1. An agreement signed by Aslam that he will sale cotton of Rs. 10,000 to will…..

a) Be recorded in journal b) Be recorded in Ledger c) Be recorded in Balance sheet d)

not be recorded
2. Aslam purchased a Motor car for Rs.12,00,000 for his personal use, payment made by him from
his pocket will….
a) Be recorded in journal b) Be recorded in Ledger c) not be recorded d) Be
recorded in balance sheet
3. The business form(s) in which the owner(s) is (are) personally liable is (are) the:
a) Partnership only b) Proprietorship c) Corporation only d) Partnership and
Proprietorship
4. The payment of rent each month for office space would:
a) Decrease total asset b) Increase liability c) Increase owner’s equity d) None of
these
5. Unpaid or unrecorded expenses are called:
a) Prepaid expenses b) Accrued expenses c) Additional expenses d) None of these
6. Fixed cost:
a) Changes with production b) Never changes even if production capacity is doubled
c) None of these
7. Depreciation in spirit is similar to:
a) Depletion b) Amortization c) Depression d) Accumulated depreciation
8. Economic resources of a business that are expected to be benefit in the future are referred to as:
a) Liabilities b) Owner’s equity c) Withdrawals d) Assets
9. If cash book start with favorable balance of Rs. 5000 and cash deposited Rs. 1000 in bank is
recorded on credit side of cash book, what will be adjusted cash balance.
a) 6,000 b) 4,000 c) 7,000 d) 3,000
10. Which one of the following accounts would usually have a debit balance?
a) Cash b) Creditors c) Accounts payable d) Salaries expenses
11. The measurable value of an alternative use of resources is referred to as:
a) An opportunity cost b) An imputed cost c) A different cost d) A sunk cost
12. Aslam purchased a Motor car for Rs. 12,00,000 for Business, payment made by him from
business cash balance will effect:
a) Assets account b) Drawing account c) will not affect any account d) Both Assets
and Drawing Accounts
13. Net income plus operating expenses will be equal to:
a) Sale b) Cost of goods sold c) Gross profit d) Net income
14. Quick assets include which of the following?
a) Cash b) Accounts Receivable c) Inventories d) Only (a) and (b)
15. Good will raised at the time of admission of new partner should be written off according to:
a) New ratio b) Old ratio c) Sacrifice ratio d) None of the above
16. Which of the following is non exchange transaction:
a) Goods lost by fire b) Electric charges c) cash sale
17. Conversion cost is calculated as:
a) D. Material plus D. Labor b) D. Labor Plus F.O.H c) D. Material plus D. Labor Plus
F.O.H d) None of the above
18. Sale of business assets on credit is recorded in:
a) General journal b) Sale Journal c) Cash receipt journal d) Cash payment journal
19. Commission received in advance is:
a) Assets b) Liability c) Revenue d) Expense
20. A working paper which is prepared by accountant for his convenience is called:
a) Cash book b) Audit paper c) Balance sheet d) Work sheet
21. Heavy expenditure on advertisement is:
a) Capital expenditure b) Revenue expenditure c) Deferred revenue expenditure d)
Both (b) and (c)
22. Statutory report is necessary in the case of:
a) Private limited co. b) Public limited co. c) All companies d) Not needed
23. Error of wrong allocation of expenditure as revenue and capital is known as:
a) Allocation error b) Compensation error c) Revenue error d) Principle error
24. Marshaling of Balance sheet means:
a) Totaling of assets b) Totaling of liabilities c) Order of Assets and liabilities in
Balance sheet d) All of the above
25. The access of sale price of a business over the assets is:
a) Capital reserve b) Goodwill c) Share premium d) Retained earning
26. Amount set aside to meet the losses of bad debts in known as:
a) Provision b) Reserve c) Doubtful debts d) Advance for bad debts
27. True and fair report is submitted by:
a) Accountant b) Banker c) Broker d) Auditor
28. Merchandise used by owner for personal use will be debited to:
a) Purchase account b) Asset account c) Drawing A/c d) A/P
29. Goods destroyed by theft will be credited to:
a) Purchase account b) Drawing account c) A/P d) Profit & Loss
30. Working capital….
a) Current assets-Current liabilities b) Current assets/Current liabilities c) Capital
expenditure d) Borrowing from bank
31. Which of the following result an increase in current ratio:
a) Cash collected from A/R b) Cash collected from sale of furniture c) Cash paid for
prepaid expenses
32. Cotton used in a Textile Mill is a:
a) Direct expenses b) Indirect expenses c) Direct material d) Indirect material
33. Non trading Institution prepare:
a) Profit & loss A/C b) Manufacturing Account c) Income & Expenditure Account
d) Balance sheet
34. In non trading concern Income and Expenditure Account replaces:
a) Income Statement b) Trial Balance c) Balance Sheet d) Cash Book
35. Dividend is calculated on:
a) Registered capital b) Issued capital c) Paid up capital d) Authorized capital
36. The dividend paid to shareholders at the end of year:
a) Outstanding dividend b) Unclaimed dividend c) Final dividend d) Interim
dividend
37. A company pays income tax at the rate of 40% the net income after tax is Rs. 24 The net income
before tax is:
a) Rs. 40 b) Rs. 80 c) Rs. 24 d) Rs. 16
38. The prime function of accounting is to:
a) Record economic data b) Provide the informational basis for action c) Classifying
and recording business transaction d) None of the above
39. In double entry system of book-keeping every business transaction affects:
a) Debit or credit side of the same account b) Two accounts c) The same side of the
same account d) None of the above
40. The concept of conservation takes into account:
a) All future profits and all future losses b) All future profits but leaves all future losses
c) All future losses but leaves all future profits d) None of the above
41. Bank reconciliation statement is a part of:
a) Pass book b) Ledger accounts c) Journal d) Cash book
42. The balance of petty cash book is:
a) A liability b) An expense c) Again d) An asset
43. The main purpose of cost accounting is to:
a) Maximize profit b) Help in inventory valuation c) Provide information to
management for decision making d) Aid in the fixation of selling prices
44. An example of fixed cost is:
a) Direct material cost b) depreciation of machinery c) works manager’s salary d)
chargeable expense
45. Toy manufacturing company should use:
a) Unit costing b) Bath costing c) Job costing d) Multiple costing
46. Completion of a job is a result in:
a) DR Finish goods CR WIP b) DR Cost of goods CR Finish goods c) DR WIP CR
FOH control d) DR FOH control CR FOH applied
47. Depreciation is a process of:
a) Valuation b) Allocation c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of these
48. Which of the following is ascertained by drawing up an income and expenditure account?
a) Cash in hand b) Surplus or Deficiency c) Capital fund d) None of these
49. The addition of material and labor is called:
a) Conversion cost b) Factory cost c) Prime cost d) Absorption cost

50. In Pakistan chamber of commerce and industry is registered with:

a) Registrar of firms b) Registrar of companies c) Registrar of society d) Registrar
of club
51. Agriculture, forestry, hunting and fishing is included in:
a) Genetic industry b) Extractive industry c) Manufacturing industry d)
Construction industry e) None of the above
52. The process loss not allowed to affect the cost of goods units is:
a) Normal loss b) Standard loss c) Abnormal loss d) Material loss e) None of
the above
53. Ground rent is an income from:
a) Agriculture b) Salary c) Business d) Other sources e) None of these
54. Which one of the following is an agricultural income?
a) Income from poultry farm b) Income from cultivation of rice c) Income from sale
of water irrigation d) Royalty income from mines e) All of the above
55. A and B are partners in the ratio of 2:1. They admit C for shares who contribute Rs. 3000 for his
share of goodwill.
a) Rs. 3,000 b) Rs. 9,000 c) Rs. 12,000 d) Rs. 15,000
56. Accounting principles, are generally based on:
a) Practicability b) Subjectivity c) Convenience in recording d) None of the
above
57. The term expense and expenditure are:
a) Same in nature b) Different in nature c) Opposite in nature d) None of the
above
58. Net income or net profit is equal to:
a) Revenue – Income b) Revenue – Expenses c) Revenue + Expenses d) None of the above
59. If there is a change in total value of assets and liabilities of a business concern, it will be consider
as:
a) Qualitative change b) Quantitative change c) Monetary change d) Political
change
60. Market value of investments is shown as a foot note according to:
a) Convention of disclosure b) Convention of consistency c) Convention of
conservation d) None of the above
61. Making the provision for doubtful debts in anticipation of actual bad debts is on the basis of:
a) Convention of disclosure b) Convention of consistency c) Convention of
conservation d) None of the above
62. The “Qualitative aspects of things are ignored”.
a) Dual aspect concept b) Entity concept c) Money measurement concept d) None of the
above
63. When an account represent certain person or person then it is called as:
a) Artificial person’s account b) Representative personal account c) Nature person’s
account d) Real accounts
64. Which one of the following is called king of all book of account:
a) The cash book b) Journal c) Ledger d) Balance

65. Which of the following types of error in the ledger will not be revealed by a trail balance:
a) An error of Omission b) An error of commission c) An error of principle d) None of the
above
66. The ledger is the book for the:
a) First entry b) Second entry c) Third entry d) Final entry e) Both (b) and (d)
67. The difference of the totals of the two sides of an account is called:
a) Brought forward b) Carried forward c) Balance d) None of the above
68. A bank perform certain functions for the benefit of general public which are called as:
 a) Primary functions b) General utility functions c) Agency functions d) Secondary
functions
69. When a customer is authorized to borrow up to an agreed amount in excess of the customers bank
balance, it will be called:
a) Bank overdraft b) Bank under draft c) Bank balance d) None of the above
70. Hundi is exactly like a:
a) Bank draft b) Cheque c) Pay in slip d) None of the above
71. A bill of exchange contains:
a) An unconditional order b) A promise c) A request to deliver goods d) A conditional
order
72. Father of political economy:
a) Adam smith b) Malthus c) Robbins d) Marshall
73. Basic economic problem is:
a) Inflation b) Unemployment c) Poverty d) Scarcity
74. Three basic economic problems:
a) What, how and for whom b) why, where and when c) what, which and how much
d) what, which, why
75. One or more persons living together and having a common budget is called:
a) Union b) Organization c) Household d) House members
76. “ Wealth of Nations” was written in:
a) 1976 b) 1876 c) 1776 d) 1676
77. Demand curve slopes downward because of the law of:
a) Consumer equilibrium b) Utility maximization c)Utility minimization d) Diminishing
marginal utility
78. For production of goods we need factors:
a) Few b) 2 c) 4 d) Unlimited
79. Standard of living of a country can be raised if it increases:
a) Labor force b) Production c) Money supply d) Export
80. Which of the following is a producer good:
a) Pen b) Cycle c) Mobile phone d) Hammer
81. Limited liability is one of the advantages of:
a) Partnership b) Sole proprietorship c) Joint stock company d) cooperative society
82. GNP is :
a) Total sale in the economy b) total monetary transactions in an economy c) The
market value of all goods and services d) Total spending in economy

83. Which shows equilibrium of national income:

a) Consumption = Investment b) Saving = Investment c) Saving < Investment d) Saving >
Investment
84. Largest sector of Pakistan economy is:
a) Agriculture b) Industry c) Transport d) Service
85. The word “Statistics” comes from Latin word status which means,
a) Desire of political economy b) Political status c) Politician
 86. “Numerical facts systematically arranged” In the above sentence statistics used in,
a) Plural b) singular c) common d) proper

87. The word statistics is defined as a discipline that include______ and _____ used to collect, process ,
and analyze numerical data to make inferences to reach decision,
a) Procedures and techniques b) Amendments and laws c) Facts and decision

88. The word statistics are numerical quantities calculated from,

a) Population observation b) Sample observation

89. The statistical information can be used for a variety of reasons one of them is,
a) To inform school teachers b) To inform internal organization c) To inform
general public

90. Statistics is important for,

a) To estimate the unknown quantities b) To estimate the known quantities
91. Statistics is perhaps a subject used by,,,
a) Somebody b) scientist c) only management d) everybody

92. Any sort of numerically recording of information such as Head or Tail , Yes or No called,,
a) Variable b) observation c) Discreet

93. A characteristic that varies with an individual or an object called,,,

a) Variable b) observation c) Discrete

94. The given set of all possible values is called,,,,

a) Constant b) Domain c) Variable

95. The domain contain only one value is called,,,,,

a) Domain b) Constant c) value

96. Variables may be classified into,,,,

a) Qualitative & quantitative b) Normal & abnormal c) Intrinsic & extrinsic

97. A variable is called a __________ when a characteristic can be expressed numerically called,,,,,
a) Qualitative b) Quantitative c) continuous
98. If the characteristic are non numerical such as education, gender, eye color etc called,,,
a) Qualitative b) Quantitative c) abstract

99. Qualitative variable is also called,,,,,

a) Continue b) Attribute c) abstract

100. _______is a variable that can take only discreet set of integers or whole numbers called,,,,,
a) Abstract variable b) Continuous variable c) Discrete variable
101. _______represents count data such as numbers of person in a family is called,,,,
a) Discrete variable b) Continuous data variable c) abstract variable

102. A variable is called ______ if it can be take on any value fractional or integer within a given
intervals is called?
a) Discrete variable b) Continuous variable

103. The hair color of the children is a___?

a) Attribute b) Discrete c) Qualitative d) Contiguous variable e) a&c
both

104. The number of children in your family is a,,,,

a) Attributes variables b) Discrete variables c) Continuous variables

105. The assigning of number of observation called,,,

a) Scale b) Measurement c) Discrete value
106. The term_____ is defined as the process of dividing a set of observation in to classes or
groups….
a) Tabulation b) Presentation c) Classification

107. _____ is the sorting of data into homogeneous classes or groups called…..
a) Classification b) Tabulation c) Observation

108. When data is sorted according to one criterion only is called…..

a) One way classification b) two way classification c) three way classification

109. One way classification is also called….

a) Simple classification b) optional classification c) complex classification

110. When data are sorted according to two criterions called…

a) One way classification b) Two way classification c) many way classification

111. Manifold classification or cross classification is known as….

a) One way criterion b) two way criterion c) many way criterion

112. Arrangement of data according to the values of variables characteristics called…

a) Classification b) Distribution c) Location

113. When the defining variables are expressed in term of location called…
a) Spatial distribution b) Geographical distribution c) Both a & b

114. Geographical distribution is also called…..

a) Variables b) Spatial distribution c) Time series
115. Temporal arrangement of values is referred to as a……
a) Variables b) Distribution c) Time series

116. The main aim classification is…..

a) To reduce large set of data to an easily understand summery
b) To display the points of similarity and dissimilarity
c) Both a & b
117. By______ we mean a systematic presentation of data classified under suitable heads and
subheads and placed in columns and rows…..
a) Classification b) Tabulation c) Summarization

118. According to______ tabulation is the intermediate process between the accumulation of
data and final reasoned account of the results shown by the statistics…..
a) Professor Bowley (1869-1947) b) Adam smith c) Prof Agarkar

119. Statistical tables classified according to purpose of ______ types.

a) One b) Two c) Four d) Five

120. The table which is use for general purpose called..

a) Primary table b) Derived table c) Text table

121. The table which is used for specific purpose called..

a) Primary table b) derived table c) text table d) both b & c

122. The ____ purpose table are used with one or two criteria and simple in structure..
a) Primary table b) derived table or specific table c) classified table

123. Tabulation of a dependent variables against the independent variable is an example of…
a) Single tabulation b) Double tabulation c) manifold tabulation

124. Tables with two criteria of classification are example of….

a) Single tabulation b) Double tabulation c) manifold tabulation

125. A______ is the presentation of the population of a country by ages by genders by

residence, by literacy…
a) Single tabulation b) Double tabulation c) Manifold tabulation
126. ______ consist of rectangles, subdivided rectangles and square.
a) Linear bar b) Areal or two dimensional diagrams c) Cubic diagrams

127. ______ the diagrams which is in the form of cubic and cylinders.
a) Linear diagrams b) Cubic diagrams c) Areal diagrams

128. The diagrams which is in the form of circles and sectors called.
 a) Pictogram b) Histogram c) Pie diagram

129. _____ which consist of pictures or small symbolic figures representing statistical data
called.
a) Pictogram b) Histogram c) Pie diagram
130. Management is defined as:
(a) Getting things so that demand is fulfilled (b) Getting things done through other people
(c) To know the actual production (d) To work for other
Ans: b
131. Qualitative and quantitative forms of management have been changing due to the growth
of:
(a) Organization (b) Business (c) Industry (d) All of the these
Ans: d
132. The job of management was divided into six independent activities by:
(a) Marry P. Follet (b) Henri Fayol (c) Fredrick W. Taylor (d) Dale Beach
Ans: b
133. In 1914 Frederic W. Taylor, known as the “Father of Scientific Management”, wrote a
book entitled:
(a) Principles of scientific management (b) Principles of and methods of scientific management
(c) Principles of management (d) Principles of scientific methods
Ans: b
134. The Principal that subordinate should receive order and be responsible to only one boss is
known as:
(a) Unity of direction (b) span of control (c) Unity of command (d) Unity of
Dedication
Ans: c
135. They Theory which assumes that the persons are self-motivated and their inner urge
drives them to work.
(a) Theory Y (b) Theory X (c) Both X and Y (d) None of the these
Ans: a

136. Grantt’s Chart was a major contribution of:

(a) Marry P. Follet (b) Fredrick W. Taylor (c) Henri Fayol (d) Dale Beach
Ans: c
137. Planning deals with the future, which is:
(a) Certain (b) Predictable (c) Pre-planned (d) Uncertain
Ans: d
138. Management by objective is generally attributed to:
(a) Peter F. Drucker (b) Locke (c) Fredrick W. Taylor (d) Dale Beach
Ans: a
139. Management by objective process goes through the following steps, except:
(a) Performance targets (b) Setting goal (c) Formulation of action plan(d) Self control
and periodic review
 Ans: a
140. Bureaucratic organizational structures have been categorized as under:
(a) Horizontal dimension (b) Vertical dimension (c) Both Horizontal and vertical
dimension (d) None of them
Ans: c
141. The situation which leads to the greatest difficulty in planning, is the one in which prices
in the industry are:
(a) Slowly increasing (b) Slowly decreasing (c) Subject to no change (d) Subject to change in
unanticipated ways
Ans: d
142. Decisions can be broadly classified as:
(a) Strategic, non strategic, and administrative (b) Strategic, operating and environmental
(c) Strategic, operating and administrative (d) Operating, environmental and administrative
Ans: b
143. The decision-making process is conducted in three different ways, following is not the
typical method?
(a) By fate (b) Intuitively (c) Based on judgment (d) By problem solving method
Ans: a
144. Synergy is an important technique of:
(a) Financial planning (d) Business planning (c) strategic planning (d) Decision making
Ans: d
145. What are the three important organization universals?
(a) People, purpose and environment (b) People, purpose and hierarchy (c) Purpose,
hierarchy and purpose (d) Hierarchy, environment and people
Ans: a
146. Within an organization, members with common social interests normally band together to
form:
(a) Role status group (b) formal group (c) dysfunctional group (d) informal group
Ans: d
147. The favouring of relatives of the firm’s executives when promotions come up is known
as:
(a) red-tappism (b) Nepotism (c) Partiality (d) Patronage
Ans: b
148. When an employee is temporary separated from a company, this is called:
(a) Layoff (b) Discharge (c) Exclusion (d) Termination
Ans: a
149. Process of collecting and analyzing information about the duties responsibilities and
conditions of a specific work assignment is:
(a) Job analysis (b) Activity analysis (c) Job evaluation (d) Job description
Ans: c

150. If the workers productivity decreased at the same time that their wages are raised, unit
costs will be:
(a) The same (b) Raised (c) Decreased (d) None of these
 Ans: b
151. Job enrichment is not:
(a) Provide the opportunity for increased recognition (b) Providing the opportunity for growth
(c) Assigning more work (d) Providing opportunity for advancement
Ans: c
152. The study of leadership has focused primarily on three areas not including:
(a) Traits (b) Leadership behaviour (c) situational factors (d) Attitudes and
emotions
Ans: d
153. Democratic leadership is characterized by:
(a) Decentralization (b) two-way communication (c) Participation (d) All of these
Ans: d
154. Those who win the confidence of their followers by their superior knowledge are called:
(a) Intellectual leaders (b) Institutional leaders (c) Democratic leaders
(d) Creative leaders
Ans: a
155. The control function of management is performed by:
(a) Board of director (b) Foreman (c) President (d) Work manager
Ans: d
156. The two types of training program are:
(a) On the job and part time (b) Off the job and part time (c) On the job and off the job
(d) None of these
Ans: c
157. On the job training can be imparted by arranging training in any one of the following
ways, except:
(a) Special courses and lectures (b) Coaching on the Job (c) Rotating a person
from job to job (d) Specific apprenticeship
Ans: a
158. The interviews held for the selection of employees include the following types, except:
(a) Structured and direct interviews (b) Non- directive interviews (c) Aggressive
interviews
(d) Non-productive interviews
Ans: d
159. The only contribution of trait theory is through training and development programmes
management can develop qualities which ensure growth of:
(a) Market (b) Organization (c) Employees (d) Leadership
Ans: d
160. The ability to interact effectively with people and to build team work comes under:
(a) Conceptual skill (b) Human skill (c) Technical skill (d) Absolute skill
Ans: b
161. The technique in which groups sit together to generate new ideas is known as:
(a) Gordon (b) Synectics (c) Brain Storming (d) Simulation
Ans: c
162. The communication which takes place across department or between people within the
same department without having superior-subordinate relationship is known as:
(a) Horizontal communication (b) Vertical Communication (c) Downward communication

(d) Upward communication

Ans: a

163. At lowest level of Maslow’s organizational hierarchy comes:

(a) Physiological needs (b) Safety needs(c) Love and esteem needs (d) Self-actualization
needs
Ans: a
164. Stated objectives are the official statements generally found in the:
(a) Charters (b) Annual reports (c) Public relation (d) All of these
Ans: d
165. Following are the part of strategic level of planning, except:
(a) Identifying vision (b) Determining mission (c) Identification of companies
objectives
(d) Preparation of budgets
Ans: d
166. On the basis of its design, an organization can be classified into:
(a) Two types (b) Three types (c) Four types (d) Five types
Ans: a
167. Pyramid approach is followed in respect of:
(a) Horizontal organizational structure (b) Vertical organizational structure (c)Lateral
organizational structure (d) All of these
Ans: b
168. The systematic and consistent reservation of authority within the organization is termed
as:
(a) Decentralization (b) Specification (c) Centralization (d) Integration
Ans: c
169. The process of defining a problem, developing an alternative, undertaking an appraisal
and selecting a solution is called:
(a) Finding solution (b) Analyzing the process (c) developing the process
(d) Decision-making
Ans: d
170. The ability to evaluate information wisely is known as:
(a) Creativity (b) Experience (c) Judgment (d) Qualitative skill
Ans: c
Marketing
171. Marketing is both an “art” and “science” there is constant tension between the creative
side of marketing and the:
(a) Selling side (b) Formulated side (c) Management Side (d) Forecasting side
Ans: b
172. Information can be produced and marketed as a:
(a) Reality (b) Show (c) Service (d) Product
Ans: d
173. A marketer is someone seeking a response from another party, called the:
(a) Customer (b) Consumer (c) Prospect (d) Contributor
Ans: c
174. Companies selling mass consumer goods and services such as soft drinks, cosmetics, air
travel and equipment spend a great deal of time trying, to establish a superior brand image in the
markets called.
(a) Consumer markets (b) Service Markets (c) Product markets (d) Business markets
Ans: a
175. Rising promotion cost and shrinking profit margins are the result of:
(a) Globalization (b) Heightened competition (c) Privatization (d) Changing
technology
Ans: b
176. The concept that customers and businesses, if left alone, will ordinarily not buy enough
of the organization’s product is termed as:
(a) Marketing concept (b) Buying concept (c) Selling concept (d) Production concept
Ans: c
177. The marketing which can be seen as the development, design and implementation of
marketing programs, processes and activities that recognizes the breadth and interdependencies of
their efforts is termed as:
(a) Holistic marketing (b) Niche marketing (c) Supply-chain marketing (d) Relationship
marketing
Ans: a
178. Companies that practice both a reactive and proactive marketing-orientation are
implementing:
(a) External focus (b) Internal focus (c) Confrontation process (d) Total market
orientation
Ans: d
179. One of the traditional depictions of marketing activities is in term of the marketing mix or
four Ps. The four Ps are characterized as being:
(a) Purchasing, Production, Price and Place (b) Product, Price, Procurement and Promotion

(c) Product, Price, Promotion and Place (d) People, Product, Price and Place
Ans: c
180. Companies collect information on each customer’s past transactions, demographics,
psychographic and media and distribution preferences in order to form a:
(a) Sales network (b) Marketing network (c) Integrated network (d) Customers network
Ans: b
181. In order to understand the efficiency and effectiveness of marketing activities, the
necessary processes are marketing evaluation and:
(a) Analysis (b) Feedback (c) Control (d) Measurement
Ans: c
182. During market segmentation analysis, the marketer identifies which segments present the
greatest opportunity. These segments are called:
(a) Primary markets (b) Demographic markets (c) Focused markets (d) Target
markets
Ans: d
183. Product choice is greatly affected by economic circumstances. All of following would be
among those circumstances, except
(a) Occupation (b) Debts (c) Borrowing power (d) Spendable income
Ans: a
184. A set of distinguishing human psychological traits that lead to relatively consistent and
enduring responses to environmental stimuli is known as:
(a) Image (b) Beliefs (c) Personality (d) Action
Ans: c
185. In order to differentiate between dissatisfies and satisfiers, Fredrick Herzberg developed
a:
(a) Trait-role theory (b) Leadership Model (c) Probability scale (d) two-factor theory
Ans: d
186. At the top of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs are:
(a) Esteem needs (b) Self-actualization needs (c) Safety needs (d) Social needs
Ans: b

187. The buying process starts when the buyers recognize:

(a) An internal cue (b) An advertisement of the product (c) The product (d) A problem
or need
Ans: d
188. The three drivers of customer’s equity are:
(a) Value equity, brand equity and relationship equity (b) Revenue equity, quality equity and
product equity (c) Revenue equity, quality equity and quantity equity (d) Value equity,
quality equity and product equity
Ans: a
189. The ability of a company to meet each customer’s requirements to prepare on a mass
basis individually designed products, services, programs, and communications, referred to as:
(a) Individualization approach (b) Competitive advantage (c) Mass communication

(d)Proactive customer services

Ans: c
190. The first step in marketing research process is to:
(a) Define the problem and research objectives (b) Develop a research plan (c) Analyze the
internal environment (d) contract a professional consultant
Ans: a
191. Which of the following ways to measure market share would be seen as the company’s
sales expressed as a percentage of total market sales?
(a) Served market share (b) Relative market share (c) Overall market share
(d) Designed market share
 Ans: c
192. The firm operates in several market segments and designs different products for each
segment in:
(a) Segmented marketing (b) Demographical marketing (c) Differentiated marketing
(d) Separated marketing
Ans: c

193. The task of any business is to deliver:

(a) Customers value (b) Customers need (c) Products (d) Improved quality
Ans: a
194. In order to compare its own costs and performance, the firm should estimate its
competitor’s costs and performance as:
(a) Standards (b) Benchmark (c) Challenges (d) Competition
Ans: b
195. Three major challenges faced by businesses today are:
(a) Globalization, technological advancement and deregulation (b) Decentralization,
globalization and deregulation (c) Centralization, technological advancement and globalization
(d) Technological advancement, centralization and decentralization
Ans: a
HRM From Decenzo book
196. A process of interaction and integration among the people, companies, and governments
of different nations, driven by international trade and investment, accelerated by information
technology, is:
(a) International trade (b) Globalization (c) International business (d) None of
these
Ans: b
197. Individuals whose jobs are designed around the acquisition and application of
information are:
(a) Information seekers (b) Knowledge seekers (c) Knowledge workers (d) Knowledge
distributors
Ans: c
198. The process of moving jobs out of one country and in to another country, is?
(a) Globalization process (b) Intentional job opportunities (c) Employees estimate (d) Off-shoring
Ans: d
199. The transfer of ownership and control of one organization to another, is?
(a) Merger (b) Acquisition (c) Amalgamation (d) Joint venture
Ans: b
200. A set of rules or principles that defines right and wrong conduct, are?
(a) Ethics (b) Behavior (c) Action (4) Preception
Ans: a

201. Strategic human resource management:

(a) Aligns HR policies and decisions with the organizational strategy and mission.
 (b) Aligning HR policies and decisions with the other organizational strategy and mission.
(c) Both a & b (d) None of these
Ans: a
202. An activity in an organization aimed at creating greater efficiency by eliminating certain
jobs.
(a) Outsourcing (b) Rightsizing (c) Downsizing (d) Elimination
Ans: c