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EXERCISE

1. An insect bite may result in inflammation of that spot. This is triggered by the alarm chemicals such as
(A) Histamine and dopamine (B) Histamine and kinins
(C) Interferons and opsonin (D) Interferons and histones
2. What is introduced in polio vaccination
(A) Antibodies (B) Antigen (C) Antibiotics (D) Bacteriostatic agent
3. Suspension of killed or attenuated pathogenic micro- organisms on inoculation if stimulate the formation of
antibodies, it is known as
(A) Vaccine (B) Antibiotic (C) Sera (D) Antitoxins
4. Vaccination against small pox means the introduction into our body, of
(A) Leucocytes obtained from animal (B) Antibodies produced in other animals
(C) Antibodies (D) Actual weakened germs or attenuated small pox virus
5. Inflammatory response in allergy is caused by the release one of the following by mast cells
(A) Histamines (B) Antibodies (C) Antigen (D) None of them
6. Which of the following organs is not involved in elicitation of immune response
(A) Brain (B) Lymph nodes (C) Spleen (D) Thymus
7. Passive immunity is defined as immunity
(A) Inherited frifrh the parents
(B) Achieved through vaccination
(C) Acquired through first exposure to the disease
(D) Achieved through the sera of other animals enriche antibodies
8. Column I lists the components of body defense and column II lists the corresponding descriptions. Match the
two columns. Choose the correct option from those given
Column I Column II
(a) Active natural immunity (p) Injection of gamma globulins
(b) First line of defense q (q) Complement proteins and interferons
(c) Passive natural immunity r (r) Direct contact with the pathogens that have entered inside
(d) Second line of defense (s) Surface barriers
(t) Antibodies transferred through the placenta
(A) a = s, b = r, c = t, d = q (B) a = r, b = s, c = q, d =t
(C) a = r, b = s, c = t, d = q (D) a = t, b = r, c = q, d =p
9. The treatment of snake-bite by antivenine is an example of
(A) Artificiallyacquired active immunity
(B) Artificiallyacquired passive immunity
(C) Naturally acquired passive immunity
(D) Specific natural immunity
10. Allergens are
(A) Infectious and increased secretion of IgE
(B) Non-infectious and increased secretions of IgE
(C) Infectious and increased secretion of IgG
(D) Non-infectious and increased secretion of IgM
11. Which one of the following diseases is due to an allergic reaction
(A) Enteric fever (B) Hay fever (C) Skin cancer (D) Goitre
12. Cyanosis refers to
(A) Bluish colouration of the body (B) Reddish colouration of the body
(C) Pale colouration of the body (D) Goose flesh of the body
13. Which disease in children is caused by intensive use of nitrate fertiliser
(A) Jaundice (B) Methemoglobinemia (C) Mumps (D) Septicemia
14. Kwashiorkar disease develops due to
(A) Malnutrition (B) Over-eating (C) Catalysis (D) Mutation

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15. Match the names of disease listed under column I with meanings given under column II, choose the answer
which gives the correct combination of the alphabets of the columns.
Column I Column II
(Name of disease) (Meanings)
(a) - Jaundice (p) - Allergic inflammation of nose
(b) - Stenosis (q) - Loss of motor functions
(c) - Rhinitis (r) - Heart valve defect
(d) - Paralysis (s) - Increase in bile pigments in the blood
(t) - Septal defect of heart
(A) a = q; b = t; c = r; d = P (B) a = s; b= p: c = q; d = r
(C) a = s; b = r; c = p; d = q (D) a = s; b = t; c = p; d = q
16. Which of the following organisms is known to form abscesses in human liver, lungs, brain etc.
(A) Entamoeba histolytica (B) Monocystis
(C) Plasmodium (D) Fasciola hepatica
17. Filaria, malaria, dengue fever, sleeping sickness, yellow fever are transmitted by
(A) Mosquitoes (B) House flies
(C) Insects (D) Bacteria
18. A person is suffering from frequent episodes of nasal discharge, nasal congestion, reddening of eyes and
watery eyes. These are the symptoms of
(A) Cyanosis (B) Bronchitis
(C) Rhinitis (D) Bronchial carcinoma
19. 'Haemophilia'disease is caused due to lack of
(A) ADH (B) STH
(C) AHF (D) ACTH
20. A condition of failure of function of kidney to form urine is
(A) Creatinine (B) Hematuria
(C) Anuria (D) Alkaptoneuria
21. 'Asthama'is due to
(A) Infectionof trachea (B) Infectionof lungs
(C) Bleedinginto pleural cavity (D) Spasm in bronchial muscles
22. Symptoms of oedema is
(A) Swelling of body part especially the legs (B) Pain in the chest
(C) Cold (D) Pain in the right leg
23. Cushing's syndrome which is characterised by wasting of limb muscles and accumulation of fat in the trunk
region is due to hypersecretion of
(A) Corticosteroid (B) Adrenalin
(C) Progesterone (D) Adrenocorticotropin
24. Study the following lists
List-I List-II
(a) Pasteurella pestis (I) Angular leaf spot of cotton
(b) Treponema pallidum (II) Amphoterican
(c) Mycobacterium bovis (III) Actinomycosis of cattle
(d) Streptomyces nodosus (IV) Syphilis
(V) Plague
The correct match is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) IV I II lII
(B) II III IV V
(C) V IV lII II
(D) III II I IV
25. 'Bacillary dysentery' is caused by
(A) Salmonella (B) Shigella (C) Proteus (D) Entamoeba

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26. Matchthe disease in Column I with the appropriate items (pathogen/prevention/treatment) in Column II
Column l Column ll
(a) Amoebiasis (i) Treponema pallidum
(b) Diphtheria (ii) Use only sterilized food and water
(c) Cholera (iii) DPT Vaccine
(d) Syphilis (iv) Use ovel rehydration
(A) a-(ii), b-(i),c-(iii),d-(iv) (B) a-(ii), b-(iii),c-(iv),d-(i)
(C) a-(i), b-(ii),c-(iii),d-(iv) (D) a-(ii), b-(iv},c-(i),d-(iii)
27. BCG vaccine is given against
(A) Typhoid (B) Cholera (C) TB (D) Diphtheria
28. Match the following
A Leishmania donovani p. Malaria
B. Wuchereria bancrofti q. Amoebiasis
C. Trypanosoma gambiense r. Kala azar
D. Entamoeba histolytica s. Sleeping sickness
t. Filariasis
(A) J-s,B-r,C-q,D-p (B) A-r,B-s,C-t,D-t
(C) A-r,B-t,C-s,D-q (D) A-r,B-t,C-q,D-p
29. The vector of 'break bone fever' is
(A) Culex (B) Aedes (C) Anopheles (D) None of these
30. The Minimata disease in Japan was caused through pollution of water by
(A) Lead (B)Mercury (C) Cyanide (D) Methyl isocyanate
31. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched
(A))"HYperthyroidism - exophthalmaic goitre (B) Hypercortisolism - Cretinism
(C) Hypothyroidism - myxoedema (D) Hypercortisolism - Cushing's syndrome
32. An example of Pasteur effect is......
(A) Penicillium (B) Pinnularia (C) Saccharomyces (D) Nostoc
33. Which of the following symptoms indicate red sickness
(A) Red and ulcerated skin (B) Nausea and anaemia
(C) Nausea and loss of hair (D) Ulcerated skin, nausea and loss of hair
34. Which one of the following is a protein deficiency disease
(A) Eczema (B) Cirrhosis (C) Kwashiorkar (D) Nightblindness
35. Jaundice is a disease of the
(A) Pancreas (B) Liver (C) Duodenum (D) Kidney
36. Which one of the following correctly matches a sexually transmitted disease with its pathogen -
(A) Urethritis -Bacillus anthracis (B) Soft sore - Bacillus brevis
(C) Syphillis - Treponema pallidum (D) Gonorrhoea - Entamoeba histolytica
37. Which of the following is not a water born disease
(A) Asthma (B) Cholera (C) Amoebiasis (D) None of these
38. Which of the following glands is enlarged in malaria
(A) Pancreas (B) Liver (C) Spleen (D) All of these
39. Thalidomide is a non-barbiturate sedative drug which was to be given to pregnant women. Its use was
withdrawn in 1961 because it resulted in phocomelia. This addition illustrates
(A) Early abortion of foetus (B) Poor development of foetus
(C) Malformation of foetus (D) Erythroblastosis foetalis
40. The disease due to inflammation of vermiform appendix of the digestive system is known as
(A) Amoebic dysentery (B) Appendicitis (C) Intestinal cancer (D) Appendectomy
41. 'Enterobiasis' disease is caused by
(A) Filaria worm (B) Hook worm (C) Pin worm (D) Round worm

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42. 'Leprosy' is caused by
(A) Mycobacterium (B) Salmonella (C) Monocystis (D) TMV
43. 'Glossina palpalis' is a vector for
(A) Dengue (B) Filariasis (C) Gambian fever (D) Plague
44. 'Chicken pox' is caused by
(A) Adeno virus (B) Varicella virus (C) SV-40 virus (D) Bacteriophage T-2
45. 'Denguefever' is caused by
(A) Bacteria (B) Plasmodium (C) Virus (D) Entamoeba histolytica
46. Filarial larva can be collected from man's
(A) Smears of intestinal contents (B) Peripheral blood at midnight
(C) Smears of spleen (D) Biopsy of liver
47. A metastatic cancerous tumour is termed 'sarcoma’ if the disorder is in
(A) Immune system (B) Epithelial cells (C) Fibroblasts (D) Circulatory system
48. The main reason why antibiotics could not solve all the problems of bacteria mediated diseases is
(A) Insensitivity of the individual following prolonged exposure to antibiotics
(B) Inactivation of antibiotics by bacterial enzymes
(C) Decreased efficiency of the immune system
(D) The development of mutant strains resistant to antibiotics
49. A cell-coded protein that is formed in response to infection with most animal viruses is called
(A) Antigen (B) Interferon (C) Histone (D) Antibody
50. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched
(A) Dengue fever - Arbovirus (B) Plague - Yersinia pestis
(C) Syphilis - Trichuris trichiura (D) Sleeping sickness - Trypanosoma gambiense
51. Which one of the following causes plague
(A) Salmonella typhimurum (B) Trichinella spiralis
(C) Yersinia pestis (D) Leishmania donovani
52. Which one of the following is a pair of viral disease
(A) Tetanus and typhoid (B) Syphillis and AIDS
(C) Whooping cough and sleeping sickness (D) Measles and rabies
53. In human beings retrovirus is considered as a cause of cancer because
(A) In their genome oncogene is present
(B) Their hereditary material made up of single stranded RNA
(C) They have a gene for reverse transcryptase
(D) In their genome there may be cellulor proto oncogene
54. Sensitivity to any allergen is related to
(A) Deviation from the process of immunity (B) Age of the person
(C) Eating habit (D) Rise in environmental temperature
55. Passive immunity was discovered by
(A) Robert Koch (B) L. Pasteur (C) Edward Jenner (D) Eemil Von Behring
56. Cholera patient is administrated by 'saline drip' because
(A) Na+ ions are essential for the transport of substances across the membrane
(B) Na+ ions are helpful to conserving water in the body
(C) CI- ions are helpful in the formation HCI for digestion
(D) CI- ions is significant component of blood plasma
57. Which of the following will be curable in next two decades
(A) Cancer (B) Poliomyelitis (C) Tuberculosis (D) None of these
58. Which of the following disease is now considered nearly eradicated from India
(A) Plague (B) Kala azar (C) Small pox (D) Poliomyelitis

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59. Diphtheria is caused by
(A) Bacteria (B) Virus (C) Nematodes (D) None of these
60. Which type of cancer is found in lymph nodes and spleen
(A) Carchroma (B) Sarcoma (C) Leukaemia (D) Lymphoma
61. Which of the following is not correctly matched
(A) Aedes aegypti Yellow fever (B) Anopheles culifacies Leismaniasis
(C) Glossina palpalis Sleeping sickness (D) Culex pipiens Filariasis
62. The bacterium (Clostridium botulinum) that causes botulism is
(A) Afacultative aerobe (B) An-obligate aerobe
(C) Afacultative anaerobe (D) An obligate anaerobe
63. Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases
(A) Ringworm, AIDS (B) Common Cold, AIDS
(C) Dysentery, common cold (D) Typhoid, Tuberculosis
64. A person Iikey to develop tetanus is immunized administering
(A) Dead germs (B) Preformed antibodies
(C) Wide spectrum antibiotics (D) weakened germs
65. Which one of the following statement is correct
(A) Patients who have undergone surgery are cannabinoids to relieve pain
(B) Benign tumours show the property of metastasis
(C) Heroin accelerates body functions
(D) Malignant tumours may exhibit metastasis
66. Consider the following four statements (a-d) regarding kidney transplant and select the two correctones out
of these.
(a) Even if a kidney transplant is proper the recipient may need to take immunosuppresants for a long time
(b) The cell-mediated immune response is responsible for the graft regection
(c) The B- lymphocytes are responsible for rejection of the graft
(d) The acceptance or rejection of a kidney transplant depends on specific interferons
The two correct statements are
(A) (c) and (d) (B) (a) and (c) (C) (a) and (b) (D) (b) and (c)
67. Ringworm is humans is caused by
(A) Fungi (B) Nematodes (C) Viruses (D) Bacteria
68. Widal test is used for the diagnosis of
(A) Pneumonia (B) Tuberculosis (C) Typhoid (D) Malaria
69. Which one of the following option gives the correct matching of a disease with its causative organism and
mode mode of infection.

Dise a se Ga usa tive Orga nism s Mode of Infe ction


(A) Typhoid Salmonella typhi W ith inspirad air
(B) Pneumonia Sreptococcus pneumoniae Droplet infection
(C) Elephantiasis W uchereria bancrofti infected water and food
(D) Malaria Plasmodium vivax Bite of male anopheles mosquito

70. Common cold is not cured by antibiotics because it is


(A) caused by a virus (B) caused by a Gram-positive bacterium
(C) caused by a Gram-negative bacterium (D) not an infectious disease
71. Select the correct statement with respect to diseases and immunisation :
(A) If due to some reason B-and T-lymphocytes are damaged, the body will not produce antibodies against
a pathogen
(B) Injection of dead / inactivated pathogens causes passive immunity
(C) Certain protozoans have been used to mass produce hepatitis B vaccine.
(D) Injection of snake antivenom against snake bite is an example of active immunisation

KVPY_SX_ZOOLOGY # 268
KVPY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
1. The hypersensitive reaction in response to a type I allergen which produces characteristic symptoms is
described as allergic response. Which of the following immunoglobulin is mostly involved in this type of
cellular response ? [KVPY_2007_SB]
(A) IgA (B) IgM (C) IgD (D) IgE

2. Water contaminated with Vibrio cholerae can be made potable [KVPY_2007_SB]


(A) By boiling alone (B) By passing through filter
(C) By treating with chloride (D) By freezing the water

3. A patient suffering from splenomegaly undergoes splenectomy. Which of the following processes will be
affected ? [KVPY_2007_SB]
(A) RBC production will be stopped (B) Removal of old RBC will be impaired
(C) Decreases in antibody production (D) Generation of B cells will be stopped

4. Exclusion of the thymus, the primary lymphoid organs in mammals, results in severe immunodeficiency.
This due to the absence of the following in the peripheral circulation. [KVPY_2007_SB]
(A) All nature leucocytes (B) Mature T and B cells
(C) Mature T cells (D) Mature B cells

5. ELISA, the standard screening test for HIV, detects which of the following ? [KVPY_2009_SB]
(A) HIV DNA (B) HIV RNA
(C) HIV proteins (D) Antibodies to HIV proteins

6. The condition varicose veins in swelling of veins, that occurs due to : [KVPY_2009_SB]
(A) loss of elasticity of the muscular layer (B) condition of high blood pressure
(C) condition of low blood pressure (D) condition of anoxia

7. The abnormal development of which of the following lymphoid organs would result in the most severe
immunodeficiency ? [KVPY_2009_SB]
(A) Spleen (B) Thymus (C) Tonsil (D) Lymph node

8. When a person is suffering form high fever, it is sometimes observed that the skin has a reddish tinge. Why
does this happen? [KVPY_2010_SB]
(A) Red colour of the skin radiates more heat
(B) fever causes the release of a red pigment in the skin
(C) There is more blood circulation to the skin to keep the body warm
(D) There is more blood circulation to the skin to release heat from the body
9. Saline drip is given to a Cholera patient because [KVPY_2011_SB]
(A) NACl kills Vibrio cholera
(B) NACl generates ATP
(C) Na+ ions stops nerve impulse and hence sensation of pain
(D) Na+ ions help in retention of water in body tissue

10. Vibrio cholerae causes cholera in humans. Ganga water was once used successfully to combat the infection.
The possible reason could be - (KVPY SB-SX_2012)
(A) high salt content of Ganga water
(B) low salt content of Ganga water
(C) presence of bacteriophages in Ganga water
(D) presence of antibiotics in Ganga water

11. The disorders that arise when the immune system destroys 'self' cells are called autoimmmune disorders.
Which of the following would be classified under this (KVPY SB-SX_2012)
(A) rheumatoid arthritis (B) asthma (C) rhintis (D) eczema

12. Which of the following class of immunoglobulins can trigger the complement cascade ? (KVPY SB-SX_2012)
(A) IgA (B) IgM (C) IgD (D) IgE

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13. Which of the following biological phenomenon involves a bacteriophage ? (KVPY-SB_2012)
(A) transformation (B) conjugation (C) translocation (D) transduction

14. When a person begins to fast, after some time glycogen stored in the liver is mobilized as a source of
glucose. Which of the following graphs best represents the change of glucose level (y-axis) in his blood,
starting from the time (x-axis) when he begins to fast ? [KVPY_2012_SB]

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

15. Immunosuppressive drugs like cyclosporine delay the rejection of graft post organ transplantation by
[KVPY 2015 SX] [1 Mark]
(A) inhibiting T cell infiltration (B) Killing B cells
(C) Killing microphages (D) Killing dendritic cells

16. Following are the types of immunoglobulin and their functions. Which one of the Following is INCORRECTLY
paired? [KVPY 2015 SX] [1 Mark]

(A) IgD: viral pathogen (B) IgG: phagocytosis


(C) IgE: allergic reaction (D) IgM: complement fixation

17. Which one of the following is used to treat cancers? [KVPY 2015 SX] [1 Mark]
(A) Necrosis (B) Plasmolysis (C) Apoptosis (D) Growth hoemone

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EXERCISE

1 (B) 2 (B) 3 (A) 4 (D) 5 (A)


6 (A) 7 (D) 8 (C) 9 (B) 10 (B)
11 (B) 12 (A) 13 (B) 14 (A) 15 (C)
16 (A) 17 (C) 18 (C) 19 (C) 20 (C)
21 (D) 22 (A) 23 (A) 24 (C) 25 (B)
26 (B) 27 (C) 28 (C) 29 (B) 30 (B)
31 (B) 32 (C) 33 (D) 34 (C) 35 (B)
36 (C) 37 (A) 38 (C) 39 (C) 40 (B)
41 (C) 42 (A) 43 (C) 44 (B) 45 (C)
46 (B) 47 (C) 48 (D) 49 (B) 50 (C)
51 (C) 52 (D) 53 (D) 54 (A) 55 (D)
56 (B) 57 (A) 58 (C) 59 (A) 60 (D)
61 (B) 62 (D) 63 (B) 64 (B) 65 (D)
66 (C) 67 (A) 68 (C) 69 (B) 70 (A)
71 (A)

KVPY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

1 (D) 2 (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D)


6 (A) 7 (B) 8 (D) 9 (D) 10 (C)
11 (A) 12 (A) 13 (D) 14. (C) 15. (A)
16. (A) 17. (C)

KVPY_SX_ZOOLOGY # 271

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