.
ANSWER: B
146. Material consumed is Rs. 5,00,000 Opening stock of raw material is Rs. 50,000 and Closing stock of
raw material is Rs. 25,000. What is the cost of raw material purchased?
A. Rs. 4,50,000.
B. Rs. 4,75,000.
C. Rs. 5,25,000.
D. Rs. 5, 50,000.
ANSWER: B
147. If selling price is Rs. 25,000 and profit is Rs. 5,000 then what is the percentage of profit on
cast?
A. 20%.
B. 25%.
C. 33.33%.
D. 35%.
ANSWER: B
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DNYANSAGAR INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH
Q. no Question Answer
1. Managerial accounting information is generally prepared for C
…………………
a. Shareholders
b. Creditors
c. Managers
d. Regulatory agencies
a. Creditor
b. Department manager
c. Controller
d. Treasurer
a. Service entities
b. Manufacturing entities
c. Non profit entities
d. All of these
8 Which type of asset class includes those assets which have only D
definite use and become valueless when the yield is over?
a. Fixed asset
b. Current asset
c. Fictitious asset
d. Wasting asset
9 An accounting that deals with the accounting and reporting of B
information to managementregarding the detail information is
a. Financial accounting
b. Management accounting
c. Cost accounting
d. Real Accounting
10
13. Cost of goods sold= opening stock+ net purchases+ expenses on Purchases – D
sales Which part of formula is wrong?
a. opening stock
b. net purchases
c. expenses on Purchases
d. sales
28 cost refers to those cost which have already been incurred and cannot be B
altered by any decision in the future.
a. Opportunity cost
b. Sunk Cost
c. Incremental cost
d. Decremental cost
31. cost will still be incurred although a plant is shut down temporarily. C
a. Cost of raw material
b. Advertising
c. Depreciation
d. Carriage
32 Accounting principles are generally based upon: A
a. Practicability
b. Subjectivity
c. Convenience in recording
d. None of the above
33 The system of recording based on dual aspect concept is called: B
a. Double account system
b. Double entry system
c. Single entry system
d. All the above
34 The practice of appending notes regarding contingent liabilities in accounting D
statements is in pursuance to:
a. Convention of consistency
b. Money measurement concept
c. Convention of conservatism
d. Convention of disclosure
35 Sales are equal to: A
a. Cost of goods sold + gross profit
b. Cost of goods sold - gross profit
c. Gross profit- Cost of goods sold
d. None of the above
36 Interest on drawings is: C
a. Expenditure for the business
b. Cost for the business
c. Gain for the business
d. None of the above
37 Goods given as samples should be credited to: C
a. Advertisement account
b. Sales account
c. Purchase account
d. None of the above
38. Outstanding salaries are shown as: C
a. Added to Salaries while preparing P & La/c
b. Shown in liability side of Balance sheet under current Liability.
c. (a) &(b) above
d. None of the above
39 Income tax paid by a sole proprietor on his business income should be: C
a. Debited to trading account
b. Debited to profit and loss account
c. Deducted from capital account in the balance sheet
d. None of the above
40. All direct & indirect expenses related to business are charged: C
a. Profit and loss account
b. Trading account
c. Trading account Profit and Loss account
d. Directly to Balance sheet
43 Investment of X company profit in shares of other company PQR Pvt. ltd are A
recorded in……………….
a. Asset side of Balance Sheet
b. Liability side of Balance Sheet
c. Profit & Loss a/c
d. Not recorded in Balance Sheet
a. Remains fixed
b. Fluctuates with volume of production
c. Varies in consideration with the volume of sales
d. None of the above
a. Increases assets
b. Results in no change in the total assets
c. Decreases assets
d. Increases liability
63 Cost of asset should always be equal to the cost of the liabilities. This concept B
is
a. Realization Concept
b. Matching Concept
c. Cost Concept
d. Both a and b above
a. Consistency concept
b. Conservatism concept
c. Accounting period concept
d. Cost Concept
a. Current assets
b. Current liabilities
c. Fixed asset
d. Fixed liability
69 Reserve for doubtful debts appearing in the trial balance should be: E
a. Debtors
b. Investors
c. Creditors
d. Shareholders
71 According to which concept business is treated as a unit apart from owner C
a. Dual concept
b. Divider concept
c. Entity concept
d. Landlord concept
72 Authorized capital, also known as A
a. Nominal capital
b. Paid up capital
c. Issues capital
d. None of these
73 True & fair profit and loss a/c of a company know by D
a. Preparing trial balance
b. Preparing respective ledger of account
c. Preparing trading a/c
d. Preparing trading & profit & loss a/c
74 Credit balance of profit & loss a/c shown on B
a. Asset side of balance sheet
b. Liability side of balance sheet
c. Not shown in balance sheet
d. Half on asset side and half on liability side
75 Under which concept it is assumed that the enterprises has neither the C
intention nor the necessity of liquidation or of curtailing materiality the scale
of operation
a. Revenue realization concept
b. Matching cost concept
c. Going concern concept
d. None of these
76 Making the provision for doubtful debts and discount on debtors in A
anticipation of actual bad debts and discount is an example for which concept
a. Conservatism concept
b. Continuity concept
c. Realization concept
d. All of these
82 Which of the following account balance will be shown on debit side of Trial D
Balance?
a. Outstanding expenses
b. Cash a/c
c. Short term loan
d. creditors
83 The reduction in the value of the fixed assets which can arise due to time B
factor is
a. Discount
b. Depreciation
c. Reduction
d. None of the above
92 Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of: B
a. Separate entity
b. Going concern
c. Consistency
d. Time period
a. Income Statement
b. Cash Flow Statement
c. Balance Sheet
d. Fund Flow Statement
95 Which of the following is a liability? A
a. Loan from Mr.Y
b. loan to Mr.y
c. Both (a) (b)
d. None of these
92 Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of: B
e. Separate entity
f. Going concern
g. Consistency
h. Time period
e. Income Statement
f. Cash Flow Statement
g. Balance Sheet
h. Fund Flow Statement
95 Which of the following is a liability? A
e. Loan from Mr.Y
f. loan to Mr.y
g. Both (a) (b)
h. None of these
97 Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of: B
a. Separate entity
b. Going concern
c. Consistency
d. Time period
a. Fiscal year
b. Calendar year
c. Accounting period
d. Accrual period
107 Using "lower of cost and net realisable value(Market Value)" for the purpose C
of inventory valuation is the implementation of which of the following
concepts?
a. The going concern concept
b. The separate entity concept
c. The prudence concept
d. Matching concept
108 The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following D
types of businesses?
a. Sole proprietorship
b. Corporation
c. Partnership
d. All of them
109 The revenue recognition principal dictates that all types of incomes should be C
recorded or recognized when
a. Cash is received
b. At the end of accounting period
c. When they are earned
d. When interest is paid
110 The allocation of owner's private expenses to his/her business violates which C
of the following?
a. Accrual concept
b. Matching concept
c. Separate business entity concept
d. Consistency concept
112 Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a C
business is divided for the purpose of preparing financial statements?
a. Fiscal year
b. Calendar year
c. Accounting period
d. Accrual period
113 Showing purchased office equipments in financial statements is the B
application of which accounting concept?
a. Historical cost convention
b. Materiality
c. Prudence
d. Matching concept
114 Information about an item is if its omission or misstatement might D
influence the financial decision of the users taken on the basis of that
information
a. Concrete
b. Complete
c. Immaterial
d. Material
115 "Financial information should be neutral and bias free" is the dictation of C
which one of the following?
a. Completeness concept
b. Faithful representation Concept
c. Objectivity Concept
d. Duality Concept
116 Accounting principles are divided into two types. These are --- D
a. Accounting Concepts
b. Accounting Conventions
c. Accounting Standards
d. Accounting Concepts &Accounting Conventions
117 Which of the following is not related with Money Measurement Concept ? B
a. All business transaction should be expressed only in money
b. The transactions which cannot be expressed in money, will not be
recorded in accounting books
c. Business is treated as separate from the proprietor
d. None of These
118 Which of the following equation is related with Dual Aspect Concept ? D
a. Total Assets = Total Liabilities
b. Total Assets = Capital + Outsider’s Liabilities
c. Capital = Total Assets - Outsider’s Liabilities
d. All of the above
119 If the total assets of the company amount to Rs 1,50,000 and owner’s B
equity is Rs 70,000, the amount of liabilities will be –
a. Rs 70,000
b. Rs 80,000
c. Rs 90,000
d. Rs 1,00,000
c. Controlling function
d. None of these
131 The convention of conservatism when applied to the balance sheet result A
in.
a. Understand the asset
b. Understand the liabilities
c. Overstatement of capital
d. None of these
c. Providing depreciation
d. None of these
133 The amount brought in by the proprietor in the business should be credited B
to
a. Cash a/c
b. Capital a/c
c. Drawing a/c
d. Bank a/c
134 The amount of salary paid to Suresh should be debited to B
a. The account of Suresh
b. Salaries a/c
c. Cash a/c
d. Bank a/c
141 The convention of disclosure implies that all material information should be A
a. Disclosed in the account
b. Disclosed in the accounts which is required to owner
c. Not disclosed
d. None of these
143 Custom and traditions which guide the accountant while preparing the C
accounting statements
a. Accounting convention
b. Accounting concepts
c. Accounting principles
d. None of these
145 system in which accounting entries are made on the basis of amounts having B
become due for payment or receipt is called
a. Cash concept
b. Accrual concept
c. Matching concept
d. On-going concept
147 Debit what come in Credit what goes out rule for A
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
148 Debit all expenses and losses Credit all gains and income. C
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
150 Transferring the debit and credit item from the journal to the respective B
accounts is called
a. Compound Journal
b. Ledger
c. Trial balance
d. None of these
152 The transferring of debit and credit items from journal to the respective B
accounts in the ledger is called as
a. Ledger
b. Posting
c. Forward journal
d. None of these
153 Which of the following items would not fall under the definition of an asset? D
a. Land
b. Machine
c. Cash
d. Owner Equity
154 Which one of the following items would fall under the definition of a C
liability
a. Cash
b. Debtor
c. Owner’s equity
d. None of these
a. Rs.200, 000
b. Rs.700, 000
c. Rs.800, 000
d. Rs1, 100,000
Creditors Rs.50,000
What is the value of the land…………………..
a. 1,000,000
b. 1,550,000
c. 800,000
d. None of these
160 Which of the following equations properly represents a derivation of the D
fundamental accounting equation?
a. Only (a)
b. Both (a) (b)
c. All (a)(b)(c)(d)
d. d) None of these
161 Retained earnings will change over time because of several factors. Which B
of the following factors would explain an increase in retained earnings?
a. Net Loss
b. Net income
c. Dividend
d. Investment by share holder.
164 XYZltd.has provided the following information about its balance sheet: B
Cash Rs.100
a. Rs.200
b. Rs.1900
c. Rs.1200
d. Rs.1700
165 The full disclosure principle, as adopted by the accounting profession, is D
best described by which of the following?
a. All information related to an entity's business and operating
objectives is required to be disclosed in the financial statements.
b. Information about each account balance appearing in the financial
statements is to be included in the notes to the financial
statements.
c. Enough information should be disclosed in the financial statements
so a person wishing to invest in the stock of the company can make
a profitable decision.
d. Disclosure of any financial facts significant enough to influence the
judgment of an informed reader
166 Which of the following is a real (permanent) account? D
a. Goodwill
b. Sales
c. Accounts Receivable
d. Both Goodwill and Accounts Receivable
167 Which of the following statements is not an objective of financial B
reporting?
a. Provide information that is useful in investment and credit
decisions.
b. Provide information regarding policy of organization
c. Provide information that is useful in assessing cash flow
prospective
d. None of theses
168 The Cash account on the balance sheet should not include which of the A
following items?
a. Travel advances to employees
b. Currency
c. Money orders
d. Deposits in transit
170 The following comments all relate to the recording process. Which of these B
statements is correct?
a. The general ledger is a chronological record of transactions.
b. The general ledger is posted from transactions recorded in the general
journal.
c. The trial balance provides the primary source document for recording
transactions into the general journal.
d. Transposition is the transfer of information from the general journal to
the general ledger.
171 The following comments each relate to the recording of journal entries. Which D
statement is true?
a. For any given journal entry, debits must exceed credits.
b. It is customary to record credits on the left and debits on the right.
c. The chart of accounts reveals the amount to debit and credit to the
affected accounts.
d. Journalization is the process of converting transactions and events into
debit/credit format.
172 The trial balance is ………………………….. D
173 Which of the following errors will be disclosed in the preparation of a trial C
balance?
a. Recording transactions in the wrong account.
b. Duplication of a transaction in the accounting records.
c. Posting only the debit portion of a particular journal entry.
d. Recording the wrong amount for a transaction to both the account
debited and the account credited.
174 The basic sequence in the accounting process can best be described as: D
a. Transaction, journal entry, source document, ledger account, trial
balance.
b. Source document, transaction, ledger account, journal entry, trial
balance.
c. Transaction, source document, journal entry, trial balance, ledger
account.
d. d. Transaction, source document, journal entry, ledger account,
trial balance.
181 Manufacturing costs are also known as product costs. Which of the C
following best describes those costs which are considered to be
manufacturing costs?
a. Direct materials, direct labor, and factory overhead.
b. Direct materials and direct labor only.
c. Direct materials, direct labor, factory overhead, and administrative
overhead.
d. Direct labor and factory overhead.
182 A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, D
plus long distance charges, would be classified as a:
a. Variable cost
b. Committed fixed cost
c. Direct cost
d. Semi variable cost
a. Sundry creditors
b. Acceptances
c. Unclaimed dividend
d. Short term investment
193 Financial accounting deals with: B
a. Determination of cost
b. Determination of profit
c. Determination of price
d. Determination of selling price
194 Financial account record only A
a. Actual figures
b. Budgeted figures
c. Standard figures
d. Management Figure
195 The term Management Accounting was first used in C
a. 1910
b. 1939
c. 1950
d. 1960
d. Six months
205 A budget is tool which helps the management in planning and control of… A
a. All business activities
b. Production activities
c. Purchase activities
d. Sales activities
206 Budgetary control system acts as a friend, philosopher and guide to the… A
a. Management
b. Share holders
c. Creditors
d. Employees
207 Budgetary control system defines the objectives and policies of the… D
a. Production department
b. Finance department
c. Marketing department
d. All
208 Budgetary control system facilitates centralized control with… C
a. Decentralized activity
b. Centralized activity
c. Both
d. None
209 Budgetary control facilitates easy introduction of the… C
a. Marginal costing
b. Ratio analysis
c. Standard costing
d. Subjective matter
210 Budgetary control helps the management in… A
a. Obtaining bank credit
b. Issue of shares
c. Getting grants from government
d. All of these
211 Budgetary control system helps the management to eliminate… C
a. Undercapitalization
b. Overcapitalization
c. Both
d. Subjective matter
212 Budgetary control provides a basis for… C
a. Bonus shares
b. Rights shares
c. Remuneration plans
d. None
213 Budgetary control helps to introduce a suitable incentive and B
remuneration based
on…
a. Changes in government policies
b. Inflationary conditions
c. Both
d. None
229 On the basis of flexibility budget is classified into two types such as fixed A
budget and
________ budget.
a. variable
b. Semi-variable
c. Constant
230 Variable budget is also known as _______ budget. C
a. Fixed
b. Semi-variable
c. Flexible
231 The budget prepared according to ________ is known as functional C
budgets.
a. Period
b. Controls
c. Functions
232 ……………….. budget is a budget which is designed to remain unchanged C
irrespective of the volume of output or turnover achieved.
a. Flexible
b. Cash
c. Fixed
233 A Flexible budget is one which permits the change in accordance with the B
changes
in the level of activity.
a. Fixed
b. Flexible
c. Sales
234 Flexible budgets are more useful in actual practice because it is more A
realistic and
has great practical utility in the business.
a. realistic
b. non-realistic
c. Predictable
235 A _______ budget is the budget which shows the quantity and value of C
goods to be
purchased during the budget period to meet the day-to-day needs of the
business.
a. Sales
b. Cash
c. Purchase
236 One of the basic purpose to prepare _______ budget is to estimate the A
cash
requirements for the purchases to be made during the budgeted period.
a. purchase
b. cash
c. sales
247 Given the budgeted output in second quarter is 8,000 units. In the first A
quarter,
Fixed overheads were Rs 40,000 Variable overheads were Rs 5 per unit ( Rs
40,000)
and semi variable were 20,000 ( 60% varying @ Rs 3 per unit). Determine
the total
manufacturing overhead budget for the second quarter.
a. Rs 1,12,000
b. 1,12,000 units
c. Insufficient data
d. None of the above
248 Budgetary control system defines the objectives and policies of the… D
a. Production department
b. Finance department
c. Marketing department
d. All
249 Budgetary control system facilitates centralized control with… C
a. Decentralized activity
b. Centralized activity
c. Both
d. None
21. Debit the receiver, credit the giver is the rule of ______________.
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
22. Debit what comes in, credit what goes out is the rule of ______________.
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
23. Debit all expenses and losses, credit all incomes and gains is the rule of ______________.
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
24. ______________ is a record of transaction in the books of Accounts.
(a) Entry (b) Recording
(c) Monetary Transaction (d) Ledger
25. ______________ is an exchange of money or money’s worth.
(a) Entry (b) Recording
(c) Transaction (d) Ledger
26. ______________ is a book of original entry.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Subsidiary Book
27. ______________ is a bound book of different accounts.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Subsidiary Book
28. ______________ is a summarized record of transactions related to one person, one asset, one
head of expense/loss and one head of income/gain.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Account
29. ______________ means totaling of sums in the books of accounts.
(a) Casting (b) Summarizing
(c) Journalizing (d) Ledger Posting
30. ______________ are obligations or debts that the enterprise must pay in money or services at
some time in the future.
(a) Assets (b) Liabilities
(c) Responsibilities (d) Salaries
31. ______________ are economic resources of an enterprise that can be usefully expressed in
monetary terms.
(a) Assets (b) Liabilities
(c) Cash & Bank Balance (d) Funds
32. ______________ are commodities, purchased or manufactured for resale with a view to earn
profit.
(a) Assets (b) Goods
(c) Investments (d) Resources
4 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
33. ______________ are the amounts the business earns by selling its products or providing
services to customers.
(a) Assets (b) Goods
(c) Investments (d) Revenues
34. ______________ are the costs incurred by a business in the process of earning revenue.
(a) Assets (b) Expenses
(c) Investments (d) Revenues
35. ______________ are persons and/or other entities who owe to an enterprise an amount for
receiving goods and services on credit.
(a) Debtors (b) Creditors
(c) Shareholders (d) Suppliers
36. ______________ are persons and/or other entities that have to be paid by an enterprise an
amount for providing the enterprise goods and services on credit.
(a) Debtors (b) Creditors
(c) Shareholders (d) Customers
37. ______________ is a list of the entire general ledger account names and balances; it is
prepared to prove the ledger.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Trial Balance
38. The difference of two sides of an account is called as ______________.
(a) Debit (b) Credit
(c) Balance (d) Cash
39. ______________ deals with expenses related to or identified with products, which may only
be a part of the organization.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
40. In ______________ stocks are valued at lower of cost or market value.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
41. The primary objective of ______________ is to provide necessary information to the
management in the process of its planning, controlling, and performance evaluation, and
decision-making.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
42. The Success of ______________ does not depend upon Management Accounting system.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
43. In______________ no statutory requirement of audit for reports.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 5
Chapter 2
Understanding of Financial Statements
1. ______________ shows the firm’s assets, liabilities, and stockholders’ equity as of the report
date.
(a) Cash Flow (b) Funds Flow
(c) Income Statement (d) Balance Sheet
2. ______________ shows the results of the firm’s operations and financial activities for the
reporting period.
(a) Trading and Profit & Loss Account (b) Expense Statement
(c) Income Statement (d) Balance Sheet
3. ______________ includes explanations of various activities, additional details of some
accounts, and other items as mandated by the regulatory authorities, bodies from time to time.
(a) Trading and Profit & Loss Account (b) Expense Statement
(c) Income Statement (d) Supplementary Note
4. ______________ is a formal official record of the financial activities and position of a
business, person, or other entity.
(a) Financial Statement (b) Trading Account
(c) Profit & Loss Account (d) Supplementary Note
5. ______________ provides the vital information related to the profitability, liquidity and
solvency of the business.
(a) Financial Statement (b) Trading Account
(c) Profit & Loss Account (d) Cash Flow & Funds Flow
6. ______________ is the simplest business form under which one can operate a business.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole Trading Firm
(c) Private Ltd. Company (d) Public Company
7. ______________ is not a separate legal entity.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole Proprietorship Firm
(c) Private Ltd. Company (d) One Man Company
8. For every item given in Trial Balance, ______________ effect should be given.
(a) Dual (b) Single
(c) Triple (d) None of the above
9. For every item given in Adjustment, ______________ effect should be given.
(a) Dual (b) Single
(c) Triple (d) None of the above
10. ______________ are nothing but the entries which are not included in the original Trial
Balance.
(a) Journal Proper (b) Ledger
(c) Adjustments (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 7
Chapter 3
Cost Accounting
1. ______________ provides a specialized technique, which provides prompt and accurate
information regarding the cost of producing and selling an article.
(a) Cost Accounting (b) Financial Accounting
(c) Management Accounting (d) Cost & Financial Accounting
2. The amount of expenditure incurred on, or attributable to a given thing is called as
______________.
(a) Cost (b) Price
(c) Expense (d) Fixed Cost
3. The techniques and process of ascertaining cost is called as ______________.
(a) Costing (b) Accounting
(c) Financing (d) Management Accounting
4. With the help of ______________, we can control the cost.
(a) Costing Methods (b) Cost Accounting
(c) Management Accounting (d) Costing Techniques
5. With the help of ______________, we can find out the cost.
(a) Costing Methods (b) Cost Accounting
(c) Management Accounting (d) Costing Techniques
6. The total of Direct Material + Direct Labour + Direct Expenses is called as ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Factory Cost
(c) Prime Cost (d) Main Cost
7. Direct Expenses are also called as ______________.
(a) Chargeable Expenses (b) Factory Expenses
(c) Works Expenses (d) General Expenses
8. Depreciation is an example of ______________.
(a) Direct Expenses (b) Factory Expenses
(c) General Expenses (d) Indirect Expenses
9. The aggregate of all indirect expenses is ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Total Expense
(c) Overheads (d) Factory Overheads
10. Factory Cost is also called as ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Cost of Production
(c) Works Cost (d) Factory Overheads
11. Cost of Sales is also called as ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Cost of Production
(c) Works Cost (d) Factory Cost
12 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
25. A Location, person, or item of equipment (or a group of these) for which costs may be
ascertained and used for the purpose of control is called as ______________.
(a) Cost Unit (b) Cost Centre
(c) Cost Department (d) Cost Division
26. ______________ a statement, which shows various components of total cost of a product.
(a) Cost Sheet (b) Cost Account
(c) Cost Report (d) Cost Classification
27. ______________ is prepared on the basis of actual cost incurred.
(a) Historical Cost Sheet (b) Cost Account
(c) Cost Report (d) Estimated Cost Sheet
28. Haulage Charges is an example of ______________.
(a) Fixed Overheads (b) Direct Cost
(c) Factory Overheads (d) Administration Overheads
29. Counting House Salaries is an example of ______________.
(a) Fixed Overheads (b) Selling Overheads
(c) Factory Overheads (d) Administration Overheads
30. Carriage Outward is an example of ______________.
(a) Fixed Overheads (b) Selling Overheads
(c) Factory Overheads (d) Administration Overheads
31. Opening Stock of Finished Goods is added in ______________.
(a) Factory Cost (b) Prime Cost
(c) Cost of Production (d) Works Cost
32. Direct Labour Charges is also called as ______________.
(a) Factory Cost (b) Prime Cost
(c) Fixed Wages (d) Productive Wages
33. Cost unit is divided into ______________.
(a) Units of Production (b) Units of Services
(c) Both a and b (d) None of the above
34. Cost of converting raw material into finished goods is also called as ______________.
(a) Factory Cost (b) Prime Cost
(c) Conversion Cost (d) Productive Cost
35. According to Elements, Cost is divided into ______________ categories.
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
36. ______________ means the amount spent to sell a company’s products.
(a) Revenue Cost (b) Differential Cost
(c) Fixed Cost (d) Variable Cost
14 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
48. Sale of Scrap is ______________ after addition of factory overheads in Prime Cost.
(a) Added (b) Deducted
(c) Not Considered (d) None of the above
49. Cleaning Charges is an example of ______________.
(a) Direct Expenses (b) Factory Overheads
(c) Office Overheads (d) Selling Overheads
50. ______________ is the process of ascertaining costs whereas ______________ is the process
of recording various costs in a systematic manner, in order to prepare statistical date to
ascertain cost.
(a) Costing, Cost Accounting (b) Cost Accounting, Costing
(c) Costing and Allocation Cost (d) Costing and Absorption of Cost
Chapter 4
Cost Control
1. Cost of storing the goods as well as the interest on the capital is called as ______________.
(a) Inventory Carrying Cost (b) Order Placing Cost
(c) Buying Cost (d) Fixed Cost
2. Cost of placing the orders and receiving the goods are called as ______________.
(a) Inventory Carrying Cost (b) Variable Cost
(c) Buying Cost (d) Fixed Cost
3. The main objective of EOQ is to ______________ the total costs.
(a) Minimize (b) Control
(c) Maintain (d) Avoid
4. ______________ analysis is based on Selective Inventory Management.
(a) EOQ (b) JIT
(c) ABC (d) HML
5. Calculate EOQ if Cost of material per unit ` 40, Annual requirement 1600 units, Cost of
placing and receiving one purchase order ` 50, Annual carrying cost of inventory is 10% of
inventory value.
(a) 200 Units (b) 175 Units
(c) 225 Units (d) 250 Units
6. A level of inventory that should never be exceeded is ______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level
(c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
7. A level below which stock should not be allowed to fall is ______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level
(c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
8. A level at which store keeper should intimate purchase department for fresh/new supply is
______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level
(c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
9. A level below which the stock should never be allowed to fall under emergency
circumstances is ______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level
(c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
10. A strategy for inventory management in which raw materials and components are delivered
from the vendor or supplier immediately before they are needed in the manufacturing process
is ______________.
(a) Scientific Purchasing (b) Immediate Buying
(c) JIT (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 17
30. Out of the following, which factor/s affecting the Labour Cost.
(a) Assessment of Manpower Requirement
(b) Time and Motion Study
(c) Control over Idle Time and Overtime
(d) All of the above
31. Which department/s is/are closely associated with the Control of Labour Cost?
(a) Personnel and Payroll Department
(b) Time Keeping Department
(c) Engineering and Work Study Department
(d) All of the above
32. ______________ arises from replacement of workers who leave the organization.
(a) Direct Labour Cost (b) Preventive Cost
(c) Maintenance Cost (d) Replacement Cost
33. Method/s of Time Keeping is/are ______________.
(a) Attendance Register Method
(b) Token or Disc Method
(c) Time Recording Clocks & Dial Time Records
(d) All of the above
34. Method/s of Time Booking is/are ______________.
(a) Daily Time Sheet (b) Weekly Time Sheet
(c) Job Cards or Job Tickets (d) All of the above
35. ______________ refers to the estimation of standard time, i.e., the time allowed for
completing one piece of job using the given metho(d)
(a) Work Measurement (b) Time Measurement
(c) Period Measurement (d) None of the above
36. ______________ costs are the operating costs of a business enterprise which cannot be traced
to a particular unit of output.
(a) Material (b) Labour
(c) Overhead (d) Foxed & Variable
37. The ______________ is the process of recording each item of cost in the books of accounts
maintained for the purpose of ascertainment of cost of each Cost Centre or Cost Unit.
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead
(c) Apportionment of Overhead (d) Classification of Overhead
38. ______________ means, the allotment of whole items of cost to cost centres or cost units.
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead
(c) Apportionment of Overhead (d) Classification of Overhead
39. ______________ means, the allotment to two or more departments or cost centers of
proportions of common items of cost on estimated basis of benefit received.
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead
(c) Apportionment of Overhead (d) Classification of Overhead
20 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
Chapter 5
Decision-making Tools
1. Marginal Costing is also called as ______________.
(a) Variable Costing (b) Standard Costing
(c) Material Costing (d) Job Costing
2. In ______________ total costs cannot be easily segregated into fixed costs and variable costs.
(a) Marginal Costing (b) Standard Costing
(c) Material Costing (d) Job Costing
3. P/V Ratio is mainly known as ______________.
(a) Contribution to Sales Ratio (b) Contribution Margin Ratio
(c) Variable Profit Ratio (d) All of the above
4. ______________ analysis classifies all costs as either fixed or variable.
(a) CVP (b) ABC
(c) JIT (d) HML
5. ______________ that point where no profit or no loss position is observed.
(a) Centre Point (b) BEP
(c) Starting Point (d) Ending Point
6. ______________ is the difference between sales revenue and variable cost.
(a) P/V Ratio (b) BEP
(c) MOS (d) Contribution
7. Contribution is also called as ______________.
(a) P/V Ratio (b) Net Margin
(c) MOS (d) Gross Margin
8. ______________ is the difference between actual sales or output and the break even sales.
(a) P/V Ratio (b) Net Margin
(c) MOS (d) Gross Margin
9. ______________ is an angle where sales line intersects total cost line which indicates profit
earning capacity over the BEP.
(a) Angle of Incidence (b) Contribution
(c) Margin of Safety (d) Gross Margin
10. If contribution is ` 3,00,000 and Sales is ` 10,00,000, then what is P/V Ratio?
(a) 20% (b) 30%
(c) 33.33% (d) 1/3
11. If P/V Ratio is 25%, then what is the % of Variable Cost?
(a) 70% (b) 80%
(c) ¾ (d) ½
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 23
12. If Fixed Cost is ` 2,50,000 and P/V Ratio is 60%, then what is BEP in `?
(a) ` 4,16,667 (b) ` 3,83,333
(c) ` 3,75,000 (d) ` 4,10,000
13. If Fixed Cost is ` 2,50,000 and Profit is ` 3,50,000, then what is the amount of Contribution?
(a) ` 1,00,000 (b) ` 6,00,000
(c) ` 3,75,000 (d) ` 4,10,000
14. If Sales are ` 50,000 and P/V Ratio is 20%, then what is the amount of Variable Cost?
(a) ` 40,000 (b) ` 10,000
(c) ` 25,000 (d) ` 30,000
15. If contribution is ` 3,00,000 and Profit is ` 1,00,000, then what is the amount of Fixed Cost?
(a) ` 4,00,000 (b) `2,00,000
(c) ` 2,50,000 (d) `3,00,000
16. If Sales are ` 3,00,000 and P/V ratio is 20%, then what is the amount of Variable Cost?
(a) ` 2,40,000 (b) ` 80,000
(c) ` 2,70,000 (d) ` 2,00,000
17. The correct formula of Contribution is ______________.
(a) Contribution = Sales – Variable Cost
(b) Contribution = Fixed Cost + Profit or – Loss
(c) Contribution = Sales × P/ V Ratio
(d) All of the above
18. The correct formula of P/V Ratio is ____________.
(a) P/ V Ratio = [Contribution/Sales ] × 100
(b) P/ V Ratio = [Change in Profit/Change in Sales ] × 100
(c) P/ V Ratio = [Sales−Variable Cost/Sales] × 100
(d) All of the above
19. Marginal Costing is a Costing ______________.
(a) Technique (b) Method
(c) System (d) Convention
20. Under absorption and over absorption of overheads problems are not arisen under
______________.
(a) Marginal Costing (b) Standard Costing
(c) Job Costing (d) Budgetary Control
21. Standard cost is the ______________ cost.
(a) Pre-determined (b) Pre-decided
(c) Pre-planned (d) None of the above
22. Small organizations cannot adopt ______________ technique.
(a) Standard Costing (b) Marginal Costing
(c) Budgetary Control (d) None of the above
24 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
23. ______________ means difference between standard cost and actual cost.
(a) Balance Cost (b) Variance
(c) Marginal Cost (d) Variable Cost
24. ______________ helps management to understand the present costs and then to control the
future costs.
(a) ABC Analysis (b) Variance Analysis
(c) Marginal Analysis (d) Budget Analysis
25. Variances are classified in ______________ categories.
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
26. If Standard Cost ` 80 and Actual Cost ` 70, then what is the amount of Material Cost
Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 150 (d) 20
27. If Standard Price ` 8 & Standard Qty.10, Actual Price ` 7 & Actual Qty.10, then what is the
amount of Material Price Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 150 (d) 20
28. If Standard Price ` 8 & Standard Qty.10, Actual Price ` 7 & Actual Qty.10, then what is the
amount of Material Usage Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 50 (d) 0
29. If Standard Rate ` 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ` 2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Cost Variance?
(a) 600 (b) –600
(c) 500 (d) 400
30. If Standard Rate ` 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ` 2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Rate Variance?
(a) 750 (b) –750
(c) 600 (d) 400
31. If Standard Rate ` 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate `2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Efficiency Variance?
(a) 150 (b) –150
(c) 300 (d) 200
32. The correct formula for verification of Material Cost Variance is ______________.
(a) MCV = MPV + MUV (b) MCV = MPV – MUV
(c) MCV = MPV × MUV (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 25
33. The correct formula for verification of Labour Cost Variance is ______________.
(a) LCV = LRV + LEV (b) LCV = LRV – LEV
(c) LCV = LRV × LEV (d) None of the above
34. In Standard Costing comparison between ______________ is carried out.
(a) Standard Cost and Actual Cost (b) Fixed Cost and Variable Cost
(c) Normal Cost and Abnormal Cost (d) None of the above
35. The Disadvantages of Standard Costing is/are ______________.
(a) Establishments of standards are difficult in practice.
(b) Standards are requires to revise continuously.
(c) Inaccurate, unreliable and outdated standards do more harm than benefit
(d) All of the above
36. ______________ is a concrete precise picture of the total operation of an enterprise in
monetary terms.
(a) Budget (b) Plan
(c) Strategy (d) Goal
37. Accuracy cannot be maintained is a limitation of ______________.
(a) Budgetary Control (b) Scientific Planning
(c) Standard Costing (d) Marginal Costing
38. Pre- requisitions for effective implementation of Budgetary Control system is/are
______________.
(a) Deciding budget centres & budget period
(b) Preparation of a budget manual
(c) Determination of budget key factor
(d) All of the above
39. ______________ is the budget in which adjustment is possible according to change in
business conditions.
(a) Flexible Budget (b) Fixed Budget
(c) Sales Budget (d) Cash Budget
40. When forecasts about budget shows greater revenue to be received or generated than the
expenses to be incurred during budgeted period that is known as ______________.
(a) Surplus Budget (b) Best Budget
(c) Favourable Budget (d) Non-favourable Budget
41. ______________ budget highlights that the expenditures to be incurred in budget period will
be greater than the revenues to be received during the same period.
(a) Surplus Budget (b) Deficit Budget
(c) Favourable Budget (d) Non-favourable Budget
26 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
42. The establishment of budgets relating the responsibilities of executives to the requirements of
a policy and the continuous comparison of actual with budgeted results, either to secure by
individual action the objective of that policy or to provide basis for its revision is called as
______________.
(a) Budget (b) Budgeting
(c) Budgetary Control (d) None of the above
43. A ______________ is a powerful tool available to the management for the purpose of
maximizing profits.
(a) Budget (b) Decrease in selling price
(c) Standard Norm (d) Increase in selling price
44. Fixed Budget is also known as ______________.
(a) Static Budget (b) Standard Budget
(c) Master Budget (d) Flexible Budget
45. Normal Profit means ______________.
(a) No Profit No Loss (b) Less Profit
(c) Expected Profit (d) None of the above
46. Personnel Budget is also called as ______________.
(a) Cost Budget (b) Labour Budget
(c) Employee Budget (d) None of the above
47. In cash budget, ______________ transactions are considered.
(a) Cash (b) Credit
(c) all financial (d) None of the above
48. Budget is prepared for a ______________ period of time.
(a) Fixed (b) One Month
(c) One Year (d) None of the above
49. Purchase Budget is also called as ______________.
(a) Production Budget (b) Material Budget
(c) Cost Budget (d) None of the above
50. ______________ is the plan of proposed investment in the fixed assets.
(a) Fixed Budget (b) Capital Expenditure Budget
(c) Cash Budget (d) Purchase Budget
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 27
Dr. D. Y. Patil Unitech Society’s
Dr. D.Y. PATIL INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT & RESEARCH,
Sant Tukaram Nagar, Pimpri, Pune-411018, Maharashtra, India.
33. are the amounts the business earns by selling its products or providing
services to customers.
(a) Assets (b) Goods
(c) Investments (d) Revenues
34. are the costs incurred by a business in the process of earning revenue.
(a) Assets (b) Expenses
(c) Investments (d) Revenues
35. are persons and/or other entities who owe to an enterprise an amount for
receiving goods and services on credit.
(a) Debtors (b) Creditors
(c) Shareholders (d) Suppliers
36. are persons and/or other entities that have to be paid by an enterprise an
amount for providing the enterprise goods and services on credit.
(a) Debtors (b) Creditors
(c) Shareholders (d) Customers
37. is a list of the entire general ledger account names and balances; it is
prepared to prove the ledger.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Trial Balance
38. The difference of two sides of an account is called as .
(a) Debit (b) Credit
(c) Balance (d) Cash
39. deals with expenses related to or identified with products, which may only
be a part of the organization.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
40. In stocks are valued at lower of cost or market value.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
41. The primary objective of is to provide necessary information to the
management in the process of its planning, controlling, and performance evaluation, and
decision-making.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
42. The Success of does not depend upon Management Accounting system.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
43. In no statutory requirement of audit for reports.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 11
44. Which is the most popular and acceptable software?
(a) Tally (b) Marg
(c) Saral (d) SAP
45. The Advantage/s of Accounting Software .
(a) Accounting softwares save Time and Money.
(b) No scope for mistakes and errors.
(c) Provides accurate and updated information as and when require(d)
(d) All of the above
46. Internal and external parties are the users of .
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
47. Capital A/c generally shows balance.
(a) Cash (b) Debit
(c) Credit (d) Overdraft
48. Asset A/c shows balance.
(a) Cash (b) Debit
(c) Credit (d) Overdraft
49. There are columns in Journal.
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) Five
50. Explanatory note written below an entry recorded in the Journal is called as .
(a) Narration (b) Explanation
(c) Brief information (d) Detail information
Chapter 2
Understanding of Financial Statements
1. shows the firm’s assets, liabilities, and stockholders’ equity as of the report
date.
(a) Cash Flow (b) Funds Flow
(c) Income Statement (d) Balance Sheet
2. shows the results of the firm’s operations and financial activities for the
reporting period.
(a) Trading and Profit & Loss Account (b) Expense Statement
(c) Income Statement (d) Balance Sheet
3. includes explanations of various activities, additional details of some
accounts, and other items as mandated by the regulatory authorities, bodies from time to time.
(a) Trading and Profit & Loss Account (b) Expense Statement
(c) Income Statement (d) Supplementary Note
4. is a formal official record of the financial activities and position of a
business, person, or other entity.
(a) Financial Statement (b) Trading Account
(c) Profit & Loss Account (d) Supplementary Note
5. provides the vital information related to the profitability, liquidity and
solvency of the business.
(a) Financial Statement (b) Trading Account
(c) Profit & Loss Account (d) Cash Flow & Funds Flow
6. is the simplest business form under which one can operate a business.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole Trading Firm
(c) Private Ltd. Company (d) Public Company
7. is not a separate legal entity.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole Proprietorship Firm
(c) Private Ltd. Company (d) One Man Company
8. For every item given in Trial Balance, effect should be given.
(a) Dual (b) Single
(c) Triple (d) None of the above
9. For every item given in Adjustment, effect should be given.
(a) Dual (b) Single
(c) Triple (d) None of the above
10. are nothing but the entries which are not included in the original Trial
Balance.
(a) Journal Proper (b) Ledger
(c) Adjustments (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 11
11. Every adjustment has two effects, i.e., .
(a) One Debit & One Credit (b) Debit
(c) Credit (d) None of the above
12. Depreciation is debited to .
(a) BRS (b) Balance Sheet
(c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
13. Income Accrued but Not Received is recorded to .
(a) Profit and Loss A/c Debit Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side
(c) Trading A/c Debit Side (d) Trading A/c Credit Side
14. Prepaid Expenses shown at .
(a) Balance Sheet Asset Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side
(c) Trading A/c Debit Side (d) Trading A/c Credit Side
15. Closing Stock is recorded to .
(a) Profit and Loss A/c Debit Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side
(c) Trading A/c Debit Side (d) Trading A/c Credit Side
16. Outstanding Expenses shown at .
(a) Balance Sheet Liability Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side
(c) Balance Sheet Asset Side (d) Trading A/c Credit Side
17. Goods Withdrawn from business is considered as .
(a) Sales (b) Purchases
(c) Capital (d) Drawings
18. Interest on Capital is debited to .
(a) Capital A/c (b) Balance Sheet
(c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
19. Interest on Drawings is credited to .
(a) Journal A/c (b) Balance Sheet
(c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
20. Goods Distributed as Free Samples is debited to .
(a) Capital A/c (b) Personal A/c
(c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
21. Reserve for Discount on Creditors is credited to .
(a) Capital A/c (b) Personal A/c
(c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
22. information is ignored in the financial statements.
(a) Cash (b) Credit
(c) Qualitative (d) Quantitative
23. The financial statements are based on the accounting .
(a) Accounting Concepts and Conventions
(b) Accounting Concepts
10 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
12. If Fixed Cost is Rs. 2,50,000 and P/V Ratio is 60%, then what is BEP in
`? (a) ` 4,16,667 (b) ` 3,83,333
(c) ` 3,75,000 (d) ` 4,10,000
13. If Fixed Cost is Rs. 2,50,000 and Profit is Rs. 3,50,000, then what is the amount of
Contribution? (a) ` 1,00,000 (b) ` 6,00,000
(c) ` 3,75,000 (d) ` 4,10,000
14. If Sales are Rs. 50,000 and P/V Ratio is 20%, then what is the amount of Variable
Cost? (a) ` 40,000 (b) ` 10,000
(c) ` 25,000 (d) ` 30,000
15. If contribution is Rs. 3,00,000 and Profit is ` 1,00,000, then what is the amount of Fixed
Cost? (a) ` 4,00,000 (b) `2,00,000
(c) ` 2,50,000 (d) `3,00,000
16. If Sales are Rs. 3,00,000 and P/V ratio is 20%, then what is the amount of Variable
Cost? (a) ` 2,40,000 (b) ` 80,000
(c) ` 2,70,000 (d) ` 2,00,000
17. The correct formula of Contribution is .
(a) Contribution = Sales – Variable Cost
(b) Contribution = Fixed Cost + Profit or – Loss
(c) Contribution = Sales × P/ V Ratio
(d) All of the above
18. The correct formula of P/V Ratio is .
(a) P/ V Ratio = [Contribution/Sales ] × 100
(b) P/ V Ratio = [Change in Profit/Change in Sales ] × 100
(c) P/ V Ratio = [Sales−Variable Cost/Sales] × 100
(d) All of the above
19. Marginal Costing is a Costing .
(a) Technique (b) Method
(c) System (d) Convention
20. Under absorption and over absorption of overheads problems are not arisen under
.
(a) Marginal Costing (b) Standard Costing
(c) Job Costing (d) Budgetary Control
21. Standard cost is the cost.
(a) Pre-determined (b) Pre-decided
(c) Pre-planned (d) None of the above
22. Small organizations cannot adopt technique.
(a) Standard Costing (b) Marginal Costing
(c) Budgetary Control (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 11
23. means difference between standard cost and actual cost.
(a) Balance Cost (b) Variance
(c) Marginal Cost (d) Variable Cost
24. helps management to understand the present costs and then to control the
future costs.
(a) ABC Analysis (b) Variance Analysis
(c) Marginal Analysis (d) Budget Analysis
25. Variances are classified in categories.
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
26. If Standard Cost Rs. 80 and Actual Cost Rs. 70, then what is the amount of Material Cost
Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 150 (d) 20
27. If Standard Price Rs. 8 & Standard Qty.10, Actual Price Rs. 7 & Actual Qty.10, then what is
the amount of Material Price Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 150 (d) 20
28. If Standard Price Rs. 8 & Standard Qty.10, Actual Price Rs. 7 & Actual Qty.10, then what is
the amount of Material Usage Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 50 (d) 0
29. If Standard Rate Rs. 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ` 2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Cost Variance?
(a) 600 (b) –600
(c) 500 (d) 400
30. If Standard Rate Rs. 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ` 2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Rate Variance?
(a) 750 (b) –750
(c) 600 (d) 400
31. If Standard Rate Rs. 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate Rs. 2 & Actual Hours 1500,
then what is the amount of Labour Efficiency Variance?
(a) 150 (b) –150
(c) 300 (d) 200
32. The correct formula for verification of Material Cost Variance is .
(a) MCV = MPV + MUV (b) MCV = MPV – MUV
(c) MCV = MPV × MUV (d) None of the above
10 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
MCQ for Managerial Accounting
a) Shareholders
b) Creditors
c) Managers
d) Regulatory agencies
a) Creditor
b) Department manager
c) Controller
d) Treasurer
a) Service entities
b) Manufacturing entities
c) Non profit entities
d) All of these
5. The work of factory employees that can be physically associated with converting raw
material into finished goods is classified as-
a) Manufacturing overhead
b) Indirect materials
c) Indirect labour
d) Direct labour
37
c) Management
d) All
8. Which type of asset class includes those assets which have only definite use and become
valueless when the yield is over?
a) Fixed asset
b) Current asset
c) Fictitious asset
d) Wasting asset
9. An accounting that deals with the accounting and reporting of information to management
regarding the detail information is
a) Financial accounting
b) Management accounting
c) Cost accounting
d) Real Accounting
a) Debtors account
b) Bad debts account
c) Sales account
d) Creditors account
37
a) Nominal account- debit all expenses & losses
b) Real account- credit what comes in
c)Nominal account- credit all incomes & gains
d) Personal account- debit the receiver
13. Cost of goods sold= opening stock+ net purchases+ expenses on Purchases – sales
Which part of formula is wrong? a) opening stock
b) net purchases
c) expenses on Purchases
d)sales
a) Cash account
b) Mahesh Account
c) Sales account
d) Purchase account
37
b) Customer’s account
c) Sales account
d) Cash account
37
b) Large business enterprise only
c) Small business concerns only
d) Manufacturing and service concern
26. is a person or item for which cost may be ascertained. a) Cost unit
b) Cost centre
c) Cost object
d) Cost estimation
29. Amortization of intangible Asset Such as Goodwill which has indefinite life is an example of
accounting concept
a) Conservatism Concept
b) Continuity Concept
c) Realisation Concept
d) Measurement Concept
31. cost will still be incurred although a plant is shut down temporarily.
a) Cost of raw material
b) Advertising
c) Depreciation
d) Carriage
37
32. Accounting principles are generally based upon:
a) Practicability
b) Subjectivity
c) Convenience in recording
d) None of the above
34. The practice of appending notes regarding contingent liabilities in accounting statements is in
pursuance to:
a) Convention of consistency
b) Money measurement concept
c) Convention of conservatism
d) Convention of disclosure
39. Income tax paid by a sole proprietor on his business income should be:
a) Debited to trading account
37
b) Debited to profit and loss account
c) Deducted from capital account in the balance sheet
d) None of the above
40. All direct & indirect expenses related to business are charged:
a) Profit and loss account
b) Trading account
c) Trading account Profit and Loss account
d) Directly to Balance sheet
41. According to schedule VI Companies Act which item is not shown on Asset side of Balance
sheet
a) Investment
b) Current Loan & Advances
c) Provision
d) Lease Holds
43. Investment of X company profit in shares of other company PQR Pvt. ltd are recorded
in……………….
a) Asset side of Balance Sheet
b) Liability side of Balance Sheet
c) Profit & Loss a/c
d) Not recorded in Balance Sheet
a) Remains fixed
b) Fluctuates with volume of production
c) Varies in consideration with the volume of sales
d) None of the above
37
46. The books to be compulsorily maintained by a company are:
a) Increases assets
b) Results in no change in the total assets
c) Decreases assets
d) Increases liability
37
d) Debiting employee a/c ; crediting salary a/c
53. Cost of asset should always be equal to the cost of the liabilities. This concept is
a) Realization Concept
b) Matching Concept
c) Cost Concept
d) Both a and b above
a) Consistency concept
b) Conservatism concept
c) Accounting period concept
d) Cost Concept
a) Current assets
b) Current liabilities
c) Fixed asset
d) Fixed liability
59. Reserve for doubtful debts appearing in the trial balance should be:
37
b) Shown as liability side in balance sheet
c) Reduced from related asset in the balance sheet
d) Both a and b
e) Both a and c
a) Debtors
b) Investors
c) Creditors
d) Shareholders
61. According to which concept business is treated as a unit apart from owner
a) Dual concept
b) Divider concept
c) Entity concept
d) Landlord concept
62. Authorized capital, also known as
a) Nominal capital
b) Paid up capital
c) Issues capital
d) None of these
63. True & fair profit and loss a/c of a company know by
a) Preparing trial balance
b) Preparing respective ledger of account
c) Preparing trading a/c
d) Preparing trading & profit & loss a/c
65. Under which concept it is assumed that the enterprises has neither the intention nor the
necessity of liquidation or of curtailing materiality the scale of operation
a) Revenue realization concept
b) Matching cost concept
37
c) Going concern concept
d) None of these
66. Making the provision for doubtful debts and discount on debtors in anticipation of actual
bad debts and discount is an example for which concept
a) Conservatism concept
b) Continuity concept
c) Realization concept
d) All of these
72. . Which of the following account balance will be shown on debit side of Trial Balance?
a) Outstanding expenses
b) Cash a/c
37
c) Short term loan
d) creditors
73. The reduction in the value of the fixed assets which can arise due to time factor is
a)Discount
b) Depreciation
c)Reduction
d) None of the above
37
b) Cost concept
c) Continuity concept
d) Money measurement concept
81. Proposed dividends" is shown in the Balance Sheet of a company under the head:
a) Provisions
b) Reserves and Surplus
c) Current Liabilities
d) Other Liabilities
82. Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of:
a) Separate entity
b) Going concern
c) Consistency
d) Time period
a) Income Statement
b) Cash Flow Statement
c) Balance Sheet
d) Fund Flow Statement
Bought office wooden table for cash office wooden table cash
Ramesh sold goods on credited to Ram sales cash
37
Introduce capital by cheque capital Bank
Paid to creditor Sita by cheque Sita Bank
a) (ii) (iii)(i)
b) (iii)(iv)(ii)
c) (i)(iii)(iv)
d) (i)(iv)
88. Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of:
a) Separate entity
b) Going concern
c) Consistency
d) Time period
37
92. The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following types of businesses? a.
Sole proprietorship
b. Corporation
c. Partnership
d. All of them
93. Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a business is divided for the
purpose of preparing financial statements?
a) Fiscal year
b) Calendar year
c) Accounting period
d) Accrual period
97. Which of the following is not regarded as the fundamental accounting concept?
a. The going concern concept
b. The separate entity concept
c. The prudence (conservatism) concept
d. Correction concept
98. Using "lower of cost and net realisable value(Market Value)" for the purpose of inventory
valuation is the implementation of which of the following concepts?
a) The going concern concept
b) The separate entity concept
c) The prudence concept
d) Matching concept
37
99. The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following types of businesses?
a) Sole proprietorship
b) Corporation
c) Partnership
d) All of them
100. The revenue recognition principal dictates that all types of incomes should be recorded or
recognized when
a) Cash is received
b) At the end of accounting period
c) When they are earned
d) When interest is paid
101. The allocation of owner's private expenses to his/her business violates which of the
following?
a) Accrual concept
b) Matching concept
c) Separate business entity concept
d) Consistency concept
102. The going concern concept assumes that
37
c) Immaterial
d) Material
106. "Financial information should be neutral and bias free" is the dictation of which one of the
following?
a) Completeness concept
b) Faithful representation Concept
c) Objectivity Concept
d) Duality Concept
107. Accounting principles are divided into two types. These are ---
a) Accounting Concepts
b) Accounting Conventions
c) Accounting Standards
d) Accounting Concepts &Accounting Conventions
108. Which of the following is not related with Money Measurement Concept ?
a) All business transaction should be expressed only in money
b) The transactions which cannot be expressed in money, will not be recorded in
accounting books
c) Business is treated as separate from the proprietor
d) None of These
109. Which of the following equation is related with Dual Aspect Concept ?
a) Total Assets = Total Liabilities
b) Total Assets = Capital + Outsider’s Liabilities
c) Capital = Total Assets - Outsider’s Liabilities
d) All of the above
110. If the total assets of the company amount to Rs 1,50,000 and owner’s equity is Rs 70,000,the
amount of liabilities will be –
a) Rs 70,000
b) Rs 80,000
c) Rs 90,000
d) Rs 1,00,000
a) Profit
37
b) Assets
c) Company
d) Books of A/c
a) Depreciation
b) Wages
c) Salary
d) Stationary
a) Patents
b) Trade Marks
c) Copyright
d) Land
117. The prime function of accounting is to
37
c) Controlling function
d) None of these
120.Book keeping is mainly concerned with
a) Practicability
b) Subjectivity
c) Convenience in recording
d) None of these
122. The system of recording transaction based on dual aspect concept is called
125. The convention of conservatism when applied to the balance sheet result in.
37
c) Providing depreciation
d) None of these
127. The amount brought in by the proprietor in the business should be credited to
a) Cash a/c
b) Capital a/c
c) Drawing a/c
d) Bank a/c
a) Customer a/c
b) Sales return a/c
c) Goods a/c
d) Purchase return a/c
a) Cash a/c
b) Mahesh a/c
c) Sales a/c
d) Sales return a/c
a) Discount a/c
b) Customer a/c
c) Sales a/c
d) None of these
133. In case of a debt becoming bad, the amount should be credited to
a) Debtors Accounts
b) Bad debts a/c
c) Sales a/c
37
a) Ascertain the cost of goods and services
b) Ascertain the profit
c) Presentation of all data
d) None of these
a) Convention of conservatism
b) Convention of full disclosure
c) Convention of consistency
d) None of these
136. Accountant should follow the same principles of accounting continuously is as per which
accounting convention
a) Convention of conservatism
b) Convention of full disclosure
c) Convention of consistency
d) None of these
138. The convention of disclosure implies that all material information should be
a) Single aspect
b) Dual aspect
c) Triple aspect
d) None of these
140. Custom and traditions which guide the accountant while preparing the accounting
statements
a) Accounting convention
37
b) Accounting concepts
c) Accounting principles
d) None of these
141. Rules of action or conduct adopted by the accountants universally while recording
accounting transaction
a) Accounting convention
b) Accounting concepts
c) Accounting principles
d) None of these
142. Basic assumptions or conditions upon which the science of accounting is based.
a) Accounting convention
b) Accounting concepts
c) Accounting principles
d) None of these.
A. system in which accounting entries are made on the basis of amounts having become due
for payment or receipt is called
a) Cash concept
b) Accrual concept
c) Matching concept
d) On-going concept
a) Real a/c
b) Personal a/c
c) Nominal a/c
d) None of these
145. Debit what come in Credit what goes out rule for
a) Real a/c
b) Personal a/c
c) Nominal a/c
d) None of these
146. Debit all expenses and losses Credit all gains and income.
a) Real a/c
b) Personal a/c
c) Nominal a/c
d) None of these
147. A book containing a chronological record of business transaction & original record
a) Journal
37
b) Ledger
c) Trial balance
d) None of these
148. Transferring the debit and credit item from the journal to the respective accounts is
150. The transferring of debit and credit items from journal to the respective accounts in the
ledger is called as
a) Ledger
b) Posting
c) Forward journal
d) None of these
151. Which of the following items would not fall under the definition of an asset? a)
Land
b) Machine
c) Cash
d) Owner Equity
152. Which one of the following items would fall under the definition of a liability a)
Cash
b) Debtor
c) Owner’s equity
d) None of these
37
154.A business has the following items in it:
Land Rs.1,000,000
Machinery Rs.20,000
Cash Rs.10,000
Debt Rs.0
Owner’s equity ?
a) Rs.200, 000
b) Rs.700, 000
c) Rs.800, 000
d) Rs1, 100,000
157.A business has following items in it
Land ?
Vehicles Rs.600,000
Debtors Rs. 1,20,000
Cash Rs.30,000
Owners’Equity Rs.1,000,000
Loan 5,00,000
37
Creditors Rs.50,000
What is the value of the land…………………..
e) 1,000,000
f) 1,550,000
g) 800,000
h) None of these
158. Which of the following equations properly represents a derivation of the fundamental
accounting equation?
a) Only (a)
b) Both (a) (b)
c) All (a)(b)(c)(d)
d) None of these
159. Retained earnings will change over time because of several factors. Which of the following
factors would explain an increase in retained earnings?
a) Net Loss
b) Net income
c) Dividend
d) Investment by share holder.
Cash Rs.100
37
Accounts Receivable Rs.500
Stock holder equity Rs.700
Accounts Payable Rs.200
Bank Loan Rs.1,000
a) Rs.200
b) Rs.1900
c) Rs.1200
d) Rs.1700
163. The full disclosure principle, as adopted by the accounting profession, is best described by
which of the following?
a) All information related to an entity's business and operating objectives is required to be
disclosed in the financial statements.
b) Information about each account balance appearing in the financial statements is to be
included in the notes to the financial statements.
c) Enough information should be disclosed in the financial statements so a person wishing
to invest in the stock of the company can make a profitable decision.
d) Disclosure of any financial facts significant enough to influence the judgment of an
informed reader
166. The Cash account on the balance sheet should not include which of the following items?
a. Travel advances to employees
b. Currency
c. Money orders
d. Deposits in transit
37
b. Assets and equity.
168. The following comments all relate to the recording process. Which of these statements is
correct?
b. The general ledger is posted from transactions recorded in the general journal.
c. The trial balance provides the primary source document for recording transactions into
the general journal.
d. Transposition is the transfer of information from the general journal to the general
ledger.
169. The following comments each relate to the recording of journal entries. Which statement is
true?
c. The chart of accounts reveals the amount to debit and credit to the affected accounts.
171. . Which of the following errors will be disclosed in the preparation of a trial balance?
37
d. Recording the wrong amount for a transaction to both the account debited and the
account credited.
172. The basic sequence in the accounting process can best be described as:
173. Inventory accounts should be classified in which section of a balance sheet? a. Current
assets
b. Investments
c. Property, plant, and equipment
d. Intangible assets
Planning
b) Decision making
c) Control
d) All of these
178. Which of the following statements about differences between financial and managerial
accounting is incorrect?
37
a) Managerial accounting information is prepared primarily for external parties
such as stockholders and creditors; financial accounting is directed at internal
users.
b) Financial accounting is aggregated; managerial accounting is focused on products and
departments.
c) Managerial accounting pertains to both past and future items; financial accounting
focuses primarily on past transactions and events.
d) Financial accounting is based on generally accepted accounting practices; managerial
accounting faces no similar constraining factors.
180. Manufacturing costs are also known as product costs. Which of the following best describes
those costs which are considered to be manufacturing costs?
181. A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, plus long distance
charges, would be classified as a:
a. Variable cost
b. Committed fixed cost
c. Direct cost
d. Semi variable cost
37
184. Business entity concept distinguishes between:
a) Asset
b) Liability
c) Accounts
187. Financial statements are:
a) Estimates of facets
b) Anticipated facts
c) recorded facts
188. Retained earnings statement depicts:
a) Appropriation of profits
b) Estimates of profits
c) Estimates of costs
a) Management
b) Creditors
c) Bankers
d) All of the above
37
a) Sundry creditors
b) Acceptances
c) Unclaimed dividend
d) Short term investment
191. Financial accounting deals with:
a) Determination of cost
b) Determination of profit
c) Determination of price
d) Determination of selling price
a) Actual figures
b) Budgeted figures
c) Standard figures
d) Management Figure
a) 1910
b) 1939
c) 1950
d) 1960
37
c) Current asset
d) Owners equity
a) Financial
b) Economic
c) Non financial
d) None of these
199. Which items does not come under the balance sheet
a) sales
b) Share capital
c) Reserves and surplus
d) Unsecured loan
b) Clerical
37
c) Executive
d) Non- executive
204. Depreciation is a . a)
Cash operating expenditure
b) Accrual basis
c) Mercantile basis
d) Single entry basis
206. Which of the following is true for: -“In accounts recording is done of ” a)
only financial transaction
b) Revenue
c) Direct
d) Non- cash
37
a) Nominal account
b) Real Account
b) Trial Balance
c) Ledger
d) Journal
210. Amount brought in by proprietor should be credited to
a) cash account
b) capital account
c) drawings account
d) creditors account
b) Salaries account
c) Cash account
d) Outstanding expenses
212. All costs other than direct materials cost, direct labour cost and direct expenses are known as:
a) Indirect material cost
b) Overhead
c) Indirect labour cost
d) Indirect expenses
213. A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, plus long distance
charges, would be classified as a:
e. Variable cost
f. Committed fixed cost
37
g. Direct cost
h. Semi variable cost
215. The work of factory employees that can be physically associated with converting raw
material into finished goods is classified as-
e. Manufacturing overhead
f. Indirect materials
g. Indirect labour
h. Direct labour
216. Which one of the following would not be classified as manufacturing overhead? a) Indirect
labour
b) Direct materials
c) Insurance on factory building
d) Indirect materials
218. A manufacturing process requires small amounts of glue. The glue used in the process is
classified as
a) A prime cost
b) An indirect material
c) A direct material
d) Miscellaneous expense
37
220. Because of automation, which component of product cost is declining? a)
Direct labour
b) Direct materials
c) Manufacturing overhead
d) Advertising
224. Aggregate of cost of goods sold and selling and distribution overheads is known as : a)
Total Cost
b) Office Cost
c) Cost of sales
d) Selling overhead
37
Direct material purchased: Rs. 1,00,000
Direct material consumed: Rs. 90,000
Direct labour: Rs. 60,000
Direct expenses: Rs. 20,000
Manufacturing overheads: Rs. 30,000
(a) Rs. 1,80,000
(b) Rs. 2,00,000
(c) Rs. 1,70,000
(d) Rs. 2,10,000
37
DNYANSAGAR INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH
Q. no Question Answer
1. Managerial accounting information is generally prepared for C
…………………
a. Shareholders
b. Creditors
c. Managers
d. Regulatory agencies
a. Creditor
b. Department manager
c. Controller
d. Treasurer
a. Service entities
b. Manufacturing entities
c. Non profit entities
d. All of these
8 Which type of asset class includes those assets which have only D
definite use and become valueless when the yield is over?
a. Fixed asset
b. Current asset
c. Fictitious asset
d. Wasting asset
9 An accounting that deals with the accounting and reporting of B
information to managementregarding the detail information is
a. Financial accounting
b. Management accounting
c. Cost accounting
d. Real Accounting
10
13. Cost of goods sold= opening stock+ net purchases+ expenses on Purchases – D
sales Which part of formula is wrong?
a. opening stock
b. net purchases
c. expenses on Purchases
d. sales
28 cost refers to those cost which have already been incurred and cannot be B
altered by any decision in the future.
a. Opportunity cost
b. Sunk Cost
c. Incremental cost
d. Decremental cost
31. cost will still be incurred although a plant is shut down temporarily. C
a. Cost of raw material
b. Advertising
c. Depreciation
d. Carriage
32 Accounting principles are generally based upon: A
a. Practicability
b. Subjectivity
c. Convenience in recording
d. None of the above
33 The system of recording based on dual aspect concept is called: B
a. Double account system
b. Double entry system
c. Single entry system
d. All the above
34 The practice of appending notes regarding contingent liabilities in accounting D
statements is in pursuance to:
a. Convention of consistency
b. Money measurement concept
c. Convention of conservatism
d. Convention of disclosure
35 Sales are equal to: A
a. Cost of goods sold + gross profit
b. Cost of goods sold - gross profit
c. Gross profit- Cost of goods sold
d. None of the above
36 Interest on drawings is: C
a. Expenditure for the business
b. Cost for the business
c. Gain for the business
d. None of the above
37 Goods given as samples should be credited to: C
a. Advertisement account
b. Sales account
c. Purchase account
d. None of the above
38. Outstanding salaries are shown as: C
a. Added to Salaries while preparing P & La/c
b. Shown in liability side of Balance sheet under current Liability.
c. (a) &(b) above
d. None of the above
39 Income tax paid by a sole proprietor on his business income should be: C
a. Debited to trading account
b. Debited to profit and loss account
c. Deducted from capital account in the balance sheet
d. None of the above
40. All direct & indirect expenses related to business are charged: C
a. Profit and loss account
b. Trading account
c. Trading account Profit and Loss account
d. Directly to Balance sheet
43 Investment of X company profit in shares of other company PQR Pvt. ltd are A
recorded in……………….
a. Asset side of Balance Sheet
b. Liability side of Balance Sheet
c. Profit & Loss a/c
d. Not recorded in Balance Sheet
a. Remains fixed
b. Fluctuates with volume of production
c. Varies in consideration with the volume of sales
d. None of the above
a. Increases assets
b. Results in no change in the total assets
c. Decreases assets
d. Increases liability
63 Cost of asset should always be equal to the cost of the liabilities. This concept B
is
a. Realization Concept
b. Matching Concept
c. Cost Concept
d. Both a and b above
a. Consistency concept
b. Conservatism concept
c. Accounting period concept
d. Cost Concept
a. Current assets
b. Current liabilities
c. Fixed asset
d. Fixed liability
69 Reserve for doubtful debts appearing in the trial balance should be: E
a. Debtors
b. Investors
c. Creditors
d. Shareholders
71 According to which concept business is treated as a unit apart from owner C
a. Dual concept
b. Divider concept
c. Entity concept
d. Landlord concept
72 Authorized capital, also known as A
a. Nominal capital
b. Paid up capital
c. Issues capital
d. None of these
73 True & fair profit and loss a/c of a company know by D
a. Preparing trial balance
b. Preparing respective ledger of account
c. Preparing trading a/c
d. Preparing trading & profit & loss a/c
74 Credit balance of profit & loss a/c shown on B
a. Asset side of balance sheet
b. Liability side of balance sheet
c. Not shown in balance sheet
d. Half on asset side and half on liability side
75 Under which concept it is assumed that the enterprises has neither the C
intention nor the necessity of liquidation or of curtailing materiality the scale
of operation
a. Revenue realization concept
b. Matching cost concept
c. Going concern concept
d. None of these
76 Making the provision for doubtful debts and discount on debtors in A
anticipation of actual bad debts and discount is an example for which concept
a. Conservatism concept
b. Continuity concept
c. Realization concept
d. All of these
82 Which of the following account balance will be shown on debit side of Trial D
Balance?
a. Outstanding expenses
b. Cash a/c
c. Short term loan
d. creditors
83 The reduction in the value of the fixed assets which can arise due to time B
factor is
a. Discount
b. Depreciation
c. Reduction
d. None of the above
92 Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of: B
a. Separate entity
b. Going concern
c. Consistency
d. Time period
a. Income Statement
b. Cash Flow Statement
c. Balance Sheet
d. Fund Flow Statement
95 Which of the following is a liability? A
a. Loan from Mr.Y
b. loan to Mr.y
c. Both (a) (b)
d. None of these
92 Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of: B
e. Separate entity
f. Going concern
g. Consistency
h. Time period
e. Income Statement
f. Cash Flow Statement
g. Balance Sheet
h. Fund Flow Statement
95 Which of the following is a liability? A
e. Loan from Mr.Y
f. loan to Mr.y
g. Both (a) (b)
h. None of these
97 Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of: B
a. Separate entity
b. Going concern
c. Consistency
d. Time period
a. Fiscal year
b. Calendar year
c. Accounting period
d. Accrual period
107 Using "lower of cost and net realisable value(Market Value)" for the purpose C
of inventory valuation is the implementation of which of the following
concepts?
a. The going concern concept
b. The separate entity concept
c. The prudence concept
d. Matching concept
108 The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following D
types of businesses?
a. Sole proprietorship
b. Corporation
c. Partnership
d. All of them
109 The revenue recognition principal dictates that all types of incomes should be C
recorded or recognized when
a. Cash is received
b. At the end of accounting period
c. When they are earned
d. When interest is paid
110 The allocation of owner's private expenses to his/her business violates which C
of the following?
a. Accrual concept
b. Matching concept
c. Separate business entity concept
d. Consistency concept
112 Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a C
business is divided for the purpose of preparing financial statements?
a. Fiscal year
b. Calendar year
c. Accounting period
d. Accrual period
113 Showing purchased office equipments in financial statements is the B
application of which accounting concept?
a. Historical cost convention
b. Materiality
c. Prudence
d. Matching concept
114 Information about an item is if its omission or misstatement might D
influence the financial decision of the users taken on the basis of that
information
a. Concrete
b. Complete
c. Immaterial
d. Material
115 "Financial information should be neutral and bias free" is the dictation of C
which one of the following?
a. Completeness concept
b. Faithful representation Concept
c. Objectivity Concept
d. Duality Concept
116 Accounting principles are divided into two types. These are --- D
a. Accounting Concepts
b. Accounting Conventions
c. Accounting Standards
d. Accounting Concepts &Accounting Conventions
117 Which of the following is not related with Money Measurement Concept ? B
a. All business transaction should be expressed only in money
b. The transactions which cannot be expressed in money, will not be
recorded in accounting books
c. Business is treated as separate from the proprietor
d. None of These
118 Which of the following equation is related with Dual Aspect Concept ? D
a. Total Assets = Total Liabilities
b. Total Assets = Capital + Outsider’s Liabilities
c. Capital = Total Assets - Outsider’s Liabilities
d. All of the above
119 If the total assets of the company amount to Rs 1,50,000 and owner’s B
equity is Rs 70,000, the amount of liabilities will be –
a. Rs 70,000
b. Rs 80,000
c. Rs 90,000
d. Rs 1,00,000
c. Controlling function
d. None of these
131 The convention of conservatism when applied to the balance sheet result A
in.
a. Understand the asset
b. Understand the liabilities
c. Overstatement of capital
d. None of these
c. Providing depreciation
d. None of these
133 The amount brought in by the proprietor in the business should be credited B
to
a. Cash a/c
b. Capital a/c
c. Drawing a/c
d. Bank a/c
134 The amount of salary paid to Suresh should be debited to B
a. The account of Suresh
b. Salaries a/c
c. Cash a/c
d. Bank a/c
141 The convention of disclosure implies that all material information should be A
a. Disclosed in the account
b. Disclosed in the accounts which is required to owner
c. Not disclosed
d. None of these
143 Custom and traditions which guide the accountant while preparing the C
accounting statements
a. Accounting convention
b. Accounting concepts
c. Accounting principles
d. None of these
145 system in which accounting entries are made on the basis of amounts having B
become due for payment or receipt is called
a. Cash concept
b. Accrual concept
c. Matching concept
d. On-going concept
147 Debit what come in Credit what goes out rule for A
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
148 Debit all expenses and losses Credit all gains and income. C
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
150 Transferring the debit and credit item from the journal to the respective B
accounts is called
a. Compound Journal
b. Ledger
c. Trial balance
d. None of these
152 The transferring of debit and credit items from journal to the respective B
accounts in the ledger is called as
a. Ledger
b. Posting
c. Forward journal
d. None of these
153 Which of the following items would not fall under the definition of an asset? D
a. Land
b. Machine
c. Cash
d. Owner Equity
154 Which one of the following items would fall under the definition of a C
liability
a. Cash
b. Debtor
c. Owner’s equity
d. None of these
a. Rs.200, 000
b. Rs.700, 000
c. Rs.800, 000
d. Rs1, 100,000
Creditors Rs.50,000
What is the value of the land…………………..
a. 1,000,000
b. 1,550,000
c. 800,000
d. None of these
160 Which of the following equations properly represents a derivation of the D
fundamental accounting equation?
a. Only (a)
b. Both (a) (b)
c. All (a)(b)(c)(d)
d. d) None of these
161 Retained earnings will change over time because of several factors. Which B
of the following factors would explain an increase in retained earnings?
a. Net Loss
b. Net income
c. Dividend
d. Investment by share holder.
164 XYZltd.has provided the following information about its balance sheet: B
Cash Rs.100
a. Rs.200
b. Rs.1900
c. Rs.1200
d. Rs.1700
165 The full disclosure principle, as adopted by the accounting profession, is D
best described by which of the following?
a. All information related to an entity's business and operating
objectives is required to be disclosed in the financial statements.
b. Information about each account balance appearing in the financial
statements is to be included in the notes to the financial
statements.
c. Enough information should be disclosed in the financial statements
so a person wishing to invest in the stock of the company can make
a profitable decision.
d. Disclosure of any financial facts significant enough to influence the
judgment of an informed reader
166 Which of the following is a real (permanent) account? D
a. Goodwill
b. Sales
c. Accounts Receivable
d. Both Goodwill and Accounts Receivable
167 Which of the following statements is not an objective of financial B
reporting?
a. Provide information that is useful in investment and credit
decisions.
b. Provide information regarding policy of organization
c. Provide information that is useful in assessing cash flow
prospective
d. None of theses
168 The Cash account on the balance sheet should not include which of the A
following items?
a. Travel advances to employees
b. Currency
c. Money orders
d. Deposits in transit
170 The following comments all relate to the recording process. Which of these B
statements is correct?
a. The general ledger is a chronological record of transactions.
b. The general ledger is posted from transactions recorded in the general
journal.
c. The trial balance provides the primary source document for recording
transactions into the general journal.
d. Transposition is the transfer of information from the general journal to
the general ledger.
171 The following comments each relate to the recording of journal entries. Which D
statement is true?
a. For any given journal entry, debits must exceed credits.
b. It is customary to record credits on the left and debits on the right.
c. The chart of accounts reveals the amount to debit and credit to the
affected accounts.
d. Journalization is the process of converting transactions and events into
debit/credit format.
172 The trial balance is ………………………….. D
173 Which of the following errors will be disclosed in the preparation of a trial C
balance?
a. Recording transactions in the wrong account.
b. Duplication of a transaction in the accounting records.
c. Posting only the debit portion of a particular journal entry.
d. Recording the wrong amount for a transaction to both the account
debited and the account credited.
174 The basic sequence in the accounting process can best be described as: D
a. Transaction, journal entry, source document, ledger account, trial
balance.
b. Source document, transaction, ledger account, journal entry, trial
balance.
c. Transaction, source document, journal entry, trial balance, ledger
account.
d. d. Transaction, source document, journal entry, ledger account,
trial balance.
181 Manufacturing costs are also known as product costs. Which of the C
following best describes those costs which are considered to be
manufacturing costs?
a. Direct materials, direct labor, and factory overhead.
b. Direct materials and direct labor only.
c. Direct materials, direct labor, factory overhead, and administrative
overhead.
d. Direct labor and factory overhead.
182 A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, D
plus long distance charges, would be classified as a:
a. Variable cost
b. Committed fixed cost
c. Direct cost
d. Semi variable cost
a. Sundry creditors
b. Acceptances
c. Unclaimed dividend
d. Short term investment
193 Financial accounting deals with: B
a. Determination of cost
b. Determination of profit
c. Determination of price
d. Determination of selling price
194 Financial account record only A
a. Actual figures
b. Budgeted figures
c. Standard figures
d. Management Figure
195 The term Management Accounting was first used in C
a. 1910
b. 1939
c. 1950
d. 1960
d. Six months
205 A budget is tool which helps the management in planning and control of… A
a. All business activities
b. Production activities
c. Purchase activities
d. Sales activities
206 Budgetary control system acts as a friend, philosopher and guide to the… A
a. Management
b. Share holders
c. Creditors
d. Employees
207 Budgetary control system defines the objectives and policies of the… D
a. Production department
b. Finance department
c. Marketing department
d. All
208 Budgetary control system facilitates centralized control with… C
a. Decentralized activity
b. Centralized activity
c. Both
d. None
209 Budgetary control facilitates easy introduction of the… C
a. Marginal costing
b. Ratio analysis
c. Standard costing
d. Subjective matter
210 Budgetary control helps the management in… A
a. Obtaining bank credit
b. Issue of shares
c. Getting grants from government
d. All of these
211 Budgetary control system helps the management to eliminate… C
a. Undercapitalization
b. Overcapitalization
c. Both
d. Subjective matter
212 Budgetary control provides a basis for… C
a. Bonus shares
b. Rights shares
c. Remuneration plans
d. None
213 Budgetary control helps to introduce a suitable incentive and B
remuneration based
on…
a. Changes in government policies
b. Inflationary conditions
c. Both
d. None
229 On the basis of flexibility budget is classified into two types such as fixed A
budget and
________ budget.
a. variable
b. Semi-variable
c. Constant
230 Variable budget is also known as _______ budget. C
a. Fixed
b. Semi-variable
c. Flexible
231 The budget prepared according to ________ is known as functional C
budgets.
a. Period
b. Controls
c. Functions
232 ……………….. budget is a budget which is designed to remain unchanged C
irrespective of the volume of output or turnover achieved.
a. Flexible
b. Cash
c. Fixed
233 A Flexible budget is one which permits the change in accordance with the B
changes
in the level of activity.
a. Fixed
b. Flexible
c. Sales
234 Flexible budgets are more useful in actual practice because it is more A
realistic and
has great practical utility in the business.
a. realistic
b. non-realistic
c. Predictable
235 A _______ budget is the budget which shows the quantity and value of C
goods to be
purchased during the budget period to meet the day-to-day needs of the
business.
a. Sales
b. Cash
c. Purchase
236 One of the basic purpose to prepare _______ budget is to estimate the A
cash
requirements for the purchases to be made during the budgeted period.
a. purchase
b. cash
c. sales
247 Given the budgeted output in second quarter is 8,000 units. In the first A
quarter,
Fixed overheads were Rs 40,000 Variable overheads were Rs 5 per unit ( Rs
40,000)
and semi variable were 20,000 ( 60% varying @ Rs 3 per unit). Determine
the total
manufacturing overhead budget for the second quarter.
a. Rs 1,12,000
b. 1,12,000 units
c. Insufficient data
d. None of the above
248 Budgetary control system defines the objectives and policies of the… D
a. Production department
b. Finance department
c. Marketing department
d. All
249 Budgetary control system facilitates centralized control with… C
a. Decentralized activity
b. Centralized activity
c. Both
d. None
COMMERCE DEPARTMENT
FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING – I
F.Y.B.COM (SEMESTER – I)
Prepared By
Mangesh Takpire
Asst. Professor, ACACSC, Camp, Pune
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.1 Accounting is called as ……….. of business. Que.2 Specific business entity separate from
personnel affair of the owner is?
A. Concepts
B. Language A. Objectivity principle
C. Methods B. Stable currency principle
D. None of the above. C. Entity principle
D. Matching principle
Que.3 According to money measurement concept, Que.4 Contingent liability appears as a footnote in the
which one of the following will be recorded in the balance sheet. This is in accordance with the
books of accounts? accounting principle?
A. Excellent moral of workers A. Consistency
B. Cost of Machinery B. Disclosure
C. Managing ability of the manager C. Conservatism
D. Quality control in the business D. Materiality
Que.5 Connected with cost principles, assets required Que.6 Which one of the following concept may be
for used not for resale? stated as "for every debit, there is a credit"?
A. Cost principle A. Separate Entity Concept
B. Accounting principle B. Dual Aspect Concept
C. Going concern assumption C. Money Measurement Concept
D. None of them D. Accounting Period Concept
Que.7 Which of the following is the GAAP that Que.8 When the cost incurred on recruiting, training
requires the recording of depreciation? and developing the employees is considered for
determining the value of employees, it is called
A. Materially constraints
B. Matching principle A. the replacement cost approach
C. Cost principle B. the historical cost approach
D. Time-period principle C. the opportunity cost approach
D. none of the above
Que.9 Inflation Accounting is the practice of adjusting Que.10 The accounting methodology that deals with
financial statements according to……… energetics, ecology and economics is termed as……….
A. Book Record A. Inflation Accounting
B. Books of Accounts B. Creative Accounting
C. Prices indexes C. Economic Accounting
D. None of the above D. Environmental Accounting
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Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.11 Forensic Accounting is a form of ………… Que.12 ………… capital means the capital which is more
accounting than the required capital according to the share of
profit an individual partner is sharing.
A. Investment
B. Investigative A. Fixed
C. International B. Current
D. None of the above C. Surplus
D. Deficit
Que.13 According to …….. concept, all expenses even Que.14 Accounting ……… are the general rules of
though not paid but under obligation to pay in near action or conduct, which are adopted by the
future, are also to be recorded. accountants universally while recording business
transactions.
A. Cash
B. Entity A. Records
C. Money measurement B. Entries
D. Accrual C. Principles
D. Methods
Que.15 GAAP stands for: Que.16 Which accounting principle states that
companies and owners should be treated as separate
A. Generally Accepted Accounting Provisions
entities.
B. Generally Accepted Accounting Policies
C. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles A. Monetary Unit Assumption
D. None of these B. Business Entity Concept
C. Periodicity Assumption
D. Going Concern Concept
Que.17 Cost or expenses must be recorded at the Que.18 The correct form of Accounting equation is
same time as the revenue to which they correspond is
A. Assets – Receivable = Equity
specified by which principle?
B. Assets + Receivable = Equity
A. Matching Principle C. Assets – Liabilities = Equity
B. Going Concern Principle D. Assets + Liabilities = Equity
C. Consistency Principle
D. Prudence Principle
Que.19 As per revenue recognition principle, sales Que.20 Due to which concept, accounting does not
revenues should be recognized at the time when? record non-financial transactions?
A. Order is taken for merchandise A. Going concern concept
B. Ownership of goods gets transferred from the B. Money measurement concept
seller to the buyer C. Accrual concept
C. Cash is received D. Cost concept
D. All of the above
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Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.21 The owner of the business is treated as a Que.22 As per the accrual concept of accounting, any
creditor of the business according to which of the financial or business transaction should be recorded:
following concept?
A. when profit is computed
A. Entity concept B. when balance sheet is prepared
B. Materiality concept C. when cash is received or paid
C. Consistency concept D. when transaction occurs
D. Periodicity concept
Que.25 Which is not external Liability? Que.26 In Piecemeal Distribution of Cash which
liability paid off preferentially?
A. Loan from partners
B. Govt. Dues A. Realisation exp.
C. Realisation Expenses B. Govt. Dues
D. Secured Assets C. Loan from partner
D. Capital
Que.27 Surplus capital method is also known as_____ Que.28 Maximum Loss method is also known as____
A. Quotient method A. Surplus Capital Method
B. Maximum Loss Method B. High Relative Capital Method
C. National Loss Method C. National Loss Method
D. None of all these D. Excess Capital Method
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Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.31 When is Garner V/s Murray Rulings is Que.32 Maximum Loss = Total of capital A/c. Balance
applicable? less __________
A. When insolvent partner did not able to pay off his A. Cash available
capital deficiency B. Cash paid
B. When insolvent partner able to pay off his capital C. Profit
deficiency D. None of these
C. When solvent partner did not able pay off his
capital deficiency
D. When solvent partner pay off his capital deficiency
Que.33 In Piecemeal distribution amounts realised Que.34 The liability of partners in a firm is..........
from assets are payable in the following order:
A. Limited
A. Realisation expenses, Outside Liabilities, Partners B. Certain
Loan, Partners Capital C. Unlimited
B. Partners Capital, outside Liabilities, Partners Loan, D. Fixed
Realisation Expenses
C. Partners Capital, Partners Loan, outside Liabilities,
Realisation Expenses
D. None of the above
Que.35 Reserve fund is distributed among the Que.36 Under Surplus Capital method in Piecemeal
partners in their.......ratio. Distribution, after the repayment of all outsider
liabilities, the.............are to be discharged on pro-rata
A. New
basis.
B. Profit sharing
C. Old A. partners capital
D. Partner B. partners loans
C. partners assets
D. none of the above
Que.37 In piecemeal distribution, first pay Que.38 Single entry systems are maintained by
the.............liabilities.
A. Company
A. Unsecured B. Income tax authorities
B. Preferential C. Government
C. Secured D. Sole trader
D. none of the above
Que.39 Single entry system of book keeping is Que.40 If closing capital is >opening capital, it denotes
A. Simple A. Loss
B. Unauthorized by tax authorities B. Profit
C. Unscientific C. No profit no loss
D. all of these D. Profit, if there is no introduction of fresh capital
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Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.41 If closing capital is < opening capital, it Que.42 If capital at the end of the year is 40,000:
denotes that capital introduced during the year Rs. 30,000; drawings
20,000 and loss for the year is 60,000; then Capital at
A. Loss
the beginning of the year was:
B. Profit
C. No profit no loss A. 90000
D. Loss, if there is no introduction of fresh capital B. 80000
C. 70000
D. 10000
Que.43 If capital at the end of the year is 50,000: Que.44 Profit = capital at the end + drawings -
capital introduced during the year Rs. 30,000; drawings additional capital - …………..
20,000 and profit for the year is 30,000; then Capital at
A. Opening capital
the beginning of the year
B. Closing capital
A. 10,000 C. Loss
B. 30000 D. None of these
C. 20000
D. 35000
Que.45 What should be added in closing capital for Que.46 When the amount of closing capital (after
calculating opening capital? adjusting drawings ) is less than that of opening capital
the difference will be treated as:-
A. Loss and drawing
B. Profit and drawing A. Loss
C. Profit only B. Profit
D. Loss only C. Additional capital
D. None of them
Que.47 If opening capital is 24,000; closing capital Que.48 A system of accounting which is not based on
40,000; drawing 7,000; fresh capital 8,000. Calculate double entry system is called-
profit or loss.
A. Cash system
A. Profit 15,000 B. Mahajani system of accounting
B. Loss 15,000 C. Incomplete accounting system
C. Profit 20,000 D. None of these.
D. Loss 20,000
Que.49 Accounts which are maintained under single Que.50 Statement of affairs is prepared to-
entry system-
A. Know about assets
A. Personal accounts B. Know about liabilities
B. Impersonal accounts C. Calculate capital
C. (a) & (b) both D. Know financial position.
D. None of these.
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Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.51 Liabilities and assets amount to Rs. 50,000 and Que.52 Generally incomplete records are maintained
Rs. 78,000 respectively. The difference amount will by-
represent-
A. Trader
A. Creditors B. Society
B. Debentures C. Company
C. Profit D. Government.
D. Capital.
Que.53 Statements of assets & liabilities prepared Que.54 In Single entry mostly:
under single entry system is called:
A. Personal aspects of transaction are recorded
A. Balance sheet B. Nominal aspects of transaction are recorded
B. Profit & loss statement C. Real aspects of transaction are recorded
C. Statement of affairs D. All of the above
D. Income Statement
Que.57 In India GST became effective from Que.58 In India GST came effective from July 1st, 2017
India chosen________ model of dual GST
A. 1st April, 2017
B. 1st January, 2017 A. USA
C. 1st July, 2017 B. UK
D. 1st March, 2017 C. Canadian
D. China
Que.59 GST is a ___________ based tax on Que.60 Indian GST model has________rate structure
consumption of goods and services
A. 3
A. Duration B. 4
B. Destination C. 5
C. Dividend D. 6
D. Development
Page - 6
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Business Regulatory Framework (M.Law)
Que.61 What does "I" stands for in IGST Que.62 How many types of taxes will be in Indian GST
A. International A. 2
B. Intention B. 3
C. Integrated C. 4
D. Intra D. 5
Que.63 What are the taxes lavied on an Intra state Que.64 what is the maximum rate of cgst prescribed
supply under cgst act 2017?
A. CGST A. 0.28
B. SGST B. 0.2
C. CGST & SGST C. 0.12
D. IGST D. 0.18
Que.65 Which of the following tax was abolished by Que.66 The incidence of tax on tax is called
GST?
A. Tax Cascading
A. Corporate Tax B. Tax Pyramiding
B. Income Tax C. Tax evasion
C. Service Tax D. Indirect tax
D. Wealth Tax
Que.67 UTGST is applicable when Que.68 Integrated Goods and Services Tax is
applicable when
A. Sold from Union territory
B. Goods are purchased by Central Government A. Sold in Union territory
C. Sold from one union territory to another union B. Sold from one GST dealer to another GST dealer
territory C. Sold within a state
D. There is interstate supply D. There is interstate supply
Que.69 SGST is applicable when Que.70 When a GST dealer in Kerala sells a product o
a GST dealer or customer in Tamilnadu, the tax
A. Goods are sold within a state
collected is
B. Goods are sold from one GST dealer to a customer
C. Goods are sold by a GST dealer to another GST A. CGST
dealer B. SGST
D. Interstate supply C. CGST & SGST
D. IGST
Page - 7
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01
Answer Keys
Que 1 - Option B Que 2 - Option C Que 3 - Option B Que 4 - Option B Que 5 - Option C
Que 6 - Option B Que 7 - Option C Que 8 - Option B Que 9 - Option C Que 10 - Option D
Que 11 - Option B Que 12 - Option C Que 13 - Option D Que 14 - Option C Que 15 - Option C
Que 16 - Option B Que 17 - Option A Que 18 - Option C Que 19 - Option B Que 20 - Option B
Que 21 - Option A Que 22 - Option D Que 23 - Option B Que 24 - Option A Que 25 - Option A
Que 26 - Option A Que 27 - Option A Que 28 - Option C Que 29 - Option A Que 30 - Option A
Que 31 - Option A Que 32 - Option A Que 33 - Option A Que 34 - Option C Que 35 - Option B
Que 36 - Option B Que 37 - Option B Que 38 - Option D Que 39 - Option D Que 40 - Option D
Que 41 - Option D Que 42 - Option A Que 43 - Option A Que 44 - Option A Que 45 - Option A
Que 46 - Option A Que 47 - Option A Que 48 - Option C Que 49 - Option A Que 50 - Option C
Que 51 - Option D Que 52 - Option A Que 53 - Option C Que 54 - Option A Que 55 - Option B
Que 56 - Option C Que 57 - Option C Que 58 - Option C Que 59 - Option B Que 60 - Option 6
Que 61 - Option C Que 62 - Option B Que 63 - Option C Que 64 - Option B Que 65 - Option C
Que 66 - Option A Que 67 - Option A Que 68 - Option C Que 69 - Option A Que 70 - Option D
Page - 8
MCQs
a. Shareholders
b. Creditors
c. Managers
d. Regulatory agencies
a. Creditor
b Department manager
c. Controller
d. Treasurer
a. Service entities
b. Manufacturing entities
d. All of
accounting convention.
a. Convention of conservatism
c. Convention of materiality
d. Convention of consistency
5. The work of factory employees that can be physically associated with converting raw
b. Indirect materials
c. Indirect labour
d. Direct labour
a. Cost
b. Financial
c. Management
d. All
d. None of these
8. Which type of asset class includes those assets which have only definite use and
a. Fixed asset
b. Current asset
c. Fictitious asset
d. Wasting asset
9. An accounting that deals with the accounting and reporting of information to management
a. Financial accounting
b. Management accounting
c. Cost accounting
d. Real Accounting
d. None of these
a. Debtors account
c. Sales account
d. Creditors account
13. Cost of goods sold= opening stock+ net purchases+ expenses on Purchases – sales
a. opening stock
b. net purchases
c. expenses on Purchases
d. sales
a. Customers account
b. Sales return account
c. Goods account
d. Purchase account
a. Cash account
b. Mahesh Account
c. Sales account
d. Purchase account
a. Landlords account
b. Rent account
c. Cash account
d. Expense account
a. Discount account
b. Customer’s account
c. Sales account
d. Cash account
Stock = …………………
a. Sales, Purchases
a. Historical
b. Forward looking
c. Analytical
d. Social
a. Statutory requirements
c. Labour unrest
a. Only to workers
b. Only to government
c. Only to consumers
a. Fixed cost
b. Variable cost
a. Cost unit
b. Cost centre
c. Cost object
d. Cost estimation
a. Prime cost
b. Factory overhead
c. Selling overhead
d. Office overhead
28. ………………cost refers to those cost which have already been incurred and cannot be
a. Opportunity cost
b. Sunk Cost
c. Incremental cost
d. Decremental cost
29. Amortization of intangible Asset Such as Goodwill which has indefinite life is an example
of accounting concept
a. Conservatism Concept
b. Continuity Concept
c. Realisation Concept
d. Measurement Concept
a. Loan
b. Unsecured Loan
c. Secured Loan
d. Advance by Manager & director
31. ………………cost will still be incurred although a plant is shut down temporarily.
b. Advertising
c. Depreciation
d. Carriage
a. Practicability
b. Subjectivity
c. Convenience in recording
34. The practice of appending notes regarding contingent liabilities in accounting statements
is in pursuance to:
a. Convention of consistency
c. Convention of conservatism
d. Convention of disclosure
a. Advertisement account
b. Sales account
c. Purchase account
39. Income tax paid by a sole proprietor on his business income should be:
40. All direct & indirect expenses related to business are charged:
b. Trading account
41. According to schedule VI Companies Act which item is not shown on Asset side of
Balance sheet
a. Investment
c. Provision
d. Lease Holds
42. Trade Payables are recorded in…………….
c. P & L a/c
43. Investment of X company profit in shares of other company PQR Pvt. ltd are recorded
in……………….
a. Remains fixed
c. Journal
d. Both a and b
e. All of a, b, c above
a. Increases assets
c. Decreases assets
d. Increases liability
a. Machinery
b. Building
c. Cash
d. Creditor
53. Cost of asset should always be equal to the cost of the liabilities. This concept is
a. Double Entry Bookkeeping
b. Matching Concept
c. Consistency
a. Building
b. Bank Balance
c. Plant Patents
d. Goodwill
a. Realization Concept
b. Matching Concept
c. Cost Concept
a. Consistency concept
b. Conservatism concept
d. Cost Concept
a. Current assets
b. Current liabilities
c. Fixed asset
d. Fixed liability
b. A liability
59. Reserve for doubtful debts appearing in the trial balance should be:
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
a. Dual concept
b. Divider concept
c. Entity concept
d. Landlord concept
61. According to which concept business is treated as a unit apart from owner
b. Organisational culture
c. Failure of management
a. Nominal Capital
c. Issues capital
d. None of these
63. True & fair profit and loss a/c of a company know by
65. Under which concept it is assumed that the enterprises has neither the intention nor the
d. None of these
66. Making the provision for doubtful debts and discount on debtors in anticipation of actual
a. Conservatism concept
b. Continuity concept
c. Realization concept
d. All of these
a. Projected data
c. Historic data
b. Art
c. Science
d. Art or Science
a. Original
b. Duplicate
c. Personal
d. Nominal
a. Rules of Personal
b. Rules of Real
c. Rules of Nominal
d. All of these
72. Which of the following account balance will be shown on debit side of Trial Balance?
a. Outstanding expenses
b. Cash a/c
d. creditors
73. The reduction in the value of the fixed assets which can arise due to time factor is
a. Discount
b. Depreciation
c. Reduction
d. None of these
c. Owner’s fund
d. All of these
a. Current asset
b. Current liability
d. None of these
a. Cost
b. Net profit
c. Gross profit
d. Selling price
a. Management only
b. Government only
c. Investor only
d. All of these
a. Provision
c. Current Liabilities
d. Other Liabilities
81. Proposed dividends" is shown in the Balance Sheet of a company under the head:
a. Provision
b. Reserves and Surplus
c. Current Liabilities
d. Other Liabilities
82. Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of:
a. Separate entity
b. Going concern
c. Consistency
d. Time period
a. Periodicity concept
b. Materiality Principle
c. Entity Concept
d. Consistency concept
84. Which financial statement represents the accounting equation ASSETS = LIABILITIES +
OWNER'S EQUITY
a. Income Statement
c. Balance Sheet
b. loan to Mr.y
d. None of these
86. Which of the following are correct? Account to be debited Account to be credited
Bought office wooden table for cash office wooden table cash
b. (iii)(iv)(ii)
c. (i)(iii)(iv) Wide
d. (i)(iv)
a. Accrual concept
b. Cost concept
c. Continuity concept
88. Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of:
a. Separate entity
b. Going concern
c. Consistency
d. Time period
b. It is a special account
a. Trading a/c
b. Balance sheet
d. Trial balance.
92. The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following types of businesses?
a. Sole proprietorship
b. Corporation
c. Partnership
d. All of them
93. Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a business is divided for
a. Fiscal year
b. Calendar year
c. Accounting period
d. Accrual period
a. Personal a/c
b. Impersonal a/c
c. Real a/c
d. Nominal a/c
a. Disclosure of loss
b. Disclosure of profit
97. Which of the following is not regarded as the fundamental accounting concept?
d. Correction concept
98. Using "lower of cost and net realisable value(Market Value)" for the purpose of inventory
d. Matching concept
99. The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following types of businesses?
a. Sole proprietorship
b. Corporation
c. Partnership
d. All of them
100.The revenue recognition principal dictates that all types of incomes should be recorded or
recognized when
a. Cash is received
101. The allocation of owner's private expenses to his/her business violates which of the
following?
a. Accurual concept
b. Matching concept
d. Consistency concept
103. Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a business is divided for
a. Fiscal year
b. Calendar year
c. Accounting period
d. Accrual period
104. Showing purchased office equipment’s in financial statements is the application of which
accounting concept?
b. Materiality
c. Prudence
d. Matching concept
105. Information about an item is ________ if its omission or misstatement might influence the
a. Concrete
b. Complete
c. Immaterial
d. Material
106. "Financial information should be neutral and bias free" is the dictation of which one of the
following?
a. Completeness concept
c. Objectivity Concept
d. Duality Concept
107. Accounting principles are divided into two types. These are ---
a. Accounting Concepts
b. Accounting Conventions
c. Accounting Standards
d. Accounting Concepts &Accounting Conventions
108. Which of the following is not related with Money Measurement Concept?
b. The transactions which cannot be expressed in money, will not be recorded in accounting books
d. None of These
109. Which of the following equation is related with Dual Aspect Concept?
110. If the total assets of the company amount to Rs 1,50,000 and owner’s equity is Rs.
a. Rs 70,000
b. Rs 80,000
c. Rs 90,000
d. Rs 1,00,000
a. Revenue Profit
b. Capital Profit 18
c. Loss
d. None of these
a. Profit
b. Assets
c. Company
d. Books of A/c
a. Depreciation
b. Wages
c. Salary
d. Stationary
a. Assets
b. Liabilities
c. Capital
d. All of these
a. Patents
b. Trade Marks
c. Copyright
d. Land
c. Controlling function
d. None of these
a. Practicability
b. Subjectivity
c. Convenience in recording
d. None of these
122. The system of recording transaction based on dual aspect concept is called
d. None of these
123. The practice of appending notes regarding contingent liabilities in accounting statement is
pursuant of
a. Convention of consistency
c. Convention of conservatism
d. Convention of disclosure
124. According to the money measurement concept the following will be recorded in the books
c. Overstatement of capital
d. None of these
c. Providing depreciation
d. None of these
127. The amount brought in by the proprietor in the business should be credited to
a. Cash a/c
b. Capital a/c
c. Drawing a/c
d. Bank a/c
b. Salaries a/c
c. Cash a/c
d. Bank a/c
a. Customer a/c
c. Goods a/c
a. Cash a/c
b. Mahesh a/c
c. Sales a/c
d. Sales return a/c
b. Rent a/c
c. Cash a/c
d. Tenant a/c
a. Discount a/c
b. Customer a/c
c. Sales a/c
d. None of these
a. Debtors Accounts
c. Sales a/c
d. None of these
accounting concept
a. Convention of conservatism
c. Convention of consistency
d. None of these
136. Accountant should follow the same principles of accounting continuously is as per which
accounting convention
a. Convention of conservatism
b. Convention of full disclosure
c. Convention of consistency
d. None of these
137. Accounting principles are …………………………. which are adopted by the accountant
d. None of these
138. The convention of disclosure implies that all material information should be
c. Not disclosed
d. None of these
a. Single aspect
b. Dual aspect
c. Triple aspect
d. None of these
140. Custom and traditions which guide the accountant while preparing the accounting
Statements
a. Accounting convention
b. Accounting concepts
c. Accounting principles
d. None of these
141. Rules of action or conduct adopted by the accountants universally while recording
accounting transaction
a. Accounting convention
b. Accounting concepts
c. Accounting principles
d. None of these
142. Basic assumptions or conditions upon which the science of accounting is based.
a. Accounting convention
b. Accounting concepts
c. Accounting principles
d. None of these.
143. A system in which accounting entries are made on the basis of amounts having become
a. Cash concept
b. Accrual concept
c. Matching concept
d. On-going concept
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
145. Debit what come in Credit what goes out rule for
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
146. Debit all expenses and losses Credit all gains and income.
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
147. A book containing a chronological record of business transaction & original record
a. Journal
b. Ledger
c. Trial balance
d. None of these
148. Transferring the debit and credit item from the journal to the respective accounts is called
a. Compound Journal
b. Ledger
c. Trial balance
d. None of these
a. Compound Journal
b. Ledger
c. Trial balance
d. None of these
150. The transferring of debit and credit items from journal to the respective accounts in the
ledger is called as
a. Ledger
b. Posting
c. Forward journal
d. None of these
151. Which of the following items would not fall under the definition of an asset?
a. Land
b. Machine
c. Cash
d. Owner Equity
152. Which one of the following items would fall under the definition of a liability
a. Cash
b. Debtor
c. Owner’s equity
d. None of these
c. The accounting equation shows how much of your assets belong to the owner, and how
154. business has the following items in it: Land Rs.1,000,000 Machinery Rs.20,000 Cash
Rs.10,000 Debt Rs.0 Owner’s equity ? What is the valve of owner’s equity?
a. Rs.1020000
b. Rs.1010000
c. Rs.1030000
155. A business has the following items in it: Owners’ equity Rs.6,00,000 Liabilities
a. 600,000
b. 1,400,000
c. 2,000,000
d. None of these
156. A business has the following items in it: Land Rs.1, 500,000 Machinery Rs.80, 000
Cash Rs.20, 000 Owners equity Rs.900, 000 Loan Rs.500, 000 Creditors?
a. Rs.200, 000
b. Rs.700, 000
c. Rs.800, 000
d. Rs1, 100,000
157. A business has following items in itLand ? Vehicles Rs.600,000 Debtors Rs. 1,20,000
a. 000,000
b. 1,550,000
c. 800,000
d. None of these
158. Which of the following equations properly represents a derivation of the fundamental
accounting equation? a) Assets + liabilities = Owner Equity b) Asset = Owner Equity c) Cash =
a. Only (a)
c. All (a)(b)(c)(d)
d. None of these
159. Retained earnings will change over time because of several factors. Which of the
a. Net Loss
b. Net income
c. Dividend
a. Accounts payable
b. Accounts receivable
c. Sales
d. Cash
162. XYZltd.has provided the following information about its balance sheet: Cash Rs.100
Accounts Receivable Rs.500 Stock holder equity Rs.700 Accounts Payable Rs.200
Bank Loan Rs.1,000. Based on the information provided, how much are XYZ ltd.Total
liabilities?
a. Rs.200
b. Rs.1900
c. Rs.1200
d. Rs.1700
163. The full disclosure principle, as adopted by the accounting profession, is best described by
informed reader
a. Goodwill
b. Sales
c. Accounts Receivable
d. None of theses
166. The Cash account on the balance sheet should not include which of the following items?
b. Currency
c. Money orders
d. Deposits in transit
168. The following comments all relate to the recording process. Which of these statements is
correct?
b. The general ledger is posted from transactions recorded in the general journal.
c. The trial balance provides the primary source document for recording transactions into
d. Transposition is the transfer of information from the general journal to the general
ledger.
169. The following comments each relate to the recording of journal entries. Which statement
is true?
c. The chart of accounts reveals the amount to debit and credit to the affected accounts.
debit/credit format.
171. Which of the following errors will be disclosed in the preparation of a trial balance?
d. Recording the wrong amount for a transaction to both the account debited and the
account credited.
172. The basic sequence in the accounting process can best be described as:
a. Current assets
b. Investments
d. Intangible assets
d. None of these
a. Planning
b. Decision making
c. Control
d. All of these
177. Which of the following statements about differences between financial and managerial
accounting is incorrect?
departments.
c. Managerial accounting pertains to both past and future items; financial accounting
d. All of these
179. Manufacturing costs are also known as product costs. Which of the following best
180. A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, plus long
a. Variable cost
c. Direct cost
d. Thoughts of accountant
a. Certain assumptions
d. Practice experience
c. Owners
a. Market values
d. Asset = liability
a. Asset
b. Liability
c. Accounts
a. Estimates of facets
b. Anticipated facts
c. recorded facts
a. Appropriation of profits
b. Estimates of profits
c. Estimates of costs
a. Management
b. Creditors
c. Bankers
a. Sundry creditors
b. Acceptances
c. Unclaimed dividend
a. Determination of cost
b. Determination of profit
c. Determination of price
a. Actual figures
b. Budgeted figures
c. Standard figures
d. Management Figure
a. 1910
b. 1939
c. 1950
d. 1960
a. Compulsory
b. Optional
c. Obligation
d. Statutory requirement
a. Trading account
c. Balance sheet
a. Fixed asset
b. Investment
c. Current asset
d. Owners equity.
a. Financial
b. Economic
c. Non financial
d. None of these.
199. Which items does not come under the balance sheet
a. sales
b. Share capital
c. Reserves and surplus
d. Unsecured loan
d. Cannot be classified
a. Balance Sheet
b. Director’s Report
d. Chairman’s report
a. M. S. Gosav
b. Wheldon
c. LucoPacioli
d. R. N. Carter
a. Analytical
b. Clerical
c. Executive
d. Non- executive
205. _____________ system records only actual cash receipts and payments
a. Cash basis
b. Accrual basis
c. Mercantile basis
206. Which of the following is true for: -“In accounts recording is done of_ _ _ _ _”
c. Both
a. Capital
b. Revenue
c. Direct
d. Non- cash
a) Nominal account
b) Real Account
a) Balance sheet
b) Trial Balance
c) Ledger
d) Journal
a. cash account
b. capital account
c. drawings account
d. creditors account
b. Salaries account
c. Cash account
d. Outstanding expenses
212. All costs other than direct materials cost, direct labour cost and direct expenses are known
as:
b. Overhead
d. Indirect expenses
213. A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, plus long distance
a. Variable cost
c. Direct cost
d. All of these
215. The work of factory employees that can be physically associated with converting raw
a. Manufacturing overhead
b. Indirect materials
c. Indirect labour
d. Direct labour
216. Which one of the following would not be classified as manufacturing overhead?
a. Indirect labour
b. Direct materials
d. Indirect materials
218. A manufacturing process requires small amounts of glue. The glue used in the process is
classified as
a. A prime cost
b. An indirect material
c. A direct material
d. Miscellaneous expense
a. Miscellaneous expense
b. Direct materials
c. Indirect materials
d. Immaterial items
a. Direct labour
b. Direct materials
c. Manufacturing overhead
d. Advertising
b. Direct Wages
c. Direct Expenses
d. Prime Cost
222. Aggregate of prime cost and Factory overhead is known as:
a. Work on cost
b. Work Cost
c. Cost of Production
d. Direct Cost
a. Prime Cost
b. Factory Overhead
c. Selling overhead
d. Office overhead
224. Aggregate of cost of goods sold and selling and distribution overheads is known as:
a. Total Cost
b. Office Cost
c. Cost of sales
d. Selling overhead
d. future costs
227. Calculate the prime cost from the following information: Direct material purchased: Rs.
1,00,000 Direct material consumed: Rs. 90,000 Direct labour: Rs. 60,000 Direct expenses: Rs.
a. Rs. 1,80,000
b. Rs. 2,00,000
c. Rs. 1,70,000
d. Rs. 2,10,000
Answers
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32, (c) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (e) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (d)
51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (e) 59. (e) 60. (a)
61. (c) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (b) 66. (c) 67. (a) 68. (c) 69. (c) 70. (b)
71. (b) 72. (b) 73. (e) 74. (d) 75. (d) 76. (e) 77. (a) 78. (a) 79. (d) 80. (d)
81. (a) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (c) 85. (a) 86. (d) 87. (d) 88. (b) 89. (d) 90. (a)
91. (c) 92. (d) 93. (c) 94. (d) 95. (b) 96. (c) 97. (d) 98. (c) 99. (d) 100. (c)
101.(c) 102.(a) 103.(c) 104.(d) 105.(b) 106.(c) 107.(d) 108.(b) 109.(d) 110.(b)
111.(b) 112.(a) 113.(a) 114.(d) 115.(b) 116.(d) 117.(c) 118.(b) 119.(a) 120.(a)
121.(a) 122.(b) 123.(c) 124.(c) 125.(a) 126.(b) 127.(b) 128.(b) 129.(b) 130.(a)
131.(c) 132.(c) 133.(a) 134.(a) 135.(a) 136.(c) 137.(a) 138.(a) 139.(b) 140.(c)
141.(c) 142.(b) 143.(b) 144.(b) 145.(a) 146.(c) 147.(a) 148.(b) 149.(c) 150.(b)
151.(d) 152.(c) 153.(d) 154.(c) 155.(c) 156.(a) 157.(c) 158.(d) 159.(b) 160.(d)
161.(c) 162.(b) 163.(d) 164.(d) 165.(b) 166.(a) 167.(c) 168.(b) 169.(d) 170.(d)
171.(c) 172.(d) 173.(a) 174.() 175.(b) 176.(c) 177.(d) 178.(a) 179.(d) 180.(c)
181.(d) 182.(b) 183.(b) 184.(a) 185.(b) 186.(c) 187.(c) 188.(a) 189.(d) 190.(d)
191.(b) 192.(a) 193.(c) 194.(c) 195.(b) 196.(d) 197.(d) 198.(a) 199.(a) 200.(c)
201.(a) 202.(c) 203.(b) 204.(b) 205.(a) 206.(a) 207.(b) 208.(d) 209.(c) 210.(b)
211.(b) 212.(b) 213.(d) 214.(d) 215.(d) 216.(b) 217.(d) 218.(b) 219.(c) 220.(a)
1 The cost that tends to remain constant irrespective of the level of activity is called
_______.
(a) Variable cost
(b) Fixed cost
(c) Total cost
(d) All of the above
2 Cost Accounting restrict itself with _______ transactions.
(a) Financial
(b) Spot
(c) Historical
(d) Administrative
3 Following is (are) the method(s) of measuring labour turnover.
(a) Replacement Method
(b) Separation Method
(c) Flux Method
(d) All of the above
4 Following is (are) the example(s) of semi-variable overheads.
(a) Maintenance cost
(b) Electricity
(c) Health and Accident Insurance
(d) All of the above
5 _________ indicates the financial status of the business at given period.
(a) Balance sheet
(b) Accounting ledger
(c) General ledger
(d) All of the above
6 In Cash budget, Non operating cash inflow include(s)
(a) Receipt of loan/borrowings
(b) Issue of shares
(c) Sale of fixed assets
(d) All of the above
7 Sales Budget is a forecast expressed in -
(a) Quantity
(b) Money
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
8 Following is used as tool for Cost Control
(a) Marginal cost
(b) Historical cost
(c) Standard cost
(d) All of the above
9 Management accounting assists the management
(a) Only in control
(b) Only in direction
(c) Only in planning
(d) In planning, direction and control
10 Management accounting is deals with -
(a) Quantitative Information
(b) Qualitative Information
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
11 Which of the following is an advantage of standard costing?
(a) Measuring efficiency
(b) Facilitates cost control
(c) Determination of variance
(d) All of the above
12 Which of the following is not a functional budget?
(a) Labour budget
(b) Cash budget
(c) Materials budget
(d) Expenses budget
13 Which is the mostly likely purpose of budgeting?
(a) Planning and control of an organization's income and expenditure
(b) Preparation of a five-year business plan
(c) Company valuation
(d) Assess the non-financial performance of an organization
14 __________ Accounting becomes a source of information for Management Accounting.
(a) Financial
(b) Cost
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
15 Calculate the production budget from the following data: sales 89,350 units; opening
inventory 23,864 units; closing inventory 33,156 units.
(a) 80,058 units
(b) 1,46,370 units
(c) 32,320 units
(d) 98,642 units
16 Fixed budget is useless for comparison when the level of activity -
(a) Increases
(b) Fluctuates both ways
(c) Decreases
(d) Constant
17 The budget committee consists of -
(a) Managers
(b) Budget officers
(c) Creditors
(d) None of the above
18 A budget centre is -
(a) Department or part of the department
(b) Meeting place for budget committee
(c) Office of the budget officer
(d) None of the above
19 The main objective of budgetary control is -
(a) To define the goal of the firm
(b) To coordinate different departments
(c) To plan to achieve its goals
(d) All of the above
20 Production budget is -
(a) Dependent on purchase budget
(b) Dependent on sales budget
(c) Dependent on cash budget
(d) None of the above
21 Sales budget shows the sales details as -
(a) Month wise
(b) Product wise
(c) Area wise
(d) All of the above
22 An example of long period budget is -
(a) R & D budget
(b) Master budget
(c) Sales budget
(d) Personnel budget
23 The budgets are classified on the basis of -
(a) Time
(b) Function
(c) Flexibility
(d) All of the above
24 Budget relating to the key factor is prepared -
(a) After other budgets
(b) With other budgets
(c) Before other budgets
(d) None of the above
25 Key factor is also known as -
(a) Limiting factor
(b) Governing factor
(c) Principal factor
(d) All of the above
26 In responsibility accounting system -
(a) Budgets are prepared
(b) Actual performance is recorded
(c) The performance is reported
(d) All of the above
27 The responsibility accounting emphasizes the performance of -
(a) System
(b) Men
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
28 The responsibility accounting is also called -
(a) Profitability accounting
(b) Activity accounting
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
29 The responsibility accounting is the part of -
(a) Financial accounting
(b) Management accounting
(c) Mechanized accounting
(d) None of these
30 The responsibility accounting is a controlling tool for -
(a) Top‐level management
(b) Lower level management
(c) Middle level management
(d) None of these
31 Which of the following system emphasizes on cost control ?
(a) Cost accounting
(b) Responsibility accounting
(c) Financial accounting
(d) None of these
32 The responsibility centres come under the responsibility of -
(a) Cost accountants
(b) Management accountant
(c) Responsibility managers
(d) Auditor
33 The subdivision of responsibility centre is -
(a) Expense centre
(b) Profit centre
(c) Investment centre
(d) All of the above
34 The accounting department in an organization is -
(a) Investment centre
(b) Expense centre
(c) Profit centre
(d) All of the above
35 What is the main advantage of responsibility accounting ?
(a) Improves performance
(b) It fixes responsibility
(c) Helpful in decision making
(d) All of the above
36 The responsibility accounting is a system by which the responsibility is assigned to the
concerned persons -
(a) To increase sales
(b) To control cash
(c) To increase production
(d) All of the above
37 The contribution of accounting department in an organization -
(a) Cannot be measured in monetary terms
(b) Can be measured in monetary terms
(c) May or may not be measured in monetary terms
(d) None of the above
38 According to responsibility accounting, the entire organization is divided into various -
(a) Business centre
(b) Profit centre
(c) Responsibility centre
(d) None of the above
39 It may not be ______ to measure exactly the output of service departments in an
organization.
(a) Feasible
(b) Necessary
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) None of these
40 Internal transfer of process at profit _________ of the company.
(a) Will not increase the asset
(b) Will increase the asset
(c) Can’t say
(d) Inadequate information
41 Budgetary control __________ replace management in decision‐making.
(a) Can
(b) Cannot
(c) Sometimes
(d) Inadequate data
42 The success of budgetary control system depends upon the willing cooperation of ….…
(a) Shareholders
(b) Management
(c) Creditors
(d) All the functional areas of management
43 A key factor is one which restricts ……
(a) The volume of production
(b) The volume of sales
(c) The volume of purchase
(d) All of the above
44 The classification of fixed and variable cost is useful for the preparation of ……
(a) Master budget
(b) Flexible budget
(c) Cash budget
(d) Capital budget
45 The primary objective of management accounting is –
(a) To provide shareholders and potential investors with useful information for decision
making
(b) To provide banks and other creditors with information useful in making credit
decisions
(c) To provide management with information useful for planning and control of
operations
(d) To provide the relevant taxation authorities with information about taxable income
46 In ‘make or buy’ decision, it is profitable to buy from outside only when the supplier’s
price is below the firm’s own ___________.
(a) Fixed Cost
(b) Variable Cost
(c) Total Cost
(d) Prime Cost
47 __________ is a detailed budget of cash receipts and cash expenditure incorporating
both revenue and capital items.
(a) Cash Budget
(b) Capital Expenditure Budget
(c) Sales Budget
(d) Overhead Budget
48 Sunk costs are __________.
(a) Relevant for decision making
(b) Not relevant for decision making
(c) Cost to be incurred in future
(d) Future costs
49 Abnormal cost is the cost ___________.
(a) Cost normally incurred at a given level of output
(b) Cost not normally incurred at a given level of output
(c) Cost which is charged to customer
(d) Cost which is included in the cost of the product
50 Responsibility Centre can be categorised into ___________.
(a) Cost Centres only
(b) Profit Centres only
(c) Investment Centres only
(d) All of the above
51 A profit centre is a centre ___________.
(a) Where the manager has the responsibility of generating and maximising profits
(b) Which is concerned with earning an adequate Return on Investment
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Which manages cost
52 Management Accounting is and financial accounting differ in that management
accounting information is prepared –
(a) Following prescribed rules
(b) Using whatever methods the company finds beneficial
(c) For shareholders
(d) To summarize the whole company with little detail
53 Purpose of Management Accounting is to –
(a) Past orientation
(b) Help banks make decisions
(c) Help managers make decisions
(d) Help investors make decisions
54 Management Accounting is the branch of accounting concerned with reporting to –
(a) Internal Managers
(b) Shareholders
(c) The Government
(d) Bankers
55 Which of the following does NOT describe management accounting?
(a) Evaluation of segments or products within the firm
(b) Emphasis on the future
(c) Externally focused
(d) Detailed information
56 Management accounting reports are prepared
(a) To meet the needs of decision makers within the firm
(b) Whenever shareholders request them
(c) According to guidelines prepared by the shares and Financial Services Authority
(d) According to financial accounting standards
57 Management accounting is primarily concerned with -
(a) Providing investors with useful information for valuing securities.
(b) Providing creditors information on the status of their loans.
(c) Providing managers with relevant information to help achieve organizational goals.
(d) Providing the relevant taxation authorities with information to determine the amount
of taxes owed.
58 Which matters are taken into consideration while preparing production budget ?
(a) The estimate of the number of units to be produced during the budget period.
(b) Estimate of number of units to be sold.
(c) Policy regarding the wage fixation for labourers.
(d) Policy regarding the selection of suppliers from whom materials would be purchased.
59 Which of the following matter is to be taken into account which preparing Material
Purchase Budget ?
(a) The supplier from whom materials are to be purchased.
(b) The procedure of storing and preserving materials after they are received.
(c) The prices at which receipts and issues of materials are to be recorded in stores
ledger.
(d) The maximum and minimum quantities of materials to be purchased.
60 Which of the following matter is relevant with cash receipts and disbursement method of
preparing Cash Budget ?
(a) While determining the cash payments, it is necessary to estimate the credit sales.
(b) While estimating cash receipts, it is not necessary to estimate the figure of credit
sales.
(c) Debtors Ratio is used to estimate the timings when cash collections would be
obtained from credit sales.
(d) While estimating the total amount of cash payment for purchases, it is necessary to
decide from which suppliers materials are to be purchased.
61 Budget period depends upon -
(a) The type of budget
(b) The nature of business
(c) The length of trade cycles
(d) All of the above
62 Usually the production budget is stated in terms of -
(a) Money
(b) Quantity
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
63 Recording of actual performance is -
(a) An advantage of budgetary control
(b) A step in budgetary control
(c) A limitation of budgetary control
(d) None of the above
64 Budgetary control system helps the management to eliminate -
(a) Undercapitalization
(b) Overcapitalization
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
65 Budgetary control facilitates easy introduction of the -
(a) Marginal costing
(b) Ratio analysis
(c) Standard costing
(d) Subjective matter
66 Budgetary control system acts as a friend, philosopher and guide to the -
(a) Management
(b) Share holders
(c) Creditors
(d) Employees
67 Budgetary control system defines the objectives and policies of the -
(a) Production department
(b) Finance department
(c) Marketing department
(d) Subjective matter
68 A budget is tool which helps the management in planning and control of -
(a) All business activities
(b) Production activities
(c) Purchase activities
(d) Sales activities
69 In responsibility centre, the output is called as -
(a) Revenue
(b) Cost
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
70 If the responsibility centre gets more revenue from output, then it is called -
(a) Investment centre
(b) Cost centre
(c) Profit centre
(d) Expense centre
71 Cost Unit is defined as -
(a) Unit of quantity of product, service or time in relation to which costs may be
ascertained or expressed
(b) A location, person or an item of equipment or a group of these for which costs are
ascertained and used for cost control.
(c) Centres having the responsibility of generating and maximising profits
(d) Centres concerned with earning an adequate return on investment
72 Fixed cost is a cost -
(a) Which changes in total in proportion to changes in output
(b) Which is partly fixed and partly variable in relation to output
(c) Which do not change in total during a given period despise changes in output
(d) Which remains same for each unit of output
73 Uncontrollable costs are the costs which be influenced by the action of a specified
member of an undertaking. -
(a) can not
(b) can
(c) may or may not
(d) must
74 Element/s of Cost of a product are -
(a) Material only
(b) Labour only
(c) Expenses only
(d) Material, Labour and expenses
75 Overhead refers to -
(a) Direct or Prime Cost
(b) All Indirect costs
(c) Only Factory indirect costs
(d) Only indirect expenses
76 Which of the following is not a method of cost absorption?
(a) Percentage of direct material cost
(b) Machine hour rate
(c) Labour hour rate
(d) Repeated distribution method
77 A Local Authority is preparing cash Budget for its refuse disposal department. Which of
the following items would not be included in the cash budget?
(a) Capital cost of a new collection vehicle
(b) Depreciation of the machinery
(c) Operatives wages
(d) Fuel for the collection Vehicles
78 Which of the following characteristics does NOT pertain to management accounting?
(a) Provides information and estimates about future activity
(b) Generates specific-purpose financial statements and reports
(c) Provides financial and operating data multidisciplinary in scope
(d) Has externally imposed standards
79 A budget which is prepared in a manner so as to give the budgeted cost for any level of
activity is known as -
(a) Master budget
(b) Zero base budget
(c) Functional budget
(d) Flexible budget
80 ___________ is a summary of all functional budgets in a capsule form.
(a) Functional Budget
(b) Master Budget
(c) Long Period Budget
(d) Flexible Budget
81 When the sales increase from Rs. 40,000 to Rs. 60,000 and profit increases by Rs. 5,000,
the P/V ratio is -
(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 25%
(d) 40%
82 From following which is not a principle of good reporting ?
(a) Simplicity
(b) Accountability
(c) Promptness
(d) Accuracy
83 From day to day operation which report is prepare ?
(a) Routine
(b) Special
(c) Investigative
(d) External
84 Any special event happen into the business then which report is prepared ?
(a) Routine
(b) Special
(c) External
(d) Control
85 Internal report use for _______________ .
(a) Share holders
(b) Government
(c) Managerial personnel
(d) Creditors
86 External report use for _______________ .
(a) Top level management
(b) Middle level management
(c) Lower level management
(d) Shareholders
87 From following which is not a routine report ?
(a) Production report
(b) Sales report
(c) Investigation
(d) Administration report
89. Financial accounting is primarily concerned with providing financial reports to all of
the following EXCEPT
a. creditors such as banks and other financial institutions.
b. creditors such as suppliers.
c. shareholders of the company.
d. management of the firm.
90. Management accounting and financial accounting differ in that management accounting
information is prepared
a. following prescribed rules.
b. using whatever methods the company finds beneficial.
c. for shareholders.
d. to summarize the whole company with little detail.
97. Which of the following costing activities is associated with the financial accounting
system?
a. determining the cost of a department
b. determining the cost of goods sold for financial statements
c. preparing budgets
d. determining the cost of a customer
98. Which of the following activities is NOT associated with the financial accounting
information system?
a. reporting on the cost of quality
b. reporting to the shareholders
c. preparing reports for the tax authorities
d. preparing a statement of cash flows
99. Which of the following cost management tools supports the firm's concentration on the
delivery of value to the customer?
a. service industry growth
b. global competition
c. preparing an earnings report for external reporting
d. value-chain analysis
100. Factors that have led to a global market for manufacturing and service firms are
a. improved transportation and communications systems.
b. improved telemarketing and communications.
c. improved distribution and transportation systems.
d. None of these factors have contributed.
101. Which of the following activities is NOT significant to the advancement of information
technology?
a. enterprise resource planning software
b. emergence of electronic commerce
c. theory of constraints
d. decision support systems
102. Software that has integrated system capability using real time data is
a. enterprise resource planning software.
b. on-line analytic programs.
c. computer-assisted engineering software.
d. none of the above.
103. Automation of the manufacturing environment is associated with increases in
a. inventory.
b. capacity.
c. processing time.
d. none of these.
104. Total quality management emphasizes
a. zero defects.
b. continual improvement.
c. elimination of waste.
d. all of the above.
105. Which of the following emerging themes in cost accounting deals with managers striving
to create an environment that will enable workers to manufacture perfect (zero-defect)
products?
a. advances in information technology
b. time as a competitive element
c. global competition
d. total quality management
106. Competitive advantage is established by
a. providing more customer products than competitors.
b. providing better quality than competitors.
c. providing greater customer value for less cost than competitors.
d. providing greater efficiencies than competitors.
108. Which of the following statements is NOT true about world-class firms?
a. World-class firms are firms that are poor in customer support.
b. World-class firms know their market and their products.
c. World-class firms strive continually to improve product design, manufacture,
and delivery.
d. World-class firms can compete with the best of the best in a global environment.
109. Monitoring the number of defects produced is an example of the management function of
a. planning.
b. control.
c. decision making.
d. both a and c.
111. Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes between financial and
management accounting?
a. Management accounting reports on the whole organization.
b. Financial accounting is oriented toward the future.
c. Financial accounting is primarily concerned with providing information for
internal users.
d. Management accounting is oriented more toward the planning and control
aspects of management.
112. Setting the company's profit targets for the upcoming year is an example of the
management function of
a. planning.
b. control.
c. variance analysis.
d. internal auditing.
4. Imputed cost is a .
A. notional cost.
B. real cost.
C. normal cost.
D. variable cost.
ANSWER: A
10. Multiple costing is a technique of using two or more costing methods for ascertainment of cost by.
A. the same firm.
B. the several firms.
C. the same industry.
D. the several industries.
ANSWER: A
11. Wages paid to a labour who was engaged in production activities can be termed as.
A. direct cost.
B. indirect cost.
C. sunk cost.
D. imputed cost.
ANSWER: A
12. The cost which is to be incurred even when a business unit is closed is a.
A. imputed cost.
B. historical cost.
C. sunk cost.
D. shutdown cost
ANSWER: D
B. factory cost.
C. labour cost.
D. cost of goods sold.
ANSWER: B
19. Which one of the following is not considered for preparation of cost sheet?
A. Factory cost.
B. Goodwill written off.
C. Selling cost.
D. Labour cost.
ANSWER: B
31. The ratios which reflect managerial efficiency in handling the assets is.
A. turnover ratios
B. profitability ratios.
C. short term solvency ratio.
D. long term solvency ratio.
ANSWER: A
32. he ratios which reveal the final result of the managerial policies and performance is .
A. turnover ratios.
B. profitability ratios.
C. short term solvency ratio.
D. long term solvency ratio.
ANSWER: B
40. The ratio which measures the profit in relation to capital employed is known as
A. return on investment.
B. gross profit ratio.
C. operating ratio.
D. operating profit ratio.
ANSWER: A
41. The ratio which determines the profitability from the shareholder’s point of view is .
A. return on investment.
B. gross profit ratio.
C. return on shareholders funds.
D. operating profit ratio.
ANSWER: C
42. Return on equity is also called
A. . return on investment.
B. gross profit ratio.
C. return on shareholders funds.
D. return on net worth.
ANSWER: D
45. The ratio which is calculated to measure the productivity of total assets is
A. return on equity.
B. return on share holders funds.
C. return on total assets.
D. return on equity share holders’ funds.
ANSWER: C
46. The ratio which shows the proportion of profits retained in the business out of the current year’s profits
is
A. . retained earnings ratio.
B. pay out ratio
C. earnings per share.
D. price earnings ratio.
ANSWER: A
47. The ratio which indicates earnings per share reflected by the market price is .
A. retained earnings ratio.
B. pay out ratio.
C. earnings per share.
D. price earnings ratio.
ANSWER: D
48. The ratio establishes the relationship between profit before interest and tax and fixed interest charges
is .
A. interest cover ratio.
B. fixed dividend cover ratio.
C. debt service coverage ratio.
D. dividend yield ratio.
ANSWER: A
49. The ratio shows the preference dividend as a proportion of profit available for shareholders is
.
A. interest cover ratio.
B. fixed dividend cover ratio.
C. debt service coverage ratio.
D. dividend yield ratio.
ANSWER: B
53. Which ratio is calculated to ascertain the efficiency of inventory management in terms of capital
investment?
A. stock velocity ratio.
8
B. debtors velocity ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: A
54. The ratio which measures the relationship between the cost of goods sold and the amount of average
inventory is
A. stock turnover ratio.
B. debtors velocity ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: A
57. Which ratio measures the number of times the receivables are rotated in a year in terms of sales?
A. stock turnover ratio.
B. debtors turnover ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: B
9
60. The indicates the number of times the payables rotate in a year is _.
A. stock turnover ratio.
B. stock turnover ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: C
62. All those assets which are converted into cash in the normal course of business within one year are
known as .
A. fixed assets.
B. current assets.
C. fictitious assets.
D. wasting assets.
ANSWER: B
63. All those liabilities which are payable in cash in the normal course of business within a period of one
year are called _.
A. long term liabilities.
B. overdraft.
C. short term loans.
D. current liabilities.
ANSWER: D
64. Any transaction between a current account and another current account does not
Affect .
A. profit.
B. funds.
C. working capital.
D. capital.
ANSWER: B
65. Any transaction between a non current account and another non current account does not
affect .
A. profit.
B. funds.
C. working capital.
D. capital.
ANSWER: B
66. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement -Increase in current asset .
A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital.
C. decrease fixed capital.
D. increase fixed capital.
ANSWER: A
67. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement - Decrease in current asset .
A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital.
C. decrease fixed capital.
D. increase fixed capital.
ANSWER: B
68. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement -Increase in current liability .
A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital.
C. decrease fixed capital.
D. increase fixed capital.
ANSWER: B
69. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement -Decrease in current Liability .
A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital.
C. decrease fixed capital
D. increase fixed capital.
ANSWER: A
72. One of the primary differences between marginal costing and absorption costing regarding
the treatment of .
A. prime cost .
B. fixed overheads.
C. variable overheads .
D. direct materials.
ANSWER: B
85. 1f` fixed costs decrease while variable cost per unit remains constant, the new B.E.P in relation to the
old B.E.P will be .
A. lower .
B. higher.
C. . unchanged .
D. indeterminate.
ANSWER: B
86. If fixed costs decrease while the variable cost per unit remains constant, the new contribution margin in
relation to the old contribution margin will be .
A. lower .
B. unchanged .
C. higher.
D. indeterminate.
ANSWER: B
87. Selling price per unit Rs. 10; Variable cost Rs. 8 per unit; Fixed cost Rs. 20,000; Break-even
production in units .
A. 10,000.
B. 16,300.
C. 2,000.
D. 2,500.
ANSWER: D
88. Sales Rs. 25,000; Variable cost Rs. 8,000; Fixed cost Rs. 5,000; Break-even sales
in value .
A. Rs. 7,936.
B. Rs. 7,353.
C. Rs. 8,333.
D. Rs. 9,090.
ANSWER: B
89. Fixed cost Rs. 80,000; Variable cost Rs. 2 per unit; Selling price_Rs. 10 per unit; turnover required
for a profit target of Rs. 60,000.
A. Rs. 1,75,000.
B. Rs. 1,17,400.
C. Rs. 1.57,000.
D. Rs. 1,86,667.
ANSWER: A
90. Sales Rs. 25,000; Variable cost Rs. 15,000; Fixed cost Rs .4,000; P/V Ratio is .
A. 40% .
B. 80%
C. 15%
D. 30%.
ANSWER: A
91. Sales Rs. 50,000; Variable cost Rs. 30,000; Net profit Rs. 6,000; fixed cost is .
A. Rs. 10,000.
B. b. Rs. l4,000 .
C. Rs. 12,000.
D. Rs. 8,000.
ANSWER: B
92. Actual sales Rs .4,00,000; Break-even sales Rs. 2,50,000; Margin of Safety in
percentage is _.
A. 33.33%.
B. 66.67%
C. 37.5% .
D. 76.33%.
ANSWER: C
93. P/V Ratio 50%; Variable cost of the produce Rs. 25; Selling price is .
A. Rs. 50 .
B. Rs. 40.
C. Rs. 30 .
D. Rs. 55.
ANSWER: A
94. Fixed cost Rs. 2,00,000; Sales Rs. 8,00,000; P/V Ratio 30%; the amount of' profit is .
A. Rs. 50,000.
B. Rs. 40,000 .
C. Rs. 35,000 .
D. Rs. 45,000 .
ANSWER: B
95. P/V Ratio is 25% and Margin of Safety is Rs; 3,00,000, the amount of profit is .
A. Rs. 1,00,000.
B. Rs. 80,000.
C. Rs. 75,000.
D. . Rs. 60,000.
ANSWER: C
96. Total sales Rs. 20,00,000; Fixed expenses Rs. 4,00,000; P/V Ratio 40%; Break-even capacity
in percentage is .
A. 40% .
B. 60% .
C. 50% .
D. 45%.
ANSWER: C
97. Break - even point occurs at 40% of` total capacity, margin of safety will be .
A. 40% .
B. 60% .
C. 80% .
D. 85% .
ANSWER: B
98. If the P/V Ratio of a product is 30% and selling price is Rs. 25 per unit, the marginal cost of the
product would be .
A. Rs.18.75 .
B. Rs.16 .
C. Rs. 15 .
D. Rs.20 .
ANSWER: A
104. The budget which usually takes the form of budgeted profit and loss account and balance sheet is
known as
A. Flexible budget .
B. Master budget.
C. Cash budget .
D. Purchase budget.
ANSWER: B
106. The fixed-variable cost classification has `a special significance in the preparation of .
A. Capital budget.
B. Cash budget.
C. Master budget .
D. Flexible budget .
ANSWER: D
108. Preparing budget figures for different levels of activity within a range under flexible budgeting is
.
A. Formula method.
B. Multi-activity method.
C. Budget cost allowance method.
D. Proportionate method.
ANSWER: B
109. What type of budget is designed to take into account forecast change in costs, prices, etc?
A. Master budget.
B. Rolling budget.
C. Flexible budget .
D. Functional budget.
ANSWER: B
C. Budgeting.
D. Controlling.
ANSWER: C
ANSWER: C
116. The budget which shows the budgeted quantity of output to be produced during a specific period is.
A. Fixed budget.
B. Flexible budget.
C. Sales budget.
D. Production budget
ANSWER: D
118. Material budget consists of two parts, one is the consumption budget and another Is .
18
C. Material production budget.
D. Material budget.
ANSWER: B
122. Budget of indirect costs in the form of indirect wages, indirect material and indirect expenses in the
factory is .
A. Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Master budget.
ANSWER: A
123. The budget prepared to estimate the expenditure to be incurred for planning, organizing, direction and
control function of the management is .
A. . Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Master budget.
ANSWER: B
124. The budget prepared to estimate expenditure to be incurred to sell the product and its distribution is
.
A. Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Master budget
ANSWER: C
125. The budget prepared to estimate the research and development expenditure to be incurred during a
specific period is .
A. Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Research and development budget.
19
ANSWER: D
126. The budget prepared to estimate the expenditure on fixed assets is known as.
A. Capital expenditure budget
B. Production overhead budget.
C. Administration overhead budget.
D. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
ANSWER: A
127. The budget prepared for replacement of assets, expansion of production facilities, adoption of new
technologies etc. is .
A. Capital expenditure budget.
B. Production overhead budget.
C. Administration overhead budget.
D. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
ANSWER: A
20
C. Job In Time.
D. Job Inventory Time.
ANSWER: A
134. FIFO is .
A. Fast Investment in Future Order.
B. First In First Out.
C. Fast In Fast Out
D. Fast Issue Of Fast Order.
ANSWER: D
137. Scrap is .
A. residue of material.
B. wastage of material.
C. surplus material.
D. abnormal loss of material.
ANSWER: A
138. Material is issued by store keeper against.
A. material requisition.
B. material order.
C. goods received note.
D. purchase requisition.
ANSWER: A
140. The document which is prepared after receiving and inspecting material .
A. material record note.
B. goods received note.
C. bill of material.
D. inventory record.
ANSWER: B
146. Material consumed is Rs. 5,00,000 Opening stock of raw material is Rs. 50,000 and Closing stock of
raw material is Rs. 25,000. What is the cost of raw material purchased?
A. Rs. 4,50,000.
B. Rs. 4,75,000.
C. Rs. 5,25,000.
D. Rs. 5, 50,000.
ANSWER: B
147. If selling price is Rs. 25,000 and profit is Rs. 5,000 then what is the percentage of profit on
cast?
A. 20%.
B. 25%.
C. 33.33%.
D. 35%.
ANSWER: B
Marks: 441 Roll No : ______________________________________________________
Duration: 20.0 Minutes Total : ______________________________________________________
Date : ______________________ Signature : ______________________
Q1) The main purpose of Cost Accounting is to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44690
1) assist management in decision making 2) maximise profits and minimise losses
3) comply norms issued by the Government of 4) prepare cost accounts in line with the
India from time to time accounting standards
Explanation:
Q2) SoleTrade Organization Is Also Called As ______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44573
1) Individual Proprietorship. 2) Partnership.
3) Joint Stock Company. 4) CoOperative Society.
Explanation:
Q3) Prereceived income is written on: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44433
1) Liabilities 2) Assets
3) Credit 4) Debit
Explanation:
Q4) Only the significant events which affect the business must be recorded as per the Marks : 1.0
principle of Id: 44702
1) Separate Entity 2) Accrual
3) Materiality 4) Going Concern
Explanation:
Q5) Management accounting is................ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44507
1) Extension of financial accounting 2) Extension of Financial Management
3) Accounting of Management 4) Concerned with the provision of information to
people within the organisation to help them to
make better decisions.
Explanation:
Q6) Which of the following highlights the correct order of the stages in the accounting Marks : 1.0
cycle Id: 38724
1) Journalizing, final accounts, posting to the 2) Journalizing, posting to the ledger, trial
ledger and trial balance balance and final accounts
3) Posting to the ledger, trial balance, final 4) Posting to the ledger, journalizing, final
accounts and journalizing accounts and trial balance
Explanation:
Q7) In accounting an Economic event is referred to as: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44452
1) Exchange of money 2) Transaction
3) Bank statement 4) Cash
Explanation:
Q8) A second hand car is purchased for Rs. 10000 the amount of Rs. 1000 is spent on its Marks : 1.0
repairs Rs 500 is incurred to get the car registered in owner’s name and Rs. 1200 is Id: 44551
paid dealer’s commission. The amount debited to car account will be
1) 10000 2) 10500
3) 11500 4) 12700
Explanation:
Q9) Which of the following statements best describes a limited liability company? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44563
1) It is normally owned and managed by the same 2) It is normally a nonprofit making organization
persons
3) In law it is regarded as having a separate
existence from its owners
4) It is normally owned by just one person
Explanation:
Q10) The opening stock of company is Rs. 40,000 and closing stock is Rs. 50,000. If the Marks : 1.0
purchases during the year are Rs. 2,00,000 the cost of goods sold will be: Id: 44399
1) Rs. 2,10,000 2) Rs. 1,90,000
3) Rs. 2,00,000 4) Rs. 1,80,000
Explanation:
Q11) In which type of expenditure the organization receives return during the same period Marks : 1.0
they paid for? Id: 44569
1) Capital Expenditure 2) Revenue Expenditure
3) Deferred Revenue Expenditure 4) Both (b) and (c)
Explanation:
Q12) A company gave in its balance sheet an foot note a case has been filed for which Marks : 1.0
they may have to pay 10 lakhs as damages. This is called : Id: 44616
1) revenue expenditure 2) capital expenditure
3) contingent liability 4) future liability
Explanation:
Q13) Four Accounts are given : Marks : 1.0
Id: 44400
A) Machinery Account, B) Ram's Account, C) Purchases Account, D) Bank of
Maharashtra's Account.
Which of the given is/are personal Account?
1) Option A ONLY 2) Options A and B
3) Options A, B and C 4) Options B and D
Explanation:
Q14) Management Accounting involves _______for management decision making. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44428
1) preparation of Financial statements 2) Recording of Cost
3) analysis & Interpretation of Data 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q15) Debtors always show which balance Marks : 1.0
Id: 44497
1) Debit 2) Credit
3) Nominal 4) Real
Explanation:
Q16) Which of the following is one of the basic accounting principles? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44642
1) Profit concern 2) Going concern
3) Online concern 4) Own concern
Explanation:
Q17) Accounting standards are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44777
1) Basis for selection of accounting policy. 2) Set of broad accounting policies to be
followed by an entity.
3) Basis for establishing and managing an entity. 4) All of the above.
Explanation:
Q18) Trail balance is_____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44425
1) statement, records all balances of Ledger A/c 2) Records all the transactions
3) A/c, records all balances of Ledger A/c 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q19) What is important object of accounting ? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44432
1) To maintain record 2) Depiction of financial position
3) Make information available to various groups 4) All of three
and users
Explanation:
Q20) 'Business will always go on'' which principle describe this Marks : 1.0
Id: 44448
1) accounting period concept 2) conservatism concept
3) going concern concept 4) consistency principle
Explanation:
Q21) New provision for PBDD is 7000, old provision 3000, old bad debts 2000 amount Marks : 1.0
accounted in P&L A/c is Id: 44430
1) 12000 dr side 2) 12000 cr side
3) 6000 dr side 4) 2000 cr side
Explanation:
Q22) Closing stock was not taken on 31.3.2006 but only on 7.4.2006. Following Marks : 1.0
transactions had taken place during the period from 1.4.2006 to 7.4.2006. Sales Id: 44766
Rs.2,50,000, purchases Rs.1,50,000, stock on 7.4.2006 was Rs.1,80,000 and the rate of
gross profit on sales was 20%. Closing stock on 31.3.2006 will be
1) Rs.3,80,000. 2) Rs.4,00,000.
3) Rs.2,30,000. 4) Rs.1,50,000.
Explanation:
Q23) Which aspect of financial accounting assumes importance because of the limitation Marks : 1.0
of human memory. Id: 44470
1) Classification 2) Recording
3) Summarising 4) Interpretation
Explanation:
Q24) The full disclosure principle, as adopted by the accounting profession, is best Marks : 1.0
described by which of the following? Id: 44447
1) All information related to an entity's business 2) Information about each account balance
and operating objectives is required to be appearing in the financial statements is to be
disclosed in the financial statements. included in the notes to the financial
statements.
3) Enough information should be disclosed in the 4) Disclosure of any financial facts significant
financial statements so a person wishing to enough to influence the judgment of an
invest in the stock of the company can make a informed reader
profitable decision.
Explanation:
Q25) Closing entries are used to transfer the net income or net loss for the accounting Marks : 1.0
period to the ____. Id: 44621
1) Cash in Bank account 2) revenue account
3) expense accounts 4) capital account
Explanation:
Q26) The final accounts of a manufacturing company generally include the following Marks : 1.0
statements : Id: 44697
(i) Balance Sheet
(ii) Manufacturing Account
(iii) Profit and Loss Account
(iv) Trading Account
(v) Profit and Loss Appropriation Account
The correct sequence in which the statements are prepared is :
1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) 2) (ii), (iv), (iii), (v), (i)
3) (v), (ii), (iv), (iii), (i) 4) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii), (v)
Explanation:
Q27) Benefit of revenue expenses extends to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44729
1) 10 Years 2) 5 Years
3) One accounting year 4) As long as the business continues
Explanation:
Q28) Which of the following is an example of business liability? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44561
1) Building 2) Creditors
3) Cash 4) Plant & Machinery
Explanation:
Q29) Identify the correct statement Marks : 1.0
Id: 44645
1) Capital is equal to assets minus liabilities 2) Capital is equal to assets plus liabilities
3) Assets are equal to liabilities minus capital 4) Liabilities is equal to capital plus assets
Explanation:
Q30) The disclosure of all accounting procedures has to be done by company according Marks : 1.0
to which standards Id: 44515
1) AS1 2) AS2
3) AS7 4) AS10
Explanation:
Q31) In the absence of any provision in the partnership agreement, profits and losses are Marks : 1.0
shared Id: 44741
1) In the ratio of capitals. 2) Equally.
3) In the ratio of loans given by them to the 4) None of the above.
partnership firm.
Explanation:
Q32) Real Accounts means _____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44409
1) The accounts of individuals, firms, limited 2) The accounts of properties, assets or
companies, local authorities, associations with professionals of the businessman.
whom the businessman deals.
3) Accounts representing incomes and expenses
or profits and gains.
4) The accounts which relate to things other than
persons.
Explanation:
Q33) Which of the following is not an internal user of management information? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44466
1) Creditor 2) Department manager
3) Controller 4) Treasurer
Explanation:
Q34) Which is the key factor that an entrepreneur should focus on, in ensuring survival of Marks : 1.0
his enterprises? Id: 44667
1) Profits 2) Cash Flow
3) Margin 4) Market Share
Explanation:
Q35) Identify the external user of financial information or financial statements Marks : 1.0
Id: 38723
1) Management 2) CFO
3) Employee 4) investor
Explanation:
Q36) A change in accounting policy is justified Marks : 1.0
Id: 44434
1) To comply with accounting standards 2) To ensure more appropriate presentation of
the financial statement of the enterprise
3) To comply with law 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q37) Suppose revenue is recognised and earned but was not realised in cash, according Marks : 1.0
to accrual concept it will give rise to Id: 44738
1) A liability 2) An asset
3) A expense 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q38) Which of the following best describes the meaning of ‘Purchases’? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44570
1) Goods bought for resale 2) Goods bought on credit
3) Items bought 4) Goods paid for
Explanation:
Q39) Profit / Loss is calculated at the stage of ____ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44733
1) Recording 2) Classifying
3) Interpretation 4) Summarising
Explanation:
Q40) Interest on drawings is: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44583
1) Expenditure for the business 2) Cost for the business
3) Gain for the business 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q41) The term accounts receivable is shown in the balance sheet under: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44694
1) Fixed assets 2) Current assets
3) Current liabilities 4) Miscellaneous expenditure
Explanation:
Q42) Present liability of uncertain amount, which can be measured reliably by using a Marks : 1.0
substantial degree of estimation, is termed as ________ Id: 44747
1) Provision 2) Liability
3) Contingent Liability 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q43) Sales are 300000 gross profit 30% cost of goods sold is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44543
1) 90000 2) 210000
3) 180000 4) 270000
Explanation:
Q44) Which of the following should be considered while selecting and applying Marks : 1.0
accounting policies? Id: 44644
1) Consistency 2) Going concern
3) Substance over form 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q45) Management accounting is applicable to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44480
1) Service entities 2) Manufacturing entities
3) Notforprofit entities 4) All of these
Explanation:
Q46) Which of the below statement is false? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44406
1) Financial accounting data and statements are 2) Management accounting reports and
developed for the definite period. statements are prepared whenever needed.
3) Financial Acconting provides detailed and 4) It is more or less obligatory on the part of
disaggregated information about products, every business concern to adopt financial
individual activities, division or plant. accounting.
Explanation:
Q47) Owners' equity in a business comes from which of the following? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44786
1) Investments in cash by the owners 2) Investments in assets other than cash by the
owners
3) Earnings from profitable operation of the 4) All of the above
business
Explanation:
Q48) Prime Cost Consist of ______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44421
1) All Indirect Exp. 2) Material+Overhead+Exp
3) All Direct Exp(Material+Labour+Exp) 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q49) Profit and loss account would not include? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44796
1) Salaries 2) Drawings.
3) Rent received. 4) Carriage outwards.
Explanation:
Q50) The maximum amount beyond which a company is not allowed to raise funds, by Marks : 1.0
issue of share is Id: 44722
1) Issued Capital 2) Nominal Capital
3) Subscribed Capital 4) Reserve Capital
Explanation:
Q51) Convention of accounting says that Marks : 1.0
Id: 44514
1) All expenses to be accounted when occurred 2) All incomes to be accounted when received
3) All incomes to be accounted when received 4) All expenses accounted if arising during said
period a& all incomes only when received
Explanation:
Q52) How are the following items arranged on the liability side of the Balance Sheet of a Marks : 1.0
Company? Id: 44678
i. Current liability
ii. Unsecured loan
iii. Share capital
iv. Reserves and surplus
v. Secured loan
1) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (v)
3) (iii) (iv) (v) (ii) (i) 4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (v) (i)
Explanation:
Q53) Accounting has certain norms to be observed by the accountants in recording of Marks : 1.0
transactions and preparation of financial statements. These norms reduce the Id: 44753
vagueness and chances of misunderstanding by harmonizing the varied accounting
practices. These norms are
1) Accounting regulations. 2) Accounting guidance notes.
3) Accounting standards. 4) Accounting framework.
Explanation:
Q54) The liability of the partners in a Limited Liability Partnership is ____________. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44811
1) zero 2) proportionate
3) unlimited 4) limited
Explanation:
Q55) Which of the following is a Revenue Expenditure? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44518
1) Construction of Factory shed 2) Sales Tax paid in connection with purchase of
Office Equipment
3) Legal Expenses in connection with defending 4) Installation of new Machinery
a title to firm’s property
Explanation:
Q56) Right shares enjoy preferential rights with regard to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44688
1) Payment of dividend 2) Payment of retained earnings
3) Repayment of capital 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q57) Which of the following is the source of short term finance? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44683
1) Trade credit 2) Short term borrowing
3) Bank credit 4) All of above
Explanation:
Q58) All of the following have debit balance except one. That account is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44619
1) Wages a/c 2) Debtors a/c
3) Bills payable a/c 4) Goodwill
Explanation:
Q59) A Partner In A Firm _______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44439
1) Cannot Transfer His Share To An Outsider. 2) Can Transfer His Share To An Outsider With
The Consent Of Majority Partners.
3) Can Transfer His Share To An Outsider 4) Can Transfer His Share To An Outsider With
Without The Consent Of Any Other Partners. The Consent Of All Other Partners.
Explanation:
Q60) Which of the following is a revenue expenses Marks : 1.0
Id: 44730
1) Raw material consumed 2) Plant purchased
3) Long term loan raised from bank 4) Share Capital
Explanation:
Q61) Financial information should be neutral and bias free" is the dictation of which one of Marks : 1.0
the following? Id: 44632
1) Completeness concept 2) Faithful representation Concept
3) Objectivity Concept 4) Duality Concept
Explanation:
Q62) Accounting is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44526
1) The art of recording, classifying and 2) A systematic and regular record of events
summarizing in a significant manner and in affecting a firm with a view to obtaining a clear
terms of money, transactions and events financial picture.
which are in part at best financial in character
and interpreting thereof.
3) Preparation of various financial statements
over a period of time of firm to measure its
performance in monetary terms.
4)
Nothing but Book keeping.
Explanation:
Q63) A partner who lends only his name to the firm is called as ____________ partner. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44810
1) active 2) nominal
3) slipping 4) minor
Explanation:
Q64) Which of the following is a noncurrent asset? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44684
1) Sundry debtors 2) Goodwill
3) Advance expenses 4) Inventory
Explanation:
Q65) During the lifetime of entity, accountants produce financial statement at arbitrary Marks : 1.0
points in time in accordance with which basic accounting principle? Id: 44506
1) Matching 2) Periodicity
3) Conservatism 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q66) Using "lower of cost and net realisable value" for the purpose of inventory valuation Marks : 1.0
is the implementation of which of the following concept? Id: 38731
1) The going concern concept 2) The separate entity concept
3) The prudence concept 4) Matching concept
Explanation:
Q67) Which of the following branches of accounting provides information that helps Marks : 1.0
planning, control and decision making? Id: 44529
1) Cost Accounting 2) Inflation Accounting
3) Financial Accounting 4) Management Accounting
Explanation:
Q68) Calculate inventory Current ratio is 2.6:1 Liquid ratio is 1.5:1 and Current liabilities Marks : 1.0
40000 Id: 44536
1) 40000 2) 42000
3) 44000 4) 48000
Explanation:
Q69) In double entity book keeping system, every transaction affects at least Marks : 1.0
______account(s). Id: 44762
1) One 2) Two
3) Three 4) Four
Explanation:
Q70) Capital structure designing has nothing to do with: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44682
1) Profitability 2) Solvency
3) Flexibility 4) Transferability
Explanation:
Q71) A businessman who cannot pay his debt is called as _________. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44614
1) Insolvent 2) Solvent
3) Book Debt 4) Bank Debt
Explanation:
Q72) If two or more transactions of the same nature are journalized together having either Marks : 1.0
the debit or the credit account common is known as Id: 44654
1) Compound journal entry 2) Separate journal entry
3) Posting 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q73) Ram and Gopal are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2:1. Gopal gave Marks : 1.0
a loan of Rs.12,000 to the firm. They did not have any specific agreement about Id: 44754
interest on loan mentioned in the partnership deed. Gopal claims interest on loan @
10% p.a. The interest on loan as per rules of Partnership Act, 1932 will be:
1) 840 2) 820
3) 720 4) 960
Explanation:
Q74) Which of the following is not a transaction? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44758
1) Goods are purchased on cash basis for 2) Salaries paid for the month of May, 2006.
Rs.1,000.
3) Land is purchased for Rs.10 lacs.
4) An employee dismissed from the job.
Explanation:
Q75) Mr. XYZ buys clothing of Rs. 50,000 paying cash Rs. 20,000. What is the amount of Marks : 1.0
expense as per the accrual concept? Id: 44776
1) 50000 2) 20000
3) 30000 4) Nil.
Explanation:
Q76) Effective management of liquidity and financial risk in business is known as Marks : 1.0
management Id: 44668
1) Risk 2) Financial
3) Cash 4) Treasury
Explanation:
Q77) A ________ debt is a debt which cannot be recovered. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44578
1) Good 2) Book
3) Recoverable 4) Bad
Explanation:
Q78) Balance Sheet is a Marks : 1.0
Id: 44736
1) Statement showing financial effect of recorded 2) Statement of assets and liabilities on a
transactions particular point of time
3) Is one of the accounting reports 4) Both (b) and (c) above
Explanation:
Q79) Depreciation arises because of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44774
1) Fall in the market value of the asset. 2) Fall in the value of money.
3) Physical wear and tear of the asset. 4) None of the three.
Explanation:
Q80) The accounting measurement that is not consistent with the Going Concern concept Marks : 1.0
is Id: 44708
1) Historical Cost 2) Realization
3) The Transaction Approach 4) Liquidation Value
Explanation:
Q81) A change in accounting policy is justified when Marks : 1.0
Id: 44643
1) To comply with accounting standard 2) To ensure more appropriate presentation of
the financial statement of the enterprise
3) To comply with law 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q82) Match the following: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44528
Accounting Function Branch of Accounting
(1) Preparation of Financial Statements (a) Management Accounting
(2) Determination of Cost of Product (b) Financial Accounting
(3) Making Managerial Decisions (c) Cost Accounting
1) (1) c (2) a (3) b 2) (1) b (2) c (3) a
3) (1) a (2) c (4) b 4) (1) c (2) b (3) a
Explanation:
Q83) Which of the following are correct? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44553
Account to be debited Account to be credited
Bought office wooden table for cash office wooden table cash
Ramesh sold goods on credited to Ram sales cash
Introduce capital by cheque capital Bank
Paid to creditor Sita by cheque Sita Bank
1) (ii) (iii)(i) 2) (iii)(iv)(ii)
3) (i)(iii)(iv) 4) (i)(iv)
Explanation:
Q84) Which of the following is NOT Capital Expenditure? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44401
1) Expenditure incurred to acquire a tangible 2) Expenditure incurred to acquire the right to
asset carry on business
3) Expenses incurred for repairs and 4) Expenditure for the extension of or
maintenance of fixed asset improvement, modification in fixed asset
Explanation:
Q85) Which of the following is correct Marks : 1.0
Id: 44555
1) Assets = Liabilities + Capital 2) Assets = Liabilities Capital
3) Assets = external equities 4) Assets + Liabilities = Capital
Explanation:
Q86) If partnership deed remains silent on interest on partner’s loan, it should be paid @ Marks : 1.0
_____. Id: 44813
1) 0.09 2) 0.06
3) 0.07 4) 0.1
Explanation:
Q87) Which one of the following statement is false: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44806
1) A transaction is concerned with money and 2) Solvent person is a person whose assets are
money’s worth. more than his liabilities.
3) Bookkeeping and accounting is one and the 4) The double entry systems is based on “Dual
same thing. Aspect” concept.
Explanation:
Q88) Economic life of an enterprise is split into the periodic interval as per Marks : 1.0
___________________ concept. Id: 44803
1) Money Measurment 2) Matching
3) Going Concern 4) Accrual
Explanation:
Q89) A balance sheet is useful because Marks : 1.0
Id: 44584
1) Indicates how much finance is required by the 2) Indicates the profitability of the firm
firm.
3) Helps in assessment of financial position of
the firm.
4) Tells about current asset and current liability
Explanation:
Q90) Which of the following activities is NOT an accounting function? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44463
1) Management consultancy 2) Taxation
3) Costing 4) Auditing
Explanation:
Q91) A company sells goods on credit valued at Rs. 2,50,000 to a customer. At what point Marks : 1.0
in the sales cycle should this sale be recognized in the accounts? Id: 44488
1) When the customer’s order is received 2) When the goods are ready for dispatch to the
customer
3) When the goods are sent, accepted and 4) When the customer pays
invoiced
Explanation:
Q92) Management accounting is concerned with Marks : 1.0
Id: 44483
1) Recording of transactions 2) Reporting of costs
3) Preparation of financial statements 4) Analysis and interpretation of data
Explanation:
Q93) In Accounting 'Money measurement Concept' means ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44412
1) A firm or business is regarded as separate & 2) All business transactions are regarded as
distinct from the owner. having a dual aspect.
3) All transactions are recorded in terms of 4) Accounting is made on the assumption that a
money. business will continue in future and will use its
property in operations rather than sell them.
Explanation:
Q94) Opening stock of the year is Rs.20,000, Goods purchased during the year is Marks : 1.0
Rs.1,00,000, Carriage Rs.2,000 and Selling expenses Rs.2,000.Sales during the year is Id: 44765
Rs.1,50,000 and closing stock is Rs.25,000. The gross profit will be
1) 53000 2) 55000
3) 80000 4) 51000
Explanation:
Q95) Planning and forecasting is the functions of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44636
1) Financial accounting 2) Bookkeeping
3) cost accounting 4) Management accounting
Explanation:
Q96) Accounting does not record non financial transactions because of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44711
1) Entity Concept 2) Accrual Concept
3) Cost Concept 4) Money Measurement Concept
Explanation:
Q97) Calculate current liabilities if Current ratio is 2:1 and current assets are 2200000 Marks : 1.0
Id: 44542
1) 1100000 2) 1125000
3) 1175000 4) 1130000
Explanation:
Q98) Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a business is divided Marks : 1.0
for the purpose of preparing financial statements? Id: 44454
1) Fiscal year 2) Accrual period
3) Accounting period 4) Calendar year
Explanation:
Q99) Which of the following shows summary of a company's financial position at a Marks : 1.0
specific date Id: 38727
1) Profit & Loss Account 2) ) Cash Flow Statement
3) Balance Sheet 4) Income & Expenditure Account
Explanation:
Q100) Following is the example of external users Marks : 1.0
Id: 44655
1) Government 2) Owners
3) Management 4) Employees
Explanation:
Q101) The money spent on heavy advertising, whose benefit is continues for 3 years to Marks : 1.0
come, is a ______. Id: 44385
1) Capital Expenditure 2) Revenue Expenditure
3) Deferred revenue expenditure 4) Income
Explanation:
Q102) fundamental accounting equation, Assets = Equities is the formal expression of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44478
1) Dual aspect 2) Matching concept
3) Going concern concept 4) Money measurement concept
Explanation:
Q103) Which of the following characteristics of accounting information primarily allows Marks : 1.0
users of financial statements to generate predictions about an organization Id: 44456
1) Reliability 2) Timeliness
3) Neutrality 4) Relevance
Explanation:
Q104) Which of the below statement is correct? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44393
1) Debtors are liability. 2) Capital is an asset.
3) Goodwill is current asset. 4) Bills payables are liabilities
Explanation:
Q105) The basic concepts related to P & L Account are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44700
1) Realization Concept 2) Matching Concept
3) Cost Concept 4) Both (a) and (b) above
Explanation:
Q106) Accounting concepts are based on Marks : 1.0
Id: 44689
1) Certain assumptions 2) Certain facts and figures
3) Certain accounting records 4) Government guidelines
Explanation:
Q107) Balance sheet is used to ascertain the financial position Marks : 1.0
Id: 44556
1) For a particular period 2) For the accounting period of the firm
3) For a period of one year 4) On a particular date
Explanation:
Q108) Which of the following equation is INCORRECT? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44489
1) Liabilities + Capital = Assets 2) Liabilities + Assets = Capital
3) Assets Liabilities = Capital 4) Assets Capital = Liabilities
Explanation:
Q109) Journal is _____________Books of account is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44419
1) Basic 2) Primary
3) Secondary 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q110) Diya & Co. Is a Marks : 1.0
Id: 44775
1) Personal A/c 2) Real account
3) Nominal account 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q111) Ledger is also called Marks : 1.0
Id: 44572
1) Principle book 2) Subsidiary book
3) Day book 4) Proper book
Explanation:
Q112) If during the accounting period the assets increased by Rs. 10,000, and equity Marks : 1.0
increased by Rs. 2,000, then how did liabilities change? Id: 44795
1) Increased by Rs. 8,000 2) Increased by Rs. 12,000
3) Decreased by Rs. 8,000 4) Decreased by Rs. 12,000
Explanation:
Q113) Features of Partnership firm are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44511
1) Two or more persons carrying common 2) Sharing profit and losses in agreed ratio
business under an agreement
3) Business carried by all or one of them acting
for all
4) All the above
Explanation:
Q114) The information provided in the annual financial statements of an enterprise pertains Marks : 1.0
to Id: 44554
1) industry as a whole 2) Individual organisation
3) Global economy 4) Economy as a whole
Explanation:
Q115) Managerial Accounting Information Marks : 1.0
Id: 44503
1) Relates To The Entity As A Whole And Is 2) Relates To SubUnits Of The Entity And May
Highly Aggregated Be Very Detailed
3) Is Prepared Only Once A Year 4) Is Constrained By The Requirements Of
Generally Accepted Accounting Principles
Explanation:
Q116) Bad debts means ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44416
1) goods unsold lying with a business on any 2) an allowance given on the sales price of
given date. goods.
3) debts which are due by the firm 4) debts which are irrecoverable.
Explanation:
Q117) When an owner credits or debits any amount, he cannot put that transaction in Marks : 1.0
financial account records of organisation. This is known as .............. Id: 44457
1) Money Measurement Concept 2) Cost Concept
3) Business Entity Concept 4) Conservatism
Explanation:
Q118) Standard Gross Profit ratio is between Marks : 1.0
Id: 44597
1) 10% to 20% 2) 15% to 25%
3) 30% to 40% 4) 20% to 30%
Explanation:
Q119) If current ratio is less than 1 it can be definitely said that Marks : 1.0
Id: 44605
1) Net working capital is negative 2) Net working capital is positive
3) Inventories are in adequate 4) Cash in hand is inadequate
Explanation:
Q120) During the life time of an entity, accountants produce financial statements at Marks : 1.0
arbitrary points in time in accordance with which basic accounting principle Id: 44450
1) Conservatism 2) Going Concern
3) Materiality 4) Periodicity
Explanation:
Q121) A business transaction that involves a purchase on account is considered to be a(n) Marks : 1.0
____. Id: 44622
1) cash transaction 2) credit transaction
3) investment by the owner 4) expense transaction
Explanation:
Q122) As production increases, fixed cost per unit _____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44387
1) Decreases 2) Increases
3) We can’t tell 4) Do not change
Explanation:
Q123) Management accounting provides invaluable services to management in performing Marks : 1.0
……….. Id: 44505
1) All Management functions 2) Controlling functions
3) Interpret the financial data 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q124) Which of following is/are problems in Financial statement analysis Marks : 1.0
Id: 44604
1) Window dressing 2) Price level changes l
3) Interpretation of results 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q125) If the profit sharing ratio of partners is not given than partner share profit Marks : 1.0
Id: 44618
1) As per capital ratio 2) equally
3) as per work load 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q126) Who are the customers of cost and management accounting? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44675
1) Managers 2) Creditors
3) Lenders 4) Consumers
Explanation:
Q127) Loss on issue of debenture is treated as Marks : 1.0
Id: 44657
1) Intangible Asset 2) Current Asset
3) Current Liability 4) Miscellaneous Expenditure
Explanation:
Q128) Which of the following is not a concept of financial accounting Marks : 1.0
Id: 44451
1) Single aspect concept 2) Accrual concept
3) Going concern concept 4) Separate entity concept
Explanation:
Q129) Management accounting does not encompass Marks : 1.0
Id: 44467
1) Calculating product cost 2) Calculating earnings per share
3) Determining cost behavior 4) Profit planning
Explanation:
Q130) How are the following items arranged on the asset side of the Balance Sheet of a Marks : 1.0
Company? Id: 44679
i. Profit and loss A/c
ii. Miscellaneous expenditure
iii. Fixed assets
iv. Current assets, loans and advances
v. Investments
1) (iii) (v) (iv) (i) (ii) 2) (iii) (iv) (v) (i) (ii)
3) (iii) (i) (ii) (v) (iv) 4) (iii) (v) (iv) (ii) (i)
Explanation:
Q131) ____________principle requires that the same accounting method should be used Marks : 1.0
from one accounting period to the next. Id: 44761
1) Conservatism. 2) Consistency.
3) Business entity. 4) Money measurement.
Explanation:
Q132) which of the following should be deducted in balance sheet of a company from the Marks : 1.0
share capital to find out paid up capital Id: 44562
1) calls in advance 2) calls in arreas
3) share forfeiture 4) discount on issue of shares
Explanation:
Q133) Which of the following is a capital expenditure? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44685
1) Wages paid for production of goods in the 2) Wages paid for installation of machinery
works
3) None of the above
4) Both of the above
Explanation:
Q134) The basic accounting principle/concept according to which business record must be Marks : 1.0
kept separate from the personal records of the owner is known as: Id: 44512
1) Goingconcern concept 2) Separate Business entity
3) Realization Concept 4) Conservatism
Explanation:
Q135) When benefit of a revenue expense extend beyond an accounting year, it is called Marks : 1.0
Id: 44721
1) Revenue Expenditure 2) Capital expenditure
3) Deferred Revenue Expenditure 4) Recurring profit
Explanation:
Q136) All the Incomes and Expensees of revenue nature are credited or debited to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44664
1) Trading A/c 2) Profit & Loss A/c
3) Balance Sheet 4) Either (a) or (b)
Explanation:
Q137) Bank overdraft is shown as Marks : 1.0
Id: 44509
1) Current Liability 2) Current asset
3) Unsecured loan 4) Purchases
Explanation:
Q138) Net Profit Ratio Signifies Marks : 1.0
Id: 44568
1) Operational Profitability 2) Liquidity Position
3) Bigterm Solvency 4) Profit for Lenders.
Explanation:
Q139) Accounting principles must satisfy following condition Marks : 1.0
Id: 44640
1) Reflect future predictions 2) Simple and explanatory
3) Based on real assumptions 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q140) The entity of a business is different from its owners Assumption is from Marks : 1.0
Id: 44649
1) Business entity Assumption 2) Going concern Assumption
3) Accounting period Assumption 4) Money Measurement Assumption
Explanation:
Q141) Transactions between owner and business are recorded as per Marks : 1.0
Id: 44756
1) Periodicity. 2) Going concern.
3) Prudence 4) Business Entity.
Explanation:
Q142) If you only knew a company’s total assets and total debt, which item could you easily Marks : 1.0
calculate? Id: 44565
1) Sales 2) Depreciation
3) Total equity 4) Inventory
Explanation:
Q143) The amount or goods taken by the proprietor for his personal use is called Marks : 1.0
Id: 44580
1) Additional capital 2) Fresh capital
3) Drawings 4) Personal expenses
Explanation:
Q144) The convention that states that the accounting practice should be followed Marks : 1.0
consistently over the years Id: 44720
1) Consistency 2) Conservation
3) Materiality 4) Disclosure
Explanation:
Q145) A business has prepared its accounts for a financial year and these show a profit of Marks : 1.0
Rs. 5,00,000. What profit amount will be after considering the following items which Id: 44429
are not included in the account?
• A likely loss on a contract of Rs. 25,000
• A possible Court ruling in favour of the company which is likely to increase profits
by Rs.10,000
• A possible Court ruling against the company which could result in damages of
between Rs.5,000 to Rs.15,000.
1) Rs. 4,80,000 2) Rs. 4,60,000
3) Rs. 4,75,000 4) Rs. 5,10,000
Explanation:
Q146) Calculate total assets if total sales 270000 and assets turn over is 0.30 times Marks : 1.0
Id: 44538
1) 700000 2) 800000
3) 900000 4) 1000000
Explanation:
Q147) Under which of the following concepts are shareholders treated as creditors for the Marks : 1.0
amount they paid on the shares they subscribed to? Id: 44706
1) Cost Concept 2) Duality Concept
3) Business Entity Concept 4) Since the shareholders own the business, they
are not treated as creditors
Explanation:
Q148) If debentures are issued at a discount of 20%, the discount on issue of debentures is Marks : 1.0
shown as: Id: 44732
1) Current asset 2) Interest asset
3) Current liabilities 4) Miscellaneous expenses
Explanation:
Q149) The companies act 1956 requires that the period of at least ________month must be Marks : 1.0
there between two calls Id: 44547
1) Three 2) One
3) Two 4) Five
Explanation:
Q150) Accounting Principles represent Marks : 1.0
Id: 44524
1) A consensus at a particular time to the 2) Inviolable laws fixed by a legal board
recording of accounting transactions
3) Laws fixed by accounting expert
4) Laws fixed by the respective governments
Explanation:
Q151) Business Entity assumption is applicable to ________ type of business enterprise Marks : 1.0
Id: 44477
1) Selected 2) Unique
3) Every 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q152) Which of the following is not an objective of accounting Marks : 1.0
Id: 44587
1) To provide information on the performance of 2) To provide information on the owner’s assets,
enterprise. liabilities and capital
3) To provide information on the enterprise, 4) To maintain records of business.
assets, liabilities and capital
Explanation:
Q153) The item “Interest accrued on Investment” appears in the Balance Sheet of a Marks : 1.0
Company under the category of ____________ Id: 44544
1) Secured Loan 2) Current assets, loans and advances
3) Investments 4) Current liabilities
Explanation:
Q154) Bank A/c is an Example of_____ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44424
1) Ledger 2) Balance Sheet
3) Jounal 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q155) Calculate Current assets : Current ratio is 2.6:1 , Current Liabilities 40000 Marks : 1.0
Id: 44534
1) 104000 2) 140000
3) 114000 4) 124000
Explanation:
Q156) Stock of Rs.12,500 was destroyed by fire occurred on 31st December, 2008 in the Marks : 1.0
godown of X Ltd.. Insurance company accepted Rs.9,500 in full settlement of claim. Id: 44784
The loss on account of fire is recorded by:
1) Debiting Profit and loss account for Rs. 12,500. 2) Crediting the trading account for Rs. 12,500.
3) Debiting Profit and loss account for Rs. 3,000. 4) Both (b) and (c)
Explanation:
Q157) Creditors for goods purchased come within the category of ______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44402
1) Current liability 2) Fixed liability
3) Capital 4) Current asset
Explanation:
Q158) Long term solvency is indicated by Marks : 1.0
Id: 44574
1) Liquidity ratio 2) DebtEquity ratio
3) Interest coverage ratio 4) Return on capital employed
Explanation:
Q159) College fees of owners son paid and accounted in books, 10000, then Marks : 1.0
Id: 44499
1) profit increased by 10000 2) profits decreased by 10000
3) profits decreased by 10000 and capital 4) profits increased by 10000 and capital
increased by 10000 decreased by 10000
Explanation:
Q160) Outstanding salaries are shown as: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44626
1) Added to Salaries while preparing P & La/c 2) Shown in liability side of Balance sheet under
current Liability
3) (a) &(b) above 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q161) Which of the following statements about differences between financial and Marks : 1.0
managerial accounting is incorrect? Id: 44446
1) Managerial accounting information is prepared 2) Financial accounting is aggregated;
primarily for external parties such as managerial accounting is focused on products
stockholders and creditors; financial and departments.
accounting is directed at internal users.
3) Managerial accounting pertains to both past
and future items; financial accounting focuses
primarily on past transactions and events.
4) Financial accounting is based on generally
accepted accounting practices; managerial
accounting faces no similar constraining
factors
Explanation:
Q162) The allocation of owner's private expenses to his/her business violates which of the Marks : 1.0
following? Id: 44635
1) Accrual concept 2) Matching concept
3) Separate business entity concept 4) Consistency concept
Explanation:
Q163) Discount on issue of debentures is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44656
1) Revenue Loss to be charged in the year of 2) Capital loss to be written off from capital
issue reserve
3) Capital loss to be written off over the tenure of 4) Capital loss to be shown as goodwill
the debentures
Explanation:
Q164) The asset that can be seen and touched is ____________ asset. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44613
1) Intangible 2) Tangible
3) Business 4) Current
Explanation:
Q165) From following find out sales : Gross profit margin is 20% gross profit 54000 Marks : 1.0
Id: 44537
1) 250000 2) 260000
3) 270000 4) 280000
Explanation:
Q166) The Amount which the firm has to pay others is known as Marks : 1.0
Id: 44650
1) Assets 2) Liabilities
3) Capital 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q167) Which of the following is not an objective of Financial Accounting? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44405
1) To identify financial events and transactions 2) To ensure the effecient cost control by
that occur in an organization. communicating essential data costs at regular
intervals.
3) To measure the value of the occurrences in 4) To organize the accumulated data into
terms of money. meaningful information.
Explanation:
Q168) Loss by fire A/c is classified as _________________ A/c. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44804
1) real 2) nominal
3) personal 4) current
Explanation:
Q169) Journal book is written in which order Marks : 1.0
Id: 44496
1) Chronological order 2) As per accountant
3) As per amount 4) As per owners instructions
Explanation:
Q170) The purchase of a desk on account will increase Office Furniture and will also Marks : 1.0
increase ____. Id: 44623
1) Cash in Bank 2) Accounts Payable
3) Accounts Receivable 4) Capital
Explanation:
Q171) The capital gearing ratio is high for a company.It indicates a position of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44545
1) Low debts 2) high preference capital
3) high equity 4) low debt equity ratio
Explanation:
Q172) The whole process of classifying, summarizing, analyzing and interpreting the Marks : 1.0
results of business transaction is known as Id: 44476
1) Accounting 2) Determination
3) Recording 4) Coding
Explanation:
Q173) In Accounting 'Going Concern Concept' means ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44413
1) A firm or business is regarded as separate & 2) All business transactions are regarded as
distinct from the owner. having a dual aspect.
3) All transactions are recorded in terms of 4) Accounting is made on the assumption that a
money. business will continue in future and will use its
property in operations rather than sell them.
Explanation:
Q174) In financial accounting classification of recorded facts, with entries of one nature at Marks : 1.0
one place is done in the book called Id: 44532
1) Trial Balance 2) Journal
3) Income statement 4) Ledger
Explanation:
Q175) Whenever errors are noticed in the accounting records, they should be rectified Marks : 1.0
Id: 44750
1) At the time of preparation of the trial balance. 2) Without waiting the accounting year to end.
3) After the preparation of final accounts. 4) In the next accounting year.
Explanation:
Q176) Global Depository Receipt is an instrument for: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44672
1) Foreign direct investment 2) Public bonds
3) Foreign institutional investment 4) All of above
Explanation:
Q177) The Financial Statement reveals the following data Marks : 1.0
Id: 44420
1) Important 2) Valuable
3) Financial 4) No of these
Explanation:
Q178) If cost of goods sold is Rs.1,00,000, sales is Rs.1,25,000, closing stock is Rs.20,000, Marks : 1.0
the gross profit will be Id: 44769
1) 45000 2) 5000
3) 25000 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q179) Capital means ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44415
1) all the properties, possessions and debits 2) expenditure whose benefit has been received.
owing to a business house.
3) total amount invested in the business by the
proprietor.
4) a person who owes something.
Explanation:
Q180) Cost refer to........ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44608
1) The present value of future benefits 2) All assets which has given benefit and is now
expired
3) The value of sacrifice made to get some goods 4) All the above
or services
Explanation:
Q181) Personal Accounts means _____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44407
1) The accounts of individuals, firms, limited 2) The accounts of properties, assets or
companies, local authorities, associations with professionals of the businessman.
whom the businessman deals.
3) Accounts representing incomes and expenses
or profits and gains.
4) The accounts which relate to things other than
persons.
Explanation:
Q182) Cost Accounting is different from financial accounting in respect of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44492
1) Inventory valuation 2) Ascertainment of cost
3) Recording of cost 4) Reporting of cost
Explanation:
Q183) What is more important for every business to achieve at the earliest? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44676
1) Budgeted Sales 2) Profits
3) Break Even Point 4) Market Share
Explanation:
Q184) The areas where in different accounting policies can be adopted are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44437
1) Providing depreciation 2) Valuation of inventories
3) Valuation of investment 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q185) Calculate liquid assets Liquid Ratio is 1.5:1 Current liabilities 40000 Marks : 1.0
Id: 44535
1) 50000 2) 60000
3) 70000 4) 80000
Explanation:
Q186) Goods or amount taken by proprietor for his personal use should be debited to: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44461
1) Sales 2) Drawings
3) Purchase 4) d) Cash
Explanation:
Q187) Which of the following is an example of Capital Expenditure? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44714
1) Insurance Premium 2) Taxes and Legal expenses
3) Discount allowed 4) Customs duty on Import of Machinery
Explanation:
Q188) ''Business will always go on'' which principle describe this Marks : 1.0
Id: 38725
1) accounting period concept 2) conservatism concept
3) going concern concept 4) consistency principle
Explanation:
Q189) The document used by account holder to deposit cash/cheque in to bank is called Marks : 1.0
Id: 44460
1) Receipt 2) Voucher
3) Payinslip 4) Withdrawal slip
Explanation:
Q190) Which accounting is concerned with the collecting, recording, classification and Marks : 1.0
interpretation of financial data to serve the purpose of management. Id: 44469
1) Cost accounting. 2) Management accounting.
3) Financial accounting…… 4) Business accounting.
Explanation:
Q191) Basic assumption in accounting principles is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44501
1) Prudence 2) consistency
3) materiality 4) ongoing concern
Explanation:
Q192) Which of the following is not a conventions of financial accounting? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44493
1) Consistency 2) NonMateriality
3) Full Disclosure 4) Conservatism
Explanation:
Q193) Current Ratio is ratio of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44602
1) Current assets to total assets 2) Current Liabilities to total liabilities
3) Current assets to Current Liabilities 4) Current assets to Fixed assets
Explanation:
Q194) Goods costing Rs. 10,000 is supplied to Ram at an invoice price of 10% above cost Marks : 1.0
and a trade discount of 5%. The amount of sales is Id: 44772
1) 11000 2) 10450
3) 10500 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q195) Management accounting information Marks : 1.0
Id: 44465
1) Relates to the entity as a whole and is highly 2) Relates to subunits of the entity and may be
aggregated very detailed
3) Is prepared only once a year 4) is constrained by the requirements of
generally accepted accounting principles
Explanation:
Q196) Which account will be debited, if Mohsin commenced business with cash? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44389
1) Cash account 2) Capital account
3) Mohsin’s account 4) Drawings account
Explanation:
Q197) Office equipment was purchased for cash. What effect did this transaction have on Marks : 1.0
the financial position of the company? Id: 44788
1) Assets, no change; Liabilities, no change; 2) Assets, decrease; Liabilities, increase;
Owners' Equity, no change Owners' Equity, no change
3) Assets, increase; Liabilities, increase; Owners' 4) Assets, no change; Liabilities, no change;
Equity, no change Owners' Equity, increase
Explanation:
Q198) Overdraft is short term finance to: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44674
1) Pay income, excise and VAT 2) Repay term loan
3) Purchase capital equipments 4) Meet circulating capital requirements
Explanation:
Q199) Which type of expenditure is done for making assets? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44571
1) Revenue Expenditure 2) Deferred Revenue Expenditure
3) Capital Expenditure 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q200) Which phrase best describes the current role of the managerial accountant? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44728
1) Managerial accountants prepare the financial 2) Managerial accountants facilitate the decision
statements for an organization. making process within an organization.
3) Managerial accountants make the key 4) Managerial accountants are primarily
decisions within an organization. information collectors.
Explanation:
Q201) Financial accounting provides financial information to all of the following external Marks : 1.0
users except: Id: 44453
1) Managers 2) Government agencies
3) Creditors 4) investors
Explanation:
Q202) The Term ‘Cost’ is refer as _________ incurred to produce particular Product. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44418
1) Value 2) Expenses
3) Price 4) All of these
Explanation:
Q203) Which of the following is not an Accounting concept? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44696
1) Matching concept 2) Dual Aspect concept
3) True and Fair concept 4) Going concern concept
Explanation:
Q204) Capital expenditure is an expenditure which Marks : 1.0
Id: 44718
1) Benefits the current accounting period 2) Will benefit the next accounting period
3) Results in the acquisition of a permanent asset 4) Results in the acquisition of a current asset
Explanation:
Q205) Creating Provision against fluctuation in the price of investment is an example of Marks : 1.0
which accounting convention Id: 44523
1) Convention of conservatism 2) Convention of full disclosure
3) Convention of materiality 4) Convention of consistency
Explanation:
Q206) Debit side is greater than credit side in trading account then it is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44550
1) Loss 2) Profit
3) Balanced 4) None
Explanation:
Q207) “Inventories should be out of godown in the sequence in which they arrive” is based Marks : 1.0
on Id: 44764
1) HIFO 2) LIFO
3) FIFO 4) Weighted Average
Explanation:
Q208) How do we calculate a company’s operating cash flow? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44567
1) EBIT taxes + depreciation 2) EBIT taxes depreciation
3) EBIT + taxes + depreciation 4) EBIT Sales
Explanation:
Q209) The amount of owner's equity in a business is not affected by: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44785
1) The percentage of total assets held in cash. 2) Investments made in the business by the
owner.
3) The profitability of the business. 4) The amount of dividends paid to stockholders.
Explanation:
Q210) ignore all profit and consider for all possible losses it is a philosophy of which Marks : 1.0
convention : Id: 44455
1) conservatism 2) consisteny
3) full disclosure 4) materiality
Explanation:
Q211) The reporting standard for external financial reports is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44598
1) Industryspecific 2) Companyspecific
3) Generally accepted accounting principles 4) Departmentspecific
Explanation:
Q212) Statements: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44695
i) Dividends can be paid only when there are profits
ii) Dividends can be paid when there are losses
1) Both are correct 2) Both are incorrect
3) (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect 4) (ii) is correct and (i) is incorrect
Explanation:
Q213) A business owned by its stockholders and organized as a legal entity separate from Marks : 1.0
its stockholders is referred to as an: Id: 44600
1) partnership. 2) corporation.
3) proprietorship. 4) entrepreneurship.
Explanation:
Q214) Dividend is paid as a percentage of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44658
1) Nominal Share Capital 2) Net Profit
3) Paid up Capital 4) Called up Capital
Explanation:
Q215) Small scale industry is defined in terms of: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44673
1) Volume by production 2) Number of employees
3) Amount of investment in plant and machinery 4) Sales turnover
Explanation:
Q216) Objective of cost accounting is........... Marks : 1.0
Id: 44508
1) To keep the management fully informed about 2) To summarise the financial performance of the
the latest position of concern business for external stakeholders
3) To create a common internal global language 4) To ascertain the profitability of the activities by
in decision making controlling the cost
Explanation:
Q217) Outstanding expense term in accounting comes primarily because of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44639
1) Periodicity 2) Matching
3) Accrual 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q218) Divya purchased a computer costing Rs.10,000. Repairing expenses Rs.1,000 and Marks : 1.0
miscellaneous expenses Rs.500 were incurred by her. She sold the computer at 20% Id: 44755
margin on selling price. The sales value will be
1) 12500 2) 11000
3) 14375 4) 13800
Explanation:
Q219) Business unit is separate and distinct from the person who supply capital to it. It is Marks : 1.0
based on Id: 44662
1) Money Measurement Concept 2) Going Concern Concept
3) Business Entity Concept 4) Dual Aspect Concept
Explanation:
Q220) Which of the following best describe the Conservatism convention? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44458
1) Assets to be reported at the highest possible 2) Profits to be reported at the highest possible
values values
3) Liabilities and expenses are to be reported at 4) All anticipated losses to be reported even
the lowest possible value before they occur
Explanation:
Q221) Which accounting principle differentiates between owners and managers: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44681
1) Going concern 2) Dual aspect
3) Separate entity 4) Conservatism
Explanation:
Q222) In financial accounting, a record is made only of information that can be expressed in Marks : 1.0
monetary terms. This is known as: Id: 44629
1) Historic cost convention 2) Business entity convention
3) Dualaspect concept 4) Money measurement convention
Explanation:
Q223) Book Keeping Includes Marks : 1.0
Id: 44641
1) Recording and Classifying 2) Recording and Summarizing
3) Recording and Analysis 4) None of the above is wholly correct
Explanation:
Q224) Sole traders differ from other types of trading organizations. Which of the following Marks : 1.0
statements correctly summarizes the key characteristics of a sole trader’s business? Id: 44530
1) Liability is limited to the providers of loan 2) The trader has unlimited liability and runs the
finance and only the trader takes an active part business in conjunction with the providers of
in managing the business loan finance
3) The trader has unlimited liability and must 4) The trader has unlimited liability, takes sole
have the business accounts audited responsibility for management of the business
and no audit is needed
Explanation:
Q225) The interest on capital is ____________ of the partnership firm. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44812
1) an income 2) gain
3) an expenditure 4) an asset
Explanation:
Q226) Journal is a book of _______ entries Marks : 1.0
Id: 44560
1) Generic 2) Duplicate
3) Original 4) Secondary
Explanation:
Q227) It is essential to standardize the accounting principles and policies in order to ensure Marks : 1.0
Id: 44435
1) Transparency 2) Consistency
3) Comparability 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q228) A business is in profit, when: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44557
1) Assets exceed Expenditure 2) Income exceeds Expenditure
3) Income exceeds Liabilities 4) Income exceeds Liabilities
Explanation:
Q229) The expenses and incomes pertaining to full trading period are taken to the Profit Marks : 1.0
and Loss Account of a business, irrespective of their payment or receipt. This is in Id: 44713
recognition of
1) Time period Concept 2) Going Concern Concept
3) Accrual Concept 4) Duality Concept
Explanation:
Q230) Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a business is divided Marks : 1.0
for the purpose of preparing financial statements? Id: 44631
1) Fiscal year 2) Calendar year
3) Accounting period 4) Accrual period
Explanation:
Q231) The underlying accounting principle(s) necessitating amortization of intangible Marks : 1.0
asset(s) is/are Id: 44705
1) Cost Concept 2) Realization Concept
3) Matching Concept 4) Both (a) and (c) above
Explanation:
Q232) Matching concept means Marks : 1.0
Id: 44444
1) assets = capital –liabilities 2) Assets = Liabilities
3) period of expenses = period of income 4) source of income & expenses are same
Explanation:
Q233) The accounting equation is....... Marks : 1.0
Id: 44472
1) Net income = Net expenses – Net revenues 2) Assets = Capital – Liabilties
3) Assets = Liabilities + Capital 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q234) Which of the following combination is CORRECT for Partnership Firm? (Minimum Marks : 1.0
and Maximum members) Id: 44596
1) Minimum 2 and Maximum 50 for nonbanking 2) Minimum 2 and Maximum 20 for all types of
business business
3) Minimum 2 and Maximum 20 for banking 4) Minimum 2 and Maximum 10 for banking
business business
Explanation:
Q235) Is it true that the trial balance totals should agree? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44591
1) No, there are sometimes good reasons why 2) No, because it is not a balance sheet
they differ
3) Yes, always
4) Yes, except where the trial balance is extracted
at the year end
Explanation:
Q236) Which of the following is not an accounting convention? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44794
1) Substance over form 2) Consistency
3) Depreciation 4) Matching
Explanation:
Q237) Which of the following are of capital nature? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44742
1) Purchase of a goods 2) Cost of repair
3) Wages paid for installation of machinery 4) Rent of a factory
Explanation:
Q238) Writing of transaction in the ledger is called________________ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44752
1) Costing 2) Balancing
3) Journalizing 4) Posting
Explanation:
Q239) A new firm commenced business on 1st January, 2006 and purchased goods costing Marks : 1.0
Rs. 90,000 during the year. A sum of Rs. 6,000 was spent on carriage inwards. At the Id: 44660
end of the year the cost of goods still unsold was Rs. 12,000. Sales during the year
was Rs.1,20,000. What is the gross profit earned by the firm?
1) 36000 2) 30000
3) 42000 4) 38000
Explanation:
Q240) “Assets should be valued at the price paid to acquire them“ is based on Marks : 1.0
Id: 44436
1) Accrual concept 2) Cost concept
3) Money measurement concept 4) Realization concept
Explanation:
Q241) Which of the following is taken into account while totaling the liabilities side of the Marks : 1.0
balance sheet? Id: 44546
1) Authorized Capital 2) Issued Capital
3) Subscribed Share Capital 4) Paidup capital
Explanation:
Q242) The accounting principle which refers to tendency of accountants to resolve Marks : 1.0
uncertainty and doubt in favour of understanding assets and revenues and Id: 44441
overstating the liabilities and expenses is known as
1) Conservatism 2) Materiality
3) Consistency 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q243) All the following statements are objectives of accounting except Marks : 1.0
Id: 44759
1) Providing details about the personal assets 2) Maintaining records of business.
and liabilities of the owner.
3) Providing information about the performance
of business entity.
4) Providing information about the assets,
liabilities and capital of business entity.
Explanation:
Q244) Owners and the business are separate as per the Marks : 1.0
Id: 38728
1) Seperate entity concept 2) Dual Aspect
3) Money measurement concept 4) None
Explanation:
Q245) State the case where the going concern concept is applied? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44663
1) When an enterprise was set up for a particular 2) When a receiver or liquidator has been
purpose, which has been achieved, or to be appointed in case of as a company which is to
achieved shortly be liquidated
3) Fixed assets are acquired for use in the 4) When an enterprise is declared sick
business for earning revenues and are not
meant for resale
Explanation:
Q246) Holding all other things constant, which of the following represents a cash outflow? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44566
1) The company sells a machine 2) The company acquires inventory
3) The company receives a bank loan 4) The company increases accounts payable.
Explanation:
Q247) Which of the following records is not a book of prime entry? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44799
1) Bank statements 2) Petty cash book
3) Journal 4) Sales returns day book.
Explanation:
Q248) Concept of similar accounts being treated similarly year after year is due to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44513
1) Prudence 2) consistency
3) materiality 4) on going concern
Explanation:
Q249) Following is the external user of accounting information Marks : 1.0
Id: 44482
1) Manager 2) Creditor
3) Employee 4) Owner
Explanation:
Q250) The convention of consistency refers to consistent use of accounting principles: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44801
1) Within industries 2) Throughout the accounting period
3) Among enterprises belonging to different 4) Across accounting periods
industries
Explanation:
Q251) Payment of personal expenses of the owners of the business need to be recorded as Marks : 1.0
Id: 44760
1) Drawings 2) Liability
3) Expenses 4) None of the three.
Explanation:
Q252) Below are 4 statements: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44403
A) Vehicle used for business purpose is an asset of business,
B) Cash withdrew for personal use is drawings from business,
C) Bad debts should be deducted from debtors,
D) Interest received is expenditure.
Which of the above statements are true?
1) Statement A ONLY 2) Statements A and B
3) Statements A, B and C 4) Statements A and C
Explanation:
Q253) In Double Entry System of Bookkeeping every business transaction affects Marks : 1.0
Id: 44653
1) Two accounts 2) Two sides of the same account
3) The same account on two different dates 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q254) Three fundamental accounting assumptions are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44638
1) Going concern, accrual and dual aspect 2) Going concern, dual aspect and consistency
3) consistency, dual aspect and going concern 4) Consistency, accrual and going concern
Explanation:
Q255) While finalizing the current year’s profit, the company realized that there was an error Marks : 1.0
in the valuation of closing stock of the previous year. In the previous year, closing Id: 44740
stock was valued more by Rs.50,000. As a result
1) Previous year’s profit is overstated and 2) Previous year’s profit is understated and
current year’s profit is also overstated current year’s profit is overstated
3) Previous year’s profit is understated and 4) Previous year’s profit is overstated and
current year’s profit is also understated current year’s profit is understated
Explanation:
Q256) Which of the following does not appear under the head “Share Capital”of a Balance Marks : 1.0
Sheet. a.Preference Share Capital b.Minority interest in subsidiaries c.Equity Share Id: 44552
Capital d.Capital Reserve Account
1) a&b 2) b&c
3) c&d 4) b&d
Explanation:
Q257) Which one of the following is not an example of Intangible Assets? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44633
1) Patents and Trade Marks 2) Copyright
3) Slogan 4) Land
Explanation:
Q258) Which of the following financial statements reflects the overall financial position of Marks : 1.0
the business? Id: 44599
1) Statement of cash flows 2) Income Statement
3) Balance Sheet 4) Statement of owner’s equity
Explanation:
Q259) In Accounting 'Dual aspect Concept' means ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44411
1) A firm or business is regarded as separate & 2) All business transactions are regarded as
distinct from the owner. having a dual aspect.
3) All transactions are recorded in terms of 4) Accounting is made on the assumption that a
money. business will continue in future and will use its
property in operations rather than sell them.
Explanation:
Q260) A company has received a penalty order from excise department. Penalty imposed is Marks : 1.0
Rs. 15.00 Lacs. Order was received on 15.01.2008 and company has filed appeal on Id: 44782
10.02.2008, result of which is pending as on 31.03.2008. The company should
1) Disclose the fact in financial statements by 2) Not disclose anything
recognizing liability
3) Disclose it as contingent liability
4) Should put this matter in Board of directors
meeting
Explanation:
Q261) Salary has been paid for 11 months from April 2005 to February, 2006 amounting Marks : 1.0
Rs.22,000. The amount of outstanding salary shown in the balance sheet will be: Id: 44770
1) 1833 2) 2000
3) 1000 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q262) Every entry recorded in Journal, must be posted into Marks : 1.0
Id: 38729
1) Day Book 2) Cash Book
3) Ledger 4) Sales Books
Explanation:
Q263) After preparing the trial balance, the accountant finds that the total of a credit side is Marks : 1.0
short by RS 1500. This difference will be Id: 44549
1) Credited to suspense a/c 2) Debited to suspense a/c
3) Adjusted to any of the debit balance account 4) Adjusted to any of the credit balance account
Explanation:
Q264) Which of the following transactions represent an expense? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44431
1) The owner withdrew Rs. 1,600 from the 2) Purchased a photocopying machine for Rs.
business for personal use 2,750 cash
3) Purchased medical supplies for cash from 4) Received a telephone bill amounting to Rs. 550
Healthcare Labs. Rs. 1,630 to be paid within ten days.
Explanation:
Q265) In Accounting 'Business entity Concept' means ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44410
1) A firm or business is regarded as separate & 2) All business transactions are regarded as
distinct from the owner. having a dual aspect.
3) All transactions are recorded in terms of 4) Accounting is made on the assumption that a
money. business will continue in future and will use its
property in operations rather than sell them.
Explanation:
Q266) A business was commenced on 1st January and it purchased 5 vehicles, each Marks : 1.0
costing Rs.5000. During the year the business managed to sell 2 vehicles at the price Id: 38732
of Rs.12000. How should the remaining 3 vehicles be valued if the business is going
to continue its operations in the next year?
1) At the breakup value 2) On the basis of going concern
3) Liquidation value 4) More than market value
Explanation:
Q267) Purchases book records: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44739
1) All cash purchases. 2) All credit purchases.
3) Credit purchases of goods in trade. 4) None of the above.
Explanation:
Q268) An old furniture was purchased for Rs. 10,000 , it was repaired for Rs. 100.The repairs Marks : 1.0
account should be debited by Id: 44773
1) 10000 2) 10100
3) 100 4) NIL
Explanation:
Q269) While putting the value or price of an entity in financial records the lowest price is Marks : 1.0
recorded not the current price or current market value. This is known as........... Id: 44487
1) Business Entity Concept 2) Conservatism Concept
3) Cost Concept 4) Money Measurement Concept
Explanation:
Q270) The financial statement that reports the financial position of a business is the Marks : 1.0
Id: 44624
1) income statement. 2) balance sheet.
3) statement of cash flows. 4) footnotes to the financial statements.
Explanation:
Q271) Following is the example of external users: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44749
1) Government. 2) Owners.
3) Management. 4) Employees.
Explanation:
Q272) Retained earnings is classified as a part of — Marks : 1.0
Id: 44723
1) Owners Fund 2) Gross Block
3) Capital Working Progress 4) Stock in Trade
Explanation:
Q273) Which of the following statement is true regarding call in arrears? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44615
1) Calls in arrears are that part of called up 2) It is shown in theProfit & Loss A/c until the
capital remaining unpaid. defaulted shares are forfeited
3) The rate of interest on calls in arrears is 4) Charging of interest on calls in arrears need
chargeable at 9% p.a. if a company adopts not be permitted by the Articles of Association
Table A
Explanation:
Q274) Sold goods to Kamat for Rs. 50000 @ 2% TD & 5% CD. He paid 60% of the amount Marks : 1.0
immediately. Find the amount of cash paid by Kamat. Id: 44661
1) ` 26950 2) ` 27930
3) ` 29400 4) ` 28812
Explanation:
Q275) In financial statements of a company, Material Supplier preferably looks for....... Marks : 1.0
Id: 44595
1) Profitability of our company 2) Liquidity position of our company
3) Long Term Viability of our company 4) Fixed Asset base of our company
Explanation:
Q276) X Ltd., purchased goods for ` 5 lakh and sold 9/10th of the value of goods for ` 6 lakh. Marks : 1.0
Net expenses during the year were ` 25, 000. The company reported its net profit as ` Id: 44710
75,000. Which of the following concept is violated by the company?
1) Realization 2) Conservation
3) Matching 4) Accrual
Explanation:
Q277) The term depletion is used for Marks : 1.0
Id: 44767
1) Fixed assets. 2) Natural resources.
3) Intangible assets. 4) None of the three.
Explanation:
Q278) The market for long term loanable funds is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44692
1) Bond market 2) Money market
3) Capital market 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q279) If Assets = Rs. 98,500 and Owner's equity = Rs. 50,500 then Liabilities = ? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44590
1) 57000 2) 105700
3) 48000 4) Rs. 148, 500
Explanation:
Q280) Rent paid for owner's residence is debited to drawing account and not to rent Marks : 1.0
account , is based on which principle? Id: 44494
1) Going concern concept 2) Separate Entity concept
3) Money Measurement concept 4) Daul aspect concept
Explanation:
Q281) Calculate inventory if Cost of goods sold is 216000 and inventory turn over is 4 times Marks : 1.0
Id: 44539
1) 50000 2) 54000
3) 60000 4) 64000
Explanation:
Q282) Material Cost can be classify on the basis of Relationship as______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44427
1) Fixed & Variable 2) Direct & Indirect
3) Raw Material & WIP 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q283) “Assets should be valued at the price paid to acquire them” is based on Marks : 1.0
Id: 44763
1) Accrual concept. 2) Cost concept.
3) Money measurement concept. 4) Realisation concept.
Explanation:
Q284) Sales accounts appears on ______ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44394
1) Trading account debit side 2) P&L account credit side
3) Balancesheet asset side 4) Trading account credit side
Explanation:
Q285) Which of the following concept is not considered as basic principle of accounting? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44715
1) Logical Concept 2) Consistency Concept
3) Matching Concept 4) Materiality Concept
Explanation:
Q286) Calculate Fixed assets is 2600000 and fixed to current assets is 13:11 Marks : 1.0
Id: 44541
1) 2000000 2) 2200000
3) 2800000 4) 3000000
Explanation:
Q287) Low assets turnover may indicate Marks : 1.0
Id: 44577
1) Low assets 2) High cost of maintenance
3) Idle assets 4) Higher sales
Explanation:
Q288) Current ratio indicates Marks : 1.0
Id: 44606
1) amount of cash with company 2) Ability to repay debt installment
3) Capacity to meet current Liabilities 4) Non of above
Explanation:
Q289) From the accounting point of view, loss means Marks : 1.0
Id: 44719
1) Increase in Liability 2) Decrease in asset
3) Increase in owner’s equity 4) Decrease in Owner’s equity
Explanation:
Q290) The account Accounts Receivable is an example of a(n) ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44521
1) asset 2) liability
3) owner's equity 4) none of the above
Explanation:
Q291) External liabilities plus capital is equal to ______________. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44809
1) assets 2) net worth
3) net profit 4) gross profit
Explanation:
Q292) Which of the following is not a function of Cost Accounting ? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44724
1) Cost ascertainment 2) Planning and control
3) Decisionmaking 4) External reporting
Explanation:
Q293) A list of assets, liabilities and owner's equity of a business enterprise as of a specific Marks : 1.0
date is: Id: 44781
1) Income Statement 2) Cash Flow Statement
3) Balance sheet. 4) Profit and Loss Account
Explanation:
Q294) Sunk costs are: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44620
1) usually relevant 2) costs that will occur in the future.
3) not relevant. 4) costs that can be avoided.
Explanation:
Q295) Cost information facilitates many important decisions except : Marks : 1.0
Id: 44726
1) Introduction of a product 2) Whether to make or buy
3) Retention of profit 4) Exploration of an additional market
Explanation:
Q296) Which of the following statements is false? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44731
1) Issued capital can never be more than 2) In case of under subscription, issued capital
authorized capital will be less than the subscribed capital
3) Uncalled capital may be converted into reserve 4) Paid up capital is equal to called up capital
capital less calls in arrears
Explanation:
Q297) Reporting on the performance of the firm to essential external users is done through Marks : 1.0
which type of accounting: Id: 44485
1) Managerial accounting 2) Financial accounting
3) Internal accounting 4) Cost accounting
Explanation:
Q298) A bank that offers wide range of financial services including commercial and Marks : 1.0
investment banking is termed as Id: 44669
1) Universal Bank 2) Unit Bank
3) Multinational Bank 4) Merchant Bank
Explanation:
Q299) Depreciation of Fixed Assets is an example of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44665
1) Deferred Revenue Expenditure 2) Revenue Expenditure
3) Capital Expenditure 4) Capital Receipts
Explanation:
Q300) All the following statements are objective of accounting except Marks : 1.0
Id: 44517
1) Providing information about the assets, 2) Maintaining records of business
liabilities and capital of business entity
3) Providing information about the performance
of business entity
4) Providing details about the personal assets
and liability of the owner
Explanation:
Q301) Which of the following term is used to represent the proportionate relationship Marks : 1.0
between debt and equity ? Id: 44698
1) Cost of Capital 2) Capital Budgeting
3) Assets Structure 4) Capital Structure
Explanation:
Q302) In Bookkeeping only ____________ transactions are recorded. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44611
1) Monetary 2) Nonmonetary
3) Monetary & Nonmonetary 4) Private
Explanation:
Q303) Provision for bad debt is made as per the Marks : 1.0
Id: 44712
1) Entity Concept 2) Conservatism Concept
3) Cost Concept 4) Going Concern Concept
Explanation:
Q304) Accounting is defined as? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44474
1) An art of recording, classifying and 2) A systematic and regular record of events
summarizing in a significant manner and in clear financial picture
terms of money, transactions and events
which are in part at least, of a financial
character and interpreting the results thereof. 3) A method of ascertaining profits & loss
4) Noting but book keeping
Explanation:
Q305) The bonds that are issued at heavy discount and pay no interest but are redeemable Marks : 1.0
at par at future date are Id: 44670
1) Convertible debentures 2) Green bonds
3) Zero Coupon Bonds 4) Govt. Security Bonds
Explanation:
Q306) Maximum __________ persons are required to form a partnership having trading Marks : 1.0
business. Id: 44815
1) 15 2) 8
3) 12 4) 20
Explanation:
Q307) Management Accounting seeks to serve the purpose of management to run a Marks : 1.0
business more efficiently and thus uses the techniques of : Id: 44725
1) Financial Accounting 2) Cost Accounting
3) Mathematics and Statistics 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q308) According to which of the following accounting principles, the owners of the Marks : 1.0
business are considered as creditors? Id: 44691
1) Money measurement 2) Separate Entity
3) Dual Aspect 4) Cost
Explanation:
Q309) A business's assets are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44625
1) equal to liabilities minus stockholders' equity. 2) the economic resources of the business.
3) Reported at current cost. 4) Reported on the income statement.
Explanation:
Q310) Which of the following transactions would increase Cash and cash equivalents and Marks : 1.0
increase Noncurrent liabilities? Id: 44628
1) A bank loan 2) Payment to a supplier
3) Purchasing goods on credit 4) Payment from a customer
Explanation:
Q311) Credit purchases entered in cash book it is called which error Marks : 1.0
Id: 44500
1) errors of omission 2) error of commission
3) compensation error 4) error of principle
Explanation:
Q312) comes in is to be debited, what goes out is to be credited. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44525
1) Rules of Personal 2) Rules of Real
3) Rules of Nominal 4) All of these
Explanation:
Q313) Managerial accounting information is generally prepared for Marks : 1.0
Id: 44473
1) Shareholders 2) Creditors
3) Regulatory agencies 4) Management
Explanation:
Q314) Financial Accounting ends with Marks : 1.0
Id: 44735
1) Preparation of Financial Statements 2) Preparation of Trial Balance
3) Preparation of P& L A/c 4) Preparation of Balance Sheet
Explanation:
Q315) Which one of the following qualities of useful accounting information requires such Marks : 1.0
information to (1) be capable of influencing a decision, (2) be timely, and (3) have Id: 44737
predictive and/or feedback value?
1) Understandable 2) Relevant
3) Reliable 4) Verifiable
Explanation:
Q316) Outstanding salary account is: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44768
1) Real account 2) Personal account
3) Nominal account 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q317) Sales are equal to: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44527
1) Cost of goods sold + gross profit 2) Cost of goods sold gross profit
3) Gross profit Cost of goods sold 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q318) Withdrawals by proprietor would Marks : 1.0
Id: 44717
1) Reduce both Assets and Owner’s Equity 2) Reduce Assets and increase Liabilities
3) Reduce Owner’s Equity and increase 4) Have no affect on the Balance Sheet
Liabilities
Explanation:
Q319) What are the considerations in designing the capital structure of a company Marks : 1.0
Id: 44677
1) Trading on equity 2) Cost of capital
3) Profitability 4) All of above
Explanation:
Q320) Which of the following would NOT be a goal of external users reading a company’s Marks : 1.0
financial statement? Id: 44396
1) Understanding the current financial state of 2) Assessing the company's contribution to
the company social and environmental policies
3) Predicting the company's future financial 4) Evaluating the company's ability to generate
performance cash from sales
Explanation:
Q321) Which of the following is not an asset ? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44609
1) Land and Building 2) Sundry Debtors
3) Loan from Shri Kulkarni 4) Cash balance
Explanation:
Q322) Accounting means recording of _________________ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44647
1) Transactions 2) Events
3) Both (a) and (b) 4) Neither (a) nor (b)
Explanation:
Q323) Bank overdraft is shown as a Marks : 1.0
Id: 44586
1) Current liability 2) Fixed asset
3) Contingent liability 4) Current asset
Explanation:
Q324) Which of the following is not an example of intangible assets? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44588
1) Patents 2) Plant & Machinery
3) Franchise rights 4) Goodwill
Explanation:
Q325) The charging of depreciation expense over the life of an asset rather than the Marks : 1.0
immediate full expensing of its costs is an example of: Id: 44800
1) Reliability 2) Consistency
3) Prudence 4) Matching
Explanation:
Q326) Accounting means_________ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44417
1) Summarizing the Business transactions 2) Recording of business transactions.
3) identifying& Communicating economic 4) All of these
information
Explanation:
Q327) Normally, the following accounts are balanced Marks : 1.0
Id: 44440
1) Real a/c and nominal a/c 2) Personal a/c and real a/c
3) Only nominal a/c 4) All a/c
Explanation:
Q328) If Cost of goods sold is Rs.80,700, Opening stock Rs.5,800 and Closing stock Marks : 1.0
Rs.6,000. Then the amount of purchase will be Id: 44743
1) 80500 2) 74900
3) 74700 4) 80900
Explanation:
Q329) The financial statement that shows the financial position of an enterprise at a Marks : 1.0
particular point in time is the: Id: 44630
1) Explanatory notes to the financial statements 2) Statement of changes in equity
3) Balance sheet 4) Cash flow statement
Explanation:
Q330) On 31st march while closing accounts COGS=35000, closing stock 8000/, opening Marks : 1.0
stock 10000/ purchase returns 5000/ then cost of goods purchased is Id: 44498
1) 35000 2) 38000
3) 5000 4) 27000
Explanation:
Q331) The functions planning and forecasting are attributed to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44481
1) Cost Accounting 2) Financial Accounting
3) Management Accounting 4) Book Keeping
Explanation:
Q332) Outstanding salaries are shown as _____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44392
1) An expense 2) A liability
3) An asset 4) An income
Explanation:
Q333) Accounting Starts where Marks : 1.0
Id: 44648
1) Book keeping ends 2) Business ends
3) Accounting period ends 4) None of above
Explanation:
Q334) If a business suffers a loss, the _________ of the proprietor decreases. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44612
1) Profit 2) Drawings
3) Capital 4) Expenditure
Explanation:
Q335) If the Going Concern concept is no longer valid, which of the following is true? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44704
1) All prepaid assets would be completely 2) Total contributed Capital and Retained
writtenoff immediately Earnings would remain unchanged
3) Intangible Assets would continue to be carried 4) Land held as an Investment would be valued at
at net Amortized historical cost its realizable value
Explanation:
Q336) Which of the following is a noncurrent liability? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44780
1) Bills Payable 2) Sundry Creditors
3) Bank Overdraft 4) Long term Loans
Explanation:
Q337) A company forfeited 2,000 shares of Rs.10 each (which were issued at par) held by Marks : 1.0
Mr. John for nonpayment of allotment money of Rs.4 per share. The calledup value Id: 44745
per share was Rs.9. They were reissued as fully paid to Mr. Mathews for Rs. 7. What
is the profit on reissue of shares to the company?
1) 2000 2) 4000
3) 6000 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q338) Accounting records Marks : 1.0
Id: 44471
1) Qualitative aspects of business 2) Economic aspects of business
3) Financial aspects of business 4) Quantitative aspects of business
Explanation:
Q339) For assessing future market value of company it is best to depend on Marks : 1.0
Id: 44607
1) turn over ratios 2) Earning ratios
3) profitability ratios 4) Liquidity ratios
Explanation:
Q340) The rent paid to the landlord should be debited to _____________ A/c. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44808
1) rent 2) drawings
3) cash 4) land
Explanation:
Q341) Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of financial accounting Marks : 1.0
in a limited liability company? Id: 44531
1) To assist in the daytoday management of the 2) To enable the business to pay the correct
company amount of tax
3) To ensure that the business pays the correct 4) To help the directors discharge their
dividend obligations to the shareholders
Explanation:
Q342) At the end of the accounting period the provision is made for the amount outstanding Marks : 1.0
for the electricity that has been consumed during the said period the statement is Id: 44445
based on
1) accrual concept 2) matching
3) realization 4) money measurement
Explanation:
Q343) The accounting equation can be expressed as which of the following? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44787
1) Assets plus liabilities equal owners' equity 2) Assets plus owners' equity equals liabilities
3) Assets equal liabilities plus owners' equity 4) Either A or C
Explanation:
Q344) Which financial statement can be compared to a still photograph: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44693
1) Income statement 2) Balance sheet
3) Cash flow statement 4) Fund flow statement
Explanation:
Q345) The separate entity concept is applicable to which of following types of businesses? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44484
1) Partnership 2) Sole proprietorship
3) Corporation 4) All the above
Explanation:
Q346) Overstating ending inventory will understate: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44798
1) assets. 2) cost of goods sold.
3) net income. 4) owner's equity.
Explanation:
Q347) According to schedule VI Companies Act which item is not shown on Asset side of Marks : 1.0
Balance sheet Id: 44627
1) Investment 2) Current Loan & Advances
3) Provision 4) Lease Holds
Explanation:
Q348) What is the order in which the accounting transactions and events are recorded in Marks : 1.0
the books? Id: 44778
1) Journal, Subsidiary books, Ledger, Balance 2) Ledger, Journal, Ledger, Balance sheet , Profit
sheet , Profit and loss account. and loss account
3) Journal, Ledger, Profit and loss account, 4) Profit and loss account, Ledger, Balance
Balance sheet . sheet, Journal.
Explanation:
Q349) Management Accounting Reports Can Be Described As Marks : 1.0
Id: 44504
1) GeneralPurpose 2) MacroReports
3) SpecialPurpose 4) Classified Financial Statements
Explanation:
Q350) Double entry bookkeeping was fathered by: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44502
1) F.W.Taylor 2) Henry Fayol
3) Lucas Pacioli. 4) Peter Drucker
Explanation:
Q351) A very high current ratio indicates Marks : 1.0
Id: 44548
1) High efficiency 2) flabby inventory
3) position of more short term funds 4) B or C
Explanation:
Q352) For which step of accounting process the accountants of business entity prepare Marks : 1.0
financial statements? Id: 44533
1) Identification of economic event 2) Communication of financial information
3) Recording financial information 4) Making decisions about business
Explanation:
Q353) A expense that gives benefit for a period of less than twelve months is known as Marks : 1.0
Id: 44589
1) Capital Expense 2) Deferred Expense
3) Revenue Receipt 4) Revenue Expense
Explanation:
Q354) Which of the following is false regarding the balance sheet? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44734
1) The accounts shown on a balance sheet does 2) The retained earnings balance shown on the
not represent the basic accounting equation balance sheet must agree with the ending
for a particular business entity. retained earnings balance shown on the
statement of retained earnings.
3) The balance sheet reports the changes in 4) The balance sheet reports the amount of
specific account balances over a period of assets, liabilities, and stockholders’ equity of
time. an accounting entity at a point in time.
Explanation:
Q355) Wages paid for installation of machinery should be debited to: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44462
1) Wages 2) Machinery
3) Cash 4) Installatio
Explanation:
Q356) When units produce increase, total variable costs ______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44386
1) Increase in proportion of units produced 2) Increase at a greater rate than units produced
3) Increase at a lesser rate than units produced 4) Do not change
Explanation:
Q357) Rs.5,000 was spent by Mrs. Saroj for addition to machinery in order to increase the Marks : 1.0
production capacity. The amount is: Id: 44771
1) Capital in nature. 2) Deferred revenue in nature.
3) Revenue in nature. 4) Liability in nature.
Explanation:
Q358) The main focus of managerial accounting is: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44520
1) decision making. 2) the preparation of financial statements.
3) the preparation of budgets. 4) documenting cash flows.
Explanation:
Q359) Management accounting involves Marks : 1.0
Id: 44443
1) Recording of costs 2) Recording of transactions
3) Preparation of financial statement 4) Analysis and interpretation of data
Explanation:
Q360) Accounting has certain norms to be observed by the accountants in recording of Marks : 1.0
transactions and preparation of financial statements. These norms reduce the Id: 44666
vagueness and chances of misunderstanding by harmonizing the varied accounting
practices. These norms are
1) Accounting Regulations 2) Accounting Guidance Notes
3) Accounting Standards 4) Accounting Framework
Explanation:
Q361) If the realized collection period is more than term of trade it can be said that Marks : 1.0
Id: 44576
1) Collection job is poor 2) The quality of debtor is poor
3) Average daily sales are low 4) both A& B above
Explanation:
Q362) In cost sheet Carriage outward cost relates with______ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44423
1) Selling &Distribution 2) Prime Cost
3) direct Material cost 4) Factory Cost
Explanation:
Q363) Which of the following concepts assumes that a business will last indefinitely? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44716
1) Business Entity 2) Going Concern
3) Periodicity 4) Consistency
Explanation:
Q364) The short term solvency ratio is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44779
1) Current Ratio 2) Proprietory Ratio
3) Net Profit Ratio 4) Debtors Turnvover Ratio
Explanation:
Q365) Conservatism principle says Marks : 1.0
Id: 38726
1) Anticipate losses not profit 2) Anticipate profit
3) Anticipate profit and losses 4) None
Explanation:
Q366) Calculate debtors if credit sales are 216000 and debtors turn over is 18 Marks : 1.0
Id: 44540
1) 12000 2) 15000
3) 18000 4) 20000
Explanation:
Q367) Under which form of business are the owners directly responsible for the debts of Marks : 1.0
the business? Id: 44792
1) Sole proprietorship 2) Partnership
3) A and B 4) Corporation
Explanation:
Q368) The assumption that the business enterprise would not be sold or liquidated in the Marks : 1.0
near future is known as the Id: 44449
1) Conservatism 2) Materiality
3) Going concern 4) Matching
Explanation:
Q369) Financial statements for external users can be described as Marks : 1.0
Id: 44468
1) Userspecific 2) Generalpurpose
3) Specialpurpose 4) Specialpurpose
Explanation:
Q370) As per the Double entry concept Marks : 1.0
Id: 44701
1) Assets+ Liabilities = Capital 2) Capital = Assets – Liabilities
3) Capital – Liabilities = Assets 4) Capital + Assets = Liabilities
Explanation:
Q371) A land purchased at a price of Rs. 5,00,000 has a market value of Rs 10,00,000. While Marks : 1.0
recording in the books of accounts it is shown at the purchase price of Rs 5,00,000 Id: 44495
This is the application of which principle?
1) Separate entity concept 2) Historical cost concept
3) Principle of conservatism 4) Materiality concept
Explanation:
Q372) Fundamental accounting assumptions are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44637
1) Materiality 2) Business entity
3) Going concern 4) Dual aspect
Explanation:
Q373) Assets Less Liabilities = ___________. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44579
1) Drawings 2) Capital
3) Profit 4) Loss
Explanation:
Q374) Which account is the odd one out? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44652
1) Office Furniture & Equipment 2) Freehold Land and Buildings
3) Stock of raw materials 4) Plant and Machinery
Explanation:
Q375) Purchases of raw materials for cash results in Marks : 1.0
Id: 44651
1) No change in Current Assets 2) Increase in Assets
3) Decrease in capital 4) Decrease in Liabilities
Explanation:
Q376) A second hand car is purchased for Rs. 10,000, the amount of Rs. 1,000 is spent on Marks : 1.0
its repairs, Rs. 500 is incurred to get the car registered in owner’s name and Rs. 1,200 Id: 44744
is paid as dealer’s commission. The amount debited to car account will be
1) 10000 2) 10500
3) 11500 4) 12700
Explanation:
Q377) A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, plus long Marks : 1.0
distance charges, would be classified as a: Id: 44479
1) Variable cost 2) Committed fixed cost
3) Direct cost 4) Semi variable cost
Explanation:
Q378) Management accounting information is generally prepared for Marks : 1.0
Id: 44464
1) Shareholders 2) Creditors
3) Managers 4) Regulatory agencies
Explanation:
Q379) Which of the following is a liability Marks : 1.0
Id: 44610
1) Motor Vehicles 2) Machinery
3) Creditors for goods 4) Cash at Bank
Explanation:
Q380) Drawings A/c is classified as __________________ A/c. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44807
1) Real 2) Nominal
3) Personal 4) Impersonal
Explanation:
Q381) The basic concepts related to Balance Sheet are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44699
1) Cost Concept 2) Business Entity Concept
3) Accounting Period Concept 4) Both (a) and (b) above
Explanation:
Q382) When money is withdrawn from bank, the bank: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44783
1) Credits Customer’s Account 2) Credit and debit Customers Account
3) Debits Customers Account 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q383) Revenue from sale of products, is generally, realized in the period in which Marks : 1.0
Id: 44746
1) Cash is collected. 2) Sale is made.
3) Products are manufactured. 4) None of the above.
Explanation:
Q384) Which is the non monetory transaction? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44414
1) Payment of wages of Rs.500 to a worker. 2) Ramesh gives his cycle to his friend Suresh
for a single day use.
3) Ramesh gives his cycle to his friend Suresh on 4) Shankar gives his bullock to gopal in
hire basis for a day. exchange of horse.
Explanation:
Q385) The company collected an account receivable of Rs.4,200. What effect did this Marks : 1.0
transaction have on the financial position of the company? Id: 44791
1) Assets, no change; Liabilities, no change; 2) Assets, decrease; Liabilities, increase;
Owners' Equity, no change Owners' Equity, no change
3) Assets, increase; Liabilities, increase; Owners' 4) Assets, decrease; Liabilities, no change;
Equity, no change Owners' Equity, decrease
Explanation:
Q386) If sales are Rs. 2,000 and the rate of gross profit on cost of goods sold is 25%, then Marks : 1.0
the cost of goods sold will be Id: 44748
1) 2000 2) 1500
3) 1600 4) None of the above.
Explanation:
Q387) What will be debited, if Arun commenced business with cash? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44559
1) Capital account 2) Proprietor account
3) Cash account 4) Drawings account
Explanation:
Q388) Periodical ascertainment of profit helps in judging the______ of a business unit. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44581
1) Profit 2) Capability
3) Performance 4) Accuracy
Explanation:
Q389) Which of the following is not the financial statement Marks : 1.0
Id: 44510
1) Profit & Loss account 2) Trial Balance
3) Profit & Loss appropriation account 4) Balance sheet
Explanation:
Q390) Sweat equity shares are equity shares issued by a company to its ____________. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44814
1) debtors 2) creditors
3) employees 4) lenders
Explanation:
Q391) Cost = Material+_______+Expenses Marks : 1.0
Id: 44422
1) Overhead 2) Direct Exp
3) Labour 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q392) The immediate recognition of loss is supported by the concept/convention of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44805
1) materiality 2) objective
3) consistency 4) conservatism
Explanation:
Q393) Which of the following regarding retained earnings is false? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44398
1) Retained earnings is increased by net income 2) Retained earnings is a component of
stockholders' equity on the balance sheet
3) Retained earnings is an asset on the balance 4) Retained earnings represents earnings not
sheet distributed to stockholders in the form of
dividends
Explanation:
Q394) As a gesture of goodwill, office supplies of Rs.1,000 were sold to a neighboring Marks : 1.0
business that paid cash for the supplies. What effect did this transaction have on the Id: 44790
financial position of the company?
1) Assets, no change; Liabilities, no change; 2) Assets, decrease; Liabilities, increase;
Owners' Equity, no change Owners' Equity, no change
3) Assets, increase; Liabilities, increase; Owners' 4) Assets, decrease; Liabilities, no change;
Equity, no change Owners' Equity, decrease
Explanation:
Q395) A company at the start of a financial period had a provision for doubtful debts of Marks : 1.0
Rs.7,000. By the end of the year the provision for doubtful debts was Rs.5,000. The Id: 44397
relevant entry in the profit and loss account would be:
1) Profit decreases by Rs. 2,000 2) Profit decreases by Rs. 5,000
3) Profit decreases by Rs. 12,000 4) Profit increases by Rs. 2,000
Explanation:
Q396) Omission of paise and showing the round figures in financial statements is based on Marks : 1.0
Id: 44709
1) Conservatism Concept 2) Consistency Concept
3) Materiality Concept 4) Realization Concept
Explanation:
Q397) Accounting has certain norms to be observed by the accountant in recording of Marks : 1.0
transaction and preparation of financial statement. These norms reduce the Id: 44438
vagueness and chance of misunderstanding the varied accounting practices. These
norms are
1) Accounting standards 2) Accounting frame work
3) Accounting regulation 4) Accounting guidance notes
Explanation:
Q398) Sales are equal to _____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44391
1) Cost of goods sold + Profit 2) Cost of goods sold Gross Profit
3) Gross Profit – Cost of goods sold 4) Gross profit – net profit
Explanation:
Q399) Which of the following have some similarities? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44486
1) Financial Accounting & Management 2) Cost Accounting and Management Accounting
Accounting
3) Financial Accounting & Cost Accounting
4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q400) The long term solvency position are measured by Marks : 1.0
Id: 44601
1) Coverage Ratio 2) Earning Ratio
3) Structural Ratios 4) Both A&C
Explanation:
Q401) Which of the following should NOT be called ‘Sales’? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44593
1) Goods sold for cash 2) Goods sold on credit
3) Sale of item previously included in ‘Purchases’ 4) Office fixtures sold
Explanation:
Q402) What is the minimum number of partners required to commence a partnership Marks : 1.0
business? Id: 44558
1) 20 2) 4
3) 10 4) 2
Explanation:
Q403) Statements: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44687
i. Agency theory relates to the relationship between management and employees
ii. Agency theory relates to middlemen
1) Both are correct 2) Both are incorrect
3) (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect 4) (ii) is correct and (i) is incorrect
Explanation:
Q404) Furniture for a cloth dealer is a ______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44390
1) Wasting Asset 2) Current Asset
3) Current Liability 4) Fixed Asset
Explanation:
Q405) The information provided in the annual financial statements of an enterprise pertain Marks : 1.0
to Id: 44757
1) Business Industry. 2) Individual business entity.
3) Economy. 4) None of the three.
Explanation:
Q406) Mr. A purchased a machinery costing `1,00,000 on 1st October, 2005. Transportation Marks : 1.0
and installation charges were incurred amounting `10,000 and ` 4,000 respectively. Id: 44659
Market value of the machine was estimated at ` 1,20,000 on 31st March 2006. While
finalising the annual accounts, A values the machinery at ` 1,20,000 in his books.
Which of the following concepts was violated by A?
1) Historical Cost Concept 2) Matching Concept
3) Realization Concept 4) Periodicity Concept
Explanation:
Q407) Four accounts are given below: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44404
A) Sales Account, B) Interest Account, C) Rent Account, D) Furniture Account.
Which of the above is/ are NOT nominal accounts?
1) Option D ONLY 2) Option A ONLY
3) Options A, B and C 4) Options A and C
Explanation:
Q408) Prepaid expenses are ______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44395
1) Assets of business 2) Liabilities of business
3) Expenses of business 4) Earnings for business
Explanation:
Q409) Which of the following is not a subfield of accounting? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44516
1) Management accounting 2) Cost accounting
3) Financial accounting 4) Book keeping
Explanation:
Q410) A person sells goods to another on credit basis then he becomes what for business: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44459
1) Creditor 2) Debtor
3) Both of above 4) None of above
Explanation:
Q411) All the expenditures and receipts of revenue nature go to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44751
1) Trading account. 2) Profit and loss account.
3) Balance sheet. 4) Either to (a) or (b)
Explanation:
Q412) The main purpose of cost accounting is to : Marks : 1.0
Id: 44727
1) Maximize profits 2) Help in inventory valuation
3) Provide information to management for 4) Aid in the fixation of selling price
decision making
Explanation:
Q413) __________ is the art of recording, classifying and summarizing the transactions and Marks : 1.0
events of a business and interpreting the results thereof. Id: 44388
1) Management 2) Accounting
3) Auditing 4) Bookkeeping
Explanation:
Q414) Which of the following is a source of own long term finance? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44686
1) Share capital 2) Term loan
3) Debentures 4) Bank credit
Explanation:
Q415) P & L Account is prepared for a period of one year by following Marks : 1.0
Id: 44703
1) Consistency Concept 2) Conservatism Concept
3) Accounting Period Concept 4) Cost Concept
Explanation:
Q416) Which of the following is an example of current asset Marks : 1.0
Id: 44585
1) Long term loan 2) Accounts payable
3) Land and building 4) Accounts receivable
Explanation:
Q417) Which of the following practices is not in consonance with the convention of Marks : 1.0
conservatism? Id: 44707
1) Creating Provision for Bad debts 2) Creating Provision for Discount on Creditors
3) Creating Provision for Discount on Debtors 4) Creating Provision for tax
Explanation:
Q418) Office equipment was purchased by issuing a check for Rs.5,000 and a bills payable Marks : 1.0
for the balance of Rs.45,000. What effect did this transaction have on the financial Id: 44789
position of the company?
1) Assets, no change; Liabilities, no change; 2) Assets, decrease; Liabilities, increase;
Owners' Equity, no change Owners' Equity, no change
3) Assets, increase; Liabilities, increase; Owners' 4) Assets, decrease; Liabilities, no change;
Equity, no change Owners' Equity, decrease
Explanation:
Q419) Notes to the financial statements about law suits, pledged assets, contractual Marks : 1.0
commitments, and due dates on large liabilities that help the users interpret the Id: 44793
financial statements are required under an important generally accepted accounting
principle (GAAP) known as which of the following?
1) Window dressing 2) Disclosure
3) Goingconcern 4) Cost
Explanation:
Q420) The going concern concept assumes that Marks : 1.0
Id: 44634
1) The entity continue running for foreseeable 2) The entity continue running until the end of
future accounting period
3) The entity will close its operating in 10 years 4) The entity can't be liquidated
Explanation:
Q421) Management Accounting is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44491
1) Extension of Financial Accounting 2) Extension of Financial Management
3) Accounting for Management 4) Concerned with the provision of information to
people within the organization to help them to
make better decisions
Explanation:
Q422) In financial accounting _______ is prepared for the calculation of business income Marks : 1.0
Id: 44582
1) Trading A/C 2) Balance sheet
3) Profit & Loss A/C 4) Fund flow statement
Explanation:
Q423) Match the following: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44680
1) Matching principle i. Ignores future profit estimates
2) Materiality principle ii. Normal basis for valuing assets
3) Conservatism principle iii. Revenues and expenses of a particular period
4) Cost principle iv. Relates to relative size or importance of item or event
1) [ 1 – i], [2 – ii], [3 – iii], [4 – iv] 2) [1 ii ], [2 i], [3 iv], [4 iii]
3) [1 iv ], [2 i], [3 ii], [4 iii ] 4) [1 iii], [2 iv], [3 i], [4 ii]
Explanation:
Q424) Management accounting and cost accounting are.... Marks : 1.0
Id: 44442
1) Supplementary to each other 2) Complementary to each other
3) Dependent of each other 4) Opposite of each other
Explanation:
Q425) Prepaid insurance premium should be classified as a : Marks : 1.0
Id: 44519
1) Current asset. 2) Fictitious asset.
3) Noncurrent asset. 4) None of the above.
Explanation:
Q426) Which of the following is a perfect Accounting Process? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44490
1) Identification of Transaction – Preparation of 2) Preparation of Business Documents –
Business Documents – Recording of Identification of Transaction – Recording of
Transaction in Journal – Posting to Ledger – Transaction in Journal – Posting to Ledger –
Preparation of Unadjusted Trial Balance – Preparation of Unadjusted Trial Balance –
Passing Adjusting Entries – Preparation of Passing Adjusting Entries – Preparation of
Adjusted Trial Balance – Preparation of Adjusted Trial Balance – Preparation of
Financial Statements Financial Statements
3) Preparation of Unadjusted Trial Balance – 4) Identification of Transaction – Preparation of
Identification of Transaction – Preparation of Business Documents – Preparation of
Business Documents – Recording of Unadjusted Trial Balance – Passing Adjusting
Transaction in Journal – Posting to Ledger – Entries – Recording of Transaction in Journal
Passing Adjusting Entries – Preparation of – Posting to Ledger – Preparation of Adjusted
Adjusted Trial Balance – Preparation of Trial Balance – Preparation of Financial
Financial Statements Statements
Explanation:
Q427) Which of the following accounting information is correct? Marks : 1.0
Id: 38722
1) Assests=Liabilities+capital 2) Assests=Liabilities
3) Assests=Liabilitiescapital 4) None
Explanation:
Q428) A company is said to be multinational if: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44671
1) Production and marketing are done in many 2) Domestically produced items are sold round
countries the world
3) Workers are hired from all countries 4) Raw materials are acquired from many
countries
Explanation:
Q429) It is generally assumed that business will not liquidate in the near foreseeable future Marks : 1.0
because of Id: 44646
1) Periodicity 2) Materiality
3) Matching 4) Going concern
Explanation:
Q430) Accrued expenses affects: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44797
1) assets and expenses. 2) liabilities and revenues.
3) assets and revenues. 4) expenses and liabilities.
Explanation:
Q431) Interest on drawings in normal course is calculated for Marks : 1.0
Id: 44617
1) 12 months 2) 6 months
3) 6.5 months 4) 5 months
Explanation:
Q432) Current ratio is used to assess Marks : 1.0
Id: 44575
1) Effective utilization of capital 2) Application of debt
3) Liquidity position 4) Levels of inventory
Explanation:
Q433) Which of the following account need to prepare separately in Partnership? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44594
1) Trading Account 2) Profit & Loss Account / Income Statement
3) Capital Account 4) Assets Account
Explanation:
Q434) Modern Method of Accounting was introduced by Marks : 1.0
Id: 44802
1) R.N.Carter 2) Luco Pacioli
3) J.R. Batlibai 4) M.S. Gosav
Explanation:
Q435) A business has the following items in it: Owners equity Rs.600,000 Total liabilities Marks : 1.0
Rs.1,400,000. Assets.What is the value of Assets…………… Id: 44522
1) 600000 2) 1400000
3) 2000000 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q436) Nominal Accounts means ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44408
1) The accounts of individuals, firms, limited 2) The accounts of properties, assets or
companies, local authorities, associations with professionals of the businessman.
whom the businessman deals.
3) Accounts representing incomes and expenses
or profits and gains.
4) The accounts which relate to things other than
persons.
Explanation:
Q437) The Final Accounts (or Financial Statements) of a Sole Trader comprise Marks : 1.0
Id: 38730
1) b, c and d 2) Trading Account
3) Profit and Loss Account 4) Balance Sheet
Explanation:
Q438) Internal users of accounting information are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44475
1) Owners 2) Creditors
3) Management 4) Government
Explanation:
Q439) _____ Discount is not recorded in the books of Accounts. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44426
1) Cash 2) Trade
3) Both A & B 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q440) Which of the following items can be found on an income statement? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44564
1) Accounts receivable 2) Longterm debt
3) Sales 4) Inventory
Explanation:
Q441) An assets liquidity measures Marks : 1.0
Id: 44603
1) Its potential to generate a profit 2) its usefulness to organization
3) Its ease and cost of being converted into cash 4) Proportion of Equity financing
Explanation:
Managerial Accounting (101)
4. Imputed cost is a .
A. notional cost.
B. real cost.
C. normal cost.
D. variable cost.
ANSWER: A
10. Multiple costing is a technique of using two or more costing methods for ascertainment of cost by.
A. the same firm.
B. the several firms.
C. the same industry.
D. the several industries.
ANSWER: A
11. Wages paid to a labour who was engaged in production activities can be termed as.
A. direct cost.
B. indirect cost.
C. sunk cost.
D. imputed cost.
ANSWER: A
12. The cost which is to be incurred even when a business unit is closed is a.
A. imputed cost.
B. historical cost.
C. sunk cost.
D. shutdown cost
ANSWER: D
B. factory cost.
C. labour cost.
D. cost of goods sold.
ANSWER: B
19. Which one of the following is not considered for preparation of cost sheet?
A. Factory cost.
B. Goodwill written off.
C. Selling cost.
D. Labour cost.
ANSWER: B
31. The ratios which reflect managerial efficiency in handling the assets is.
A. turnover ratios
B. profitability ratios.
C. short term solvency ratio.
D. long term solvency ratio.
ANSWER: A
32. he ratios which reveal the final result of the managerial policies and performance is .
A. turnover ratios.
B. profitability ratios.
C. short term solvency ratio.
D. long term solvency ratio.
ANSWER: B
40. The ratio which measures the profit in relation to capital employed is known as
A. return on investment.
B. gross profit ratio.
C. operating ratio.
D. operating profit ratio.
ANSWER: A
41. The ratio which determines the profitability from the shareholder’s point of view is .
A. return on investment.
B. gross profit ratio.
C. return on shareholders funds.
D. operating profit ratio.
ANSWER: C
42. Return on equity is also called
A. . return on investment.
B. gross profit ratio.
C. return on shareholders funds.
D. return on net worth.
ANSWER: D
45. The ratio which is calculated to measure the productivity of total assets is
A. return on equity.
B. return on share holders funds.
C. return on total assets.
D. return on equity share holders’ funds.
ANSWER: C
46. The ratio which shows the proportion of profits retained in the business out of the current year’s profits
is
A. . retained earnings ratio.
B. pay out ratio
C. earnings per share.
D. price earnings ratio.
ANSWER: A
47. The ratio which indicates earnings per share reflected by the market price is .
A. retained earnings ratio.
B. pay out ratio.
C. earnings per share.
D. price earnings ratio.
ANSWER: D
48. The ratio establishes the relationship between profit before interest and tax and fixed interest charges
is .
A. interest cover ratio.
B. fixed dividend cover ratio.
C. debt service coverage ratio.
D. dividend yield ratio.
ANSWER: A
49. The ratio shows the preference dividend as a proportion of profit available for shareholders is
.
A. interest cover ratio.
B. fixed dividend cover ratio.
C. debt service coverage ratio.
D. dividend yield ratio.
ANSWER: B
53. Which ratio is calculated to ascertain the efficiency of inventory management in terms of capital
investment?
A. stock velocity ratio.
8
B. debtors velocity ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: A
54. The ratio which measures the relationship between the cost of goods sold and the amount of average
inventory is
A. stock turnover ratio.
B. debtors velocity ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: A
57. Which ratio measures the number of times the receivables are rotated in a year in terms of sales?
A. stock turnover ratio.
B. debtors turnover ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: B
9
60. The indicates the number of times the payables rotate in a year is _.
A. stock turnover ratio.
B. stock turnover ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: C
62. All those assets which are converted into cash in the normal course of business within one year are
known as .
A. fixed assets.
B. current assets.
C. fictitious assets.
D. wasting assets.
ANSWER: B
63. All those liabilities which are payable in cash in the normal course of business within a period of one
year are called _.
A. long term liabilities.
B. overdraft.
C. short term loans.
D. current liabilities.
ANSWER: D
64. Any transaction between a current account and another current account does not
Affect .
A. profit.
B. funds.
C. working capital.
D. capital.
ANSWER: B
65. Any transaction between a non current account and another non current account does not
affect .
A. profit.
B. funds.
C. working capital.
D. capital.
ANSWER: B
66. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement -Increase in current asset .
A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital.
C. decrease fixed capital.
D. increase fixed capital.
ANSWER: A
67. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement - Decrease in current asset .
A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital.
C. decrease fixed capital.
D. increase fixed capital.
ANSWER: B
68. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement -Increase in current liability .
A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital.
C. decrease fixed capital.
D. increase fixed capital.
ANSWER: B
69. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement -Decrease in current Liability .
A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital.
C. decrease fixed capital
D. increase fixed capital.
ANSWER: A
72. One of the primary differences between marginal costing and absorption costing regarding
the treatment of .
A. prime cost .
B. fixed overheads.
C. variable overheads .
D. direct materials.
ANSWER: B
85. 1f` fixed costs decrease while variable cost per unit remains constant, the new B.E.P in relation to the
old B.E.P will be .
A. lower .
B. higher.
C. . unchanged .
D. indeterminate.
ANSWER: B
86. If fixed costs decrease while the variable cost per unit remains constant, the new contribution margin in
relation to the old contribution margin will be .
A. lower .
B. unchanged .
C. higher.
D. indeterminate.
ANSWER: B
87. Selling price per unit Rs. 10; Variable cost Rs. 8 per unit; Fixed cost Rs. 20,000; Break-even
production in units .
A. 10,000.
B. 16,300.
C. 2,000.
D. 2,500.
ANSWER: D
88. Sales Rs. 25,000; Variable cost Rs. 8,000; Fixed cost Rs. 5,000; Break-even sales
in value .
A. Rs. 7,936.
B. Rs. 7,353.
C. Rs. 8,333.
D. Rs. 9,090.
ANSWER: B
89. Fixed cost Rs. 80,000; Variable cost Rs. 2 per unit; Selling price_Rs. 10 per unit; turnover required
for a profit target of Rs. 60,000.
A. Rs. 1,75,000.
B. Rs. 1,17,400.
C. Rs. 1.57,000.
D. Rs. 1,86,667.
ANSWER: A
90. Sales Rs. 25,000; Variable cost Rs. 15,000; Fixed cost Rs .4,000; P/V Ratio is .
A. 40% .
B. 80%
C. 15%
D. 30%.
ANSWER: A
91. Sales Rs. 50,000; Variable cost Rs. 30,000; Net profit Rs. 6,000; fixed cost is .
A. Rs. 10,000.
B. b. Rs. l4,000 .
C. Rs. 12,000.
D. Rs. 8,000.
ANSWER: B
92. Actual sales Rs .4,00,000; Break-even sales Rs. 2,50,000; Margin of Safety in
percentage is _.
A. 33.33%.
B. 66.67%
C. 37.5% .
D. 76.33%.
ANSWER: C
93. P/V Ratio 50%; Variable cost of the produce Rs. 25; Selling price is .
A. Rs. 50 .
B. Rs. 40.
C. Rs. 30 .
D. Rs. 55.
ANSWER: A
94. Fixed cost Rs. 2,00,000; Sales Rs. 8,00,000; P/V Ratio 30%; the amount of' profit is .
A. Rs. 50,000.
B. Rs. 40,000 .
C. Rs. 35,000 .
D. Rs. 45,000 .
ANSWER: B
95. P/V Ratio is 25% and Margin of Safety is Rs; 3,00,000, the amount of profit is .
A. Rs. 1,00,000.
B. Rs. 80,000.
C. Rs. 75,000.
D. . Rs. 60,000.
ANSWER: C
96. Total sales Rs. 20,00,000; Fixed expenses Rs. 4,00,000; P/V Ratio 40%; Break-even capacity
in percentage is .
A. 40% .
B. 60% .
C. 50% .
D. 45%.
ANSWER: C
97. Break - even point occurs at 40% of` total capacity, margin of safety will be .
A. 40% .
B. 60% .
C. 80% .
D. 85% .
ANSWER: B
98. If the P/V Ratio of a product is 30% and selling price is Rs. 25 per unit, the marginal cost of the
product would be .
A. Rs.18.75 .
B. Rs.16 .
C. Rs. 15 .
D. Rs.20 .
ANSWER: A
104. The budget which usually takes the form of budgeted profit and loss account and balance sheet is
known as
A. Flexible budget .
B. Master budget.
C. Cash budget .
D. Purchase budget.
ANSWER: B
106. The fixed-variable cost classification has `a special significance in the preparation of .
A. Capital budget.
B. Cash budget.
C. Master budget .
D. Flexible budget .
ANSWER: D
108. Preparing budget figures for different levels of activity within a range under flexible budgeting is
.
A. Formula method.
B. Multi-activity method.
C. Budget cost allowance method.
D. Proportionate method.
ANSWER: B
109. What type of budget is designed to take into account forecast change in costs, prices, etc?
A. Master budget.
B. Rolling budget.
C. Flexible budget .
D. Functional budget.
ANSWER: B
C. Budgeting.
D. Controlling.
ANSWER: C
ANSWER: C
116. The budget which shows the budgeted quantity of output to be produced during a specific period is.
A. Fixed budget.
B. Flexible budget.
C. Sales budget.
D. Production budget
ANSWER: D
118. Material budget consists of two parts, one is the consumption budget and another Is .
18
C. Material production budget.
D. Material budget.
ANSWER: B
122. Budget of indirect costs in the form of indirect wages, indirect material and indirect expenses in the
factory is .
A. Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Master budget.
ANSWER: A
123. The budget prepared to estimate the expenditure to be incurred for planning, organizing, direction and
control function of the management is .
A. . Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Master budget.
ANSWER: B
124. The budget prepared to estimate expenditure to be incurred to sell the product and its distribution is
.
A. Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Master budget
ANSWER: C
125. The budget prepared to estimate the research and development expenditure to be incurred during a
specific period is .
A. Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Research and development budget.
19
ANSWER: D
126. The budget prepared to estimate the expenditure on fixed assets is known as.
A. Capital expenditure budget
B. Production overhead budget.
C. Administration overhead budget.
D. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
ANSWER: A
127. The budget prepared for replacement of assets, expansion of production facilities, adoption of new
technologies etc. is .
A. Capital expenditure budget.
B. Production overhead budget.
C. Administration overhead budget.
D. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
ANSWER: A
20
C. Job In Time.
D. Job Inventory Time.
ANSWER: A
134. FIFO is .
A. Fast Investment in Future Order.
B. First In First Out.
C. Fast In Fast Out
D. Fast Issue Of Fast Order.
ANSWER: D
137. Scrap is .
A. residue of material.
B. wastage of material.
C. surplus material.
D. abnormal loss of material.
ANSWER: A
138. Material is issued by store keeper against.
A. material requisition.
B. material order.
C. goods received note.
D. purchase requisition.
ANSWER: A
140. The document which is prepared after receiving and inspecting material .
A. material record note.
B. goods received note.
C. bill of material.
D. inventory record.
ANSWER: B
146. Material consumed is Rs. 5,00,000 Opening stock of raw material is Rs. 50,000 and Closing stock of
raw material is Rs. 25,000. What is the cost of raw material purchased?
A. Rs. 4,50,000.
B. Rs. 4,75,000.
C. Rs. 5,25,000.
D. Rs. 5, 50,000.
ANSWER: B
147. If selling price is Rs. 25,000 and profit is Rs. 5,000 then what is the percentage of profit on
cast?
A. 20%.
B. 25%.
C. 33.33%.
D. 35%.
ANSWER: B
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DNYANSAGAR INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH
Q. no Question Answer
1. Managerial accounting information is generally prepared for C
…………………
a. Shareholders
b. Creditors
c. Managers
d. Regulatory agencies
a. Creditor
b. Department manager
c. Controller
d. Treasurer
a. Service entities
b. Manufacturing entities
c. Non profit entities
d. All of these
8 Which type of asset class includes those assets which have only D
definite use and become valueless when the yield is over?
a. Fixed asset
b. Current asset
c. Fictitious asset
d. Wasting asset
9 An accounting that deals with the accounting and reporting of B
information to managementregarding the detail information is
a. Financial accounting
b. Management accounting
c. Cost accounting
d. Real Accounting
10
13. Cost of goods sold= opening stock+ net purchases+ expenses on Purchases – D
sales Which part of formula is wrong?
a. opening stock
b. net purchases
c. expenses on Purchases
d. sales
28 cost refers to those cost which have already been incurred and cannot be B
altered by any decision in the future.
a. Opportunity cost
b. Sunk Cost
c. Incremental cost
d. Decremental cost
31. cost will still be incurred although a plant is shut down temporarily. C
a. Cost of raw material
b. Advertising
c. Depreciation
d. Carriage
32 Accounting principles are generally based upon: A
a. Practicability
b. Subjectivity
c. Convenience in recording
d. None of the above
33 The system of recording based on dual aspect concept is called: B
a. Double account system
b. Double entry system
c. Single entry system
d. All the above
34 The practice of appending notes regarding contingent liabilities in accounting D
statements is in pursuance to:
a. Convention of consistency
b. Money measurement concept
c. Convention of conservatism
d. Convention of disclosure
35 Sales are equal to: A
a. Cost of goods sold + gross profit
b. Cost of goods sold - gross profit
c. Gross profit- Cost of goods sold
d. None of the above
36 Interest on drawings is: C
a. Expenditure for the business
b. Cost for the business
c. Gain for the business
d. None of the above
37 Goods given as samples should be credited to: C
a. Advertisement account
b. Sales account
c. Purchase account
d. None of the above
38. Outstanding salaries are shown as: C
a. Added to Salaries while preparing P & La/c
b. Shown in liability side of Balance sheet under current Liability.
c. (a) &(b) above
d. None of the above
39 Income tax paid by a sole proprietor on his business income should be: C
a. Debited to trading account
b. Debited to profit and loss account
c. Deducted from capital account in the balance sheet
d. None of the above
40. All direct & indirect expenses related to business are charged: C
a. Profit and loss account
b. Trading account
c. Trading account Profit and Loss account
d. Directly to Balance sheet
43 Investment of X company profit in shares of other company PQR Pvt. ltd are A
recorded in……………….
a. Asset side of Balance Sheet
b. Liability side of Balance Sheet
c. Profit & Loss a/c
d. Not recorded in Balance Sheet
a. Remains fixed
b. Fluctuates with volume of production
c. Varies in consideration with the volume of sales
d. None of the above
a. Increases assets
b. Results in no change in the total assets
c. Decreases assets
d. Increases liability
63 Cost of asset should always be equal to the cost of the liabilities. This concept B
is
a. Realization Concept
b. Matching Concept
c. Cost Concept
d. Both a and b above
a. Consistency concept
b. Conservatism concept
c. Accounting period concept
d. Cost Concept
a. Current assets
b. Current liabilities
c. Fixed asset
d. Fixed liability
69 Reserve for doubtful debts appearing in the trial balance should be: E
a. Debtors
b. Investors
c. Creditors
d. Shareholders
71 According to which concept business is treated as a unit apart from owner C
a. Dual concept
b. Divider concept
c. Entity concept
d. Landlord concept
72 Authorized capital, also known as A
a. Nominal capital
b. Paid up capital
c. Issues capital
d. None of these
73 True & fair profit and loss a/c of a company know by D
a. Preparing trial balance
b. Preparing respective ledger of account
c. Preparing trading a/c
d. Preparing trading & profit & loss a/c
74 Credit balance of profit & loss a/c shown on B
a. Asset side of balance sheet
b. Liability side of balance sheet
c. Not shown in balance sheet
d. Half on asset side and half on liability side
75 Under which concept it is assumed that the enterprises has neither the C
intention nor the necessity of liquidation or of curtailing materiality the scale
of operation
a. Revenue realization concept
b. Matching cost concept
c. Going concern concept
d. None of these
76 Making the provision for doubtful debts and discount on debtors in A
anticipation of actual bad debts and discount is an example for which concept
a. Conservatism concept
b. Continuity concept
c. Realization concept
d. All of these
82 Which of the following account balance will be shown on debit side of Trial D
Balance?
a. Outstanding expenses
b. Cash a/c
c. Short term loan
d. creditors
83 The reduction in the value of the fixed assets which can arise due to time B
factor is
a. Discount
b. Depreciation
c. Reduction
d. None of the above
92 Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of: B
a. Separate entity
b. Going concern
c. Consistency
d. Time period
a. Income Statement
b. Cash Flow Statement
c. Balance Sheet
d. Fund Flow Statement
95 Which of the following is a liability? A
a. Loan from Mr.Y
b. loan to Mr.y
c. Both (a) (b)
d. None of these
92 Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of: B
e. Separate entity
f. Going concern
g. Consistency
h. Time period
e. Income Statement
f. Cash Flow Statement
g. Balance Sheet
h. Fund Flow Statement
95 Which of the following is a liability? A
e. Loan from Mr.Y
f. loan to Mr.y
g. Both (a) (b)
h. None of these
97 Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of: B
a. Separate entity
b. Going concern
c. Consistency
d. Time period
a. Fiscal year
b. Calendar year
c. Accounting period
d. Accrual period
107 Using "lower of cost and net realisable value(Market Value)" for the purpose C
of inventory valuation is the implementation of which of the following
concepts?
a. The going concern concept
b. The separate entity concept
c. The prudence concept
d. Matching concept
108 The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following D
types of businesses?
a. Sole proprietorship
b. Corporation
c. Partnership
d. All of them
109 The revenue recognition principal dictates that all types of incomes should be C
recorded or recognized when
a. Cash is received
b. At the end of accounting period
c. When they are earned
d. When interest is paid
110 The allocation of owner's private expenses to his/her business violates which C
of the following?
a. Accrual concept
b. Matching concept
c. Separate business entity concept
d. Consistency concept
112 Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a C
business is divided for the purpose of preparing financial statements?
a. Fiscal year
b. Calendar year
c. Accounting period
d. Accrual period
113 Showing purchased office equipments in financial statements is the B
application of which accounting concept?
a. Historical cost convention
b. Materiality
c. Prudence
d. Matching concept
114 Information about an item is if its omission or misstatement might D
influence the financial decision of the users taken on the basis of that
information
a. Concrete
b. Complete
c. Immaterial
d. Material
115 "Financial information should be neutral and bias free" is the dictation of C
which one of the following?
a. Completeness concept
b. Faithful representation Concept
c. Objectivity Concept
d. Duality Concept
116 Accounting principles are divided into two types. These are --- D
a. Accounting Concepts
b. Accounting Conventions
c. Accounting Standards
d. Accounting Concepts &Accounting Conventions
117 Which of the following is not related with Money Measurement Concept ? B
a. All business transaction should be expressed only in money
b. The transactions which cannot be expressed in money, will not be
recorded in accounting books
c. Business is treated as separate from the proprietor
d. None of These
118 Which of the following equation is related with Dual Aspect Concept ? D
a. Total Assets = Total Liabilities
b. Total Assets = Capital + Outsider’s Liabilities
c. Capital = Total Assets - Outsider’s Liabilities
d. All of the above
119 If the total assets of the company amount to Rs 1,50,000 and owner’s B
equity is Rs 70,000, the amount of liabilities will be –
a. Rs 70,000
b. Rs 80,000
c. Rs 90,000
d. Rs 1,00,000
c. Controlling function
d. None of these
131 The convention of conservatism when applied to the balance sheet result A
in.
a. Understand the asset
b. Understand the liabilities
c. Overstatement of capital
d. None of these
c. Providing depreciation
d. None of these
133 The amount brought in by the proprietor in the business should be credited B
to
a. Cash a/c
b. Capital a/c
c. Drawing a/c
d. Bank a/c
134 The amount of salary paid to Suresh should be debited to B
a. The account of Suresh
b. Salaries a/c
c. Cash a/c
d. Bank a/c
141 The convention of disclosure implies that all material information should be A
a. Disclosed in the account
b. Disclosed in the accounts which is required to owner
c. Not disclosed
d. None of these
143 Custom and traditions which guide the accountant while preparing the C
accounting statements
a. Accounting convention
b. Accounting concepts
c. Accounting principles
d. None of these
145 system in which accounting entries are made on the basis of amounts having B
become due for payment or receipt is called
a. Cash concept
b. Accrual concept
c. Matching concept
d. On-going concept
147 Debit what come in Credit what goes out rule for A
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
148 Debit all expenses and losses Credit all gains and income. C
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
150 Transferring the debit and credit item from the journal to the respective B
accounts is called
a. Compound Journal
b. Ledger
c. Trial balance
d. None of these
152 The transferring of debit and credit items from journal to the respective B
accounts in the ledger is called as
a. Ledger
b. Posting
c. Forward journal
d. None of these
153 Which of the following items would not fall under the definition of an asset? D
a. Land
b. Machine
c. Cash
d. Owner Equity
154 Which one of the following items would fall under the definition of a C
liability
a. Cash
b. Debtor
c. Owner’s equity
d. None of these
a. Rs.200, 000
b. Rs.700, 000
c. Rs.800, 000
d. Rs1, 100,000
Creditors Rs.50,000
What is the value of the land…………………..
a. 1,000,000
b. 1,550,000
c. 800,000
d. None of these
160 Which of the following equations properly represents a derivation of the D
fundamental accounting equation?
a. Only (a)
b. Both (a) (b)
c. All (a)(b)(c)(d)
d. d) None of these
161 Retained earnings will change over time because of several factors. Which B
of the following factors would explain an increase in retained earnings?
a. Net Loss
b. Net income
c. Dividend
d. Investment by share holder.
164 XYZltd.has provided the following information about its balance sheet: B
Cash Rs.100
a. Rs.200
b. Rs.1900
c. Rs.1200
d. Rs.1700
165 The full disclosure principle, as adopted by the accounting profession, is D
best described by which of the following?
a. All information related to an entity's business and operating
objectives is required to be disclosed in the financial statements.
b. Information about each account balance appearing in the financial
statements is to be included in the notes to the financial
statements.
c. Enough information should be disclosed in the financial statements
so a person wishing to invest in the stock of the company can make
a profitable decision.
d. Disclosure of any financial facts significant enough to influence the
judgment of an informed reader
166 Which of the following is a real (permanent) account? D
a. Goodwill
b. Sales
c. Accounts Receivable
d. Both Goodwill and Accounts Receivable
167 Which of the following statements is not an objective of financial B
reporting?
a. Provide information that is useful in investment and credit
decisions.
b. Provide information regarding policy of organization
c. Provide information that is useful in assessing cash flow
prospective
d. None of theses
168 The Cash account on the balance sheet should not include which of the A
following items?
a. Travel advances to employees
b. Currency
c. Money orders
d. Deposits in transit
170 The following comments all relate to the recording process. Which of these B
statements is correct?
a. The general ledger is a chronological record of transactions.
b. The general ledger is posted from transactions recorded in the general
journal.
c. The trial balance provides the primary source document for recording
transactions into the general journal.
d. Transposition is the transfer of information from the general journal to
the general ledger.
171 The following comments each relate to the recording of journal entries. Which D
statement is true?
a. For any given journal entry, debits must exceed credits.
b. It is customary to record credits on the left and debits on the right.
c. The chart of accounts reveals the amount to debit and credit to the
affected accounts.
d. Journalization is the process of converting transactions and events into
debit/credit format.
172 The trial balance is ………………………….. D
173 Which of the following errors will be disclosed in the preparation of a trial C
balance?
a. Recording transactions in the wrong account.
b. Duplication of a transaction in the accounting records.
c. Posting only the debit portion of a particular journal entry.
d. Recording the wrong amount for a transaction to both the account
debited and the account credited.
174 The basic sequence in the accounting process can best be described as: D
a. Transaction, journal entry, source document, ledger account, trial
balance.
b. Source document, transaction, ledger account, journal entry, trial
balance.
c. Transaction, source document, journal entry, trial balance, ledger
account.
d. d. Transaction, source document, journal entry, ledger account,
trial balance.
181 Manufacturing costs are also known as product costs. Which of the C
following best describes those costs which are considered to be
manufacturing costs?
a. Direct materials, direct labor, and factory overhead.
b. Direct materials and direct labor only.
c. Direct materials, direct labor, factory overhead, and administrative
overhead.
d. Direct labor and factory overhead.
182 A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, D
plus long distance charges, would be classified as a:
a. Variable cost
b. Committed fixed cost
c. Direct cost
d. Semi variable cost
a. Sundry creditors
b. Acceptances
c. Unclaimed dividend
d. Short term investment
193 Financial accounting deals with: B
a. Determination of cost
b. Determination of profit
c. Determination of price
d. Determination of selling price
194 Financial account record only A
a. Actual figures
b. Budgeted figures
c. Standard figures
d. Management Figure
195 The term Management Accounting was first used in C
a. 1910
b. 1939
c. 1950
d. 1960
d. Six months
205 A budget is tool which helps the management in planning and control of… A
a. All business activities
b. Production activities
c. Purchase activities
d. Sales activities
206 Budgetary control system acts as a friend, philosopher and guide to the… A
a. Management
b. Share holders
c. Creditors
d. Employees
207 Budgetary control system defines the objectives and policies of the… D
a. Production department
b. Finance department
c. Marketing department
d. All
208 Budgetary control system facilitates centralized control with… C
a. Decentralized activity
b. Centralized activity
c. Both
d. None
209 Budgetary control facilitates easy introduction of the… C
a. Marginal costing
b. Ratio analysis
c. Standard costing
d. Subjective matter
210 Budgetary control helps the management in… A
a. Obtaining bank credit
b. Issue of shares
c. Getting grants from government
d. All of these
211 Budgetary control system helps the management to eliminate… C
a. Undercapitalization
b. Overcapitalization
c. Both
d. Subjective matter
212 Budgetary control provides a basis for… C
a. Bonus shares
b. Rights shares
c. Remuneration plans
d. None
213 Budgetary control helps to introduce a suitable incentive and B
remuneration based
on…
a. Changes in government policies
b. Inflationary conditions
c. Both
d. None
229 On the basis of flexibility budget is classified into two types such as fixed A
budget and
________ budget.
a. variable
b. Semi-variable
c. Constant
230 Variable budget is also known as _______ budget. C
a. Fixed
b. Semi-variable
c. Flexible
231 The budget prepared according to ________ is known as functional C
budgets.
a. Period
b. Controls
c. Functions
232 ……………….. budget is a budget which is designed to remain unchanged C
irrespective of the volume of output or turnover achieved.
a. Flexible
b. Cash
c. Fixed
233 A Flexible budget is one which permits the change in accordance with the B
changes
in the level of activity.
a. Fixed
b. Flexible
c. Sales
234 Flexible budgets are more useful in actual practice because it is more A
realistic and
has great practical utility in the business.
a. realistic
b. non-realistic
c. Predictable
235 A _______ budget is the budget which shows the quantity and value of C
goods to be
purchased during the budget period to meet the day-to-day needs of the
business.
a. Sales
b. Cash
c. Purchase
236 One of the basic purpose to prepare _______ budget is to estimate the A
cash
requirements for the purchases to be made during the budgeted period.
a. purchase
b. cash
c. sales
247 Given the budgeted output in second quarter is 8,000 units. In the first A
quarter,
Fixed overheads were Rs 40,000 Variable overheads were Rs 5 per unit ( Rs
40,000)
and semi variable were 20,000 ( 60% varying @ Rs 3 per unit). Determine
the total
manufacturing overhead budget for the second quarter.
a. Rs 1,12,000
b. 1,12,000 units
c. Insufficient data
d. None of the above
248 Budgetary control system defines the objectives and policies of the… D
a. Production department
b. Finance department
c. Marketing department
d. All
249 Budgetary control system facilitates centralized control with… C
a. Decentralized activity
b. Centralized activity
c. Both
d. None
21. Debit the receiver, credit the giver is the rule of ______________.
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
22. Debit what comes in, credit what goes out is the rule of ______________.
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
23. Debit all expenses and losses, credit all incomes and gains is the rule of ______________.
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
24. ______________ is a record of transaction in the books of Accounts.
(a) Entry (b) Recording
(c) Monetary Transaction (d) Ledger
25. ______________ is an exchange of money or money’s worth.
(a) Entry (b) Recording
(c) Transaction (d) Ledger
26. ______________ is a book of original entry.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Subsidiary Book
27. ______________ is a bound book of different accounts.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Subsidiary Book
28. ______________ is a summarized record of transactions related to one person, one asset, one
head of expense/loss and one head of income/gain.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Account
29. ______________ means totaling of sums in the books of accounts.
(a) Casting (b) Summarizing
(c) Journalizing (d) Ledger Posting
30. ______________ are obligations or debts that the enterprise must pay in money or services at
some time in the future.
(a) Assets (b) Liabilities
(c) Responsibilities (d) Salaries
31. ______________ are economic resources of an enterprise that can be usefully expressed in
monetary terms.
(a) Assets (b) Liabilities
(c) Cash & Bank Balance (d) Funds
32. ______________ are commodities, purchased or manufactured for resale with a view to earn
profit.
(a) Assets (b) Goods
(c) Investments (d) Resources
4 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
33. ______________ are the amounts the business earns by selling its products or providing
services to customers.
(a) Assets (b) Goods
(c) Investments (d) Revenues
34. ______________ are the costs incurred by a business in the process of earning revenue.
(a) Assets (b) Expenses
(c) Investments (d) Revenues
35. ______________ are persons and/or other entities who owe to an enterprise an amount for
receiving goods and services on credit.
(a) Debtors (b) Creditors
(c) Shareholders (d) Suppliers
36. ______________ are persons and/or other entities that have to be paid by an enterprise an
amount for providing the enterprise goods and services on credit.
(a) Debtors (b) Creditors
(c) Shareholders (d) Customers
37. ______________ is a list of the entire general ledger account names and balances; it is
prepared to prove the ledger.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Trial Balance
38. The difference of two sides of an account is called as ______________.
(a) Debit (b) Credit
(c) Balance (d) Cash
39. ______________ deals with expenses related to or identified with products, which may only
be a part of the organization.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
40. In ______________ stocks are valued at lower of cost or market value.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
41. The primary objective of ______________ is to provide necessary information to the
management in the process of its planning, controlling, and performance evaluation, and
decision-making.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
42. The Success of ______________ does not depend upon Management Accounting system.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
43. In______________ no statutory requirement of audit for reports.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 5
Chapter 2
Understanding of Financial Statements
1. ______________ shows the firm’s assets, liabilities, and stockholders’ equity as of the report
date.
(a) Cash Flow (b) Funds Flow
(c) Income Statement (d) Balance Sheet
2. ______________ shows the results of the firm’s operations and financial activities for the
reporting period.
(a) Trading and Profit & Loss Account (b) Expense Statement
(c) Income Statement (d) Balance Sheet
3. ______________ includes explanations of various activities, additional details of some
accounts, and other items as mandated by the regulatory authorities, bodies from time to time.
(a) Trading and Profit & Loss Account (b) Expense Statement
(c) Income Statement (d) Supplementary Note
4. ______________ is a formal official record of the financial activities and position of a
business, person, or other entity.
(a) Financial Statement (b) Trading Account
(c) Profit & Loss Account (d) Supplementary Note
5. ______________ provides the vital information related to the profitability, liquidity and
solvency of the business.
(a) Financial Statement (b) Trading Account
(c) Profit & Loss Account (d) Cash Flow & Funds Flow
6. ______________ is the simplest business form under which one can operate a business.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole Trading Firm
(c) Private Ltd. Company (d) Public Company
7. ______________ is not a separate legal entity.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole Proprietorship Firm
(c) Private Ltd. Company (d) One Man Company
8. For every item given in Trial Balance, ______________ effect should be given.
(a) Dual (b) Single
(c) Triple (d) None of the above
9. For every item given in Adjustment, ______________ effect should be given.
(a) Dual (b) Single
(c) Triple (d) None of the above
10. ______________ are nothing but the entries which are not included in the original Trial
Balance.
(a) Journal Proper (b) Ledger
(c) Adjustments (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 7
Chapter 3
Cost Accounting
1. ______________ provides a specialized technique, which provides prompt and accurate
information regarding the cost of producing and selling an article.
(a) Cost Accounting (b) Financial Accounting
(c) Management Accounting (d) Cost & Financial Accounting
2. The amount of expenditure incurred on, or attributable to a given thing is called as
______________.
(a) Cost (b) Price
(c) Expense (d) Fixed Cost
3. The techniques and process of ascertaining cost is called as ______________.
(a) Costing (b) Accounting
(c) Financing (d) Management Accounting
4. With the help of ______________, we can control the cost.
(a) Costing Methods (b) Cost Accounting
(c) Management Accounting (d) Costing Techniques
5. With the help of ______________, we can find out the cost.
(a) Costing Methods (b) Cost Accounting
(c) Management Accounting (d) Costing Techniques
6. The total of Direct Material + Direct Labour + Direct Expenses is called as ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Factory Cost
(c) Prime Cost (d) Main Cost
7. Direct Expenses are also called as ______________.
(a) Chargeable Expenses (b) Factory Expenses
(c) Works Expenses (d) General Expenses
8. Depreciation is an example of ______________.
(a) Direct Expenses (b) Factory Expenses
(c) General Expenses (d) Indirect Expenses
9. The aggregate of all indirect expenses is ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Total Expense
(c) Overheads (d) Factory Overheads
10. Factory Cost is also called as ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Cost of Production
(c) Works Cost (d) Factory Overheads
11. Cost of Sales is also called as ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Cost of Production
(c) Works Cost (d) Factory Cost
12 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
25. A Location, person, or item of equipment (or a group of these) for which costs may be
ascertained and used for the purpose of control is called as ______________.
(a) Cost Unit (b) Cost Centre
(c) Cost Department (d) Cost Division
26. ______________ a statement, which shows various components of total cost of a product.
(a) Cost Sheet (b) Cost Account
(c) Cost Report (d) Cost Classification
27. ______________ is prepared on the basis of actual cost incurred.
(a) Historical Cost Sheet (b) Cost Account
(c) Cost Report (d) Estimated Cost Sheet
28. Haulage Charges is an example of ______________.
(a) Fixed Overheads (b) Direct Cost
(c) Factory Overheads (d) Administration Overheads
29. Counting House Salaries is an example of ______________.
(a) Fixed Overheads (b) Selling Overheads
(c) Factory Overheads (d) Administration Overheads
30. Carriage Outward is an example of ______________.
(a) Fixed Overheads (b) Selling Overheads
(c) Factory Overheads (d) Administration Overheads
31. Opening Stock of Finished Goods is added in ______________.
(a) Factory Cost (b) Prime Cost
(c) Cost of Production (d) Works Cost
32. Direct Labour Charges is also called as ______________.
(a) Factory Cost (b) Prime Cost
(c) Fixed Wages (d) Productive Wages
33. Cost unit is divided into ______________.
(a) Units of Production (b) Units of Services
(c) Both a and b (d) None of the above
34. Cost of converting raw material into finished goods is also called as ______________.
(a) Factory Cost (b) Prime Cost
(c) Conversion Cost (d) Productive Cost
35. According to Elements, Cost is divided into ______________ categories.
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
36. ______________ means the amount spent to sell a company’s products.
(a) Revenue Cost (b) Differential Cost
(c) Fixed Cost (d) Variable Cost
14 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
48. Sale of Scrap is ______________ after addition of factory overheads in Prime Cost.
(a) Added (b) Deducted
(c) Not Considered (d) None of the above
49. Cleaning Charges is an example of ______________.
(a) Direct Expenses (b) Factory Overheads
(c) Office Overheads (d) Selling Overheads
50. ______________ is the process of ascertaining costs whereas ______________ is the process
of recording various costs in a systematic manner, in order to prepare statistical date to
ascertain cost.
(a) Costing, Cost Accounting (b) Cost Accounting, Costing
(c) Costing and Allocation Cost (d) Costing and Absorption of Cost
Chapter 4
Cost Control
1. Cost of storing the goods as well as the interest on the capital is called as ______________.
(a) Inventory Carrying Cost (b) Order Placing Cost
(c) Buying Cost (d) Fixed Cost
2. Cost of placing the orders and receiving the goods are called as ______________.
(a) Inventory Carrying Cost (b) Variable Cost
(c) Buying Cost (d) Fixed Cost
3. The main objective of EOQ is to ______________ the total costs.
(a) Minimize (b) Control
(c) Maintain (d) Avoid
4. ______________ analysis is based on Selective Inventory Management.
(a) EOQ (b) JIT
(c) ABC (d) HML
5. Calculate EOQ if Cost of material per unit ` 40, Annual requirement 1600 units, Cost of
placing and receiving one purchase order ` 50, Annual carrying cost of inventory is 10% of
inventory value.
(a) 200 Units (b) 175 Units
(c) 225 Units (d) 250 Units
6. A level of inventory that should never be exceeded is ______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level
(c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
7. A level below which stock should not be allowed to fall is ______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level
(c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
8. A level at which store keeper should intimate purchase department for fresh/new supply is
______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level
(c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
9. A level below which the stock should never be allowed to fall under emergency
circumstances is ______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level
(c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
10. A strategy for inventory management in which raw materials and components are delivered
from the vendor or supplier immediately before they are needed in the manufacturing process
is ______________.
(a) Scientific Purchasing (b) Immediate Buying
(c) JIT (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 17
30. Out of the following, which factor/s affecting the Labour Cost.
(a) Assessment of Manpower Requirement
(b) Time and Motion Study
(c) Control over Idle Time and Overtime
(d) All of the above
31. Which department/s is/are closely associated with the Control of Labour Cost?
(a) Personnel and Payroll Department
(b) Time Keeping Department
(c) Engineering and Work Study Department
(d) All of the above
32. ______________ arises from replacement of workers who leave the organization.
(a) Direct Labour Cost (b) Preventive Cost
(c) Maintenance Cost (d) Replacement Cost
33. Method/s of Time Keeping is/are ______________.
(a) Attendance Register Method
(b) Token or Disc Method
(c) Time Recording Clocks & Dial Time Records
(d) All of the above
34. Method/s of Time Booking is/are ______________.
(a) Daily Time Sheet (b) Weekly Time Sheet
(c) Job Cards or Job Tickets (d) All of the above
35. ______________ refers to the estimation of standard time, i.e., the time allowed for
completing one piece of job using the given metho(d)
(a) Work Measurement (b) Time Measurement
(c) Period Measurement (d) None of the above
36. ______________ costs are the operating costs of a business enterprise which cannot be traced
to a particular unit of output.
(a) Material (b) Labour
(c) Overhead (d) Foxed & Variable
37. The ______________ is the process of recording each item of cost in the books of accounts
maintained for the purpose of ascertainment of cost of each Cost Centre or Cost Unit.
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead
(c) Apportionment of Overhead (d) Classification of Overhead
38. ______________ means, the allotment of whole items of cost to cost centres or cost units.
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead
(c) Apportionment of Overhead (d) Classification of Overhead
39. ______________ means, the allotment to two or more departments or cost centers of
proportions of common items of cost on estimated basis of benefit received.
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead
(c) Apportionment of Overhead (d) Classification of Overhead
20 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
Chapter 5
Decision-making Tools
1. Marginal Costing is also called as ______________.
(a) Variable Costing (b) Standard Costing
(c) Material Costing (d) Job Costing
2. In ______________ total costs cannot be easily segregated into fixed costs and variable costs.
(a) Marginal Costing (b) Standard Costing
(c) Material Costing (d) Job Costing
3. P/V Ratio is mainly known as ______________.
(a) Contribution to Sales Ratio (b) Contribution Margin Ratio
(c) Variable Profit Ratio (d) All of the above
4. ______________ analysis classifies all costs as either fixed or variable.
(a) CVP (b) ABC
(c) JIT (d) HML
5. ______________ that point where no profit or no loss position is observed.
(a) Centre Point (b) BEP
(c) Starting Point (d) Ending Point
6. ______________ is the difference between sales revenue and variable cost.
(a) P/V Ratio (b) BEP
(c) MOS (d) Contribution
7. Contribution is also called as ______________.
(a) P/V Ratio (b) Net Margin
(c) MOS (d) Gross Margin
8. ______________ is the difference between actual sales or output and the break even sales.
(a) P/V Ratio (b) Net Margin
(c) MOS (d) Gross Margin
9. ______________ is an angle where sales line intersects total cost line which indicates profit
earning capacity over the BEP.
(a) Angle of Incidence (b) Contribution
(c) Margin of Safety (d) Gross Margin
10. If contribution is ` 3,00,000 and Sales is ` 10,00,000, then what is P/V Ratio?
(a) 20% (b) 30%
(c) 33.33% (d) 1/3
11. If P/V Ratio is 25%, then what is the % of Variable Cost?
(a) 70% (b) 80%
(c) ¾ (d) ½
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 23
12. If Fixed Cost is ` 2,50,000 and P/V Ratio is 60%, then what is BEP in `?
(a) ` 4,16,667 (b) ` 3,83,333
(c) ` 3,75,000 (d) ` 4,10,000
13. If Fixed Cost is ` 2,50,000 and Profit is ` 3,50,000, then what is the amount of Contribution?
(a) ` 1,00,000 (b) ` 6,00,000
(c) ` 3,75,000 (d) ` 4,10,000
14. If Sales are ` 50,000 and P/V Ratio is 20%, then what is the amount of Variable Cost?
(a) ` 40,000 (b) ` 10,000
(c) ` 25,000 (d) ` 30,000
15. If contribution is ` 3,00,000 and Profit is ` 1,00,000, then what is the amount of Fixed Cost?
(a) ` 4,00,000 (b) `2,00,000
(c) ` 2,50,000 (d) `3,00,000
16. If Sales are ` 3,00,000 and P/V ratio is 20%, then what is the amount of Variable Cost?
(a) ` 2,40,000 (b) ` 80,000
(c) ` 2,70,000 (d) ` 2,00,000
17. The correct formula of Contribution is ______________.
(a) Contribution = Sales – Variable Cost
(b) Contribution = Fixed Cost + Profit or – Loss
(c) Contribution = Sales × P/ V Ratio
(d) All of the above
18. The correct formula of P/V Ratio is ____________.
(a) P/ V Ratio = [Contribution/Sales ] × 100
(b) P/ V Ratio = [Change in Profit/Change in Sales ] × 100
(c) P/ V Ratio = [Sales−Variable Cost/Sales] × 100
(d) All of the above
19. Marginal Costing is a Costing ______________.
(a) Technique (b) Method
(c) System (d) Convention
20. Under absorption and over absorption of overheads problems are not arisen under
______________.
(a) Marginal Costing (b) Standard Costing
(c) Job Costing (d) Budgetary Control
21. Standard cost is the ______________ cost.
(a) Pre-determined (b) Pre-decided
(c) Pre-planned (d) None of the above
22. Small organizations cannot adopt ______________ technique.
(a) Standard Costing (b) Marginal Costing
(c) Budgetary Control (d) None of the above
24 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
23. ______________ means difference between standard cost and actual cost.
(a) Balance Cost (b) Variance
(c) Marginal Cost (d) Variable Cost
24. ______________ helps management to understand the present costs and then to control the
future costs.
(a) ABC Analysis (b) Variance Analysis
(c) Marginal Analysis (d) Budget Analysis
25. Variances are classified in ______________ categories.
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
26. If Standard Cost ` 80 and Actual Cost ` 70, then what is the amount of Material Cost
Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 150 (d) 20
27. If Standard Price ` 8 & Standard Qty.10, Actual Price ` 7 & Actual Qty.10, then what is the
amount of Material Price Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 150 (d) 20
28. If Standard Price ` 8 & Standard Qty.10, Actual Price ` 7 & Actual Qty.10, then what is the
amount of Material Usage Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 50 (d) 0
29. If Standard Rate ` 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ` 2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Cost Variance?
(a) 600 (b) –600
(c) 500 (d) 400
30. If Standard Rate ` 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ` 2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Rate Variance?
(a) 750 (b) –750
(c) 600 (d) 400
31. If Standard Rate ` 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate `2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Efficiency Variance?
(a) 150 (b) –150
(c) 300 (d) 200
32. The correct formula for verification of Material Cost Variance is ______________.
(a) MCV = MPV + MUV (b) MCV = MPV – MUV
(c) MCV = MPV × MUV (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 25
33. The correct formula for verification of Labour Cost Variance is ______________.
(a) LCV = LRV + LEV (b) LCV = LRV – LEV
(c) LCV = LRV × LEV (d) None of the above
34. In Standard Costing comparison between ______________ is carried out.
(a) Standard Cost and Actual Cost (b) Fixed Cost and Variable Cost
(c) Normal Cost and Abnormal Cost (d) None of the above
35. The Disadvantages of Standard Costing is/are ______________.
(a) Establishments of standards are difficult in practice.
(b) Standards are requires to revise continuously.
(c) Inaccurate, unreliable and outdated standards do more harm than benefit
(d) All of the above
36. ______________ is a concrete precise picture of the total operation of an enterprise in
monetary terms.
(a) Budget (b) Plan
(c) Strategy (d) Goal
37. Accuracy cannot be maintained is a limitation of ______________.
(a) Budgetary Control (b) Scientific Planning
(c) Standard Costing (d) Marginal Costing
38. Pre- requisitions for effective implementation of Budgetary Control system is/are
______________.
(a) Deciding budget centres & budget period
(b) Preparation of a budget manual
(c) Determination of budget key factor
(d) All of the above
39. ______________ is the budget in which adjustment is possible according to change in
business conditions.
(a) Flexible Budget (b) Fixed Budget
(c) Sales Budget (d) Cash Budget
40. When forecasts about budget shows greater revenue to be received or generated than the
expenses to be incurred during budgeted period that is known as ______________.
(a) Surplus Budget (b) Best Budget
(c) Favourable Budget (d) Non-favourable Budget
41. ______________ budget highlights that the expenditures to be incurred in budget period will
be greater than the revenues to be received during the same period.
(a) Surplus Budget (b) Deficit Budget
(c) Favourable Budget (d) Non-favourable Budget
26 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
42. The establishment of budgets relating the responsibilities of executives to the requirements of
a policy and the continuous comparison of actual with budgeted results, either to secure by
individual action the objective of that policy or to provide basis for its revision is called as
______________.
(a) Budget (b) Budgeting
(c) Budgetary Control (d) None of the above
43. A ______________ is a powerful tool available to the management for the purpose of
maximizing profits.
(a) Budget (b) Decrease in selling price
(c) Standard Norm (d) Increase in selling price
44. Fixed Budget is also known as ______________.
(a) Static Budget (b) Standard Budget
(c) Master Budget (d) Flexible Budget
45. Normal Profit means ______________.
(a) No Profit No Loss (b) Less Profit
(c) Expected Profit (d) None of the above
46. Personnel Budget is also called as ______________.
(a) Cost Budget (b) Labour Budget
(c) Employee Budget (d) None of the above
47. In cash budget, ______________ transactions are considered.
(a) Cash (b) Credit
(c) all financial (d) None of the above
48. Budget is prepared for a ______________ period of time.
(a) Fixed (b) One Month
(c) One Year (d) None of the above
49. Purchase Budget is also called as ______________.
(a) Production Budget (b) Material Budget
(c) Cost Budget (d) None of the above
50. ______________ is the plan of proposed investment in the fixed assets.
(a) Fixed Budget (b) Capital Expenditure Budget
(c) Cash Budget (d) Purchase Budget
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 27
Dr. D. Y. Patil Unitech Society’s
Dr. D.Y. PATIL INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT & RESEARCH,
Sant Tukaram Nagar, Pimpri, Pune-411018, Maharashtra, India.
33. are the amounts the business earns by selling its products or providing
services to customers.
(a) Assets (b) Goods
(c) Investments (d) Revenues
34. are the costs incurred by a business in the process of earning revenue.
(a) Assets (b) Expenses
(c) Investments (d) Revenues
35. are persons and/or other entities who owe to an enterprise an amount for
receiving goods and services on credit.
(a) Debtors (b) Creditors
(c) Shareholders (d) Suppliers
36. are persons and/or other entities that have to be paid by an enterprise an
amount for providing the enterprise goods and services on credit.
(a) Debtors (b) Creditors
(c) Shareholders (d) Customers
37. is a list of the entire general ledger account names and balances; it is
prepared to prove the ledger.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Trial Balance
38. The difference of two sides of an account is called as .
(a) Debit (b) Credit
(c) Balance (d) Cash
39. deals with expenses related to or identified with products, which may only
be a part of the organization.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
40. In stocks are valued at lower of cost or market value.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
41. The primary objective of is to provide necessary information to the
management in the process of its planning, controlling, and performance evaluation, and
decision-making.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
42. The Success of does not depend upon Management Accounting system.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
43. In no statutory requirement of audit for reports.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 11
44. Which is the most popular and acceptable software?
(a) Tally (b) Marg
(c) Saral (d) SAP
45. The Advantage/s of Accounting Software .
(a) Accounting softwares save Time and Money.
(b) No scope for mistakes and errors.
(c) Provides accurate and updated information as and when require(d)
(d) All of the above
46. Internal and external parties are the users of .
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
47. Capital A/c generally shows balance.
(a) Cash (b) Debit
(c) Credit (d) Overdraft
48. Asset A/c shows balance.
(a) Cash (b) Debit
(c) Credit (d) Overdraft
49. There are columns in Journal.
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) Five
50. Explanatory note written below an entry recorded in the Journal is called as .
(a) Narration (b) Explanation
(c) Brief information (d) Detail information
Chapter 2
Understanding of Financial Statements
1. shows the firm’s assets, liabilities, and stockholders’ equity as of the report
date.
(a) Cash Flow (b) Funds Flow
(c) Income Statement (d) Balance Sheet
2. shows the results of the firm’s operations and financial activities for the
reporting period.
(a) Trading and Profit & Loss Account (b) Expense Statement
(c) Income Statement (d) Balance Sheet
3. includes explanations of various activities, additional details of some
accounts, and other items as mandated by the regulatory authorities, bodies from time to time.
(a) Trading and Profit & Loss Account (b) Expense Statement
(c) Income Statement (d) Supplementary Note
4. is a formal official record of the financial activities and position of a
business, person, or other entity.
(a) Financial Statement (b) Trading Account
(c) Profit & Loss Account (d) Supplementary Note
5. provides the vital information related to the profitability, liquidity and
solvency of the business.
(a) Financial Statement (b) Trading Account
(c) Profit & Loss Account (d) Cash Flow & Funds Flow
6. is the simplest business form under which one can operate a business.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole Trading Firm
(c) Private Ltd. Company (d) Public Company
7. is not a separate legal entity.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole Proprietorship Firm
(c) Private Ltd. Company (d) One Man Company
8. For every item given in Trial Balance, effect should be given.
(a) Dual (b) Single
(c) Triple (d) None of the above
9. For every item given in Adjustment, effect should be given.
(a) Dual (b) Single
(c) Triple (d) None of the above
10. are nothing but the entries which are not included in the original Trial
Balance.
(a) Journal Proper (b) Ledger
(c) Adjustments (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 11
11. Every adjustment has two effects, i.e., .
(a) One Debit & One Credit (b) Debit
(c) Credit (d) None of the above
12. Depreciation is debited to .
(a) BRS (b) Balance Sheet
(c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
13. Income Accrued but Not Received is recorded to .
(a) Profit and Loss A/c Debit Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side
(c) Trading A/c Debit Side (d) Trading A/c Credit Side
14. Prepaid Expenses shown at .
(a) Balance Sheet Asset Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side
(c) Trading A/c Debit Side (d) Trading A/c Credit Side
15. Closing Stock is recorded to .
(a) Profit and Loss A/c Debit Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side
(c) Trading A/c Debit Side (d) Trading A/c Credit Side
16. Outstanding Expenses shown at .
(a) Balance Sheet Liability Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side
(c) Balance Sheet Asset Side (d) Trading A/c Credit Side
17. Goods Withdrawn from business is considered as .
(a) Sales (b) Purchases
(c) Capital (d) Drawings
18. Interest on Capital is debited to .
(a) Capital A/c (b) Balance Sheet
(c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
19. Interest on Drawings is credited to .
(a) Journal A/c (b) Balance Sheet
(c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
20. Goods Distributed as Free Samples is debited to .
(a) Capital A/c (b) Personal A/c
(c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
21. Reserve for Discount on Creditors is credited to .
(a) Capital A/c (b) Personal A/c
(c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
22. information is ignored in the financial statements.
(a) Cash (b) Credit
(c) Qualitative (d) Quantitative
23. The financial statements are based on the accounting .
(a) Accounting Concepts and Conventions
(b) Accounting Concepts
10 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
12. If Fixed Cost is Rs. 2,50,000 and P/V Ratio is 60%, then what is BEP in
`? (a) ` 4,16,667 (b) ` 3,83,333
(c) ` 3,75,000 (d) ` 4,10,000
13. If Fixed Cost is Rs. 2,50,000 and Profit is Rs. 3,50,000, then what is the amount of
Contribution? (a) ` 1,00,000 (b) ` 6,00,000
(c) ` 3,75,000 (d) ` 4,10,000
14. If Sales are Rs. 50,000 and P/V Ratio is 20%, then what is the amount of Variable
Cost? (a) ` 40,000 (b) ` 10,000
(c) ` 25,000 (d) ` 30,000
15. If contribution is Rs. 3,00,000 and Profit is ` 1,00,000, then what is the amount of Fixed
Cost? (a) ` 4,00,000 (b) `2,00,000
(c) ` 2,50,000 (d) `3,00,000
16. If Sales are Rs. 3,00,000 and P/V ratio is 20%, then what is the amount of Variable
Cost? (a) ` 2,40,000 (b) ` 80,000
(c) ` 2,70,000 (d) ` 2,00,000
17. The correct formula of Contribution is .
(a) Contribution = Sales – Variable Cost
(b) Contribution = Fixed Cost + Profit or – Loss
(c) Contribution = Sales × P/ V Ratio
(d) All of the above
18. The correct formula of P/V Ratio is .
(a) P/ V Ratio = [Contribution/Sales ] × 100
(b) P/ V Ratio = [Change in Profit/Change in Sales ] × 100
(c) P/ V Ratio = [Sales−Variable Cost/Sales] × 100
(d) All of the above
19. Marginal Costing is a Costing .
(a) Technique (b) Method
(c) System (d) Convention
20. Under absorption and over absorption of overheads problems are not arisen under
.
(a) Marginal Costing (b) Standard Costing
(c) Job Costing (d) Budgetary Control
21. Standard cost is the cost.
(a) Pre-determined (b) Pre-decided
(c) Pre-planned (d) None of the above
22. Small organizations cannot adopt technique.
(a) Standard Costing (b) Marginal Costing
(c) Budgetary Control (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 11
23. means difference between standard cost and actual cost.
(a) Balance Cost (b) Variance
(c) Marginal Cost (d) Variable Cost
24. helps management to understand the present costs and then to control the
future costs.
(a) ABC Analysis (b) Variance Analysis
(c) Marginal Analysis (d) Budget Analysis
25. Variances are classified in categories.
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
26. If Standard Cost Rs. 80 and Actual Cost Rs. 70, then what is the amount of Material Cost
Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 150 (d) 20
27. If Standard Price Rs. 8 & Standard Qty.10, Actual Price Rs. 7 & Actual Qty.10, then what is
the amount of Material Price Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 150 (d) 20
28. If Standard Price Rs. 8 & Standard Qty.10, Actual Price Rs. 7 & Actual Qty.10, then what is
the amount of Material Usage Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 50 (d) 0
29. If Standard Rate Rs. 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ` 2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Cost Variance?
(a) 600 (b) –600
(c) 500 (d) 400
30. If Standard Rate Rs. 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ` 2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Rate Variance?
(a) 750 (b) –750
(c) 600 (d) 400
31. If Standard Rate Rs. 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate Rs. 2 & Actual Hours 1500,
then what is the amount of Labour Efficiency Variance?
(a) 150 (b) –150
(c) 300 (d) 200
32. The correct formula for verification of Material Cost Variance is .
(a) MCV = MPV + MUV (b) MCV = MPV – MUV
(c) MCV = MPV × MUV (d) None of the above
10 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
MCQ for Managerial Accounting
a) Shareholders
b) Creditors
c) Managers
d) Regulatory agencies
a) Creditor
b) Department manager
c) Controller
d) Treasurer
a) Service entities
b) Manufacturing entities
c) Non profit entities
d) All of these
5. The work of factory employees that can be physically associated with converting raw
material into finished goods is classified as-
a) Manufacturing overhead
b) Indirect materials
c) Indirect labour
d) Direct labour
37
c) Management
d) All
8. Which type of asset class includes those assets which have only definite use and become
valueless when the yield is over?
a) Fixed asset
b) Current asset
c) Fictitious asset
d) Wasting asset
9. An accounting that deals with the accounting and reporting of information to management
regarding the detail information is
a) Financial accounting
b) Management accounting
c) Cost accounting
d) Real Accounting
a) Debtors account
b) Bad debts account
c) Sales account
d) Creditors account
37
a) Nominal account- debit all expenses & losses
b) Real account- credit what comes in
c)Nominal account- credit all incomes & gains
d) Personal account- debit the receiver
13. Cost of goods sold= opening stock+ net purchases+ expenses on Purchases – sales
Which part of formula is wrong? a) opening stock
b) net purchases
c) expenses on Purchases
d)sales
a) Cash account
b) Mahesh Account
c) Sales account
d) Purchase account
37
b) Customer’s account
c) Sales account
d) Cash account
37
b) Large business enterprise only
c) Small business concerns only
d) Manufacturing and service concern
26. is a person or item for which cost may be ascertained. a) Cost unit
b) Cost centre
c) Cost object
d) Cost estimation
29. Amortization of intangible Asset Such as Goodwill which has indefinite life is an example of
accounting concept
a) Conservatism Concept
b) Continuity Concept
c) Realisation Concept
d) Measurement Concept
31. cost will still be incurred although a plant is shut down temporarily.
a) Cost of raw material
b) Advertising
c) Depreciation
d) Carriage
37
32. Accounting principles are generally based upon:
a) Practicability
b) Subjectivity
c) Convenience in recording
d) None of the above
34. The practice of appending notes regarding contingent liabilities in accounting statements is in
pursuance to:
a) Convention of consistency
b) Money measurement concept
c) Convention of conservatism
d) Convention of disclosure
39. Income tax paid by a sole proprietor on his business income should be:
a) Debited to trading account
37
b) Debited to profit and loss account
c) Deducted from capital account in the balance sheet
d) None of the above
40. All direct & indirect expenses related to business are charged:
a) Profit and loss account
b) Trading account
c) Trading account Profit and Loss account
d) Directly to Balance sheet
41. According to schedule VI Companies Act which item is not shown on Asset side of Balance
sheet
a) Investment
b) Current Loan & Advances
c) Provision
d) Lease Holds
43. Investment of X company profit in shares of other company PQR Pvt. ltd are recorded
in……………….
a) Asset side of Balance Sheet
b) Liability side of Balance Sheet
c) Profit & Loss a/c
d) Not recorded in Balance Sheet
a) Remains fixed
b) Fluctuates with volume of production
c) Varies in consideration with the volume of sales
d) None of the above
37
46. The books to be compulsorily maintained by a company are:
a) Increases assets
b) Results in no change in the total assets
c) Decreases assets
d) Increases liability
37
d) Debiting employee a/c ; crediting salary a/c
53. Cost of asset should always be equal to the cost of the liabilities. This concept is
a) Realization Concept
b) Matching Concept
c) Cost Concept
d) Both a and b above
a) Consistency concept
b) Conservatism concept
c) Accounting period concept
d) Cost Concept
a) Current assets
b) Current liabilities
c) Fixed asset
d) Fixed liability
59. Reserve for doubtful debts appearing in the trial balance should be:
37
b) Shown as liability side in balance sheet
c) Reduced from related asset in the balance sheet
d) Both a and b
e) Both a and c
a) Debtors
b) Investors
c) Creditors
d) Shareholders
61. According to which concept business is treated as a unit apart from owner
a) Dual concept
b) Divider concept
c) Entity concept
d) Landlord concept
62. Authorized capital, also known as
a) Nominal capital
b) Paid up capital
c) Issues capital
d) None of these
63. True & fair profit and loss a/c of a company know by
a) Preparing trial balance
b) Preparing respective ledger of account
c) Preparing trading a/c
d) Preparing trading & profit & loss a/c
65. Under which concept it is assumed that the enterprises has neither the intention nor the
necessity of liquidation or of curtailing materiality the scale of operation
a) Revenue realization concept
b) Matching cost concept
37
c) Going concern concept
d) None of these
66. Making the provision for doubtful debts and discount on debtors in anticipation of actual
bad debts and discount is an example for which concept
a) Conservatism concept
b) Continuity concept
c) Realization concept
d) All of these
72. . Which of the following account balance will be shown on debit side of Trial Balance?
a) Outstanding expenses
b) Cash a/c
37
c) Short term loan
d) creditors
73. The reduction in the value of the fixed assets which can arise due to time factor is
a)Discount
b) Depreciation
c)Reduction
d) None of the above
37
b) Cost concept
c) Continuity concept
d) Money measurement concept
81. Proposed dividends" is shown in the Balance Sheet of a company under the head:
a) Provisions
b) Reserves and Surplus
c) Current Liabilities
d) Other Liabilities
82. Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of:
a) Separate entity
b) Going concern
c) Consistency
d) Time period
a) Income Statement
b) Cash Flow Statement
c) Balance Sheet
d) Fund Flow Statement
Bought office wooden table for cash office wooden table cash
Ramesh sold goods on credited to Ram sales cash
37
Introduce capital by cheque capital Bank
Paid to creditor Sita by cheque Sita Bank
a) (ii) (iii)(i)
b) (iii)(iv)(ii)
c) (i)(iii)(iv)
d) (i)(iv)
88. Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of:
a) Separate entity
b) Going concern
c) Consistency
d) Time period
37
92. The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following types of businesses? a.
Sole proprietorship
b. Corporation
c. Partnership
d. All of them
93. Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a business is divided for the
purpose of preparing financial statements?
a) Fiscal year
b) Calendar year
c) Accounting period
d) Accrual period
97. Which of the following is not regarded as the fundamental accounting concept?
a. The going concern concept
b. The separate entity concept
c. The prudence (conservatism) concept
d. Correction concept
98. Using "lower of cost and net realisable value(Market Value)" for the purpose of inventory
valuation is the implementation of which of the following concepts?
a) The going concern concept
b) The separate entity concept
c) The prudence concept
d) Matching concept
37
99. The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following types of businesses?
a) Sole proprietorship
b) Corporation
c) Partnership
d) All of them
100. The revenue recognition principal dictates that all types of incomes should be recorded or
recognized when
a) Cash is received
b) At the end of accounting period
c) When they are earned
d) When interest is paid
101. The allocation of owner's private expenses to his/her business violates which of the
following?
a) Accrual concept
b) Matching concept
c) Separate business entity concept
d) Consistency concept
102. The going concern concept assumes that
37
c) Immaterial
d) Material
106. "Financial information should be neutral and bias free" is the dictation of which one of the
following?
a) Completeness concept
b) Faithful representation Concept
c) Objectivity Concept
d) Duality Concept
107. Accounting principles are divided into two types. These are ---
a) Accounting Concepts
b) Accounting Conventions
c) Accounting Standards
d) Accounting Concepts &Accounting Conventions
108. Which of the following is not related with Money Measurement Concept ?
a) All business transaction should be expressed only in money
b) The transactions which cannot be expressed in money, will not be recorded in
accounting books
c) Business is treated as separate from the proprietor
d) None of These
109. Which of the following equation is related with Dual Aspect Concept ?
a) Total Assets = Total Liabilities
b) Total Assets = Capital + Outsider’s Liabilities
c) Capital = Total Assets - Outsider’s Liabilities
d) All of the above
110. If the total assets of the company amount to Rs 1,50,000 and owner’s equity is Rs 70,000,the
amount of liabilities will be –
a) Rs 70,000
b) Rs 80,000
c) Rs 90,000
d) Rs 1,00,000
a) Profit
37
b) Assets
c) Company
d) Books of A/c
a) Depreciation
b) Wages
c) Salary
d) Stationary
a) Patents
b) Trade Marks
c) Copyright
d) Land
117. The prime function of accounting is to
37
c) Controlling function
d) None of these
120.Book keeping is mainly concerned with
a) Practicability
b) Subjectivity
c) Convenience in recording
d) None of these
122. The system of recording transaction based on dual aspect concept is called
125. The convention of conservatism when applied to the balance sheet result in.
37
c) Providing depreciation
d) None of these
127. The amount brought in by the proprietor in the business should be credited to
a) Cash a/c
b) Capital a/c
c) Drawing a/c
d) Bank a/c
a) Customer a/c
b) Sales return a/c
c) Goods a/c
d) Purchase return a/c
a) Cash a/c
b) Mahesh a/c
c) Sales a/c
d) Sales return a/c
a) Discount a/c
b) Customer a/c
c) Sales a/c
d) None of these
133. In case of a debt becoming bad, the amount should be credited to
a) Debtors Accounts
b) Bad debts a/c
c) Sales a/c
37
a) Ascertain the cost of goods and services
b) Ascertain the profit
c) Presentation of all data
d) None of these
a) Convention of conservatism
b) Convention of full disclosure
c) Convention of consistency
d) None of these
136. Accountant should follow the same principles of accounting continuously is as per which
accounting convention
a) Convention of conservatism
b) Convention of full disclosure
c) Convention of consistency
d) None of these
138. The convention of disclosure implies that all material information should be
a) Single aspect
b) Dual aspect
c) Triple aspect
d) None of these
140. Custom and traditions which guide the accountant while preparing the accounting
statements
a) Accounting convention
37
b) Accounting concepts
c) Accounting principles
d) None of these
141. Rules of action or conduct adopted by the accountants universally while recording
accounting transaction
a) Accounting convention
b) Accounting concepts
c) Accounting principles
d) None of these
142. Basic assumptions or conditions upon which the science of accounting is based.
a) Accounting convention
b) Accounting concepts
c) Accounting principles
d) None of these.
A. system in which accounting entries are made on the basis of amounts having become due
for payment or receipt is called
a) Cash concept
b) Accrual concept
c) Matching concept
d) On-going concept
a) Real a/c
b) Personal a/c
c) Nominal a/c
d) None of these
145. Debit what come in Credit what goes out rule for
a) Real a/c
b) Personal a/c
c) Nominal a/c
d) None of these
146. Debit all expenses and losses Credit all gains and income.
a) Real a/c
b) Personal a/c
c) Nominal a/c
d) None of these
147. A book containing a chronological record of business transaction & original record
a) Journal
37
b) Ledger
c) Trial balance
d) None of these
148. Transferring the debit and credit item from the journal to the respective accounts is
150. The transferring of debit and credit items from journal to the respective accounts in the
ledger is called as
a) Ledger
b) Posting
c) Forward journal
d) None of these
151. Which of the following items would not fall under the definition of an asset? a)
Land
b) Machine
c) Cash
d) Owner Equity
152. Which one of the following items would fall under the definition of a liability a)
Cash
b) Debtor
c) Owner’s equity
d) None of these
37
154.A business has the following items in it:
Land Rs.1,000,000
Machinery Rs.20,000
Cash Rs.10,000
Debt Rs.0
Owner’s equity ?
a) Rs.200, 000
b) Rs.700, 000
c) Rs.800, 000
d) Rs1, 100,000
157.A business has following items in it
Land ?
Vehicles Rs.600,000
Debtors Rs. 1,20,000
Cash Rs.30,000
Owners’Equity Rs.1,000,000
Loan 5,00,000
37
Creditors Rs.50,000
What is the value of the land…………………..
e) 1,000,000
f) 1,550,000
g) 800,000
h) None of these
158. Which of the following equations properly represents a derivation of the fundamental
accounting equation?
a) Only (a)
b) Both (a) (b)
c) All (a)(b)(c)(d)
d) None of these
159. Retained earnings will change over time because of several factors. Which of the following
factors would explain an increase in retained earnings?
a) Net Loss
b) Net income
c) Dividend
d) Investment by share holder.
Cash Rs.100
37
Accounts Receivable Rs.500
Stock holder equity Rs.700
Accounts Payable Rs.200
Bank Loan Rs.1,000
a) Rs.200
b) Rs.1900
c) Rs.1200
d) Rs.1700
163. The full disclosure principle, as adopted by the accounting profession, is best described by
which of the following?
a) All information related to an entity's business and operating objectives is required to be
disclosed in the financial statements.
b) Information about each account balance appearing in the financial statements is to be
included in the notes to the financial statements.
c) Enough information should be disclosed in the financial statements so a person wishing
to invest in the stock of the company can make a profitable decision.
d) Disclosure of any financial facts significant enough to influence the judgment of an
informed reader
166. The Cash account on the balance sheet should not include which of the following items?
a. Travel advances to employees
b. Currency
c. Money orders
d. Deposits in transit
37
b. Assets and equity.
168. The following comments all relate to the recording process. Which of these statements is
correct?
b. The general ledger is posted from transactions recorded in the general journal.
c. The trial balance provides the primary source document for recording transactions into
the general journal.
d. Transposition is the transfer of information from the general journal to the general
ledger.
169. The following comments each relate to the recording of journal entries. Which statement is
true?
c. The chart of accounts reveals the amount to debit and credit to the affected accounts.
171. . Which of the following errors will be disclosed in the preparation of a trial balance?
37
d. Recording the wrong amount for a transaction to both the account debited and the
account credited.
172. The basic sequence in the accounting process can best be described as:
173. Inventory accounts should be classified in which section of a balance sheet? a. Current
assets
b. Investments
c. Property, plant, and equipment
d. Intangible assets
Planning
b) Decision making
c) Control
d) All of these
178. Which of the following statements about differences between financial and managerial
accounting is incorrect?
37
a) Managerial accounting information is prepared primarily for external parties
such as stockholders and creditors; financial accounting is directed at internal
users.
b) Financial accounting is aggregated; managerial accounting is focused on products and
departments.
c) Managerial accounting pertains to both past and future items; financial accounting
focuses primarily on past transactions and events.
d) Financial accounting is based on generally accepted accounting practices; managerial
accounting faces no similar constraining factors.
180. Manufacturing costs are also known as product costs. Which of the following best describes
those costs which are considered to be manufacturing costs?
181. A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, plus long distance
charges, would be classified as a:
a. Variable cost
b. Committed fixed cost
c. Direct cost
d. Semi variable cost
37
184. Business entity concept distinguishes between:
a) Asset
b) Liability
c) Accounts
187. Financial statements are:
a) Estimates of facets
b) Anticipated facts
c) recorded facts
188. Retained earnings statement depicts:
a) Appropriation of profits
b) Estimates of profits
c) Estimates of costs
a) Management
b) Creditors
c) Bankers
d) All of the above
37
a) Sundry creditors
b) Acceptances
c) Unclaimed dividend
d) Short term investment
191. Financial accounting deals with:
a) Determination of cost
b) Determination of profit
c) Determination of price
d) Determination of selling price
a) Actual figures
b) Budgeted figures
c) Standard figures
d) Management Figure
a) 1910
b) 1939
c) 1950
d) 1960
37
c) Current asset
d) Owners equity
a) Financial
b) Economic
c) Non financial
d) None of these
199. Which items does not come under the balance sheet
a) sales
b) Share capital
c) Reserves and surplus
d) Unsecured loan
b) Clerical
37
c) Executive
d) Non- executive
204. Depreciation is a . a)
Cash operating expenditure
b) Accrual basis
c) Mercantile basis
d) Single entry basis
206. Which of the following is true for: -“In accounts recording is done of ” a)
only financial transaction
b) Revenue
c) Direct
d) Non- cash
37
a) Nominal account
b) Real Account
b) Trial Balance
c) Ledger
d) Journal
210. Amount brought in by proprietor should be credited to
a) cash account
b) capital account
c) drawings account
d) creditors account
b) Salaries account
c) Cash account
d) Outstanding expenses
212. All costs other than direct materials cost, direct labour cost and direct expenses are known as:
a) Indirect material cost
b) Overhead
c) Indirect labour cost
d) Indirect expenses
213. A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, plus long distance
charges, would be classified as a:
e. Variable cost
f. Committed fixed cost
37
g. Direct cost
h. Semi variable cost
215. The work of factory employees that can be physically associated with converting raw
material into finished goods is classified as-
e. Manufacturing overhead
f. Indirect materials
g. Indirect labour
h. Direct labour
216. Which one of the following would not be classified as manufacturing overhead? a) Indirect
labour
b) Direct materials
c) Insurance on factory building
d) Indirect materials
218. A manufacturing process requires small amounts of glue. The glue used in the process is
classified as
a) A prime cost
b) An indirect material
c) A direct material
d) Miscellaneous expense
37
220. Because of automation, which component of product cost is declining? a)
Direct labour
b) Direct materials
c) Manufacturing overhead
d) Advertising
224. Aggregate of cost of goods sold and selling and distribution overheads is known as : a)
Total Cost
b) Office Cost
c) Cost of sales
d) Selling overhead
37
Direct material purchased: Rs. 1,00,000
Direct material consumed: Rs. 90,000
Direct labour: Rs. 60,000
Direct expenses: Rs. 20,000
Manufacturing overheads: Rs. 30,000
(a) Rs. 1,80,000
(b) Rs. 2,00,000
(c) Rs. 1,70,000
(d) Rs. 2,10,000
37
DNYANSAGAR INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH
Q. no Question Answer
1. Managerial accounting information is generally prepared for C
…………………
a. Shareholders
b. Creditors
c. Managers
d. Regulatory agencies
a. Creditor
b. Department manager
c. Controller
d. Treasurer
a. Service entities
b. Manufacturing entities
c. Non profit entities
d. All of these
8 Which type of asset class includes those assets which have only D
definite use and become valueless when the yield is over?
a. Fixed asset
b. Current asset
c. Fictitious asset
d. Wasting asset
9 An accounting that deals with the accounting and reporting of B
information to managementregarding the detail information is
a. Financial accounting
b. Management accounting
c. Cost accounting
d. Real Accounting
10
13. Cost of goods sold= opening stock+ net purchases+ expenses on Purchases – D
sales Which part of formula is wrong?
a. opening stock
b. net purchases
c. expenses on Purchases
d. sales
28 cost refers to those cost which have already been incurred and cannot be B
altered by any decision in the future.
a. Opportunity cost
b. Sunk Cost
c. Incremental cost
d. Decremental cost
31. cost will still be incurred although a plant is shut down temporarily. C
a. Cost of raw material
b. Advertising
c. Depreciation
d. Carriage
32 Accounting principles are generally based upon: A
a. Practicability
b. Subjectivity
c. Convenience in recording
d. None of the above
33 The system of recording based on dual aspect concept is called: B
a. Double account system
b. Double entry system
c. Single entry system
d. All the above
34 The practice of appending notes regarding contingent liabilities in accounting D
statements is in pursuance to:
a. Convention of consistency
b. Money measurement concept
c. Convention of conservatism
d. Convention of disclosure
35 Sales are equal to: A
a. Cost of goods sold + gross profit
b. Cost of goods sold - gross profit
c. Gross profit- Cost of goods sold
d. None of the above
36 Interest on drawings is: C
a. Expenditure for the business
b. Cost for the business
c. Gain for the business
d. None of the above
37 Goods given as samples should be credited to: C
a. Advertisement account
b. Sales account
c. Purchase account
d. None of the above
38. Outstanding salaries are shown as: C
a. Added to Salaries while preparing P & La/c
b. Shown in liability side of Balance sheet under current Liability.
c. (a) &(b) above
d. None of the above
39 Income tax paid by a sole proprietor on his business income should be: C
a. Debited to trading account
b. Debited to profit and loss account
c. Deducted from capital account in the balance sheet
d. None of the above
40. All direct & indirect expenses related to business are charged: C
a. Profit and loss account
b. Trading account
c. Trading account Profit and Loss account
d. Directly to Balance sheet
43 Investment of X company profit in shares of other company PQR Pvt. ltd are A
recorded in……………….
a. Asset side of Balance Sheet
b. Liability side of Balance Sheet
c. Profit & Loss a/c
d. Not recorded in Balance Sheet
a. Remains fixed
b. Fluctuates with volume of production
c. Varies in consideration with the volume of sales
d. None of the above
a. Increases assets
b. Results in no change in the total assets
c. Decreases assets
d. Increases liability
63 Cost of asset should always be equal to the cost of the liabilities. This concept B
is
a. Realization Concept
b. Matching Concept
c. Cost Concept
d. Both a and b above
a. Consistency concept
b. Conservatism concept
c. Accounting period concept
d. Cost Concept
a. Current assets
b. Current liabilities
c. Fixed asset
d. Fixed liability
69 Reserve for doubtful debts appearing in the trial balance should be: E
a. Debtors
b. Investors
c. Creditors
d. Shareholders
71 According to which concept business is treated as a unit apart from owner C
a. Dual concept
b. Divider concept
c. Entity concept
d. Landlord concept
72 Authorized capital, also known as A
a. Nominal capital
b. Paid up capital
c. Issues capital
d. None of these
73 True & fair profit and loss a/c of a company know by D
a. Preparing trial balance
b. Preparing respective ledger of account
c. Preparing trading a/c
d. Preparing trading & profit & loss a/c
74 Credit balance of profit & loss a/c shown on B
a. Asset side of balance sheet
b. Liability side of balance sheet
c. Not shown in balance sheet
d. Half on asset side and half on liability side
75 Under which concept it is assumed that the enterprises has neither the C
intention nor the necessity of liquidation or of curtailing materiality the scale
of operation
a. Revenue realization concept
b. Matching cost concept
c. Going concern concept
d. None of these
76 Making the provision for doubtful debts and discount on debtors in A
anticipation of actual bad debts and discount is an example for which concept
a. Conservatism concept
b. Continuity concept
c. Realization concept
d. All of these
82 Which of the following account balance will be shown on debit side of Trial D
Balance?
a. Outstanding expenses
b. Cash a/c
c. Short term loan
d. creditors
83 The reduction in the value of the fixed assets which can arise due to time B
factor is
a. Discount
b. Depreciation
c. Reduction
d. None of the above
92 Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of: B
a. Separate entity
b. Going concern
c. Consistency
d. Time period
a. Income Statement
b. Cash Flow Statement
c. Balance Sheet
d. Fund Flow Statement
95 Which of the following is a liability? A
a. Loan from Mr.Y
b. loan to Mr.y
c. Both (a) (b)
d. None of these
92 Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of: B
e. Separate entity
f. Going concern
g. Consistency
h. Time period
e. Income Statement
f. Cash Flow Statement
g. Balance Sheet
h. Fund Flow Statement
95 Which of the following is a liability? A
e. Loan from Mr.Y
f. loan to Mr.y
g. Both (a) (b)
h. None of these
97 Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of: B
a. Separate entity
b. Going concern
c. Consistency
d. Time period
a. Fiscal year
b. Calendar year
c. Accounting period
d. Accrual period
107 Using "lower of cost and net realisable value(Market Value)" for the purpose C
of inventory valuation is the implementation of which of the following
concepts?
a. The going concern concept
b. The separate entity concept
c. The prudence concept
d. Matching concept
108 The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following D
types of businesses?
a. Sole proprietorship
b. Corporation
c. Partnership
d. All of them
109 The revenue recognition principal dictates that all types of incomes should be C
recorded or recognized when
a. Cash is received
b. At the end of accounting period
c. When they are earned
d. When interest is paid
110 The allocation of owner's private expenses to his/her business violates which C
of the following?
a. Accrual concept
b. Matching concept
c. Separate business entity concept
d. Consistency concept
112 Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a C
business is divided for the purpose of preparing financial statements?
a. Fiscal year
b. Calendar year
c. Accounting period
d. Accrual period
113 Showing purchased office equipments in financial statements is the B
application of which accounting concept?
a. Historical cost convention
b. Materiality
c. Prudence
d. Matching concept
114 Information about an item is if its omission or misstatement might D
influence the financial decision of the users taken on the basis of that
information
a. Concrete
b. Complete
c. Immaterial
d. Material
115 "Financial information should be neutral and bias free" is the dictation of C
which one of the following?
a. Completeness concept
b. Faithful representation Concept
c. Objectivity Concept
d. Duality Concept
116 Accounting principles are divided into two types. These are --- D
a. Accounting Concepts
b. Accounting Conventions
c. Accounting Standards
d. Accounting Concepts &Accounting Conventions
117 Which of the following is not related with Money Measurement Concept ? B
a. All business transaction should be expressed only in money
b. The transactions which cannot be expressed in money, will not be
recorded in accounting books
c. Business is treated as separate from the proprietor
d. None of These
118 Which of the following equation is related with Dual Aspect Concept ? D
a. Total Assets = Total Liabilities
b. Total Assets = Capital + Outsider’s Liabilities
c. Capital = Total Assets - Outsider’s Liabilities
d. All of the above
119 If the total assets of the company amount to Rs 1,50,000 and owner’s B
equity is Rs 70,000, the amount of liabilities will be –
a. Rs 70,000
b. Rs 80,000
c. Rs 90,000
d. Rs 1,00,000
c. Controlling function
d. None of these
131 The convention of conservatism when applied to the balance sheet result A
in.
a. Understand the asset
b. Understand the liabilities
c. Overstatement of capital
d. None of these
c. Providing depreciation
d. None of these
133 The amount brought in by the proprietor in the business should be credited B
to
a. Cash a/c
b. Capital a/c
c. Drawing a/c
d. Bank a/c
134 The amount of salary paid to Suresh should be debited to B
a. The account of Suresh
b. Salaries a/c
c. Cash a/c
d. Bank a/c
141 The convention of disclosure implies that all material information should be A
a. Disclosed in the account
b. Disclosed in the accounts which is required to owner
c. Not disclosed
d. None of these
143 Custom and traditions which guide the accountant while preparing the C
accounting statements
a. Accounting convention
b. Accounting concepts
c. Accounting principles
d. None of these
145 system in which accounting entries are made on the basis of amounts having B
become due for payment or receipt is called
a. Cash concept
b. Accrual concept
c. Matching concept
d. On-going concept
147 Debit what come in Credit what goes out rule for A
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
148 Debit all expenses and losses Credit all gains and income. C
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
150 Transferring the debit and credit item from the journal to the respective B
accounts is called
a. Compound Journal
b. Ledger
c. Trial balance
d. None of these
152 The transferring of debit and credit items from journal to the respective B
accounts in the ledger is called as
a. Ledger
b. Posting
c. Forward journal
d. None of these
153 Which of the following items would not fall under the definition of an asset? D
a. Land
b. Machine
c. Cash
d. Owner Equity
154 Which one of the following items would fall under the definition of a C
liability
a. Cash
b. Debtor
c. Owner’s equity
d. None of these
a. Rs.200, 000
b. Rs.700, 000
c. Rs.800, 000
d. Rs1, 100,000
Creditors Rs.50,000
What is the value of the land…………………..
a. 1,000,000
b. 1,550,000
c. 800,000
d. None of these
160 Which of the following equations properly represents a derivation of the D
fundamental accounting equation?
a. Only (a)
b. Both (a) (b)
c. All (a)(b)(c)(d)
d. d) None of these
161 Retained earnings will change over time because of several factors. Which B
of the following factors would explain an increase in retained earnings?
a. Net Loss
b. Net income
c. Dividend
d. Investment by share holder.
164 XYZltd.has provided the following information about its balance sheet: B
Cash Rs.100
a. Rs.200
b. Rs.1900
c. Rs.1200
d. Rs.1700
165 The full disclosure principle, as adopted by the accounting profession, is D
best described by which of the following?
a. All information related to an entity's business and operating
objectives is required to be disclosed in the financial statements.
b. Information about each account balance appearing in the financial
statements is to be included in the notes to the financial
statements.
c. Enough information should be disclosed in the financial statements
so a person wishing to invest in the stock of the company can make
a profitable decision.
d. Disclosure of any financial facts significant enough to influence the
judgment of an informed reader
166 Which of the following is a real (permanent) account? D
a. Goodwill
b. Sales
c. Accounts Receivable
d. Both Goodwill and Accounts Receivable
167 Which of the following statements is not an objective of financial B
reporting?
a. Provide information that is useful in investment and credit
decisions.
b. Provide information regarding policy of organization
c. Provide information that is useful in assessing cash flow
prospective
d. None of theses
168 The Cash account on the balance sheet should not include which of the A
following items?
a. Travel advances to employees
b. Currency
c. Money orders
d. Deposits in transit
170 The following comments all relate to the recording process. Which of these B
statements is correct?
a. The general ledger is a chronological record of transactions.
b. The general ledger is posted from transactions recorded in the general
journal.
c. The trial balance provides the primary source document for recording
transactions into the general journal.
d. Transposition is the transfer of information from the general journal to
the general ledger.
171 The following comments each relate to the recording of journal entries. Which D
statement is true?
a. For any given journal entry, debits must exceed credits.
b. It is customary to record credits on the left and debits on the right.
c. The chart of accounts reveals the amount to debit and credit to the
affected accounts.
d. Journalization is the process of converting transactions and events into
debit/credit format.
172 The trial balance is ………………………….. D
173 Which of the following errors will be disclosed in the preparation of a trial C
balance?
a. Recording transactions in the wrong account.
b. Duplication of a transaction in the accounting records.
c. Posting only the debit portion of a particular journal entry.
d. Recording the wrong amount for a transaction to both the account
debited and the account credited.
174 The basic sequence in the accounting process can best be described as: D
a. Transaction, journal entry, source document, ledger account, trial
balance.
b. Source document, transaction, ledger account, journal entry, trial
balance.
c. Transaction, source document, journal entry, trial balance, ledger
account.
d. d. Transaction, source document, journal entry, ledger account,
trial balance.
181 Manufacturing costs are also known as product costs. Which of the C
following best describes those costs which are considered to be
manufacturing costs?
a. Direct materials, direct labor, and factory overhead.
b. Direct materials and direct labor only.
c. Direct materials, direct labor, factory overhead, and administrative
overhead.
d. Direct labor and factory overhead.
182 A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, D
plus long distance charges, would be classified as a:
a. Variable cost
b. Committed fixed cost
c. Direct cost
d. Semi variable cost
a. Sundry creditors
b. Acceptances
c. Unclaimed dividend
d. Short term investment
193 Financial accounting deals with: B
a. Determination of cost
b. Determination of profit
c. Determination of price
d. Determination of selling price
194 Financial account record only A
a. Actual figures
b. Budgeted figures
c. Standard figures
d. Management Figure
195 The term Management Accounting was first used in C
a. 1910
b. 1939
c. 1950
d. 1960
d. Six months
205 A budget is tool which helps the management in planning and control of… A
a. All business activities
b. Production activities
c. Purchase activities
d. Sales activities
206 Budgetary control system acts as a friend, philosopher and guide to the… A
a. Management
b. Share holders
c. Creditors
d. Employees
207 Budgetary control system defines the objectives and policies of the… D
a. Production department
b. Finance department
c. Marketing department
d. All
208 Budgetary control system facilitates centralized control with… C
a. Decentralized activity
b. Centralized activity
c. Both
d. None
209 Budgetary control facilitates easy introduction of the… C
a. Marginal costing
b. Ratio analysis
c. Standard costing
d. Subjective matter
210 Budgetary control helps the management in… A
a. Obtaining bank credit
b. Issue of shares
c. Getting grants from government
d. All of these
211 Budgetary control system helps the management to eliminate… C
a. Undercapitalization
b. Overcapitalization
c. Both
d. Subjective matter
212 Budgetary control provides a basis for… C
a. Bonus shares
b. Rights shares
c. Remuneration plans
d. None
213 Budgetary control helps to introduce a suitable incentive and B
remuneration based
on…
a. Changes in government policies
b. Inflationary conditions
c. Both
d. None
229 On the basis of flexibility budget is classified into two types such as fixed A
budget and
________ budget.
a. variable
b. Semi-variable
c. Constant
230 Variable budget is also known as _______ budget. C
a. Fixed
b. Semi-variable
c. Flexible
231 The budget prepared according to ________ is known as functional C
budgets.
a. Period
b. Controls
c. Functions
232 ……………….. budget is a budget which is designed to remain unchanged C
irrespective of the volume of output or turnover achieved.
a. Flexible
b. Cash
c. Fixed
233 A Flexible budget is one which permits the change in accordance with the B
changes
in the level of activity.
a. Fixed
b. Flexible
c. Sales
234 Flexible budgets are more useful in actual practice because it is more A
realistic and
has great practical utility in the business.
a. realistic
b. non-realistic
c. Predictable
235 A _______ budget is the budget which shows the quantity and value of C
goods to be
purchased during the budget period to meet the day-to-day needs of the
business.
a. Sales
b. Cash
c. Purchase
236 One of the basic purpose to prepare _______ budget is to estimate the A
cash
requirements for the purchases to be made during the budgeted period.
a. purchase
b. cash
c. sales
247 Given the budgeted output in second quarter is 8,000 units. In the first A
quarter,
Fixed overheads were Rs 40,000 Variable overheads were Rs 5 per unit ( Rs
40,000)
and semi variable were 20,000 ( 60% varying @ Rs 3 per unit). Determine
the total
manufacturing overhead budget for the second quarter.
a. Rs 1,12,000
b. 1,12,000 units
c. Insufficient data
d. None of the above
248 Budgetary control system defines the objectives and policies of the… D
a. Production department
b. Finance department
c. Marketing department
d. All
249 Budgetary control system facilitates centralized control with… C
a. Decentralized activity
b. Centralized activity
c. Both
d. None
COMMERCE DEPARTMENT
FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING – I
F.Y.B.COM (SEMESTER – I)
Prepared By
Mangesh Takpire
Asst. Professor, ACACSC, Camp, Pune
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.1 Accounting is called as ……….. of business. Que.2 Specific business entity separate from
personnel affair of the owner is?
A. Concepts
B. Language A. Objectivity principle
C. Methods B. Stable currency principle
D. None of the above. C. Entity principle
D. Matching principle
Que.3 According to money measurement concept, Que.4 Contingent liability appears as a footnote in the
which one of the following will be recorded in the balance sheet. This is in accordance with the
books of accounts? accounting principle?
A. Excellent moral of workers A. Consistency
B. Cost of Machinery B. Disclosure
C. Managing ability of the manager C. Conservatism
D. Quality control in the business D. Materiality
Que.5 Connected with cost principles, assets required Que.6 Which one of the following concept may be
for used not for resale? stated as "for every debit, there is a credit"?
A. Cost principle A. Separate Entity Concept
B. Accounting principle B. Dual Aspect Concept
C. Going concern assumption C. Money Measurement Concept
D. None of them D. Accounting Period Concept
Que.7 Which of the following is the GAAP that Que.8 When the cost incurred on recruiting, training
requires the recording of depreciation? and developing the employees is considered for
determining the value of employees, it is called
A. Materially constraints
B. Matching principle A. the replacement cost approach
C. Cost principle B. the historical cost approach
D. Time-period principle C. the opportunity cost approach
D. none of the above
Que.9 Inflation Accounting is the practice of adjusting Que.10 The accounting methodology that deals with
financial statements according to……… energetics, ecology and economics is termed as……….
A. Book Record A. Inflation Accounting
B. Books of Accounts B. Creative Accounting
C. Prices indexes C. Economic Accounting
D. None of the above D. Environmental Accounting
Page - 1
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.11 Forensic Accounting is a form of ………… Que.12 ………… capital means the capital which is more
accounting than the required capital according to the share of
profit an individual partner is sharing.
A. Investment
B. Investigative A. Fixed
C. International B. Current
D. None of the above C. Surplus
D. Deficit
Que.13 According to …….. concept, all expenses even Que.14 Accounting ……… are the general rules of
though not paid but under obligation to pay in near action or conduct, which are adopted by the
future, are also to be recorded. accountants universally while recording business
transactions.
A. Cash
B. Entity A. Records
C. Money measurement B. Entries
D. Accrual C. Principles
D. Methods
Que.15 GAAP stands for: Que.16 Which accounting principle states that
companies and owners should be treated as separate
A. Generally Accepted Accounting Provisions
entities.
B. Generally Accepted Accounting Policies
C. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles A. Monetary Unit Assumption
D. None of these B. Business Entity Concept
C. Periodicity Assumption
D. Going Concern Concept
Que.17 Cost or expenses must be recorded at the Que.18 The correct form of Accounting equation is
same time as the revenue to which they correspond is
A. Assets – Receivable = Equity
specified by which principle?
B. Assets + Receivable = Equity
A. Matching Principle C. Assets – Liabilities = Equity
B. Going Concern Principle D. Assets + Liabilities = Equity
C. Consistency Principle
D. Prudence Principle
Que.19 As per revenue recognition principle, sales Que.20 Due to which concept, accounting does not
revenues should be recognized at the time when? record non-financial transactions?
A. Order is taken for merchandise A. Going concern concept
B. Ownership of goods gets transferred from the B. Money measurement concept
seller to the buyer C. Accrual concept
C. Cash is received D. Cost concept
D. All of the above
Page - 2
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.21 The owner of the business is treated as a Que.22 As per the accrual concept of accounting, any
creditor of the business according to which of the financial or business transaction should be recorded:
following concept?
A. when profit is computed
A. Entity concept B. when balance sheet is prepared
B. Materiality concept C. when cash is received or paid
C. Consistency concept D. when transaction occurs
D. Periodicity concept
Que.25 Which is not external Liability? Que.26 In Piecemeal Distribution of Cash which
liability paid off preferentially?
A. Loan from partners
B. Govt. Dues A. Realisation exp.
C. Realisation Expenses B. Govt. Dues
D. Secured Assets C. Loan from partner
D. Capital
Que.27 Surplus capital method is also known as_____ Que.28 Maximum Loss method is also known as____
A. Quotient method A. Surplus Capital Method
B. Maximum Loss Method B. High Relative Capital Method
C. National Loss Method C. National Loss Method
D. None of all these D. Excess Capital Method
Page - 3
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.31 When is Garner V/s Murray Rulings is Que.32 Maximum Loss = Total of capital A/c. Balance
applicable? less __________
A. When insolvent partner did not able to pay off his A. Cash available
capital deficiency B. Cash paid
B. When insolvent partner able to pay off his capital C. Profit
deficiency D. None of these
C. When solvent partner did not able pay off his
capital deficiency
D. When solvent partner pay off his capital deficiency
Que.33 In Piecemeal distribution amounts realised Que.34 The liability of partners in a firm is..........
from assets are payable in the following order:
A. Limited
A. Realisation expenses, Outside Liabilities, Partners B. Certain
Loan, Partners Capital C. Unlimited
B. Partners Capital, outside Liabilities, Partners Loan, D. Fixed
Realisation Expenses
C. Partners Capital, Partners Loan, outside Liabilities,
Realisation Expenses
D. None of the above
Que.35 Reserve fund is distributed among the Que.36 Under Surplus Capital method in Piecemeal
partners in their.......ratio. Distribution, after the repayment of all outsider
liabilities, the.............are to be discharged on pro-rata
A. New
basis.
B. Profit sharing
C. Old A. partners capital
D. Partner B. partners loans
C. partners assets
D. none of the above
Que.37 In piecemeal distribution, first pay Que.38 Single entry systems are maintained by
the.............liabilities.
A. Company
A. Unsecured B. Income tax authorities
B. Preferential C. Government
C. Secured D. Sole trader
D. none of the above
Que.39 Single entry system of book keeping is Que.40 If closing capital is >opening capital, it denotes
A. Simple A. Loss
B. Unauthorized by tax authorities B. Profit
C. Unscientific C. No profit no loss
D. all of these D. Profit, if there is no introduction of fresh capital
Page - 4
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.41 If closing capital is < opening capital, it Que.42 If capital at the end of the year is 40,000:
denotes that capital introduced during the year Rs. 30,000; drawings
20,000 and loss for the year is 60,000; then Capital at
A. Loss
the beginning of the year was:
B. Profit
C. No profit no loss A. 90000
D. Loss, if there is no introduction of fresh capital B. 80000
C. 70000
D. 10000
Que.43 If capital at the end of the year is 50,000: Que.44 Profit = capital at the end + drawings -
capital introduced during the year Rs. 30,000; drawings additional capital - …………..
20,000 and profit for the year is 30,000; then Capital at
A. Opening capital
the beginning of the year
B. Closing capital
A. 10,000 C. Loss
B. 30000 D. None of these
C. 20000
D. 35000
Que.45 What should be added in closing capital for Que.46 When the amount of closing capital (after
calculating opening capital? adjusting drawings ) is less than that of opening capital
the difference will be treated as:-
A. Loss and drawing
B. Profit and drawing A. Loss
C. Profit only B. Profit
D. Loss only C. Additional capital
D. None of them
Que.47 If opening capital is 24,000; closing capital Que.48 A system of accounting which is not based on
40,000; drawing 7,000; fresh capital 8,000. Calculate double entry system is called-
profit or loss.
A. Cash system
A. Profit 15,000 B. Mahajani system of accounting
B. Loss 15,000 C. Incomplete accounting system
C. Profit 20,000 D. None of these.
D. Loss 20,000
Que.49 Accounts which are maintained under single Que.50 Statement of affairs is prepared to-
entry system-
A. Know about assets
A. Personal accounts B. Know about liabilities
B. Impersonal accounts C. Calculate capital
C. (a) & (b) both D. Know financial position.
D. None of these.
Page - 5
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.51 Liabilities and assets amount to Rs. 50,000 and Que.52 Generally incomplete records are maintained
Rs. 78,000 respectively. The difference amount will by-
represent-
A. Trader
A. Creditors B. Society
B. Debentures C. Company
C. Profit D. Government.
D. Capital.
Que.53 Statements of assets & liabilities prepared Que.54 In Single entry mostly:
under single entry system is called:
A. Personal aspects of transaction are recorded
A. Balance sheet B. Nominal aspects of transaction are recorded
B. Profit & loss statement C. Real aspects of transaction are recorded
C. Statement of affairs D. All of the above
D. Income Statement
Que.57 In India GST became effective from Que.58 In India GST came effective from July 1st, 2017
India chosen________ model of dual GST
A. 1st April, 2017
B. 1st January, 2017 A. USA
C. 1st July, 2017 B. UK
D. 1st March, 2017 C. Canadian
D. China
Que.59 GST is a ___________ based tax on Que.60 Indian GST model has________rate structure
consumption of goods and services
A. 3
A. Duration B. 4
B. Destination C. 5
C. Dividend D. 6
D. Development
Page - 6
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Business Regulatory Framework (M.Law)
Que.61 What does "I" stands for in IGST Que.62 How many types of taxes will be in Indian GST
A. International A. 2
B. Intention B. 3
C. Integrated C. 4
D. Intra D. 5
Que.63 What are the taxes lavied on an Intra state Que.64 what is the maximum rate of cgst prescribed
supply under cgst act 2017?
A. CGST A. 0.28
B. SGST B. 0.2
C. CGST & SGST C. 0.12
D. IGST D. 0.18
Que.65 Which of the following tax was abolished by Que.66 The incidence of tax on tax is called
GST?
A. Tax Cascading
A. Corporate Tax B. Tax Pyramiding
B. Income Tax C. Tax evasion
C. Service Tax D. Indirect tax
D. Wealth Tax
Que.67 UTGST is applicable when Que.68 Integrated Goods and Services Tax is
applicable when
A. Sold from Union territory
B. Goods are purchased by Central Government A. Sold in Union territory
C. Sold from one union territory to another union B. Sold from one GST dealer to another GST dealer
territory C. Sold within a state
D. There is interstate supply D. There is interstate supply
Que.69 SGST is applicable when Que.70 When a GST dealer in Kerala sells a product o
a GST dealer or customer in Tamilnadu, the tax
A. Goods are sold within a state
collected is
B. Goods are sold from one GST dealer to a customer
C. Goods are sold by a GST dealer to another GST A. CGST
dealer B. SGST
D. Interstate supply C. CGST & SGST
D. IGST
Page - 7
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01
Answer Keys
Que 1 - Option B Que 2 - Option C Que 3 - Option B Que 4 - Option B Que 5 - Option C
Que 6 - Option B Que 7 - Option C Que 8 - Option B Que 9 - Option C Que 10 - Option D
Que 11 - Option B Que 12 - Option C Que 13 - Option D Que 14 - Option C Que 15 - Option C
Que 16 - Option B Que 17 - Option A Que 18 - Option C Que 19 - Option B Que 20 - Option B
Que 21 - Option A Que 22 - Option D Que 23 - Option B Que 24 - Option A Que 25 - Option A
Que 26 - Option A Que 27 - Option A Que 28 - Option C Que 29 - Option A Que 30 - Option A
Que 31 - Option A Que 32 - Option A Que 33 - Option A Que 34 - Option C Que 35 - Option B
Que 36 - Option B Que 37 - Option B Que 38 - Option D Que 39 - Option D Que 40 - Option D
Que 41 - Option D Que 42 - Option A Que 43 - Option A Que 44 - Option A Que 45 - Option A
Que 46 - Option A Que 47 - Option A Que 48 - Option C Que 49 - Option A Que 50 - Option C
Que 51 - Option D Que 52 - Option A Que 53 - Option C Que 54 - Option A Que 55 - Option B
Que 56 - Option C Que 57 - Option C Que 58 - Option C Que 59 - Option B Que 60 - Option 6
Que 61 - Option C Que 62 - Option B Que 63 - Option C Que 64 - Option B Que 65 - Option C
Que 66 - Option A Que 67 - Option A Que 68 - Option C Que 69 - Option A Que 70 - Option D
Page - 8
VIM101 Name : ______________________________________________________
Marks: 441 Roll No : ______________________________________________________
Duration: 20.0 Minutes Total : ______________________________________________________
Date : ______________________ Signature : ______________________
Q1) The main purpose of Cost Accounting is to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44690
1) assist management in decision making 2) maximise profits and minimise losses
3) comply norms issued by the Government of 4) prepare cost accounts in line with the
India from time to time accounting standards
Explanation:
Q2) SoleTrade Organization Is Also Called As ______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44573
1) Individual Proprietorship. 2) Partnership.
3) Joint Stock Company. 4) CoOperative Society.
Explanation:
Q3) Prereceived income is written on: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44433
1) Liabilities 2) Assets
3) Credit 4) Debit
Explanation:
Q4) Only the significant events which affect the business must be recorded as per the Marks : 1.0
principle of Id: 44702
1) Separate Entity 2) Accrual
3) Materiality 4) Going Concern
Explanation:
Q5) Management accounting is................ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44507
1) Extension of financial accounting 2) Extension of Financial Management
3) Accounting of Management 4) Concerned with the provision of information to
people within the organisation to help them to
make better decisions.
Explanation:
Q6) Which of the following highlights the correct order of the stages in the accounting Marks : 1.0
cycle Id: 38724
1) Journalizing, final accounts, posting to the 2) Journalizing, posting to the ledger, trial
ledger and trial balance balance and final accounts
3) Posting to the ledger, trial balance, final 4) Posting to the ledger, journalizing, final
accounts and journalizing accounts and trial balance
Explanation:
Q7) In accounting an Economic event is referred to as: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44452
1) Exchange of money 2) Transaction
3) Bank statement 4) Cash
Explanation:
Q8) A second hand car is purchased for Rs. 10000 the amount of Rs. 1000 is spent on its Marks : 1.0
repairs Rs 500 is incurred to get the car registered in owner’s name and Rs. 1200 is Id: 44551
paid dealer’s commission. The amount debited to car account will be
1) 10000 2) 10500
3) 11500 4) 12700
Explanation:
Q9) Which of the following statements best describes a limited liability company? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44563
1) It is normally owned and managed by the same 2) It is normally a nonprofit making organization
persons
3) In law it is regarded as having a separate
existence from its owners
4) It is normally owned by just one person
Explanation:
Q10) The opening stock of company is Rs. 40,000 and closing stock is Rs. 50,000. If the Marks : 1.0
purchases during the year are Rs. 2,00,000 the cost of goods sold will be: Id: 44399
1) Rs. 2,10,000 2) Rs. 1,90,000
3) Rs. 2,00,000 4) Rs. 1,80,000
Explanation:
Q11) In which type of expenditure the organization receives return during the same period Marks : 1.0
they paid for? Id: 44569
1) Capital Expenditure 2) Revenue Expenditure
3) Deferred Revenue Expenditure 4) Both (b) and (c)
Explanation:
Q12) A company gave in its balance sheet an foot note a case has been filed for which Marks : 1.0
they may have to pay 10 lakhs as damages. This is called : Id: 44616
1) revenue expenditure 2) capital expenditure
3) contingent liability 4) future liability
Explanation:
Q13) Four Accounts are given : Marks : 1.0
Id: 44400
A) Machinery Account, B) Ram's Account, C) Purchases Account, D) Bank of
Maharashtra's Account.
Which of the given is/are personal Account?
1) Option A ONLY 2) Options A and B
3) Options A, B and C 4) Options B and D
Explanation:
Q14) Management Accounting involves _______for management decision making. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44428
1) preparation of Financial statements 2) Recording of Cost
3) analysis & Interpretation of Data 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q15) Debtors always show which balance Marks : 1.0
Id: 44497
1) Debit 2) Credit
3) Nominal 4) Real
Explanation:
Q16) Which of the following is one of the basic accounting principles? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44642
1) Profit concern 2) Going concern
3) Online concern 4) Own concern
Explanation:
Q17) Accounting standards are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44777
1) Basis for selection of accounting policy. 2) Set of broad accounting policies to be
followed by an entity.
3) Basis for establishing and managing an entity. 4) All of the above.
Explanation:
Q18) Trail balance is_____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44425
1) statement, records all balances of Ledger A/c 2) Records all the transactions
3) A/c, records all balances of Ledger A/c 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q19) What is important object of accounting ? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44432
1) To maintain record 2) Depiction of financial position
3) Make information available to various groups 4) All of three
and users
Explanation:
Q20) 'Business will always go on'' which principle describe this Marks : 1.0
Id: 44448
1) accounting period concept 2) conservatism concept
3) going concern concept 4) consistency principle
Explanation:
Q21) New provision for PBDD is 7000, old provision 3000, old bad debts 2000 amount Marks : 1.0
accounted in P&L A/c is Id: 44430
1) 12000 dr side 2) 12000 cr side
3) 6000 dr side 4) 2000 cr side
Explanation:
Q22) Closing stock was not taken on 31.3.2006 but only on 7.4.2006. Following Marks : 1.0
transactions had taken place during the period from 1.4.2006 to 7.4.2006. Sales Id: 44766
Rs.2,50,000, purchases Rs.1,50,000, stock on 7.4.2006 was Rs.1,80,000 and the rate of
gross profit on sales was 20%. Closing stock on 31.3.2006 will be
1) Rs.3,80,000. 2) Rs.4,00,000.
3) Rs.2,30,000. 4) Rs.1,50,000.
Explanation:
Q23) Which aspect of financial accounting assumes importance because of the limitation Marks : 1.0
of human memory. Id: 44470
1) Classification 2) Recording
3) Summarising 4) Interpretation
Explanation:
Q24) The full disclosure principle, as adopted by the accounting profession, is best Marks : 1.0
described by which of the following? Id: 44447
1) All information related to an entity's business 2) Information about each account balance
and operating objectives is required to be appearing in the financial statements is to be
disclosed in the financial statements. included in the notes to the financial
statements.
3) Enough information should be disclosed in the 4) Disclosure of any financial facts significant
financial statements so a person wishing to enough to influence the judgment of an
invest in the stock of the company can make a informed reader
profitable decision.
Explanation:
Q25) Closing entries are used to transfer the net income or net loss for the accounting Marks : 1.0
period to the ____. Id: 44621
1) Cash in Bank account 2) revenue account
3) expense accounts 4) capital account
Explanation:
Q26) The final accounts of a manufacturing company generally include the following Marks : 1.0
statements : Id: 44697
(i) Balance Sheet
(ii) Manufacturing Account
(iii) Profit and Loss Account
(iv) Trading Account
(v) Profit and Loss Appropriation Account
The correct sequence in which the statements are prepared is :
1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) 2) (ii), (iv), (iii), (v), (i)
3) (v), (ii), (iv), (iii), (i) 4) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii), (v)
Explanation:
Q27) Benefit of revenue expenses extends to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44729
1) 10 Years 2) 5 Years
3) One accounting year 4) As long as the business continues
Explanation:
Q28) Which of the following is an example of business liability? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44561
1) Building 2) Creditors
3) Cash 4) Plant & Machinery
Explanation:
Q29) Identify the correct statement Marks : 1.0
Id: 44645
1) Capital is equal to assets minus liabilities 2) Capital is equal to assets plus liabilities
3) Assets are equal to liabilities minus capital 4) Liabilities is equal to capital plus assets
Explanation:
Q30) The disclosure of all accounting procedures has to be done by company according Marks : 1.0
to which standards Id: 44515
1) AS1 2) AS2
3) AS7 4) AS10
Explanation:
Q31) In the absence of any provision in the partnership agreement, profits and losses are Marks : 1.0
shared Id: 44741
1) In the ratio of capitals. 2) Equally.
3) In the ratio of loans given by them to the 4) None of the above.
partnership firm.
Explanation:
Q32) Real Accounts means _____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44409
1) The accounts of individuals, firms, limited 2) The accounts of properties, assets or
companies, local authorities, associations with professionals of the businessman.
whom the businessman deals.
3) Accounts representing incomes and expenses
or profits and gains.
4) The accounts which relate to things other than
persons.
Explanation:
Q33) Which of the following is not an internal user of management information? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44466
1) Creditor 2) Department manager
3) Controller 4) Treasurer
Explanation:
Q34) Which is the key factor that an entrepreneur should focus on, in ensuring survival of Marks : 1.0
his enterprises? Id: 44667
1) Profits 2) Cash Flow
3) Margin 4) Market Share
Explanation:
Q35) Identify the external user of financial information or financial statements Marks : 1.0
Id: 38723
1) Management 2) CFO
3) Employee 4) investor
Explanation:
Q36) A change in accounting policy is justified Marks : 1.0
Id: 44434
1) To comply with accounting standards 2) To ensure more appropriate presentation of
the financial statement of the enterprise
3) To comply with law 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q37) Suppose revenue is recognised and earned but was not realised in cash, according Marks : 1.0
to accrual concept it will give rise to Id: 44738
1) A liability 2) An asset
3) A expense 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q38) Which of the following best describes the meaning of ‘Purchases’? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44570
1) Goods bought for resale 2) Goods bought on credit
3) Items bought 4) Goods paid for
Explanation:
Q39) Profit / Loss is calculated at the stage of ____ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44733
1) Recording 2) Classifying
3) Interpretation 4) Summarising
Explanation:
Q40) Interest on drawings is: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44583
1) Expenditure for the business 2) Cost for the business
3) Gain for the business 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q41) The term accounts receivable is shown in the balance sheet under: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44694
1) Fixed assets 2) Current assets
3) Current liabilities 4) Miscellaneous expenditure
Explanation:
Q42) Present liability of uncertain amount, which can be measured reliably by using a Marks : 1.0
substantial degree of estimation, is termed as ________ Id: 44747
1) Provision 2) Liability
3) Contingent Liability 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q43) Sales are 300000 gross profit 30% cost of goods sold is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44543
1) 90000 2) 210000
3) 180000 4) 270000
Explanation:
Q44) Which of the following should be considered while selecting and applying Marks : 1.0
accounting policies? Id: 44644
1) Consistency 2) Going concern
3) Substance over form 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q45) Management accounting is applicable to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44480
1) Service entities 2) Manufacturing entities
3) Notforprofit entities 4) All of these
Explanation:
Q46) Which of the below statement is false? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44406
1) Financial accounting data and statements are 2) Management accounting reports and
developed for the definite period. statements are prepared whenever needed.
3) Financial Acconting provides detailed and 4) It is more or less obligatory on the part of
disaggregated information about products, every business concern to adopt financial
individual activities, division or plant. accounting.
Explanation:
Q47) Owners' equity in a business comes from which of the following? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44786
1) Investments in cash by the owners 2) Investments in assets other than cash by the
owners
3) Earnings from profitable operation of the 4) All of the above
business
Explanation:
Q48) Prime Cost Consist of ______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44421
1) All Indirect Exp. 2) Material+Overhead+Exp
3) All Direct Exp(Material+Labour+Exp) 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q49) Profit and loss account would not include? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44796
1) Salaries 2) Drawings.
3) Rent received. 4) Carriage outwards.
Explanation:
Q50) The maximum amount beyond which a company is not allowed to raise funds, by Marks : 1.0
issue of share is Id: 44722
1) Issued Capital 2) Nominal Capital
3) Subscribed Capital 4) Reserve Capital
Explanation:
Q51) Convention of accounting says that Marks : 1.0
Id: 44514
1) All expenses to be accounted when occurred 2) All incomes to be accounted when received
3) All incomes to be accounted when received 4) All expenses accounted if arising during said
period a& all incomes only when received
Explanation:
Q52) How are the following items arranged on the liability side of the Balance Sheet of a Marks : 1.0
Company? Id: 44678
i. Current liability
ii. Unsecured loan
iii. Share capital
iv. Reserves and surplus
v. Secured loan
1) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (v)
3) (iii) (iv) (v) (ii) (i) 4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (v) (i)
Explanation:
Q53) Accounting has certain norms to be observed by the accountants in recording of Marks : 1.0
transactions and preparation of financial statements. These norms reduce the Id: 44753
vagueness and chances of misunderstanding by harmonizing the varied accounting
practices. These norms are
1) Accounting regulations. 2) Accounting guidance notes.
3) Accounting standards. 4) Accounting framework.
Explanation:
Q54) The liability of the partners in a Limited Liability Partnership is ____________. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44811
1) zero 2) proportionate
3) unlimited 4) limited
Explanation:
Q55) Which of the following is a Revenue Expenditure? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44518
1) Construction of Factory shed 2) Sales Tax paid in connection with purchase of
Office Equipment
3) Legal Expenses in connection with defending 4) Installation of new Machinery
a title to firm’s property
Explanation:
Q56) Right shares enjoy preferential rights with regard to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44688
1) Payment of dividend 2) Payment of retained earnings
3) Repayment of capital 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q57) Which of the following is the source of short term finance? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44683
1) Trade credit 2) Short term borrowing
3) Bank credit 4) All of above
Explanation:
Q58) All of the following have debit balance except one. That account is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44619
1) Wages a/c 2) Debtors a/c
3) Bills payable a/c 4) Goodwill
Explanation:
Q59) A Partner In A Firm _______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44439
1) Cannot Transfer His Share To An Outsider. 2) Can Transfer His Share To An Outsider With
The Consent Of Majority Partners.
3) Can Transfer His Share To An Outsider 4) Can Transfer His Share To An Outsider With
Without The Consent Of Any Other Partners. The Consent Of All Other Partners.
Explanation:
Q60) Which of the following is a revenue expenses Marks : 1.0
Id: 44730
1) Raw material consumed 2) Plant purchased
3) Long term loan raised from bank 4) Share Capital
Explanation:
Q61) Financial information should be neutral and bias free" is the dictation of which one of Marks : 1.0
the following? Id: 44632
1) Completeness concept 2) Faithful representation Concept
3) Objectivity Concept 4) Duality Concept
Explanation:
Q62) Accounting is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44526
1) The art of recording, classifying and 2) A systematic and regular record of events
summarizing in a significant manner and in affecting a firm with a view to obtaining a clear
terms of money, transactions and events financial picture.
which are in part at best financial in character
and interpreting thereof.
3) Preparation of various financial statements
over a period of time of firm to measure its
performance in monetary terms.
4)
Nothing but Book keeping.
Explanation:
Q63) A partner who lends only his name to the firm is called as ____________ partner. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44810
1) active 2) nominal
3) slipping 4) minor
Explanation:
Q64) Which of the following is a noncurrent asset? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44684
1) Sundry debtors 2) Goodwill
3) Advance expenses 4) Inventory
Explanation:
Q65) During the lifetime of entity, accountants produce financial statement at arbitrary Marks : 1.0
points in time in accordance with which basic accounting principle? Id: 44506
1) Matching 2) Periodicity
3) Conservatism 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q66) Using "lower of cost and net realisable value" for the purpose of inventory valuation Marks : 1.0
is the implementation of which of the following concept? Id: 38731
1) The going concern concept 2) The separate entity concept
3) The prudence concept 4) Matching concept
Explanation:
Q67) Which of the following branches of accounting provides information that helps Marks : 1.0
planning, control and decision making? Id: 44529
1) Cost Accounting 2) Inflation Accounting
3) Financial Accounting 4) Management Accounting
Explanation:
Q68) Calculate inventory Current ratio is 2.6:1 Liquid ratio is 1.5:1 and Current liabilities Marks : 1.0
40000 Id: 44536
1) 40000 2) 42000
3) 44000 4) 48000
Explanation:
Q69) In double entity book keeping system, every transaction affects at least Marks : 1.0
______account(s). Id: 44762
1) One 2) Two
3) Three 4) Four
Explanation:
Q70) Capital structure designing has nothing to do with: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44682
1) Profitability 2) Solvency
3) Flexibility 4) Transferability
Explanation:
Q71) A businessman who cannot pay his debt is called as _________. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44614
1) Insolvent 2) Solvent
3) Book Debt 4) Bank Debt
Explanation:
Q72) If two or more transactions of the same nature are journalized together having either Marks : 1.0
the debit or the credit account common is known as Id: 44654
1) Compound journal entry 2) Separate journal entry
3) Posting 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q73) Ram and Gopal are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2:1. Gopal gave Marks : 1.0
a loan of Rs.12,000 to the firm. They did not have any specific agreement about Id: 44754
interest on loan mentioned in the partnership deed. Gopal claims interest on loan @
10% p.a. The interest on loan as per rules of Partnership Act, 1932 will be:
1) 840 2) 820
3) 720 4) 960
Explanation:
Q74) Which of the following is not a transaction? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44758
1) Goods are purchased on cash basis for 2) Salaries paid for the month of May, 2006.
Rs.1,000.
3) Land is purchased for Rs.10 lacs.
4) An employee dismissed from the job.
Explanation:
Q75) Mr. XYZ buys clothing of Rs. 50,000 paying cash Rs. 20,000. What is the amount of Marks : 1.0
expense as per the accrual concept? Id: 44776
1) 50000 2) 20000
3) 30000 4) Nil.
Explanation:
Q76) Effective management of liquidity and financial risk in business is known as Marks : 1.0
management Id: 44668
1) Risk 2) Financial
3) Cash 4) Treasury
Explanation:
Q77) A ________ debt is a debt which cannot be recovered. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44578
1) Good 2) Book
3) Recoverable 4) Bad
Explanation:
Q78) Balance Sheet is a Marks : 1.0
Id: 44736
1) Statement showing financial effect of recorded 2) Statement of assets and liabilities on a
transactions particular point of time
3) Is one of the accounting reports 4) Both (b) and (c) above
Explanation:
Q79) Depreciation arises because of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44774
1) Fall in the market value of the asset. 2) Fall in the value of money.
3) Physical wear and tear of the asset. 4) None of the three.
Explanation:
Q80) The accounting measurement that is not consistent with the Going Concern concept Marks : 1.0
is Id: 44708
1) Historical Cost 2) Realization
3) The Transaction Approach 4) Liquidation Value
Explanation:
Q81) A change in accounting policy is justified when Marks : 1.0
Id: 44643
1) To comply with accounting standard 2) To ensure more appropriate presentation of
the financial statement of the enterprise
3) To comply with law 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q82) Match the following: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44528
Accounting Function Branch of Accounting
(1) Preparation of Financial Statements (a) Management Accounting
(2) Determination of Cost of Product (b) Financial Accounting
(3) Making Managerial Decisions (c) Cost Accounting
1) (1) c (2) a (3) b 2) (1) b (2) c (3) a
3) (1) a (2) c (4) b 4) (1) c (2) b (3) a
Explanation:
Q83) Which of the following are correct? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44553
Account to be debited Account to be credited
Bought office wooden table for cash office wooden table cash
Ramesh sold goods on credited to Ram sales cash
Introduce capital by cheque capital Bank
Paid to creditor Sita by cheque Sita Bank
1) (ii) (iii)(i) 2) (iii)(iv)(ii)
3) (i)(iii)(iv) 4) (i)(iv)
Explanation:
Q84) Which of the following is NOT Capital Expenditure? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44401
1) Expenditure incurred to acquire a tangible 2) Expenditure incurred to acquire the right to
asset carry on business
3) Expenses incurred for repairs and 4) Expenditure for the extension of or
maintenance of fixed asset improvement, modification in fixed asset
Explanation:
Q85) Which of the following is correct Marks : 1.0
Id: 44555
1) Assets = Liabilities + Capital 2) Assets = Liabilities Capital
3) Assets = external equities 4) Assets + Liabilities = Capital
Explanation:
Q86) If partnership deed remains silent on interest on partner’s loan, it should be paid @ Marks : 1.0
_____. Id: 44813
1) 0.09 2) 0.06
3) 0.07 4) 0.1
Explanation:
Q87) Which one of the following statement is false: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44806
1) A transaction is concerned with money and 2) Solvent person is a person whose assets are
money’s worth. more than his liabilities.
3) Bookkeeping and accounting is one and the 4) The double entry systems is based on “Dual
same thing. Aspect” concept.
Explanation:
Q88) Economic life of an enterprise is split into the periodic interval as per Marks : 1.0
___________________ concept. Id: 44803
1) Money Measurment 2) Matching
3) Going Concern 4) Accrual
Explanation:
Q89) A balance sheet is useful because Marks : 1.0
Id: 44584
1) Indicates how much finance is required by the 2) Indicates the profitability of the firm
firm.
3) Helps in assessment of financial position of
the firm.
4) Tells about current asset and current liability
Explanation:
Q90) Which of the following activities is NOT an accounting function? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44463
1) Management consultancy 2) Taxation
3) Costing 4) Auditing
Explanation:
Q91) A company sells goods on credit valued at Rs. 2,50,000 to a customer. At what point Marks : 1.0
in the sales cycle should this sale be recognized in the accounts? Id: 44488
1) When the customer’s order is received 2) When the goods are ready for dispatch to the
customer
3) When the goods are sent, accepted and 4) When the customer pays
invoiced
Explanation:
Q92) Management accounting is concerned with Marks : 1.0
Id: 44483
1) Recording of transactions 2) Reporting of costs
3) Preparation of financial statements 4) Analysis and interpretation of data
Explanation:
Q93) In Accounting 'Money measurement Concept' means ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44412
1) A firm or business is regarded as separate & 2) All business transactions are regarded as
distinct from the owner. having a dual aspect.
3) All transactions are recorded in terms of 4) Accounting is made on the assumption that a
money. business will continue in future and will use its
property in operations rather than sell them.
Explanation:
Q94) Opening stock of the year is Rs.20,000, Goods purchased during the year is Marks : 1.0
Rs.1,00,000, Carriage Rs.2,000 and Selling expenses Rs.2,000.Sales during the year is Id: 44765
Rs.1,50,000 and closing stock is Rs.25,000. The gross profit will be
1) 53000 2) 55000
3) 80000 4) 51000
Explanation:
Q95) Planning and forecasting is the functions of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44636
1) Financial accounting 2) Bookkeeping
3) cost accounting 4) Management accounting
Explanation:
Q96) Accounting does not record non financial transactions because of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44711
1) Entity Concept 2) Accrual Concept
3) Cost Concept 4) Money Measurement Concept
Explanation:
Q97) Calculate current liabilities if Current ratio is 2:1 and current assets are 2200000 Marks : 1.0
Id: 44542
1) 1100000 2) 1125000
3) 1175000 4) 1130000
Explanation:
Q98) Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a business is divided Marks : 1.0
for the purpose of preparing financial statements? Id: 44454
1) Fiscal year 2) Accrual period
3) Accounting period 4) Calendar year
Explanation:
Q99) Which of the following shows summary of a company's financial position at a Marks : 1.0
specific date Id: 38727
1) Profit & Loss Account 2) ) Cash Flow Statement
3) Balance Sheet 4) Income & Expenditure Account
Explanation:
Q100) Following is the example of external users Marks : 1.0
Id: 44655
1) Government 2) Owners
3) Management 4) Employees
Explanation:
Q101) The money spent on heavy advertising, whose benefit is continues for 3 years to Marks : 1.0
come, is a ______. Id: 44385
1) Capital Expenditure 2) Revenue Expenditure
3) Deferred revenue expenditure 4) Income
Explanation:
Q102) fundamental accounting equation, Assets = Equities is the formal expression of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44478
1) Dual aspect 2) Matching concept
3) Going concern concept 4) Money measurement concept
Explanation:
Q103) Which of the following characteristics of accounting information primarily allows Marks : 1.0
users of financial statements to generate predictions about an organization Id: 44456
1) Reliability 2) Timeliness
3) Neutrality 4) Relevance
Explanation:
Q104) Which of the below statement is correct? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44393
1) Debtors are liability. 2) Capital is an asset.
3) Goodwill is current asset. 4) Bills payables are liabilities
Explanation:
Q105) The basic concepts related to P & L Account are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44700
1) Realization Concept 2) Matching Concept
3) Cost Concept 4) Both (a) and (b) above
Explanation:
Q106) Accounting concepts are based on Marks : 1.0
Id: 44689
1) Certain assumptions 2) Certain facts and figures
3) Certain accounting records 4) Government guidelines
Explanation:
Q107) Balance sheet is used to ascertain the financial position Marks : 1.0
Id: 44556
1) For a particular period 2) For the accounting period of the firm
3) For a period of one year 4) On a particular date
Explanation:
Q108) Which of the following equation is INCORRECT? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44489
1) Liabilities + Capital = Assets 2) Liabilities + Assets = Capital
3) Assets Liabilities = Capital 4) Assets Capital = Liabilities
Explanation:
Q109) Journal is _____________Books of account is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44419
1) Basic 2) Primary
3) Secondary 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q110) Diya & Co. Is a Marks : 1.0
Id: 44775
1) Personal A/c 2) Real account
3) Nominal account 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q111) Ledger is also called Marks : 1.0
Id: 44572
1) Principle book 2) Subsidiary book
3) Day book 4) Proper book
Explanation:
Q112) If during the accounting period the assets increased by Rs. 10,000, and equity Marks : 1.0
increased by Rs. 2,000, then how did liabilities change? Id: 44795
1) Increased by Rs. 8,000 2) Increased by Rs. 12,000
3) Decreased by Rs. 8,000 4) Decreased by Rs. 12,000
Explanation:
Q113) Features of Partnership firm are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44511
1) Two or more persons carrying common 2) Sharing profit and losses in agreed ratio
business under an agreement
3) Business carried by all or one of them acting
for all
4) All the above
Explanation:
Q114) The information provided in the annual financial statements of an enterprise pertains Marks : 1.0
to Id: 44554
1) industry as a whole 2) Individual organisation
3) Global economy 4) Economy as a whole
Explanation:
Q115) Managerial Accounting Information Marks : 1.0
Id: 44503
1) Relates To The Entity As A Whole And Is 2) Relates To SubUnits Of The Entity And May
Highly Aggregated Be Very Detailed
3) Is Prepared Only Once A Year 4) Is Constrained By The Requirements Of
Generally Accepted Accounting Principles
Explanation:
Q116) Bad debts means ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44416
1) goods unsold lying with a business on any 2) an allowance given on the sales price of
given date. goods.
3) debts which are due by the firm 4) debts which are irrecoverable.
Explanation:
Q117) When an owner credits or debits any amount, he cannot put that transaction in Marks : 1.0
financial account records of organisation. This is known as .............. Id: 44457
1) Money Measurement Concept 2) Cost Concept
3) Business Entity Concept 4) Conservatism
Explanation:
Q118) Standard Gross Profit ratio is between Marks : 1.0
Id: 44597
1) 10% to 20% 2) 15% to 25%
3) 30% to 40% 4) 20% to 30%
Explanation:
Q119) If current ratio is less than 1 it can be definitely said that Marks : 1.0
Id: 44605
1) Net working capital is negative 2) Net working capital is positive
3) Inventories are in adequate 4) Cash in hand is inadequate
Explanation:
Q120) During the life time of an entity, accountants produce financial statements at Marks : 1.0
arbitrary points in time in accordance with which basic accounting principle Id: 44450
1) Conservatism 2) Going Concern
3) Materiality 4) Periodicity
Explanation:
Q121) A business transaction that involves a purchase on account is considered to be a(n) Marks : 1.0
____. Id: 44622
1) cash transaction 2) credit transaction
3) investment by the owner 4) expense transaction
Explanation:
Q122) As production increases, fixed cost per unit _____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44387
1) Decreases 2) Increases
3) We can’t tell 4) Do not change
Explanation:
Q123) Management accounting provides invaluable services to management in performing Marks : 1.0
……….. Id: 44505
1) All Management functions 2) Controlling functions
3) Interpret the financial data 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q124) Which of following is/are problems in Financial statement analysis Marks : 1.0
Id: 44604
1) Window dressing 2) Price level changes l
3) Interpretation of results 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q125) If the profit sharing ratio of partners is not given than partner share profit Marks : 1.0
Id: 44618
1) As per capital ratio 2) equally
3) as per work load 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q126) Who are the customers of cost and management accounting? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44675
1) Managers 2) Creditors
3) Lenders 4) Consumers
Explanation:
Q127) Loss on issue of debenture is treated as Marks : 1.0
Id: 44657
1) Intangible Asset 2) Current Asset
3) Current Liability 4) Miscellaneous Expenditure
Explanation:
Q128) Which of the following is not a concept of financial accounting Marks : 1.0
Id: 44451
1) Single aspect concept 2) Accrual concept
3) Going concern concept 4) Separate entity concept
Explanation:
Q129) Management accounting does not encompass Marks : 1.0
Id: 44467
1) Calculating product cost 2) Calculating earnings per share
3) Determining cost behavior 4) Profit planning
Explanation:
Q130) How are the following items arranged on the asset side of the Balance Sheet of a Marks : 1.0
Company? Id: 44679
i. Profit and loss A/c
ii. Miscellaneous expenditure
iii. Fixed assets
iv. Current assets, loans and advances
v. Investments
1) (iii) (v) (iv) (i) (ii) 2) (iii) (iv) (v) (i) (ii)
3) (iii) (i) (ii) (v) (iv) 4) (iii) (v) (iv) (ii) (i)
Explanation:
Q131) ____________principle requires that the same accounting method should be used Marks : 1.0
from one accounting period to the next. Id: 44761
1) Conservatism. 2) Consistency.
3) Business entity. 4) Money measurement.
Explanation:
Q132) which of the following should be deducted in balance sheet of a company from the Marks : 1.0
share capital to find out paid up capital Id: 44562
1) calls in advance 2) calls in arreas
3) share forfeiture 4) discount on issue of shares
Explanation:
Q133) Which of the following is a capital expenditure? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44685
1) Wages paid for production of goods in the 2) Wages paid for installation of machinery
works
3) None of the above
4) Both of the above
Explanation:
Q134) The basic accounting principle/concept according to which business record must be Marks : 1.0
kept separate from the personal records of the owner is known as: Id: 44512
1) Goingconcern concept 2) Separate Business entity
3) Realization Concept 4) Conservatism
Explanation:
Q135) When benefit of a revenue expense extend beyond an accounting year, it is called Marks : 1.0
Id: 44721
1) Revenue Expenditure 2) Capital expenditure
3) Deferred Revenue Expenditure 4) Recurring profit
Explanation:
Q136) All the Incomes and Expensees of revenue nature are credited or debited to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44664
1) Trading A/c 2) Profit & Loss A/c
3) Balance Sheet 4) Either (a) or (b)
Explanation:
Q137) Bank overdraft is shown as Marks : 1.0
Id: 44509
1) Current Liability 2) Current asset
3) Unsecured loan 4) Purchases
Explanation:
Q138) Net Profit Ratio Signifies Marks : 1.0
Id: 44568
1) Operational Profitability 2) Liquidity Position
3) Bigterm Solvency 4) Profit for Lenders.
Explanation:
Q139) Accounting principles must satisfy following condition Marks : 1.0
Id: 44640
1) Reflect future predictions 2) Simple and explanatory
3) Based on real assumptions 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q140) The entity of a business is different from its owners Assumption is from Marks : 1.0
Id: 44649
1) Business entity Assumption 2) Going concern Assumption
3) Accounting period Assumption 4) Money Measurement Assumption
Explanation:
Q141) Transactions between owner and business are recorded as per Marks : 1.0
Id: 44756
1) Periodicity. 2) Going concern.
3) Prudence 4) Business Entity.
Explanation:
Q142) If you only knew a company’s total assets and total debt, which item could you easily Marks : 1.0
calculate? Id: 44565
1) Sales 2) Depreciation
3) Total equity 4) Inventory
Explanation:
Q143) The amount or goods taken by the proprietor for his personal use is called Marks : 1.0
Id: 44580
1) Additional capital 2) Fresh capital
3) Drawings 4) Personal expenses
Explanation:
Q144) The convention that states that the accounting practice should be followed Marks : 1.0
consistently over the years Id: 44720
1) Consistency 2) Conservation
3) Materiality 4) Disclosure
Explanation:
Q145) A business has prepared its accounts for a financial year and these show a profit of Marks : 1.0
Rs. 5,00,000. What profit amount will be after considering the following items which Id: 44429
are not included in the account?
• A likely loss on a contract of Rs. 25,000
• A possible Court ruling in favour of the company which is likely to increase profits
by Rs.10,000
• A possible Court ruling against the company which could result in damages of
between Rs.5,000 to Rs.15,000.
1) Rs. 4,80,000 2) Rs. 4,60,000
3) Rs. 4,75,000 4) Rs. 5,10,000
Explanation:
Q146) Calculate total assets if total sales 270000 and assets turn over is 0.30 times Marks : 1.0
Id: 44538
1) 700000 2) 800000
3) 900000 4) 1000000
Explanation:
Q147) Under which of the following concepts are shareholders treated as creditors for the Marks : 1.0
amount they paid on the shares they subscribed to? Id: 44706
1) Cost Concept 2) Duality Concept
3) Business Entity Concept 4) Since the shareholders own the business, they
are not treated as creditors
Explanation:
Q148) If debentures are issued at a discount of 20%, the discount on issue of debentures is Marks : 1.0
shown as: Id: 44732
1) Current asset 2) Interest asset
3) Current liabilities 4) Miscellaneous expenses
Explanation:
Q149) The companies act 1956 requires that the period of at least ________month must be Marks : 1.0
there between two calls Id: 44547
1) Three 2) One
3) Two 4) Five
Explanation:
Q150) Accounting Principles represent Marks : 1.0
Id: 44524
1) A consensus at a particular time to the 2) Inviolable laws fixed by a legal board
recording of accounting transactions
3) Laws fixed by accounting expert
4) Laws fixed by the respective governments
Explanation:
Q151) Business Entity assumption is applicable to ________ type of business enterprise Marks : 1.0
Id: 44477
1) Selected 2) Unique
3) Every 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q152) Which of the following is not an objective of accounting Marks : 1.0
Id: 44587
1) To provide information on the performance of 2) To provide information on the owner’s assets,
enterprise. liabilities and capital
3) To provide information on the enterprise, 4) To maintain records of business.
assets, liabilities and capital
Explanation:
Q153) The item “Interest accrued on Investment” appears in the Balance Sheet of a Marks : 1.0
Company under the category of ____________ Id: 44544
1) Secured Loan 2) Current assets, loans and advances
3) Investments 4) Current liabilities
Explanation:
Q154) Bank A/c is an Example of_____ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44424
1) Ledger 2) Balance Sheet
3) Jounal 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q155) Calculate Current assets : Current ratio is 2.6:1 , Current Liabilities 40000 Marks : 1.0
Id: 44534
1) 104000 2) 140000
3) 114000 4) 124000
Explanation:
Q156) Stock of Rs.12,500 was destroyed by fire occurred on 31st December, 2008 in the Marks : 1.0
godown of X Ltd.. Insurance company accepted Rs.9,500 in full settlement of claim. Id: 44784
The loss on account of fire is recorded by:
1) Debiting Profit and loss account for Rs. 12,500. 2) Crediting the trading account for Rs. 12,500.
3) Debiting Profit and loss account for Rs. 3,000. 4) Both (b) and (c)
Explanation:
Q157) Creditors for goods purchased come within the category of ______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44402
1) Current liability 2) Fixed liability
3) Capital 4) Current asset
Explanation:
Q158) Long term solvency is indicated by Marks : 1.0
Id: 44574
1) Liquidity ratio 2) DebtEquity ratio
3) Interest coverage ratio 4) Return on capital employed
Explanation:
Q159) College fees of owners son paid and accounted in books, 10000, then Marks : 1.0
Id: 44499
1) profit increased by 10000 2) profits decreased by 10000
3) profits decreased by 10000 and capital 4) profits increased by 10000 and capital
increased by 10000 decreased by 10000
Explanation:
Q160) Outstanding salaries are shown as: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44626
1) Added to Salaries while preparing P & La/c 2) Shown in liability side of Balance sheet under
current Liability
3) (a) &(b) above 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q161) Which of the following statements about differences between financial and Marks : 1.0
managerial accounting is incorrect? Id: 44446
1) Managerial accounting information is prepared 2) Financial accounting is aggregated;
primarily for external parties such as managerial accounting is focused on products
stockholders and creditors; financial and departments.
accounting is directed at internal users.
3) Managerial accounting pertains to both past
and future items; financial accounting focuses
primarily on past transactions and events.
4) Financial accounting is based on generally
accepted accounting practices; managerial
accounting faces no similar constraining
factors
Explanation:
Q162) The allocation of owner's private expenses to his/her business violates which of the Marks : 1.0
following? Id: 44635
1) Accrual concept 2) Matching concept
3) Separate business entity concept 4) Consistency concept
Explanation:
Q163) Discount on issue of debentures is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44656
1) Revenue Loss to be charged in the year of 2) Capital loss to be written off from capital
issue reserve
3) Capital loss to be written off over the tenure of 4) Capital loss to be shown as goodwill
the debentures
Explanation:
Q164) The asset that can be seen and touched is ____________ asset. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44613
1) Intangible 2) Tangible
3) Business 4) Current
Explanation:
Q165) From following find out sales : Gross profit margin is 20% gross profit 54000 Marks : 1.0
Id: 44537
1) 250000 2) 260000
3) 270000 4) 280000
Explanation:
Q166) The Amount which the firm has to pay others is known as Marks : 1.0
Id: 44650
1) Assets 2) Liabilities
3) Capital 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q167) Which of the following is not an objective of Financial Accounting? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44405
1) To identify financial events and transactions 2) To ensure the effecient cost control by
that occur in an organization. communicating essential data costs at regular
intervals.
3) To measure the value of the occurrences in 4) To organize the accumulated data into
terms of money. meaningful information.
Explanation:
Q168) Loss by fire A/c is classified as _________________ A/c. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44804
1) real 2) nominal
3) personal 4) current
Explanation:
Q169) Journal book is written in which order Marks : 1.0
Id: 44496
1) Chronological order 2) As per accountant
3) As per amount 4) As per owners instructions
Explanation:
Q170) The purchase of a desk on account will increase Office Furniture and will also Marks : 1.0
increase ____. Id: 44623
1) Cash in Bank 2) Accounts Payable
3) Accounts Receivable 4) Capital
Explanation:
Q171) The capital gearing ratio is high for a company.It indicates a position of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44545
1) Low debts 2) high preference capital
3) high equity 4) low debt equity ratio
Explanation:
Q172) The whole process of classifying, summarizing, analyzing and interpreting the Marks : 1.0
results of business transaction is known as Id: 44476
1) Accounting 2) Determination
3) Recording 4) Coding
Explanation:
Q173) In Accounting 'Going Concern Concept' means ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44413
1) A firm or business is regarded as separate & 2) All business transactions are regarded as
distinct from the owner. having a dual aspect.
3) All transactions are recorded in terms of 4) Accounting is made on the assumption that a
money. business will continue in future and will use its
property in operations rather than sell them.
Explanation:
Q174) In financial accounting classification of recorded facts, with entries of one nature at Marks : 1.0
one place is done in the book called Id: 44532
1) Trial Balance 2) Journal
3) Income statement 4) Ledger
Explanation:
Q175) Whenever errors are noticed in the accounting records, they should be rectified Marks : 1.0
Id: 44750
1) At the time of preparation of the trial balance. 2) Without waiting the accounting year to end.
3) After the preparation of final accounts. 4) In the next accounting year.
Explanation:
Q176) Global Depository Receipt is an instrument for: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44672
1) Foreign direct investment 2) Public bonds
3) Foreign institutional investment 4) All of above
Explanation:
Q177) The Financial Statement reveals the following data Marks : 1.0
Id: 44420
1) Important 2) Valuable
3) Financial 4) No of these
Explanation:
Q178) If cost of goods sold is Rs.1,00,000, sales is Rs.1,25,000, closing stock is Rs.20,000, Marks : 1.0
the gross profit will be Id: 44769
1) 45000 2) 5000
3) 25000 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q179) Capital means ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44415
1) all the properties, possessions and debits 2) expenditure whose benefit has been received.
owing to a business house.
3) total amount invested in the business by the
proprietor.
4) a person who owes something.
Explanation:
Q180) Cost refer to........ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44608
1) The present value of future benefits 2) All assets which has given benefit and is now
expired
3) The value of sacrifice made to get some goods 4) All the above
or services
Explanation:
Q181) Personal Accounts means _____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44407
1) The accounts of individuals, firms, limited 2) The accounts of properties, assets or
companies, local authorities, associations with professionals of the businessman.
whom the businessman deals.
3) Accounts representing incomes and expenses
or profits and gains.
4) The accounts which relate to things other than
persons.
Explanation:
Q182) Cost Accounting is different from financial accounting in respect of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44492
1) Inventory valuation 2) Ascertainment of cost
3) Recording of cost 4) Reporting of cost
Explanation:
Q183) What is more important for every business to achieve at the earliest? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44676
1) Budgeted Sales 2) Profits
3) Break Even Point 4) Market Share
Explanation:
Q184) The areas where in different accounting policies can be adopted are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44437
1) Providing depreciation 2) Valuation of inventories
3) Valuation of investment 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q185) Calculate liquid assets Liquid Ratio is 1.5:1 Current liabilities 40000 Marks : 1.0
Id: 44535
1) 50000 2) 60000
3) 70000 4) 80000
Explanation:
Q186) Goods or amount taken by proprietor for his personal use should be debited to: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44461
1) Sales 2) Drawings
3) Purchase 4) d) Cash
Explanation:
Q187) Which of the following is an example of Capital Expenditure? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44714
1) Insurance Premium 2) Taxes and Legal expenses
3) Discount allowed 4) Customs duty on Import of Machinery
Explanation:
Q188) ''Business will always go on'' which principle describe this Marks : 1.0
Id: 38725
1) accounting period concept 2) conservatism concept
3) going concern concept 4) consistency principle
Explanation:
Q189) The document used by account holder to deposit cash/cheque in to bank is called Marks : 1.0
Id: 44460
1) Receipt 2) Voucher
3) Payinslip 4) Withdrawal slip
Explanation:
Q190) Which accounting is concerned with the collecting, recording, classification and Marks : 1.0
interpretation of financial data to serve the purpose of management. Id: 44469
1) Cost accounting. 2) Management accounting.
3) Financial accounting…… 4) Business accounting.
Explanation:
Q191) Basic assumption in accounting principles is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44501
1) Prudence 2) consistency
3) materiality 4) ongoing concern
Explanation:
Q192) Which of the following is not a conventions of financial accounting? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44493
1) Consistency 2) NonMateriality
3) Full Disclosure 4) Conservatism
Explanation:
Q193) Current Ratio is ratio of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44602
1) Current assets to total assets 2) Current Liabilities to total liabilities
3) Current assets to Current Liabilities 4) Current assets to Fixed assets
Explanation:
Q194) Goods costing Rs. 10,000 is supplied to Ram at an invoice price of 10% above cost Marks : 1.0
and a trade discount of 5%. The amount of sales is Id: 44772
1) 11000 2) 10450
3) 10500 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q195) Management accounting information Marks : 1.0
Id: 44465
1) Relates to the entity as a whole and is highly 2) Relates to subunits of the entity and may be
aggregated very detailed
3) Is prepared only once a year 4) is constrained by the requirements of
generally accepted accounting principles
Explanation:
Q196) Which account will be debited, if Mohsin commenced business with cash? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44389
1) Cash account 2) Capital account
3) Mohsin’s account 4) Drawings account
Explanation:
Q197) Office equipment was purchased for cash. What effect did this transaction have on Marks : 1.0
the financial position of the company? Id: 44788
1) Assets, no change; Liabilities, no change; 2) Assets, decrease; Liabilities, increase;
Owners' Equity, no change Owners' Equity, no change
3) Assets, increase; Liabilities, increase; Owners' 4) Assets, no change; Liabilities, no change;
Equity, no change Owners' Equity, increase
Explanation:
Q198) Overdraft is short term finance to: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44674
1) Pay income, excise and VAT 2) Repay term loan
3) Purchase capital equipments 4) Meet circulating capital requirements
Explanation:
Q199) Which type of expenditure is done for making assets? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44571
1) Revenue Expenditure 2) Deferred Revenue Expenditure
3) Capital Expenditure 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q200) Which phrase best describes the current role of the managerial accountant? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44728
1) Managerial accountants prepare the financial 2) Managerial accountants facilitate the decision
statements for an organization. making process within an organization.
3) Managerial accountants make the key 4) Managerial accountants are primarily
decisions within an organization. information collectors.
Explanation:
Q201) Financial accounting provides financial information to all of the following external Marks : 1.0
users except: Id: 44453
1) Managers 2) Government agencies
3) Creditors 4) investors
Explanation:
Q202) The Term ‘Cost’ is refer as _________ incurred to produce particular Product. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44418
1) Value 2) Expenses
3) Price 4) All of these
Explanation:
Q203) Which of the following is not an Accounting concept? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44696
1) Matching concept 2) Dual Aspect concept
3) True and Fair concept 4) Going concern concept
Explanation:
Q204) Capital expenditure is an expenditure which Marks : 1.0
Id: 44718
1) Benefits the current accounting period 2) Will benefit the next accounting period
3) Results in the acquisition of a permanent asset 4) Results in the acquisition of a current asset
Explanation:
Q205) Creating Provision against fluctuation in the price of investment is an example of Marks : 1.0
which accounting convention Id: 44523
1) Convention of conservatism 2) Convention of full disclosure
3) Convention of materiality 4) Convention of consistency
Explanation:
Q206) Debit side is greater than credit side in trading account then it is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44550
1) Loss 2) Profit
3) Balanced 4) None
Explanation:
Q207) “Inventories should be out of godown in the sequence in which they arrive” is based Marks : 1.0
on Id: 44764
1) HIFO 2) LIFO
3) FIFO 4) Weighted Average
Explanation:
Q208) How do we calculate a company’s operating cash flow? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44567
1) EBIT taxes + depreciation 2) EBIT taxes depreciation
3) EBIT + taxes + depreciation 4) EBIT Sales
Explanation:
Q209) The amount of owner's equity in a business is not affected by: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44785
1) The percentage of total assets held in cash. 2) Investments made in the business by the
owner.
3) The profitability of the business. 4) The amount of dividends paid to stockholders.
Explanation:
Q210) ignore all profit and consider for all possible losses it is a philosophy of which Marks : 1.0
convention : Id: 44455
1) conservatism 2) consisteny
3) full disclosure 4) materiality
Explanation:
Q211) The reporting standard for external financial reports is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44598
1) Industryspecific 2) Companyspecific
3) Generally accepted accounting principles 4) Departmentspecific
Explanation:
Q212) Statements: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44695
i) Dividends can be paid only when there are profits
ii) Dividends can be paid when there are losses
1) Both are correct 2) Both are incorrect
3) (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect 4) (ii) is correct and (i) is incorrect
Explanation:
Q213) A business owned by its stockholders and organized as a legal entity separate from Marks : 1.0
its stockholders is referred to as an: Id: 44600
1) partnership. 2) corporation.
3) proprietorship. 4) entrepreneurship.
Explanation:
Q214) Dividend is paid as a percentage of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44658
1) Nominal Share Capital 2) Net Profit
3) Paid up Capital 4) Called up Capital
Explanation:
Q215) Small scale industry is defined in terms of: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44673
1) Volume by production 2) Number of employees
3) Amount of investment in plant and machinery 4) Sales turnover
Explanation:
Q216) Objective of cost accounting is........... Marks : 1.0
Id: 44508
1) To keep the management fully informed about 2) To summarise the financial performance of the
the latest position of concern business for external stakeholders
3) To create a common internal global language 4) To ascertain the profitability of the activities by
in decision making controlling the cost
Explanation:
Q217) Outstanding expense term in accounting comes primarily because of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44639
1) Periodicity 2) Matching
3) Accrual 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q218) Divya purchased a computer costing Rs.10,000. Repairing expenses Rs.1,000 and Marks : 1.0
miscellaneous expenses Rs.500 were incurred by her. She sold the computer at 20% Id: 44755
margin on selling price. The sales value will be
1) 12500 2) 11000
3) 14375 4) 13800
Explanation:
Q219) Business unit is separate and distinct from the person who supply capital to it. It is Marks : 1.0
based on Id: 44662
1) Money Measurement Concept 2) Going Concern Concept
3) Business Entity Concept 4) Dual Aspect Concept
Explanation:
Q220) Which of the following best describe the Conservatism convention? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44458
1) Assets to be reported at the highest possible 2) Profits to be reported at the highest possible
values values
3) Liabilities and expenses are to be reported at 4) All anticipated losses to be reported even
the lowest possible value before they occur
Explanation:
Q221) Which accounting principle differentiates between owners and managers: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44681
1) Going concern 2) Dual aspect
3) Separate entity 4) Conservatism
Explanation:
Q222) In financial accounting, a record is made only of information that can be expressed in Marks : 1.0
monetary terms. This is known as: Id: 44629
1) Historic cost convention 2) Business entity convention
3) Dualaspect concept 4) Money measurement convention
Explanation:
Q223) Book Keeping Includes Marks : 1.0
Id: 44641
1) Recording and Classifying 2) Recording and Summarizing
3) Recording and Analysis 4) None of the above is wholly correct
Explanation:
Q224) Sole traders differ from other types of trading organizations. Which of the following Marks : 1.0
statements correctly summarizes the key characteristics of a sole trader’s business? Id: 44530
1) Liability is limited to the providers of loan 2) The trader has unlimited liability and runs the
finance and only the trader takes an active part business in conjunction with the providers of
in managing the business loan finance
3) The trader has unlimited liability and must 4) The trader has unlimited liability, takes sole
have the business accounts audited responsibility for management of the business
and no audit is needed
Explanation:
Q225) The interest on capital is ____________ of the partnership firm. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44812
1) an income 2) gain
3) an expenditure 4) an asset
Explanation:
Q226) Journal is a book of _______ entries Marks : 1.0
Id: 44560
1) Generic 2) Duplicate
3) Original 4) Secondary
Explanation:
Q227) It is essential to standardize the accounting principles and policies in order to ensure Marks : 1.0
Id: 44435
1) Transparency 2) Consistency
3) Comparability 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q228) A business is in profit, when: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44557
1) Assets exceed Expenditure 2) Income exceeds Expenditure
3) Income exceeds Liabilities 4) Income exceeds Liabilities
Explanation:
Q229) The expenses and incomes pertaining to full trading period are taken to the Profit Marks : 1.0
and Loss Account of a business, irrespective of their payment or receipt. This is in Id: 44713
recognition of
1) Time period Concept 2) Going Concern Concept
3) Accrual Concept 4) Duality Concept
Explanation:
Q230) Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a business is divided Marks : 1.0
for the purpose of preparing financial statements? Id: 44631
1) Fiscal year 2) Calendar year
3) Accounting period 4) Accrual period
Explanation:
Q231) The underlying accounting principle(s) necessitating amortization of intangible Marks : 1.0
asset(s) is/are Id: 44705
1) Cost Concept 2) Realization Concept
3) Matching Concept 4) Both (a) and (c) above
Explanation:
Q232) Matching concept means Marks : 1.0
Id: 44444
1) assets = capital –liabilities 2) Assets = Liabilities
3) period of expenses = period of income 4) source of income & expenses are same
Explanation:
Q233) The accounting equation is....... Marks : 1.0
Id: 44472
1) Net income = Net expenses – Net revenues 2) Assets = Capital – Liabilties
3) Assets = Liabilities + Capital 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q234) Which of the following combination is CORRECT for Partnership Firm? (Minimum Marks : 1.0
and Maximum members) Id: 44596
1) Minimum 2 and Maximum 50 for nonbanking 2) Minimum 2 and Maximum 20 for all types of
business business
3) Minimum 2 and Maximum 20 for banking 4) Minimum 2 and Maximum 10 for banking
business business
Explanation:
Q235) Is it true that the trial balance totals should agree? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44591
1) No, there are sometimes good reasons why 2) No, because it is not a balance sheet
they differ
3) Yes, always
4) Yes, except where the trial balance is extracted
at the year end
Explanation:
Q236) Which of the following is not an accounting convention? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44794
1) Substance over form 2) Consistency
3) Depreciation 4) Matching
Explanation:
Q237) Which of the following are of capital nature? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44742
1) Purchase of a goods 2) Cost of repair
3) Wages paid for installation of machinery 4) Rent of a factory
Explanation:
Q238) Writing of transaction in the ledger is called________________ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44752
1) Costing 2) Balancing
3) Journalizing 4) Posting
Explanation:
Q239) A new firm commenced business on 1st January, 2006 and purchased goods costing Marks : 1.0
Rs. 90,000 during the year. A sum of Rs. 6,000 was spent on carriage inwards. At the Id: 44660
end of the year the cost of goods still unsold was Rs. 12,000. Sales during the year
was Rs.1,20,000. What is the gross profit earned by the firm?
1) 36000 2) 30000
3) 42000 4) 38000
Explanation:
Q240) “Assets should be valued at the price paid to acquire them“ is based on Marks : 1.0
Id: 44436
1) Accrual concept 2) Cost concept
3) Money measurement concept 4) Realization concept
Explanation:
Q241) Which of the following is taken into account while totaling the liabilities side of the Marks : 1.0
balance sheet? Id: 44546
1) Authorized Capital 2) Issued Capital
3) Subscribed Share Capital 4) Paidup capital
Explanation:
Q242) The accounting principle which refers to tendency of accountants to resolve Marks : 1.0
uncertainty and doubt in favour of understanding assets and revenues and Id: 44441
overstating the liabilities and expenses is known as
1) Conservatism 2) Materiality
3) Consistency 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q243) All the following statements are objectives of accounting except Marks : 1.0
Id: 44759
1) Providing details about the personal assets 2) Maintaining records of business.
and liabilities of the owner.
3) Providing information about the performance
of business entity.
4) Providing information about the assets,
liabilities and capital of business entity.
Explanation:
Q244) Owners and the business are separate as per the Marks : 1.0
Id: 38728
1) Seperate entity concept 2) Dual Aspect
3) Money measurement concept 4) None
Explanation:
Q245) State the case where the going concern concept is applied? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44663
1) When an enterprise was set up for a particular 2) When a receiver or liquidator has been
purpose, which has been achieved, or to be appointed in case of as a company which is to
achieved shortly be liquidated
3) Fixed assets are acquired for use in the 4) When an enterprise is declared sick
business for earning revenues and are not
meant for resale
Explanation:
Q246) Holding all other things constant, which of the following represents a cash outflow? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44566
1) The company sells a machine 2) The company acquires inventory
3) The company receives a bank loan 4) The company increases accounts payable.
Explanation:
Q247) Which of the following records is not a book of prime entry? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44799
1) Bank statements 2) Petty cash book
3) Journal 4) Sales returns day book.
Explanation:
Q248) Concept of similar accounts being treated similarly year after year is due to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44513
1) Prudence 2) consistency
3) materiality 4) on going concern
Explanation:
Q249) Following is the external user of accounting information Marks : 1.0
Id: 44482
1) Manager 2) Creditor
3) Employee 4) Owner
Explanation:
Q250) The convention of consistency refers to consistent use of accounting principles: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44801
1) Within industries 2) Throughout the accounting period
3) Among enterprises belonging to different 4) Across accounting periods
industries
Explanation:
Q251) Payment of personal expenses of the owners of the business need to be recorded as Marks : 1.0
Id: 44760
1) Drawings 2) Liability
3) Expenses 4) None of the three.
Explanation:
Q252) Below are 4 statements: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44403
A) Vehicle used for business purpose is an asset of business,
B) Cash withdrew for personal use is drawings from business,
C) Bad debts should be deducted from debtors,
D) Interest received is expenditure.
Which of the above statements are true?
1) Statement A ONLY 2) Statements A and B
3) Statements A, B and C 4) Statements A and C
Explanation:
Q253) In Double Entry System of Bookkeeping every business transaction affects Marks : 1.0
Id: 44653
1) Two accounts 2) Two sides of the same account
3) The same account on two different dates 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q254) Three fundamental accounting assumptions are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44638
1) Going concern, accrual and dual aspect 2) Going concern, dual aspect and consistency
3) consistency, dual aspect and going concern 4) Consistency, accrual and going concern
Explanation:
Q255) While finalizing the current year’s profit, the company realized that there was an error Marks : 1.0
in the valuation of closing stock of the previous year. In the previous year, closing Id: 44740
stock was valued more by Rs.50,000. As a result
1) Previous year’s profit is overstated and 2) Previous year’s profit is understated and
current year’s profit is also overstated current year’s profit is overstated
3) Previous year’s profit is understated and 4) Previous year’s profit is overstated and
current year’s profit is also understated current year’s profit is understated
Explanation:
Q256) Which of the following does not appear under the head “Share Capital”of a Balance Marks : 1.0
Sheet. a.Preference Share Capital b.Minority interest in subsidiaries c.Equity Share Id: 44552
Capital d.Capital Reserve Account
1) a&b 2) b&c
3) c&d 4) b&d
Explanation:
Q257) Which one of the following is not an example of Intangible Assets? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44633
1) Patents and Trade Marks 2) Copyright
3) Slogan 4) Land
Explanation:
Q258) Which of the following financial statements reflects the overall financial position of Marks : 1.0
the business? Id: 44599
1) Statement of cash flows 2) Income Statement
3) Balance Sheet 4) Statement of owner’s equity
Explanation:
Q259) In Accounting 'Dual aspect Concept' means ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44411
1) A firm or business is regarded as separate & 2) All business transactions are regarded as
distinct from the owner. having a dual aspect.
3) All transactions are recorded in terms of 4) Accounting is made on the assumption that a
money. business will continue in future and will use its
property in operations rather than sell them.
Explanation:
Q260) A company has received a penalty order from excise department. Penalty imposed is Marks : 1.0
Rs. 15.00 Lacs. Order was received on 15.01.2008 and company has filed appeal on Id: 44782
10.02.2008, result of which is pending as on 31.03.2008. The company should
1) Disclose the fact in financial statements by 2) Not disclose anything
recognizing liability
3) Disclose it as contingent liability
4) Should put this matter in Board of directors
meeting
Explanation:
Q261) Salary has been paid for 11 months from April 2005 to February, 2006 amounting Marks : 1.0
Rs.22,000. The amount of outstanding salary shown in the balance sheet will be: Id: 44770
1) 1833 2) 2000
3) 1000 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q262) Every entry recorded in Journal, must be posted into Marks : 1.0
Id: 38729
1) Day Book 2) Cash Book
3) Ledger 4) Sales Books
Explanation:
Q263) After preparing the trial balance, the accountant finds that the total of a credit side is Marks : 1.0
short by RS 1500. This difference will be Id: 44549
1) Credited to suspense a/c 2) Debited to suspense a/c
3) Adjusted to any of the debit balance account 4) Adjusted to any of the credit balance account
Explanation:
Q264) Which of the following transactions represent an expense? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44431
1) The owner withdrew Rs. 1,600 from the 2) Purchased a photocopying machine for Rs.
business for personal use 2,750 cash
3) Purchased medical supplies for cash from 4) Received a telephone bill amounting to Rs. 550
Healthcare Labs. Rs. 1,630 to be paid within ten days.
Explanation:
Q265) In Accounting 'Business entity Concept' means ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44410
1) A firm or business is regarded as separate & 2) All business transactions are regarded as
distinct from the owner. having a dual aspect.
3) All transactions are recorded in terms of 4) Accounting is made on the assumption that a
money. business will continue in future and will use its
property in operations rather than sell them.
Explanation:
Q266) A business was commenced on 1st January and it purchased 5 vehicles, each Marks : 1.0
costing Rs.5000. During the year the business managed to sell 2 vehicles at the price Id: 38732
of Rs.12000. How should the remaining 3 vehicles be valued if the business is going
to continue its operations in the next year?
1) At the breakup value 2) On the basis of going concern
3) Liquidation value 4) More than market value
Explanation:
Q267) Purchases book records: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44739
1) All cash purchases. 2) All credit purchases.
3) Credit purchases of goods in trade. 4) None of the above.
Explanation:
Q268) An old furniture was purchased for Rs. 10,000 , it was repaired for Rs. 100.The repairs Marks : 1.0
account should be debited by Id: 44773
1) 10000 2) 10100
3) 100 4) NIL
Explanation:
Q269) While putting the value or price of an entity in financial records the lowest price is Marks : 1.0
recorded not the current price or current market value. This is known as........... Id: 44487
1) Business Entity Concept 2) Conservatism Concept
3) Cost Concept 4) Money Measurement Concept
Explanation:
Q270) The financial statement that reports the financial position of a business is the Marks : 1.0
Id: 44624
1) income statement. 2) balance sheet.
3) statement of cash flows. 4) footnotes to the financial statements.
Explanation:
Q271) Following is the example of external users: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44749
1) Government. 2) Owners.
3) Management. 4) Employees.
Explanation:
Q272) Retained earnings is classified as a part of — Marks : 1.0
Id: 44723
1) Owners Fund 2) Gross Block
3) Capital Working Progress 4) Stock in Trade
Explanation:
Q273) Which of the following statement is true regarding call in arrears? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44615
1) Calls in arrears are that part of called up 2) It is shown in theProfit & Loss A/c until the
capital remaining unpaid. defaulted shares are forfeited
3) The rate of interest on calls in arrears is 4) Charging of interest on calls in arrears need
chargeable at 9% p.a. if a company adopts not be permitted by the Articles of Association
Table A
Explanation:
Q274) Sold goods to Kamat for Rs. 50000 @ 2% TD & 5% CD. He paid 60% of the amount Marks : 1.0
immediately. Find the amount of cash paid by Kamat. Id: 44661
1) ` 26950 2) ` 27930
3) ` 29400 4) ` 28812
Explanation:
Q275) In financial statements of a company, Material Supplier preferably looks for....... Marks : 1.0
Id: 44595
1) Profitability of our company 2) Liquidity position of our company
3) Long Term Viability of our company 4) Fixed Asset base of our company
Explanation:
Q276) X Ltd., purchased goods for ` 5 lakh and sold 9/10th of the value of goods for ` 6 lakh. Marks : 1.0
Net expenses during the year were ` 25, 000. The company reported its net profit as ` Id: 44710
75,000. Which of the following concept is violated by the company?
1) Realization 2) Conservation
3) Matching 4) Accrual
Explanation:
Q277) The term depletion is used for Marks : 1.0
Id: 44767
1) Fixed assets. 2) Natural resources.
3) Intangible assets. 4) None of the three.
Explanation:
Q278) The market for long term loanable funds is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44692
1) Bond market 2) Money market
3) Capital market 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q279) If Assets = Rs. 98,500 and Owner's equity = Rs. 50,500 then Liabilities = ? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44590
1) 57000 2) 105700
3) 48000 4) Rs. 148, 500
Explanation:
Q280) Rent paid for owner's residence is debited to drawing account and not to rent Marks : 1.0
account , is based on which principle? Id: 44494
1) Going concern concept 2) Separate Entity concept
3) Money Measurement concept 4) Daul aspect concept
Explanation:
Q281) Calculate inventory if Cost of goods sold is 216000 and inventory turn over is 4 times Marks : 1.0
Id: 44539
1) 50000 2) 54000
3) 60000 4) 64000
Explanation:
Q282) Material Cost can be classify on the basis of Relationship as______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44427
1) Fixed & Variable 2) Direct & Indirect
3) Raw Material & WIP 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q283) “Assets should be valued at the price paid to acquire them” is based on Marks : 1.0
Id: 44763
1) Accrual concept. 2) Cost concept.
3) Money measurement concept. 4) Realisation concept.
Explanation:
Q284) Sales accounts appears on ______ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44394
1) Trading account debit side 2) P&L account credit side
3) Balancesheet asset side 4) Trading account credit side
Explanation:
Q285) Which of the following concept is not considered as basic principle of accounting? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44715
1) Logical Concept 2) Consistency Concept
3) Matching Concept 4) Materiality Concept
Explanation:
Q286) Calculate Fixed assets is 2600000 and fixed to current assets is 13:11 Marks : 1.0
Id: 44541
1) 2000000 2) 2200000
3) 2800000 4) 3000000
Explanation:
Q287) Low assets turnover may indicate Marks : 1.0
Id: 44577
1) Low assets 2) High cost of maintenance
3) Idle assets 4) Higher sales
Explanation:
Q288) Current ratio indicates Marks : 1.0
Id: 44606
1) amount of cash with company 2) Ability to repay debt installment
3) Capacity to meet current Liabilities 4) Non of above
Explanation:
Q289) From the accounting point of view, loss means Marks : 1.0
Id: 44719
1) Increase in Liability 2) Decrease in asset
3) Increase in owner’s equity 4) Decrease in Owner’s equity
Explanation:
Q290) The account Accounts Receivable is an example of a(n) ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44521
1) asset 2) liability
3) owner's equity 4) none of the above
Explanation:
Q291) External liabilities plus capital is equal to ______________. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44809
1) assets 2) net worth
3) net profit 4) gross profit
Explanation:
Q292) Which of the following is not a function of Cost Accounting ? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44724
1) Cost ascertainment 2) Planning and control
3) Decisionmaking 4) External reporting
Explanation:
Q293) A list of assets, liabilities and owner's equity of a business enterprise as of a specific Marks : 1.0
date is: Id: 44781
1) Income Statement 2) Cash Flow Statement
3) Balance sheet. 4) Profit and Loss Account
Explanation:
Q294) Sunk costs are: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44620
1) usually relevant 2) costs that will occur in the future.
3) not relevant. 4) costs that can be avoided.
Explanation:
Q295) Cost information facilitates many important decisions except : Marks : 1.0
Id: 44726
1) Introduction of a product 2) Whether to make or buy
3) Retention of profit 4) Exploration of an additional market
Explanation:
Q296) Which of the following statements is false? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44731
1) Issued capital can never be more than 2) In case of under subscription, issued capital
authorized capital will be less than the subscribed capital
3) Uncalled capital may be converted into reserve 4) Paid up capital is equal to called up capital
capital less calls in arrears
Explanation:
Q297) Reporting on the performance of the firm to essential external users is done through Marks : 1.0
which type of accounting: Id: 44485
1) Managerial accounting 2) Financial accounting
3) Internal accounting 4) Cost accounting
Explanation:
Q298) A bank that offers wide range of financial services including commercial and Marks : 1.0
investment banking is termed as Id: 44669
1) Universal Bank 2) Unit Bank
3) Multinational Bank 4) Merchant Bank
Explanation:
Q299) Depreciation of Fixed Assets is an example of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44665
1) Deferred Revenue Expenditure 2) Revenue Expenditure
3) Capital Expenditure 4) Capital Receipts
Explanation:
Q300) All the following statements are objective of accounting except Marks : 1.0
Id: 44517
1) Providing information about the assets, 2) Maintaining records of business
liabilities and capital of business entity
3) Providing information about the performance
of business entity
4) Providing details about the personal assets
and liability of the owner
Explanation:
Q301) Which of the following term is used to represent the proportionate relationship Marks : 1.0
between debt and equity ? Id: 44698
1) Cost of Capital 2) Capital Budgeting
3) Assets Structure 4) Capital Structure
Explanation:
Q302) In Bookkeeping only ____________ transactions are recorded. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44611
1) Monetary 2) Nonmonetary
3) Monetary & Nonmonetary 4) Private
Explanation:
Q303) Provision for bad debt is made as per the Marks : 1.0
Id: 44712
1) Entity Concept 2) Conservatism Concept
3) Cost Concept 4) Going Concern Concept
Explanation:
Q304) Accounting is defined as? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44474
1) An art of recording, classifying and 2) A systematic and regular record of events
summarizing in a significant manner and in clear financial picture
terms of money, transactions and events
which are in part at least, of a financial
character and interpreting the results thereof. 3) A method of ascertaining profits & loss
4) Noting but book keeping
Explanation:
Q305) The bonds that are issued at heavy discount and pay no interest but are redeemable Marks : 1.0
at par at future date are Id: 44670
1) Convertible debentures 2) Green bonds
3) Zero Coupon Bonds 4) Govt. Security Bonds
Explanation:
Q306) Maximum __________ persons are required to form a partnership having trading Marks : 1.0
business. Id: 44815
1) 15 2) 8
3) 12 4) 20
Explanation:
Q307) Management Accounting seeks to serve the purpose of management to run a Marks : 1.0
business more efficiently and thus uses the techniques of : Id: 44725
1) Financial Accounting 2) Cost Accounting
3) Mathematics and Statistics 4) All of the above
Explanation:
Q308) According to which of the following accounting principles, the owners of the Marks : 1.0
business are considered as creditors? Id: 44691
1) Money measurement 2) Separate Entity
3) Dual Aspect 4) Cost
Explanation:
Q309) A business's assets are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44625
1) equal to liabilities minus stockholders' equity. 2) the economic resources of the business.
3) Reported at current cost. 4) Reported on the income statement.
Explanation:
Q310) Which of the following transactions would increase Cash and cash equivalents and Marks : 1.0
increase Noncurrent liabilities? Id: 44628
1) A bank loan 2) Payment to a supplier
3) Purchasing goods on credit 4) Payment from a customer
Explanation:
Q311) Credit purchases entered in cash book it is called which error Marks : 1.0
Id: 44500
1) errors of omission 2) error of commission
3) compensation error 4) error of principle
Explanation:
Q312) comes in is to be debited, what goes out is to be credited. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44525
1) Rules of Personal 2) Rules of Real
3) Rules of Nominal 4) All of these
Explanation:
Q313) Managerial accounting information is generally prepared for Marks : 1.0
Id: 44473
1) Shareholders 2) Creditors
3) Regulatory agencies 4) Management
Explanation:
Q314) Financial Accounting ends with Marks : 1.0
Id: 44735
1) Preparation of Financial Statements 2) Preparation of Trial Balance
3) Preparation of P& L A/c 4) Preparation of Balance Sheet
Explanation:
Q315) Which one of the following qualities of useful accounting information requires such Marks : 1.0
information to (1) be capable of influencing a decision, (2) be timely, and (3) have Id: 44737
predictive and/or feedback value?
1) Understandable 2) Relevant
3) Reliable 4) Verifiable
Explanation:
Q316) Outstanding salary account is: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44768
1) Real account 2) Personal account
3) Nominal account 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q317) Sales are equal to: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44527
1) Cost of goods sold + gross profit 2) Cost of goods sold gross profit
3) Gross profit Cost of goods sold 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q318) Withdrawals by proprietor would Marks : 1.0
Id: 44717
1) Reduce both Assets and Owner’s Equity 2) Reduce Assets and increase Liabilities
3) Reduce Owner’s Equity and increase 4) Have no affect on the Balance Sheet
Liabilities
Explanation:
Q319) What are the considerations in designing the capital structure of a company Marks : 1.0
Id: 44677
1) Trading on equity 2) Cost of capital
3) Profitability 4) All of above
Explanation:
Q320) Which of the following would NOT be a goal of external users reading a company’s Marks : 1.0
financial statement? Id: 44396
1) Understanding the current financial state of 2) Assessing the company's contribution to
the company social and environmental policies
3) Predicting the company's future financial 4) Evaluating the company's ability to generate
performance cash from sales
Explanation:
Q321) Which of the following is not an asset ? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44609
1) Land and Building 2) Sundry Debtors
3) Loan from Shri Kulkarni 4) Cash balance
Explanation:
Q322) Accounting means recording of _________________ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44647
1) Transactions 2) Events
3) Both (a) and (b) 4) Neither (a) nor (b)
Explanation:
Q323) Bank overdraft is shown as a Marks : 1.0
Id: 44586
1) Current liability 2) Fixed asset
3) Contingent liability 4) Current asset
Explanation:
Q324) Which of the following is not an example of intangible assets? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44588
1) Patents 2) Plant & Machinery
3) Franchise rights 4) Goodwill
Explanation:
Q325) The charging of depreciation expense over the life of an asset rather than the Marks : 1.0
immediate full expensing of its costs is an example of: Id: 44800
1) Reliability 2) Consistency
3) Prudence 4) Matching
Explanation:
Q326) Accounting means_________ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44417
1) Summarizing the Business transactions 2) Recording of business transactions.
3) identifying& Communicating economic 4) All of these
information
Explanation:
Q327) Normally, the following accounts are balanced Marks : 1.0
Id: 44440
1) Real a/c and nominal a/c 2) Personal a/c and real a/c
3) Only nominal a/c 4) All a/c
Explanation:
Q328) If Cost of goods sold is Rs.80,700, Opening stock Rs.5,800 and Closing stock Marks : 1.0
Rs.6,000. Then the amount of purchase will be Id: 44743
1) 80500 2) 74900
3) 74700 4) 80900
Explanation:
Q329) The financial statement that shows the financial position of an enterprise at a Marks : 1.0
particular point in time is the: Id: 44630
1) Explanatory notes to the financial statements 2) Statement of changes in equity
3) Balance sheet 4) Cash flow statement
Explanation:
Q330) On 31st march while closing accounts COGS=35000, closing stock 8000/, opening Marks : 1.0
stock 10000/ purchase returns 5000/ then cost of goods purchased is Id: 44498
1) 35000 2) 38000
3) 5000 4) 27000
Explanation:
Q331) The functions planning and forecasting are attributed to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44481
1) Cost Accounting 2) Financial Accounting
3) Management Accounting 4) Book Keeping
Explanation:
Q332) Outstanding salaries are shown as _____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44392
1) An expense 2) A liability
3) An asset 4) An income
Explanation:
Q333) Accounting Starts where Marks : 1.0
Id: 44648
1) Book keeping ends 2) Business ends
3) Accounting period ends 4) None of above
Explanation:
Q334) If a business suffers a loss, the _________ of the proprietor decreases. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44612
1) Profit 2) Drawings
3) Capital 4) Expenditure
Explanation:
Q335) If the Going Concern concept is no longer valid, which of the following is true? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44704
1) All prepaid assets would be completely 2) Total contributed Capital and Retained
writtenoff immediately Earnings would remain unchanged
3) Intangible Assets would continue to be carried 4) Land held as an Investment would be valued at
at net Amortized historical cost its realizable value
Explanation:
Q336) Which of the following is a noncurrent liability? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44780
1) Bills Payable 2) Sundry Creditors
3) Bank Overdraft 4) Long term Loans
Explanation:
Q337) A company forfeited 2,000 shares of Rs.10 each (which were issued at par) held by Marks : 1.0
Mr. John for nonpayment of allotment money of Rs.4 per share. The calledup value Id: 44745
per share was Rs.9. They were reissued as fully paid to Mr. Mathews for Rs. 7. What
is the profit on reissue of shares to the company?
1) 2000 2) 4000
3) 6000 4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q338) Accounting records Marks : 1.0
Id: 44471
1) Qualitative aspects of business 2) Economic aspects of business
3) Financial aspects of business 4) Quantitative aspects of business
Explanation:
Q339) For assessing future market value of company it is best to depend on Marks : 1.0
Id: 44607
1) turn over ratios 2) Earning ratios
3) profitability ratios 4) Liquidity ratios
Explanation:
Q340) The rent paid to the landlord should be debited to _____________ A/c. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44808
1) rent 2) drawings
3) cash 4) land
Explanation:
Q341) Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of financial accounting Marks : 1.0
in a limited liability company? Id: 44531
1) To assist in the daytoday management of the 2) To enable the business to pay the correct
company amount of tax
3) To ensure that the business pays the correct 4) To help the directors discharge their
dividend obligations to the shareholders
Explanation:
Q342) At the end of the accounting period the provision is made for the amount outstanding Marks : 1.0
for the electricity that has been consumed during the said period the statement is Id: 44445
based on
1) accrual concept 2) matching
3) realization 4) money measurement
Explanation:
Q343) The accounting equation can be expressed as which of the following? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44787
1) Assets plus liabilities equal owners' equity 2) Assets plus owners' equity equals liabilities
3) Assets equal liabilities plus owners' equity 4) Either A or C
Explanation:
Q344) Which financial statement can be compared to a still photograph: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44693
1) Income statement 2) Balance sheet
3) Cash flow statement 4) Fund flow statement
Explanation:
Q345) The separate entity concept is applicable to which of following types of businesses? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44484
1) Partnership 2) Sole proprietorship
3) Corporation 4) All the above
Explanation:
Q346) Overstating ending inventory will understate: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44798
1) assets. 2) cost of goods sold.
3) net income. 4) owner's equity.
Explanation:
Q347) According to schedule VI Companies Act which item is not shown on Asset side of Marks : 1.0
Balance sheet Id: 44627
1) Investment 2) Current Loan & Advances
3) Provision 4) Lease Holds
Explanation:
Q348) What is the order in which the accounting transactions and events are recorded in Marks : 1.0
the books? Id: 44778
1) Journal, Subsidiary books, Ledger, Balance 2) Ledger, Journal, Ledger, Balance sheet , Profit
sheet , Profit and loss account. and loss account
3) Journal, Ledger, Profit and loss account, 4) Profit and loss account, Ledger, Balance
Balance sheet . sheet, Journal.
Explanation:
Q349) Management Accounting Reports Can Be Described As Marks : 1.0
Id: 44504
1) GeneralPurpose 2) MacroReports
3) SpecialPurpose 4) Classified Financial Statements
Explanation:
Q350) Double entry bookkeeping was fathered by: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44502
1) F.W.Taylor 2) Henry Fayol
3) Lucas Pacioli. 4) Peter Drucker
Explanation:
Q351) A very high current ratio indicates Marks : 1.0
Id: 44548
1) High efficiency 2) flabby inventory
3) position of more short term funds 4) B or C
Explanation:
Q352) For which step of accounting process the accountants of business entity prepare Marks : 1.0
financial statements? Id: 44533
1) Identification of economic event 2) Communication of financial information
3) Recording financial information 4) Making decisions about business
Explanation:
Q353) A expense that gives benefit for a period of less than twelve months is known as Marks : 1.0
Id: 44589
1) Capital Expense 2) Deferred Expense
3) Revenue Receipt 4) Revenue Expense
Explanation:
Q354) Which of the following is false regarding the balance sheet? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44734
1) The accounts shown on a balance sheet does 2) The retained earnings balance shown on the
not represent the basic accounting equation balance sheet must agree with the ending
for a particular business entity. retained earnings balance shown on the
statement of retained earnings.
3) The balance sheet reports the changes in 4) The balance sheet reports the amount of
specific account balances over a period of assets, liabilities, and stockholders’ equity of
time. an accounting entity at a point in time.
Explanation:
Q355) Wages paid for installation of machinery should be debited to: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44462
1) Wages 2) Machinery
3) Cash 4) Installatio
Explanation:
Q356) When units produce increase, total variable costs ______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44386
1) Increase in proportion of units produced 2) Increase at a greater rate than units produced
3) Increase at a lesser rate than units produced 4) Do not change
Explanation:
Q357) Rs.5,000 was spent by Mrs. Saroj for addition to machinery in order to increase the Marks : 1.0
production capacity. The amount is: Id: 44771
1) Capital in nature. 2) Deferred revenue in nature.
3) Revenue in nature. 4) Liability in nature.
Explanation:
Q358) The main focus of managerial accounting is: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44520
1) decision making. 2) the preparation of financial statements.
3) the preparation of budgets. 4) documenting cash flows.
Explanation:
Q359) Management accounting involves Marks : 1.0
Id: 44443
1) Recording of costs 2) Recording of transactions
3) Preparation of financial statement 4) Analysis and interpretation of data
Explanation:
Q360) Accounting has certain norms to be observed by the accountants in recording of Marks : 1.0
transactions and preparation of financial statements. These norms reduce the Id: 44666
vagueness and chances of misunderstanding by harmonizing the varied accounting
practices. These norms are
1) Accounting Regulations 2) Accounting Guidance Notes
3) Accounting Standards 4) Accounting Framework
Explanation:
Q361) If the realized collection period is more than term of trade it can be said that Marks : 1.0
Id: 44576
1) Collection job is poor 2) The quality of debtor is poor
3) Average daily sales are low 4) both A& B above
Explanation:
Q362) In cost sheet Carriage outward cost relates with______ Marks : 1.0
Id: 44423
1) Selling &Distribution 2) Prime Cost
3) direct Material cost 4) Factory Cost
Explanation:
Q363) Which of the following concepts assumes that a business will last indefinitely? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44716
1) Business Entity 2) Going Concern
3) Periodicity 4) Consistency
Explanation:
Q364) The short term solvency ratio is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44779
1) Current Ratio 2) Proprietory Ratio
3) Net Profit Ratio 4) Debtors Turnvover Ratio
Explanation:
Q365) Conservatism principle says Marks : 1.0
Id: 38726
1) Anticipate losses not profit 2) Anticipate profit
3) Anticipate profit and losses 4) None
Explanation:
Q366) Calculate debtors if credit sales are 216000 and debtors turn over is 18 Marks : 1.0
Id: 44540
1) 12000 2) 15000
3) 18000 4) 20000
Explanation:
Q367) Under which form of business are the owners directly responsible for the debts of Marks : 1.0
the business? Id: 44792
1) Sole proprietorship 2) Partnership
3) A and B 4) Corporation
Explanation:
Q368) The assumption that the business enterprise would not be sold or liquidated in the Marks : 1.0
near future is known as the Id: 44449
1) Conservatism 2) Materiality
3) Going concern 4) Matching
Explanation:
Q369) Financial statements for external users can be described as Marks : 1.0
Id: 44468
1) Userspecific 2) Generalpurpose
3) Specialpurpose 4) Specialpurpose
Explanation:
Q370) As per the Double entry concept Marks : 1.0
Id: 44701
1) Assets+ Liabilities = Capital 2) Capital = Assets – Liabilities
3) Capital – Liabilities = Assets 4) Capital + Assets = Liabilities
Explanation:
Q371) A land purchased at a price of Rs. 5,00,000 has a market value of Rs 10,00,000. While Marks : 1.0
recording in the books of accounts it is shown at the purchase price of Rs 5,00,000 Id: 44495
This is the application of which principle?
1) Separate entity concept 2) Historical cost concept
3) Principle of conservatism 4) Materiality concept
Explanation:
Q372) Fundamental accounting assumptions are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44637
1) Materiality 2) Business entity
3) Going concern 4) Dual aspect
Explanation:
Q373) Assets Less Liabilities = ___________. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44579
1) Drawings 2) Capital
3) Profit 4) Loss
Explanation:
Q374) Which account is the odd one out? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44652
1) Office Furniture & Equipment 2) Freehold Land and Buildings
3) Stock of raw materials 4) Plant and Machinery
Explanation:
Q375) Purchases of raw materials for cash results in Marks : 1.0
Id: 44651
1) No change in Current Assets 2) Increase in Assets
3) Decrease in capital 4) Decrease in Liabilities
Explanation:
Q376) A second hand car is purchased for Rs. 10,000, the amount of Rs. 1,000 is spent on Marks : 1.0
its repairs, Rs. 500 is incurred to get the car registered in owner’s name and Rs. 1,200 Id: 44744
is paid as dealer’s commission. The amount debited to car account will be
1) 10000 2) 10500
3) 11500 4) 12700
Explanation:
Q377) A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, plus long Marks : 1.0
distance charges, would be classified as a: Id: 44479
1) Variable cost 2) Committed fixed cost
3) Direct cost 4) Semi variable cost
Explanation:
Q378) Management accounting information is generally prepared for Marks : 1.0
Id: 44464
1) Shareholders 2) Creditors
3) Managers 4) Regulatory agencies
Explanation:
Q379) Which of the following is a liability Marks : 1.0
Id: 44610
1) Motor Vehicles 2) Machinery
3) Creditors for goods 4) Cash at Bank
Explanation:
Q380) Drawings A/c is classified as __________________ A/c. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44807
1) Real 2) Nominal
3) Personal 4) Impersonal
Explanation:
Q381) The basic concepts related to Balance Sheet are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44699
1) Cost Concept 2) Business Entity Concept
3) Accounting Period Concept 4) Both (a) and (b) above
Explanation:
Q382) When money is withdrawn from bank, the bank: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44783
1) Credits Customer’s Account 2) Credit and debit Customers Account
3) Debits Customers Account 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q383) Revenue from sale of products, is generally, realized in the period in which Marks : 1.0
Id: 44746
1) Cash is collected. 2) Sale is made.
3) Products are manufactured. 4) None of the above.
Explanation:
Q384) Which is the non monetory transaction? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44414
1) Payment of wages of Rs.500 to a worker. 2) Ramesh gives his cycle to his friend Suresh
for a single day use.
3) Ramesh gives his cycle to his friend Suresh on 4) Shankar gives his bullock to gopal in
hire basis for a day. exchange of horse.
Explanation:
Q385) The company collected an account receivable of Rs.4,200. What effect did this Marks : 1.0
transaction have on the financial position of the company? Id: 44791
1) Assets, no change; Liabilities, no change; 2) Assets, decrease; Liabilities, increase;
Owners' Equity, no change Owners' Equity, no change
3) Assets, increase; Liabilities, increase; Owners' 4) Assets, decrease; Liabilities, no change;
Equity, no change Owners' Equity, decrease
Explanation:
Q386) If sales are Rs. 2,000 and the rate of gross profit on cost of goods sold is 25%, then Marks : 1.0
the cost of goods sold will be Id: 44748
1) 2000 2) 1500
3) 1600 4) None of the above.
Explanation:
Q387) What will be debited, if Arun commenced business with cash? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44559
1) Capital account 2) Proprietor account
3) Cash account 4) Drawings account
Explanation:
Q388) Periodical ascertainment of profit helps in judging the______ of a business unit. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44581
1) Profit 2) Capability
3) Performance 4) Accuracy
Explanation:
Q389) Which of the following is not the financial statement Marks : 1.0
Id: 44510
1) Profit & Loss account 2) Trial Balance
3) Profit & Loss appropriation account 4) Balance sheet
Explanation:
Q390) Sweat equity shares are equity shares issued by a company to its ____________. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44814
1) debtors 2) creditors
3) employees 4) lenders
Explanation:
Q391) Cost = Material+_______+Expenses Marks : 1.0
Id: 44422
1) Overhead 2) Direct Exp
3) Labour 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q392) The immediate recognition of loss is supported by the concept/convention of Marks : 1.0
Id: 44805
1) materiality 2) objective
3) consistency 4) conservatism
Explanation:
Q393) Which of the following regarding retained earnings is false? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44398
1) Retained earnings is increased by net income 2) Retained earnings is a component of
stockholders' equity on the balance sheet
3) Retained earnings is an asset on the balance 4) Retained earnings represents earnings not
sheet distributed to stockholders in the form of
dividends
Explanation:
Q394) As a gesture of goodwill, office supplies of Rs.1,000 were sold to a neighboring Marks : 1.0
business that paid cash for the supplies. What effect did this transaction have on the Id: 44790
financial position of the company?
1) Assets, no change; Liabilities, no change; 2) Assets, decrease; Liabilities, increase;
Owners' Equity, no change Owners' Equity, no change
3) Assets, increase; Liabilities, increase; Owners' 4) Assets, decrease; Liabilities, no change;
Equity, no change Owners' Equity, decrease
Explanation:
Q395) A company at the start of a financial period had a provision for doubtful debts of Marks : 1.0
Rs.7,000. By the end of the year the provision for doubtful debts was Rs.5,000. The Id: 44397
relevant entry in the profit and loss account would be:
1) Profit decreases by Rs. 2,000 2) Profit decreases by Rs. 5,000
3) Profit decreases by Rs. 12,000 4) Profit increases by Rs. 2,000
Explanation:
Q396) Omission of paise and showing the round figures in financial statements is based on Marks : 1.0
Id: 44709
1) Conservatism Concept 2) Consistency Concept
3) Materiality Concept 4) Realization Concept
Explanation:
Q397) Accounting has certain norms to be observed by the accountant in recording of Marks : 1.0
transaction and preparation of financial statement. These norms reduce the Id: 44438
vagueness and chance of misunderstanding the varied accounting practices. These
norms are
1) Accounting standards 2) Accounting frame work
3) Accounting regulation 4) Accounting guidance notes
Explanation:
Q398) Sales are equal to _____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44391
1) Cost of goods sold + Profit 2) Cost of goods sold Gross Profit
3) Gross Profit – Cost of goods sold 4) Gross profit – net profit
Explanation:
Q399) Which of the following have some similarities? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44486
1) Financial Accounting & Management 2) Cost Accounting and Management Accounting
Accounting
3) Financial Accounting & Cost Accounting
4) None of the above
Explanation:
Q400) The long term solvency position are measured by Marks : 1.0
Id: 44601
1) Coverage Ratio 2) Earning Ratio
3) Structural Ratios 4) Both A&C
Explanation:
Q401) Which of the following should NOT be called ‘Sales’? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44593
1) Goods sold for cash 2) Goods sold on credit
3) Sale of item previously included in ‘Purchases’ 4) Office fixtures sold
Explanation:
Q402) What is the minimum number of partners required to commence a partnership Marks : 1.0
business? Id: 44558
1) 20 2) 4
3) 10 4) 2
Explanation:
Q403) Statements: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44687
i. Agency theory relates to the relationship between management and employees
ii. Agency theory relates to middlemen
1) Both are correct 2) Both are incorrect
3) (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect 4) (ii) is correct and (i) is incorrect
Explanation:
Q404) Furniture for a cloth dealer is a ______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44390
1) Wasting Asset 2) Current Asset
3) Current Liability 4) Fixed Asset
Explanation:
Q405) The information provided in the annual financial statements of an enterprise pertain Marks : 1.0
to Id: 44757
1) Business Industry. 2) Individual business entity.
3) Economy. 4) None of the three.
Explanation:
Q406) Mr. A purchased a machinery costing `1,00,000 on 1st October, 2005. Transportation Marks : 1.0
and installation charges were incurred amounting `10,000 and ` 4,000 respectively. Id: 44659
Market value of the machine was estimated at ` 1,20,000 on 31st March 2006. While
finalising the annual accounts, A values the machinery at ` 1,20,000 in his books.
Which of the following concepts was violated by A?
1) Historical Cost Concept 2) Matching Concept
3) Realization Concept 4) Periodicity Concept
Explanation:
Q407) Four accounts are given below: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44404
A) Sales Account, B) Interest Account, C) Rent Account, D) Furniture Account.
Which of the above is/ are NOT nominal accounts?
1) Option D ONLY 2) Option A ONLY
3) Options A, B and C 4) Options A and C
Explanation:
Q408) Prepaid expenses are ______. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44395
1) Assets of business 2) Liabilities of business
3) Expenses of business 4) Earnings for business
Explanation:
Q409) Which of the following is not a subfield of accounting? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44516
1) Management accounting 2) Cost accounting
3) Financial accounting 4) Book keeping
Explanation:
Q410) A person sells goods to another on credit basis then he becomes what for business: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44459
1) Creditor 2) Debtor
3) Both of above 4) None of above
Explanation:
Q411) All the expenditures and receipts of revenue nature go to Marks : 1.0
Id: 44751
1) Trading account. 2) Profit and loss account.
3) Balance sheet. 4) Either to (a) or (b)
Explanation:
Q412) The main purpose of cost accounting is to : Marks : 1.0
Id: 44727
1) Maximize profits 2) Help in inventory valuation
3) Provide information to management for 4) Aid in the fixation of selling price
decision making
Explanation:
Q413) __________ is the art of recording, classifying and summarizing the transactions and Marks : 1.0
events of a business and interpreting the results thereof. Id: 44388
1) Management 2) Accounting
3) Auditing 4) Bookkeeping
Explanation:
Q414) Which of the following is a source of own long term finance? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44686
1) Share capital 2) Term loan
3) Debentures 4) Bank credit
Explanation:
Q415) P & L Account is prepared for a period of one year by following Marks : 1.0
Id: 44703
1) Consistency Concept 2) Conservatism Concept
3) Accounting Period Concept 4) Cost Concept
Explanation:
Q416) Which of the following is an example of current asset Marks : 1.0
Id: 44585
1) Long term loan 2) Accounts payable
3) Land and building 4) Accounts receivable
Explanation:
Q417) Which of the following practices is not in consonance with the convention of Marks : 1.0
conservatism? Id: 44707
1) Creating Provision for Bad debts 2) Creating Provision for Discount on Creditors
3) Creating Provision for Discount on Debtors 4) Creating Provision for tax
Explanation:
Q418) Office equipment was purchased by issuing a check for Rs.5,000 and a bills payable Marks : 1.0
for the balance of Rs.45,000. What effect did this transaction have on the financial Id: 44789
position of the company?
1) Assets, no change; Liabilities, no change; 2) Assets, decrease; Liabilities, increase;
Owners' Equity, no change Owners' Equity, no change
3) Assets, increase; Liabilities, increase; Owners' 4) Assets, decrease; Liabilities, no change;
Equity, no change Owners' Equity, decrease
Explanation:
Q419) Notes to the financial statements about law suits, pledged assets, contractual Marks : 1.0
commitments, and due dates on large liabilities that help the users interpret the Id: 44793
financial statements are required under an important generally accepted accounting
principle (GAAP) known as which of the following?
1) Window dressing 2) Disclosure
3) Goingconcern 4) Cost
Explanation:
Q420) The going concern concept assumes that Marks : 1.0
Id: 44634
1) The entity continue running for foreseeable 2) The entity continue running until the end of
future accounting period
3) The entity will close its operating in 10 years 4) The entity can't be liquidated
Explanation:
Q421) Management Accounting is Marks : 1.0
Id: 44491
1) Extension of Financial Accounting 2) Extension of Financial Management
3) Accounting for Management 4) Concerned with the provision of information to
people within the organization to help them to
make better decisions
Explanation:
Q422) In financial accounting _______ is prepared for the calculation of business income Marks : 1.0
Id: 44582
1) Trading A/C 2) Balance sheet
3) Profit & Loss A/C 4) Fund flow statement
Explanation:
Q423) Match the following: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44680
1) Matching principle i. Ignores future profit estimates
2) Materiality principle ii. Normal basis for valuing assets
3) Conservatism principle iii. Revenues and expenses of a particular period
4) Cost principle iv. Relates to relative size or importance of item or event
1) [ 1 – i], [2 – ii], [3 – iii], [4 – iv] 2) [1 ii ], [2 i], [3 iv], [4 iii]
3) [1 iv ], [2 i], [3 ii], [4 iii ] 4) [1 iii], [2 iv], [3 i], [4 ii]
Explanation:
Q424) Management accounting and cost accounting are.... Marks : 1.0
Id: 44442
1) Supplementary to each other 2) Complementary to each other
3) Dependent of each other 4) Opposite of each other
Explanation:
Q425) Prepaid insurance premium should be classified as a : Marks : 1.0
Id: 44519
1) Current asset. 2) Fictitious asset.
3) Noncurrent asset. 4) None of the above.
Explanation:
Q426) Which of the following is a perfect Accounting Process? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44490
1) Identification of Transaction – Preparation of 2) Preparation of Business Documents –
Business Documents – Recording of Identification of Transaction – Recording of
Transaction in Journal – Posting to Ledger – Transaction in Journal – Posting to Ledger –
Preparation of Unadjusted Trial Balance – Preparation of Unadjusted Trial Balance –
Passing Adjusting Entries – Preparation of Passing Adjusting Entries – Preparation of
Adjusted Trial Balance – Preparation of Adjusted Trial Balance – Preparation of
Financial Statements Financial Statements
3) Preparation of Unadjusted Trial Balance – 4) Identification of Transaction – Preparation of
Identification of Transaction – Preparation of Business Documents – Preparation of
Business Documents – Recording of Unadjusted Trial Balance – Passing Adjusting
Transaction in Journal – Posting to Ledger – Entries – Recording of Transaction in Journal
Passing Adjusting Entries – Preparation of – Posting to Ledger – Preparation of Adjusted
Adjusted Trial Balance – Preparation of Trial Balance – Preparation of Financial
Financial Statements Statements
Explanation:
Q427) Which of the following accounting information is correct? Marks : 1.0
Id: 38722
1) Assests=Liabilities+capital 2) Assests=Liabilities
3) Assests=Liabilitiescapital 4) None
Explanation:
Q428) A company is said to be multinational if: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44671
1) Production and marketing are done in many 2) Domestically produced items are sold round
countries the world
3) Workers are hired from all countries 4) Raw materials are acquired from many
countries
Explanation:
Q429) It is generally assumed that business will not liquidate in the near foreseeable future Marks : 1.0
because of Id: 44646
1) Periodicity 2) Materiality
3) Matching 4) Going concern
Explanation:
Q430) Accrued expenses affects: Marks : 1.0
Id: 44797
1) assets and expenses. 2) liabilities and revenues.
3) assets and revenues. 4) expenses and liabilities.
Explanation:
Q431) Interest on drawings in normal course is calculated for Marks : 1.0
Id: 44617
1) 12 months 2) 6 months
3) 6.5 months 4) 5 months
Explanation:
Q432) Current ratio is used to assess Marks : 1.0
Id: 44575
1) Effective utilization of capital 2) Application of debt
3) Liquidity position 4) Levels of inventory
Explanation:
Q433) Which of the following account need to prepare separately in Partnership? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44594
1) Trading Account 2) Profit & Loss Account / Income Statement
3) Capital Account 4) Assets Account
Explanation:
Q434) Modern Method of Accounting was introduced by Marks : 1.0
Id: 44802
1) R.N.Carter 2) Luco Pacioli
3) J.R. Batlibai 4) M.S. Gosav
Explanation:
Q435) A business has the following items in it: Owners equity Rs.600,000 Total liabilities Marks : 1.0
Rs.1,400,000. Assets.What is the value of Assets…………… Id: 44522
1) 600000 2) 1400000
3) 2000000 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q436) Nominal Accounts means ____. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44408
1) The accounts of individuals, firms, limited 2) The accounts of properties, assets or
companies, local authorities, associations with professionals of the businessman.
whom the businessman deals.
3) Accounts representing incomes and expenses
or profits and gains.
4) The accounts which relate to things other than
persons.
Explanation:
Q437) The Final Accounts (or Financial Statements) of a Sole Trader comprise Marks : 1.0
Id: 38730
1) b, c and d 2) Trading Account
3) Profit and Loss Account 4) Balance Sheet
Explanation:
Q438) Internal users of accounting information are Marks : 1.0
Id: 44475
1) Owners 2) Creditors
3) Management 4) Government
Explanation:
Q439) _____ Discount is not recorded in the books of Accounts. Marks : 1.0
Id: 44426
1) Cash 2) Trade
3) Both A & B 4) None of these
Explanation:
Q440) Which of the following items can be found on an income statement? Marks : 1.0
Id: 44564
1) Accounts receivable 2) Longterm debt
3) Sales 4) Inventory
Explanation:
Q441) An assets liquidity measures Marks : 1.0
Id: 44603
1) Its potential to generate a profit 2) its usefulness to organization
3) Its ease and cost of being converted into cash 4) Proportion of Equity financing
Explanation:
Managerial Accounting (101)
4. Imputed cost is a .
A. notional cost.
B. real cost.
C. normal cost.
D. variable cost.
ANSWER: A
10. Multiple costing is a technique of using two or more costing methods for ascertainment of cost by.
A. the same firm.
B. the several firms.
C. the same industry.
D. the several industries.
ANSWER: A
11. Wages paid to a labour who was engaged in production activities can be termed as.
A. direct cost.
B. indirect cost.
C. sunk cost.
D. imputed cost.
ANSWER: A
12. The cost which is to be incurred even when a business unit is closed is a.
A. imputed cost.
B. historical cost.
C. sunk cost.
D. shutdown cost
ANSWER: D
B. factory cost.
C. labour cost.
D. cost of goods sold.
ANSWER: B
19. Which one of the following is not considered for preparation of cost sheet?
A. Factory cost.
B. Goodwill written off.
C. Selling cost.
D. Labour cost.
ANSWER: B
31. The ratios which reflect managerial efficiency in handling the assets is.
A. turnover ratios
B. profitability ratios.
C. short term solvency ratio.
D. long term solvency ratio.
ANSWER: A
32. he ratios which reveal the final result of the managerial policies and performance is .
A. turnover ratios.
B. profitability ratios.
C. short term solvency ratio.
D. long term solvency ratio.
ANSWER: B
40. The ratio which measures the profit in relation to capital employed is known as
A. return on investment.
B. gross profit ratio.
C. operating ratio.
D. operating profit ratio.
ANSWER: A
41. The ratio which determines the profitability from the shareholder’s point of view is .
A. return on investment.
B. gross profit ratio.
C. return on shareholders funds.
D. operating profit ratio.
ANSWER: C
42. Return on equity is also called
A. . return on investment.
B. gross profit ratio.
C. return on shareholders funds.
D. return on net worth.
ANSWER: D
45. The ratio which is calculated to measure the productivity of total assets is
A. return on equity.
B. return on share holders funds.
C. return on total assets.
D. return on equity share holders’ funds.
ANSWER: C
46. The ratio which shows the proportion of profits retained in the business out of the current year’s profits
is
A. . retained earnings ratio.
B. pay out ratio
C. earnings per share.
D. price earnings ratio.
ANSWER: A
47. The ratio which indicates earnings per share reflected by the market price is .
A. retained earnings ratio.
B. pay out ratio.
C. earnings per share.
D. price earnings ratio.
ANSWER: D
48. The ratio establishes the relationship between profit before interest and tax and fixed interest charges
is .
A. interest cover ratio.
B. fixed dividend cover ratio.
C. debt service coverage ratio.
D. dividend yield ratio.
ANSWER: A
49. The ratio shows the preference dividend as a proportion of profit available for shareholders is
.
A. interest cover ratio.
B. fixed dividend cover ratio.
C. debt service coverage ratio.
D. dividend yield ratio.
ANSWER: B
53. Which ratio is calculated to ascertain the efficiency of inventory management in terms of capital
investment?
A. stock velocity ratio.
8
B. debtors velocity ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: A
54. The ratio which measures the relationship between the cost of goods sold and the amount of average
inventory is
A. stock turnover ratio.
B. debtors velocity ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: A
57. Which ratio measures the number of times the receivables are rotated in a year in terms of sales?
A. stock turnover ratio.
B. debtors turnover ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: B
9
60. The indicates the number of times the payables rotate in a year is _.
A. stock turnover ratio.
B. stock turnover ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: C
62. All those assets which are converted into cash in the normal course of business within one year are
known as .
A. fixed assets.
B. current assets.
C. fictitious assets.
D. wasting assets.
ANSWER: B
63. All those liabilities which are payable in cash in the normal course of business within a period of one
year are called _.
A. long term liabilities.
B. overdraft.
C. short term loans.
D. current liabilities.
ANSWER: D
64. Any transaction between a current account and another current account does not
Affect .
A. profit.
B. funds.
C. working capital.
D. capital.
ANSWER: B
65. Any transaction between a non current account and another non current account does not
affect .
A. profit.
B. funds.
C. working capital.
D. capital.
ANSWER: B
66. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement -Increase in current asset .
A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital.
C. decrease fixed capital.
D. increase fixed capital.
ANSWER: A
67. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement - Decrease in current asset .
A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital.
C. decrease fixed capital.
D. increase fixed capital.
ANSWER: B
68. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement -Increase in current liability .
A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital.
C. decrease fixed capital.
D. increase fixed capital.
ANSWER: B
69. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement -Decrease in current Liability .
A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital.
C. decrease fixed capital
D. increase fixed capital.
ANSWER: A
72. One of the primary differences between marginal costing and absorption costing regarding
the treatment of .
A. prime cost .
B. fixed overheads.
C. variable overheads .
D. direct materials.
ANSWER: B
85. 1f` fixed costs decrease while variable cost per unit remains constant, the new B.E.P in relation to the
old B.E.P will be .
A. lower .
B. higher.
C. . unchanged .
D. indeterminate.
ANSWER: B
86. If fixed costs decrease while the variable cost per unit remains constant, the new contribution margin in
relation to the old contribution margin will be .
A. lower .
B. unchanged .
C. higher.
D. indeterminate.
ANSWER: B
87. Selling price per unit Rs. 10; Variable cost Rs. 8 per unit; Fixed cost Rs. 20,000; Break-even
production in units .
A. 10,000.
B. 16,300.
C. 2,000.
D. 2,500.
ANSWER: D
88. Sales Rs. 25,000; Variable cost Rs. 8,000; Fixed cost Rs. 5,000; Break-even sales
in value .
A. Rs. 7,936.
B. Rs. 7,353.
C. Rs. 8,333.
D. Rs. 9,090.
ANSWER: B
89. Fixed cost Rs. 80,000; Variable cost Rs. 2 per unit; Selling price_Rs. 10 per unit; turnover required
for a profit target of Rs. 60,000.
A. Rs. 1,75,000.
B. Rs. 1,17,400.
C. Rs. 1.57,000.
D. Rs. 1,86,667.
ANSWER: A
90. Sales Rs. 25,000; Variable cost Rs. 15,000; Fixed cost Rs .4,000; P/V Ratio is .
A. 40% .
B. 80%
C. 15%
D. 30%.
ANSWER: A
91. Sales Rs. 50,000; Variable cost Rs. 30,000; Net profit Rs. 6,000; fixed cost is .
A. Rs. 10,000.
B. b. Rs. l4,000 .
C. Rs. 12,000.
D. Rs. 8,000.
ANSWER: B
92. Actual sales Rs .4,00,000; Break-even sales Rs. 2,50,000; Margin of Safety in
percentage is _.
A. 33.33%.
B. 66.67%
C. 37.5% .
D. 76.33%.
ANSWER: C
93. P/V Ratio 50%; Variable cost of the produce Rs. 25; Selling price is .
A. Rs. 50 .
B. Rs. 40.
C. Rs. 30 .
D. Rs. 55.
ANSWER: A
94. Fixed cost Rs. 2,00,000; Sales Rs. 8,00,000; P/V Ratio 30%; the amount of' profit is .
A. Rs. 50,000.
B. Rs. 40,000 .
C. Rs. 35,000 .
D. Rs. 45,000 .
ANSWER: B
95. P/V Ratio is 25% and Margin of Safety is Rs; 3,00,000, the amount of profit is .
A. Rs. 1,00,000.
B. Rs. 80,000.
C. Rs. 75,000.
D. . Rs. 60,000.
ANSWER: C
96. Total sales Rs. 20,00,000; Fixed expenses Rs. 4,00,000; P/V Ratio 40%; Break-even capacity
in percentage is .
A. 40% .
B. 60% .
C. 50% .
D. 45%.
ANSWER: C
97. Break - even point occurs at 40% of` total capacity, margin of safety will be .
A. 40% .
B. 60% .
C. 80% .
D. 85% .
ANSWER: B
98. If the P/V Ratio of a product is 30% and selling price is Rs. 25 per unit, the marginal cost of the
product would be .
A. Rs.18.75 .
B. Rs.16 .
C. Rs. 15 .
D. Rs.20 .
ANSWER: A
104. The budget which usually takes the form of budgeted profit and loss account and balance sheet is
known as
A. Flexible budget .
B. Master budget.
C. Cash budget .
D. Purchase budget.
ANSWER: B
106. The fixed-variable cost classification has `a special significance in the preparation of .
A. Capital budget.
B. Cash budget.
C. Master budget .
D. Flexible budget .
ANSWER: D
108. Preparing budget figures for different levels of activity within a range under flexible budgeting is
.
A. Formula method.
B. Multi-activity method.
C. Budget cost allowance method.
D. Proportionate method.
ANSWER: B
109. What type of budget is designed to take into account forecast change in costs, prices, etc?
A. Master budget.
B. Rolling budget.
C. Flexible budget .
D. Functional budget.
ANSWER: B
C. Budgeting.
D. Controlling.
ANSWER: C
ANSWER: C
116. The budget which shows the budgeted quantity of output to be produced during a specific period is.
A. Fixed budget.
B. Flexible budget.
C. Sales budget.
D. Production budget
ANSWER: D
118. Material budget consists of two parts, one is the consumption budget and another Is .
18
C. Material production budget.
D. Material budget.
ANSWER: B
122. Budget of indirect costs in the form of indirect wages, indirect material and indirect expenses in the
factory is .
A. Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Master budget.
ANSWER: A
123. The budget prepared to estimate the expenditure to be incurred for planning, organizing, direction and
control function of the management is .
A. . Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Master budget.
ANSWER: B
124. The budget prepared to estimate expenditure to be incurred to sell the product and its distribution is
.
A. Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Master budget
ANSWER: C
125. The budget prepared to estimate the research and development expenditure to be incurred during a
specific period is .
A. Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Research and development budget.
19
ANSWER: D
126. The budget prepared to estimate the expenditure on fixed assets is known as.
A. Capital expenditure budget
B. Production overhead budget.
C. Administration overhead budget.
D. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
ANSWER: A
127. The budget prepared for replacement of assets, expansion of production facilities, adoption of new
technologies etc. is .
A. Capital expenditure budget.
B. Production overhead budget.
C. Administration overhead budget.
D. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
ANSWER: A
20
C. Job In Time.
D. Job Inventory Time.
ANSWER: A
134. FIFO is .
A. Fast Investment in Future Order.
B. First In First Out.
C. Fast In Fast Out
D. Fast Issue Of Fast Order.
ANSWER: D
137. Scrap is .
A. residue of material.
B. wastage of material.
C. surplus material.
D. abnormal loss of material.
ANSWER: A
138. Material is issued by store keeper against.
A. material requisition.
B. material order.
C. goods received note.
D. purchase requisition.
ANSWER: A
140. The document which is prepared after receiving and inspecting material .
A. material record note.
B. goods received note.
C. bill of material.
D. inventory record.
ANSWER: B
146. Material consumed is Rs. 5,00,000 Opening stock of raw material is Rs. 50,000 and Closing stock of
raw material is Rs. 25,000. What is the cost of raw material purchased?
A. Rs. 4,50,000.
B. Rs. 4,75,000.
C. Rs. 5,25,000.
D. Rs. 5, 50,000.
ANSWER: B
147. If selling price is Rs. 25,000 and profit is Rs. 5,000 then what is the percentage of profit on
cast?
A. 20%.
B. 25%.
C. 33.33%.
D. 35%.
ANSWER: B
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DNYANSAGAR INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH
Q. no Question Answer
1. Managerial accounting information is generally prepared for C
…………………
a. Shareholders
b. Creditors
c. Managers
d. Regulatory agencies
a. Creditor
b. Department manager
c. Controller
d. Treasurer
a. Service entities
b. Manufacturing entities
c. Non profit entities
d. All of these
8 Which type of asset class includes those assets which have only D
definite use and become valueless when the yield is over?
a. Fixed asset
b. Current asset
c. Fictitious asset
d. Wasting asset
9 An accounting that deals with the accounting and reporting of B
information to managementregarding the detail information is
a. Financial accounting
b. Management accounting
c. Cost accounting
d. Real Accounting
10
13. Cost of goods sold= opening stock+ net purchases+ expenses on Purchases – D
sales Which part of formula is wrong?
a. opening stock
b. net purchases
c. expenses on Purchases
d. sales
28 cost refers to those cost which have already been incurred and cannot be B
altered by any decision in the future.
a. Opportunity cost
b. Sunk Cost
c. Incremental cost
d. Decremental cost
31. cost will still be incurred although a plant is shut down temporarily. C
a. Cost of raw material
b. Advertising
c. Depreciation
d. Carriage
32 Accounting principles are generally based upon: A
a. Practicability
b. Subjectivity
c. Convenience in recording
d. None of the above
33 The system of recording based on dual aspect concept is called: B
a. Double account system
b. Double entry system
c. Single entry system
d. All the above
34 The practice of appending notes regarding contingent liabilities in accounting D
statements is in pursuance to:
a. Convention of consistency
b. Money measurement concept
c. Convention of conservatism
d. Convention of disclosure
35 Sales are equal to: A
a. Cost of goods sold + gross profit
b. Cost of goods sold - gross profit
c. Gross profit- Cost of goods sold
d. None of the above
36 Interest on drawings is: C
a. Expenditure for the business
b. Cost for the business
c. Gain for the business
d. None of the above
37 Goods given as samples should be credited to: C
a. Advertisement account
b. Sales account
c. Purchase account
d. None of the above
38. Outstanding salaries are shown as: C
a. Added to Salaries while preparing P & La/c
b. Shown in liability side of Balance sheet under current Liability.
c. (a) &(b) above
d. None of the above
39 Income tax paid by a sole proprietor on his business income should be: C
a. Debited to trading account
b. Debited to profit and loss account
c. Deducted from capital account in the balance sheet
d. None of the above
40. All direct & indirect expenses related to business are charged: C
a. Profit and loss account
b. Trading account
c. Trading account Profit and Loss account
d. Directly to Balance sheet
43 Investment of X company profit in shares of other company PQR Pvt. ltd are A
recorded in……………….
a. Asset side of Balance Sheet
b. Liability side of Balance Sheet
c. Profit & Loss a/c
d. Not recorded in Balance Sheet
a. Remains fixed
b. Fluctuates with volume of production
c. Varies in consideration with the volume of sales
d. None of the above
a. Increases assets
b. Results in no change in the total assets
c. Decreases assets
d. Increases liability
63 Cost of asset should always be equal to the cost of the liabilities. This concept B
is
a. Realization Concept
b. Matching Concept
c. Cost Concept
d. Both a and b above
a. Consistency concept
b. Conservatism concept
c. Accounting period concept
d. Cost Concept
a. Current assets
b. Current liabilities
c. Fixed asset
d. Fixed liability
69 Reserve for doubtful debts appearing in the trial balance should be: E
a. Debtors
b. Investors
c. Creditors
d. Shareholders
71 According to which concept business is treated as a unit apart from owner C
a. Dual concept
b. Divider concept
c. Entity concept
d. Landlord concept
72 Authorized capital, also known as A
a. Nominal capital
b. Paid up capital
c. Issues capital
d. None of these
73 True & fair profit and loss a/c of a company know by D
a. Preparing trial balance
b. Preparing respective ledger of account
c. Preparing trading a/c
d. Preparing trading & profit & loss a/c
74 Credit balance of profit & loss a/c shown on B
a. Asset side of balance sheet
b. Liability side of balance sheet
c. Not shown in balance sheet
d. Half on asset side and half on liability side
75 Under which concept it is assumed that the enterprises has neither the C
intention nor the necessity of liquidation or of curtailing materiality the scale
of operation
a. Revenue realization concept
b. Matching cost concept
c. Going concern concept
d. None of these
76 Making the provision for doubtful debts and discount on debtors in A
anticipation of actual bad debts and discount is an example for which concept
a. Conservatism concept
b. Continuity concept
c. Realization concept
d. All of these
82 Which of the following account balance will be shown on debit side of Trial D
Balance?
a. Outstanding expenses
b. Cash a/c
c. Short term loan
d. creditors
83 The reduction in the value of the fixed assets which can arise due to time B
factor is
a. Discount
b. Depreciation
c. Reduction
d. None of the above
92 Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of: B
a. Separate entity
b. Going concern
c. Consistency
d. Time period
a. Income Statement
b. Cash Flow Statement
c. Balance Sheet
d. Fund Flow Statement
95 Which of the following is a liability? A
a. Loan from Mr.Y
b. loan to Mr.y
c. Both (a) (b)
d. None of these
92 Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of: B
e. Separate entity
f. Going concern
g. Consistency
h. Time period
e. Income Statement
f. Cash Flow Statement
g. Balance Sheet
h. Fund Flow Statement
95 Which of the following is a liability? A
e. Loan from Mr.Y
f. loan to Mr.y
g. Both (a) (b)
h. None of these
97 Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of: B
a. Separate entity
b. Going concern
c. Consistency
d. Time period
a. Fiscal year
b. Calendar year
c. Accounting period
d. Accrual period
107 Using "lower of cost and net realisable value(Market Value)" for the purpose C
of inventory valuation is the implementation of which of the following
concepts?
a. The going concern concept
b. The separate entity concept
c. The prudence concept
d. Matching concept
108 The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following D
types of businesses?
a. Sole proprietorship
b. Corporation
c. Partnership
d. All of them
109 The revenue recognition principal dictates that all types of incomes should be C
recorded or recognized when
a. Cash is received
b. At the end of accounting period
c. When they are earned
d. When interest is paid
110 The allocation of owner's private expenses to his/her business violates which C
of the following?
a. Accrual concept
b. Matching concept
c. Separate business entity concept
d. Consistency concept
112 Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a C
business is divided for the purpose of preparing financial statements?
a. Fiscal year
b. Calendar year
c. Accounting period
d. Accrual period
113 Showing purchased office equipments in financial statements is the B
application of which accounting concept?
a. Historical cost convention
b. Materiality
c. Prudence
d. Matching concept
114 Information about an item is if its omission or misstatement might D
influence the financial decision of the users taken on the basis of that
information
a. Concrete
b. Complete
c. Immaterial
d. Material
115 "Financial information should be neutral and bias free" is the dictation of C
which one of the following?
a. Completeness concept
b. Faithful representation Concept
c. Objectivity Concept
d. Duality Concept
116 Accounting principles are divided into two types. These are --- D
a. Accounting Concepts
b. Accounting Conventions
c. Accounting Standards
d. Accounting Concepts &Accounting Conventions
117 Which of the following is not related with Money Measurement Concept ? B
a. All business transaction should be expressed only in money
b. The transactions which cannot be expressed in money, will not be
recorded in accounting books
c. Business is treated as separate from the proprietor
d. None of These
118 Which of the following equation is related with Dual Aspect Concept ? D
a. Total Assets = Total Liabilities
b. Total Assets = Capital + Outsider’s Liabilities
c. Capital = Total Assets - Outsider’s Liabilities
d. All of the above
119 If the total assets of the company amount to Rs 1,50,000 and owner’s B
equity is Rs 70,000, the amount of liabilities will be –
a. Rs 70,000
b. Rs 80,000
c. Rs 90,000
d. Rs 1,00,000
c. Controlling function
d. None of these
131 The convention of conservatism when applied to the balance sheet result A
in.
a. Understand the asset
b. Understand the liabilities
c. Overstatement of capital
d. None of these
c. Providing depreciation
d. None of these
133 The amount brought in by the proprietor in the business should be credited B
to
a. Cash a/c
b. Capital a/c
c. Drawing a/c
d. Bank a/c
134 The amount of salary paid to Suresh should be debited to B
a. The account of Suresh
b. Salaries a/c
c. Cash a/c
d. Bank a/c
141 The convention of disclosure implies that all material information should be A
a. Disclosed in the account
b. Disclosed in the accounts which is required to owner
c. Not disclosed
d. None of these
143 Custom and traditions which guide the accountant while preparing the C
accounting statements
a. Accounting convention
b. Accounting concepts
c. Accounting principles
d. None of these
145 system in which accounting entries are made on the basis of amounts having B
become due for payment or receipt is called
a. Cash concept
b. Accrual concept
c. Matching concept
d. On-going concept
147 Debit what come in Credit what goes out rule for A
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
148 Debit all expenses and losses Credit all gains and income. C
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
150 Transferring the debit and credit item from the journal to the respective B
accounts is called
a. Compound Journal
b. Ledger
c. Trial balance
d. None of these
152 The transferring of debit and credit items from journal to the respective B
accounts in the ledger is called as
a. Ledger
b. Posting
c. Forward journal
d. None of these
153 Which of the following items would not fall under the definition of an asset? D
a. Land
b. Machine
c. Cash
d. Owner Equity
154 Which one of the following items would fall under the definition of a C
liability
a. Cash
b. Debtor
c. Owner’s equity
d. None of these
a. Rs.200, 000
b. Rs.700, 000
c. Rs.800, 000
d. Rs1, 100,000
Creditors Rs.50,000
What is the value of the land…………………..
a. 1,000,000
b. 1,550,000
c. 800,000
d. None of these
160 Which of the following equations properly represents a derivation of the D
fundamental accounting equation?
a. Only (a)
b. Both (a) (b)
c. All (a)(b)(c)(d)
d. d) None of these
161 Retained earnings will change over time because of several factors. Which B
of the following factors would explain an increase in retained earnings?
a. Net Loss
b. Net income
c. Dividend
d. Investment by share holder.
164 XYZltd.has provided the following information about its balance sheet: B
Cash Rs.100
a. Rs.200
b. Rs.1900
c. Rs.1200
d. Rs.1700
165 The full disclosure principle, as adopted by the accounting profession, is D
best described by which of the following?
a. All information related to an entity's business and operating
objectives is required to be disclosed in the financial statements.
b. Information about each account balance appearing in the financial
statements is to be included in the notes to the financial
statements.
c. Enough information should be disclosed in the financial statements
so a person wishing to invest in the stock of the company can make
a profitable decision.
d. Disclosure of any financial facts significant enough to influence the
judgment of an informed reader
166 Which of the following is a real (permanent) account? D
a. Goodwill
b. Sales
c. Accounts Receivable
d. Both Goodwill and Accounts Receivable
167 Which of the following statements is not an objective of financial B
reporting?
a. Provide information that is useful in investment and credit
decisions.
b. Provide information regarding policy of organization
c. Provide information that is useful in assessing cash flow
prospective
d. None of theses
168 The Cash account on the balance sheet should not include which of the A
following items?
a. Travel advances to employees
b. Currency
c. Money orders
d. Deposits in transit
170 The following comments all relate to the recording process. Which of these B
statements is correct?
a. The general ledger is a chronological record of transactions.
b. The general ledger is posted from transactions recorded in the general
journal.
c. The trial balance provides the primary source document for recording
transactions into the general journal.
d. Transposition is the transfer of information from the general journal to
the general ledger.
171 The following comments each relate to the recording of journal entries. Which D
statement is true?
a. For any given journal entry, debits must exceed credits.
b. It is customary to record credits on the left and debits on the right.
c. The chart of accounts reveals the amount to debit and credit to the
affected accounts.
d. Journalization is the process of converting transactions and events into
debit/credit format.
172 The trial balance is ………………………….. D
173 Which of the following errors will be disclosed in the preparation of a trial C
balance?
a. Recording transactions in the wrong account.
b. Duplication of a transaction in the accounting records.
c. Posting only the debit portion of a particular journal entry.
d. Recording the wrong amount for a transaction to both the account
debited and the account credited.
174 The basic sequence in the accounting process can best be described as: D
a. Transaction, journal entry, source document, ledger account, trial
balance.
b. Source document, transaction, ledger account, journal entry, trial
balance.
c. Transaction, source document, journal entry, trial balance, ledger
account.
d. d. Transaction, source document, journal entry, ledger account,
trial balance.
181 Manufacturing costs are also known as product costs. Which of the C
following best describes those costs which are considered to be
manufacturing costs?
a. Direct materials, direct labor, and factory overhead.
b. Direct materials and direct labor only.
c. Direct materials, direct labor, factory overhead, and administrative
overhead.
d. Direct labor and factory overhead.
182 A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, D
plus long distance charges, would be classified as a:
a. Variable cost
b. Committed fixed cost
c. Direct cost
d. Semi variable cost
a. Sundry creditors
b. Acceptances
c. Unclaimed dividend
d. Short term investment
193 Financial accounting deals with: B
a. Determination of cost
b. Determination of profit
c. Determination of price
d. Determination of selling price
194 Financial account record only A
a. Actual figures
b. Budgeted figures
c. Standard figures
d. Management Figure
195 The term Management Accounting was first used in C
a. 1910
b. 1939
c. 1950
d. 1960
d. Six months
205 A budget is tool which helps the management in planning and control of… A
a. All business activities
b. Production activities
c. Purchase activities
d. Sales activities
206 Budgetary control system acts as a friend, philosopher and guide to the… A
a. Management
b. Share holders
c. Creditors
d. Employees
207 Budgetary control system defines the objectives and policies of the… D
a. Production department
b. Finance department
c. Marketing department
d. All
208 Budgetary control system facilitates centralized control with… C
a. Decentralized activity
b. Centralized activity
c. Both
d. None
209 Budgetary control facilitates easy introduction of the… C
a. Marginal costing
b. Ratio analysis
c. Standard costing
d. Subjective matter
210 Budgetary control helps the management in… A
a. Obtaining bank credit
b. Issue of shares
c. Getting grants from government
d. All of these
211 Budgetary control system helps the management to eliminate… C
a. Undercapitalization
b. Overcapitalization
c. Both
d. Subjective matter
212 Budgetary control provides a basis for… C
a. Bonus shares
b. Rights shares
c. Remuneration plans
d. None
213 Budgetary control helps to introduce a suitable incentive and B
remuneration based
on…
a. Changes in government policies
b. Inflationary conditions
c. Both
d. None
229 On the basis of flexibility budget is classified into two types such as fixed A
budget and
________ budget.
a. variable
b. Semi-variable
c. Constant
230 Variable budget is also known as _______ budget. C
a. Fixed
b. Semi-variable
c. Flexible
231 The budget prepared according to ________ is known as functional C
budgets.
a. Period
b. Controls
c. Functions
232 ……………….. budget is a budget which is designed to remain unchanged C
irrespective of the volume of output or turnover achieved.
a. Flexible
b. Cash
c. Fixed
233 A Flexible budget is one which permits the change in accordance with the B
changes
in the level of activity.
a. Fixed
b. Flexible
c. Sales
234 Flexible budgets are more useful in actual practice because it is more A
realistic and
has great practical utility in the business.
a. realistic
b. non-realistic
c. Predictable
235 A _______ budget is the budget which shows the quantity and value of C
goods to be
purchased during the budget period to meet the day-to-day needs of the
business.
a. Sales
b. Cash
c. Purchase
236 One of the basic purpose to prepare _______ budget is to estimate the A
cash
requirements for the purchases to be made during the budgeted period.
a. purchase
b. cash
c. sales
247 Given the budgeted output in second quarter is 8,000 units. In the first A
quarter,
Fixed overheads were Rs 40,000 Variable overheads were Rs 5 per unit ( Rs
40,000)
and semi variable were 20,000 ( 60% varying @ Rs 3 per unit). Determine
the total
manufacturing overhead budget for the second quarter.
a. Rs 1,12,000
b. 1,12,000 units
c. Insufficient data
d. None of the above
248 Budgetary control system defines the objectives and policies of the… D
a. Production department
b. Finance department
c. Marketing department
d. All
249 Budgetary control system facilitates centralized control with… C
a. Decentralized activity
b. Centralized activity
c. Both
d. None
21. Debit the receiver, credit the giver is the rule of ______________.
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
22. Debit what comes in, credit what goes out is the rule of ______________.
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
23. Debit all expenses and losses, credit all incomes and gains is the rule of ______________.
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
24. ______________ is a record of transaction in the books of Accounts.
(a) Entry (b) Recording
(c) Monetary Transaction (d) Ledger
25. ______________ is an exchange of money or money’s worth.
(a) Entry (b) Recording
(c) Transaction (d) Ledger
26. ______________ is a book of original entry.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Subsidiary Book
27. ______________ is a bound book of different accounts.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Subsidiary Book
28. ______________ is a summarized record of transactions related to one person, one asset, one
head of expense/loss and one head of income/gain.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Account
29. ______________ means totaling of sums in the books of accounts.
(a) Casting (b) Summarizing
(c) Journalizing (d) Ledger Posting
30. ______________ are obligations or debts that the enterprise must pay in money or services at
some time in the future.
(a) Assets (b) Liabilities
(c) Responsibilities (d) Salaries
31. ______________ are economic resources of an enterprise that can be usefully expressed in
monetary terms.
(a) Assets (b) Liabilities
(c) Cash & Bank Balance (d) Funds
32. ______________ are commodities, purchased or manufactured for resale with a view to earn
profit.
(a) Assets (b) Goods
(c) Investments (d) Resources
4 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
33. ______________ are the amounts the business earns by selling its products or providing
services to customers.
(a) Assets (b) Goods
(c) Investments (d) Revenues
34. ______________ are the costs incurred by a business in the process of earning revenue.
(a) Assets (b) Expenses
(c) Investments (d) Revenues
35. ______________ are persons and/or other entities who owe to an enterprise an amount for
receiving goods and services on credit.
(a) Debtors (b) Creditors
(c) Shareholders (d) Suppliers
36. ______________ are persons and/or other entities that have to be paid by an enterprise an
amount for providing the enterprise goods and services on credit.
(a) Debtors (b) Creditors
(c) Shareholders (d) Customers
37. ______________ is a list of the entire general ledger account names and balances; it is
prepared to prove the ledger.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Trial Balance
38. The difference of two sides of an account is called as ______________.
(a) Debit (b) Credit
(c) Balance (d) Cash
39. ______________ deals with expenses related to or identified with products, which may only
be a part of the organization.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
40. In ______________ stocks are valued at lower of cost or market value.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
41. The primary objective of ______________ is to provide necessary information to the
management in the process of its planning, controlling, and performance evaluation, and
decision-making.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
42. The Success of ______________ does not depend upon Management Accounting system.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
43. In______________ no statutory requirement of audit for reports.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 5
Chapter 2
Understanding of Financial Statements
1. ______________ shows the firm’s assets, liabilities, and stockholders’ equity as of the report
date.
(a) Cash Flow (b) Funds Flow
(c) Income Statement (d) Balance Sheet
2. ______________ shows the results of the firm’s operations and financial activities for the
reporting period.
(a) Trading and Profit & Loss Account (b) Expense Statement
(c) Income Statement (d) Balance Sheet
3. ______________ includes explanations of various activities, additional details of some
accounts, and other items as mandated by the regulatory authorities, bodies from time to time.
(a) Trading and Profit & Loss Account (b) Expense Statement
(c) Income Statement (d) Supplementary Note
4. ______________ is a formal official record of the financial activities and position of a
business, person, or other entity.
(a) Financial Statement (b) Trading Account
(c) Profit & Loss Account (d) Supplementary Note
5. ______________ provides the vital information related to the profitability, liquidity and
solvency of the business.
(a) Financial Statement (b) Trading Account
(c) Profit & Loss Account (d) Cash Flow & Funds Flow
6. ______________ is the simplest business form under which one can operate a business.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole Trading Firm
(c) Private Ltd. Company (d) Public Company
7. ______________ is not a separate legal entity.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole Proprietorship Firm
(c) Private Ltd. Company (d) One Man Company
8. For every item given in Trial Balance, ______________ effect should be given.
(a) Dual (b) Single
(c) Triple (d) None of the above
9. For every item given in Adjustment, ______________ effect should be given.
(a) Dual (b) Single
(c) Triple (d) None of the above
10. ______________ are nothing but the entries which are not included in the original Trial
Balance.
(a) Journal Proper (b) Ledger
(c) Adjustments (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 7
Chapter 3
Cost Accounting
1. ______________ provides a specialized technique, which provides prompt and accurate
information regarding the cost of producing and selling an article.
(a) Cost Accounting (b) Financial Accounting
(c) Management Accounting (d) Cost & Financial Accounting
2. The amount of expenditure incurred on, or attributable to a given thing is called as
______________.
(a) Cost (b) Price
(c) Expense (d) Fixed Cost
3. The techniques and process of ascertaining cost is called as ______________.
(a) Costing (b) Accounting
(c) Financing (d) Management Accounting
4. With the help of ______________, we can control the cost.
(a) Costing Methods (b) Cost Accounting
(c) Management Accounting (d) Costing Techniques
5. With the help of ______________, we can find out the cost.
(a) Costing Methods (b) Cost Accounting
(c) Management Accounting (d) Costing Techniques
6. The total of Direct Material + Direct Labour + Direct Expenses is called as ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Factory Cost
(c) Prime Cost (d) Main Cost
7. Direct Expenses are also called as ______________.
(a) Chargeable Expenses (b) Factory Expenses
(c) Works Expenses (d) General Expenses
8. Depreciation is an example of ______________.
(a) Direct Expenses (b) Factory Expenses
(c) General Expenses (d) Indirect Expenses
9. The aggregate of all indirect expenses is ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Total Expense
(c) Overheads (d) Factory Overheads
10. Factory Cost is also called as ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Cost of Production
(c) Works Cost (d) Factory Overheads
11. Cost of Sales is also called as ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Cost of Production
(c) Works Cost (d) Factory Cost
12 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
25. A Location, person, or item of equipment (or a group of these) for which costs may be
ascertained and used for the purpose of control is called as ______________.
(a) Cost Unit (b) Cost Centre
(c) Cost Department (d) Cost Division
26. ______________ a statement, which shows various components of total cost of a product.
(a) Cost Sheet (b) Cost Account
(c) Cost Report (d) Cost Classification
27. ______________ is prepared on the basis of actual cost incurred.
(a) Historical Cost Sheet (b) Cost Account
(c) Cost Report (d) Estimated Cost Sheet
28. Haulage Charges is an example of ______________.
(a) Fixed Overheads (b) Direct Cost
(c) Factory Overheads (d) Administration Overheads
29. Counting House Salaries is an example of ______________.
(a) Fixed Overheads (b) Selling Overheads
(c) Factory Overheads (d) Administration Overheads
30. Carriage Outward is an example of ______________.
(a) Fixed Overheads (b) Selling Overheads
(c) Factory Overheads (d) Administration Overheads
31. Opening Stock of Finished Goods is added in ______________.
(a) Factory Cost (b) Prime Cost
(c) Cost of Production (d) Works Cost
32. Direct Labour Charges is also called as ______________.
(a) Factory Cost (b) Prime Cost
(c) Fixed Wages (d) Productive Wages
33. Cost unit is divided into ______________.
(a) Units of Production (b) Units of Services
(c) Both a and b (d) None of the above
34. Cost of converting raw material into finished goods is also called as ______________.
(a) Factory Cost (b) Prime Cost
(c) Conversion Cost (d) Productive Cost
35. According to Elements, Cost is divided into ______________ categories.
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
36. ______________ means the amount spent to sell a company’s products.
(a) Revenue Cost (b) Differential Cost
(c) Fixed Cost (d) Variable Cost
14 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
48. Sale of Scrap is ______________ after addition of factory overheads in Prime Cost.
(a) Added (b) Deducted
(c) Not Considered (d) None of the above
49. Cleaning Charges is an example of ______________.
(a) Direct Expenses (b) Factory Overheads
(c) Office Overheads (d) Selling Overheads
50. ______________ is the process of ascertaining costs whereas ______________ is the process
of recording various costs in a systematic manner, in order to prepare statistical date to
ascertain cost.
(a) Costing, Cost Accounting (b) Cost Accounting, Costing
(c) Costing and Allocation Cost (d) Costing and Absorption of Cost
Chapter 4
Cost Control
1. Cost of storing the goods as well as the interest on the capital is called as ______________.
(a) Inventory Carrying Cost (b) Order Placing Cost
(c) Buying Cost (d) Fixed Cost
2. Cost of placing the orders and receiving the goods are called as ______________.
(a) Inventory Carrying Cost (b) Variable Cost
(c) Buying Cost (d) Fixed Cost
3. The main objective of EOQ is to ______________ the total costs.
(a) Minimize (b) Control
(c) Maintain (d) Avoid
4. ______________ analysis is based on Selective Inventory Management.
(a) EOQ (b) JIT
(c) ABC (d) HML
5. Calculate EOQ if Cost of material per unit ` 40, Annual requirement 1600 units, Cost of
placing and receiving one purchase order ` 50, Annual carrying cost of inventory is 10% of
inventory value.
(a) 200 Units (b) 175 Units
(c) 225 Units (d) 250 Units
6. A level of inventory that should never be exceeded is ______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level
(c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
7. A level below which stock should not be allowed to fall is ______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level
(c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
8. A level at which store keeper should intimate purchase department for fresh/new supply is
______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level
(c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
9. A level below which the stock should never be allowed to fall under emergency
circumstances is ______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level
(c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
10. A strategy for inventory management in which raw materials and components are delivered
from the vendor or supplier immediately before they are needed in the manufacturing process
is ______________.
(a) Scientific Purchasing (b) Immediate Buying
(c) JIT (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 17
30. Out of the following, which factor/s affecting the Labour Cost.
(a) Assessment of Manpower Requirement
(b) Time and Motion Study
(c) Control over Idle Time and Overtime
(d) All of the above
31. Which department/s is/are closely associated with the Control of Labour Cost?
(a) Personnel and Payroll Department
(b) Time Keeping Department
(c) Engineering and Work Study Department
(d) All of the above
32. ______________ arises from replacement of workers who leave the organization.
(a) Direct Labour Cost (b) Preventive Cost
(c) Maintenance Cost (d) Replacement Cost
33. Method/s of Time Keeping is/are ______________.
(a) Attendance Register Method
(b) Token or Disc Method
(c) Time Recording Clocks & Dial Time Records
(d) All of the above
34. Method/s of Time Booking is/are ______________.
(a) Daily Time Sheet (b) Weekly Time Sheet
(c) Job Cards or Job Tickets (d) All of the above
35. ______________ refers to the estimation of standard time, i.e., the time allowed for
completing one piece of job using the given metho(d)
(a) Work Measurement (b) Time Measurement
(c) Period Measurement (d) None of the above
36. ______________ costs are the operating costs of a business enterprise which cannot be traced
to a particular unit of output.
(a) Material (b) Labour
(c) Overhead (d) Foxed & Variable
37. The ______________ is the process of recording each item of cost in the books of accounts
maintained for the purpose of ascertainment of cost of each Cost Centre or Cost Unit.
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead
(c) Apportionment of Overhead (d) Classification of Overhead
38. ______________ means, the allotment of whole items of cost to cost centres or cost units.
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead
(c) Apportionment of Overhead (d) Classification of Overhead
39. ______________ means, the allotment to two or more departments or cost centers of
proportions of common items of cost on estimated basis of benefit received.
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead
(c) Apportionment of Overhead (d) Classification of Overhead
20 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
Chapter 5
Decision-making Tools
1. Marginal Costing is also called as ______________.
(a) Variable Costing (b) Standard Costing
(c) Material Costing (d) Job Costing
2. In ______________ total costs cannot be easily segregated into fixed costs and variable costs.
(a) Marginal Costing (b) Standard Costing
(c) Material Costing (d) Job Costing
3. P/V Ratio is mainly known as ______________.
(a) Contribution to Sales Ratio (b) Contribution Margin Ratio
(c) Variable Profit Ratio (d) All of the above
4. ______________ analysis classifies all costs as either fixed or variable.
(a) CVP (b) ABC
(c) JIT (d) HML
5. ______________ that point where no profit or no loss position is observed.
(a) Centre Point (b) BEP
(c) Starting Point (d) Ending Point
6. ______________ is the difference between sales revenue and variable cost.
(a) P/V Ratio (b) BEP
(c) MOS (d) Contribution
7. Contribution is also called as ______________.
(a) P/V Ratio (b) Net Margin
(c) MOS (d) Gross Margin
8. ______________ is the difference between actual sales or output and the break even sales.
(a) P/V Ratio (b) Net Margin
(c) MOS (d) Gross Margin
9. ______________ is an angle where sales line intersects total cost line which indicates profit
earning capacity over the BEP.
(a) Angle of Incidence (b) Contribution
(c) Margin of Safety (d) Gross Margin
10. If contribution is ` 3,00,000 and Sales is ` 10,00,000, then what is P/V Ratio?
(a) 20% (b) 30%
(c) 33.33% (d) 1/3
11. If P/V Ratio is 25%, then what is the % of Variable Cost?
(a) 70% (b) 80%
(c) ¾ (d) ½
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 23
12. If Fixed Cost is ` 2,50,000 and P/V Ratio is 60%, then what is BEP in `?
(a) ` 4,16,667 (b) ` 3,83,333
(c) ` 3,75,000 (d) ` 4,10,000
13. If Fixed Cost is ` 2,50,000 and Profit is ` 3,50,000, then what is the amount of Contribution?
(a) ` 1,00,000 (b) ` 6,00,000
(c) ` 3,75,000 (d) ` 4,10,000
14. If Sales are ` 50,000 and P/V Ratio is 20%, then what is the amount of Variable Cost?
(a) ` 40,000 (b) ` 10,000
(c) ` 25,000 (d) ` 30,000
15. If contribution is ` 3,00,000 and Profit is ` 1,00,000, then what is the amount of Fixed Cost?
(a) ` 4,00,000 (b) `2,00,000
(c) ` 2,50,000 (d) `3,00,000
16. If Sales are ` 3,00,000 and P/V ratio is 20%, then what is the amount of Variable Cost?
(a) ` 2,40,000 (b) ` 80,000
(c) ` 2,70,000 (d) ` 2,00,000
17. The correct formula of Contribution is ______________.
(a) Contribution = Sales – Variable Cost
(b) Contribution = Fixed Cost + Profit or – Loss
(c) Contribution = Sales × P/ V Ratio
(d) All of the above
18. The correct formula of P/V Ratio is ____________.
(a) P/ V Ratio = [Contribution/Sales ] × 100
(b) P/ V Ratio = [Change in Profit/Change in Sales ] × 100
(c) P/ V Ratio = [Sales−Variable Cost/Sales] × 100
(d) All of the above
19. Marginal Costing is a Costing ______________.
(a) Technique (b) Method
(c) System (d) Convention
20. Under absorption and over absorption of overheads problems are not arisen under
______________.
(a) Marginal Costing (b) Standard Costing
(c) Job Costing (d) Budgetary Control
21. Standard cost is the ______________ cost.
(a) Pre-determined (b) Pre-decided
(c) Pre-planned (d) None of the above
22. Small organizations cannot adopt ______________ technique.
(a) Standard Costing (b) Marginal Costing
(c) Budgetary Control (d) None of the above
24 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
23. ______________ means difference between standard cost and actual cost.
(a) Balance Cost (b) Variance
(c) Marginal Cost (d) Variable Cost
24. ______________ helps management to understand the present costs and then to control the
future costs.
(a) ABC Analysis (b) Variance Analysis
(c) Marginal Analysis (d) Budget Analysis
25. Variances are classified in ______________ categories.
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
26. If Standard Cost ` 80 and Actual Cost ` 70, then what is the amount of Material Cost
Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 150 (d) 20
27. If Standard Price ` 8 & Standard Qty.10, Actual Price ` 7 & Actual Qty.10, then what is the
amount of Material Price Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 150 (d) 20
28. If Standard Price ` 8 & Standard Qty.10, Actual Price ` 7 & Actual Qty.10, then what is the
amount of Material Usage Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 50 (d) 0
29. If Standard Rate ` 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ` 2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Cost Variance?
(a) 600 (b) –600
(c) 500 (d) 400
30. If Standard Rate ` 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ` 2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Rate Variance?
(a) 750 (b) –750
(c) 600 (d) 400
31. If Standard Rate ` 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate `2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Efficiency Variance?
(a) 150 (b) –150
(c) 300 (d) 200
32. The correct formula for verification of Material Cost Variance is ______________.
(a) MCV = MPV + MUV (b) MCV = MPV – MUV
(c) MCV = MPV × MUV (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 25
33. The correct formula for verification of Labour Cost Variance is ______________.
(a) LCV = LRV + LEV (b) LCV = LRV – LEV
(c) LCV = LRV × LEV (d) None of the above
34. In Standard Costing comparison between ______________ is carried out.
(a) Standard Cost and Actual Cost (b) Fixed Cost and Variable Cost
(c) Normal Cost and Abnormal Cost (d) None of the above
35. The Disadvantages of Standard Costing is/are ______________.
(a) Establishments of standards are difficult in practice.
(b) Standards are requires to revise continuously.
(c) Inaccurate, unreliable and outdated standards do more harm than benefit
(d) All of the above
36. ______________ is a concrete precise picture of the total operation of an enterprise in
monetary terms.
(a) Budget (b) Plan
(c) Strategy (d) Goal
37. Accuracy cannot be maintained is a limitation of ______________.
(a) Budgetary Control (b) Scientific Planning
(c) Standard Costing (d) Marginal Costing
38. Pre- requisitions for effective implementation of Budgetary Control system is/are
______________.
(a) Deciding budget centres & budget period
(b) Preparation of a budget manual
(c) Determination of budget key factor
(d) All of the above
39. ______________ is the budget in which adjustment is possible according to change in
business conditions.
(a) Flexible Budget (b) Fixed Budget
(c) Sales Budget (d) Cash Budget
40. When forecasts about budget shows greater revenue to be received or generated than the
expenses to be incurred during budgeted period that is known as ______________.
(a) Surplus Budget (b) Best Budget
(c) Favourable Budget (d) Non-favourable Budget
41. ______________ budget highlights that the expenditures to be incurred in budget period will
be greater than the revenues to be received during the same period.
(a) Surplus Budget (b) Deficit Budget
(c) Favourable Budget (d) Non-favourable Budget
26 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
42. The establishment of budgets relating the responsibilities of executives to the requirements of
a policy and the continuous comparison of actual with budgeted results, either to secure by
individual action the objective of that policy or to provide basis for its revision is called as
______________.
(a) Budget (b) Budgeting
(c) Budgetary Control (d) None of the above
43. A ______________ is a powerful tool available to the management for the purpose of
maximizing profits.
(a) Budget (b) Decrease in selling price
(c) Standard Norm (d) Increase in selling price
44. Fixed Budget is also known as ______________.
(a) Static Budget (b) Standard Budget
(c) Master Budget (d) Flexible Budget
45. Normal Profit means ______________.
(a) No Profit No Loss (b) Less Profit
(c) Expected Profit (d) None of the above
46. Personnel Budget is also called as ______________.
(a) Cost Budget (b) Labour Budget
(c) Employee Budget (d) None of the above
47. In cash budget, ______________ transactions are considered.
(a) Cash (b) Credit
(c) all financial (d) None of the above
48. Budget is prepared for a ______________ period of time.
(a) Fixed (b) One Month
(c) One Year (d) None of the above
49. Purchase Budget is also called as ______________.
(a) Production Budget (b) Material Budget
(c) Cost Budget (d) None of the above
50. ______________ is the plan of proposed investment in the fixed assets.
(a) Fixed Budget (b) Capital Expenditure Budget
(c) Cash Budget (d) Purchase Budget
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 27
Dr. D. Y. Patil Unitech Society’s
Dr. D.Y. PATIL INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT & RESEARCH,
Sant Tukaram Nagar, Pimpri, Pune-411018, Maharashtra, India.
33. are the amounts the business earns by selling its products or providing
services to customers.
(a) Assets (b) Goods
(c) Investments (d) Revenues
34. are the costs incurred by a business in the process of earning revenue.
(a) Assets (b) Expenses
(c) Investments (d) Revenues
35. are persons and/or other entities who owe to an enterprise an amount for
receiving goods and services on credit.
(a) Debtors (b) Creditors
(c) Shareholders (d) Suppliers
36. are persons and/or other entities that have to be paid by an enterprise an
amount for providing the enterprise goods and services on credit.
(a) Debtors (b) Creditors
(c) Shareholders (d) Customers
37. is a list of the entire general ledger account names and balances; it is
prepared to prove the ledger.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Trial Balance
38. The difference of two sides of an account is called as .
(a) Debit (b) Credit
(c) Balance (d) Cash
39. deals with expenses related to or identified with products, which may only
be a part of the organization.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
40. In stocks are valued at lower of cost or market value.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
41. The primary objective of is to provide necessary information to the
management in the process of its planning, controlling, and performance evaluation, and
decision-making.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
42. The Success of does not depend upon Management Accounting system.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
43. In no statutory requirement of audit for reports.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 11
44. Which is the most popular and acceptable software?
(a) Tally (b) Marg
(c) Saral (d) SAP
45. The Advantage/s of Accounting Software .
(a) Accounting softwares save Time and Money.
(b) No scope for mistakes and errors.
(c) Provides accurate and updated information as and when require(d)
(d) All of the above
46. Internal and external parties are the users of .
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
47. Capital A/c generally shows balance.
(a) Cash (b) Debit
(c) Credit (d) Overdraft
48. Asset A/c shows balance.
(a) Cash (b) Debit
(c) Credit (d) Overdraft
49. There are columns in Journal.
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) Five
50. Explanatory note written below an entry recorded in the Journal is called as .
(a) Narration (b) Explanation
(c) Brief information (d) Detail information
Chapter 2
Understanding of Financial Statements
1. shows the firm’s assets, liabilities, and stockholders’ equity as of the report
date.
(a) Cash Flow (b) Funds Flow
(c) Income Statement (d) Balance Sheet
2. shows the results of the firm’s operations and financial activities for the
reporting period.
(a) Trading and Profit & Loss Account (b) Expense Statement
(c) Income Statement (d) Balance Sheet
3. includes explanations of various activities, additional details of some
accounts, and other items as mandated by the regulatory authorities, bodies from time to time.
(a) Trading and Profit & Loss Account (b) Expense Statement
(c) Income Statement (d) Supplementary Note
4. is a formal official record of the financial activities and position of a
business, person, or other entity.
(a) Financial Statement (b) Trading Account
(c) Profit & Loss Account (d) Supplementary Note
5. provides the vital information related to the profitability, liquidity and
solvency of the business.
(a) Financial Statement (b) Trading Account
(c) Profit & Loss Account (d) Cash Flow & Funds Flow
6. is the simplest business form under which one can operate a business.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole Trading Firm
(c) Private Ltd. Company (d) Public Company
7. is not a separate legal entity.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole Proprietorship Firm
(c) Private Ltd. Company (d) One Man Company
8. For every item given in Trial Balance, effect should be given.
(a) Dual (b) Single
(c) Triple (d) None of the above
9. For every item given in Adjustment, effect should be given.
(a) Dual (b) Single
(c) Triple (d) None of the above
10. are nothing but the entries which are not included in the original Trial
Balance.
(a) Journal Proper (b) Ledger
(c) Adjustments (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 11
11. Every adjustment has two effects, i.e., .
(a) One Debit & One Credit (b) Debit
(c) Credit (d) None of the above
12. Depreciation is debited to .
(a) BRS (b) Balance Sheet
(c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
13. Income Accrued but Not Received is recorded to .
(a) Profit and Loss A/c Debit Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side
(c) Trading A/c Debit Side (d) Trading A/c Credit Side
14. Prepaid Expenses shown at .
(a) Balance Sheet Asset Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side
(c) Trading A/c Debit Side (d) Trading A/c Credit Side
15. Closing Stock is recorded to .
(a) Profit and Loss A/c Debit Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side
(c) Trading A/c Debit Side (d) Trading A/c Credit Side
16. Outstanding Expenses shown at .
(a) Balance Sheet Liability Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side
(c) Balance Sheet Asset Side (d) Trading A/c Credit Side
17. Goods Withdrawn from business is considered as .
(a) Sales (b) Purchases
(c) Capital (d) Drawings
18. Interest on Capital is debited to .
(a) Capital A/c (b) Balance Sheet
(c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
19. Interest on Drawings is credited to .
(a) Journal A/c (b) Balance Sheet
(c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
20. Goods Distributed as Free Samples is debited to .
(a) Capital A/c (b) Personal A/c
(c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
21. Reserve for Discount on Creditors is credited to .
(a) Capital A/c (b) Personal A/c
(c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
22. information is ignored in the financial statements.
(a) Cash (b) Credit
(c) Qualitative (d) Quantitative
23. The financial statements are based on the accounting .
(a) Accounting Concepts and Conventions
(b) Accounting Concepts
10 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
12. If Fixed Cost is Rs. 2,50,000 and P/V Ratio is 60%, then what is BEP in
`? (a) ` 4,16,667 (b) ` 3,83,333
(c) ` 3,75,000 (d) ` 4,10,000
13. If Fixed Cost is Rs. 2,50,000 and Profit is Rs. 3,50,000, then what is the amount of
Contribution? (a) ` 1,00,000 (b) ` 6,00,000
(c) ` 3,75,000 (d) ` 4,10,000
14. If Sales are Rs. 50,000 and P/V Ratio is 20%, then what is the amount of Variable
Cost? (a) ` 40,000 (b) ` 10,000
(c) ` 25,000 (d) ` 30,000
15. If contribution is Rs. 3,00,000 and Profit is ` 1,00,000, then what is the amount of Fixed
Cost? (a) ` 4,00,000 (b) `2,00,000
(c) ` 2,50,000 (d) `3,00,000
16. If Sales are Rs. 3,00,000 and P/V ratio is 20%, then what is the amount of Variable
Cost? (a) ` 2,40,000 (b) ` 80,000
(c) ` 2,70,000 (d) ` 2,00,000
17. The correct formula of Contribution is .
(a) Contribution = Sales – Variable Cost
(b) Contribution = Fixed Cost + Profit or – Loss
(c) Contribution = Sales × P/ V Ratio
(d) All of the above
18. The correct formula of P/V Ratio is .
(a) P/ V Ratio = [Contribution/Sales ] × 100
(b) P/ V Ratio = [Change in Profit/Change in Sales ] × 100
(c) P/ V Ratio = [Sales−Variable Cost/Sales] × 100
(d) All of the above
19. Marginal Costing is a Costing .
(a) Technique (b) Method
(c) System (d) Convention
20. Under absorption and over absorption of overheads problems are not arisen under
.
(a) Marginal Costing (b) Standard Costing
(c) Job Costing (d) Budgetary Control
21. Standard cost is the cost.
(a) Pre-determined (b) Pre-decided
(c) Pre-planned (d) None of the above
22. Small organizations cannot adopt technique.
(a) Standard Costing (b) Marginal Costing
(c) Budgetary Control (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 11
23. means difference between standard cost and actual cost.
(a) Balance Cost (b) Variance
(c) Marginal Cost (d) Variable Cost
24. helps management to understand the present costs and then to control the
future costs.
(a) ABC Analysis (b) Variance Analysis
(c) Marginal Analysis (d) Budget Analysis
25. Variances are classified in categories.
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
26. If Standard Cost Rs. 80 and Actual Cost Rs. 70, then what is the amount of Material Cost
Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 150 (d) 20
27. If Standard Price Rs. 8 & Standard Qty.10, Actual Price Rs. 7 & Actual Qty.10, then what is
the amount of Material Price Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 150 (d) 20
28. If Standard Price Rs. 8 & Standard Qty.10, Actual Price Rs. 7 & Actual Qty.10, then what is
the amount of Material Usage Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 50 (d) 0
29. If Standard Rate Rs. 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ` 2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Cost Variance?
(a) 600 (b) –600
(c) 500 (d) 400
30. If Standard Rate Rs. 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ` 2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Rate Variance?
(a) 750 (b) –750
(c) 600 (d) 400
31. If Standard Rate Rs. 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate Rs. 2 & Actual Hours 1500,
then what is the amount of Labour Efficiency Variance?
(a) 150 (b) –150
(c) 300 (d) 200
32. The correct formula for verification of Material Cost Variance is .
(a) MCV = MPV + MUV (b) MCV = MPV – MUV
(c) MCV = MPV × MUV (d) None of the above
10 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
MCQ for Managerial Accounting
a) Shareholders
b) Creditors
c) Managers
d) Regulatory agencies
a) Creditor
b) Department manager
c) Controller
d) Treasurer
a) Service entities
b) Manufacturing entities
c) Non profit entities
d) All of these
5. The work of factory employees that can be physically associated with converting raw
material into finished goods is classified as-
a) Manufacturing overhead
b) Indirect materials
c) Indirect labour
d) Direct labour
37
c) Management
d) All
8. Which type of asset class includes those assets which have only definite use and become
valueless when the yield is over?
a) Fixed asset
b) Current asset
c) Fictitious asset
d) Wasting asset
9. An accounting that deals with the accounting and reporting of information to management
regarding the detail information is
a) Financial accounting
b) Management accounting
c) Cost accounting
d) Real Accounting
a) Debtors account
b) Bad debts account
c) Sales account
d) Creditors account
37
a) Nominal account- debit all expenses & losses
b) Real account- credit what comes in
c)Nominal account- credit all incomes & gains
d) Personal account- debit the receiver
13. Cost of goods sold= opening stock+ net purchases+ expenses on Purchases – sales
Which part of formula is wrong? a) opening stock
b) net purchases
c) expenses on Purchases
d)sales
a) Cash account
b) Mahesh Account
c) Sales account
d) Purchase account
37
b) Customer’s account
c) Sales account
d) Cash account
37
b) Large business enterprise only
c) Small business concerns only
d) Manufacturing and service concern
26. is a person or item for which cost may be ascertained. a) Cost unit
b) Cost centre
c) Cost object
d) Cost estimation
29. Amortization of intangible Asset Such as Goodwill which has indefinite life is an example of
accounting concept
a) Conservatism Concept
b) Continuity Concept
c) Realisation Concept
d) Measurement Concept
31. cost will still be incurred although a plant is shut down temporarily.
a) Cost of raw material
b) Advertising
c) Depreciation
d) Carriage
37
32. Accounting principles are generally based upon:
a) Practicability
b) Subjectivity
c) Convenience in recording
d) None of the above
34. The practice of appending notes regarding contingent liabilities in accounting statements is in
pursuance to:
a) Convention of consistency
b) Money measurement concept
c) Convention of conservatism
d) Convention of disclosure
39. Income tax paid by a sole proprietor on his business income should be:
a) Debited to trading account
37
b) Debited to profit and loss account
c) Deducted from capital account in the balance sheet
d) None of the above
40. All direct & indirect expenses related to business are charged:
a) Profit and loss account
b) Trading account
c) Trading account Profit and Loss account
d) Directly to Balance sheet
41. According to schedule VI Companies Act which item is not shown on Asset side of Balance
sheet
a) Investment
b) Current Loan & Advances
c) Provision
d) Lease Holds
43. Investment of X company profit in shares of other company PQR Pvt. ltd are recorded
in……………….
a) Asset side of Balance Sheet
b) Liability side of Balance Sheet
c) Profit & Loss a/c
d) Not recorded in Balance Sheet
a) Remains fixed
b) Fluctuates with volume of production
c) Varies in consideration with the volume of sales
d) None of the above
37
46. The books to be compulsorily maintained by a company are:
a) Increases assets
b) Results in no change in the total assets
c) Decreases assets
d) Increases liability
37
d) Debiting employee a/c ; crediting salary a/c
53. Cost of asset should always be equal to the cost of the liabilities. This concept is
a) Realization Concept
b) Matching Concept
c) Cost Concept
d) Both a and b above
a) Consistency concept
b) Conservatism concept
c) Accounting period concept
d) Cost Concept
a) Current assets
b) Current liabilities
c) Fixed asset
d) Fixed liability
59. Reserve for doubtful debts appearing in the trial balance should be:
37
b) Shown as liability side in balance sheet
c) Reduced from related asset in the balance sheet
d) Both a and b
e) Both a and c
a) Debtors
b) Investors
c) Creditors
d) Shareholders
61. According to which concept business is treated as a unit apart from owner
a) Dual concept
b) Divider concept
c) Entity concept
d) Landlord concept
62. Authorized capital, also known as
a) Nominal capital
b) Paid up capital
c) Issues capital
d) None of these
63. True & fair profit and loss a/c of a company know by
a) Preparing trial balance
b) Preparing respective ledger of account
c) Preparing trading a/c
d) Preparing trading & profit & loss a/c
65. Under which concept it is assumed that the enterprises has neither the intention nor the
necessity of liquidation or of curtailing materiality the scale of operation
a) Revenue realization concept
b) Matching cost concept
37
c) Going concern concept
d) None of these
66. Making the provision for doubtful debts and discount on debtors in anticipation of actual
bad debts and discount is an example for which concept
a) Conservatism concept
b) Continuity concept
c) Realization concept
d) All of these
72. . Which of the following account balance will be shown on debit side of Trial Balance?
a) Outstanding expenses
b) Cash a/c
37
c) Short term loan
d) creditors
73. The reduction in the value of the fixed assets which can arise due to time factor is
a)Discount
b) Depreciation
c)Reduction
d) None of the above
37
b) Cost concept
c) Continuity concept
d) Money measurement concept
81. Proposed dividends" is shown in the Balance Sheet of a company under the head:
a) Provisions
b) Reserves and Surplus
c) Current Liabilities
d) Other Liabilities
82. Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of:
a) Separate entity
b) Going concern
c) Consistency
d) Time period
a) Income Statement
b) Cash Flow Statement
c) Balance Sheet
d) Fund Flow Statement
Bought office wooden table for cash office wooden table cash
Ramesh sold goods on credited to Ram sales cash
37
Introduce capital by cheque capital Bank
Paid to creditor Sita by cheque Sita Bank
a) (ii) (iii)(i)
b) (iii)(iv)(ii)
c) (i)(iii)(iv)
d) (i)(iv)
88. Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of:
a) Separate entity
b) Going concern
c) Consistency
d) Time period
37
92. The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following types of businesses? a.
Sole proprietorship
b. Corporation
c. Partnership
d. All of them
93. Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a business is divided for the
purpose of preparing financial statements?
a) Fiscal year
b) Calendar year
c) Accounting period
d) Accrual period
97. Which of the following is not regarded as the fundamental accounting concept?
a. The going concern concept
b. The separate entity concept
c. The prudence (conservatism) concept
d. Correction concept
98. Using "lower of cost and net realisable value(Market Value)" for the purpose of inventory
valuation is the implementation of which of the following concepts?
a) The going concern concept
b) The separate entity concept
c) The prudence concept
d) Matching concept
37
99. The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following types of businesses?
a) Sole proprietorship
b) Corporation
c) Partnership
d) All of them
100. The revenue recognition principal dictates that all types of incomes should be recorded or
recognized when
a) Cash is received
b) At the end of accounting period
c) When they are earned
d) When interest is paid
101. The allocation of owner's private expenses to his/her business violates which of the
following?
a) Accrual concept
b) Matching concept
c) Separate business entity concept
d) Consistency concept
102. The going concern concept assumes that
37
c) Immaterial
d) Material
106. "Financial information should be neutral and bias free" is the dictation of which one of the
following?
a) Completeness concept
b) Faithful representation Concept
c) Objectivity Concept
d) Duality Concept
107. Accounting principles are divided into two types. These are ---
a) Accounting Concepts
b) Accounting Conventions
c) Accounting Standards
d) Accounting Concepts &Accounting Conventions
108. Which of the following is not related with Money Measurement Concept ?
a) All business transaction should be expressed only in money
b) The transactions which cannot be expressed in money, will not be recorded in
accounting books
c) Business is treated as separate from the proprietor
d) None of These
109. Which of the following equation is related with Dual Aspect Concept ?
a) Total Assets = Total Liabilities
b) Total Assets = Capital + Outsider’s Liabilities
c) Capital = Total Assets - Outsider’s Liabilities
d) All of the above
110. If the total assets of the company amount to Rs 1,50,000 and owner’s equity is Rs 70,000,the
amount of liabilities will be –
a) Rs 70,000
b) Rs 80,000
c) Rs 90,000
d) Rs 1,00,000
a) Profit
37
b) Assets
c) Company
d) Books of A/c
a) Depreciation
b) Wages
c) Salary
d) Stationary
a) Patents
b) Trade Marks
c) Copyright
d) Land
117. The prime function of accounting is to
37
c) Controlling function
d) None of these
120.Book keeping is mainly concerned with
a) Practicability
b) Subjectivity
c) Convenience in recording
d) None of these
122. The system of recording transaction based on dual aspect concept is called
125. The convention of conservatism when applied to the balance sheet result in.
37
c) Providing depreciation
d) None of these
127. The amount brought in by the proprietor in the business should be credited to
a) Cash a/c
b) Capital a/c
c) Drawing a/c
d) Bank a/c
a) Customer a/c
b) Sales return a/c
c) Goods a/c
d) Purchase return a/c
a) Cash a/c
b) Mahesh a/c
c) Sales a/c
d) Sales return a/c
a) Discount a/c
b) Customer a/c
c) Sales a/c
d) None of these
133. In case of a debt becoming bad, the amount should be credited to
a) Debtors Accounts
b) Bad debts a/c
c) Sales a/c
37
a) Ascertain the cost of goods and services
b) Ascertain the profit
c) Presentation of all data
d) None of these
a) Convention of conservatism
b) Convention of full disclosure
c) Convention of consistency
d) None of these
136. Accountant should follow the same principles of accounting continuously is as per which
accounting convention
a) Convention of conservatism
b) Convention of full disclosure
c) Convention of consistency
d) None of these
138. The convention of disclosure implies that all material information should be
a) Single aspect
b) Dual aspect
c) Triple aspect
d) None of these
140. Custom and traditions which guide the accountant while preparing the accounting
statements
a) Accounting convention
37
b) Accounting concepts
c) Accounting principles
d) None of these
141. Rules of action or conduct adopted by the accountants universally while recording
accounting transaction
a) Accounting convention
b) Accounting concepts
c) Accounting principles
d) None of these
142. Basic assumptions or conditions upon which the science of accounting is based.
a) Accounting convention
b) Accounting concepts
c) Accounting principles
d) None of these.
A. system in which accounting entries are made on the basis of amounts having become due
for payment or receipt is called
a) Cash concept
b) Accrual concept
c) Matching concept
d) On-going concept
a) Real a/c
b) Personal a/c
c) Nominal a/c
d) None of these
145. Debit what come in Credit what goes out rule for
a) Real a/c
b) Personal a/c
c) Nominal a/c
d) None of these
146. Debit all expenses and losses Credit all gains and income.
a) Real a/c
b) Personal a/c
c) Nominal a/c
d) None of these
147. A book containing a chronological record of business transaction & original record
a) Journal
37
b) Ledger
c) Trial balance
d) None of these
148. Transferring the debit and credit item from the journal to the respective accounts is
150. The transferring of debit and credit items from journal to the respective accounts in the
ledger is called as
a) Ledger
b) Posting
c) Forward journal
d) None of these
151. Which of the following items would not fall under the definition of an asset? a)
Land
b) Machine
c) Cash
d) Owner Equity
152. Which one of the following items would fall under the definition of a liability a)
Cash
b) Debtor
c) Owner’s equity
d) None of these
37
154.A business has the following items in it:
Land Rs.1,000,000
Machinery Rs.20,000
Cash Rs.10,000
Debt Rs.0
Owner’s equity ?
a) Rs.200, 000
b) Rs.700, 000
c) Rs.800, 000
d) Rs1, 100,000
157.A business has following items in it
Land ?
Vehicles Rs.600,000
Debtors Rs. 1,20,000
Cash Rs.30,000
Owners’Equity Rs.1,000,000
Loan 5,00,000
37
Creditors Rs.50,000
What is the value of the land…………………..
e) 1,000,000
f) 1,550,000
g) 800,000
h) None of these
158. Which of the following equations properly represents a derivation of the fundamental
accounting equation?
a) Only (a)
b) Both (a) (b)
c) All (a)(b)(c)(d)
d) None of these
159. Retained earnings will change over time because of several factors. Which of the following
factors would explain an increase in retained earnings?
a) Net Loss
b) Net income
c) Dividend
d) Investment by share holder.
Cash Rs.100
37
Accounts Receivable Rs.500
Stock holder equity Rs.700
Accounts Payable Rs.200
Bank Loan Rs.1,000
a) Rs.200
b) Rs.1900
c) Rs.1200
d) Rs.1700
163. The full disclosure principle, as adopted by the accounting profession, is best described by
which of the following?
a) All information related to an entity's business and operating objectives is required to be
disclosed in the financial statements.
b) Information about each account balance appearing in the financial statements is to be
included in the notes to the financial statements.
c) Enough information should be disclosed in the financial statements so a person wishing
to invest in the stock of the company can make a profitable decision.
d) Disclosure of any financial facts significant enough to influence the judgment of an
informed reader
166. The Cash account on the balance sheet should not include which of the following items?
a. Travel advances to employees
b. Currency
c. Money orders
d. Deposits in transit
37
b. Assets and equity.
168. The following comments all relate to the recording process. Which of these statements is
correct?
b. The general ledger is posted from transactions recorded in the general journal.
c. The trial balance provides the primary source document for recording transactions into
the general journal.
d. Transposition is the transfer of information from the general journal to the general
ledger.
169. The following comments each relate to the recording of journal entries. Which statement is
true?
c. The chart of accounts reveals the amount to debit and credit to the affected accounts.
171. . Which of the following errors will be disclosed in the preparation of a trial balance?
37
d. Recording the wrong amount for a transaction to both the account debited and the
account credited.
172. The basic sequence in the accounting process can best be described as:
173. Inventory accounts should be classified in which section of a balance sheet? a. Current
assets
b. Investments
c. Property, plant, and equipment
d. Intangible assets
Planning
b) Decision making
c) Control
d) All of these
178. Which of the following statements about differences between financial and managerial
accounting is incorrect?
37
a) Managerial accounting information is prepared primarily for external parties
such as stockholders and creditors; financial accounting is directed at internal
users.
b) Financial accounting is aggregated; managerial accounting is focused on products and
departments.
c) Managerial accounting pertains to both past and future items; financial accounting
focuses primarily on past transactions and events.
d) Financial accounting is based on generally accepted accounting practices; managerial
accounting faces no similar constraining factors.
180. Manufacturing costs are also known as product costs. Which of the following best describes
those costs which are considered to be manufacturing costs?
181. A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, plus long distance
charges, would be classified as a:
a. Variable cost
b. Committed fixed cost
c. Direct cost
d. Semi variable cost
37
184. Business entity concept distinguishes between:
a) Asset
b) Liability
c) Accounts
187. Financial statements are:
a) Estimates of facets
b) Anticipated facts
c) recorded facts
188. Retained earnings statement depicts:
a) Appropriation of profits
b) Estimates of profits
c) Estimates of costs
a) Management
b) Creditors
c) Bankers
d) All of the above
37
a) Sundry creditors
b) Acceptances
c) Unclaimed dividend
d) Short term investment
191. Financial accounting deals with:
a) Determination of cost
b) Determination of profit
c) Determination of price
d) Determination of selling price
a) Actual figures
b) Budgeted figures
c) Standard figures
d) Management Figure
a) 1910
b) 1939
c) 1950
d) 1960
37
c) Current asset
d) Owners equity
a) Financial
b) Economic
c) Non financial
d) None of these
199. Which items does not come under the balance sheet
a) sales
b) Share capital
c) Reserves and surplus
d) Unsecured loan
b) Clerical
37
c) Executive
d) Non- executive
204. Depreciation is a . a)
Cash operating expenditure
b) Accrual basis
c) Mercantile basis
d) Single entry basis
206. Which of the following is true for: -“In accounts recording is done of ” a)
only financial transaction
b) Revenue
c) Direct
d) Non- cash
37
a) Nominal account
b) Real Account
b) Trial Balance
c) Ledger
d) Journal
210. Amount brought in by proprietor should be credited to
a) cash account
b) capital account
c) drawings account
d) creditors account
b) Salaries account
c) Cash account
d) Outstanding expenses
212. All costs other than direct materials cost, direct labour cost and direct expenses are known as:
a) Indirect material cost
b) Overhead
c) Indirect labour cost
d) Indirect expenses
213. A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, plus long distance
charges, would be classified as a:
e. Variable cost
f. Committed fixed cost
37
g. Direct cost
h. Semi variable cost
215. The work of factory employees that can be physically associated with converting raw
material into finished goods is classified as-
e. Manufacturing overhead
f. Indirect materials
g. Indirect labour
h. Direct labour
216. Which one of the following would not be classified as manufacturing overhead? a) Indirect
labour
b) Direct materials
c) Insurance on factory building
d) Indirect materials
218. A manufacturing process requires small amounts of glue. The glue used in the process is
classified as
a) A prime cost
b) An indirect material
c) A direct material
d) Miscellaneous expense
37
220. Because of automation, which component of product cost is declining? a)
Direct labour
b) Direct materials
c) Manufacturing overhead
d) Advertising
224. Aggregate of cost of goods sold and selling and distribution overheads is known as : a)
Total Cost
b) Office Cost
c) Cost of sales
d) Selling overhead
37
Direct material purchased: Rs. 1,00,000
Direct material consumed: Rs. 90,000
Direct labour: Rs. 60,000
Direct expenses: Rs. 20,000
Manufacturing overheads: Rs. 30,000
(a) Rs. 1,80,000
(b) Rs. 2,00,000
(c) Rs. 1,70,000
(d) Rs. 2,10,000
37
DNYANSAGAR INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH
Q. no Question Answer
1. Managerial accounting information is generally prepared for C
…………………
a. Shareholders
b. Creditors
c. Managers
d. Regulatory agencies
a. Creditor
b. Department manager
c. Controller
d. Treasurer
a. Service entities
b. Manufacturing entities
c. Non profit entities
d. All of these
8 Which type of asset class includes those assets which have only D
definite use and become valueless when the yield is over?
a. Fixed asset
b. Current asset
c. Fictitious asset
d. Wasting asset
9 An accounting that deals with the accounting and reporting of B
information to managementregarding the detail information is
a. Financial accounting
b. Management accounting
c. Cost accounting
d. Real Accounting
10
13. Cost of goods sold= opening stock+ net purchases+ expenses on Purchases – D
sales Which part of formula is wrong?
a. opening stock
b. net purchases
c. expenses on Purchases
d. sales
28 cost refers to those cost which have already been incurred and cannot be B
altered by any decision in the future.
a. Opportunity cost
b. Sunk Cost
c. Incremental cost
d. Decremental cost
31. cost will still be incurred although a plant is shut down temporarily. C
a. Cost of raw material
b. Advertising
c. Depreciation
d. Carriage
32 Accounting principles are generally based upon: A
a. Practicability
b. Subjectivity
c. Convenience in recording
d. None of the above
33 The system of recording based on dual aspect concept is called: B
a. Double account system
b. Double entry system
c. Single entry system
d. All the above
34 The practice of appending notes regarding contingent liabilities in accounting D
statements is in pursuance to:
a. Convention of consistency
b. Money measurement concept
c. Convention of conservatism
d. Convention of disclosure
35 Sales are equal to: A
a. Cost of goods sold + gross profit
b. Cost of goods sold - gross profit
c. Gross profit- Cost of goods sold
d. None of the above
36 Interest on drawings is: C
a. Expenditure for the business
b. Cost for the business
c. Gain for the business
d. None of the above
37 Goods given as samples should be credited to: C
a. Advertisement account
b. Sales account
c. Purchase account
d. None of the above
38. Outstanding salaries are shown as: C
a. Added to Salaries while preparing P & La/c
b. Shown in liability side of Balance sheet under current Liability.
c. (a) &(b) above
d. None of the above
39 Income tax paid by a sole proprietor on his business income should be: C
a. Debited to trading account
b. Debited to profit and loss account
c. Deducted from capital account in the balance sheet
d. None of the above
40. All direct & indirect expenses related to business are charged: C
a. Profit and loss account
b. Trading account
c. Trading account Profit and Loss account
d. Directly to Balance sheet
43 Investment of X company profit in shares of other company PQR Pvt. ltd are A
recorded in……………….
a. Asset side of Balance Sheet
b. Liability side of Balance Sheet
c. Profit & Loss a/c
d. Not recorded in Balance Sheet
a. Remains fixed
b. Fluctuates with volume of production
c. Varies in consideration with the volume of sales
d. None of the above
a. Increases assets
b. Results in no change in the total assets
c. Decreases assets
d. Increases liability
63 Cost of asset should always be equal to the cost of the liabilities. This concept B
is
a. Realization Concept
b. Matching Concept
c. Cost Concept
d. Both a and b above
a. Consistency concept
b. Conservatism concept
c. Accounting period concept
d. Cost Concept
a. Current assets
b. Current liabilities
c. Fixed asset
d. Fixed liability
69 Reserve for doubtful debts appearing in the trial balance should be: E
a. Debtors
b. Investors
c. Creditors
d. Shareholders
71 According to which concept business is treated as a unit apart from owner C
a. Dual concept
b. Divider concept
c. Entity concept
d. Landlord concept
72 Authorized capital, also known as A
a. Nominal capital
b. Paid up capital
c. Issues capital
d. None of these
73 True & fair profit and loss a/c of a company know by D
a. Preparing trial balance
b. Preparing respective ledger of account
c. Preparing trading a/c
d. Preparing trading & profit & loss a/c
74 Credit balance of profit & loss a/c shown on B
a. Asset side of balance sheet
b. Liability side of balance sheet
c. Not shown in balance sheet
d. Half on asset side and half on liability side
75 Under which concept it is assumed that the enterprises has neither the C
intention nor the necessity of liquidation or of curtailing materiality the scale
of operation
a. Revenue realization concept
b. Matching cost concept
c. Going concern concept
d. None of these
76 Making the provision for doubtful debts and discount on debtors in A
anticipation of actual bad debts and discount is an example for which concept
a. Conservatism concept
b. Continuity concept
c. Realization concept
d. All of these
82 Which of the following account balance will be shown on debit side of Trial D
Balance?
a. Outstanding expenses
b. Cash a/c
c. Short term loan
d. creditors
83 The reduction in the value of the fixed assets which can arise due to time B
factor is
a. Discount
b. Depreciation
c. Reduction
d. None of the above
92 Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of: B
a. Separate entity
b. Going concern
c. Consistency
d. Time period
a. Income Statement
b. Cash Flow Statement
c. Balance Sheet
d. Fund Flow Statement
95 Which of the following is a liability? A
a. Loan from Mr.Y
b. loan to Mr.y
c. Both (a) (b)
d. None of these
92 Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of: B
e. Separate entity
f. Going concern
g. Consistency
h. Time period
e. Income Statement
f. Cash Flow Statement
g. Balance Sheet
h. Fund Flow Statement
95 Which of the following is a liability? A
e. Loan from Mr.Y
f. loan to Mr.y
g. Both (a) (b)
h. None of these
97 Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of: B
a. Separate entity
b. Going concern
c. Consistency
d. Time period
a. Fiscal year
b. Calendar year
c. Accounting period
d. Accrual period
107 Using "lower of cost and net realisable value(Market Value)" for the purpose C
of inventory valuation is the implementation of which of the following
concepts?
a. The going concern concept
b. The separate entity concept
c. The prudence concept
d. Matching concept
108 The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following D
types of businesses?
a. Sole proprietorship
b. Corporation
c. Partnership
d. All of them
109 The revenue recognition principal dictates that all types of incomes should be C
recorded or recognized when
a. Cash is received
b. At the end of accounting period
c. When they are earned
d. When interest is paid
110 The allocation of owner's private expenses to his/her business violates which C
of the following?
a. Accrual concept
b. Matching concept
c. Separate business entity concept
d. Consistency concept
112 Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a C
business is divided for the purpose of preparing financial statements?
a. Fiscal year
b. Calendar year
c. Accounting period
d. Accrual period
113 Showing purchased office equipments in financial statements is the B
application of which accounting concept?
a. Historical cost convention
b. Materiality
c. Prudence
d. Matching concept
114 Information about an item is if its omission or misstatement might D
influence the financial decision of the users taken on the basis of that
information
a. Concrete
b. Complete
c. Immaterial
d. Material
115 "Financial information should be neutral and bias free" is the dictation of C
which one of the following?
a. Completeness concept
b. Faithful representation Concept
c. Objectivity Concept
d. Duality Concept
116 Accounting principles are divided into two types. These are --- D
a. Accounting Concepts
b. Accounting Conventions
c. Accounting Standards
d. Accounting Concepts &Accounting Conventions
117 Which of the following is not related with Money Measurement Concept ? B
a. All business transaction should be expressed only in money
b. The transactions which cannot be expressed in money, will not be
recorded in accounting books
c. Business is treated as separate from the proprietor
d. None of These
118 Which of the following equation is related with Dual Aspect Concept ? D
a. Total Assets = Total Liabilities
b. Total Assets = Capital + Outsider’s Liabilities
c. Capital = Total Assets - Outsider’s Liabilities
d. All of the above
119 If the total assets of the company amount to Rs 1,50,000 and owner’s B
equity is Rs 70,000, the amount of liabilities will be –
a. Rs 70,000
b. Rs 80,000
c. Rs 90,000
d. Rs 1,00,000
c. Controlling function
d. None of these
131 The convention of conservatism when applied to the balance sheet result A
in.
a. Understand the asset
b. Understand the liabilities
c. Overstatement of capital
d. None of these
c. Providing depreciation
d. None of these
133 The amount brought in by the proprietor in the business should be credited B
to
a. Cash a/c
b. Capital a/c
c. Drawing a/c
d. Bank a/c
134 The amount of salary paid to Suresh should be debited to B
a. The account of Suresh
b. Salaries a/c
c. Cash a/c
d. Bank a/c
141 The convention of disclosure implies that all material information should be A
a. Disclosed in the account
b. Disclosed in the accounts which is required to owner
c. Not disclosed
d. None of these
143 Custom and traditions which guide the accountant while preparing the C
accounting statements
a. Accounting convention
b. Accounting concepts
c. Accounting principles
d. None of these
145 system in which accounting entries are made on the basis of amounts having B
become due for payment or receipt is called
a. Cash concept
b. Accrual concept
c. Matching concept
d. On-going concept
147 Debit what come in Credit what goes out rule for A
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
148 Debit all expenses and losses Credit all gains and income. C
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
150 Transferring the debit and credit item from the journal to the respective B
accounts is called
a. Compound Journal
b. Ledger
c. Trial balance
d. None of these
152 The transferring of debit and credit items from journal to the respective B
accounts in the ledger is called as
a. Ledger
b. Posting
c. Forward journal
d. None of these
153 Which of the following items would not fall under the definition of an asset? D
a. Land
b. Machine
c. Cash
d. Owner Equity
154 Which one of the following items would fall under the definition of a C
liability
a. Cash
b. Debtor
c. Owner’s equity
d. None of these
a. Rs.200, 000
b. Rs.700, 000
c. Rs.800, 000
d. Rs1, 100,000
Creditors Rs.50,000
What is the value of the land…………………..
a. 1,000,000
b. 1,550,000
c. 800,000
d. None of these
160 Which of the following equations properly represents a derivation of the D
fundamental accounting equation?
a. Only (a)
b. Both (a) (b)
c. All (a)(b)(c)(d)
d. d) None of these
161 Retained earnings will change over time because of several factors. Which B
of the following factors would explain an increase in retained earnings?
a. Net Loss
b. Net income
c. Dividend
d. Investment by share holder.
164 XYZltd.has provided the following information about its balance sheet: B
Cash Rs.100
a. Rs.200
b. Rs.1900
c. Rs.1200
d. Rs.1700
165 The full disclosure principle, as adopted by the accounting profession, is D
best described by which of the following?
a. All information related to an entity's business and operating
objectives is required to be disclosed in the financial statements.
b. Information about each account balance appearing in the financial
statements is to be included in the notes to the financial
statements.
c. Enough information should be disclosed in the financial statements
so a person wishing to invest in the stock of the company can make
a profitable decision.
d. Disclosure of any financial facts significant enough to influence the
judgment of an informed reader
166 Which of the following is a real (permanent) account? D
a. Goodwill
b. Sales
c. Accounts Receivable
d. Both Goodwill and Accounts Receivable
167 Which of the following statements is not an objective of financial B
reporting?
a. Provide information that is useful in investment and credit
decisions.
b. Provide information regarding policy of organization
c. Provide information that is useful in assessing cash flow
prospective
d. None of theses
168 The Cash account on the balance sheet should not include which of the A
following items?
a. Travel advances to employees
b. Currency
c. Money orders
d. Deposits in transit
170 The following comments all relate to the recording process. Which of these B
statements is correct?
a. The general ledger is a chronological record of transactions.
b. The general ledger is posted from transactions recorded in the general
journal.
c. The trial balance provides the primary source document for recording
transactions into the general journal.
d. Transposition is the transfer of information from the general journal to
the general ledger.
171 The following comments each relate to the recording of journal entries. Which D
statement is true?
a. For any given journal entry, debits must exceed credits.
b. It is customary to record credits on the left and debits on the right.
c. The chart of accounts reveals the amount to debit and credit to the
affected accounts.
d. Journalization is the process of converting transactions and events into
debit/credit format.
172 The trial balance is ………………………….. D
173 Which of the following errors will be disclosed in the preparation of a trial C
balance?
a. Recording transactions in the wrong account.
b. Duplication of a transaction in the accounting records.
c. Posting only the debit portion of a particular journal entry.
d. Recording the wrong amount for a transaction to both the account
debited and the account credited.
174 The basic sequence in the accounting process can best be described as: D
a. Transaction, journal entry, source document, ledger account, trial
balance.
b. Source document, transaction, ledger account, journal entry, trial
balance.
c. Transaction, source document, journal entry, trial balance, ledger
account.
d. d. Transaction, source document, journal entry, ledger account,
trial balance.
181 Manufacturing costs are also known as product costs. Which of the C
following best describes those costs which are considered to be
manufacturing costs?
a. Direct materials, direct labor, and factory overhead.
b. Direct materials and direct labor only.
c. Direct materials, direct labor, factory overhead, and administrative
overhead.
d. Direct labor and factory overhead.
182 A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, D
plus long distance charges, would be classified as a:
a. Variable cost
b. Committed fixed cost
c. Direct cost
d. Semi variable cost
a. Sundry creditors
b. Acceptances
c. Unclaimed dividend
d. Short term investment
193 Financial accounting deals with: B
a. Determination of cost
b. Determination of profit
c. Determination of price
d. Determination of selling price
194 Financial account record only A
a. Actual figures
b. Budgeted figures
c. Standard figures
d. Management Figure
195 The term Management Accounting was first used in C
a. 1910
b. 1939
c. 1950
d. 1960
d. Six months
205 A budget is tool which helps the management in planning and control of… A
a. All business activities
b. Production activities
c. Purchase activities
d. Sales activities
206 Budgetary control system acts as a friend, philosopher and guide to the… A
a. Management
b. Share holders
c. Creditors
d. Employees
207 Budgetary control system defines the objectives and policies of the… D
a. Production department
b. Finance department
c. Marketing department
d. All
208 Budgetary control system facilitates centralized control with… C
a. Decentralized activity
b. Centralized activity
c. Both
d. None
209 Budgetary control facilitates easy introduction of the… C
a. Marginal costing
b. Ratio analysis
c. Standard costing
d. Subjective matter
210 Budgetary control helps the management in… A
a. Obtaining bank credit
b. Issue of shares
c. Getting grants from government
d. All of these
211 Budgetary control system helps the management to eliminate… C
a. Undercapitalization
b. Overcapitalization
c. Both
d. Subjective matter
212 Budgetary control provides a basis for… C
a. Bonus shares
b. Rights shares
c. Remuneration plans
d. None
213 Budgetary control helps to introduce a suitable incentive and B
remuneration based
on…
a. Changes in government policies
b. Inflationary conditions
c. Both
d. None
229 On the basis of flexibility budget is classified into two types such as fixed A
budget and
________ budget.
a. variable
b. Semi-variable
c. Constant
230 Variable budget is also known as _______ budget. C
a. Fixed
b. Semi-variable
c. Flexible
231 The budget prepared according to ________ is known as functional C
budgets.
a. Period
b. Controls
c. Functions
232 ……………….. budget is a budget which is designed to remain unchanged C
irrespective of the volume of output or turnover achieved.
a. Flexible
b. Cash
c. Fixed
233 A Flexible budget is one which permits the change in accordance with the B
changes
in the level of activity.
a. Fixed
b. Flexible
c. Sales
234 Flexible budgets are more useful in actual practice because it is more A
realistic and
has great practical utility in the business.
a. realistic
b. non-realistic
c. Predictable
235 A _______ budget is the budget which shows the quantity and value of C
goods to be
purchased during the budget period to meet the day-to-day needs of the
business.
a. Sales
b. Cash
c. Purchase
236 One of the basic purpose to prepare _______ budget is to estimate the A
cash
requirements for the purchases to be made during the budgeted period.
a. purchase
b. cash
c. sales
247 Given the budgeted output in second quarter is 8,000 units. In the first A
quarter,
Fixed overheads were Rs 40,000 Variable overheads were Rs 5 per unit ( Rs
40,000)
and semi variable were 20,000 ( 60% varying @ Rs 3 per unit). Determine
the total
manufacturing overhead budget for the second quarter.
a. Rs 1,12,000
b. 1,12,000 units
c. Insufficient data
d. None of the above
248 Budgetary control system defines the objectives and policies of the… D
a. Production department
b. Finance department
c. Marketing department
d. All
249 Budgetary control system facilitates centralized control with… C
a. Decentralized activity
b. Centralized activity
c. Both
d. None
COMMERCE DEPARTMENT
FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING – I
F.Y.B.COM (SEMESTER – I)
Prepared By
Mangesh Takpire
Asst. Professor, ACACSC, Camp, Pune
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.1 Accounting is called as ……….. of business. Que.2 Specific business entity separate from
personnel affair of the owner is?
A. Concepts
B. Language A. Objectivity principle
C. Methods B. Stable currency principle
D. None of the above. C. Entity principle
D. Matching principle
Que.3 According to money measurement concept, Que.4 Contingent liability appears as a footnote in the
which one of the following will be recorded in the balance sheet. This is in accordance with the
books of accounts? accounting principle?
A. Excellent moral of workers A. Consistency
B. Cost of Machinery B. Disclosure
C. Managing ability of the manager C. Conservatism
D. Quality control in the business D. Materiality
Que.5 Connected with cost principles, assets required Que.6 Which one of the following concept may be
for used not for resale? stated as "for every debit, there is a credit"?
A. Cost principle A. Separate Entity Concept
B. Accounting principle B. Dual Aspect Concept
C. Going concern assumption C. Money Measurement Concept
D. None of them D. Accounting Period Concept
Que.7 Which of the following is the GAAP that Que.8 When the cost incurred on recruiting, training
requires the recording of depreciation? and developing the employees is considered for
determining the value of employees, it is called
A. Materially constraints
B. Matching principle A. the replacement cost approach
C. Cost principle B. the historical cost approach
D. Time-period principle C. the opportunity cost approach
D. none of the above
Que.9 Inflation Accounting is the practice of adjusting Que.10 The accounting methodology that deals with
financial statements according to……… energetics, ecology and economics is termed as……….
A. Book Record A. Inflation Accounting
B. Books of Accounts B. Creative Accounting
C. Prices indexes C. Economic Accounting
D. None of the above D. Environmental Accounting
Page - 1
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.11 Forensic Accounting is a form of ………… Que.12 ………… capital means the capital which is more
accounting than the required capital according to the share of
profit an individual partner is sharing.
A. Investment
B. Investigative A. Fixed
C. International B. Current
D. None of the above C. Surplus
D. Deficit
Que.13 According to …….. concept, all expenses even Que.14 Accounting ……… are the general rules of
though not paid but under obligation to pay in near action or conduct, which are adopted by the
future, are also to be recorded. accountants universally while recording business
transactions.
A. Cash
B. Entity A. Records
C. Money measurement B. Entries
D. Accrual C. Principles
D. Methods
Que.15 GAAP stands for: Que.16 Which accounting principle states that
companies and owners should be treated as separate
A. Generally Accepted Accounting Provisions
entities.
B. Generally Accepted Accounting Policies
C. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles A. Monetary Unit Assumption
D. None of these B. Business Entity Concept
C. Periodicity Assumption
D. Going Concern Concept
Que.17 Cost or expenses must be recorded at the Que.18 The correct form of Accounting equation is
same time as the revenue to which they correspond is
A. Assets – Receivable = Equity
specified by which principle?
B. Assets + Receivable = Equity
A. Matching Principle C. Assets – Liabilities = Equity
B. Going Concern Principle D. Assets + Liabilities = Equity
C. Consistency Principle
D. Prudence Principle
Que.19 As per revenue recognition principle, sales Que.20 Due to which concept, accounting does not
revenues should be recognized at the time when? record non-financial transactions?
A. Order is taken for merchandise A. Going concern concept
B. Ownership of goods gets transferred from the B. Money measurement concept
seller to the buyer C. Accrual concept
C. Cash is received D. Cost concept
D. All of the above
Page - 2
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.21 The owner of the business is treated as a Que.22 As per the accrual concept of accounting, any
creditor of the business according to which of the financial or business transaction should be recorded:
following concept?
A. when profit is computed
A. Entity concept B. when balance sheet is prepared
B. Materiality concept C. when cash is received or paid
C. Consistency concept D. when transaction occurs
D. Periodicity concept
Que.25 Which is not external Liability? Que.26 In Piecemeal Distribution of Cash which
liability paid off preferentially?
A. Loan from partners
B. Govt. Dues A. Realisation exp.
C. Realisation Expenses B. Govt. Dues
D. Secured Assets C. Loan from partner
D. Capital
Que.27 Surplus capital method is also known as_____ Que.28 Maximum Loss method is also known as____
A. Quotient method A. Surplus Capital Method
B. Maximum Loss Method B. High Relative Capital Method
C. National Loss Method C. National Loss Method
D. None of all these D. Excess Capital Method
Page - 3
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.31 When is Garner V/s Murray Rulings is Que.32 Maximum Loss = Total of capital A/c. Balance
applicable? less __________
A. When insolvent partner did not able to pay off his A. Cash available
capital deficiency B. Cash paid
B. When insolvent partner able to pay off his capital C. Profit
deficiency D. None of these
C. When solvent partner did not able pay off his
capital deficiency
D. When solvent partner pay off his capital deficiency
Que.33 In Piecemeal distribution amounts realised Que.34 The liability of partners in a firm is..........
from assets are payable in the following order:
A. Limited
A. Realisation expenses, Outside Liabilities, Partners B. Certain
Loan, Partners Capital C. Unlimited
B. Partners Capital, outside Liabilities, Partners Loan, D. Fixed
Realisation Expenses
C. Partners Capital, Partners Loan, outside Liabilities,
Realisation Expenses
D. None of the above
Que.35 Reserve fund is distributed among the Que.36 Under Surplus Capital method in Piecemeal
partners in their.......ratio. Distribution, after the repayment of all outsider
liabilities, the.............are to be discharged on pro-rata
A. New
basis.
B. Profit sharing
C. Old A. partners capital
D. Partner B. partners loans
C. partners assets
D. none of the above
Que.37 In piecemeal distribution, first pay Que.38 Single entry systems are maintained by
the.............liabilities.
A. Company
A. Unsecured B. Income tax authorities
B. Preferential C. Government
C. Secured D. Sole trader
D. none of the above
Que.39 Single entry system of book keeping is Que.40 If closing capital is >opening capital, it denotes
A. Simple A. Loss
B. Unauthorized by tax authorities B. Profit
C. Unscientific C. No profit no loss
D. all of these D. Profit, if there is no introduction of fresh capital
Page - 4
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.41 If closing capital is < opening capital, it Que.42 If capital at the end of the year is 40,000:
denotes that capital introduced during the year Rs. 30,000; drawings
20,000 and loss for the year is 60,000; then Capital at
A. Loss
the beginning of the year was:
B. Profit
C. No profit no loss A. 90000
D. Loss, if there is no introduction of fresh capital B. 80000
C. 70000
D. 10000
Que.43 If capital at the end of the year is 50,000: Que.44 Profit = capital at the end + drawings -
capital introduced during the year Rs. 30,000; drawings additional capital - …………..
20,000 and profit for the year is 30,000; then Capital at
A. Opening capital
the beginning of the year
B. Closing capital
A. 10,000 C. Loss
B. 30000 D. None of these
C. 20000
D. 35000
Que.45 What should be added in closing capital for Que.46 When the amount of closing capital (after
calculating opening capital? adjusting drawings ) is less than that of opening capital
the difference will be treated as:-
A. Loss and drawing
B. Profit and drawing A. Loss
C. Profit only B. Profit
D. Loss only C. Additional capital
D. None of them
Que.47 If opening capital is 24,000; closing capital Que.48 A system of accounting which is not based on
40,000; drawing 7,000; fresh capital 8,000. Calculate double entry system is called-
profit or loss.
A. Cash system
A. Profit 15,000 B. Mahajani system of accounting
B. Loss 15,000 C. Incomplete accounting system
C. Profit 20,000 D. None of these.
D. Loss 20,000
Que.49 Accounts which are maintained under single Que.50 Statement of affairs is prepared to-
entry system-
A. Know about assets
A. Personal accounts B. Know about liabilities
B. Impersonal accounts C. Calculate capital
C. (a) & (b) both D. Know financial position.
D. None of these.
Page - 5
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.51 Liabilities and assets amount to Rs. 50,000 and Que.52 Generally incomplete records are maintained
Rs. 78,000 respectively. The difference amount will by-
represent-
A. Trader
A. Creditors B. Society
B. Debentures C. Company
C. Profit D. Government.
D. Capital.
Que.53 Statements of assets & liabilities prepared Que.54 In Single entry mostly:
under single entry system is called:
A. Personal aspects of transaction are recorded
A. Balance sheet B. Nominal aspects of transaction are recorded
B. Profit & loss statement C. Real aspects of transaction are recorded
C. Statement of affairs D. All of the above
D. Income Statement
Que.57 In India GST became effective from Que.58 In India GST came effective from July 1st, 2017
India chosen________ model of dual GST
A. 1st April, 2017
B. 1st January, 2017 A. USA
C. 1st July, 2017 B. UK
D. 1st March, 2017 C. Canadian
D. China
Que.59 GST is a ___________ based tax on Que.60 Indian GST model has________rate structure
consumption of goods and services
A. 3
A. Duration B. 4
B. Destination C. 5
C. Dividend D. 6
D. Development
Page - 6
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Business Regulatory Framework (M.Law)
Que.61 What does "I" stands for in IGST Que.62 How many types of taxes will be in Indian GST
A. International A. 2
B. Intention B. 3
C. Integrated C. 4
D. Intra D. 5
Que.63 What are the taxes lavied on an Intra state Que.64 what is the maximum rate of cgst prescribed
supply under cgst act 2017?
A. CGST A. 0.28
B. SGST B. 0.2
C. CGST & SGST C. 0.12
D. IGST D. 0.18
Que.65 Which of the following tax was abolished by Que.66 The incidence of tax on tax is called
GST?
A. Tax Cascading
A. Corporate Tax B. Tax Pyramiding
B. Income Tax C. Tax evasion
C. Service Tax D. Indirect tax
D. Wealth Tax
Que.67 UTGST is applicable when Que.68 Integrated Goods and Services Tax is
applicable when
A. Sold from Union territory
B. Goods are purchased by Central Government A. Sold in Union territory
C. Sold from one union territory to another union B. Sold from one GST dealer to another GST dealer
territory C. Sold within a state
D. There is interstate supply D. There is interstate supply
Que.69 SGST is applicable when Que.70 When a GST dealer in Kerala sells a product o
a GST dealer or customer in Tamilnadu, the tax
A. Goods are sold within a state
collected is
B. Goods are sold from one GST dealer to a customer
C. Goods are sold by a GST dealer to another GST A. CGST
dealer B. SGST
D. Interstate supply C. CGST & SGST
D. IGST
Page - 7
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01
Answer Keys
Que 1 - Option B Que 2 - Option C Que 3 - Option B Que 4 - Option B Que 5 - Option C
Que 6 - Option B Que 7 - Option C Que 8 - Option B Que 9 - Option C Que 10 - Option D
Que 11 - Option B Que 12 - Option C Que 13 - Option D Que 14 - Option C Que 15 - Option C
Que 16 - Option B Que 17 - Option A Que 18 - Option C Que 19 - Option B Que 20 - Option B
Que 21 - Option A Que 22 - Option D Que 23 - Option B Que 24 - Option A Que 25 - Option A
Que 26 - Option A Que 27 - Option A Que 28 - Option C Que 29 - Option A Que 30 - Option A
Que 31 - Option A Que 32 - Option A Que 33 - Option A Que 34 - Option C Que 35 - Option B
Que 36 - Option B Que 37 - Option B Que 38 - Option D Que 39 - Option D Que 40 - Option D
Que 41 - Option D Que 42 - Option A Que 43 - Option A Que 44 - Option A Que 45 - Option A
Que 46 - Option A Que 47 - Option A Que 48 - Option C Que 49 - Option A Que 50 - Option C
Que 51 - Option D Que 52 - Option A Que 53 - Option C Que 54 - Option A Que 55 - Option B
Que 56 - Option C Que 57 - Option C Que 58 - Option C Que 59 - Option B Que 60 - Option 6
Que 61 - Option C Que 62 - Option B Que 63 - Option C Que 64 - Option B Que 65 - Option C
Que 66 - Option A Que 67 - Option A Que 68 - Option C Que 69 - Option A Que 70 - Option D
Page - 8
Arihant Education Foundation’s
ARIHANT COLLEGE OF ARTS, COMMERCE AND SCIENCE,
Camp, Pune – 411001.
COMMERCE DEPARTMENT
FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING – I
F.Y.B.COM (SEMESTER – I)
Prepared By
Mangesh Takpire
Asst. Professor, ACACSC, Camp, Pune
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.1 Accounting is called as ……….. of business. Que.2 Specific business entity separate from
personnel affair of the owner is?
A. Concepts
B. Language A. Objectivity principle
C. Methods B. Stable currency principle
D. None of the above. C. Entity principle
D. Matching principle
Que.3 According to money measurement concept, Que.4 Contingent liability appears as a footnote in the
which one of the following will be recorded in the balance sheet. This is in accordance with the
books of accounts? accounting principle?
A. Excellent moral of workers A. Consistency
B. Cost of Machinery B. Disclosure
C. Managing ability of the manager C. Conservatism
D. Quality control in the business D. Materiality
Que.5 Connected with cost principles, assets required Que.6 Which one of the following concept may be
for used not for resale? stated as "for every debit, there is a credit"?
A. Cost principle A. Separate Entity Concept
B. Accounting principle B. Dual Aspect Concept
C. Going concern assumption C. Money Measurement Concept
D. None of them D. Accounting Period Concept
Que.7 Which of the following is the GAAP that Que.8 When the cost incurred on recruiting, training
requires the recording of depreciation? and developing the employees is considered for
determining the value of employees, it is called
A. Materially constraints
B. Matching principle A. the replacement cost approach
C. Cost principle B. the historical cost approach
D. Time-period principle C. the opportunity cost approach
D. none of the above
Que.9 Inflation Accounting is the practice of adjusting Que.10 The accounting methodology that deals with
financial statements according to……… energetics, ecology and economics is termed as……….
A. Book Record A. Inflation Accounting
B. Books of Accounts B. Creative Accounting
C. Prices indexes C. Economic Accounting
D. None of the above D. Environmental Accounting
Page - 1
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.11 Forensic Accounting is a form of ………… Que.12 ………… capital means the capital which is more
accounting than the required capital according to the share of
profit an individual partner is sharing.
A. Investment
B. Investigative A. Fixed
C. International B. Current
D. None of the above C. Surplus
D. Deficit
Que.13 According to …….. concept, all expenses even Que.14 Accounting ……… are the general rules of
though not paid but under obligation to pay in near action or conduct, which are adopted by the
future, are also to be recorded. accountants universally while recording business
transactions.
A. Cash
B. Entity A. Records
C. Money measurement B. Entries
D. Accrual C. Principles
D. Methods
Que.15 GAAP stands for: Que.16 Which accounting principle states that
companies and owners should be treated as separate
A. Generally Accepted Accounting Provisions
entities.
B. Generally Accepted Accounting Policies
C. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles A. Monetary Unit Assumption
D. None of these B. Business Entity Concept
C. Periodicity Assumption
D. Going Concern Concept
Que.17 Cost or expenses must be recorded at the Que.18 The correct form of Accounting equation is
same time as the revenue to which they correspond is
A. Assets – Receivable = Equity
specified by which principle?
B. Assets + Receivable = Equity
A. Matching Principle C. Assets – Liabilities = Equity
B. Going Concern Principle D. Assets + Liabilities = Equity
C. Consistency Principle
D. Prudence Principle
Que.19 As per revenue recognition principle, sales Que.20 Due to which concept, accounting does not
revenues should be recognized at the time when? record non-financial transactions?
A. Order is taken for merchandise A. Going concern concept
B. Ownership of goods gets transferred from the B. Money measurement concept
seller to the buyer C. Accrual concept
C. Cash is received D. Cost concept
D. All of the above
Page - 2
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.21 The owner of the business is treated as a Que.22 As per the accrual concept of accounting, any
creditor of the business according to which of the financial or business transaction should be recorded:
following concept?
A. when profit is computed
A. Entity concept B. when balance sheet is prepared
B. Materiality concept C. when cash is received or paid
C. Consistency concept D. when transaction occurs
D. Periodicity concept
Que.25 Which is not external Liability? Que.26 In Piecemeal Distribution of Cash which
liability paid off preferentially?
A. Loan from partners
B. Govt. Dues A. Realisation exp.
C. Realisation Expenses B. Govt. Dues
D. Secured Assets C. Loan from partner
D. Capital
Que.27 Surplus capital method is also known as_____ Que.28 Maximum Loss method is also known as____
A. Quotient method A. Surplus Capital Method
B. Maximum Loss Method B. High Relative Capital Method
C. National Loss Method C. National Loss Method
D. None of all these D. Excess Capital Method
Page - 3
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.31 When is Garner V/s Murray Rulings is Que.32 Maximum Loss = Total of capital A/c. Balance
applicable? less __________
A. When insolvent partner did not able to pay off his A. Cash available
capital deficiency B. Cash paid
B. When insolvent partner able to pay off his capital C. Profit
deficiency D. None of these
C. When solvent partner did not able pay off his
capital deficiency
D. When solvent partner pay off his capital deficiency
Que.33 In Piecemeal distribution amounts realised Que.34 The liability of partners in a firm is..........
from assets are payable in the following order:
A. Limited
A. Realisation expenses, Outside Liabilities, Partners B. Certain
Loan, Partners Capital C. Unlimited
B. Partners Capital, outside Liabilities, Partners Loan, D. Fixed
Realisation Expenses
C. Partners Capital, Partners Loan, outside Liabilities,
Realisation Expenses
D. None of the above
Que.35 Reserve fund is distributed among the Que.36 Under Surplus Capital method in Piecemeal
partners in their.......ratio. Distribution, after the repayment of all outsider
liabilities, the.............are to be discharged on pro-rata
A. New
basis.
B. Profit sharing
C. Old A. partners capital
D. Partner B. partners loans
C. partners assets
D. none of the above
Que.37 In piecemeal distribution, first pay Que.38 Single entry systems are maintained by
the.............liabilities.
A. Company
A. Unsecured B. Income tax authorities
B. Preferential C. Government
C. Secured D. Sole trader
D. none of the above
Que.39 Single entry system of book keeping is Que.40 If closing capital is >opening capital, it denotes
A. Simple A. Loss
B. Unauthorized by tax authorities B. Profit
C. Unscientific C. No profit no loss
D. all of these D. Profit, if there is no introduction of fresh capital
Page - 4
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.41 If closing capital is < opening capital, it Que.42 If capital at the end of the year is 40,000:
denotes that capital introduced during the year Rs. 30,000; drawings
20,000 and loss for the year is 60,000; then Capital at
A. Loss
the beginning of the year was:
B. Profit
C. No profit no loss A. 90000
D. Loss, if there is no introduction of fresh capital B. 80000
C. 70000
D. 10000
Que.43 If capital at the end of the year is 50,000: Que.44 Profit = capital at the end + drawings -
capital introduced during the year Rs. 30,000; drawings additional capital - …………..
20,000 and profit for the year is 30,000; then Capital at
A. Opening capital
the beginning of the year
B. Closing capital
A. 10,000 C. Loss
B. 30000 D. None of these
C. 20000
D. 35000
Que.45 What should be added in closing capital for Que.46 When the amount of closing capital (after
calculating opening capital? adjusting drawings ) is less than that of opening capital
the difference will be treated as:-
A. Loss and drawing
B. Profit and drawing A. Loss
C. Profit only B. Profit
D. Loss only C. Additional capital
D. None of them
Que.47 If opening capital is 24,000; closing capital Que.48 A system of accounting which is not based on
40,000; drawing 7,000; fresh capital 8,000. Calculate double entry system is called-
profit or loss.
A. Cash system
A. Profit 15,000 B. Mahajani system of accounting
B. Loss 15,000 C. Incomplete accounting system
C. Profit 20,000 D. None of these.
D. Loss 20,000
Que.49 Accounts which are maintained under single Que.50 Statement of affairs is prepared to-
entry system-
A. Know about assets
A. Personal accounts B. Know about liabilities
B. Impersonal accounts C. Calculate capital
C. (a) & (b) both D. Know financial position.
D. None of these.
Page - 5
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Financial Accounting – I (F.Y.B.COM, SEM –I)
Que.51 Liabilities and assets amount to Rs. 50,000 and Que.52 Generally incomplete records are maintained
Rs. 78,000 respectively. The difference amount will by-
represent-
A. Trader
A. Creditors B. Society
B. Debentures C. Company
C. Profit D. Government.
D. Capital.
Que.53 Statements of assets & liabilities prepared Que.54 In Single entry mostly:
under single entry system is called:
A. Personal aspects of transaction are recorded
A. Balance sheet B. Nominal aspects of transaction are recorded
B. Profit & loss statement C. Real aspects of transaction are recorded
C. Statement of affairs D. All of the above
D. Income Statement
Que.57 In India GST became effective from Que.58 In India GST came effective from July 1st, 2017
India chosen________ model of dual GST
A. 1st April, 2017
B. 1st January, 2017 A. USA
C. 1st July, 2017 B. UK
D. 1st March, 2017 C. Canadian
D. China
Que.59 GST is a ___________ based tax on Que.60 Indian GST model has________rate structure
consumption of goods and services
A. 3
A. Duration B. 4
B. Destination C. 5
C. Dividend D. 6
D. Development
Page - 6
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01 Business Regulatory Framework (M.Law)
Que.61 What does "I" stands for in IGST Que.62 How many types of taxes will be in Indian GST
A. International A. 2
B. Intention B. 3
C. Integrated C. 4
D. Intra D. 5
Que.63 What are the taxes lavied on an Intra state Que.64 what is the maximum rate of cgst prescribed
supply under cgst act 2017?
A. CGST A. 0.28
B. SGST B. 0.2
C. CGST & SGST C. 0.12
D. IGST D. 0.18
Que.65 Which of the following tax was abolished by Que.66 The incidence of tax on tax is called
GST?
A. Tax Cascading
A. Corporate Tax B. Tax Pyramiding
B. Income Tax C. Tax evasion
C. Service Tax D. Indirect tax
D. Wealth Tax
Que.67 UTGST is applicable when Que.68 Integrated Goods and Services Tax is
applicable when
A. Sold from Union territory
B. Goods are purchased by Central Government A. Sold in Union territory
C. Sold from one union territory to another union B. Sold from one GST dealer to another GST dealer
territory C. Sold within a state
D. There is interstate supply D. There is interstate supply
Que.69 SGST is applicable when Que.70 When a GST dealer in Kerala sells a product o
a GST dealer or customer in Tamilnadu, the tax
A. Goods are sold within a state
collected is
B. Goods are sold from one GST dealer to a customer
C. Goods are sold by a GST dealer to another GST A. CGST
dealer B. SGST
D. Interstate supply C. CGST & SGST
D. IGST
Page - 7
Arihant College of Arts, Commerce and Science, Camp, Pune – 01
Answer Keys
Que 1 - Option B Que 2 - Option C Que 3 - Option B Que 4 - Option B Que 5 - Option C
Que 6 - Option B Que 7 - Option C Que 8 - Option B Que 9 - Option C Que 10 - Option D
Que 11 - Option B Que 12 - Option C Que 13 - Option D Que 14 - Option C Que 15 - Option C
Que 16 - Option B Que 17 - Option A Que 18 - Option C Que 19 - Option B Que 20 - Option B
Que 21 - Option A Que 22 - Option D Que 23 - Option B Que 24 - Option A Que 25 - Option A
Que 26 - Option A Que 27 - Option A Que 28 - Option C Que 29 - Option A Que 30 - Option A
Que 31 - Option A Que 32 - Option A Que 33 - Option A Que 34 - Option C Que 35 - Option B
Que 36 - Option B Que 37 - Option B Que 38 - Option D Que 39 - Option D Que 40 - Option D
Que 41 - Option D Que 42 - Option A Que 43 - Option A Que 44 - Option A Que 45 - Option A
Que 46 - Option A Que 47 - Option A Que 48 - Option C Que 49 - Option A Que 50 - Option C
Que 51 - Option D Que 52 - Option A Que 53 - Option C Que 54 - Option A Que 55 - Option B
Que 56 - Option C Que 57 - Option C Que 58 - Option C Que 59 - Option B Que 60 - Option 6
Que 61 - Option C Que 62 - Option B Que 63 - Option C Que 64 - Option B Que 65 - Option C
Que 66 - Option A Que 67 - Option A Que 68 - Option C Que 69 - Option A Que 70 - Option D
Page - 8
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DNYANSAGAR INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH
Q. no Question Answer
1. Managerial accounting information is generally prepared for C
…………………
a. Shareholders
b. Creditors
c. Managers
d. Regulatory agencies
a. Creditor
b. Department manager
c. Controller
d. Treasurer
a. Service entities
b. Manufacturing entities
c. Non profit entities
d. All of these
8 Which type of asset class includes those assets which have only D
definite use and become valueless when the yield is over?
a. Fixed asset
b. Current asset
c. Fictitious asset
d. Wasting asset
9 An accounting that deals with the accounting and reporting of B
information to managementregarding the detail information is
a. Financial accounting
b. Management accounting
c. Cost accounting
d. Real Accounting
10
13. Cost of goods sold= opening stock+ net purchases+ expenses on Purchases – D
sales Which part of formula is wrong?
a. opening stock
b. net purchases
c. expenses on Purchases
d. sales
28 cost refers to those cost which have already been incurred and cannot be B
altered by any decision in the future.
a. Opportunity cost
b. Sunk Cost
c. Incremental cost
d. Decremental cost
31. cost will still be incurred although a plant is shut down temporarily. C
a. Cost of raw material
b. Advertising
c. Depreciation
d. Carriage
32 Accounting principles are generally based upon: A
a. Practicability
b. Subjectivity
c. Convenience in recording
d. None of the above
33 The system of recording based on dual aspect concept is called: B
a. Double account system
b. Double entry system
c. Single entry system
d. All the above
34 The practice of appending notes regarding contingent liabilities in accounting D
statements is in pursuance to:
a. Convention of consistency
b. Money measurement concept
c. Convention of conservatism
d. Convention of disclosure
35 Sales are equal to: A
a. Cost of goods sold + gross profit
b. Cost of goods sold - gross profit
c. Gross profit- Cost of goods sold
d. None of the above
36 Interest on drawings is: C
a. Expenditure for the business
b. Cost for the business
c. Gain for the business
d. None of the above
37 Goods given as samples should be credited to: C
a. Advertisement account
b. Sales account
c. Purchase account
d. None of the above
38. Outstanding salaries are shown as: C
a. Added to Salaries while preparing P & La/c
b. Shown in liability side of Balance sheet under current Liability.
c. (a) &(b) above
d. None of the above
39 Income tax paid by a sole proprietor on his business income should be: C
a. Debited to trading account
b. Debited to profit and loss account
c. Deducted from capital account in the balance sheet
d. None of the above
40. All direct & indirect expenses related to business are charged: C
a. Profit and loss account
b. Trading account
c. Trading account Profit and Loss account
d. Directly to Balance sheet
43 Investment of X company profit in shares of other company PQR Pvt. ltd are A
recorded in……………….
a. Asset side of Balance Sheet
b. Liability side of Balance Sheet
c. Profit & Loss a/c
d. Not recorded in Balance Sheet
a. Remains fixed
b. Fluctuates with volume of production
c. Varies in consideration with the volume of sales
d. None of the above
a. Increases assets
b. Results in no change in the total assets
c. Decreases assets
d. Increases liability
63 Cost of asset should always be equal to the cost of the liabilities. This concept B
is
a. Realization Concept
b. Matching Concept
c. Cost Concept
d. Both a and b above
a. Consistency concept
b. Conservatism concept
c. Accounting period concept
d. Cost Concept
a. Current assets
b. Current liabilities
c. Fixed asset
d. Fixed liability
69 Reserve for doubtful debts appearing in the trial balance should be: E
a. Debtors
b. Investors
c. Creditors
d. Shareholders
71 According to which concept business is treated as a unit apart from owner C
a. Dual concept
b. Divider concept
c. Entity concept
d. Landlord concept
72 Authorized capital, also known as A
a. Nominal capital
b. Paid up capital
c. Issues capital
d. None of these
73 True & fair profit and loss a/c of a company know by D
a. Preparing trial balance
b. Preparing respective ledger of account
c. Preparing trading a/c
d. Preparing trading & profit & loss a/c
74 Credit balance of profit & loss a/c shown on B
a. Asset side of balance sheet
b. Liability side of balance sheet
c. Not shown in balance sheet
d. Half on asset side and half on liability side
75 Under which concept it is assumed that the enterprises has neither the C
intention nor the necessity of liquidation or of curtailing materiality the scale
of operation
a. Revenue realization concept
b. Matching cost concept
c. Going concern concept
d. None of these
76 Making the provision for doubtful debts and discount on debtors in A
anticipation of actual bad debts and discount is an example for which concept
a. Conservatism concept
b. Continuity concept
c. Realization concept
d. All of these
82 Which of the following account balance will be shown on debit side of Trial D
Balance?
a. Outstanding expenses
b. Cash a/c
c. Short term loan
d. creditors
83 The reduction in the value of the fixed assets which can arise due to time B
factor is
a. Discount
b. Depreciation
c. Reduction
d. None of the above
92 Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of: B
a. Separate entity
b. Going concern
c. Consistency
d. Time period
a. Income Statement
b. Cash Flow Statement
c. Balance Sheet
d. Fund Flow Statement
95 Which of the following is a liability? A
a. Loan from Mr.Y
b. loan to Mr.y
c. Both (a) (b)
d. None of these
92 Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of: B
e. Separate entity
f. Going concern
g. Consistency
h. Time period
e. Income Statement
f. Cash Flow Statement
g. Balance Sheet
h. Fund Flow Statement
95 Which of the following is a liability? A
e. Loan from Mr.Y
f. loan to Mr.y
g. Both (a) (b)
h. None of these
97 Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of: B
a. Separate entity
b. Going concern
c. Consistency
d. Time period
a. Fiscal year
b. Calendar year
c. Accounting period
d. Accrual period
107 Using "lower of cost and net realisable value(Market Value)" for the purpose C
of inventory valuation is the implementation of which of the following
concepts?
a. The going concern concept
b. The separate entity concept
c. The prudence concept
d. Matching concept
108 The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following D
types of businesses?
a. Sole proprietorship
b. Corporation
c. Partnership
d. All of them
109 The revenue recognition principal dictates that all types of incomes should be C
recorded or recognized when
a. Cash is received
b. At the end of accounting period
c. When they are earned
d. When interest is paid
110 The allocation of owner's private expenses to his/her business violates which C
of the following?
a. Accrual concept
b. Matching concept
c. Separate business entity concept
d. Consistency concept
112 Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a C
business is divided for the purpose of preparing financial statements?
a. Fiscal year
b. Calendar year
c. Accounting period
d. Accrual period
113 Showing purchased office equipments in financial statements is the B
application of which accounting concept?
a. Historical cost convention
b. Materiality
c. Prudence
d. Matching concept
114 Information about an item is if its omission or misstatement might D
influence the financial decision of the users taken on the basis of that
information
a. Concrete
b. Complete
c. Immaterial
d. Material
115 "Financial information should be neutral and bias free" is the dictation of C
which one of the following?
a. Completeness concept
b. Faithful representation Concept
c. Objectivity Concept
d. Duality Concept
116 Accounting principles are divided into two types. These are --- D
a. Accounting Concepts
b. Accounting Conventions
c. Accounting Standards
d. Accounting Concepts &Accounting Conventions
117 Which of the following is not related with Money Measurement Concept ? B
a. All business transaction should be expressed only in money
b. The transactions which cannot be expressed in money, will not be
recorded in accounting books
c. Business is treated as separate from the proprietor
d. None of These
118 Which of the following equation is related with Dual Aspect Concept ? D
a. Total Assets = Total Liabilities
b. Total Assets = Capital + Outsider’s Liabilities
c. Capital = Total Assets - Outsider’s Liabilities
d. All of the above
119 If the total assets of the company amount to Rs 1,50,000 and owner’s B
equity is Rs 70,000, the amount of liabilities will be –
a. Rs 70,000
b. Rs 80,000
c. Rs 90,000
d. Rs 1,00,000
c. Controlling function
d. None of these
131 The convention of conservatism when applied to the balance sheet result A
in.
a. Understand the asset
b. Understand the liabilities
c. Overstatement of capital
d. None of these
c. Providing depreciation
d. None of these
133 The amount brought in by the proprietor in the business should be credited B
to
a. Cash a/c
b. Capital a/c
c. Drawing a/c
d. Bank a/c
134 The amount of salary paid to Suresh should be debited to B
a. The account of Suresh
b. Salaries a/c
c. Cash a/c
d. Bank a/c
141 The convention of disclosure implies that all material information should be A
a. Disclosed in the account
b. Disclosed in the accounts which is required to owner
c. Not disclosed
d. None of these
143 Custom and traditions which guide the accountant while preparing the C
accounting statements
a. Accounting convention
b. Accounting concepts
c. Accounting principles
d. None of these
145 system in which accounting entries are made on the basis of amounts having B
become due for payment or receipt is called
a. Cash concept
b. Accrual concept
c. Matching concept
d. On-going concept
147 Debit what come in Credit what goes out rule for A
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
148 Debit all expenses and losses Credit all gains and income. C
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
150 Transferring the debit and credit item from the journal to the respective B
accounts is called
a. Compound Journal
b. Ledger
c. Trial balance
d. None of these
152 The transferring of debit and credit items from journal to the respective B
accounts in the ledger is called as
a. Ledger
b. Posting
c. Forward journal
d. None of these
153 Which of the following items would not fall under the definition of an asset? D
a. Land
b. Machine
c. Cash
d. Owner Equity
154 Which one of the following items would fall under the definition of a C
liability
a. Cash
b. Debtor
c. Owner’s equity
d. None of these
a. Rs.200, 000
b. Rs.700, 000
c. Rs.800, 000
d. Rs1, 100,000
Creditors Rs.50,000
What is the value of the land…………………..
a. 1,000,000
b. 1,550,000
c. 800,000
d. None of these
160 Which of the following equations properly represents a derivation of the D
fundamental accounting equation?
a. Only (a)
b. Both (a) (b)
c. All (a)(b)(c)(d)
d. d) None of these
161 Retained earnings will change over time because of several factors. Which B
of the following factors would explain an increase in retained earnings?
a. Net Loss
b. Net income
c. Dividend
d. Investment by share holder.
164 XYZltd.has provided the following information about its balance sheet: B
Cash Rs.100
a. Rs.200
b. Rs.1900
c. Rs.1200
d. Rs.1700
165 The full disclosure principle, as adopted by the accounting profession, is D
best described by which of the following?
a. All information related to an entity's business and operating
objectives is required to be disclosed in the financial statements.
b. Information about each account balance appearing in the financial
statements is to be included in the notes to the financial
statements.
c. Enough information should be disclosed in the financial statements
so a person wishing to invest in the stock of the company can make
a profitable decision.
d. Disclosure of any financial facts significant enough to influence the
judgment of an informed reader
166 Which of the following is a real (permanent) account? D
a. Goodwill
b. Sales
c. Accounts Receivable
d. Both Goodwill and Accounts Receivable
167 Which of the following statements is not an objective of financial B
reporting?
a. Provide information that is useful in investment and credit
decisions.
b. Provide information regarding policy of organization
c. Provide information that is useful in assessing cash flow
prospective
d. None of theses
168 The Cash account on the balance sheet should not include which of the A
following items?
a. Travel advances to employees
b. Currency
c. Money orders
d. Deposits in transit
170 The following comments all relate to the recording process. Which of these B
statements is correct?
a. The general ledger is a chronological record of transactions.
b. The general ledger is posted from transactions recorded in the general
journal.
c. The trial balance provides the primary source document for recording
transactions into the general journal.
d. Transposition is the transfer of information from the general journal to
the general ledger.
171 The following comments each relate to the recording of journal entries. Which D
statement is true?
a. For any given journal entry, debits must exceed credits.
b. It is customary to record credits on the left and debits on the right.
c. The chart of accounts reveals the amount to debit and credit to the
affected accounts.
d. Journalization is the process of converting transactions and events into
debit/credit format.
172 The trial balance is ………………………….. D
173 Which of the following errors will be disclosed in the preparation of a trial C
balance?
a. Recording transactions in the wrong account.
b. Duplication of a transaction in the accounting records.
c. Posting only the debit portion of a particular journal entry.
d. Recording the wrong amount for a transaction to both the account
debited and the account credited.
174 The basic sequence in the accounting process can best be described as: D
a. Transaction, journal entry, source document, ledger account, trial
balance.
b. Source document, transaction, ledger account, journal entry, trial
balance.
c. Transaction, source document, journal entry, trial balance, ledger
account.
d. d. Transaction, source document, journal entry, ledger account,
trial balance.
181 Manufacturing costs are also known as product costs. Which of the C
following best describes those costs which are considered to be
manufacturing costs?
a. Direct materials, direct labor, and factory overhead.
b. Direct materials and direct labor only.
c. Direct materials, direct labor, factory overhead, and administrative
overhead.
d. Direct labor and factory overhead.
182 A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, D
plus long distance charges, would be classified as a:
a. Variable cost
b. Committed fixed cost
c. Direct cost
d. Semi variable cost
a. Sundry creditors
b. Acceptances
c. Unclaimed dividend
d. Short term investment
193 Financial accounting deals with: B
a. Determination of cost
b. Determination of profit
c. Determination of price
d. Determination of selling price
194 Financial account record only A
a. Actual figures
b. Budgeted figures
c. Standard figures
d. Management Figure
195 The term Management Accounting was first used in C
a. 1910
b. 1939
c. 1950
d. 1960
d. Six months
205 A budget is tool which helps the management in planning and control of… A
a. All business activities
b. Production activities
c. Purchase activities
d. Sales activities
206 Budgetary control system acts as a friend, philosopher and guide to the… A
a. Management
b. Share holders
c. Creditors
d. Employees
207 Budgetary control system defines the objectives and policies of the… D
a. Production department
b. Finance department
c. Marketing department
d. All
208 Budgetary control system facilitates centralized control with… C
a. Decentralized activity
b. Centralized activity
c. Both
d. None
209 Budgetary control facilitates easy introduction of the… C
a. Marginal costing
b. Ratio analysis
c. Standard costing
d. Subjective matter
210 Budgetary control helps the management in… A
a. Obtaining bank credit
b. Issue of shares
c. Getting grants from government
d. All of these
211 Budgetary control system helps the management to eliminate… C
a. Undercapitalization
b. Overcapitalization
c. Both
d. Subjective matter
212 Budgetary control provides a basis for… C
a. Bonus shares
b. Rights shares
c. Remuneration plans
d. None
213 Budgetary control helps to introduce a suitable incentive and B
remuneration based
on…
a. Changes in government policies
b. Inflationary conditions
c. Both
d. None
229 On the basis of flexibility budget is classified into two types such as fixed A
budget and
________ budget.
a. variable
b. Semi-variable
c. Constant
230 Variable budget is also known as _______ budget. C
a. Fixed
b. Semi-variable
c. Flexible
231 The budget prepared according to ________ is known as functional C
budgets.
a. Period
b. Controls
c. Functions
232 ……………….. budget is a budget which is designed to remain unchanged C
irrespective of the volume of output or turnover achieved.
a. Flexible
b. Cash
c. Fixed
233 A Flexible budget is one which permits the change in accordance with the B
changes
in the level of activity.
a. Fixed
b. Flexible
c. Sales
234 Flexible budgets are more useful in actual practice because it is more A
realistic and
has great practical utility in the business.
a. realistic
b. non-realistic
c. Predictable
235 A _______ budget is the budget which shows the quantity and value of C
goods to be
purchased during the budget period to meet the day-to-day needs of the
business.
a. Sales
b. Cash
c. Purchase
236 One of the basic purpose to prepare _______ budget is to estimate the A
cash
requirements for the purchases to be made during the budgeted period.
a. purchase
b. cash
c. sales
247 Given the budgeted output in second quarter is 8,000 units. In the first A
quarter,
Fixed overheads were Rs 40,000 Variable overheads were Rs 5 per unit ( Rs
40,000)
and semi variable were 20,000 ( 60% varying @ Rs 3 per unit). Determine
the total
manufacturing overhead budget for the second quarter.
a. Rs 1,12,000
b. 1,12,000 units
c. Insufficient data
d. None of the above
248 Budgetary control system defines the objectives and policies of the… D
a. Production department
b. Finance department
c. Marketing department
d. All
249 Budgetary control system facilitates centralized control with… C
a. Decentralized activity
b. Centralized activity
c. Both
d. None
5. A consumer will start buying less of good-X and more of Good-Y, when:
(a) slope of IC > slope of price line (b) slope of IC < slope of price line
(c) Slope of IC # slope of price line (d) slope of IC = slope of price line
12. it is the property of indifference curvethat no two IC can intersect each other.
The reason behind this is:
(c) Same combination of two goods cannot give different level of satisfaction
(a)Px/Py (b)Py/Px
15.An Indifference curve slope down towards right since more of one commodity
and less of another result in:
(b)Greater satisfaction.
(c)Maximum satisfaction.
(d)Decreasingexpenditure.
(b)Cannot be expressed
Combi X Y X Y X Y
nation
A 5 1 1 5 1 5
B 5 2 2 5 2 3
C 5 3 3 5 3 2
(c) Total utility from goods X and Y (d) choices and preferences of consumer
19. As we move down the indifference curve left to right, the slope of indifference
curve tends to:
20. A shift in budget line, when prices are constant, is due to:
(a)Px/Py (b)Py/Px
(c) Change in Y / change in X (d) change in X/ change in Y
(c) MRS=Px/Py
(c) They represent those combinations of two goods that give the same
satisfaction.
30. When at price of Rs. 5per unit of a commodity, A’s demand is for 11 units, B’s
demand is for 14 units and C’S demand is for 8 units, then market demand will be:
32. How are two goods (apple and orange) related when, as a result of rise in the
price of apples, demand for oranges increases?
(a) substitute goods (b) complementary goods
(a) becomes a horizontal straight line (b) becomes a vertical straight line
39. If two goods are complementary then rise in the price of one results in:
(a) rise in demand for the other (b) fall in demand for the other
41. Movement along the demand curve occurs due to change in:
42. An increase in the price of electricity will cause the demand for electric
appliances to:
(c) change in demand due to factors other than own price of the commodity
44. A fall in income of the consumer (in case of normal goods) will cause:
45. Change in quantity demanded of a commodity due to change in its own price,
other things remaining constant, is called:
(a) from lower point to upper point on the same demand curve
(c) from upper point to lower point on the same demand curve
51. Substitution effect takes place when price of the commodity becomes:
(a) complete the demand for each other (b) are substituted for each other
56. In case of normal goods, the relationship between income and quantity
demanded is:
57. In case of normal goods, the relationship between own price of the
commodity and its quantity demanded is:
61. When increase in the price of one good causes an increase in demand for the
other, the goods are:
(a) substitutes (b) complementary
63. Shift in demand curve occurs when demand for a commodity changes due to
change in:
66. An increase in the price of computer will cause the demand for internet
services to:
Ans- 1.(A), 2.(A), 3.(C), 4.(C), 5(b), 6(d), 7(c), 8.(b), 9.(c), 10.(b), 11.(c), 12.(c),
13.(a), 14.(c), 15.(a), 16.(d), 17.(c), 18.(d), 19.(d), 20.(b), 21.(C), 22.(b), 23.(c),
24.(d), 25.(d), 26.(c), 27.(d), 28.(b), 29.(c), 30.(d), 31.(b) , 32.(a) , 33.(a) , 34.(b) ,
35.(a) , 36.(b) , 37.(b) , 38.(d) , 39.(b) , 40.(c) , 41.(a) , 42.(b) , 43.(c) , 44.(d) , 45.(b)
, 46.(a) , 47.(d) , 48.(b) , 49.(c) , 50.(d) , 51.(d), 52.(a) , 53.(b) , 54.(a) , 55.(d) , 56.(b)
, 57.(b) , 58.(d) , 59.(b) , 60.(a) , 61.(a) , 62.(a) , 63.(b) , 64.(c) , 65.(b) , 66.(c)
A It is the sum total of utility derived from the consumption of all units
of a commodity.
MUX = Px
The set of bundles available to the consumer with his given income at
prevailing market price is called the budget set.
These are the goods, the demand for which increases as income of the
buyer rise. There in positive relation between income and demand of
these goods.
28. Demand of good ‘X’ falls due to increase in the income of the
consumer what type of good ‘X’ is
29. What will be the impact on demand of the substitute good due to
increase in price of the good?
Elastic
Market demand is the sum of total demand of all the consumers in the
market at a particular time and at a given price.
32. What cause an upward movement along a demand curve?
Perfectly elastic
Equal to unit
40. Due to decrease in price of pen why does the demand of ink
increase?
42. Under what situation does the slope of changed budget line be
flatter?
42. What change should lake place in price of the combination of two
goods so that the slope of budget line becomes steeper?
1.Degree of necessity
2.Proportion of consumer’s income spent on the commodity
DEMAND
Ans. Individual Demand Schedule refers to the relationship between price and
quantity demanded of a commodity by an individual.
Q4. What is Market Demand Schedule? Explain with table & diagram.
Ans. Market Demand Schedule is the sum of the individual demand schedule for
a commodity in the market at different prices of the commodity.
On the assumption that there are three buyers in the market, Market Demand
Schedule may be drawn as follows.
Price per Unit/ A B C Total
Firm
1 10 5 20 35
2 8 4 16 28
3 6 3 12 21
4 4 2 8 14
5 2 1 4 7
A Market Demand Curve has been drawn on the basis of table. The Market
Demand Curve shows that, when price is Rs. 1 per Kg apple the total demand of
the market is 35kg, but when price is increased to Rs.5 total demand of apples
become7kg. This slope of this demand curve is negative, showing inverse
relationship between price of the commodity and its quantity demanded.
Ans.Normal good is a good,with the rise in income thedemand for normal goods
will rise because of rising purchasing power with increased income.
Income effect of normal goods is positive. Example: - Grain, Rice & wheat.
Ans. Giffen goods are those inferior goods in case of which there is a positive
relationship between price and quantity demanded.
Q7.DefineInferior Goods.
Ans. Inferior good is a good whose demand decreases with rise in income and
increases with a fall in income of consumers. The Income Effect of Inferior Goods
is Negative. For Example- . Coarse Gram
The table shows that when the price was Rs. 1, at that time the demand of the
commodity was 10, but when the price increase to re 5 the demand for the
commodity falls to 2 units.
Thus it is true with an increase in the price of the commodity demand decreases
and with a fall in the price demand increases.
Price of a commodity
With the rise in income of the consumer his purchasing power increases. As a
result he can buy more of a commodity that he was not buying earlier due to
monetary constraint. Similarly a fall in income of the consumer will force him to
cut down his expenditure and he will demand less of a commodity.
Price of related goods
Related goods are of two types i.e. Substitute goods and complementary good.
Substitute Goods
Substitute goods are those which can be used in place of each other with equal
ease. Example - Pepsi Cola and Coca-Cola. Of the two given goods the demand will
be higher for the goods which have comparatively lower price and vice versa.
Complementary goods
Complementary Goodsare those goods which and are incomplete without each
other. It of each other.
A fall in the price of one commodity leads to rise in the demand of its
complementary good. Example: - If the price of petrol falls then demand for car
will rise.
Tastes and Preferences of the consumers will also affect the demand of
thecommodity. A student will demand more of books and pens then utensils
because of his preference for the same.
Miscellaneous
Demand for SeasonalGoods- The consumer will demand woolen clothes in winter
only.
Ans.With the increase in income of the consumer his purchasing power increases,
he can spend more than what he was spending earlier. Income affects demand for
acommodity depends upon, whether a commodity
Normal Goods
The demand for normal goods rises with the increase in income of the consumer.
I.e. income effect is positive. If the income of the consumer decreases then the
demand for such goods also decreases.
Inferior Goods
For Inferior Goods Income,Effect is negative quality with the increase in income
and vice versa.
Essential/Necessities
The goods that are essential for human beings are called necessities. The demand
for such goods does not change with the increase or decrease in income.
Q11. Why does Demand Curve for a commodity slope downwards to the right?
Ans. The Demand Curve for commodity slopes downwards to the right because of
thefollowing reason:.
The law states that with the consumption of an additional unit of a commodity,
the utility from each successive unit goes on diminishing.
Example- Utility form first chapati /Loaf of Br from second chapatti is lesser, from
the third still lesser, because a part of his hungeris satisfied from the first one and
the second in terms of satisfaction derived with each successive chapati
diminishes .This depictsthe Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility.
Income effect
Substitution effect
Number of consumers
When the price of a commodity falls, consumers buys it at the reduced price,
therefore the number of consumers increases because the old ones also
consuming it in the same quantity or more than what they were consuming
before fall in the price of that commodity.
A commodity used is consumed more at a lower price but if its price goes up then
consumption get restricted to very essential use.
For example milk is used for many purposes e.g. Drinking, Making curd, paneer ,
tea etc. but if the price goes up the consumption of milk is restricted to say baby
food only.
When the price of complementary good falls (rises) its quantity demanded rises
(falls). The demand for the given commodity increases (decreases) as
complementary good are used together. This will cause a rightward (leftward)
shift of demand curve of given commodity.
Ans. Cross Price Effect means how the demand for one particular product is
affected by a change in the price of another commodity. Cross price effects
originate from related goods:
(a) Substitute good- If the price of tea falls, the quantity demanded for coffee
would fall because people will use more of a tea than coffee.
(b) Complementary good- If the price of car falls down, then quantity
demanded for petrol would go up because people will purchase more car and
petrol.
Q14. Briefly explain the factors that shift
1. Change in Income
if the income of the consumer increases the demand for the normal product
increases similarly with the decrease in income the demand for the product
decreases and the demand curve shift to the left. Increase in income shift the
demand curve to the right.
Substitute good- when the price of a substitute good falls (rires) then it becomes
relatively cheaper or costlier, so it is substituted for the given commodity and the
demand arrive shift to the right or (left)
Change in taste- A favourable change in the taste shift the demand curve to the
right as s result price as well as the total quantity demanded will increase similarly
an infavourable change in taste will shift the demined curve to the left and both
price and quantity will fall.
Ans. Derived Demand is the demand that has been derived from the demand for
some other commodity it helps to produce. Demand for factors of production is
called derived demand because it is derived from demand of such goods, which
the factor helps to produce.
Example- Demand for Shoe is direct demand but the demand for Labour is
Derived Demand because it does not satisfy the consumer demand directly but it
arises due to demand for shoe.
Q 17. Determine how the following changes will affect the Market Demand Curve
for a Product:
Ans- Train and bus services are substitute to each other. If train fair comes down
the demand for bus travel willdecrease as a result there wouldbe left ward shift of
demand curve for the bus travel
(b) Foreign Trade- The country in which a product has less elastic demand can
be charged a higher price than a country having a more elastic demand
(c) Government- Goods and services likecigarettes, have inelastic demand. The
Government taxes inelastic, so that the scale of such commodities does not fall
and burden of tax is borne by rich class.
(d) Factor Pricing- Factors having less elastic demand can charge higher prices
than those having more elastic demand. For Example A Pilot gets more salary as
compared to Doctors, since their demand is less elastic. The concept of elasticity
helps in explaining the relative shares to factors of production in the output.
Example 1 Price of a good falls from Rs. 100 to Rs. 80. As a result its demand rises
from 4000 units to 5000 units. Calculate Price Electricity of Demand by
Expenditure Method
Original expenditure = P x Q-
= 4,00,000
since the total expenditure is same even after the change in price, the elasticity of
demand is unity
Ed=1
Example 2
A consumer demands 1000 units of the price of Re 10 per unit. If the price of the
said commodity is increased to Rs.14,the demand for the product falls to 600.
Calculate Price Elasticity of Demand.
The ED for good x is known to be twice that of good X price of X falls by 5% while
that of good Y rises by 5%. What is the % age change in the quantities of X and Y?
Consumers’ Equilibrium
Q3. DefineMarginalUtility(MU)
AnsMarginal.Utiisadditionalityutilityderivedfromconsumptionofanadditional
unit of a commodity.
MU=TUn–TUn-1
Q4.HowisTotalUtilityisderivedbysummingupofmarginalutilities.
Ans. UtilityTotalsderivedbysummingupofMarginalUtilities.
Ans. Utilitymeanswantsatisfyingcapacityofcommodity.
Ans. Followingaretheassumptions:-
Ans. FollowingaretheProperties.
(iv) Indifferencecurvescannotmeetorintersect.
Ans. Consumers Equilibrium means a situation when a consume buys that much
quantity of a commodity which gives him maximum satisfaction. How much
quantity of a commodity he should buy is explained with the help of a marginal
utility schedule.
MU TU
Units consumed (A) (A) (A)
1 14 14
2 12 26
3 10 36
4 8 44
Condition:-PxMUx =
Supposethe priceofAisRs5/.per-unit
MarginalUtility ofRs 1.-=2
Units Mu Tu
1 10 10
2 8 18
3 5 23
4 2 25
5 1 26
6 0 26
7 -3 23
Abovediagram shows thatmoreandmoreunit start consumedMUdeclines.
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BBA Semester-VI
Subject : Management Accounting
Multiple Choice Questions
1 The cost that tends to remain constant irrespective of the level of activity is called
_______.
(a) Variable cost
(b) Fixed cost
(c) Total cost
(d) All of the above
2 Cost Accounting restrict itself with _______ transactions.
(a) Financial
(b) Spot
(c) Historical
(d) Administrative
3 Following is (are) the method(s) of measuring labour turnover.
(a) Replacement Method
(b) Separation Method
(c) Flux Method
(d) All of the above
4 Following is (are) the example(s) of semi-variable overheads.
(a) Maintenance cost
(b) Electricity
(c) Health and Accident Insurance
(d) All of the above
5 _________ indicates the financial status of the business at given period.
(a) Balance sheet
(b) Accounting ledger
(c) General ledger
(d) All of the above
6 In Cash budget, Non operating cash inflow include(s)
(a) Receipt of loan/borrowings
(b) Issue of shares
(c) Sale of fixed assets
(d) All of the above
7 Sales Budget is a forecast expressed in -
(a) Quantity
(b) Money
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
8 Following is used as tool for Cost Control
(a) Marginal cost
(b) Historical cost
(c) Standard cost
(d) All of the above
9 Management accounting assists the management
(a) Only in control
(b) Only in direction
(c) Only in planning
(d) In planning, direction and control
10 Management accounting is deals with -
(a) Quantitative Information
(b) Qualitative Information
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
11 Which of the following is an advantage of standard costing?
(a) Measuring efficiency
(b) Facilitates cost control
(c) Determination of variance
(d) All of the above
12 Which of the following is not a functional budget?
(a) Labour budget
(b) Cash budget
(c) Materials budget
(d) Expenses budget
13 Which is the mostly likely purpose of budgeting?
(a) Planning and control of an organization's income and expenditure
(b) Preparation of a five-year business plan
(c) Company valuation
(d) Assess the non-financial performance of an organization
14 __________ Accounting becomes a source of information for Management Accounting.
(a) Financial
(b) Cost
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
15 Calculate the production budget from the following data: sales 89,350 units; opening
inventory 23,864 units; closing inventory 33,156 units.
(a) 80,058 units
(b) 1,46,370 units
(c) 32,320 units
(d) 98,642 units
16 Fixed budget is useless for comparison when the level of activity -
(a) Increases
(b) Fluctuates both ways
(c) Decreases
(d) Constant
17 The budget committee consists of -
(a) Managers
(b) Budget officers
(c) Creditors
(d) None of the above
18 A budget centre is -
(a) Department or part of the department
(b) Meeting place for budget committee
(c) Office of the budget officer
(d) None of the above
19 The main objective of budgetary control is -
(a) To define the goal of the firm
(b) To coordinate different departments
(c) To plan to achieve its goals
(d) All of the above
20 Production budget is -
(a) Dependent on purchase budget
(b) Dependent on sales budget
(c) Dependent on cash budget
(d) None of the above
21 Sales budget shows the sales details as -
(a) Month wise
(b) Product wise
(c) Area wise
(d) All of the above
22 An example of long period budget is -
(a) R & D budget
(b) Master budget
(c) Sales budget
(d) Personnel budget
23 The budgets are classified on the basis of -
(a) Time
(b) Function
(c) Flexibility
(d) All of the above
24 Budget relating to the key factor is prepared -
(a) After other budgets
(b) With other budgets
(c) Before other budgets
(d) None of the above
25 Key factor is also known as -
(a) Limiting factor
(b) Governing factor
(c) Principal factor
(d) All of the above
26 In responsibility accounting system -
(a) Budgets are prepared
(b) Actual performance is recorded
(c) The performance is reported
(d) All of the above
27 The responsibility accounting emphasizes the performance of -
(a) System
(b) Men
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
28 The responsibility accounting is also called -
(a) Profitability accounting
(b) Activity accounting
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
29 The responsibility accounting is the part of -
(a) Financial accounting
(b) Management accounting
(c) Mechanized accounting
(d) None of these
30 The responsibility accounting is a controlling tool for -
(a) Top‐level management
(b) Lower level management
(c) Middle level management
(d) None of these
31 Which of the following system emphasizes on cost control ?
(a) Cost accounting
(b) Responsibility accounting
(c) Financial accounting
(d) None of these
32 The responsibility centres come under the responsibility of -
(a) Cost accountants
(b) Management accountant
(c) Responsibility managers
(d) Auditor
33 The subdivision of responsibility centre is -
(a) Expense centre
(b) Profit centre
(c) Investment centre
(d) All of the above
34 The accounting department in an organization is -
(a) Investment centre
(b) Expense centre
(c) Profit centre
(d) All of the above
35 What is the main advantage of responsibility accounting ?
(a) Improves performance
(b) It fixes responsibility
(c) Helpful in decision making
(d) All of the above
36 The responsibility accounting is a system by which the responsibility is assigned to the
concerned persons -
(a) To increase sales
(b) To control cash
(c) To increase production
(d) All of the above
37 The contribution of accounting department in an organization -
(a) Cannot be measured in monetary terms
(b) Can be measured in monetary terms
(c) May or may not be measured in monetary terms
(d) None of the above
38 According to responsibility accounting, the entire organization is divided into various -
(a) Business centre
(b) Profit centre
(c) Responsibility centre
(d) None of the above
39 It may not be ______ to measure exactly the output of service departments in an
organization.
(a) Feasible
(b) Necessary
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) None of these
40 Internal transfer of process at profit _________ of the company.
(a) Will not increase the asset
(b) Will increase the asset
(c) Can’t say
(d) Inadequate information
41 Budgetary control __________ replace management in decision‐making.
(a) Can
(b) Cannot
(c) Sometimes
(d) Inadequate data
42 The success of budgetary control system depends upon the willing cooperation of ….…
(a) Shareholders
(b) Management
(c) Creditors
(d) All the functional areas of management
43 A key factor is one which restricts ……
(a) The volume of production
(b) The volume of sales
(c) The volume of purchase
(d) All of the above
44 The classification of fixed and variable cost is useful for the preparation of ……
(a) Master budget
(b) Flexible budget
(c) Cash budget
(d) Capital budget
45 The primary objective of management accounting is –
(a) To provide shareholders and potential investors with useful information for decision
making
(b) To provide banks and other creditors with information useful in making credit
decisions
(c) To provide management with information useful for planning and control of
operations
(d) To provide the relevant taxation authorities with information about taxable income
46 In ‘make or buy’ decision, it is profitable to buy from outside only when the supplier’s
price is below the firm’s own ___________.
(a) Fixed Cost
(b) Variable Cost
(c) Total Cost
(d) Prime Cost
47 __________ is a detailed budget of cash receipts and cash expenditure incorporating
both revenue and capital items.
(a) Cash Budget
(b) Capital Expenditure Budget
(c) Sales Budget
(d) Overhead Budget
48 Sunk costs are __________.
(a) Relevant for decision making
(b) Not relevant for decision making
(c) Cost to be incurred in future
(d) Future costs
49 Abnormal cost is the cost ___________.
(a) Cost normally incurred at a given level of output
(b) Cost not normally incurred at a given level of output
(c) Cost which is charged to customer
(d) Cost which is included in the cost of the product
50 Responsibility Centre can be categorised into ___________.
(a) Cost Centres only
(b) Profit Centres only
(c) Investment Centres only
(d) All of the above
51 A profit centre is a centre ___________.
(a) Where the manager has the responsibility of generating and maximising profits
(b) Which is concerned with earning an adequate Return on Investment
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Which manages cost
52 Management Accounting is and financial accounting differ in that management
accounting information is prepared –
(a) Following prescribed rules
(b) Using whatever methods the company finds beneficial
(c) For shareholders
(d) To summarize the whole company with little detail
53 Purpose of Management Accounting is to –
(a) Past orientation
(b) Help banks make decisions
(c) Help managers make decisions
(d) Help investors make decisions
54 Management Accounting is the branch of accounting concerned with reporting to –
(a) Internal Managers
(b) Shareholders
(c) The Government
(d) Bankers
55 Which of the following does NOT describe management accounting?
(a) Evaluation of segments or products within the firm
(b) Emphasis on the future
(c) Externally focused
(d) Detailed information
56 Management accounting reports are prepared
(a) To meet the needs of decision makers within the firm
(b) Whenever shareholders request them
(c) According to guidelines prepared by the shares and Financial Services Authority
(d) According to financial accounting standards
57 Management accounting is primarily concerned with -
(a) Providing investors with useful information for valuing securities.
(b) Providing creditors information on the status of their loans.
(c) Providing managers with relevant information to help achieve organizational goals.
(d) Providing the relevant taxation authorities with information to determine the amount
of taxes owed.
58 Which matters are taken into consideration while preparing production budget ?
(a) The estimate of the number of units to be produced during the budget period.
(b) Estimate of number of units to be sold.
(c) Policy regarding the wage fixation for labourers.
(d) Policy regarding the selection of suppliers from whom materials would be purchased.
59 Which of the following matter is to be taken into account which preparing Material
Purchase Budget ?
(a) The supplier from whom materials are to be purchased.
(b) The procedure of storing and preserving materials after they are received.
(c) The prices at which receipts and issues of materials are to be recorded in stores
ledger.
(d) The maximum and minimum quantities of materials to be purchased.
60 Which of the following matter is relevant with cash receipts and disbursement method of
preparing Cash Budget ?
(a) While determining the cash payments, it is necessary to estimate the credit sales.
(b) While estimating cash receipts, it is not necessary to estimate the figure of credit
sales.
(c) Debtors Ratio is used to estimate the timings when cash collections would be
obtained from credit sales.
(d) While estimating the total amount of cash payment for purchases, it is necessary to
decide from which suppliers materials are to be purchased.
61 Budget period depends upon -
(a) The type of budget
(b) The nature of business
(c) The length of trade cycles
(d) All of the above
62 Usually the production budget is stated in terms of -
(a) Money
(b) Quantity
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
63 Recording of actual performance is -
(a) An advantage of budgetary control
(b) A step in budgetary control
(c) A limitation of budgetary control
(d) None of the above
64 Budgetary control system helps the management to eliminate -
(a) Undercapitalization
(b) Overcapitalization
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
65 Budgetary control facilitates easy introduction of the -
(a) Marginal costing
(b) Ratio analysis
(c) Standard costing
(d) Subjective matter
66 Budgetary control system acts as a friend, philosopher and guide to the -
(a) Management
(b) Share holders
(c) Creditors
(d) Employees
67 Budgetary control system defines the objectives and policies of the -
(a) Production department
(b) Finance department
(c) Marketing department
(d) Subjective matter
68 A budget is tool which helps the management in planning and control of -
(a) All business activities
(b) Production activities
(c) Purchase activities
(d) Sales activities
69 In responsibility centre, the output is called as -
(a) Revenue
(b) Cost
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
70 If the responsibility centre gets more revenue from output, then it is called -
(a) Investment centre
(b) Cost centre
(c) Profit centre
(d) Expense centre
71 Cost Unit is defined as -
(a) Unit of quantity of product, service or time in relation to which costs may be
ascertained or expressed
(b) A location, person or an item of equipment or a group of these for which costs are
ascertained and used for cost control.
(c) Centres having the responsibility of generating and maximising profits
(d) Centres concerned with earning an adequate return on investment
72 Fixed cost is a cost -
(a) Which changes in total in proportion to changes in output
(b) Which is partly fixed and partly variable in relation to output
(c) Which do not change in total during a given period despise changes in output
(d) Which remains same for each unit of output
73 Uncontrollable costs are the costs which be influenced by the action of a specified
member of an undertaking. -
(a) can not
(b) can
(c) may or may not
(d) must
74 Element/s of Cost of a product are -
(a) Material only
(b) Labour only
(c) Expenses only
(d) Material, Labour and expenses
75 Overhead refers to -
(a) Direct or Prime Cost
(b) All Indirect costs
(c) Only Factory indirect costs
(d) Only indirect expenses
76 Which of the following is not a method of cost absorption?
(a) Percentage of direct material cost
(b) Machine hour rate
(c) Labour hour rate
(d) Repeated distribution method
77 A Local Authority is preparing cash Budget for its refuse disposal department. Which of
the following items would not be included in the cash budget?
(a) Capital cost of a new collection vehicle
(b) Depreciation of the machinery
(c) Operatives wages
(d) Fuel for the collection Vehicles
78 Which of the following characteristics does NOT pertain to management accounting?
(a) Provides information and estimates about future activity
(b) Generates specific-purpose financial statements and reports
(c) Provides financial and operating data multidisciplinary in scope
(d) Has externally imposed standards
79 A budget which is prepared in a manner so as to give the budgeted cost for any level of
activity is known as -
(a) Master budget
(b) Zero base budget
(c) Functional budget
(d) Flexible budget
80 ___________ is a summary of all functional budgets in a capsule form.
(a) Functional Budget
(b) Master Budget
(c) Long Period Budget
(d) Flexible Budget
81 When the sales increase from Rs. 40,000 to Rs. 60,000 and profit increases by Rs. 5,000,
the P/V ratio is -
(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 25%
(d) 40%
82 From following which is not a principle of good reporting ?
(a) Simplicity
(b) Accountability
(c) Promptness
(d) Accuracy
83 From day to day operation which report is prepare ?
(a) Routine
(b) Special
(c) Investigative
(d) External
84 Any special event happen into the business then which report is prepared ?
(a) Routine
(b) Special
(c) External
(d) Control
85 Internal report use for _______________ .
(a) Share holders
(b) Government
(c) Managerial personnel
(d) Creditors
86 External report use for _______________ .
(a) Top level management
(b) Middle level management
(c) Lower level management
(d) Shareholders
87 From following which is not a routine report ?
(a) Production report
(b) Sales report
(c) Investigation
(d) Administration report
89. Financial accounting is primarily concerned with providing financial reports to all of
the following EXCEPT
a. creditors such as banks and other financial institutions.
b. creditors such as suppliers.
c. shareholders of the company.
d. management of the firm.
90. Management accounting and financial accounting differ in that management accounting
information is prepared
a. following prescribed rules.
b. using whatever methods the company finds beneficial.
c. for shareholders.
d. to summarize the whole company with little detail.
97. Which of the following costing activities is associated with the financial accounting
system?
a. determining the cost of a department
b. determining the cost of goods sold for financial statements
c. preparing budgets
d. determining the cost of a customer
98. Which of the following activities is NOT associated with the financial accounting
information system?
a. reporting on the cost of quality
b. reporting to the shareholders
c. preparing reports for the tax authorities
d. preparing a statement of cash flows
99. Which of the following cost management tools supports the firm's concentration on the
delivery of value to the customer?
a. service industry growth
b. global competition
c. preparing an earnings report for external reporting
d. value-chain analysis
100. Factors that have led to a global market for manufacturing and service firms are
a. improved transportation and communications systems.
b. improved telemarketing and communications.
c. improved distribution and transportation systems.
d. None of these factors have contributed.
101. Which of the following activities is NOT significant to the advancement of information
technology?
a. enterprise resource planning software
b. emergence of electronic commerce
c. theory of constraints
d. decision support systems
102. Software that has integrated system capability using real time data is
a. enterprise resource planning software.
b. on-line analytic programs.
c. computer-assisted engineering software.
d. none of the above.
103. Automation of the manufacturing environment is associated with increases in
a. inventory.
b. capacity.
c. processing time.
d. none of these.
104. Total quality management emphasizes
a. zero defects.
b. continual improvement.
c. elimination of waste.
d. all of the above.
105. Which of the following emerging themes in cost accounting deals with managers striving
to create an environment that will enable workers to manufacture perfect (zero-defect)
products?
a. advances in information technology
b. time as a competitive element
c. global competition
d. total quality management
106. Competitive advantage is established by
a. providing more customer products than competitors.
b. providing better quality than competitors.
c. providing greater customer value for less cost than competitors.
d. providing greater efficiencies than competitors.
108. Which of the following statements is NOT true about world-class firms?
a. World-class firms are firms that are poor in customer support.
b. World-class firms know their market and their products.
c. World-class firms strive continually to improve product design, manufacture,
and delivery.
d. World-class firms can compete with the best of the best in a global environment.
109. Monitoring the number of defects produced is an example of the management function of
a. planning.
b. control.
c. decision making.
d. both a and c.
111. Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes between financial and
management accounting?
a. Management accounting reports on the whole organization.
b. Financial accounting is oriented toward the future.
c. Financial accounting is primarily concerned with providing information for
internal users.
d. Management accounting is oriented more toward the planning and control
aspects of management.
112. Setting the company's profit targets for the upcoming year is an example of the
management function of
a. planning.
b. control.
c. variance analysis.
d. internal auditing.
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MCQs
101 – MANAGERIAL ACCOUNTING
5. The work of factory employees that can be physically associated with converting raw
material into finished goods is classified as
a. Manufacturing overhead
b. Indirect materials
c. Indirect labour
d. Direct labour
8. Which type of asset class includes those assets which have only definite use and
Become valueless when the yield is over?
a. Fixed asset
b. Current asset
c. Fictitious asset
d. Wasting asset
9. An accounting that deals with the accounting and reporting of information to management
regarding the detail information is
a. Financial accounting
b. Management accounting
c. Cost accounting
d. Real Accounting
28. ………………cost refers to those cost which have already been incurred and cannot be
altered by any decision in the future.
a. Opportunity cost
b. Sunk Cost
c. Incremental cost
d. Decremental cost
29. Amortization of intangible Asset Such as Goodwill which has indefinite life is an example
of accounting concept
a. Conservatism Concept
b. Continuity Concept
c. Realisation Concept
d. Measurement Concept
31. ………………cost will still be incurred although a plant is shut down temporarily.
a. Cost of raw material
b. Advertising
c. Depreciation
d. Carriage
32. Accounting principles are generally based upon:
a. Practicability
b. Subjectivity
c. Convenience in recording
d. None of the above
34. The practice of appending notes regarding contingent liabilities in accounting statements
is in pursuance to:
a. Convention of consistency
b. Money measurement concept
c. Convention of conservatism
d. Convention of disclosure
39. Income tax paid by a sole proprietor on his business income should be:
a. Debited to trading account
b. Debited to profit and loss account
c. Deducted from capital account in the balance sheet
d. None of the above
40. All direct & indirect expenses related to business are charged:
a. Profit and loss account
b. Trading account
c. Trading account Profit and Loss account
d. Directly to Balance sheet
41. According to schedule VI Companies Act which item is not shown on Asset side of
Balance sheet
a. Investment
b. Current Loan & Advances
c. Provision
d. Lease Holds
43. Investment of X company profit in shares of other company PQR Pvt. ltd are recorded
in……………….
a. Asset side of Balance Sheet
b. Liability side of Balance Sheet
c. Profit & Loss a/c
d. Not recorded in Balance Sheet
53. Cost of asset should always be equal to the cost of the liabilities. This concept is
a. Double Entry Bookkeeping
b. Matching Concept
c. Consistency
d. Money measurement Concept
59. Reserve for doubtful debts appearing in the trial balance should be:
a. credited to P & L a/c
b. Shown as liability side in balance sheet
c. Reduced from related asset in the balance sheet
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
61. According to which concept business is treated as a unit apart from owner
a. Limited resources for training and development
b. Organisational culture
c. Failure of management
d. Inability to access learning material
63. True & fair profit and loss a/c of a company know by
a. Preparing trial balance
b. Preparing respective ledger of account
c. Preparing trading a/c
d. Preparing trading & profit & loss a/c
64. Credit balance of profit & loss a/c shown on
a. Asset side of balance sheet
b. Liability side of balance sheet
c. c) Not shown in balance sheet
d. d) Half on asset side and half on liability sides
65. Under which concept it is assumed that the enterprises has neither the intention nor the
necessity of liquidation or of curtailing materiality the scale of operation
a. Revenue realization concept
b. Matching cost concept
c. Going concern concept
d. None of these
66. Making the provision for doubtful debts and discount on debtors in anticipation of actual
bad debts and discount is an example for which concept
a. Conservatism concept
b. Continuity concept
c. Realization concept
d. All of these
72. Which of the following account balance will be shown on debit side of Trial Balance?
a. Outstanding expenses
b. Cash a/c
c. Short term loan
d. creditors
73. The reduction in the value of the fixed assets which can arise due to time factor is
a. Discount
b. Depreciation
c. Reduction
d. None of the above
81. Proposed dividends" is shown in the Balance Sheet of a company under the head:
a. Provision
b. Reserves and Surplus
c. Current Liabilities
d. Other Liabilities
82. Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of:
a. Separate entity
b. Going concern
c. Consistency
d. Time period
83. Proprietor (owner) is treated as creditor of business due to:
a. Periodicity concept
b. Materiality Principle
c. Entity Concept
d. Consistency concept
84. Which financial statement represents the accounting equation ASSETS = LIABILITIES +
OWNER'S EQUITY
a. Income Statement
b. Cash Flow Statement
c. Balance Sheet
d. Fund Flow Statement
86. Which of the following are correct? Account to be debited Account to be credited
Bought office wooden table for cash office wooden table cash
Ramesh sold goods on credited to Ram sales cash
Introduce capital by cheque capital Bank
Paid to creditor Sita by cheque Sita Bank
a. (ii) (iii)(i)
b. (iii)(iv)(ii)
c. (i)(iii)(iv) Wide
d. (i)(iv)
88. Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of:
a. Separate entity
b. Going concern
c. Consistency
d. Time period
89. Which of the following is correct
a. Profit does not alter capital
b. Capital can only come from profit
c. Profit reduces capital
d. Profit increases capital
92. The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following types of businesses?
a. Sole proprietorship
b. Corporation
c. Partnership
d. All of them
93. Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a business is divided for
the purpose of preparing financial statements?
a. Fiscal year
b. Calendar year
c. Accounting period
d. Accrual period
97. Which of the following is not regarded as the fundamental accounting concept?
a. The going concern concept
b. The separate entity concept
c. The prudence (conservatism) concept
d. Correction concept
98. Using "lower of cost and net realisable value(Market Value)" for the purpose of inventory
valuation is the implementation of which of the following concepts?
a. The going concern concept
b. The separate entity concept
c. The prudence concept
d. Matching concept
99. The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following types of businesses?
a. Sole proprietorship
b. Corporation
c. Partnership
d. All of them
100. The revenue recognition principal dictates that all types of incomes should be recorded or
recognized when
a. Cash is received
b. At the end of accounting period
c. When they are earned
d. When interest is paid
101. The allocation of owner's private expenses to his/her business violates which of the
following?
a. Accrual concept
b. Matching concept
c. Separate business entity concept
d. Consistency concept
103. Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a business is divided for
the purpose of preparing financial statements?
a. Fiscal year
b. Calendar year
c. Accounting period
d. Accrual period
104. Showing purchased office equipment’s in financial statements is the application of which
accounting concept?
a. Historical cost convention
b. Materiality
c. Prudence
d. Matching concept
105. Information about an item is ________ if its omission or misstatement might influence the
financial decision of the users taken on the basis of that information
a. Concrete
b. Complete
c. Immaterial
d. Material
106. "Financial information should be neutral and bias free" is the dictation of which one of the
following?
a. Completeness concept
b. Faithful representation Concept
c. Objectivity Concept
d. Duality Concept
107. Accounting principles are divided into two types. These are ---
a. Accounting Concepts
b. Accounting Conventions
c. Accounting Standards
d. Accounting Concepts &Accounting Conventions
108. Which of the following is not related with Money Measurement Concept?
a. All business transaction should be expressed only in money
b. The transactions which cannot be expressed in money, will not be recorded in
accounting books
c. Business is treated as separate from the proprietor
d. None of These
109. Which of the following equation is related with Dual Aspect Concept?
a. Total Assets = Total Liabilities
b. Total Assets = Capital + Outsider’s Liabilities
c. Capital = Total Assets - Outsider’s Liabilities
d. All of the above
110. If the total assets of the company amount to Rs 1,50,000 and owner’s equity is Rs.
70,000,the amount of liabilities will be –
a. Rs 70,000
b. Rs 80,000
c. Rs 90,000
d. Rs 1,00,000
122. The system of recording transaction based on dual aspect concept is called
a. Double account system
b. Double entry system
c. Single entry system
d. None of these
123. The practice of appending notes regarding contingent liabilities in accounting statement is
pursuant of
a. Convention of consistency
b. Money measurement concept
c. Convention of conservatism
d. Convention of disclosure
124. According to the money measurement concept the following will be recorded in the books
of accounts of the business
a. Health of the managing director of the company
b. Quality of company goods
c. Value of plant and machinery
d. Health of labour in factory
125. The convention of conservatism when applied to the balance sheet result in.
a. Understand the asset
b. Understand the liabilities
c. Overstatement of capital
d. None of these
136. Accountant should follow the same principles of accounting continuously is as per which
accounting convention
a. Convention of conservatism
b. Convention of full disclosure
c. Convention of consistency
d. None of these
137. Accounting principles are …………………………. which are adopted by the accountant
universally while recording accounting transaction.
a. Rules of action or conduct
b. Which u can change as per accountant
c. Which keep changing every year
d. None of these
138. The convention of disclosure implies that all material information should be
a. Disclosed in the account
b. Disclosed in the accounts which is required to owner
c. Not disclosed
d. None of these
140. Custom and traditions which guide the accountant while preparing the accounting
Statements
a. Accounting convention
b. Accounting concepts
c. Accounting principles
d. None of these
141. Rules of action or conduct adopted by the accountants universally while recording
accounting transaction
a. Accounting convention
b. Accounting concepts
c. Accounting principles
d. None of these
142. Basic assumptions or conditions upon which the science of accounting is based.
a. Accounting convention
b. Accounting concepts
c. Accounting principles
d. None of these.
143. A system in which accounting entries are made on the basis of amounts having become
due for payment or receipt is called
a. Cash concept
b. Accrual concept
c. Matching concept
d. On-going concept
145. Debit what come in Credit what goes out rule for
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
146. Debit all expenses and losses Credit all gains and income.
a. Real a/c
b. Personal a/c
c. Nominal a/c
d. None of these
147. A book containing a chronological record of business transaction & original record
a. Journal
b. Ledger
c. Trial balance
d. None of these
148. Transferring the debit and credit item from the journal to the respective accounts is called
a. Compound Journal
b. Ledger
c. Trial balance
d. None of these
150. The transferring of debit and credit items from journal to the respective accounts in the
ledger is called as
a. Ledger
b. Posting
c. Forward journal
d. None of these
151. Which of the following items would not fall under the definition of an asset?
a. Land
b. Machine
c. Cash
d. Owner Equity
152. Which one of the following items would fall under the definition of a liability
a. Cash
b. Debtor
c. Owner’s equity
d. None of these
153. Which of the following statements are false?
a. All liability is a debt for your business
b. Debtor are a asset for business
c. The accounting equation shows how much of your assets belong to the owner, and how
much belong to people outside business
d. None of the above
154. business has the following items in it: Land Rs.1,000,000 Machinery Rs.20,000 Cash
Rs.10,000 Debt Rs.0 Owner’s equity ? What is the valve of owner’s equity?
a. Rs.1020000
b. Rs.1010000
c. Rs.1030000
d. None of the above
155. A business has the following items in it: Owners’ equity Rs.6,00,000 Liabilities
Rs.14,00,000. What is the value of Assets……………
a. 600,000
b. 1,400,000
c. 2,000,000
d. None of these
156. A business has the following items in it: Land Rs.1, 500,000 Machinery Rs.80, 000
Cash Rs.20, 000 Owners equity Rs.900, 000 Loan Rs.500, 000 Creditors?
a. Rs.200, 000
b. Rs.700, 000
c. Rs.800, 000
d. Rs1, 100,000
157. A business has following items in itLand ? Vehicles Rs.600,000 Debtors Rs. 1,20,000
Cash Rs.30,000 Owners ‘Equity Rs.1,000,000 Loan 5,00,000 Creditors Rs.50,000
What is the value of the land…………………..
a. 000,000
b. 1,550,000
c. 800,000
d. None of these
158. Which of the following equations properly represents a derivation of the fundamental
accounting equation? a) Assets + liabilities = Owner Equity b) Asset = Owner Equity c) Cash =
Assets d) Assets – Liabilities = Owner Equity
a. Only (a)
b. Both (a) (b)
c. All (a)(b)(c)(d)
d. None of these
159. Retained earnings will change over time because of several factors. Which of the
following factors would explain an increase in retained earnings?
a. Net Loss
b. Net income
c. Dividend
d. Investment by share holder.
163. The full disclosure principle, as adopted by the accounting profession, is best described by
which of the following?
a. All information related to an entity's business and operating objectives is required to be
disclosed in the financial statements.
b. Information about each account balance appearing in the financial statements is to be
included in the notes to the financial statements.
c. Enough information should be disclosed in the financial statements so a person wishing
to invest in the stock of the company can make a profitable decision.
d. Disclosure of any financial facts significant enough to influence the judgment of an
informed reader
166. The Cash account on the balance sheet should not include which of the following items?
a. Travel advances to employees
b. Currency
c. Money orders
d. Deposits in transit
168. The following comments all relate to the recording process. Which of these statements is
correct?
a. The general ledger is a chronological record of transactions.
b. The general ledger is posted from transactions recorded in the general journal.
c. The trial balance provides the primary source document for recording transactions into
the general journal.
d. Transposition is the transfer of information from the general journal to the general
ledger.
169. The following comments each relate to the recording of journal entries. Which statement
is true?
a. For any given journal entry, debits must exceed credits.
b. It is customary to record credits on the left and debits on the right.
c. The chart of accounts reveals the amount to debit and credit to the affected accounts.
d. Journalization is the process of converting transactions and events into
debit/credit format.
171. Which of the following errors will be disclosed in the preparation of a trial balance?
a. Recording transactions in the wrong account.
b. Duplication of a transaction in the accounting records.
c. Posting only the debit portion of a particular journal entry.
d. Recording the wrong amount for a transaction to both the account debited and the
account credited.
172. The basic sequence in the accounting process can best be described as:
a. Transaction, journal entry, source document, ledger account, trial balance.
b. Source document, transaction, ledger account, journal entry, trial balance.
c. Transaction, source document, journal entry, trial balance, ledger account.
d. Transaction, source document, journal entry, ledger account, trial balance.
177. Which of the following statements about differences between financial and managerial
accounting is incorrect?
a. Managerial accounting information is prepared primarily for external parties
such as stockholders and creditors; financial accounting is directed at internal users.
b. Financial accounting is aggregated; managerial accounting is focused on products and
departments.
c. Managerial accounting pertains to both past and future items; financial accounting
focuses primarily on past transactions and events.
d. Financial accounting is based on generally accepted accounting practices; managerial
accounting faces no similar constraining factors.
179. Manufacturing costs are also known as product costs. Which of the following best
describes those costs which are considered to be manufacturing costs?
a. Direct materials, direct labor, and factory overhead.
b. Direct materials and direct labor only.
c. Direct materials, direct labor, factory overhead, and administrative overhead.
d. Direct labor and factory overhead.
180. A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, plus long
distance charges, would be classified as a:
a. Variable cost
b. Committed fixed cost
c. Direct cost
d. Semi variable cost
199. Which items does not come under the balance sheet
a. sales
b. Share capital
c. Reserves and surplus
d. Unsecured loan
205. _____________ system records only actual cash receipts and payments
a. Cash basis
b. Accrual basis
c. Mercantile basis
d. Single entry basis
206. Which of the following is true for: -“In accounts recording is done of_ _ _ _ _”
a. only financial transaction
b. only non- financial transaction
c. Both
d. Personal transaction of Proprietor
212. All costs other than direct materials cost, direct labour cost and direct expenses are known
as:
a. Indirect material cost
b. Overhead
c. Indirect labour cost
d. Indirect expenses
213. A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, plus long distance
charges, would be classified as a:
a. Variable cost
b. Committed fixed cost
c. Direct cost
d. Semi variable cost
215. The work of factory employees that can be physically associated with converting raw
material into finished goods is classified ase)
a. Manufacturing overhead
b. Indirect materials
c. Indirect labour
d. Direct labour
216. Which one of the following would not be classified as manufacturing overhead?
a. Indirect labour
b. Direct materials
c. Insurance on factory building
d. Indirect materials
218. A manufacturing process requires small amounts of glue. The glue used in the process is
classified as
a. A prime cost
b. An indirect material
c. A direct material
d. Miscellaneous expense
224. Aggregate of cost of goods sold and selling and distribution overheads is known as:
a. Total Cost
b. Office Cost
c. Cost of sales
d. Selling overhead
227. Calculate the prime cost from the following information: Direct material purchased: Rs.
1,00,000 Direct material consumed: Rs. 90,000 Direct labour: Rs. 60,000 Direct expenses: Rs.
20,000 Manufacturing overheads: Rs. 30,000
a. Rs. 1,80,000
b. Rs. 2,00,000
c. Rs. 1,70,000
d. Rs. 2,10,000
Answers
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32, (c) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (e) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (d)
51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (e) 59. (e) 60. (a)
61. (c) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (b) 66. (c) 67. (a) 68. (c) 69. (c) 70. (b)
71. (b) 72. (b) 73. (e) 74. (d) 75. (d) 76. (e) 77. (a) 78. (a) 79. (d) 80. (d)
81. (a) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (c) 85. (a) 86. (d) 87. (d) 88. (b) 89. (d) 90. (a)
91. (c) 92. (d) 93. (c) 94. (d) 95. (b) 96. (c) 97. (d) 98. (c) 99. (d) 100. (c)
101.(c) 102.(a) 103.(c) 104.(d) 105.(b) 106.(c) 107.(d) 108.(b) 109.(d) 110.(b)
111.(b) 112.(a) 113.(a) 114.(d) 115.(b) 116.(d) 117.(c) 118.(b) 119.(a) 120.(a)
121.(a) 122.(b) 123.(c) 124.(c) 125.(a) 126.(b) 127.(b) 128.(b) 129.(b) 130.(a)
131.(c) 132.(c) 133.(a) 134.(a) 135.(a) 136.(c) 137.(a) 138.(a) 139.(b) 140.(c)
141.(c) 142.(b) 143.(b) 144.(b) 145.(a) 146.(c) 147.(a) 148.(b) 149.(c) 150.(b)
151.(d) 152.(c) 153.(d) 154.(c) 155.(c) 156.(a) 157.(c) 158.(d) 159.(b) 160.(d)
161.(c) 162.(b) 163.(d) 164.(d) 165.(b) 166.(a) 167.(c) 168.(b) 169.(d) 170.(d)
171.(c) 172.(d) 173.(a) 174.() 175.(b) 176.(c) 177.(d) 178.(a) 179.(d) 180.(c)
181.(d) 182.(b) 183.(b) 184.(a) 185.(b) 186.(c) 187.(c) 188.(a) 189.(d) 190.(d)
191.(b) 192.(a) 193.(c) 194.(c) 195.(b) 196.(d) 197.(d) 198.(a) 199.(a) 200.(c)
201.(a) 202.(c) 203.(b) 204.(b) 205.(a) 206.(a) 207.(b) 208.(d) 209.(c) 210.(b)
211.(b) 212.(b) 213.(d) 214.(d) 215.(d) 216.(b) 217.(d) 218.(b) 219.(c) 220.(a)
221.(d) 222.(b) 223.(b) 224.(a) 225.(b) 226.(b) 227.(c)
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Managerial Accounting (101)
4. Imputed cost is a .
A. notional cost.
B. real cost.
C. normal cost.
D. variable cost.
ANSWER: A
10. Multiple costing is a technique of using two or more costing methods for ascertainment of cost by.
A. the same firm.
B. the several firms.
C. the same industry.
D. the several industries.
ANSWER: A
11. Wages paid to a labour who was engaged in production activities can be termed as.
A. direct cost.
B. indirect cost.
C. sunk cost.
D. imputed cost.
ANSWER: A
12. The cost which is to be incurred even when a business unit is closed is a.
A. imputed cost.
B. historical cost.
C. sunk cost.
D. shutdown cost
ANSWER: D
B. factory cost.
C. labour cost.
D. cost of goods sold.
ANSWER: B
19. Which one of the following is not considered for preparation of cost sheet?
A. Factory cost.
B. Goodwill written off.
C. Selling cost.
D. Labour cost.
ANSWER: B
31. The ratios which reflect managerial efficiency in handling the assets is.
A. turnover ratios
B. profitability ratios.
C. short term solvency ratio.
D. long term solvency ratio.
ANSWER: A
32. he ratios which reveal the final result of the managerial policies and performance is .
A. turnover ratios.
B. profitability ratios.
C. short term solvency ratio.
D. long term solvency ratio.
ANSWER: B
40. The ratio which measures the profit in relation to capital employed is known as
A. return on investment.
B. gross profit ratio.
C. operating ratio.
D. operating profit ratio.
ANSWER: A
41. The ratio which determines the profitability from the shareholder’s point of view is .
A. return on investment.
B. gross profit ratio.
C. return on shareholders funds.
D. operating profit ratio.
ANSWER: C
42. Return on equity is also called
A. . return on investment.
B. gross profit ratio.
C. return on shareholders funds.
D. return on net worth.
ANSWER: D
45. The ratio which is calculated to measure the productivity of total assets is
A. return on equity.
B. return on share holders funds.
C. return on total assets.
D. return on equity share holders’ funds.
ANSWER: C
46. The ratio which shows the proportion of profits retained in the business out of the current year’s profits
is
A. . retained earnings ratio.
B. pay out ratio
C. earnings per share.
D. price earnings ratio.
ANSWER: A
47. The ratio which indicates earnings per share reflected by the market price is .
A. retained earnings ratio.
B. pay out ratio.
C. earnings per share.
D. price earnings ratio.
ANSWER: D
48. The ratio establishes the relationship between profit before interest and tax and fixed interest charges
is .
A. interest cover ratio.
B. fixed dividend cover ratio.
C. debt service coverage ratio.
D. dividend yield ratio.
ANSWER: A
49. The ratio shows the preference dividend as a proportion of profit available for shareholders is
.
A. interest cover ratio.
B. fixed dividend cover ratio.
C. debt service coverage ratio.
D. dividend yield ratio.
ANSWER: B
53. Which ratio is calculated to ascertain the efficiency of inventory management in terms of capital
investment?
A. stock velocity ratio.
8
B. debtors velocity ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: A
54. The ratio which measures the relationship between the cost of goods sold and the amount of average
inventory is
A. stock turnover ratio.
B. debtors velocity ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: A
57. Which ratio measures the number of times the receivables are rotated in a year in terms of sales?
A. stock turnover ratio.
B. debtors turnover ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: B
9
60. The indicates the number of times the payables rotate in a year is _.
A. stock turnover ratio.
B. stock turnover ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: C
62. All those assets which are converted into cash in the normal course of business within one year are
known as .
A. fixed assets.
B. current assets.
C. fictitious assets.
D. wasting assets.
ANSWER: B
63. All those liabilities which are payable in cash in the normal course of business within a period of one
year are called _.
A. long term liabilities.
B. overdraft.
C. short term loans.
D. current liabilities.
ANSWER: D
64. Any transaction between a current account and another current account does not
Affect .
A. profit.
B. funds.
C. working capital.
D. capital.
ANSWER: B
65. Any transaction between a non current account and another non current account does not
affect .
A. profit.
B. funds.
C. working capital.
D. capital.
ANSWER: B
66. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement -Increase in current asset .
A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital.
C. decrease fixed capital.
D. increase fixed capital.
ANSWER: A
67. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement - Decrease in current asset .
A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital.
C. decrease fixed capital.
D. increase fixed capital.
ANSWER: B
68. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement -Increase in current liability .
A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital.
C. decrease fixed capital.
D. increase fixed capital.
ANSWER: B
69. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement -Decrease in current Liability .
A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital.
C. decrease fixed capital
D. increase fixed capital.
ANSWER: A
72. One of the primary differences between marginal costing and absorption costing regarding
the treatment of .
A. prime cost .
B. fixed overheads.
C. variable overheads .
D. direct materials.
ANSWER: B
85. 1f` fixed costs decrease while variable cost per unit remains constant, the new B.E.P in relation to the
old B.E.P will be .
A. lower .
B. higher.
C. . unchanged .
D. indeterminate.
ANSWER: B
86. If fixed costs decrease while the variable cost per unit remains constant, the new contribution margin in
relation to the old contribution margin will be .
A. lower .
B. unchanged .
C. higher.
D. indeterminate.
ANSWER: B
87. Selling price per unit Rs. 10; Variable cost Rs. 8 per unit; Fixed cost Rs. 20,000; Break-even
production in units .
A. 10,000.
B. 16,300.
C. 2,000.
D. 2,500.
ANSWER: D
88. Sales Rs. 25,000; Variable cost Rs. 8,000; Fixed cost Rs. 5,000; Break-even sales
in value .
A. Rs. 7,936.
B. Rs. 7,353.
C. Rs. 8,333.
D. Rs. 9,090.
ANSWER: B
89. Fixed cost Rs. 80,000; Variable cost Rs. 2 per unit; Selling price_Rs. 10 per unit; turnover required
for a profit target of Rs. 60,000.
A. Rs. 1,75,000.
B. Rs. 1,17,400.
C. Rs. 1.57,000.
D. Rs. 1,86,667.
ANSWER: A
90. Sales Rs. 25,000; Variable cost Rs. 15,000; Fixed cost Rs .4,000; P/V Ratio is .
A. 40% .
B. 80%
C. 15%
D. 30%.
ANSWER: A
91. Sales Rs. 50,000; Variable cost Rs. 30,000; Net profit Rs. 6,000; fixed cost is .
A. Rs. 10,000.
B. b. Rs. l4,000 .
C. Rs. 12,000.
D. Rs. 8,000.
ANSWER: B
92. Actual sales Rs .4,00,000; Break-even sales Rs. 2,50,000; Margin of Safety in
percentage is _.
A. 33.33%.
B. 66.67%
C. 37.5% .
D. 76.33%.
ANSWER: C
93. P/V Ratio 50%; Variable cost of the produce Rs. 25; Selling price is .
A. Rs. 50 .
B. Rs. 40.
C. Rs. 30 .
D. Rs. 55.
ANSWER: A
94. Fixed cost Rs. 2,00,000; Sales Rs. 8,00,000; P/V Ratio 30%; the amount of' profit is .
A. Rs. 50,000.
B. Rs. 40,000 .
C. Rs. 35,000 .
D. Rs. 45,000 .
ANSWER: B
95. P/V Ratio is 25% and Margin of Safety is Rs; 3,00,000, the amount of profit is .
A. Rs. 1,00,000.
B. Rs. 80,000.
C. Rs. 75,000.
D. . Rs. 60,000.
ANSWER: C
96. Total sales Rs. 20,00,000; Fixed expenses Rs. 4,00,000; P/V Ratio 40%; Break-even capacity
in percentage is .
A. 40% .
B. 60% .
C. 50% .
D. 45%.
ANSWER: C
97. Break - even point occurs at 40% of` total capacity, margin of safety will be .
A. 40% .
B. 60% .
C. 80% .
D. 85% .
ANSWER: B
98. If the P/V Ratio of a product is 30% and selling price is Rs. 25 per unit, the marginal cost of the
product would be .
A. Rs.18.75 .
B. Rs.16 .
C. Rs. 15 .
D. Rs.20 .
ANSWER: A
104. The budget which usually takes the form of budgeted profit and loss account and balance sheet is
known as
A. Flexible budget .
B. Master budget.
C. Cash budget .
D. Purchase budget.
ANSWER: B
106. The fixed-variable cost classification has `a special significance in the preparation of .
A. Capital budget.
B. Cash budget.
C. Master budget .
D. Flexible budget .
ANSWER: D
108. Preparing budget figures for different levels of activity within a range under flexible budgeting is
.
A. Formula method.
B. Multi-activity method.
C. Budget cost allowance method.
D. Proportionate method.
ANSWER: B
109. What type of budget is designed to take into account forecast change in costs, prices, etc?
A. Master budget.
B. Rolling budget.
C. Flexible budget .
D. Functional budget.
ANSWER: B
C. Budgeting.
D. Controlling.
ANSWER: C
ANSWER: C
116. The budget which shows the budgeted quantity of output to be produced during a specific period is.
A. Fixed budget.
B. Flexible budget.
C. Sales budget.
D. Production budget
ANSWER: D
118. Material budget consists of two parts, one is the consumption budget and another Is .
18
C. Material production budget.
D. Material budget.
ANSWER: B
122. Budget of indirect costs in the form of indirect wages, indirect material and indirect expenses in the
factory is .
A. Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Master budget.
ANSWER: A
123. The budget prepared to estimate the expenditure to be incurred for planning, organizing, direction and
control function of the management is .
A. . Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Master budget.
ANSWER: B
124. The budget prepared to estimate expenditure to be incurred to sell the product and its distribution is
.
A. Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Master budget
ANSWER: C
125. The budget prepared to estimate the research and development expenditure to be incurred during a
specific period is .
A. Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Research and development budget.
19
ANSWER: D
126. The budget prepared to estimate the expenditure on fixed assets is known as.
A. Capital expenditure budget
B. Production overhead budget.
C. Administration overhead budget.
D. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
ANSWER: A
127. The budget prepared for replacement of assets, expansion of production facilities, adoption of new
technologies etc. is .
A. Capital expenditure budget.
B. Production overhead budget.
C. Administration overhead budget.
D. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
ANSWER: A
20
C. Job In Time.
D. Job Inventory Time.
ANSWER: A
134. FIFO is .
A. Fast Investment in Future Order.
B. First In First Out.
C. Fast In Fast Out
D. Fast Issue Of Fast Order.
ANSWER: D
137. Scrap is .
A. residue of material.
B. wastage of material.
C. surplus material.
D. abnormal loss of material.
ANSWER: A
138. Material is issued by store keeper against.
A. material requisition.
B. material order.
C. goods received note.
D. purchase requisition.
ANSWER: A
140. The document which is prepared after receiving and inspecting material .
A. material record note.
B. goods received note.
C. bill of material.
D. inventory record.
ANSWER: B
146. Material consumed is Rs. 5,00,000 Opening stock of raw material is Rs. 50,000 and Closing stock of
raw material is Rs. 25,000. What is the cost of raw material purchased?
A. Rs. 4,50,000.
B. Rs. 4,75,000.
C. Rs. 5,25,000.
D. Rs. 5, 50,000.
ANSWER: B
147. If selling price is Rs. 25,000 and profit is Rs. 5,000 then what is the percentage of profit on
cast?
A. 20%.
B. 25%.
C. 33.33%.
D. 35%.
ANSWER: B
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Chapter 1 Basic Concepts of Accounting
1. ______________ is nothing but the right process of selecting an appropriate, logical, practical and
achievable option from the available alternatives.
3. The relationship between persons who agree to carry on business in a common with a view to private
gain.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole-trading Firm (c) Joint Stock Company (d) Co-operative Society
4. A ______________ is a form of business organization in which the funds of large number of investors
are managed by a few persons for the purpose of earning profits.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole-trading Firm (c) Joint Stock Company (d) Co-operative Society
(a) Marketing (b) Profit Earning Capacity (c) Accounting (d) Selling
(a) To calculate net profit or net loss of the business. (b) To know the financial condition of the firm. (c)
To provide information to the management for important managerial decisions. (d) All of the above
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting (c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost
Accounting
8. Accounting ______________ are the Rules of Action or the Methods and Procedures of Accounting
commonly adopted while recording Business transactions.
9. According to ______________ concept, assets purchased are generally recorded in accounting books at
the cost at which they are purchase(d)
(a) Business Entity Concept (b) Going Concern Concept (c) Money Measurement Concept (d) Cost
Concept
10. According to ______________ concept, revenue is recognized only when the sale is performed.
(a) Business Entity Concept (b) Going Concern Concept (c) Money Measurement Concept (d)
Realization Concept
11. Accounting ______________ are the traditions, usage andcustoms which are in used since long.
(a) Convention of Consistency (b) Convention of Disclosure (c) Convention of Conservatism (d)
Convention of Realization
(a) Non-Cash Entry System (b) Cash System (c) Single Entry System (d) Double Entry System
14. Out of the following, which Transactions are not to be recorded in the Books of Accounts
(a) Cash Transaction (b) Credit Transaction (c) Financial Transaction (d) Ordinary Transaction
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account (c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account (c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
17. Accounts in the respect of expenses and incomes are known as ______________.
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account (c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
18. Every transaction must have ______________ aspects and involve ______________ accounts.
(a) two, two (b) one, one (c) one, two (d) two, one
19. A ______________ is an accounting entry that either increases an asset or expense account, or
decreases a liability or equity account.
20. A ______________ is an accounting entry that either increases a liability or equity account, or
decreases an asset or expense account.
21. Debit the receiver, credit the giver is the rule of ______________.
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account (c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
22. Debit what comes in, credit what goes out is the rule of ______________.
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account (c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
23. Debit all expenses and losses, credit all incomes and gains is the rule of ______________.
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account (c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
(a) Journal (b) Ledger (c) Cash Book (d) Subsidiary Book
(a) Journal (b) Ledger (c) Cash Book (d) Subsidiary Book
28. ______________ is a summarized record of transactions related to one person, one asset, one head of
expense/loss and one head of income/gain.
30. ______________ are obligations or debts that the enterprise must pay in money or services at some
time in the future.
31. ______________ are economic resources of an enterprise that can be usefully expressed in monetary
terms.
(a) Assets (b) Liabilities (c) Cash & Bank Balance (d) Funds
32. ______________ are commodities, purchased or manufactured for resale with a view to earn profit.
33. ______________ are the amounts the business earns by selling its products or providing services to
customers.
34. ______________ are the costs incurred by a business in the process of earning revenue.
36. ______________ are persons and/or other entities that have to be paid by an enterprise an amount for
providing the enterprise goods and services on credit.
37. ______________ is a list of the entire general ledger account names and balances; it is prepared to
prove the ledger.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger (c) Cash Book (d) Trial Balance
39. ______________ deals with expenses related to or identified with products, which may only be a part
of the organization.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting (c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost
Accounting
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting (c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost
Accounting
41. The primary objective of ______________ is to provide necessary information to the management in
the process of its planning, controlling, and performance evaluation, and decision-making.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting (c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost
Accounting
42. The Success of ______________ does not depend upon Management Accounting system.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting (c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost
Accounting
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting (c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost
Accounting
(a) Accounting softwares save Time and Money. (b) No scope for mistakes and errors. (c) Provides
accurate and updated information as and when require(d) (d) All of the above
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting (c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost
Accounting
50. Explanatory note written below an entry recorded in the Journal is called as ______________.
(a) Narration (b) Explanation (c) Brief information (d) Detail information
(a) Cash Flow (b) Funds Flow (c) Income Statement (d) Balance Sheet
2. ______________ shows the results of the firm’s operations and financial activities for the reporting
period.
(a) Trading and Profit & Loss Account (b) Expense Statement (c) Income Statement (d) Balance Sheet
3. ______________ includes explanations of various activities, additional details of some accounts, and
other items as mandated by the regulatory authorities, bodies from time to time.
(a) Trading and Profit & Loss Account (b) Expense Statement (c) Income Statement (d) Supplementary
Note
4. ______________ is a formal official record of the financial activities and position of a business,
person, or other entity.
(a) Financial Statement (b) Trading Account (c) Profit & Loss Account (d) Supplementary Note
5. ______________ provides the vital information related to the profitability, liquidity and solvency of
the business.
(a) Financial Statement (b) Trading Account (c) Profit & Loss Account (d) Cash Flow & Funds Flow
6. ______________ is the simplest business form under which one can operate a business.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole Trading Firm (c) Private Ltd. Company (d) Public Company
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole Proprietorship Firm (c) Private Ltd. Company (d) One Man Company
8. For every item given in Trial Balance, ______________ effect should be given.
(a) Dual (b) Single (c) Triple (d) None of the above
(a) Dual (b) Single (c) Triple (d) None of the above
10. ______________ are nothing but the entries which are not included in the original Trial Balance.
(a) Journal Proper (b) Ledger (c) Adjustments (d) None of the above
(a) One Debit & One Credit (b) Debit (c) Credit (d) None of the above
(a) BRS (b) Balance Sheet (c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
(a) Profit and Loss A/c Debit Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side (c) Trading A/c Debit Side (d)
Trading A/c Credit Side
(a) Balance Sheet Asset Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side (c) Trading A/c Debit Side (d) Trading
A/c Credit Side
(a) Profit and Loss A/c Debit Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side (c) Trading A/c Debit Side (d)
Trading A/c Credit Side
(a) Capital A/c (b) Balance Sheet (c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
(a) Journal A/c (b) Balance Sheet (c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
(a) Capital A/c (b) Personal A/c (c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
(a) Capital A/c (b) Personal A/c (c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
(a) Accounting Concepts and Conventions (b) Accounting Concepts (c) Accounting Conventions (d)
None of the above
(a) 1st January (b) 1st April (c) 1st March (d) 1st June
(a) 31st January (b) 31st August (c) 31st March (d) 31st December
(a) Capital A/c (b) Personal A/c (c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
29. Carriage outward is debited to ______________.
(a) Capital A/c (b) Personal A/c (c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
(a) Capital A/c (b) Balance Sheet Asset Side (c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
(a) Added (b) Deducted (c) Not Added (d) Not deducted
32. In ______________ business, all incomes and losses are taxed on the individual’s personal income
tax return.
(a) Profit and Loss A/c Debit Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side (c) Trading A/c Debit Side (d)
Trading A/c Credit Side
(a) Added in respective asset (b) Added in respective liability (c) Added in respective expense (d) Added
in respective income
(a) Deducted from respective asset (b) Added in respective liability (c) Deducted from respective
expense (d) Added in respective income
(a) Capital A/c (b) Balance Sheet (c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
(a) Profit and Loss A/c Debit Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side (c) Trading A/c Debit Side (d)
Trading A/c Credit Side
(a) Inward (b) Outward (c) Return Inward (d) Return Outward
40. Sales Return is also called as ______________.
(a) Inward (b) Outward (c) Return Inward (d) Return Outward
(a) Profit and Loss A/c Debit Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side (c) Trading A/c Debit Side (d)
Trading A/c Credit Side
(a) Profit and Loss A/c Debit Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side (c) Trading A/c Debit Side (d)
Trading A/c Credit Side
(a) Profit and Loss A/c Debit Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side (c) Balance Sheet Liability Side (d)
Balance Sheet Asset Side
(a) Trading A/c (b) Income A/c (c) Capital A/c (d) Asset A/c
Chapter 3 Cost Accounting
1. ______________ provides a specialized technique, which provides prompt and accurate information
regarding the cost of producing and selling an article.
(a) Cost Accounting (b) Financial Accounting (c) Management Accounting (d) Cost & Financial
Accounting
2. The amount of expenditure incurred on, or attributable to a given thing is called as ______________.
(a) Costing Methods (b) Cost Accounting (c) Management Accounting (d) Costing Techniques
(a) Costing Methods (b) Cost Accounting (c) Management Accounting (d) Costing Techniques
6. The total of Direct Material + Direct Labour + Direct Expenses is called as ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Factory Cost (c) Prime Cost (d) Main Cost
(a) Chargeable Expenses (b) Factory Expenses (c) Works Expenses (d) General Expenses
(a) Direct Expenses (b) Factory Expenses (c) General Expenses (d) Indirect Expenses
(a) Total Cost (b) Total Expense (c) Overheads (d) Factory Overheads
(a) Total Cost (b) Cost of Production (c) Works Cost (d) Factory Overheads
(a) Total Cost (b) Cost of Production (c) Works Cost (d) Factory Cost
(a) Total Cost (b) Fixed Overheads (c) Variable Overheads (d) Semi-variable Overheads
13. Fixed Cost is also called as ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Direct Cost (c) Works Cost (d) Period Cost
(a) Fixed Cost (b) Controllable Cost (c) Non-controllable Cost (d) Period Cost
(a) Fixed Cost (b) Avoidable Cost (c) Non-controllable Cost (d) Normal Cost
(a) Fixed Cost (b) Unavoidable Cost (c) Abnormal Cost (d) Normal Cost
(a) Fixed Cost (b) Direct Cost (c) Capital Cost (d) Normal Cost
(a) Predetermined Cost (b) Direct Cost (c) Capital Cost (d) Fixed Cost
(a) Predetermined Cost (b) Direct Cost (c) Marginal Cost (d) Fixed Cost
(a) Predetermined Cost (b) Direct Cost (c) Unavoidable Cost (d) Standard Cost
(a) Differential Cost (b) Semi-variable Cost (c) Variable Cost (d) Standard Cost
(a) Differential Cost (b) Programmed Cost (c) Normal Cost (d) Fixed Cost
(a) Standard Cost (b) Programmed Cost (c) Normal Cost (d) Imaginary Cost
(a) Committed Cost (b) Programmed Cost (c) General Cost (d) Imaginary Cost
25. A Location, person, or item of equipment (or a group of these) for which costs may be ascertained and
used for the purpose of control is called as ______________.
(a) Cost Unit (b) Cost Centre (c) Cost Department (d) Cost Division
26. ______________ a statement, which shows various components of total cost of a product.
(a) Cost Sheet (b) Cost Account (c) Cost Report (d) Cost Classification
(a) Historical Cost Sheet (b) Cost Account (c) Cost Report (d) Estimated Cost Sheet
(a) Fixed Overheads (b) Direct Cost (c) Factory Overheads (d) Administration Overheads
(a) Fixed Overheads (b) Selling Overheads (c) Factory Overheads (d) Administration Overheads
(a) Fixed Overheads (b) Selling Overheads (c) Factory Overheads (d) Administration Overheads
(a) Factory Cost (b) Prime Cost (c) Cost of Production (d) Works Cost
(a) Factory Cost (b) Prime Cost (c) Fixed Wages (d) Productive Wages
(a) Units of Production (b) Units of Services (c) Both a and b (d) None of the above
34. Cost of converting raw material into finished goods is also called as ______________.
(a) Factory Cost (b) Prime Cost (c) Conversion Cost (d) Productive Cost
(a) Revenue Cost (b) Differential Cost (c) Fixed Cost (d) Variable Cost
(a) Revenue Cost (b) Differential Cost (c) Fixed Cost (d) Variable Cost
(a) Revenue Cost (b) Differential Cost (c) Fixed Cost (d) Variable Cost
39. The Expenditure which has been incurred in an accounting period but it is applicable further periods
also is ______________.
(a) Revenue Cost (b) Differential Cost (c) Differed Revenue Cost (d) Variable Cost
40. The estimate of expenditure for different business operations for a specific period is ______________.
(a) Budgeted Cost (b) Differential Cost (c) Differed Revenue Cost (d) Variable Cost
(a) Incremental Cost (b) Differential Cost (c) Opportunity Cost (d) Future Cost
42. The value of benefit sacrificed in favour of an alternative course of action is ______________ cost.
43. Opening Stock of WIP & Closing Stock of WIP is added and deducted after addition of
______________ in Prime Cost.
(a) Direct Expenses (b) Factory Overheads (c) Office Overheads (d) Selling Overheads
(a) Cost of Direct Expenses (b) Cost of Direct Overheads (c) Cost of Direct Labour (d) Cost of Direct
Material
(a) Cost of Sales (b) Fixed Cost (c) Cost of Production (d) Cost of Goods Sold
(a) Cost of Sales (b) Cost of Production (c) Cost of Goods Sold (d) None of the above
(a) Direct Expenses (b) Factory Overheads (c) Office Overheads (d) Selling Overheads
48. Sale of Scrap is ______________ after addition of factory overheads in Prime Cost.
(a) Added (b) Deducted (c) Not Considered (d) None of the above
(a) Direct Expenses (b) Factory Overheads (c) Office Overheads (d) Selling Overheads
50. ______________ is the process of ascertaining costs whereas ______________ is the process of
recording various costs in a systematic manner, in order to prepare statistical date to ascertain cost.
(a) Costing, Cost Accounting (b) Cost Accounting, Costing (c) Costing and Allocation Cost (d) Costing
and Absorption of Cost
(a) Inventory Carrying Cost (b) Order Placing Cost (c) Buying Cost (d) Fixed Cost
2. Cost of placing the orders and receiving the goods are called as ______________.
(a) Inventory Carrying Cost (b) Variable Cost (c) Buying Cost (d) Fixed Cost
5. Calculate EOQ if Cost of material per unit ` 40, Annual requirement 1600 units, Cost of placing and
receiving one purchase order ` 50, Annual carrying cost of inventory is 10% of inventory value.
(a) 200 Units (b) 175 Units (c) 225 Units (d) 250 Units
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level (c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level (c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
8. A level at which store keeper should intimate purchase department for fresh/new supply is
______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level (c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
9. A level below which the stock should never be allowed to fall under emergency circumstances is
______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level (c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
10. A strategy for inventory management in which raw materials and components are delivered from the
vendor or supplier immediately before they are needed in the manufacturing process is ______________.
(a) Scientific Purchasing (b) Immediate Buying (c) JIT (d) None of the above
11. Out of the following, which is the method of issuing material.
(a) LIFO (b) FIFO (c) Simple Average (d) All of the above
(a) Latest in First Out (b) Last in First Out (c) Largest in First Out (d) Lowest in First Out
(a) Maximum Consumption × Maximum Reorder Period (b) Reorder Level − (Normal Consumption
× Normal Reorder Period) (c) Reorder Level + Reorder Quantity − (Minimum Consumption × Minimum
Reorder Period) (d) Average Usage × Maximum Reorder Period for Emergency Purchases
(a) Maximum Consumption× Maximum Reorder Period (b) Reorder Level − (Normal Consumption ×
Normal Reorder Period) (c) Reorder Level + Reorder Quantity − (Minimum Consumption × Minimum
Reorder Period) (d) Average Usage × Maximum Reorder Period for Emergency Purchases
(a) Maximum Consumption× Maximum Reorder Period (b) Reorder Level − (Normal Consumption ×
Normal Reorder Period) (c) Reorder Level + Reorder Quantity − (Minimum Consumption ×
Minimum Reorder Period) (d) Average Usage × Maximum Reorder Period for Emergency Purchases
(a) Maximum Consumption× Maximum Reorder Period (b) Reorder Level − (Normal Consumption ×
Normal Reorder Period) (c) Reorder Level + Reorder Quantity − (Minimum Consumption × Minimum
Reorder Period) (d) Average Usage × Maximum Reorder Period for Emergency Purchases
17. Material Losses are generally classified into two categories, i.e., ______________.
(a) Normal and Abnormal (b) Avoidable and Unavoidable (c) Controllable and Non-controllable (d)
Fixed and Variable
(a) Wastage (b) Scarp (c) Spoilage or Defectives (d) All of the above
(a) Fixed Cost Control (b) Debtors Control (c) Inventory Control (d) Creditors Control
(a) To protect materials from losses and damages (b) To avoid over and under-stocking of materials (c)
To minimize the storage costs of materials (d) All of the above
21. Wages which can be indentified with and allocated to cost centers and cost units is ______________.
(a) Direct Labour Cost (b) Indirect Labour Cost (c) Fixed Labour Cost (d) Variable Labour Cost
22. ______________ is defined as the rate of change of labour force in an organization during a specified
period.
(a) Labour Turnover (b) Labour Rate (c) Labour Cost (d) Employee Change Rate
(a) Personal Causes (b) Avoidable Causes (c) Unavoidable Causes (d) All of the above
24. ______________ includes all those costs which are incurred to keep the workers satisfied, so that they
are prevented from leaving the organization.
(a) Direct Labour Cost (b) Preventive Cost (c) Maintenance Cost (d) Variable Labour Cost
(a) Separation Method (b) Replacement Method (c) Flux Method (d) All of the above
26. ______________ is recording of incoming and outgoing time of all employees in factory.
(a) Time Keeping (b) Time Booking (c) Time Noting (d) All of the above
(a) Time Keeping (b) Time Booking (c) Time Noting (d) All of the above
28. ______________ study is concerned with determining the proper method for performing the job so
that there is no wastage in movement.
29. ______________ study is concerned with the determination of standard time required by a person of
average ability to perform a jo(b)
30. Out of the following, which factor/s affecting the Labour Cost.
(a) Assessment of Manpower Requirement (b) Time and Motion Study (c) Control over Idle Time and
Overtime (d) All of the above
31. Which department/s is/are closely associated with the Control of Labour Cost?
(a) Personnel and Payroll Department (b) Time Keeping Department (c) Engineering and Work Study
Department (d) All of the above
32. ______________ arises from replacement of workers who leave the organization.
(a) Direct Labour Cost (b) Preventive Cost (c) Maintenance Cost (d) Replacement Cost
(a) Attendance Register Method (b) Token or Disc Method (c) Time Recording Clocks & Dial Time
Records (d) All of the above
(a) Daily Time Sheet (b) Weekly Time Sheet (c) Job Cards or Job Tickets (d) All of the above
35. ______________ refers to the estimation of standard time, i.e., the time allowed for completing one
piece of job using the given metho(d)
(a) Work Measurement (b) Time Measurement (c) Period Measurement (d) None of the above
36. ______________ costs are the operating costs of a business enterprise which cannot be traced to a
particular unit of output.
(a) Material (b) Labour (c) Overhead (d) Foxed & Variable
37. The ______________ is the process of recording each item of cost in the books of accounts
maintained for the purpose of ascertainment of cost of each Cost Centre or Cost Unit.
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead (c) Apportionment of Overhead (d) Classification
of Overhead
38. ______________ means, the allotment of whole items of cost to cost centres or cost units.
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead (c) Apportionment of Overhead (d) Classification
of Overhead
39. ______________ means, the allotment to two or more departments or cost centers of proportions of
common items of cost on estimated basis of benefit received.
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead (c) Apportionment of Overhead (d)
Classification of Overhead
(a) Primary Distribution of Overhead (b) Secondary Distribution of Overhead (c) Simultaneous Equation
Method of Overhead (d) All of the above
42. The overhead, which can be easily identified with a particular department that is charged only to the
specific department, is called ______________.
(a) Collection (b) Allocation (c) Apportionment (d) Classification
(a) Value of Plant (b) Ratio of Plant (c) Quantity of Production (d) None of the above
(a) No. of Workers (b) Days Spend by Workers (c) Time Spent by Workers (d) None of the above
(a) Horse Power (b) KWH (c) No. of Machine Hours (d) All of the above
(a) Value of Materials (b) No. of Stores Requisitions (c) Weight or Value of Materials (d) All of the
above
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead (c) Apportionment of Overhead (d) Classification
of Overhead
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead (c) Apportionment of Overhead (d)
Classification of Overhead
(a) Variable Costing (b) Standard Costing (c) Material Costing (d) Job Costing
2. In ______________ total costs cannot be easily segregated into fixed costs and variable costs.
(a) Marginal Costing (b) Standard Costing (c) Material Costing (d) Job Costing
(a) Centre Point (b) BEP (c) Starting Point (d) Ending Point
(a) P/V Ratio (b) Net Margin (c) MOS (d) Gross Margin
8. ______________ is the difference between actual sales or output and the break even sales.
(a) P/V Ratio (b) Net Margin (c) MOS (d) Gross Margin
9. ______________ is an angle where sales line intersects total cost line which indicates profit earning
capacity over the BEP.
(a) Angle of Incidence (b) Contribution (c) Margin of Safety (d) Gross Margin
10. If contribution is ` 3,00,000 and Sales is ` 10,00,000, then what is P/V Ratio?
12. If Fixed Cost is ` 2,50,000 and P/V Ratio is 60%, then what is BEP in `?
13. If Fixed Cost is ` 2,50,000 and Profit is ` 3,50,000, then what is the amount of Contribution?
14. If Sales are ` 50,000 and P/V Ratio is 20%, then what is the amount of Variable Cost?
15. If contribution is ` 3,00,000 and Profit is ` 1,00,000, then what is the amount of Fixed Cost?
(a) Contribution = Sales – Variable Cost (b) Contribution = Fixed Cost + Profit or – Loss (c) Contribution
= Sales × P/ V Ratio (d) All of the above
(a) P/ V Ratio = [Contribution/Sales ] × 100 (b) P/ V Ratio = [Change in Profit/Change in Sales ] × 100
(c) P/ V Ratio = [Sales−Variable Cost/Sales] × 100 (d) All of the above
20. Under absorption and over absorption of overheads problems are not arisen under ______________.
(a) Marginal Costing (b) Standard Costing (c) Job Costing (d) Budgetary Control
(a) Pre-determined (b) Pre-decided (c) Pre-planned (d) None of the above
(a) Standard Costing (b) Marginal Costing (c) Budgetary Control (d) None of the above
23. ______________ means difference between standard cost and actual cost. (a) Balance Cost (b)
Variance (c) Marginal Cost (d) Variable Cost
24. ______________ helps management to understand the present costs and then to control the future
costs.
(a) ABC Analysis (b) Variance Analysis (c) Marginal Analysis (d) Budget Analysis
26. If Standard Cost ` 80 and Actual Cost ` 70, then what is the amount of Material Cost Variance?
27. If Standard Price ` 8 & Standard Qty.10, Actual Price ` 7 & Actual Qty.10, then what is the amount of
Material Price Variance?
29. If Standard Rate ` 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ` 2 & Actual Hours 1500, then what is
the amount of Labour Cost Variance?
30. If Standard Rate ` 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ` 2 & Actual Hours 1500, then what is
the amount of Labour Rate Variance?
31. If Standard Rate ` 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate `2 & Actual Hours 1500, then what is the
amount of Labour Efficiency Variance?
32. The correct formula for verification of Material Cost Variance is ______________.
(a) MCV = MPV + MUV (b) MCV = MPV – MUV (c) MCV = MPV × MUV (d) None of the above
33. The correct formula for verification of Labour Cost Variance is ______________.
(a) LCV = LRV + LEV (b) LCV = LRV – LEV (c) LCV = LRV × LEV (d) None of the above
(a) Standard Cost and Actual Cost (b) Fixed Cost and Variable Cost (c) Normal Cost and Abnormal
Cost (d) None of the above
(a) Establishments of standards are difficult in practice. (b) Standards are requires to revise continuously.
(c) Inaccurate, unreliable and outdated standards do more harm than benefit (d) All of the above
36. ______________ is a concrete precise picture of the total operation of an enterprise in monetary
terms.
(a) Budgetary Control (b) Scientific Planning (c) Standard Costing (d) Marginal Costing
38. Pre- requisitions for effective implementation of Budgetary Control system is/are ______________.
(a) Deciding budget centres & budget period (b) Preparation of a budget manual (c) Determination of
budget key factor (d) All of the above
39. ______________ is the budget in which adjustment is possible according to change in business
conditions.
(a) Flexible Budget (b) Fixed Budget (c) Sales Budget (d) Cash Budget
40. When forecasts about budget shows greater revenue to be received or generated than the expenses to
be incurred during budgeted period that is known as ______________.
(a) Surplus Budget (b) Best Budget (c) Favourable Budget (d) Non-favourable Budget
41. ______________ budget highlights that the expenditures to be incurred in budget period will be
greater than the revenues to be received during the same period.
(a) Surplus Budget (b) Deficit Budget (c) Favourable Budget (d) Non-favourable Budget
42. The establishment of budgets relating the responsibilities of executives to the requirements of a policy
and the continuous comparison of actual with budgeted results, either to secure by individual action the
objective of that policy or to provide basis for its revision is called as ______________.
(a) Budget (b) Budgeting (c) Budgetary Control (d) None of the above
43. A ______________ is a powerful tool available to the management for the purpose of maximizing
profits.
(a) Budget (b) Decrease in selling price (c) Standard Norm (d) Increase in selling price
(a) Static Budget (b) Standard Budget (c) Master Budget (d) Flexible Budget
(a) No Profit No Loss (b) Less Profit (c) Expected Profit (d) None of the above
(a) Cost Budget (b) Labour Budget (c) Employee Budget (d) None of the above
(a) Cash (b) Credit (c) all financial (d) None of the above
(a) Fixed (b) One Month (c) One Year (d) None of the above
(a) Production Budget (b) Material Budget (c) Cost Budget (d) None of the above
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Accounting & Management Control
4. Amay paid Rs. 4,500 to Rohan for goods purchased. In this transaction, while passing
entry in the books of Rohan, which account should be Debited?
(A) Amay’s account (B) Rohan’s account
(C) Cash account (D) Goods account
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8. Which expenses is a Capital Nature?
(A) Depreciation (B) Wages
(C) Salary (D) Stationary
12. Amount receivable by a company against credit sales are usually called_____
(A) Sundry Debtors (B) Bills Receivable
(C) Creditors (D) Bills Payable
14. Accounting rules, procedures and methods should be observed alike and should not be
changed from year to year. This is called accounting convention of _____
(A) Consistency (B) Full disclosure
(C) Conservatism (D) Going Concern
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16. Net working capital is equal to ______
(A) Value of all assets (B) Value of all current assets
(C) Owners + Creditor capital (D) Difference between current assets
and current liabilities
20. The installation expenses for a new machinery will be debited to _____
(A) Installation expenses account (B) Cash account
(C) Machine account (D) Profit and Loss account
23. This is a costing method applicable to those industries where the activity consists of
continuous or repetitive processes and the products are identical and cannot be
segregated.
(A) Specific Order Costing (B) Operation Costing
(C) Operating Costing (D) Composite or Multiple Costing
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24. From the following option which one is the example of indirect material
(A) All material or components (B) Primary packing material (e.g.,
specifically purchased, produced carton, wrapping, cardboard,
or requisitioned from stores boxes etc.)
(C) Purchased or partly produced (D) Consumable stores, oil and waste,
components printing and stationery material
28. An decrease in any current liability in the current year in comparison to the previous
year results in a __________.
(A) decrease in the working capital (B) increase in the working capital
(C) No Change (D) Increase in the asset
29. The current operations of the business is the most important single source of funds and
in the long run they constitute the largest source of funds.
(A) Sale of fixed assets such as land, (B) Issue of share capital
building, plant, long-term
investment, etc.
(C) Funds from operation (D) Borrowing long-term loans such
as debentures, mortgage, long-
term deposits, etc.
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30. Cash flow is the ___________.
(A) income statement (B) balance sheet
(C) movement of money into and out (D) changes in the existing financial
of your company position of a business caused by
in-flow and out-flow of resources
owing to receipts and payments
31. The assets which are converted into cash without loss within a short period of time say,
1 year is known as__________.
(A) Quick Assets (B) Absolute Liquid Assets
(C) Current Assets (D) Long term Assets
32. From the following option which one is not a quick asset
33. Problem 1. The following is the Balance Sheet of Seven Star Company Ltd. on 31st
March., 2015.
Equity share capital 10,00,000 Land and Building 7,00,000
Profit and loss a/c 1,50,000 Plant and Machinery 17,50,000
General reserve 3,00,000 Stock 10,00,000
Bank over draft 20,00,000 Sundry debtors 5,00,000
Sundry creditors 5,00,000 Bills receivable 50,000
Bills payable 2,50,000 Cash at Bank 2,00,000
42,00,000 42,00,000
Compute Current Asset, as per data based on Problem 1
(A) 15,50,000 (B) 17,50,000
(C) 12,00,000 (D) 12,50,000
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34. Problem 1. The following is the Balance Sheet of Seven Star Company Ltd. on 31st
March., 2015.
Equity share capital 10,00,000 Land and Building 7,00,000
Profit and loss a/c 1,50,000 Plant and Machinery 17,50,000
General reserve 3,00,000 Stock 10,00,000
Bank over draft 20,00,000 Sundry debtors 5,00,000
Sundry creditors 5,00,000 Bills receivable 50,000
Bills payable 2,50,000 Cash at Bank 2,00,000
42,00,000 42,00,000
Compute Current liabilities: as per data based on Problem 1
(A) 25,50,000 (B) 22,50,000
(C) 07,50,000 (D) 27,50,000
35. Problem 1. The following is the Balance Sheet of Seven Star Company Ltd. on 31st
March., 2015.
Equity share capital 10,00,000 Land and Building 7,00,000
Profit and loss a/c 1,50,000 Plant and Machinery 17,50,000
General reserve 3,00,000 Stock 10,00,000
Bank over draft 20,00,000 Sundry debtors 5,00,000
Sundry creditors 5,00,000 Bills receivable 50,000
Bills payable 2,50,000 Cash at Bank 2,00,000
42,00,000 42,00,000
Compute Current ratio: as per data based on Problem 1
(A) 0.777 (B) 0.686
(C) 0.636 (D) 0.607
36. Problem 1. The following is the Balance Sheet of Seven Star Company Ltd. on 31st
March., 2015.
Equity share capital 10,00,000 Land and Building 7,00,000
Profit and loss a/c 1,50,000 Plant and Machinery 17,50,000
General reserve 3,00,000 Stock 10,00,000
Bank over draft 20,00,000 Sundry debtors 5,00,000
Sundry creditors 5,00,000 Bills receivable 50,000
Bills payable 2,50,000 Cash at Bank 2,00,000
42,00,000 42,00,000
Compute Quick ratio: as per data based on Problem 1
(A) 0.890 (B) 1.0
(C) 0.750 (D) 1.25
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37. Problem 1. The following is the Balance Sheet of Seven Star Company Ltd. on 31st
March., 2015.
Equity share capital 10,00,000 Land and Building 7,00,000
Profit and loss a/c 1,50,000 Plant and Machinery 17,50,000
General reserve 3,00,000 Stock 10,00,000
Bank over draft 20,00,000 Sundry debtors 5,00,000
Sundry creditors 5,00,000 Bills receivable 50,000
Bills payable 2,50,000 Cash at Bank 2,00,000
42,00,000 42,00,000
Compute Absolute liquid ratio as per data based on Problem 1
(A) 0.16 (B) 0.36
(C) 0.26 (D) 1.06
38. Given data compute operating ratio Opening stock 2,50,000 Sales is 1800000
Purchases 10,50,000 Administrative expenses 2,30,000 Gross profit b/d 6,50,000
Selling and distribution expenses 1,00,000 Other income 50,000 Expenses of financing
20,000 Net profit 3,50,000
(A) 76.66% (B) 82.2%
(C) 81.2% (D) 75.55%
41. From the following particulars extracted from the books of Ravi Enterprises for the
period ending 31st Mar, 2014. Find out the amount of profit. If Number of units
produced = 750 units, Variable cost for the period = Rs. 2 per unit, Fixed cost for the
period = Rs. 800, Selling price per unit = Rs. 4.
(A) 200 (B) 1500
(C) 700 (D) 900
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42. Linear semi-variable cost is calculated using cost = a +bx then what is bx
(A) Semi variable (B) Variable cost
(C) Standard cost (D) Fixed cost
43. A line parallel to X-axis (horizontal line) is to be drawn to represent the cost in break
even chart represents _____
(A) Vertical Line (B) Horizontal Line
(C) Fixed Cost Line (D) Total Cost Line
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46. Problem 2. From the following data
Selling price per unit Rs. 10.00
Trade discount 5%
Direct material cost per unit Rs. 3.00
Direct labour cost per unit Rs. 2.00
Fixed overhead Rs.10,000
Variable overhead 100% of direct labour cost.
If sales are 15% above the break even-volume, determine the net profit based on data
as in Problem 2.
(A) 32200 (B) 1000
(C) 11500 (D) 1500
47. Materials 8.00, Conversion Cost variable 6.00, Dealers Margin 2.00, Selling Price
20.00, Fixed Cost 2,50,000, Present Sales 80,000 units, Capacity Utilization 60%. In
order to increase sales price was reduced by 5%. Calculate sales in unit to maintain
present level of profit.
(A) 1,06,111 (B) 87804.87
(C) 1,16,111 (D) 87804
48. Materials 8.00, Conversion Cost variable 6.00, Dealers Margin 2.00, Selling Price
20.00, Fixed Cost 2,50,000, Present Sales 80,000 units, Capacity Utilization 60%.
Calculate profit.
(A) 1,10,000 (B) 2,90,000
(C) 1,01,000 (D) 1,90,000
49. ___________is a technique where the objectives of performance are jointly determined
by subordinates and their superiors. The progress towards these objectives is
periodically reviewed and the rewards are allocated on the basis of performance.
(A) Management by objectives (B) Budget preparation
(C) Cost variability (D) Measurement of performance
50. Managers of selling profit centers should be given freedom to sell their goods in the
external market, while managers of buying profit centers should be allowed to buy
their goods from the external market.
(A) Details of market prices (B) Good atmosphere
(C) Availability of information (D) Freedom to source
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51. A __________ is an estimate of what is likely to happen under anticipated conditions
during a specified period of time.
(A) Budget (B) Forecast
(C) Strategic planning (D) planning tool
52. In most organizations the people, who prepare budget proposals tend to budget
revenues lower and expenses higher than their best estimates of these amounts. It is the
difference between the budget amount and best estimate. It is the duty of the superior
to discover and eliminate it.
(A) Negotiation (B) Review and approval
(C) Slack (D) Budgetary Control
53. The examples ie number of students graduating from high school, the number of miles
of road completed, the number of timely arrivals of planes at airports, etc represent
(A) results measures (B) process measures
(C) social indicators (D) means-oriented
54. Although life expectancy indicates the effectiveness of a country’s healthcare system,
it is also affected by the standard of living and the dietary and smoking habits of
people, and other external causes is example of
(A) results measures (B) process measures
(C) social indicators (D) means-oriented
55. ______________ processes are formed as a result of interaction between people. The
process helps in the development of new goals and objectives.
(A) Formal Control Process (B) Informal Control Process
(C) Formal planning process (D) Formal reporting process
56. Businesses with high market share in high growth industries pursue a ________
mission.
(A) Build (B) Hold
(C) Harvest (D) Divest
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57. In case of Key Variable which one is not true
(A) A key variable is a significant (B) A small change in a key variable
indicator of business activity, will have a significant impact on
whose sudden and unpredictable the performance of the
change warrants immediate action organization
by management
(C) Some examples of key variables (D) Key variable does not differ from
are profitability, market position, business to business
productivity and employee attitude
58. A device that determines the significance of what is actually happening by comparing
it with some standard or expectation of what should happen is
(A) Detector (B) Assessor
(C) Sensor (D) Effectors
60. The main objective is proper distribution of revenue between profit centers. If two or
more profit centers are jointly responsible for product development and marketing,
then the resulting profit has to be shared between the profit centers.
(A) Responsibility Center (B) Budget Control
(C) Transfer Price (D) Key Variables
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1. D
2. C
3. C
4. C
5. A
6. D
7. C
8. A
9. B
10. D
11. C
12. A
13. D
14. A
15. D
16. D
17. C
18. C
19. B
20. C
21. C
22. A
23. B
24. D
25. A
26. B
27. D
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28. B
29. C
30. C
31. A
32. C
33. B
34. D
35. C
36. B
37. C
38. B
39. D
40. C
41. C
42. B
43. C
44. D
45. B
46. D
47. C
48. A
49. A
50. D
51. B
52. B
53. A
54. C
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55. B
56. B
57. D
58. B
59. D
60. C
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MCQ for Managerial Accounting
a) Shareholders
b) Creditors
c) Managers
d) Regulatory agencies
a) Creditor
b) Department manager
c) Controller
d) Treasurer
a) Service entities
b) Manufacturing entities
c) Non profit entities
d) All of these
5. The work of factory employees that can be physically associated with converting raw
material into finished goods is classified as-
a) Manufacturing overhead
b) Indirect materials
c) Indirect labour
d) Direct labour
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c) Management
d) All
8. Which type of asset class includes those assets which have only definite use and become
valueless when the yield is over?
a) Fixed asset
b) Current asset
c) Fictitious asset
d) Wasting asset
9. An accounting that deals with the accounting and reporting of information to management
regarding the detail information is
a) Financial accounting
b) Management accounting
c) Cost accounting
d) Real Accounting
a) Debtors account
b) Bad debts account
c) Sales account
d) Creditors account
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a) Nominal account- debit all expenses & losses
b) Real account- credit what comes in
c)Nominal account- credit all incomes & gains
d) Personal account- debit the receiver
13. Cost of goods sold= opening stock+ net purchases+ expenses on Purchases – sales
Which part of formula is wrong? a) opening stock
b) net purchases
c) expenses on Purchases
d)sales
a) Cash account
b) Mahesh Account
c) Sales account
d) Purchase account
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b) Customer’s account
c) Sales account
d) Cash account
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b) Large business enterprise only
c) Small business concerns only
d) Manufacturing and service concern
26. is a person or item for which cost may be ascertained. a) Cost unit
b) Cost centre
c) Cost object
d) Cost estimation
29. Amortization of intangible Asset Such as Goodwill which has indefinite life is an example of
accounting concept
a) Conservatism Concept
b) Continuity Concept
c) Realisation Concept
d) Measurement Concept
31. cost will still be incurred although a plant is shut down temporarily.
a) Cost of raw material
b) Advertising
c) Depreciation
d) Carriage
37
32. Accounting principles are generally based upon:
a) Practicability
b) Subjectivity
c) Convenience in recording
d) None of the above
34. The practice of appending notes regarding contingent liabilities in accounting statements is in
pursuance to:
a) Convention of consistency
b) Money measurement concept
c) Convention of conservatism
d) Convention of disclosure
39. Income tax paid by a sole proprietor on his business income should be:
a) Debited to trading account
37
b) Debited to profit and loss account
c) Deducted from capital account in the balance sheet
d) None of the above
40. All direct & indirect expenses related to business are charged:
a) Profit and loss account
b) Trading account
c) Trading account Profit and Loss account
d) Directly to Balance sheet
41. According to schedule VI Companies Act which item is not shown on Asset side of Balance
sheet
a) Investment
b) Current Loan & Advances
c) Provision
d) Lease Holds
43. Investment of X company profit in shares of other company PQR Pvt. ltd are recorded
in……………….
a) Asset side of Balance Sheet
b) Liability side of Balance Sheet
c) Profit & Loss a/c
d) Not recorded in Balance Sheet
a) Remains fixed
b) Fluctuates with volume of production
c) Varies in consideration with the volume of sales
d) None of the above
37
46. The books to be compulsorily maintained by a company are:
a) Increases assets
b) Results in no change in the total assets
c) Decreases assets
d) Increases liability
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d) Debiting employee a/c ; crediting salary a/c
53. Cost of asset should always be equal to the cost of the liabilities. This concept is
a) Realization Concept
b) Matching Concept
c) Cost Concept
d) Both a and b above
a) Consistency concept
b) Conservatism concept
c) Accounting period concept
d) Cost Concept
a) Current assets
b) Current liabilities
c) Fixed asset
d) Fixed liability
59. Reserve for doubtful debts appearing in the trial balance should be:
37
b) Shown as liability side in balance sheet
c) Reduced from related asset in the balance sheet
d) Both a and b
e) Both a and c
a) Debtors
b) Investors
c) Creditors
d) Shareholders
61. According to which concept business is treated as a unit apart from owner
a) Dual concept
b) Divider concept
c) Entity concept
d) Landlord concept
62. Authorized capital, also known as
a) Nominal capital
b) Paid up capital
c) Issues capital
d) None of these
63. True & fair profit and loss a/c of a company know by
a) Preparing trial balance
b) Preparing respective ledger of account
c) Preparing trading a/c
d) Preparing trading & profit & loss a/c
65. Under which concept it is assumed that the enterprises has neither the intention nor the
necessity of liquidation or of curtailing materiality the scale of operation
a) Revenue realization concept
b) Matching cost concept
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c) Going concern concept
d) None of these
66. Making the provision for doubtful debts and discount on debtors in anticipation of actual
bad debts and discount is an example for which concept
a) Conservatism concept
b) Continuity concept
c) Realization concept
d) All of these
72. . Which of the following account balance will be shown on debit side of Trial Balance?
a) Outstanding expenses
b) Cash a/c
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c) Short term loan
d) creditors
73. The reduction in the value of the fixed assets which can arise due to time factor is
a)Discount
b) Depreciation
c)Reduction
d) None of the above
37
b) Cost concept
c) Continuity concept
d) Money measurement concept
81. Proposed dividends" is shown in the Balance Sheet of a company under the head:
a) Provisions
b) Reserves and Surplus
c) Current Liabilities
d) Other Liabilities
82. Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of:
a) Separate entity
b) Going concern
c) Consistency
d) Time period
a) Income Statement
b) Cash Flow Statement
c) Balance Sheet
d) Fund Flow Statement
Bought office wooden table for cash office wooden table cash
Ramesh sold goods on credited to Ram sales cash
37
Introduce capital by cheque capital Bank
Paid to creditor Sita by cheque Sita Bank
a) (ii) (iii)(i)
b) (iii)(iv)(ii)
c) (i)(iii)(iv)
d) (i)(iv)
88. Fixed assets and current assets are categorized as per concept of:
a) Separate entity
b) Going concern
c) Consistency
d) Time period
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92. The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following types of businesses? a.
Sole proprietorship
b. Corporation
c. Partnership
d. All of them
93. Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a business is divided for the
purpose of preparing financial statements?
a) Fiscal year
b) Calendar year
c) Accounting period
d) Accrual period
97. Which of the following is not regarded as the fundamental accounting concept?
a. The going concern concept
b. The separate entity concept
c. The prudence (conservatism) concept
d. Correction concept
98. Using "lower of cost and net realisable value(Market Value)" for the purpose of inventory
valuation is the implementation of which of the following concepts?
a) The going concern concept
b) The separate entity concept
c) The prudence concept
d) Matching concept
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99. The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following types of businesses?
a) Sole proprietorship
b) Corporation
c) Partnership
d) All of them
100. The revenue recognition principal dictates that all types of incomes should be recorded or
recognized when
a) Cash is received
b) At the end of accounting period
c) When they are earned
d) When interest is paid
101. The allocation of owner's private expenses to his/her business violates which of the
following?
a) Accrual concept
b) Matching concept
c) Separate business entity concept
d) Consistency concept
102. The going concern concept assumes that
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c) Immaterial
d) Material
106. "Financial information should be neutral and bias free" is the dictation of which one of the
following?
a) Completeness concept
b) Faithful representation Concept
c) Objectivity Concept
d) Duality Concept
107. Accounting principles are divided into two types. These are ---
a) Accounting Concepts
b) Accounting Conventions
c) Accounting Standards
d) Accounting Concepts &Accounting Conventions
108. Which of the following is not related with Money Measurement Concept ?
a) All business transaction should be expressed only in money
b) The transactions which cannot be expressed in money, will not be recorded in
accounting books
c) Business is treated as separate from the proprietor
d) None of These
109. Which of the following equation is related with Dual Aspect Concept ?
a) Total Assets = Total Liabilities
b) Total Assets = Capital + Outsider’s Liabilities
c) Capital = Total Assets - Outsider’s Liabilities
d) All of the above
110. If the total assets of the company amount to Rs 1,50,000 and owner’s equity is Rs 70,000,the
amount of liabilities will be –
a) Rs 70,000
b) Rs 80,000
c) Rs 90,000
d) Rs 1,00,000
a) Profit
37
b) Assets
c) Company
d) Books of A/c
a) Depreciation
b) Wages
c) Salary
d) Stationary
a) Patents
b) Trade Marks
c) Copyright
d) Land
117. The prime function of accounting is to
37
c) Controlling function
d) None of these
120.Book keeping is mainly concerned with
a) Practicability
b) Subjectivity
c) Convenience in recording
d) None of these
122. The system of recording transaction based on dual aspect concept is called
125. The convention of conservatism when applied to the balance sheet result in.
37
c) Providing depreciation
d) None of these
127. The amount brought in by the proprietor in the business should be credited to
a) Cash a/c
b) Capital a/c
c) Drawing a/c
d) Bank a/c
a) Customer a/c
b) Sales return a/c
c) Goods a/c
d) Purchase return a/c
a) Cash a/c
b) Mahesh a/c
c) Sales a/c
d) Sales return a/c
a) Discount a/c
b) Customer a/c
c) Sales a/c
d) None of these
133. In case of a debt becoming bad, the amount should be credited to
a) Debtors Accounts
b) Bad debts a/c
c) Sales a/c
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a) Ascertain the cost of goods and services
b) Ascertain the profit
c) Presentation of all data
d) None of these
a) Convention of conservatism
b) Convention of full disclosure
c) Convention of consistency
d) None of these
136. Accountant should follow the same principles of accounting continuously is as per which
accounting convention
a) Convention of conservatism
b) Convention of full disclosure
c) Convention of consistency
d) None of these
138. The convention of disclosure implies that all material information should be
a) Single aspect
b) Dual aspect
c) Triple aspect
d) None of these
140. Custom and traditions which guide the accountant while preparing the accounting
statements
a) Accounting convention
37
b) Accounting concepts
c) Accounting principles
d) None of these
141. Rules of action or conduct adopted by the accountants universally while recording
accounting transaction
a) Accounting convention
b) Accounting concepts
c) Accounting principles
d) None of these
142. Basic assumptions or conditions upon which the science of accounting is based.
a) Accounting convention
b) Accounting concepts
c) Accounting principles
d) None of these.
A. system in which accounting entries are made on the basis of amounts having become due
for payment or receipt is called
a) Cash concept
b) Accrual concept
c) Matching concept
d) On-going concept
a) Real a/c
b) Personal a/c
c) Nominal a/c
d) None of these
145. Debit what come in Credit what goes out rule for
a) Real a/c
b) Personal a/c
c) Nominal a/c
d) None of these
146. Debit all expenses and losses Credit all gains and income.
a) Real a/c
b) Personal a/c
c) Nominal a/c
d) None of these
147. A book containing a chronological record of business transaction & original record
a) Journal
37
b) Ledger
c) Trial balance
d) None of these
148. Transferring the debit and credit item from the journal to the respective accounts is
150. The transferring of debit and credit items from journal to the respective accounts in the
ledger is called as
a) Ledger
b) Posting
c) Forward journal
d) None of these
151. Which of the following items would not fall under the definition of an asset? a)
Land
b) Machine
c) Cash
d) Owner Equity
152. Which one of the following items would fall under the definition of a liability a)
Cash
b) Debtor
c) Owner’s equity
d) None of these
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154.A business has the following items in it:
Land Rs.1,000,000
Machinery Rs.20,000
Cash Rs.10,000
Debt Rs.0
Owner’s equity ?
a) Rs.200, 000
b) Rs.700, 000
c) Rs.800, 000
d) Rs1, 100,000
157.A business has following items in it
Land ?
Vehicles Rs.600,000
Debtors Rs. 1,20,000
Cash Rs.30,000
Owners’Equity Rs.1,000,000
Loan 5,00,000
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Creditors Rs.50,000
What is the value of the land…………………..
e) 1,000,000
f) 1,550,000
g) 800,000
h) None of these
158. Which of the following equations properly represents a derivation of the fundamental
accounting equation?
a) Only (a)
b) Both (a) (b)
c) All (a)(b)(c)(d)
d) None of these
159. Retained earnings will change over time because of several factors. Which of the following
factors would explain an increase in retained earnings?
a) Net Loss
b) Net income
c) Dividend
d) Investment by share holder.
Cash Rs.100
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Accounts Receivable Rs.500
Stock holder equity Rs.700
Accounts Payable Rs.200
Bank Loan Rs.1,000
a) Rs.200
b) Rs.1900
c) Rs.1200
d) Rs.1700
163. The full disclosure principle, as adopted by the accounting profession, is best described by
which of the following?
a) All information related to an entity's business and operating objectives is required to be
disclosed in the financial statements.
b) Information about each account balance appearing in the financial statements is to be
included in the notes to the financial statements.
c) Enough information should be disclosed in the financial statements so a person wishing
to invest in the stock of the company can make a profitable decision.
d) Disclosure of any financial facts significant enough to influence the judgment of an
informed reader
166. The Cash account on the balance sheet should not include which of the following items?
a. Travel advances to employees
b. Currency
c. Money orders
d. Deposits in transit
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b. Assets and equity.
168. The following comments all relate to the recording process. Which of these statements is
correct?
b. The general ledger is posted from transactions recorded in the general journal.
c. The trial balance provides the primary source document for recording transactions into
the general journal.
d. Transposition is the transfer of information from the general journal to the general
ledger.
169. The following comments each relate to the recording of journal entries. Which statement is
true?
c. The chart of accounts reveals the amount to debit and credit to the affected accounts.
171. . Which of the following errors will be disclosed in the preparation of a trial balance?
37
d. Recording the wrong amount for a transaction to both the account debited and the
account credited.
172. The basic sequence in the accounting process can best be described as:
173. Inventory accounts should be classified in which section of a balance sheet? a. Current
assets
b. Investments
c. Property, plant, and equipment
d. Intangible assets
Planning
b) Decision making
c) Control
d) All of these
178. Which of the following statements about differences between financial and managerial
accounting is incorrect?
37
a) Managerial accounting information is prepared primarily for external parties
such as stockholders and creditors; financial accounting is directed at internal
users.
b) Financial accounting is aggregated; managerial accounting is focused on products and
departments.
c) Managerial accounting pertains to both past and future items; financial accounting
focuses primarily on past transactions and events.
d) Financial accounting is based on generally accepted accounting practices; managerial
accounting faces no similar constraining factors.
180. Manufacturing costs are also known as product costs. Which of the following best describes
those costs which are considered to be manufacturing costs?
181. A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, plus long distance
charges, would be classified as a:
a. Variable cost
b. Committed fixed cost
c. Direct cost
d. Semi variable cost
37
184. Business entity concept distinguishes between:
a) Asset
b) Liability
c) Accounts
187. Financial statements are:
a) Estimates of facets
b) Anticipated facts
c) recorded facts
188. Retained earnings statement depicts:
a) Appropriation of profits
b) Estimates of profits
c) Estimates of costs
a) Management
b) Creditors
c) Bankers
d) All of the above
37
a) Sundry creditors
b) Acceptances
c) Unclaimed dividend
d) Short term investment
191. Financial accounting deals with:
a) Determination of cost
b) Determination of profit
c) Determination of price
d) Determination of selling price
a) Actual figures
b) Budgeted figures
c) Standard figures
d) Management Figure
a) 1910
b) 1939
c) 1950
d) 1960
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c) Current asset
d) Owners equity
a) Financial
b) Economic
c) Non financial
d) None of these
199. Which items does not come under the balance sheet
a) sales
b) Share capital
c) Reserves and surplus
d) Unsecured loan
b) Clerical
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c) Executive
d) Non- executive
204. Depreciation is a . a)
Cash operating expenditure
b) Accrual basis
c) Mercantile basis
d) Single entry basis
206. Which of the following is true for: -“In accounts recording is done of ” a)
only financial transaction
b) Revenue
c) Direct
d) Non- cash
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a) Nominal account
b) Real Account
b) Trial Balance
c) Ledger
d) Journal
210. Amount brought in by proprietor should be credited to
a) cash account
b) capital account
c) drawings account
d) creditors account
b) Salaries account
c) Cash account
d) Outstanding expenses
212. All costs other than direct materials cost, direct labour cost and direct expenses are known as:
a) Indirect material cost
b) Overhead
c) Indirect labour cost
d) Indirect expenses
213. A company's telephone bill consisting of a Rs.200 monthly base amount, plus long distance
charges, would be classified as a:
e. Variable cost
f. Committed fixed cost
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g. Direct cost
h. Semi variable cost
215. The work of factory employees that can be physically associated with converting raw
material into finished goods is classified as-
e. Manufacturing overhead
f. Indirect materials
g. Indirect labour
h. Direct labour
216. Which one of the following would not be classified as manufacturing overhead? a) Indirect
labour
b) Direct materials
c) Insurance on factory building
d) Indirect materials
218. A manufacturing process requires small amounts of glue. The glue used in the process is
classified as
a) A prime cost
b) An indirect material
c) A direct material
d) Miscellaneous expense
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220. Because of automation, which component of product cost is declining? a)
Direct labour
b) Direct materials
c) Manufacturing overhead
d) Advertising
224. Aggregate of cost of goods sold and selling and distribution overheads is known as : a)
Total Cost
b) Office Cost
c) Cost of sales
d) Selling overhead
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Direct material purchased: Rs. 1,00,000
Direct material consumed: Rs. 90,000
Direct labour: Rs. 60,000
Direct expenses: Rs. 20,000
Manufacturing overheads: Rs. 30,000
(a) Rs. 1,80,000
(b) Rs. 2,00,000
(c) Rs. 1,70,000
(d) Rs. 2,10,000
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Basic Concepts of Accounting
Chapter 1
Basic Concepts of Accounting
1. ______________ is nothing but the right process of selecting an appropriate, logical, practical
and achievable option from the available alternatives.
(a) Business Decision (b) Planning
(c) Organizing (d) Strategy
2. ______________ is a person who carried on business exclusively by and for himself.
(a) Partner (b) Sole-trader
(c) Executive (d) Manager
3. The relationship between persons who agree to carry on business in a common with a view to
private gain.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole-trading Firm
(c) Joint Stock Company (d) Co-operative Society
4. A ______________ is a form of business organization in which the funds of large number of
investors are managed by a few persons for the purpose of earning profits.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole-trading Firm
(c) Joint Stock Company (d) Co-operative Society
5. ______________ is the language of business.
(a) Marketing (b) Profit Earning Capacity
(c) Accounting (d) Selling
6. The object/s of accounting ______________.
(a) To calculate net profit or net loss of the business.
(b) To know the financial condition of the firm.
(c) To provide information to the management for important managerial decisions.
(d) All of the above
7. Out of the following, which is not the branch of Accounting.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
8. Accounting ______________ are the Rules of Action or the Methods and Procedures of
Accounting commonly adopted while recording Business transactions.
(a) Principles (b) Concepts
(c) Conventions (d) Systems
2 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
21. Debit the receiver, credit the giver is the rule of ______________.
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
22. Debit what comes in, credit what goes out is the rule of ______________.
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
23. Debit all expenses and losses, credit all incomes and gains is the rule of ______________.
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
24. ______________ is a record of transaction in the books of Accounts.
(a) Entry (b) Recording
(c) Monetary Transaction (d) Ledger
25. ______________ is an exchange of money or money’s worth.
(a) Entry (b) Recording
(c) Transaction (d) Ledger
26. ______________ is a book of original entry.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Subsidiary Book
27. ______________ is a bound book of different accounts.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Subsidiary Book
28. ______________ is a summarized record of transactions related to one person, one asset, one
head of expense/loss and one head of income/gain.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Account
29. ______________ means totaling of sums in the books of accounts.
(a) Casting (b) Summarizing
(c) Journalizing (d) Ledger Posting
30. ______________ are obligations or debts that the enterprise must pay in money or services at
some time in the future.
(a) Assets (b) Liabilities
(c) Responsibilities (d) Salaries
31. ______________ are economic resources of an enterprise that can be usefully expressed in
monetary terms.
(a) Assets (b) Liabilities
(c) Cash & Bank Balance (d) Funds
32. ______________ are commodities, purchased or manufactured for resale with a view to earn
profit.
(a) Assets (b) Goods
(c) Investments (d) Resources
4 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
33. ______________ are the amounts the business earns by selling its products or providing
services to customers.
(a) Assets (b) Goods
(c) Investments (d) Revenues
34. ______________ are the costs incurred by a business in the process of earning revenue.
(a) Assets (b) Expenses
(c) Investments (d) Revenues
35. ______________ are persons and/or other entities who owe to an enterprise an amount for
receiving goods and services on credit.
(a) Debtors (b) Creditors
(c) Shareholders (d) Suppliers
36. ______________ are persons and/or other entities that have to be paid by an enterprise an
amount for providing the enterprise goods and services on credit.
(a) Debtors (b) Creditors
(c) Shareholders (d) Customers
37. ______________ is a list of the entire general ledger account names and balances; it is
prepared to prove the ledger.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Trial Balance
38. The difference of two sides of an account is called as ______________.
(a) Debit (b) Credit
(c) Balance (d) Cash
39. ______________ deals with expenses related to or identified with products, which may only
be a part of the organization.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
40. In ______________ stocks are valued at lower of cost or market value.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
41. The primary objective of ______________ is to provide necessary information to the
management in the process of its planning, controlling, and performance evaluation, and
decision-making.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
42. The Success of ______________ does not depend upon Management Accounting system.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
43. In______________ no statutory requirement of audit for reports.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 5
Chapter 2
Understanding of Financial Statements
1. ______________ shows the firm’s assets, liabilities, and stockholders’ equity as of the report
date.
(a) Cash Flow (b) Funds Flow
(c) Income Statement (d) Balance Sheet
2. ______________ shows the results of the firm’s operations and financial activities for the
reporting period.
(a) Trading and Profit & Loss Account (b) Expense Statement
(c) Income Statement (d) Balance Sheet
3. ______________ includes explanations of various activities, additional details of some
accounts, and other items as mandated by the regulatory authorities, bodies from time to time.
(a) Trading and Profit & Loss Account (b) Expense Statement
(c) Income Statement (d) Supplementary Note
4. ______________ is a formal official record of the financial activities and position of a
business, person, or other entity.
(a) Financial Statement (b) Trading Account
(c) Profit & Loss Account (d) Supplementary Note
5. ______________ provides the vital information related to the profitability, liquidity and
solvency of the business.
(a) Financial Statement (b) Trading Account
(c) Profit & Loss Account (d) Cash Flow & Funds Flow
6. ______________ is the simplest business form under which one can operate a business.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole Trading Firm
(c) Private Ltd. Company (d) Public Company
7. ______________ is not a separate legal entity.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole Proprietorship Firm
(c) Private Ltd. Company (d) One Man Company
8. For every item given in Trial Balance, ______________ effect should be given.
(a) Dual (b) Single
(c) Triple (d) None of the above
9. For every item given in Adjustment, ______________ effect should be given.
(a) Dual (b) Single
(c) Triple (d) None of the above
10. ______________ are nothing but the entries which are not included in the original Trial
Balance.
(a) Journal Proper (b) Ledger
(c) Adjustments (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 7
Chapter 3
Cost Accounting
1. ______________ provides a specialized technique, which provides prompt and accurate
information regarding the cost of producing and selling an article.
(a) Cost Accounting (b) Financial Accounting
(c) Management Accounting (d) Cost & Financial Accounting
2. The amount of expenditure incurred on, or attributable to a given thing is called as
______________.
(a) Cost (b) Price
(c) Expense (d) Fixed Cost
3. The techniques and process of ascertaining cost is called as ______________.
(a) Costing (b) Accounting
(c) Financing (d) Management Accounting
4. With the help of ______________, we can control the cost.
(a) Costing Methods (b) Cost Accounting
(c) Management Accounting (d) Costing Techniques
5. With the help of ______________, we can find out the cost.
(a) Costing Methods (b) Cost Accounting
(c) Management Accounting (d) Costing Techniques
6. The total of Direct Material + Direct Labour + Direct Expenses is called as ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Factory Cost
(c) Prime Cost (d) Main Cost
7. Direct Expenses are also called as ______________.
(a) Chargeable Expenses (b) Factory Expenses
(c) Works Expenses (d) General Expenses
8. Depreciation is an example of ______________.
(a) Direct Expenses (b) Factory Expenses
(c) General Expenses (d) Indirect Expenses
9. The aggregate of all indirect expenses is ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Total Expense
(c) Overheads (d) Factory Overheads
10. Factory Cost is also called as ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Cost of Production
(c) Works Cost (d) Factory Overheads
11. Cost of Sales is also called as ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Cost of Production
(c) Works Cost (d) Factory Cost
12 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
25. A Location, person, or item of equipment (or a group of these) for which costs may be
ascertained and used for the purpose of control is called as ______________.
(a) Cost Unit (b) Cost Centre
(c) Cost Department (d) Cost Division
26. ______________ a statement, which shows various components of total cost of a product.
(a) Cost Sheet (b) Cost Account
(c) Cost Report (d) Cost Classification
27. ______________ is prepared on the basis of actual cost incurred.
(a) Historical Cost Sheet (b) Cost Account
(c) Cost Report (d) Estimated Cost Sheet
28. Haulage Charges is an example of ______________.
(a) Fixed Overheads (b) Direct Cost
(c) Factory Overheads (d) Administration Overheads
29. Counting House Salaries is an example of ______________.
(a) Fixed Overheads (b) Selling Overheads
(c) Factory Overheads (d) Administration Overheads
30. Carriage Outward is an example of ______________.
(a) Fixed Overheads (b) Selling Overheads
(c) Factory Overheads (d) Administration Overheads
31. Opening Stock of Finished Goods is added in ______________.
(a) Factory Cost (b) Prime Cost
(c) Cost of Production (d) Works Cost
32. Direct Labour Charges is also called as ______________.
(a) Factory Cost (b) Prime Cost
(c) Fixed Wages (d) Productive Wages
33. Cost unit is divided into ______________.
(a) Units of Production (b) Units of Services
(c) Both a and b (d) None of the above
34. Cost of converting raw material into finished goods is also called as ______________.
(a) Factory Cost (b) Prime Cost
(c) Conversion Cost (d) Productive Cost
35. According to Elements, Cost is divided into ______________ categories.
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
36. ______________ means the amount spent to sell a company’s products.
(a) Revenue Cost (b) Differential Cost
(c) Fixed Cost (d) Variable Cost
14 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
48. Sale of Scrap is ______________ after addition of factory overheads in Prime Cost.
(a) Added (b) Deducted
(c) Not Considered (d) None of the above
49. Cleaning Charges is an example of ______________.
(a) Direct Expenses (b) Factory Overheads
(c) Office Overheads (d) Selling Overheads
50. ______________ is the process of ascertaining costs whereas ______________ is the process
of recording various costs in a systematic manner, in order to prepare statistical date to
ascertain cost.
(a) Costing, Cost Accounting (b) Cost Accounting, Costing
(c) Costing and Allocation Cost (d) Costing and Absorption of Cost
Chapter 4
Cost Control
1. Cost of storing the goods as well as the interest on the capital is called as ______________.
(a) Inventory Carrying Cost (b) Order Placing Cost
(c) Buying Cost (d) Fixed Cost
2. Cost of placing the orders and receiving the goods are called as ______________.
(a) Inventory Carrying Cost (b) Variable Cost
(c) Buying Cost (d) Fixed Cost
3. The main objective of EOQ is to ______________ the total costs.
(a) Minimize (b) Control
(c) Maintain (d) Avoid
4. ______________ analysis is based on Selective Inventory Management.
(a) EOQ (b) JIT
(c) ABC (d) HML
5. Calculate EOQ if Cost of material per unit ` 40, Annual requirement 1600 units, Cost of
placing and receiving one purchase order ` 50, Annual carrying cost of inventory is 10% of
inventory value.
(a) 200 Units (b) 175 Units
(c) 225 Units (d) 250 Units
6. A level of inventory that should never be exceeded is ______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level
(c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
7. A level below which stock should not be allowed to fall is ______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level
(c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
8. A level at which store keeper should intimate purchase department for fresh/new supply is
______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level
(c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
9. A level below which the stock should never be allowed to fall under emergency
circumstances is ______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level
(c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
10. A strategy for inventory management in which raw materials and components are delivered
from the vendor or supplier immediately before they are needed in the manufacturing process
is ______________.
(a) Scientific Purchasing (b) Immediate Buying
(c) JIT (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 17
30. Out of the following, which factor/s affecting the Labour Cost.
(a) Assessment of Manpower Requirement
(b) Time and Motion Study
(c) Control over Idle Time and Overtime
(d) All of the above
31. Which department/s is/are closely associated with the Control of Labour Cost?
(a) Personnel and Payroll Department
(b) Time Keeping Department
(c) Engineering and Work Study Department
(d) All of the above
32. ______________ arises from replacement of workers who leave the organization.
(a) Direct Labour Cost (b) Preventive Cost
(c) Maintenance Cost (d) Replacement Cost
33. Method/s of Time Keeping is/are ______________.
(a) Attendance Register Method
(b) Token or Disc Method
(c) Time Recording Clocks & Dial Time Records
(d) All of the above
34. Method/s of Time Booking is/are ______________.
(a) Daily Time Sheet (b) Weekly Time Sheet
(c) Job Cards or Job Tickets (d) All of the above
35. ______________ refers to the estimation of standard time, i.e., the time allowed for
completing one piece of job using the given metho(d)
(a) Work Measurement (b) Time Measurement
(c) Period Measurement (d) None of the above
36. ______________ costs are the operating costs of a business enterprise which cannot be traced
to a particular unit of output.
(a) Material (b) Labour
(c) Overhead (d) Foxed & Variable
37. The ______________ is the process of recording each item of cost in the books of accounts
maintained for the purpose of ascertainment of cost of each Cost Centre or Cost Unit.
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead
(c) Apportionment of Overhead (d) Classification of Overhead
38. ______________ means, the allotment of whole items of cost to cost centres or cost units.
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead
(c) Apportionment of Overhead (d) Classification of Overhead
39. ______________ means, the allotment to two or more departments or cost centers of
proportions of common items of cost on estimated basis of benefit received.
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead
(c) Apportionment of Overhead (d) Classification of Overhead
20 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
Chapter 5
Decision-making Tools
1. Marginal Costing is also called as ______________.
(a) Variable Costing (b) Standard Costing
(c) Material Costing (d) Job Costing
2. In ______________ total costs cannot be easily segregated into fixed costs and variable costs.
(a) Marginal Costing (b) Standard Costing
(c) Material Costing (d) Job Costing
3. P/V Ratio is mainly known as ______________.
(a) Contribution to Sales Ratio (b) Contribution Margin Ratio
(c) Variable Profit Ratio (d) All of the above
4. ______________ analysis classifies all costs as either fixed or variable.
(a) CVP (b) ABC
(c) JIT (d) HML
5. ______________ that point where no profit or no loss position is observed.
(a) Centre Point (b) BEP
(c) Starting Point (d) Ending Point
6. ______________ is the difference between sales revenue and variable cost.
(a) P/V Ratio (b) BEP
(c) MOS (d) Contribution
7. Contribution is also called as ______________.
(a) P/V Ratio (b) Net Margin
(c) MOS (d) Gross Margin
8. ______________ is the difference between actual sales or output and the break even sales.
(a) P/V Ratio (b) Net Margin
(c) MOS (d) Gross Margin
9. ______________ is an angle where sales line intersects total cost line which indicates profit
earning capacity over the BEP.
(a) Angle of Incidence (b) Contribution
(c) Margin of Safety (d) Gross Margin
10. If contribution is ` 3,00,000 and Sales is ` 10,00,000, then what is P/V Ratio?
(a) 20% (b) 30%
(c) 33.33% (d) 1/3
11. If P/V Ratio is 25%, then what is the % of Variable Cost?
(a) 70% (b) 80%
(c) ¾ (d) ½
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 23
12. If Fixed Cost is ` 2,50,000 and P/V Ratio is 60%, then what is BEP in `?
(a) ` 4,16,667 (b) ` 3,83,333
(c) ` 3,75,000 (d) ` 4,10,000
13. If Fixed Cost is ` 2,50,000 and Profit is ` 3,50,000, then what is the amount of Contribution?
(a) ` 1,00,000 (b) ` 6,00,000
(c) ` 3,75,000 (d) ` 4,10,000
14. If Sales are ` 50,000 and P/V Ratio is 20%, then what is the amount of Variable Cost?
(a) ` 40,000 (b) ` 10,000
(c) ` 25,000 (d) ` 30,000
15. If contribution is ` 3,00,000 and Profit is ` 1,00,000, then what is the amount of Fixed Cost?
(a) ` 4,00,000 (b) `2,00,000
(c) ` 2,50,000 (d) `3,00,000
16. If Sales are ` 3,00,000 and P/V ratio is 20%, then what is the amount of Variable Cost?
(a) ` 2,40,000 (b) ` 80,000
(c) ` 2,70,000 (d) ` 2,00,000
17. The correct formula of Contribution is ______________.
(a) Contribution = Sales – Variable Cost
(b) Contribution = Fixed Cost + Profit or – Loss
(c) Contribution = Sales × P/ V Ratio
(d) All of the above
18. The correct formula of P/V Ratio is ____________.
(a) P/ V Ratio = [Contribution/Sales ] × 100
(b) P/ V Ratio = [Change in Profit/Change in Sales ] × 100
(c) P/ V Ratio = [Sales−Variable Cost/Sales] × 100
(d) All of the above
19. Marginal Costing is a Costing ______________.
(a) Technique (b) Method
(c) System (d) Convention
20. Under absorption and over absorption of overheads problems are not arisen under
______________.
(a) Marginal Costing (b) Standard Costing
(c) Job Costing (d) Budgetary Control
21. Standard cost is the ______________ cost.
(a) Pre-determined (b) Pre-decided
(c) Pre-planned (d) None of the above
22. Small organizations cannot adopt ______________ technique.
(a) Standard Costing (b) Marginal Costing
(c) Budgetary Control (d) None of the above
24 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
23. ______________ means difference between standard cost and actual cost.
(a) Balance Cost (b) Variance
(c) Marginal Cost (d) Variable Cost
24. ______________ helps management to understand the present costs and then to control the
future costs.
(a) ABC Analysis (b) Variance Analysis
(c) Marginal Analysis (d) Budget Analysis
25. Variances are classified in ______________ categories.
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
26. If Standard Cost ` 80 and Actual Cost ` 70, then what is the amount of Material Cost
Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 150 (d) 20
27. If Standard Price ` 8 & Standard Qty.10, Actual Price ` 7 & Actual Qty.10, then what is the
amount of Material Price Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 150 (d) 20
28. If Standard Price ` 8 & Standard Qty.10, Actual Price ` 7 & Actual Qty.10, then what is the
amount of Material Usage Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 50 (d) 0
29. If Standard Rate ` 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ` 2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Cost Variance?
(a) 600 (b) –600
(c) 500 (d) 400
30. If Standard Rate ` 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ` 2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Rate Variance?
(a) 750 (b) –750
(c) 600 (d) 400
31. If Standard Rate ` 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate `2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Efficiency Variance?
(a) 150 (b) –150
(c) 300 (d) 200
32. The correct formula for verification of Material Cost Variance is ______________.
(a) MCV = MPV + MUV (b) MCV = MPV – MUV
(c) MCV = MPV × MUV (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 25
33. The correct formula for verification of Labour Cost Variance is ______________.
(a) LCV = LRV + LEV (b) LCV = LRV – LEV
(c) LCV = LRV × LEV (d) None of the above
34. In Standard Costing comparison between ______________ is carried out.
(a) Standard Cost and Actual Cost (b) Fixed Cost and Variable Cost
(c) Normal Cost and Abnormal Cost (d) None of the above
35. The Disadvantages of Standard Costing is/are ______________.
(a) Establishments of standards are difficult in practice.
(b) Standards are requires to revise continuously.
(c) Inaccurate, unreliable and outdated standards do more harm than benefit
(d) All of the above
36. ______________ is a concrete precise picture of the total operation of an enterprise in
monetary terms.
(a) Budget (b) Plan
(c) Strategy (d) Goal
37. Accuracy cannot be maintained is a limitation of ______________.
(a) Budgetary Control (b) Scientific Planning
(c) Standard Costing (d) Marginal Costing
38. Pre- requisitions for effective implementation of Budgetary Control system is/are
______________.
(a) Deciding budget centres & budget period
(b) Preparation of a budget manual
(c) Determination of budget key factor
(d) All of the above
39. ______________ is the budget in which adjustment is possible according to change in
business conditions.
(a) Flexible Budget (b) Fixed Budget
(c) Sales Budget (d) Cash Budget
40. When forecasts about budget shows greater revenue to be received or generated than the
expenses to be incurred during budgeted period that is known as ______________.
(a) Surplus Budget (b) Best Budget
(c) Favourable Budget (d) Non-favourable Budget
41. ______________ budget highlights that the expenditures to be incurred in budget period will
be greater than the revenues to be received during the same period.
(a) Surplus Budget (b) Deficit Budget
(c) Favourable Budget (d) Non-favourable Budget
26 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
42. The establishment of budgets relating the responsibilities of executives to the requirements of
a policy and the continuous comparison of actual with budgeted results, either to secure by
individual action the objective of that policy or to provide basis for its revision is called as
______________.
(a) Budget (b) Budgeting
(c) Budgetary Control (d) None of the above
43. A ______________ is a powerful tool available to the management for the purpose of
maximizing profits.
(a) Budget (b) Decrease in selling price
(c) Standard Norm (d) Increase in selling price
44. Fixed Budget is also known as ______________.
(a) Static Budget (b) Standard Budget
(c) Master Budget (d) Flexible Budget
45. Normal Profit means ______________.
(a) No Profit No Loss (b) Less Profit
(c) Expected Profit (d) None of the above
46. Personnel Budget is also called as ______________.
(a) Cost Budget (b) Labour Budget
(c) Employee Budget (d) None of the above
47. In cash budget, ______________ transactions are considered.
(a) Cash (b) Credit
(c) all financial (d) None of the above
48. Budget is prepared for a ______________ period of time.
(a) Fixed (b) One Month
(c) One Year (d) None of the above
49. Purchase Budget is also called as ______________.
(a) Production Budget (b) Material Budget
(c) Cost Budget (d) None of the above
50. ______________ is the plan of proposed investment in the fixed assets.
(a) Fixed Budget (b) Capital Expenditure Budget
(c) Cash Budget (d) Purchase Budget
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 27
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Basic Concepts of Accounting
Chapter 1
Basic Concepts of Accounting
1. ______________ is nothing but the right process of selecting an appropriate, logical, practical
and achievable option from the available alternatives.
(a) Business Decision (b) Planning
(c) Organizing (d) Strategy
2. ______________ is a person who carried on business exclusively by and for himself.
(a) Partner (b) Sole-trader
(c) Executive (d) Manager
3. The relationship between persons who agree to carry on business in a common with a view to
private gain.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole-trading Firm
(c) Joint Stock Company (d) Co-operative Society
4. A ______________ is a form of business organization in which the funds of large number of
investors are managed by a few persons for the purpose of earning profits.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole-trading Firm
(c) Joint Stock Company (d) Co-operative Society
5. ______________ is the language of business.
(a) Marketing (b) Profit Earning Capacity
(c) Accounting (d) Selling
6. The object/s of accounting ______________.
(a) To calculate net profit or net loss of the business.
(b) To know the financial condition of the firm.
(c) To provide information to the management for important managerial decisions.
(d) All of the above
7. Out of the following, which is not the branch of Accounting.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
8. Accounting ______________ are the Rules of Action or the Methods and Procedures of
Accounting commonly adopted while recording Business transactions.
(a) Principles (b) Concepts
(c) Conventions (d) Systems
2 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
21. Debit the receiver, credit the giver is the rule of ______________.
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
22. Debit what comes in, credit what goes out is the rule of ______________.
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
23. Debit all expenses and losses, credit all incomes and gains is the rule of ______________.
(a) Personal Account (b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account (d) Individual Account
24. ______________ is a record of transaction in the books of Accounts.
(a) Entry (b) Recording
(c) Monetary Transaction (d) Ledger
25. ______________ is an exchange of money or money’s worth.
(a) Entry (b) Recording
(c) Transaction (d) Ledger
26. ______________ is a book of original entry.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Subsidiary Book
27. ______________ is a bound book of different accounts.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Subsidiary Book
28. ______________ is a summarized record of transactions related to one person, one asset, one
head of expense/loss and one head of income/gain.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Account
29. ______________ means totaling of sums in the books of accounts.
(a) Casting (b) Summarizing
(c) Journalizing (d) Ledger Posting
30. ______________ are obligations or debts that the enterprise must pay in money or services at
some time in the future.
(a) Assets (b) Liabilities
(c) Responsibilities (d) Salaries
31. ______________ are economic resources of an enterprise that can be usefully expressed in
monetary terms.
(a) Assets (b) Liabilities
(c) Cash & Bank Balance (d) Funds
32. ______________ are commodities, purchased or manufactured for resale with a view to earn
profit.
(a) Assets (b) Goods
(c) Investments (d) Resources
4 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
33. ______________ are the amounts the business earns by selling its products or providing
services to customers.
(a) Assets (b) Goods
(c) Investments (d) Revenues
34. ______________ are the costs incurred by a business in the process of earning revenue.
(a) Assets (b) Expenses
(c) Investments (d) Revenues
35. ______________ are persons and/or other entities who owe to an enterprise an amount for
receiving goods and services on credit.
(a) Debtors (b) Creditors
(c) Shareholders (d) Suppliers
36. ______________ are persons and/or other entities that have to be paid by an enterprise an
amount for providing the enterprise goods and services on credit.
(a) Debtors (b) Creditors
(c) Shareholders (d) Customers
37. ______________ is a list of the entire general ledger account names and balances; it is
prepared to prove the ledger.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Trial Balance
38. The difference of two sides of an account is called as ______________.
(a) Debit (b) Credit
(c) Balance (d) Cash
39. ______________ deals with expenses related to or identified with products, which may only
be a part of the organization.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
40. In ______________ stocks are valued at lower of cost or market value.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
41. The primary objective of ______________ is to provide necessary information to the
management in the process of its planning, controlling, and performance evaluation, and
decision-making.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
42. The Success of ______________ does not depend upon Management Accounting system.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
43. In______________ no statutory requirement of audit for reports.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 5
Chapter 2
Understanding of Financial Statements
1. ______________ shows the firm’s assets, liabilities, and stockholders’ equity as of the report
date.
(a) Cash Flow (b) Funds Flow
(c) Income Statement (d) Balance Sheet
2. ______________ shows the results of the firm’s operations and financial activities for the
reporting period.
(a) Trading and Profit & Loss Account (b) Expense Statement
(c) Income Statement (d) Balance Sheet
3. ______________ includes explanations of various activities, additional details of some
accounts, and other items as mandated by the regulatory authorities, bodies from time to time.
(a) Trading and Profit & Loss Account (b) Expense Statement
(c) Income Statement (d) Supplementary Note
4. ______________ is a formal official record of the financial activities and position of a
business, person, or other entity.
(a) Financial Statement (b) Trading Account
(c) Profit & Loss Account (d) Supplementary Note
5. ______________ provides the vital information related to the profitability, liquidity and
solvency of the business.
(a) Financial Statement (b) Trading Account
(c) Profit & Loss Account (d) Cash Flow & Funds Flow
6. ______________ is the simplest business form under which one can operate a business.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole Trading Firm
(c) Private Ltd. Company (d) Public Company
7. ______________ is not a separate legal entity.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole Proprietorship Firm
(c) Private Ltd. Company (d) One Man Company
8. For every item given in Trial Balance, ______________ effect should be given.
(a) Dual (b) Single
(c) Triple (d) None of the above
9. For every item given in Adjustment, ______________ effect should be given.
(a) Dual (b) Single
(c) Triple (d) None of the above
10. ______________ are nothing but the entries which are not included in the original Trial
Balance.
(a) Journal Proper (b) Ledger
(c) Adjustments (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 7
Chapter 3
Cost Accounting
1. ______________ provides a specialized technique, which provides prompt and accurate
information regarding the cost of producing and selling an article.
(a) Cost Accounting (b) Financial Accounting
(c) Management Accounting (d) Cost & Financial Accounting
2. The amount of expenditure incurred on, or attributable to a given thing is called as
______________.
(a) Cost (b) Price
(c) Expense (d) Fixed Cost
3. The techniques and process of ascertaining cost is called as ______________.
(a) Costing (b) Accounting
(c) Financing (d) Management Accounting
4. With the help of ______________, we can control the cost.
(a) Costing Methods (b) Cost Accounting
(c) Management Accounting (d) Costing Techniques
5. With the help of ______________, we can find out the cost.
(a) Costing Methods (b) Cost Accounting
(c) Management Accounting (d) Costing Techniques
6. The total of Direct Material + Direct Labour + Direct Expenses is called as ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Factory Cost
(c) Prime Cost (d) Main Cost
7. Direct Expenses are also called as ______________.
(a) Chargeable Expenses (b) Factory Expenses
(c) Works Expenses (d) General Expenses
8. Depreciation is an example of ______________.
(a) Direct Expenses (b) Factory Expenses
(c) General Expenses (d) Indirect Expenses
9. The aggregate of all indirect expenses is ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Total Expense
(c) Overheads (d) Factory Overheads
10. Factory Cost is also called as ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Cost of Production
(c) Works Cost (d) Factory Overheads
11. Cost of Sales is also called as ______________.
(a) Total Cost (b) Cost of Production
(c) Works Cost (d) Factory Cost
12 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
25. A Location, person, or item of equipment (or a group of these) for which costs may be
ascertained and used for the purpose of control is called as ______________.
(a) Cost Unit (b) Cost Centre
(c) Cost Department (d) Cost Division
26. ______________ a statement, which shows various components of total cost of a product.
(a) Cost Sheet (b) Cost Account
(c) Cost Report (d) Cost Classification
27. ______________ is prepared on the basis of actual cost incurred.
(a) Historical Cost Sheet (b) Cost Account
(c) Cost Report (d) Estimated Cost Sheet
28. Haulage Charges is an example of ______________.
(a) Fixed Overheads (b) Direct Cost
(c) Factory Overheads (d) Administration Overheads
29. Counting House Salaries is an example of ______________.
(a) Fixed Overheads (b) Selling Overheads
(c) Factory Overheads (d) Administration Overheads
30. Carriage Outward is an example of ______________.
(a) Fixed Overheads (b) Selling Overheads
(c) Factory Overheads (d) Administration Overheads
31. Opening Stock of Finished Goods is added in ______________.
(a) Factory Cost (b) Prime Cost
(c) Cost of Production (d) Works Cost
32. Direct Labour Charges is also called as ______________.
(a) Factory Cost (b) Prime Cost
(c) Fixed Wages (d) Productive Wages
33. Cost unit is divided into ______________.
(a) Units of Production (b) Units of Services
(c) Both a and b (d) None of the above
34. Cost of converting raw material into finished goods is also called as ______________.
(a) Factory Cost (b) Prime Cost
(c) Conversion Cost (d) Productive Cost
35. According to Elements, Cost is divided into ______________ categories.
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
36. ______________ means the amount spent to sell a company’s products.
(a) Revenue Cost (b) Differential Cost
(c) Fixed Cost (d) Variable Cost
14 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
48. Sale of Scrap is ______________ after addition of factory overheads in Prime Cost.
(a) Added (b) Deducted
(c) Not Considered (d) None of the above
49. Cleaning Charges is an example of ______________.
(a) Direct Expenses (b) Factory Overheads
(c) Office Overheads (d) Selling Overheads
50. ______________ is the process of ascertaining costs whereas ______________ is the process
of recording various costs in a systematic manner, in order to prepare statistical date to
ascertain cost.
(a) Costing, Cost Accounting (b) Cost Accounting, Costing
(c) Costing and Allocation Cost (d) Costing and Absorption of Cost
Chapter 4
Cost Control
1. Cost of storing the goods as well as the interest on the capital is called as ______________.
(a) Inventory Carrying Cost (b) Order Placing Cost
(c) Buying Cost (d) Fixed Cost
2. Cost of placing the orders and receiving the goods are called as ______________.
(a) Inventory Carrying Cost (b) Variable Cost
(c) Buying Cost (d) Fixed Cost
3. The main objective of EOQ is to ______________ the total costs.
(a) Minimize (b) Control
(c) Maintain (d) Avoid
4. ______________ analysis is based on Selective Inventory Management.
(a) EOQ (b) JIT
(c) ABC (d) HML
5. Calculate EOQ if Cost of material per unit ` 40, Annual requirement 1600 units, Cost of
placing and receiving one purchase order ` 50, Annual carrying cost of inventory is 10% of
inventory value.
(a) 200 Units (b) 175 Units
(c) 225 Units (d) 250 Units
6. A level of inventory that should never be exceeded is ______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level
(c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
7. A level below which stock should not be allowed to fall is ______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level
(c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
8. A level at which store keeper should intimate purchase department for fresh/new supply is
______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level
(c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
9. A level below which the stock should never be allowed to fall under emergency
circumstances is ______________.
(a) Maximum Stock Level (b) Minimum Level
(c) Re-order Stock Level (d) Danger Stock Level
10. A strategy for inventory management in which raw materials and components are delivered
from the vendor or supplier immediately before they are needed in the manufacturing process
is ______________.
(a) Scientific Purchasing (b) Immediate Buying
(c) JIT (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 17
30. Out of the following, which factor/s affecting the Labour Cost.
(a) Assessment of Manpower Requirement
(b) Time and Motion Study
(c) Control over Idle Time and Overtime
(d) All of the above
31. Which department/s is/are closely associated with the Control of Labour Cost?
(a) Personnel and Payroll Department
(b) Time Keeping Department
(c) Engineering and Work Study Department
(d) All of the above
32. ______________ arises from replacement of workers who leave the organization.
(a) Direct Labour Cost (b) Preventive Cost
(c) Maintenance Cost (d) Replacement Cost
33. Method/s of Time Keeping is/are ______________.
(a) Attendance Register Method
(b) Token or Disc Method
(c) Time Recording Clocks & Dial Time Records
(d) All of the above
34. Method/s of Time Booking is/are ______________.
(a) Daily Time Sheet (b) Weekly Time Sheet
(c) Job Cards or Job Tickets (d) All of the above
35. ______________ refers to the estimation of standard time, i.e., the time allowed for
completing one piece of job using the given metho(d)
(a) Work Measurement (b) Time Measurement
(c) Period Measurement (d) None of the above
36. ______________ costs are the operating costs of a business enterprise which cannot be traced
to a particular unit of output.
(a) Material (b) Labour
(c) Overhead (d) Foxed & Variable
37. The ______________ is the process of recording each item of cost in the books of accounts
maintained for the purpose of ascertainment of cost of each Cost Centre or Cost Unit.
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead
(c) Apportionment of Overhead (d) Classification of Overhead
38. ______________ means, the allotment of whole items of cost to cost centres or cost units.
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead
(c) Apportionment of Overhead (d) Classification of Overhead
39. ______________ means, the allotment to two or more departments or cost centers of
proportions of common items of cost on estimated basis of benefit received.
(a) Collection of Overhead (b) Allocation of Overhead
(c) Apportionment of Overhead (d) Classification of Overhead
20 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
Chapter 5
Decision-making Tools
1. Marginal Costing is also called as ______________.
(a) Variable Costing (b) Standard Costing
(c) Material Costing (d) Job Costing
2. In ______________ total costs cannot be easily segregated into fixed costs and variable costs.
(a) Marginal Costing (b) Standard Costing
(c) Material Costing (d) Job Costing
3. P/V Ratio is mainly known as ______________.
(a) Contribution to Sales Ratio (b) Contribution Margin Ratio
(c) Variable Profit Ratio (d) All of the above
4. ______________ analysis classifies all costs as either fixed or variable.
(a) CVP (b) ABC
(c) JIT (d) HML
5. ______________ that point where no profit or no loss position is observed.
(a) Centre Point (b) BEP
(c) Starting Point (d) Ending Point
6. ______________ is the difference between sales revenue and variable cost.
(a) P/V Ratio (b) BEP
(c) MOS (d) Contribution
7. Contribution is also called as ______________.
(a) P/V Ratio (b) Net Margin
(c) MOS (d) Gross Margin
8. ______________ is the difference between actual sales or output and the break even sales.
(a) P/V Ratio (b) Net Margin
(c) MOS (d) Gross Margin
9. ______________ is an angle where sales line intersects total cost line which indicates profit
earning capacity over the BEP.
(a) Angle of Incidence (b) Contribution
(c) Margin of Safety (d) Gross Margin
10. If contribution is ` 3,00,000 and Sales is ` 10,00,000, then what is P/V Ratio?
(a) 20% (b) 30%
(c) 33.33% (d) 1/3
11. If P/V Ratio is 25%, then what is the % of Variable Cost?
(a) 70% (b) 80%
(c) ¾ (d) ½
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 23
12. If Fixed Cost is ` 2,50,000 and P/V Ratio is 60%, then what is BEP in `?
(a) ` 4,16,667 (b) ` 3,83,333
(c) ` 3,75,000 (d) ` 4,10,000
13. If Fixed Cost is ` 2,50,000 and Profit is ` 3,50,000, then what is the amount of Contribution?
(a) ` 1,00,000 (b) ` 6,00,000
(c) ` 3,75,000 (d) ` 4,10,000
14. If Sales are ` 50,000 and P/V Ratio is 20%, then what is the amount of Variable Cost?
(a) ` 40,000 (b) ` 10,000
(c) ` 25,000 (d) ` 30,000
15. If contribution is ` 3,00,000 and Profit is ` 1,00,000, then what is the amount of Fixed Cost?
(a) ` 4,00,000 (b) `2,00,000
(c) ` 2,50,000 (d) `3,00,000
16. If Sales are ` 3,00,000 and P/V ratio is 20%, then what is the amount of Variable Cost?
(a) ` 2,40,000 (b) ` 80,000
(c) ` 2,70,000 (d) ` 2,00,000
17. The correct formula of Contribution is ______________.
(a) Contribution = Sales – Variable Cost
(b) Contribution = Fixed Cost + Profit or – Loss
(c) Contribution = Sales × P/ V Ratio
(d) All of the above
18. The correct formula of P/V Ratio is ____________.
(a) P/ V Ratio = [Contribution/Sales ] × 100
(b) P/ V Ratio = [Change in Profit/Change in Sales ] × 100
(c) P/ V Ratio = [Sales−Variable Cost/Sales] × 100
(d) All of the above
19. Marginal Costing is a Costing ______________.
(a) Technique (b) Method
(c) System (d) Convention
20. Under absorption and over absorption of overheads problems are not arisen under
______________.
(a) Marginal Costing (b) Standard Costing
(c) Job Costing (d) Budgetary Control
21. Standard cost is the ______________ cost.
(a) Pre-determined (b) Pre-decided
(c) Pre-planned (d) None of the above
22. Small organizations cannot adopt ______________ technique.
(a) Standard Costing (b) Marginal Costing
(c) Budgetary Control (d) None of the above
24 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
23. ______________ means difference between standard cost and actual cost.
(a) Balance Cost (b) Variance
(c) Marginal Cost (d) Variable Cost
24. ______________ helps management to understand the present costs and then to control the
future costs.
(a) ABC Analysis (b) Variance Analysis
(c) Marginal Analysis (d) Budget Analysis
25. Variances are classified in ______________ categories.
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
26. If Standard Cost ` 80 and Actual Cost ` 70, then what is the amount of Material Cost
Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 150 (d) 20
27. If Standard Price ` 8 & Standard Qty.10, Actual Price ` 7 & Actual Qty.10, then what is the
amount of Material Price Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 150 (d) 20
28. If Standard Price ` 8 & Standard Qty.10, Actual Price ` 7 & Actual Qty.10, then what is the
amount of Material Usage Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 50 (d) 0
29. If Standard Rate ` 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ` 2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Cost Variance?
(a) 600 (b) –600
(c) 500 (d) 400
30. If Standard Rate ` 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ` 2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Rate Variance?
(a) 750 (b) –750
(c) 600 (d) 400
31. If Standard Rate ` 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate `2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Efficiency Variance?
(a) 150 (b) –150
(c) 300 (d) 200
32. The correct formula for verification of Material Cost Variance is ______________.
(a) MCV = MPV + MUV (b) MCV = MPV – MUV
(c) MCV = MPV × MUV (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 25
33. The correct formula for verification of Labour Cost Variance is ______________.
(a) LCV = LRV + LEV (b) LCV = LRV – LEV
(c) LCV = LRV × LEV (d) None of the above
34. In Standard Costing comparison between ______________ is carried out.
(a) Standard Cost and Actual Cost (b) Fixed Cost and Variable Cost
(c) Normal Cost and Abnormal Cost (d) None of the above
35. The Disadvantages of Standard Costing is/are ______________.
(a) Establishments of standards are difficult in practice.
(b) Standards are requires to revise continuously.
(c) Inaccurate, unreliable and outdated standards do more harm than benefit
(d) All of the above
36. ______________ is a concrete precise picture of the total operation of an enterprise in
monetary terms.
(a) Budget (b) Plan
(c) Strategy (d) Goal
37. Accuracy cannot be maintained is a limitation of ______________.
(a) Budgetary Control (b) Scientific Planning
(c) Standard Costing (d) Marginal Costing
38. Pre- requisitions for effective implementation of Budgetary Control system is/are
______________.
(a) Deciding budget centres & budget period
(b) Preparation of a budget manual
(c) Determination of budget key factor
(d) All of the above
39. ______________ is the budget in which adjustment is possible according to change in
business conditions.
(a) Flexible Budget (b) Fixed Budget
(c) Sales Budget (d) Cash Budget
40. When forecasts about budget shows greater revenue to be received or generated than the
expenses to be incurred during budgeted period that is known as ______________.
(a) Surplus Budget (b) Best Budget
(c) Favourable Budget (d) Non-favourable Budget
41. ______________ budget highlights that the expenditures to be incurred in budget period will
be greater than the revenues to be received during the same period.
(a) Surplus Budget (b) Deficit Budget
(c) Favourable Budget (d) Non-favourable Budget
26 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
42. The establishment of budgets relating the responsibilities of executives to the requirements of
a policy and the continuous comparison of actual with budgeted results, either to secure by
individual action the objective of that policy or to provide basis for its revision is called as
______________.
(a) Budget (b) Budgeting
(c) Budgetary Control (d) None of the above
43. A ______________ is a powerful tool available to the management for the purpose of
maximizing profits.
(a) Budget (b) Decrease in selling price
(c) Standard Norm (d) Increase in selling price
44. Fixed Budget is also known as ______________.
(a) Static Budget (b) Standard Budget
(c) Master Budget (d) Flexible Budget
45. Normal Profit means ______________.
(a) No Profit No Loss (b) Less Profit
(c) Expected Profit (d) None of the above
46. Personnel Budget is also called as ______________.
(a) Cost Budget (b) Labour Budget
(c) Employee Budget (d) None of the above
47. In cash budget, ______________ transactions are considered.
(a) Cash (b) Credit
(c) all financial (d) None of the above
48. Budget is prepared for a ______________ period of time.
(a) Fixed (b) One Month
(c) One Year (d) None of the above
49. Purchase Budget is also called as ______________.
(a) Production Budget (b) Material Budget
(c) Cost Budget (d) None of the above
50. ______________ is the plan of proposed investment in the fixed assets.
(a) Fixed Budget (b) Capital Expenditure Budget
(c) Cash Budget (d) Purchase Budget
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 27
https://t.me/sppuwheebox
https://t.me/sppuwheebox
Dr. D. Y. Patil Unitech Society’s
Dr. D.Y. PATIL INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT & RESEARCH,
Sant Tukaram Nagar, Pimpri, Pune-411018, Maharashtra, India.
33. are the amounts the business earns by selling its products or providing
services to customers.
(a) Assets (b) Goods
(c) Investments (d) Revenues
34. are the costs incurred by a business in the process of earning revenue.
(a) Assets (b) Expenses
(c) Investments (d) Revenues
35. are persons and/or other entities who owe to an enterprise an amount for
receiving goods and services on credit.
(a) Debtors (b) Creditors
(c) Shareholders (d) Suppliers
36. are persons and/or other entities that have to be paid by an enterprise an
amount for providing the enterprise goods and services on credit.
(a) Debtors (b) Creditors
(c) Shareholders (d) Customers
37. is a list of the entire general ledger account names and balances; it is
prepared to prove the ledger.
(a) Journal (b) Ledger
(c) Cash Book (d) Trial Balance
38. The difference of two sides of an account is called as .
(a) Debit (b) Credit
(c) Balance (d) Cash
39. deals with expenses related to or identified with products, which may only
be a part of the organization.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
40. In stocks are valued at lower of cost or market value.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
41. The primary objective of is to provide necessary information to the
management in the process of its planning, controlling, and performance evaluation, and
decision-making.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
42. The Success of does not depend upon Management Accounting system.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
43. In no statutory requirement of audit for reports.
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 11
44. Which is the most popular and acceptable software?
(a) Tally (b) Marg
(c) Saral (d) SAP
45. The Advantage/s of Accounting Software .
(a) Accounting softwares save Time and Money.
(b) No scope for mistakes and errors.
(c) Provides accurate and updated information as and when require(d)
(d) All of the above
46. Internal and external parties are the users of .
(a) Financial Accounting (b) Management Accounting
(c) Human Resource Accounting (d) Cost Accounting
47. Capital A/c generally shows balance.
(a) Cash (b) Debit
(c) Credit (d) Overdraft
48. Asset A/c shows balance.
(a) Cash (b) Debit
(c) Credit (d) Overdraft
49. There are columns in Journal.
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) Five
50. Explanatory note written below an entry recorded in the Journal is called as .
(a) Narration (b) Explanation
(c) Brief information (d) Detail information
Chapter 2
Understanding of Financial Statements
1. shows the firm’s assets, liabilities, and stockholders’ equity as of the report
date.
(a) Cash Flow (b) Funds Flow
(c) Income Statement (d) Balance Sheet
2. shows the results of the firm’s operations and financial activities for the
reporting period.
(a) Trading and Profit & Loss Account (b) Expense Statement
(c) Income Statement (d) Balance Sheet
3. includes explanations of various activities, additional details of some
accounts, and other items as mandated by the regulatory authorities, bodies from time to time.
(a) Trading and Profit & Loss Account (b) Expense Statement
(c) Income Statement (d) Supplementary Note
4. is a formal official record of the financial activities and position of a
business, person, or other entity.
(a) Financial Statement (b) Trading Account
(c) Profit & Loss Account (d) Supplementary Note
5. provides the vital information related to the profitability, liquidity and
solvency of the business.
(a) Financial Statement (b) Trading Account
(c) Profit & Loss Account (d) Cash Flow & Funds Flow
6. is the simplest business form under which one can operate a business.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole Trading Firm
(c) Private Ltd. Company (d) Public Company
7. is not a separate legal entity.
(a) Partnership Firm (b) Sole Proprietorship Firm
(c) Private Ltd. Company (d) One Man Company
8. For every item given in Trial Balance, effect should be given.
(a) Dual (b) Single
(c) Triple (d) None of the above
9. For every item given in Adjustment, effect should be given.
(a) Dual (b) Single
(c) Triple (d) None of the above
10. are nothing but the entries which are not included in the original Trial
Balance.
(a) Journal Proper (b) Ledger
(c) Adjustments (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 11
11. Every adjustment has two effects, i.e., .
(a) One Debit & One Credit (b) Debit
(c) Credit (d) None of the above
12. Depreciation is debited to .
(a) BRS (b) Balance Sheet
(c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
13. Income Accrued but Not Received is recorded to .
(a) Profit and Loss A/c Debit Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side
(c) Trading A/c Debit Side (d) Trading A/c Credit Side
14. Prepaid Expenses shown at .
(a) Balance Sheet Asset Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side
(c) Trading A/c Debit Side (d) Trading A/c Credit Side
15. Closing Stock is recorded to .
(a) Profit and Loss A/c Debit Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side
(c) Trading A/c Debit Side (d) Trading A/c Credit Side
16. Outstanding Expenses shown at .
(a) Balance Sheet Liability Side (b) Profit and Loss A/c Credit Side
(c) Balance Sheet Asset Side (d) Trading A/c Credit Side
17. Goods Withdrawn from business is considered as .
(a) Sales (b) Purchases
(c) Capital (d) Drawings
18. Interest on Capital is debited to .
(a) Capital A/c (b) Balance Sheet
(c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
19. Interest on Drawings is credited to .
(a) Journal A/c (b) Balance Sheet
(c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
20. Goods Distributed as Free Samples is debited to .
(a) Capital A/c (b) Personal A/c
(c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
21. Reserve for Discount on Creditors is credited to .
(a) Capital A/c (b) Personal A/c
(c) Trading A/c (d) Profit and Loss A/c
22. information is ignored in the financial statements.
(a) Cash (b) Credit
(c) Qualitative (d) Quantitative
23. The financial statements are based on the accounting .
(a) Accounting Concepts and Conventions
(b) Accounting Concepts
10 All in One Multiple Choice Questions
12. If Fixed Cost is Rs. 2,50,000 and P/V Ratio is 60%, then what is BEP in
`? (a) ` 4,16,667 (b) ` 3,83,333
(c) ` 3,75,000 (d) ` 4,10,000
13. If Fixed Cost is Rs. 2,50,000 and Profit is Rs. 3,50,000, then what is the amount of
Contribution? (a) ` 1,00,000 (b) ` 6,00,000
(c) ` 3,75,000 (d) ` 4,10,000
14. If Sales are Rs. 50,000 and P/V Ratio is 20%, then what is the amount of Variable
Cost? (a) ` 40,000 (b) ` 10,000
(c) ` 25,000 (d) ` 30,000
15. If contribution is Rs. 3,00,000 and Profit is ` 1,00,000, then what is the amount of Fixed
Cost? (a) ` 4,00,000 (b) `2,00,000
(c) ` 2,50,000 (d) `3,00,000
16. If Sales are Rs. 3,00,000 and P/V ratio is 20%, then what is the amount of Variable
Cost? (a) ` 2,40,000 (b) ` 80,000
(c) ` 2,70,000 (d) ` 2,00,000
17. The correct formula of Contribution is .
(a) Contribution = Sales – Variable Cost
(b) Contribution = Fixed Cost + Profit or – Loss
(c) Contribution = Sales × P/ V Ratio
(d) All of the above
18. The correct formula of P/V Ratio is .
(a) P/ V Ratio = [Contribution/Sales ] × 100
(b) P/ V Ratio = [Change in Profit/Change in Sales ] × 100
(c) P/ V Ratio = [Sales−Variable Cost/Sales] × 100
(d) All of the above
19. Marginal Costing is a Costing .
(a) Technique (b) Method
(c) System (d) Convention
20. Under absorption and over absorption of overheads problems are not arisen under
.
(a) Marginal Costing (b) Standard Costing
(c) Job Costing (d) Budgetary Control
21. Standard cost is the cost.
(a) Pre-determined (b) Pre-decided
(c) Pre-planned (d) None of the above
22. Small organizations cannot adopt technique.
(a) Standard Costing (b) Marginal Costing
(c) Budgetary Control (d) None of the above
All in One Multiple Choice Questions 11
23. means difference between standard cost and actual cost.
(a) Balance Cost (b) Variance
(c) Marginal Cost (d) Variable Cost
24. helps management to understand the present costs and then to control the
future costs.
(a) ABC Analysis (b) Variance Analysis
(c) Marginal Analysis (d) Budget Analysis
25. Variances are classified in categories.
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
26. If Standard Cost Rs. 80 and Actual Cost Rs. 70, then what is the amount of Material Cost
Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 150 (d) 20
27. If Standard Price Rs. 8 & Standard Qty.10, Actual Price Rs. 7 & Actual Qty.10, then what is
the amount of Material Price Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 150 (d) 20
28. If Standard Price Rs. 8 & Standard Qty.10, Actual Price Rs. 7 & Actual Qty.10, then what is
the amount of Material Usage Variance?
(a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 50 (d) 0
29. If Standard Rate Rs. 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ` 2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Cost Variance?
(a) 600 (b) –600
(c) 500 (d) 400
30. If Standard Rate Rs. 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate ` 2 & Actual Hours 1500, then
what is the amount of Labour Rate Variance?
(a) 750 (b) –750
(c) 600 (d) 400
31. If Standard Rate Rs. 1.50 & Standard Hours 1600, Actual Rate Rs. 2 & Actual Hours 1500,
then what is the amount of Labour Efficiency Variance?
(a) 150 (b) –150
(c) 300 (d) 200
32. The correct formula for verification of Material Cost Variance is .
(a) MCV = MPV + MUV (b) MCV = MPV – MUV
(c) MCV = MPV × MUV (d) None of the above
10 All in One Multiple Choice Questions