EXERCISE

Origin of life
1. A compound important in prebiotic evolution was
(A) SO2 (B) CH4 (C) SO3 (D) NO
2. Simple one-celled Cyanobacteria-like organisms developed on earth
(A) 5600 million years (B) 5000 million years (C) 4600 million years (D) 3600 million years
3. Which ones are the most essential for origin of life?
(A) Enzymes (B) Proteins (C) Carbohydrates (D) Nucleic acids
4. Approximate age of earth (in million years) is
(A) 3600 (B) 4600 (C) 7200 (D) 6000
5. Experiment to prove chemical basis of origin of life carried out by Urey and Miller used NH3 and
(A) H2O and H2 (B) H2, CH4 and H2O (C) CH4 and H2O (D) CH4 and O2
6. Theory of abiogenesis or spontaneous generation was finally disapproved by
(A) Louis Pasteur (B) A.I. Oparin (C) A.R. Wallace (D) Sidney Fox
7. Early atmosphere contained methane and other hydrocarbons. They have been now replaced by
(A) Nitrogen (B) Oxygen (C) Carbon dioxide (D) Hydrogen
8. Coacervates were experimentally produced by
(A) Oparin and Sidney Fox (B) Fischer and Huxley
(C) Jacob and Monad (D) Urey and Miller
9. Coacervates belong to the category of
(A) Protozoan
(B) Molecular aggregates
(C) Molecular aggregates surrounded by lipid membrane
(D) Cyanobacteria
10. Which of the following amino acids was not found to be synthesised in Miller’s experiment?
(A) Alanine (B) Glycine (C) Aspartic acid (D) Glutamic acid
11. Coacervates are
(A) Protein aggregates
(B) Protein and lipid aggregates
(C) Chemical aggregates
(D) Protobionts with polysaccharides, proteins and water
12. The first living form resulting from the final stage of chemical evolution of life is called
(A) Prebiont (B) Protobiont (C) Proteinoid (D) Probiont

Evidences of Evolution
13. Human hand, wing of bat and flipper of whale represent
(A) Analogous organs (B) Vestigial organs (C) Homologous organs (D) Evolutionary organs
14. Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeobotany is located in
(A) Lucknow (B) Delhi (C) Calcutta (D) Jodhpur
15. A connecting link between two phyla is
(A) Archaeopteryx-Aves and Mammalia (B) Amphioxus - Echinodermata and Chordata
(C) Peripetus - Annelida and Arthropoda (D) Orninthorhyncus - Aves and Reptilia
16. A vestigial organ in humans is
(A) Ear Pinna (B) Nictitating membrane
(C) Mammary glands in males (D) Knee bone
17. Wings of Bat, Locust and Pigeon are
(A) Vestigial organs (B) Exoskeletal structures
(C) Homologous organs (D) Analogous organs

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18. Adaptive similarities in animals of the same habitat constitute
(A) Adaptive radiation (B) Parallel evolution (C) Convergent evolution (D) Divergent evolution
19. Homologous organs show
(A) Divergent evolution (B) Convergent evolution(C) Parallel evolution (D) Both Band C
20. Fossils are studied for
(A) Tracing evolutionary history of organisms (B) Studying extinct organisms
(C) Filling gaps in our study (D) Providing jobs to scientists
21. Theory ‘Ontogeny recapitulates Phylogeny’ was proposed by
(A) Mendel (B) Haeckel (C) Erasmus Darwin (D) Weismann
22. A bird with teeth is
(A) Kiwi (B) Ostrich/King Vulture (C) Dodo (D) Archaeopteryx
23. Living organism with oldest fossil history is
(A) Dinosaur (B) Archaeopteryx (C) Horse (D) Man
24. Origin of life occurred in
(A) Carboniferous (B) Cambrian (C) Pre-Cambrian (D) Ordovician
(E) Silurian
25. Tasmanian Wolf is a marsupial while Wolf is a placental mammal. This shows
(A) Convergent evolution (B) Divergent evolution
(C) Parallelism (D) Inheritance of acquired characters
26. Similarities between organisms of different genotypes is due to
(A) Convergent evolution (B) Divergent evolution (C) Microevolution (D) Macroevolution
27. Which of the following is not atavistic in humans?
(A) Tail in some babies (B) Enlarged canines (C) Six fingers (D) Dense body hair
28. Darwin’s finches occur in
(A) Australia (B) Galapagos Islands (C) Siberia (D) India
29. Dinosaurs were dominant features during the period of
(A) Jurassic (B) Cretaceous (C) Triassic (D) Palaeocene
30. Archaeopteryx, toothed fossil bird occurred during
(A) Jurassic (B) Triassic (C) Cretaceous (D) Permian
31. Archaeopteryx is connecting link between
(A) Fishes and amphibians (B) Amphibians and birds
(C) Amphibians and reptiles (D) Reptiles and birds
32. Which is sequenced during study of phylogeny?
(A) m RNA (B) r RNA (C) t RNA (D) DNA
33. Mesozoic era was dominated by
(A) Birds (B) Fishes (C) Reptiles (D) Mammals
34. Wings of bird and bat are
(A) Homologous with no analogy (B) Analogous with no homology
(C) Neither homologous nor analogous (D) Both homologous and analogous
35. Age of fossils was previously determined by radioactive elements. More precise recent method which has
led to revision of evolutionary periods is
(A) Study of carbohydrate and protein in fossils
(B) Study of conditions of fossilisation
(C) Electrons spin resonance and fossil DNA
(D) Presence of carbohydrate and protein in rocks
36. Potato and Sweet Potato have edible parts which are
(A) Homologous (B) Analogous
(C) Recent introductions (D) Two species of the same genus

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37. According to Darwinism, fossils of organisms found in South America resemble fossils of
(A) North America (B) Africa (C) Australia (D) Both B and C
38. What is correct arrangement of periods of Palaeozoic era in ascending order in geological time scale ?
(A) Cambrian  Devonian  Ordovician  Silurian  Carboniferous  Permian
(B) Cambrian  Ordovician  Silurian  Devonian  Carboniferous  Permian
(C) Cambrian  Ordovician  Devonian  Silurian  Carboniferous  Permian.
(D) Silurian  Devonian  Cambrian  Ordovician  Permian  Carboniferous
39. Jurassic period of Mesozoic era is characterized by
(A) Flowering plants and first dinosaurs appear
(B) Gymnosperms are dominant plants and first birds appear
(C) Radiation of reptiles and angiosperms appear
(D) Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms appear
40. Platypus is connecting link Duck-billed between
(A) Echinodermata and chordata (B) Arthropoda and mollusca
(C) Reptilia and Mammalia (D) Reptilia and Aves
41. Tendrils of Cucurbita and thorns of Bougainvillea are
(A) Homologous organs (B) Analogous organs (C) Vestigial organs (D) Atavistic divergence
42. What is common to Whale, Seal and Shark
(A) Homeoothermy (B) Seasonal migration
(C) Thick subcutaneous fat (D) Convergent evolution
43. Connecting link between Annelida and mollusca is
(A) Nautilus (B) Neopelina (C) Glochidium larva (D) Velliger larva
44. Mass extinction at the end of Mesozoic era was probably caused by
(A) Continental drift (B) Massive glaciation
(C) Collision of earth with large meteorite (D) Change in earth’s orbit
45. Tachyglossus is connecting link between
(A) Reptiles and mammals (B) Reptiles and birds
(C) Amphibians and reptiles (D) Birds and mammals
46. As per Allen’s rule, mammals of cold regions conserve body heat through
(A) Larger body mass (B) Small body mass (C) Longer extremities (D) Smaller extremities
47. A living connecting link that provides evidence of organic evolution is
(A) Sphenodon between reptiles and birds (B) Archaeopteryx between reptiles and birds
(C) Lung fishes between Pisces and reptiles
(D) Duck-billed Platypus between reptiles and mammals

Human Evolution
48. Cranial capacity of Homo erectus was
(A) 1650 cc (B) 1400 cc
(C) 800 - 1300 cc (D) 6500 cc
49. Which is correct order in evolutionary history of man
(A) Peking Man  Habilus Man  Neanderthal man  Cro-Magnon Man
(B) Peking man  Heidelberg man  Neanderthal man  Cro-Magnon Man
(C) Peking Man  Neanderthal man  Homo sapiens  Heidelberg Man
(D) Peking Man  Homo sapiens  Neanderthal man  Cro-Magnon Man
50. Cro-Magnon Man differs from Neanderthal man in having
(A) Brachiasm (B) Smaller jaws (C) Larger jaws (D) Cannibalism
51. There are two opposing views about origin of modern man. According to one view Homo erectus in Asia was
ancestor of modern man. A study of variations of DNA , however suggested African origin of modern man.
What kind of observation on DNA variations could suggest this
(A)Greater variation in Asia than in Africa (B) Greater variation in Africa than in Asia
(C) Similar variation in Africa and Asia (D) Variation only in Asia and no variation in Africa.

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52. Which of the following statement is correct about Cro-Magnon Man ?
(A) Cro-Magnon man is an advanced stage of man’s evolution more advanced than Homo erectus
(B) Predecessor of Homo neanderthalensis.
(C) Direct ancestor of modern man
(D) Cro-Magnon man lived during last ice age

53. The earliest hominids that evolved more than four million years ago were
(A) Homo erectus (B) Australopithecus (C) Cro-Magnon Man (D) Neanderthal Man

54. Gene pool of a population tends to remain stable if the population is large,' without large scale mutations,
without migration and with
(A) Random mating (B) Moderate environmental changes
(C) Natural selection (D) Reduction in predators

55. Naturalist who sailed round the world in ship Beagle was
(A) CharIes Lyell (B) Charles Darwin (C) Alfred Wallace (D) Lamarck

56. Evolution is
(A) Reproduction isolation (B) Modification and speciation
(C) Variation (D) Somatic mutation and genetic recombination

57. What is correct

(A) Lamarck's theory- struggle for existence
(B) Biogenetic law- Recapitulation theory
(C) Lamarck's theory-Theory of continuity of germplasm
(D) Darwin's theory- Use and disuse of organs.

58. Mutation theory cannot explain

(A) Mimicry (B) Industrial melanism (C) Connecting link (D) Living fossils.

59. New species develop due to

(A) Isolation and mutation (B) Competition and mutation
(C) Isolation and competition (D) Isolation and variation
(5) Competition and variation.

60. "Human population grows III geometric ratio while food materials increase in arithmetic proportion." It is a
statement from
(A) Darwin (B) Bateson (C) Amritya Sen (D) Malthus
(E) Swaminathan

61. Transfer of genes from one gene pool to another is

(A) Genetic drift (B) Gene flow (C) Speciation (D) Mutation.

62. In Lederberg's replica plating, streptomycin resistant strain can develop by using
(A) Minimal medium and streptomycine (B) Complete medium and streptomycine
(C) Only minimal medium (D) Only complete medium.

63. Different species occurring in different geographical areas are known as

(A) Allopatric (B) Sympatric (C) Sibling species (D) Deme

64. Formation of new species from pre-existing ones is

(A) Mutation (B) Speciation (C) Isolation (D) Polyploidy.

65. Recombination of genes occurs at

(A) Prophase of mitosis (B) Prophase I of meiosis
(C) Metaphase II of meiosis (D) Prophase II of meiosis.

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66. In which condition gene ratio remains constant in a species
(A) Gene flow (B) Mutation (C) Random mating (D) Sexual selection.

67. Dark coloured Peppered Moth is able to survive in industrial areas as compared to light coloured form
because of
(A) High fecundity (B) Mimicry
(C) Natural selection in smoky environment (D) Lethal mutation.

68. According to Lamarckism long necked Giraffes evolved because

(A) Nature selected only long necked animals
(B) Of stretching of necks by short one over many generations
(C) Humans preferred long necked animals
(D) Mutation

69. Which one supports Darwin's concept of natural selection?

(A) Development of transgenic animals
(B) Production of Dolly sheepby cloning
(C) Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects
(D) Development of organs from stem cells for organ transplantation

70. Using imprints from a culture plate having bacterial colonies, you can select,streptomycin resistant mutants
and prove that such mutations do not originate as adaptation. The inprints need to be inoculated on
(A) Plates with and without streptomycin (B) Plates with minimal medium
(C) Plates with, streptomycin (D) Plates without streptomycin

71. Match the columns

Column -  Column - 
(i) Darwin (i) Use and disuse theory
(ii) Lamarck (ii) Origin of species
(iii) Hugo De Vries (iii) Origin of life
(iv) A.I. Oparin (iv) Mutation theory
(A) (i)-(ii), (ii)-(i), (iii)-(i), (iv)-(iii) (B) (i)-(i), (ii)-(ii), (iii)-(iii), (iv)-(iv)
(C) (i)-(ii), (ii)-(iii), (iii)-(iv), (iv)-(i) (D) (i)-(iv), (ii)-(i), (iii)-(ii), (iv)-(iii)

72. Two species occupying same or overlapping area are

(A) Allopatric (B) Sympatric (C) Parapatric (D) Peripatric

73. According to Neo Darwinism, evolution is due to

(A) Gene flow (B) Change in gene structure
(C) Change in size of gene pool (D) Change in gene frequency

74. Best description of natural selection is

(A) Survival of the fittest
(B) Struggle for existence
(C) Change in proportion of variationswithin a population
(D) Reproductive success of the member of a population best adapted to the environment.

75. To Cuvier, the differences in fossils from different strata were evidences for
(A) Divine creation (B) Evolution by natural selection
(C) Local catastrophic events (D) Continental drift.

76. Struggle for existence and survival of the fittest theories were proposed hy
(A) Darwin (B) Lamarck (C) Wallace (D) None of the above

77. Whichis related to evolution

(A) Reproduction (B) Competition (C) Variations (D) Extinction.

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78. Which one is the important consequence of geographical isolation
(A) Preventing speciation
(B) Speciation through reproductive isolation
(C) Random creation of new species
(D) No change in isolated fauna.

79. An example of reproductive isolation is

(A) Mule (B) Bonellia (C) Dinosaurs (D) Archeopteryx

80. Genetic drift operates in

(A) Large isolated population (B) Small isolated population
(C) Fast reproductive population (D) Slow reproductive population

81. Match the columns and find out the correct combination
(a) Charles Darwin 1. Mutation theory
(b) Lamarck 2. Germplasm theory
(c) Hugo de Vries 3. philosophic
Zoolozique
(d) Ernst Haecker 4. Origin of species
(e) Weisniimn 5. Biogenetic law
(f) 6. Essay on population
(A) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-5, e-2 (B) a-4, b-3, c-5, d-1, e-6
(C) a-4, b-2, c-5, d-3, e-1 (D) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-5, e-6

82. Whose doctrine influenced Charles Darwin to formulate theory of natural selection?
(A) Malthus (B) Haldane (C) Hardy Weinberg (D) Sewall Wright

83. Which one is not an artificial selection?

(A) Shetland pony (B) Great dane dog (C) Arabian race horse (D) Peppered Moth

84. Crocodile and Penguin are similar to Whale and Dogfish in which one of the following features
(A) Have gill slits at some stage
(B) Possess a solid single stranded central nerovous system
(C) Lay eggs and guard them till they hatch
(D) Possess bony skeleton.
85. What was the most significant trend in evolution of modern man (Homosapiens) from his ancestors ?
(A) Upright posture (B) Shortening of jaws (C) Binocular vision (D) lncreasing brain capacity

KVPY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

1. A gene has two alleles ‘A’ and ‘a’ with a frequency of p and q respectively the genotypic frequencies would
have the proportion :
(KVPY_2007_SB)
(A) (p + q)2 = 1 (B) p2 – q2 – 1 (C) pq = 1/2 (D) (p – q)2 = 1

2. ‘Camoulflage and Mimicry are adaptations in animals. Which of the following statement is NOT correct ?
(KVPY_2007_SB)
(A) Camouflaging represents the ability of the animal to blend with surrounding.
(B) Mimicry means one specie imitates or resembles another species to gain some benefit.
(C) Mimicry helps to escape from predators
(D) Camouflaging is only meant for desert animals.

3. The dinosaurs became extinct at the end of the following period : (KVPY_2008_SB)
(A) Cambrian (B) Cretaceous (C) Ordovician (D) Silurian

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4. Charles Darwin’s Theory of natural selection was heavily influenced by : (KVPY_2008_SB)
(A) Thomas Malthus “An Essay on the Principle of Population”
(B) Jean-Bapiste Lamark “Philosophie Zoologique”
(C) Issac Newton “Principia”
(D) Gregor Mendel “Experiments on Plant Hybridization”

5. Identify the evolutionarily related proteins : (KVPY_2008_SB)

(A) Pepsin & Papain (B) Collagen & Collagenase
(C) Myoglobin & Hemoglobin (D) Lysozyme & Ribozyme

6. During development, unspecified cells become cells having unique functions. This process is called :
(KVPY_2009_SB)
(A) evolution (B) differentiation (C) translation (D) replication
7. A horse has 64 chromosomes and a donkey has 62. Mules result from crossing a horse and donkey. State
which of the following is INCORRECT? (KVPY_2010_SB)
(A) Mules can have either 64, 63 or 62 chromosomes
(B) Mules are infertile
(C) Mules have well defined gender (male/female)
(D) Mules have 63 chromosomes

8. If you compare adults of two herbivore species of different sizes, but from the same geographical area, the
amount of faeces produced per kg body weight would be (KVPY_2010_SB)
(A) More in the smaller one than the larger one (B) More in the larger one than the smaller one
(C) Roughly the same amount in both (D) Not possible to predict which would be more

9. Modern evolutionary theory consists of the concepts of Darwin modified by knowledge concerning :
(A) population statistics (KVPY_2011_SB)
(B) Mendel's laws
(C) the idea of the survival of the fittest
(D) competition

10. Rodents can distinguish between many different types of odours. The basis for odour discrimination is
that (KVPY_2011_SB)
(A) they have a small number of odorant receptors that bind to many different odorant molecules
(B) the mechanoreceptors in the nasal cavity are activated by different odorant molecules found in the
air passing through the nostrils
(C) the part of the brain that processes the sense of smell has many different receptors for odorant
molecules
(D) a large number of different chemoreceptors are present in the nasal cavity that binds a variety of
odorant molecules

11. Modern evolutionary theory consists of the concepts of Darwin modified by knowledge concerning :
(A) population statistics (KVPY_2011_SB)
(B) Mendel's laws
(C) the idea of the survival of the fittest
(D) competition

12. Fossils are most often found in which kind of rocks ? (KVPY_2012_SB)
(A) meteorites (B) sedimentary rocks
(C) igneous rocks (D) metamorphic rocks

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13. Insects constitute the largest animal group on earth. About 25-30% of the insect species are known to be
herbivores. In spite of such huge herbiore perssure, globally, green plants have persisted. One possible
reason for this persistence is : (KVPY_2012_SB)
(A) food preference of insects has tended to change with time
(B) herbivore insects have become inefficient feeders of green plants
(C) herbivore population has been kept in control by predators
(D) decline in reproduction of herbivores with time

14. Species that are most effective at colonising new habitats show (KVPY_2013_SB)
(A) low reproductive ability (B) high dispersal ability
(C) slow growth and maturation (D) high competitive ability

15. In a large isolated population, alleles p and q at a locus are at Hardy Weinberg equilibrium. The frequencies
are p = 0.6 and q = 0.4. The proportion of the heterozygous genotype in the population is (KVPY_2013_SB)
(A) 0.24 (B) 1 (C) 0.48 (D) 0.12

16. The figure below demonstrates the growth curves of two organisms A and B growing in the same area. What
kind of relation exists between A and B? (KVPY_2013_SB)

organism A only
Increase in biomass

organism B only

organism B in presence of A
organism A in presence of B

Time
(A) Competition (B) Symbiosis (C) Commensalisms (D) Mutualism

17. In some species, individuals forego reproduction and help bring up another individual’s offspring. Such altruistic
behaviour CANNOT be explained by which of the following? (KVPY_2013_SB)
(A) An individual helps relatives only and gets indirect genetic benefits.
(B) The individual benefits because it can later inherit the breeding position.
(C) The individual benefits because it gets access to resources, such as food and security from predators, in
return.
(D) The species benefits from a reduction in competition among offspring

18. Lions in India are currently restricted to Gir, Gujarat. Efforts are being made to move them to other parts of
the country. This is because they are MOST susceptible to extinction due to infectious diseases under the
following conditions when present as (KVPY_2013_SB)
(A) several small, isolated populations (B) one large population
(C) several large, connected populations (D) several large, isolated populations

19. Forelimbs of whales,bats,humans and cheetah are examples of which of the following processes?
(KVPY_2014_SB)
(A) Divergent evolution (B) Convergent evolution (C) Adaptation (D) Saltation

KVPY_SX_ZOOLOGY # 253
 EXERCISE
1 (B) 2 (D) 3 (D) 4 (B) 5 (B)
6 (A) 7 (C) 8 (A) 9 (B) 10 (D)
11 (D) 12 (B) 13 (C) 14 (A) 15 (C)
16 (B) 17 (D) 18 (C) 19 (A) 20 (B)
21 (B) 22 (D) 23 (C) 24 (C) 25 (A)
26 (A) 27 (C) 28 (B) 29 (A) 30 (B)
31 (D) 32 (D) 33 (C) 34 (D) 35 (C)
36 (B) 37 (D) 38 (B) 39 (B) 40 (C)
41 (A) 42 (D) 43 (B) 44 (C) 45 (A)
46 (D) 47 (D) 48 (C) 49 (B) 50 (B)
51 (B) 52 (C) 53 (B) 54 (A) 55 (B)
56 (B) 57 (B) 58 (D) 59 (A) 60 (D)
61 (B) 62 (B) 63 (A) 64 (B) 65 (B)
66 (C) 67 (C) 68 (B) 69 (C) 70 (C)
71 (A) 72 (B) 73 (D) 74 (D) 75 (C)
76 (D) 77 (C) 78 (B) 79 (A) 80 (B)
81 (A) 82 (A) 83 (D) 84 (A) 85 (D)

KVPY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (C)

6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (D)
11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (C)
16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (A)

KVPY_SX_ZOOLOGY # 254