ILGL MCQ

By CS TUSHAR PAHADE
 FACTORIES ACT 1948
1. A canteen for use of workers
providing subsidized food is
statutory. Under the factories Act
where ___workers are employed.
a) 250 c) 100
b) 1000 d) 150
2. According to the definition of
‘Week’ under factories act, it is
period of 7 days beginning at
midnight on____?
a) Sunday c) Saturday
b) Monday d) Friday
3. If any article is stored in cold
storage is considered as a
Manufacturing process under
the Act?
a) Yes b) no
4. A mobile unit that belongs to the
armed forces of the union is not
a factory as per the factories
act, 1947?
a) true
b) false
c) exceptions are there
5. sec. 2(n) under factories act,
defines____
a) occupier c) manager
b) publisher d) worker
6. The space for every worker
employed in the factory after the
commencement of factories Act
1948 is _____ cubic meter?
a) 10.2 c) 20.2
b) 14.2 d) 28.2
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7. Interior Ltd. is engaged in
fabrication work of window,
door, grill with aid of power has
employed 19 workers. Recently it
appointed 2 gardeners for
gardening in his factories. Is the
company liable to extend the
benefits to the gardeners as
applicable to other factory
workers?
a) Yes b) no
8. Power also means energy
generated by human or animal?
a) True b) false
9. Milk brought from various
customers is sampled chemically,
analyzed and packed in tins for
transportation to the head office
of the company for sale in the
market. Does it amount to
manufacturing process under
the factories Act 1948?
a) Yes b) no
10. If a Manager is not appointed for
a factory then the occupier of
the factory will be considered as
the manager of the factory as
per the factories Act 1948?
a) True b) false
11. Before occupying premises as a
factory, the occupier has to give
some details in a notice form to
the chief Inspector. Such notice
should be given before ____days
of occupying premises.
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 a) 90 b) 30 c) 25 d) 15 maximum number of worker who
may work in the room at a given
12. Every District Magistrate shall be time?
an inspector for his District? a) Chief Auditor
a) True b) false b) Chief Inspector
c) Chief Justice
13. Inspector may not take away d) None of the above.
with him any instrument or
Photograph with him for 19. Drinking water point mentioned
examination. He may examine in the factories act 1948 should
only in the factory premises? be marked “Drinking water” in
a) True b) false English language only.
a) True b) false
14. Appointment of certifying
surgeons is discussed in sec. ____ 20. Drinking water facility should be
of the Act. at least _______ meters away
a) 9(c) b) 11 c) 10 d) 12 from any Urinal or washing
place?
15. Does windows, Metallic frames or a) 10 b) 3 c) 6 d) 8
shutters that are kept painted or
varnished should be painted or 21. It is not necessary to have
varnished at least once every spittoons in a factory as per the
period of _______ year(s)? factories Ac.1948?
a) 1 b) 3 c) 5 d) 6 a) True b) false

16. It is voluntarily under the Act to 22. A self Acting machine or

maintain a register of painting on
while washing as may be
applicable?
a) True b) false
17. Sections 15 of the factories Act
1948 :-
a) Cleanliness
b) Disposal of waste
c) Dust fumes
d) Artificial Humiliation.
18. May order to display a notice on
each work room mention in the
material may not seen on
onward or outward traverse
within a distance of ______over
the designated working space
for any person?
a) 45cm c) 90 cm
b) 3 meter d) 2 meter
23. With reference to Sec. 22(2) of
the Act, can a woman be
allowed to clean or lubricate
part of the prime mover, while
the prime mover is in motion?
a) Yes b) no

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24. Lifting machines, chains, ropes,
lifting tackles and other
machines should be examined
by a competent person once
in a period of every ____
months?
a) 3 b) 6 c) 9 d) 12
25. Is it mandatory to display a
notice showing the maximum
safe working peripheral speed of
every grindstone or abrasive
wheel near each machine
where gridding is carried on? If
yes under which section it is?
a) No it is not mandatory
b) Yes, it is mandatory under
sec. 30(i)of Act
c) Yes, it is mandatory under sec
32(1) of the Act.
d) None of the above.
26. A workers employed in a factory
for welding is not provided safety
screen /goggles for protection.
The situation is violating one
section i.e. sec. 35 which speaks
about_______?
a) Protection of face.
b) Protection from welding Ark.
c) Protection of eyes
d) Protection of head.
27. What is purpose of site appraisal
committee constituted in the
question discussed above?
a) Consider application for grant
of permission for initial
location of a factory involving
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heavy machine in a moving
state
b) Consider application for grant
of permission for the initial
location of a factory involving
hazardous process.
c) Consider application for grant
of permission for initial
location of a factory involving
Chemical Material handling.
d) Consider application for grant
of permission for initial
location of a factory involving
complex technology process.
28. Who shall be the Chairman of
the site appraisal committee?
a) Chief Inspector
b) Executive auditor
c) Commissioner of Police.
d) All of the above.
29. The site appraisal committee
shall also include a
representative of the state Board
for the purpose of prevention
and control of water pollution?
a) True b) false
30. A premises including precincts
thereof is a ‘factory’ within the
meaning of the Factories
Act,1948 wherein a
manufacturing process is being
carried on with the aid of power
and where the numbers of
workers working is:-
a) 10 or More Workers
b) 20 or More Workers
c) 15 or More Workers
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 d) 50 or More Workers workers shall eat any food in the
work room?
31. In how many days is the site a) True b) false
appraisal committee required to
submit it’s report to the state 37. Rooms provided as per the
Govt.? requirement of section for
a) 30 b) 60 c) 90 crèches under the act, shall be
d) 120 for the use of children under the
age of_________ years?
32. First-aid-box to be provided for a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6
minimum______ nos. of workers
ordinarily employed at any one 38. Identity section 51 of the
time in a factory? factories Act?
a) 150 c) 350 a) Working hours
b) 250 d) 100 b) Weekly hours
c) Daily hours
33. Any responsible person who has d) Weekly Off
some knowledge on first-aid
treatment can be in charge 39. In case of weekly holiday of the
person for the first -aid box? worker is substituted for another
a) True b) false day, the number of consecutive
working days of the worker
34. Ambulance room to be should not exceed ____days?
provided and maintained where a) 6 b) 7 c) 10 d) 15
more than_______ number of
worker are ordinarily employed. 40. In order to facilitate the change
a) 300 b) 700 c) 500 d) of shifts, the daily working hours
1000 can be extended only with prior
permission of______?
35. Adequate shelter or rest room a) Employee
and suitable lunch room should b) Chief Inspector
be provided in s factory wherein c) Occupier
more than ______ workers are d) Labour Commissioner
ordinarily employed?
a) 150 b) 250 c) 300 d) 41. Period of working of an adult
500 shall be fixed such that it does
not exceed______ hours before
36. The section for shelters, rest room, appropriate interval for rest?
and lunch room states that, a) 4 b) 8 c) 5 d) 10
where a lunch room exists no

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42. An interval of at least 48. Section 62 of the factories Ac
_______hours should be provided 1948 asks to maintain which
after at least 5 hours of work? register in the factory?
a) 1 b) ½ c) ¾ d) 2 a) Register of Wages
b) Register of temporary workers
43. The period of work inclusive of c) Registers of Adult workers
intervals for rest of any adult d) Register of salary.
worker may not exceed ____
hours in any day? 49. Employment of children less than
a) 8 b) 8.5 c) 10 d) ____ years of age is prohibited?
10.5 a) 8 b) 12 c) 14
d) 17
44. For a person working in Night
shift, a holiday for whole day
shall be start from _____? 50. An adolescent can work in a
a) 12:00 factory with appropriate
b) Sunrise compliances done as per the
c) the end of his shift factories act?
d) None of above a) True b) false

45. As per the factories Act 1948 a
worker is entitled for overtime
wages when he works per more
than ____hours in any day or
more than_______ hours in a
week?
a) 8, 48 b) 9, 54 c) 9, 48 d)
8, 54
46. Ordinary wages includes Bonus?
a) True b) false
51. Who must issue the certificate of
fitness?
a) Chief Inspector
b) Parents of the adolescent
c) Labour commissioner
d) Certifying surgeon.
52. The certifying surgeon who has
once issued a certificate of
fitness, cannot renew the same?
a) True b) false

47. The rate of wages for overtime 53. The certifying Surgeon can issue,
shall be ____times the ordinary to a young person, a certificate
rate of wages of the worker? of fitness to work is facility as an
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) adult,
none b) True b) false

54. If a certifying surgeon is issuing,

to a young person. A certificate

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 of fitness to work in a factory as 59. Sec.71 working hours for
an adult, he must be satisfied ’children’ prohibits the
that the person has completed employment of a child in a
his____ year of age? factory for more than ____ hours
a) 12 b) 15 c) 14 d) 18 in any day?
a) 1 b) 3 c) 4 d)
55. What is the period of validity of 4.5
certificate of fitness issued by
certifying surgeon? 60. As per Section 71(2) the period
a) 15 months of work of all children in a factory
b) 12 months shall be limited to _____ shifts(s)?
c) 10 months a) 3 b) 1 c) 2 d) none
d) 24 months
61. As per section 71(5) of the
56. Who is liable to pay fee for a factories Act, any female child
certificate of fitness? shall not be required to or
a) Person himself allowed to work in a factory
b) Parents of that person between _______ PM and
c) Occupier. ____A.M?
d) Government. a) 8, 6 b) 7, 8 c) 7, 7
57. An adolescent who has been d) 8, 8
granted a certificate of fitness to
work as an adult is any factory 62. In order to be allowed leave with
shall be deemed_____ for all the wages in a year the worker must
purposes relating to working have worked _______ days or
hours.? more in the preceding calendar
a) Adult year?
b) Adolescent a) 365 c) 270
c) Yong person b) 300 d) 240
d) all of the above.
63. For the purpose of calculating
58. Any adolescent, under the age numbers of days for leave with
of 17 who has been granted wages, in case of child worker,
certificate of fitness to work as an the base shall be day for every
adult in a factory can be a ____day?
allowed to work only between a) 20 b) 15 c) 12 d) 10
____ AM to ____P.M. only?
a) 8, 8 b) 5, 8 c) 6, 7 d) 7 64. In case of adult worker, for the
to 7 calculation of 240 days or more
of work period, any days of lay

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 off by agreement or contract or a) 7 b) 10 c) 15 d) 21
as permissible by standing order 70. If a person, employed in public
shall be included.? utility service wishes to avail his
a) True b) false Annual leave with wages he shall
apply in writing to the manager
65. In an adult worker has joined on at least _________ days in
any day except 1st January he advanced of the
will be required to have work at commencement of leave
least____ of days of remaindered period?
calendar year in order to be a) 7 b) 10 c) 15 d) 30
granted leave with wages as per
Sec.79? 71. As per section 79(6) if the
a) ½ c) 2/3 factories a ct 1948, the number
b) 1/3 d) all of times in which leave may be
taken during any year shall not
66. For the purpose of calculating exceed___
Annual leave with wages u/s 79 a) 10 b) 5 c) 2 d) 3
of the factories Act, fraction of
leave of half a day or more shall 72. In case of any actions of a
be treated as one full day’s factory contravene with the
leave? provisions of the factories
a) True b) false Act.1948, the Manager &
occupier can be penalized with
67. In case of an adult only upto ___ the imprisonment up to
unused leaves can be carried _____years or fine upto
forward to the succeeding year? ________rupees or both?
a) 35 b) 30 c) 80 d) 90 a) 1 year & 2 lakhs
b) 2 years & one lakhs
68. In case of a child worker, only c) 5 years & 5 Lakhs
upto ________unused leave can d) 7 years & 10 Lakhs
be carried forward to the
succeeding year? 73. If any worker contravenes any
a) 3 b) 30 c) 40 d) 50 provision of the factories
Act.1948, he shall be punishable
69. If a person wishes to avail his with a fine which may extend
Annual leave with wages he shall upto Rs. ________?
apply in writing to the Manager a) 100 c) 1000
at least ____days in advance of b) 700 d) 500
the commencement of leave
period?

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74. Which one of the following is not c) Certifying Employees
a manufacturing process as per d) Certified Examiners.
factories Act.1948?
a) Production of cloth 80. For a given work place, the floor
b) Production of cloth for should be washed at least once
imparting training. in every :-
c) Preserving or storing article in a) 1year c) 1 month
cold storage b) 6 months d) 1 week
d) All of the above.
81. A person employed through a
75. Who is not a worker as per contractor is not considered as a
Factories Act.1948? worker as per the Act?
a) Bidi roller a) True b) false
b) worker being paid no wages
c) Regular worker 82. As per Factories Act 1948
d) All the above. Restaurant is not a factory
whether preparation of food and
76. As per section 6(2) approval for beverages and it sale to
contribution of factory, if no reply members of a club is a factory?
is received from state govt. a a) Yes b) no
Chief Inspector within 3 months it
should be deemed to be:- 83. ‘Standard family’ means a family
a) Rejected consisting of a worker, his/her
b) Disapprovals spouse and ___ children below
c) Approval the age of ___ years requiring all
d) None three adult consumption units?
a) 1; 18 c) 3, 15
77. General duties of the occupies b) 2; 14 d) 2, 18
are stated in sec. ____
a) 8 b) 9 c) 7A d) 8A 84. Women workers shall not be
employed except between the
78. Special provisions for hazardous hours of __________AM to ______
processes are provided in P.M.?
chapter ___ a) 7; 6 b) 6, 7c) 8, 7 d) 8, 5
a) V b) IVAc) VII d) X
85. Which authorizes carry out the
79. Sec.10 speaks about (Factories administration of the factories
Act. 1948.)? Act.1948 under the supervision of
a) Certifying Surgeons the State Govt.?
b) Certifying Doctor’s i. Inspecting Staff

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 ii. Labour Officer a) 50 b) 20 c) 15 d)
iii. Safety Officer, 240
iv. Trade Union
a) i,ii,iii, 91. Under purchase Act no worker is
b) All of the four permitted to work for more than
c) i,iii, ___ hours in a day?
d) ii,iii,and iv a) 8 b) 9 c) 10 d) 24

86. Women employee should not be 92. Under factories while washing of
allowed to work between:- the factories building should be
a) 6P.M and 5A.M. carried out in every
b) 9P.M and 5 A.M. _____months?
c) 10 P.M. and 5 A.M. a) 12 b) 24 c) 26
d) 11P.M.and 5A.m. d) 14

87. Minimum no. of days required 93. Under the factories act
for the calculation of annual Appointment of a safety officer is
leave with wages are:- mandatory where No. of
a) 240 days or more employees exceeds?
b) 260 days or more a) 1000 c) 100
c) 280 days or more b) 500 d) 50
d) 300days or more.
88. Appointment of welfare Officer 94. A canteen for use of workers
under factories Act, 1948 is providing subsidized food is
compulsory where______ statutory. Under the factories Act
employees are employed? where ___workers are employed.
a) 50 c) 500 a) 250 c)
b) 1000 d) 100 100
b) 1000 d)
89. Creche is mandatory under 150
factories Act where_______
workers are employed? 95. According to the definition of
a) 30 c) 30 women ‘Week’ under factories act, it is
b) 100 d) 250 period of 7 days beginning at
midnight on____?
90. An adult worker under the a) Sunday c) Saturday
factories Act is eligible for leave b) Monday d) Friday
with wages @ 1 day for
every_______ days worked during 96. If any article is stored in cold
preceding year. storage is considered as a

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 Manufacturing process under
the Act? 98. sec. 2(n) under factories act,
b) Yes b) no defines____
a) occupier c) manager
97. A mobile unit that belongs to the b) publisher d) worker
armed forces of the union is not
a factory as per the factories 99. The space for every worker
act, 1947? employed in the factory after the
a) true commencement of factories Act
b) false 1948 is _____ cubic meter?
c) exceptions are there a) 10.2 c) 20.2
d) all b) 14.2 d) 28.2

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 MINIMUM WAGES ACT, 1948
1. Minimum wages act came into govt, may refrain from fixing the
force on; minimum rates of wages for that
a) 18 March 1948 particular schedule
b) 15March 1948 employment/
c) 20 March 1949 a) 500 c) 1500
d) 15 Dec.1948 b) 1000 d) 3000

2. Minimum wages Act extends to:- 7. Identify section 5 of the Act:-

a) Whole of India a) Fixation of minimum rates of
b) Whole of India except wages
Jammu b) Minimum rates of wages
c) Whole of India except c) Procedure for fixing and
Jammu and Kashmir revising Minimum wages
d) None d) None of these

3. The appropriate government 8. Who shall be appointed by the

shall review and revise the appropriate Govt. to co-ordinate
minimum wages ,if necessary the work of committees and sub-
within a period not exceeding: committees, appointed under
a) 6months c) 3 years Sec.5 of Minimum wages Act
b) 1 year d) 5 years 1948?
a) Chief Inspector
4. Can a appropriate government b) Occupier of Major Industry
refrain from fixing minimum rates c) Advisory Board
of wages for a given scheduled d) None of these
employment in a state:
a) Yes b) no 9. Over the advisory board, there
shall also be a central advisory
5. Fact that an employer may find board appointed by central
it difficult to carry on his business government?
on the basis of minimum wages is a) True b) false
an irrelevant. Consideration in
fixation of minimum wages; 10. The chairman of the central
a) True b) false advisory Board shall be
appointed by:-
6. If for a given scheduled a) Central Govt.
employment, the number of b) State Chief Minister
persons employed in a state are c) Advisory Board
less than ___, the appropriate d) Chief Inspector

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 11. Number of independent person 17. The wages under the minimum
appointed in advisory Board shall wages Act 1948 shall
not exceed ___ of its total include_______?
number. a) Basic rate of wages. D.A,
a) ½ b) 1/3 c) ¼ d) HRA, and Gratuity?
none b) A basic rate of wages, and
available according to cost
12. The Chairman of the of living
committee/Advisory Board c) A consolidated amount
formed under this Act shall be decided by the employer
one of the___________? d) Only basic rate wages.
a) Employee’s Representative
18. Out worker is not an employee
b) Employer’s Representative as per Minimum wages act
c) Independent person 1948?
d) Any of the above. a) True b) false

13. As per Section 2(h) of the 19. Minimum wages have not been
Minimum wages act.1948,’HRA’ fixed for any branch of work of
is net included in wages any scheduled employment
a) True b) false then person employing
worker_____
14. As per section 2(h) of the a) is an employer
Minimum wages act.1948, the b) is an employee
value of house accommodation c) is not an employer
is not included in wages? d) is not an employee
a) True b) false
20. Scheduled employment is
15. Indentify sec.2(g) of the divided in____ parts.
minimum wages Act1948? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) none
a) Child
b) Employer 21. Part 2 of the schedule
c) Prescribed employment contains:-
d) Scheduled Employment. a) 12 entries c) both a & b
b) Agriculture d) none
16. If any Gratuity is payable to an
employee on discharge, would it 22. For employment specified in Part
be included in wages? I of the schedule :
a) Yes b) no a) Same rate should be fixed.

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 b) Different rates can be fixed for a) Appropriate govt.
different zones b) Chief Inspector
c) Different rates can be fixed for c) Central advisory Board
same zone d) Any of the above
d) None of these.
28. Under state advisory board
23. Two methods of fixing the representatives of employee and
Minimum wages rates are;-- employer in the scheduled
ii) Notification method employment in ratio of ____
iii) Committee Method a) 50; 60 c) 50; 50
iv) Approval of CG method b) 25; 50 d) 25; 75
v) Advisory Board method.
a) I,iii c) iii,iv, 29. Central Advisory Board is
b) I,ii d) ii,iv provided in sec. ____
a) 7 b) 8 c) 10 d) 9
24. The wages rates shall come into
force from such date as may be 30. If a independent person, is
specified in the notification. If no elected as Chairman of state
date is specified wage rate shall advisory Board. Later he joins as
come into force on the expiry the post of government servant,
____from the date of issue off the will he be liable to vacant the
Notification. office of chairman.
a) 3 years c) 3 months a) Yes b) no
b) 6 months d) 4 months
25. Minimum wages rate under 31. Minimum wages can be paid:-
Minimum wages Act, 1948 can a) Only Cash
be revised with ____ effect. b) Cash and kind
a) A prospective c) Only kind
b) Retrospective d) Cash in kind with approval of
c) Both A & B appropriate govt.
d) None of the above 32. As per section 12 of Minimum
wage Act 1948 paying less than
26. Committee method shall only fix minimum rate of wages fixed by
and not review minimum wages the appropriate government is
rate. an___
a) True b) false a) not an offence
b) Offence
27. Under committee method c) Tort
committees and sub-committees d) None of the above
are appointed by____

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 33. Minimum wages Act 1948 a) Employer
provides that payment of work b) Government
on a day of rest should not be c) Employee
less than__ d) Trade Union
a) Normal Rate
b) Overtime rate 38. According to Section 3(2),what
c) No payment to be given does Appropriate govt. fix
d) Specified rates. Minimum rate of wages for:
i. Time rate,
34. As per minimum wages Act ii. Piece rate
payment of overtime work can iii. Manual work rate
be claimed by____ iv. Machine hour rate
a) All employees v. Guaranteed time Rate
b) Employees getting minimum a) I,ii,iv,
rate of wages, b) I,iii,iv,
c) Employees getting more than c) I,ii,and V
minimum rate of wages d) All of the above
d) All of the above.
39. _____for those employed in piece
35. A employee of Rajkmar and sons work for the purpose of securing
ltd. for 1 hours,22minutes as to such employees a minimum
overtime work he will be paid rate of wages on a time work
for_________ basis.
a) 1 hour a) Time rate
b) 1 hour 22 Minutes b) Guaranteed time rate
c) 2 hours c) Piece rate
d) 2 Hours 44 minutes d) Normal rates,

36. Where an employee is engaged 40. Minimum rates of wages should

in work of piece work for which be fixed only for on a monthly
minimum time rate is fixed he will wages period?
be paid as per ______? a) True b) false
a) Minimum piece rate
b) Minimum time rate 41. Recommendations made by
c) Max time rate State and Central advisory
d) Guaranteed time rate committee are binding on
government as per minimum
37. Minimum wages Act 1948 was wage Act.1948.
enacted primarily for the interest a) True b) false
of____________

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 42. First method used by the pays a lesser income than
Appropriate govt. to fix minimum minimum rate. Ramu justify that
wages in respect of scheduled failure to work was caused due
employment is called the to employer omission .Is Ramu
“Notification method” entitled to receive full payment?
a) True b) false a) Yes b) no

43. Minimum wage Act 1948 45. The duty of advisory board is
provides for ___ days rest in every minimum wages Act, is to;-
period of seven days. a) Co-ordinate work of
a) 2 b) 1 c) 3 d) ½ committees and sub-
committee
44. Ramu an employee of Shyam b) Advisory appropriate Govt.
Enterprises engaged in about fixation of wages
scheduled employment work for c) Both a) and b)
a period less than the requisite d) Revision and fixation of
number of hours constituting a minimum wages.
normal working day. Employer

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 PAYMENT OF WAGES ACT, 1936
1. It applies to the persons b) 2(ia) d) 2(iia)
employed in a factory, industrial
or other establishment or in a 8. Factory defined in Sec._____
railway whether directly or a) 2(ia) c) 2(ic)
indirectly, through a sub- b) 2 (ib) d) 2(id)
contractor.
a) True b) False 9. Industrial or others establishments
includes in land vessel
2. In order to bring the law in Mechanically propelled; mine
uniformity with other labour laws quarry or Oil-field; plantation,
and to make it more effective a) True b) False
and practicable.
a) True b) False 10. Wages defined in sec _____
a) 2(v) b) 2(VI) c) 2(vii) d)
3. The payment of wages Act was 2(viii)
last amended in _____
a) 2005 c) 2009 11. Sec ____ provides that every
b) 2008 d) 2010 employer shall be responsible for
the payment to persons
4. The Central Government is employed by him of all wages
responsible for enforcement of required to be paid under the
the Act in railways, mines, Oil- act.
fields and air transport services a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
a) True b) False
12. As per section _____ of the Act
5. The State Governments are every person responsible for the
responsible for it in factories and payment of wages shall fix wage
other industrial establishments periods in respect of which such
a) True b) False wages shall be payable
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
6. The Act is extends to the whole
of India. 13. No wage-period shall exceed-
a) True b) False a) One month
b) two months
7. Employees person includes the c) 15days
legal representative of a d) 90days.
deceased employed person as
per sec ____ 14. Sec.-specifies the time payment
a) 2(a) c) 2(iaa) of wages

16 | P a g e MCQ
 a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7 authorization of the employed
person, pay him the wages
15. The wages of every person either by cheque or by crediting
employed upon or in any railway the wages in his bank account.
factory or industrial or other a) True b) False
establishment upon or in which
less than 1000 persons are 20. Fines, absence from duty _____
employed, shall be paid before tax are deductible from wages
the expiry of _____days. of employee
a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8 a) Service c) wealth
b) Income d)
16. The wages of every person international
employed upon or in any other
railway factory or industrial or 21. No fine shall be imposed on any
other establishment shall be paid employed person who is under
before the expiry of ____ days the age of ____ years.
after the day of the wage period a) 12 c) 18
in respect of which the wages b) 15 d) 20
are payable.
a) 8 b) 10 c) 12 d) 15 22. Every fine shall be deemed to
have been imposed on the day
17. Where the employment of any of the act or omission in respect
persons terminated by or on of which it was imposed.
behalf of the employer the a) True b) False
wages earned by him shall be 23. Every register and record
paid before the expiry of the required to be maintained shall
second working day from the be preserved for a period of ____
day on which his employment is year after the date of the last
terminated. entry made therein.
a) True b) False a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

18. All payment of the wages shall 24. Every application shall be
be made on a _____ presented within_______ months
a) Monday from the date on which the
b) National holiday deductions from the wages was
c) working day made or from the date on which
d) holiday the payment of the wages was
due to be made as the case
19. The employer may, after may be.
obtaining the written

17 | P a g e MCQ
 a) 10 b) 12 c) 15 d) within a period of _____ months
18 from the date of registration of
the claim by the authority.
25. A claim under the Act shall be a) 3 c) 9
disposed of as far as practicable b) 6 d) 12

18 | P a g e MCQ
 EQUAL REMUNERATION ACT, 1976
1. In today globalised, liberalized 7. Act provides for payment of
scenario _______ form an integral equal remuneration to Men and
part of the Indian workforce. Women workers for same work or
a) Men c) children work of __nature without any
b) Women d) all discrimination.
a) Similar c) heavy
2. The formost being equals access b) Different d) lazy
to education and other
opportunities for personal 8. Act also prevents discrimination
development. against _____ employees while
a) True making recruitment for the some
b) false [for skill development] work or work of similar nature, or
in any condition of service
3. The GDI takes several steps for subsequent to recruitment.
creating a congenial work a) Men c) children
environment for _____workers. b) Women d) others
a) Men c) children
b) Women d) all 9. Definition of Man and Women in
sec.:
4. The implementation of the equal a) 2(a) c) 2(c)
remuneration Act 1976 is done at b) 2(b) d) 2 (d)
______ levels.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 10. Definition of Remuneration in
Sec:
a) 2(e) c) 2 (g)
5. In Central sphere Act is being
b) 2(f) d) 2 (h)
implemented by EG and in State
sphere, the implementation rests
11. Remuneration means the basic
with the S.G.
wage or salary, and any
a) True b) False
additional employments
whatsoever payable either in
6. Article _____of constitution of
cash or in kind to a person
India envisages that the state
employed in respect of
shall direct its policy, among
employment or work done in
other things, towards securing
such employment, if the terms of
that there is equal pay for equal
the contract of employment,
work for both men and women.
express or implied, were fulfilled.
a) 14 b) 39 c) 34 d) 29
a) True b) false

19 | P a g e MCQ
 12. Definition of same work or work
of similar nature in sec.__.
a) 2(g) c) 2 (i)
b) 2(h) d) 2 (j)
13. Same work or work of a similar
nature means work of a similar
nature means work in respect of
which the skill, effort and
responsibility required are the
same, when performed under
similar working conditions by a
man or a woman and the
difference, if any, between the
skill, effort and responsibility
required of a man and those
required of a woman are not of
practical importance in relation
to the terms and conditions of
employment.
a) True b) false
14. Section _____of the act provides
that provisions of the act shall
have effect notwithstanding
anything inconsistent therewith
contained in any other law or in
the terms of any award,
agreement or contract of
service, whether made before or
after the commencement of the
Act or in any instrument having
effect under any law for the time
being force.
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
15. Sec.4 of act provides that A
employer shall pay to any
worker, employed by him in an
establishment or employment
20 | P a g e
remuneration, whether payable
in cash or in kind of rates less
favorable than those at which
remuneration is paid by him to
the workers of the opposite sex in
such establishment or
employment for performing the
same work or work of similar
nature and employer shall not
reduce the rate of remuneration
of any workers.
a) True b) false
16. As per section 5 employees while
making recruitment for the same
work as work of similar nature, or
in any condition of service
subsequent to recruitment such
as promotions, training or
transfer, shall not make any
discrimination against_____
except where the employment
of women in such work is
prohibited or restricted by or
under any law for the time being
in force.
a) Men c) children
b) Women d) all
17. Section 5, shall not affect any
priority as reservation for _______
or _______, ex-serviceman,
retrenched employees in the
matter of recruitment to the
posts in an establishment or
employment.
a) Schedule caste or Schedule
tribes.
b) Open category or schedule
tribes
MCQ
 c) Other backward caste or authority shall exercise it’s
schedule tribes jurisdiction.
d) Schedule caste, schedule a) SG d) CG
tribes or other backward b) appropriate government
castes c) None

18. Sec.7 of act empower the
__________appoint such officers
not below the rank of a labour
officer as it thinks fit to be the
authorities and define the local
limits within which each such
19. As per sec. ______ it is duty of
every employer, to maintain
registers and other documents in
relation to the workers employed
by him in the prescribed manner.
a) 7 c) 9
b) 8 d) 10

21 | P a g e MCQ
 EMPLOYEES’ STATE INSURANCE ACT, 1948
1. The ESI Act was promulgated by and Local Boards and
the ___of India in the year 1948; committees.
a) CG c) parliament a) True b) false
b) SG d) none 6. The act guarantees reasonably
good medical care to workers
2. It was the first major legislation on and their immediate
social security in independent dependants.
India to provide certain benefits a) True b) false
to the ____ in the organized
sector in case of sickness, 7. The act has been amended by
maternity and employment the ESI (Amendment) Act ___ for
injury. enhancing the social security
a) Employer c) employees converge streamlining the
b) Workers d) manager procedure for assessment of
dues and for providing better
3. The CG established a services to the beneficiaries.
corporation to be known as the a) 2008 c) 2010
employees state Insurance b) 2009 d) 2011
Corporation to be known as the
Employees State Insurance 8. The act extends to whole of
Corporation is the premier social India.
security organization in the a) True b) false
country.
a) True b) false 9. The Act applies in the instance to
all first factories other than.____
4. It is the highest policy making a) Government factories
and decision taking authority b) Seasonal factories
under the ESI Act and oversees c) Industrial factories
the functioning of the ESI d) None
Scheme under the ESI. Act.
a) True b) false 10. Act empowers the ____ to
extend any of the provisions of
5. ESI. fund has been credited the Act to any other
which is held and administered establishment or class of
by ESI corporation through its establishment, industrial
executive committee called commercial agriculture or
standing committee with the otherwise after giving one
assistance, advice and expertise months’ notice in the official
of Medical council and Regional Gazette.

22 | P a g e MCQ
 a) CG c) appropriate govt 15. As per section _confinement
b) SG d) none means labour resulting in the
issue of a living child, or labour
11. The act has been extended by after 26 weeks of pregnancy
many state Governments to resulting in the issue of child
shops, hotels, road transport whether alive or dead.
undertakings, etc. employing or a) 2(1) b) 2(2) c) 2(3) d)
more persons. 2(4)
a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25
16. Contribution define in sec.___
12. It is not sufficient that 20 persons a) 2 (3) b) 2(4) c) 2(5)
are employed in the shop. They d) 2(26)
should be – as per sec.2(9)of the
Act, getting the wages 17. Employment injury means a
prescribed therein. personal injury to an employer
a) Employer. c) worker caused by accident or an
b) Employee d) manager occupational disease arising out
of and in the course of his
13. The coverage under the Act is at employment, being an insurable
present restricted to employees employment. There should be a
drawing wages not exceeding nexus between the
____ circumstances of the accident
a) 15000/-p.m. c) 15000 and the employment.
p.a a) True b) false
b) 15000 per day d) none
18. The word injury does not mean
14. Which of the following only visible injury in the form of
establishment come under the some wound.
Central Government, with the a) True b) false
Central Govt. acting as the
“Appropriate Govt.? 19. Employee is defined in sec. ____ .
a) Establishment under the a) 2 (8) c) 2(10)
Railway Administration b) 2(9) d) 2(11)
b) Establishment under major
part 20. Employee does not include any
c) Establishment under an oil- member of Indian Naval, Military
field or mine or Air Forces.
d) Establishment under the State a) True b) False
Ministry.

23 | P a g e MCQ
21. The test of payment of salary or 28. __Means an employment in
wages is not a relevant factory or establishment to which
Consideration. ? the Act applies
a) True b) false a) Premises d) none
b) Precincts
22. It is enough if the employee does c) Insurable Employment
some work which is ancillary 29. Insured person define in sec:-
incidental or has relevance to or a) 2(13) c) 2(15)
link with the object of the b) 2(14) d) 2(16)
establishment.
a) True b) false 30. Sickness means a condition
which requires medical
23. The word employee would treatment and attendance and
include not only person necessitates abstention from
employed in a factory but also work on medical grounds.
persons connected with the work a) True b) False
of the factory.
a) True b) False 31. Wages include other additional
remuneration paid at intervals
24. The Act is a beneficial piece of not exceeding ___ month’s
legislation to protect interest of wages.
the workers. a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
a) True b) False
32. Travelling allowance dos not
25. ____could be an employee of form part of wages.
the company. a) True b) False
a) Director c)A and B
b) MD d) none 33. Any dispute will be settled by the
Employees’ Insurance court.
26. .Exempted employees defined in a) True b) false
sec.-____
a) 2(5) c) 2(15) 34. Employee’s state Insurance
b) 2(10) d) 2(20) Corporation shall be body
corporate having perpetual
27. Immediate employer define in succession and a common seal
sec-_____ and shall, sue and be sued by
a) 2(13 ) c) 2(13)(A) the said name.
b) 2(13A) d) none a) True b) false

24 | P a g e MCQ
35. The Act provides for the the expenses of remitting the
constitution of a standing contributions to that corporation
committee under section ___ a) 40 b) 50 c) 60 d) 70
from against its members.
a) 7 b) 8 c) 9 d) 10 41. Any person who is or has been
Judicial Officer or is a legal
36. Sec. ___ empowers the Central practitioner of ___ years standing
Government to constitute a shall be qualified to be a Judge
medical benefit council of E.I. Court.
a) 10 b) 12 c) 14 d) 16 a) 2 b) 5 c) 7 d) 10

37. Which of the following 42. What is the minimum

executives are ex-officio qualification required for a
members of the employees’ person to qualify as a Judge of
state Insurance Corporation? the E.I. Court.
a) 3month of Parliament a) Judicial Officer with minimum
b) Director General of 5 years standing
Corporation b) legal practitioner with
c) Chairman of board of minimum 5 years standing
corporation c) Charted Accountant with
d) Vice-president of corporation. minimum 5 years standing
d) Special legal Officer with
38. The contributions have to be minimum 5 years standing.
paid at such rates as may be
prescribed by: 43. The establishment must ensure
a) SG c) appropriate govt some compliance under the Act.
b) CG d) council These compliances are not
exhaustive but illustrative.
39. The present rates of contribution a) True b) false
are ____ and ____ of workers’
wages by employers and 44. Sanjay a Pvt. Contractor runs a
employees respectively canteen and a cycle stand in
a) 4.50% &1.70% Asha Theatre. Decide if theatre
b) 4.75%and1.70% owner is liable as principle
c) 4.75%and1.75% employer for the payment of ESI
d) 4.70%and1.70%. contribution in respect of workers
employed in canteen/Cycle
40. Sec. ____ provides that the stand?
principal employer has to bear a) Yes b) no

25 | P a g e MCQ
45. Mohan meets with an accident a) Yes b) no
on a public road on his way to
the place of employment. Does 48. While fixing total remuneration
at amount to employment injury the employer included traveling
entitling him to benefits under allowance as part of the
the Employees State Insurance remuneration of an employee.
Act.? The employee claims that the
a) Yes b) no employer has to include
travelling allowance also for the
46. Raju is an employee in an purpose of payment of
establishment governed by the contribution towards ESI. Fund.
employees’ state Insurance Will he succeed?
Act.1948.This principle employer a) Yes b) no
defaults in making his
contribution to the ESI fund 49. Bahadur, an employee deputed
resulting in Raju becoming by the management to
disentitled to the benefits under participate in a football match,
the Act. What is the remedy met with an accident resulting in
available to him his death while on his way to the
a) He can approach ESI play ground. It if an employment
Corporation to seek the injury under the act?
remedy a) Yes b) no
b) He cannot approach ESI
Corporation to seek the 50. A notice of dismissal is given by
remedy an employer to Mukesh an
c) No remedy available to him employee who is in receipt of
d) He can claim specific relief. sickness benefit under the Act.
Has the employer the right to
47. A worker was injured by his dismiss Mukesh during the period
negligent act while knocking the he is in receipt of sickness
belt of a moving pulley. Does it benefit?
amount to an employment injury a) Yes b) no
under the employees state Injury
Acta.1948?

26 | P a g e MCQ
 EMPLOYEES PROVIDENT FUND AND
MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS ACT, 1952
1. A social welfare legislation to transactions that it has been
provide for the institution of carrying on.
________ a) Smallest c) largest
a) Provident Fund, b) Biggest d) none
b) Pension Fund 5. It extends to the whole of India
c) Deposit Linked Insurance except the State of _______
Fund a) Jammu. d) Kashmir
d) All of the above b) Jammu and Kashmir.
c) None of the above
2. The Act aims at providing social
security and timely monetary 6. The Act is now applicable to
assistance to industrial employees drawing pay not
________when they are in distress. exceeding_________
a) Employees and their families a) Rs. 6,500/- per annum
b) Employers and their families b) Rs. 6,500/- per month.
c) Industrial employees and their c) Rs. 6,500/- per half yearly
families d) Rs. 6,500/- quarterly
d) Industrial employers and their
families 7. The term pay includes basic
wages with dearness allowance,
3. The Act is administered by the _______________
Government of India through a) Retaining allowance (if any),
________ and cash value of food
a) The Employees' Provident concession
Fund Organisation (EPFO). b) Perquisites
b) The Employers' Provident Fund c) All allowances
Organisation (EPFO). d) All of the above
c) The Employees' pension Fund
Organisation (EPFO). 8. _____ schemes under the
d) The Employers' Pension Fund operation of act.
Organisation (EPFO). a) 4 b) 2 c) 3 d) 5

4. EPFO is one of the 9. Which of the following schemes

______provident fund institutions have been framed under the
in the world in terms of members Employees’ Provident Funds and
and volume of financial Miscellaneous Provisions Act?

27 | P a g e MCQ
 a) The Employees’ Provident 12. ______should not included for
Fund Schemes, 1952 purpose of ascertaining the
b) The Employees’ Pension strength of workmen in sec. 1(3)
Scheme, 1995 a) Casual c) both a & b
c) The Employees Gratuity b) Temporary d) none
Scheme 1992
d) The Employees’ Deposit- 13. Act not apply to_________
Linked Insurance Scheme, a) Establishments registered
1976 under the Co-operative
Societies Act, 1912, or under
10. Act applies___________ as per any other law for the time
sec.1(3) being in force in any State
a) To every establishment which relating to co-operative
is a factory engaged in any societies, employing less than
industry specified in Schedule 50 persons and working
I and in which twenty or more without the aid of power; or
persons are employed; and b) To any other establishment
b) To any other establishment belonging to or under the
employing twenty or more control of the Central
persons or class of such Government or a State
establishments which the Government and whose
Central Government may, by employees are entitled to the
notification in the Official benefit of contributory
Gazette, specify in this behalf. provident fund or old age
c) A and b pension in accordance with
d) None of the above any scheme or rule framed by
the Central Government or
11. Provided that the Central the State Government
Government may, after giving governing such benefits; or
not _________notice of its c) To any other establishment set
intention to do so by notification up under any Central,
in the Official Gazette, apply the Provincial or State Act and
provisions of this Act whose employees are entitled
a) Less than two months to the benefits of contributory
b) More than two months provident fund or old age
c) Less than two years pension in accordance with
d) More than two years any scheme or rule framed
under that Act governing
such benefits.
d) All of the above

28 | P a g e MCQ
14. The date of establishment of a a) True b) false
factory is the date
when_________ 19. Every employee employed in or
a) The factory starts its in connection with the work of a
manufacturing process factory or other establishment to
b) Factories COI which this scheme applies, other
c) Factories first contract date than an__________, shall be
d) None of the above entitled and required to become
a member of the fund from the
15. Appropriate government date of joining the factory or
means_________ establishment.
a) State government + central a) Excluded employee
government b) Included employee
b) SG c) CG d) none c) A and B d) none

16. The definition of “employee”, not 20. ‘Excluded employee’ means:

includes a part-time employee, a) An employee who, having
who is engaged for any work in been a member of the Fund,
the establishment, a sweeper withdraw the full amount of
working twice or thrice in a his accumulations in the Fund
week, a night watchman under clause (a) or (c) of sub-
keeping watch on the shops in paragraph 69;
the locality, a gardener working b) An employee whose pay at
for ten days in a month, etc the time be is otherwise
a) True b) false entitled to become a
member of the Fund, exceeds
17. Factory define in sec__ five thousand rupees per
a) 2(m) c) 2(h) month.
b) 2(g) d) 2(l) c) An apprentice.
d) All of the above
18. Manufacturing Process means
any process for making, altering, 21. As per Section 6, the contribution
repairing, ornamenting, finishing, which shall be paid by the
packing, oiling, washing, employer to the Fund shall be
cleaning, breaking up, _______of the basic wages,
demolishing or otherwise treating dearness allowance and
or adapting any article or retaining allowance, if any,
substance with a view to its use, a) 10% c) 8.33%
sale, transport, delivery or b) 12% d) 20%
disposal

29 | P a g e MCQ
22. Employee contribution should
be______
a) Equal c) lower
b) As per he desire d) highest
23. The Government has raised the
rate of Provident Fund
Contribution from the current
8.33% to 10% in general and in
cases of establishments specially
notified by the Government,
from 10% to 12% with effect from
__________
a) September 21, 1997.
b) September 22, 1987.
c) September 22, 1996.
d) September 22, 1997.
24. Each contribution shall be
calculated to the nearest rupee,
fifty paisa or more to be counted
as the next higher rupee and
fraction of a rupee less than fifty
paisa to be ignored.
a) True b) false
25. Dearness allowance shall not
include the cash value of any
food concession allowed to an
employee.
a) True b) false
26. The amount received by way of
Provident Fund contributions is
invested by the Board of Trustees
in accordance with the
investment pattern approved by
the ___________
a) GOI c) CG
b) SG d) all
30 | P a g e
27. The rate of interest for each
financial year is recommended
by the ________and is subject to
final decision by the Government
of India.
a) Board of Trustees
b) BOD c) SG d) CG
28. Advances from the Provident
Fund can be taken for the
following purposes___
a) Non-refundable advance for
payment of premium towards
a policy or policies of Life
Insurance of a member;
b) Withdrawal for purchasing a
dwelling house or flat or for
construction of a dwelling
house including the
acquisition of a suitable site
for the purpose, or for
completing/continuing the
construction of a dwelling
house, already commenced
by the member or the spouse
and an additional advance
for additions, alteration or
substantial improvement
necessary to the dwelling
house;
c) Non-refundable advance for
daughter/sons marriage, self-
marriage, the marriage of
sister/brother or for the post
matriculation education of
son or daughter;
d) All of the above
MCQ
29. Advances from the Provident 33. Normal superannuation pension
Fund can be taken for the is payable on attaining the age
purpose Non-refundable of______ years.
advance to members due to a) 56 b) 62 c) 58 d) 60
temporary closure of any factory
or establishment for more than 34. Pension on a discounted rate is
fifteen days, for reasons other also payable on attaining the
than a strike or due to non- age of 52 years. Where
receipt of wages for 2 months or pensionable service is less than 8
more, and refundable advance years, the member has an option
due to closure of the factory or to remain covered for
establishment for more than six pensionary benefits till 58 years of
months; age or claim return of
a) True b) false contribution/ withdrawal
benefits.
30. In other cases, with permission of a) True b) false
commissioner or any subordinate
officer to him, a member is 35. The Scheme provides for
allowed to draw full amount payment of monthly pension in
when he ceases to be in the following contingencies(a)
employment and has not been Superannuation on attaining the
employed in any establishment age of 58 years; (b) Retirement;
to which the Act applies for a (c) Permanent total disablement;
continuous period of atleast (d) Death during service; (e)
________ months. Death after retirement/
a) 2 b) 2 ½ c) 3 superannuation/ permanent
d) none total disablement; (f) Children
Pension; and (g) Orphan
31. This requirement of 2 months pension.
waiting period shall not apply in a) True b) false
cases of female members
resigning from service for the 36. The amount of monthly pension
purpose of getting married. will vary from member to
a) True b) false member depending upon his
pensionable salary and
32. Minimum ______ years pensionable service.
contributory service is required a) True b) false
for entitlement to pension.
a) 10 b) 8 c) 12 d) 9 37. Pensionable Salary will be
average of last _________ pay.

31 | P a g e MCQ
 a) 12 months c) 24 months
b) 10 months d) 12 years 42. The rate of children pension is 25
per cent of widow pension for
38. The amount so arrived shall be each child subject to a minimum
reduced at the rate of 3 per of Rs. _______. Per child payable
cent for every year by which the upto two children at a time till
eligible service falls short of 20 they attain the age of 25 years.
years, subject to maximum a) 115 p.m c) 110 p.m
reduction of 25 per cent. b) 150 p.m d) 115 p.a.
a) True b) false
43. If there are no parents alive, the
39. In the case of members who scheme provides for orphan
contributed to the Family pension @ 75 per cent of the
Pension Scheme for 24 years, the widow pension payable to
minimum amount of pension will orphans subject to the minimum
be Rs. 500 per month. of Rs. _______. Per orphan.
Depending upon the retirement a) 170 p.m c) 150 p.m
date, the amount of pension for b) 160 p.m d) 175 p.m
such members may go even
beyond Rs. ______ per month. 44. Disabled children are also made
a) 800 b) 2400 c) 8000 d) eligible for lifelong pension.
1600 a) True b) false

40. The Family Pension members
retiring in November, 1995 after
having membership of only 10
years will also get a minimum
pension of Rs. _________.
a) 265 p.a. c) 260 p.m
b) 265 p.m d) 256 p.m
41. The rate of minimum widow
pension is Rs. ______ p.m. The
maximum may go upto Rs.
______p.m. Payable as normal
members’ pension on
completion of nearly 33 years of
service.
a) 460;250 c) 350; 3500
b) 450; 2,500 d) 400; 2000
45. Under the Scheme, neither the
employer nor the employee is
required to make any additional
contribution
a) True b) false
46. The employer’s share of PF
contribution representing _____
of the wage is being diverted to
the said Fund.
a) 12.33% c) 10.33%
b) 33.33% d) 8.33%
47. The Central Government is also
contributing to the Pension Fund
at the rate of______ of the wage
of the employees.

32 | P a g e MCQ
 a) 1.20% c) 1.15% pay of the employee-members
b) 1.16% d) 1.10% for meeting the administrative
charges, subject to a
48. Employees’ Deposit-Linked ____________.
Insurance Schemecame into a) Minimum of Rs. 2/- per month
force on the_________. b) Minimum of Rs. 0.2/- per
a) 1st Aug, 1975 month
b) 1st August, 1976 c) Maximum of Rs. 2/- per month
c) 21st August, 1976 d) Maximum of Rs. 20/- per
d) 1st August, 1986 month

49. All the employees who are 54. In case of death of a member,
members of the Provident Funds an amount equal to the average
in both the exempted and not balance in the account of the
exempted establishments are deceased during the preceding
covered under the scheme. 12 months or period of
a) True b) false membership, whichever is less
shall be paid to the persons
50. Employees are not required to eligible to receive the amount or
contribute to the Insurance Fund. the Provident Fund
a) True b) false accumulations.
a) True b) false
51. The employers are required to
pay contributions to the 55. In case the average balance
Insurance Fund at the rate of exceeds Rs. 50,000, the amount
_____of the total emoluments. payable shall be ________of the
a) 1.5% b) 1.2% c) 1% d) amount of such excess subject
0.1% to a ceiling of Rs. One lakhs
a) Rs. 5,00,000 plus 40%
52. Total emoluments means basic b) Rs. 50,000 plus 4%
wages, dearness allowance c) Rs. 5,000 plus 40%
including, cash value of any d) Rs. 50,000 plus 40%
food concession and retaining
allowance, if any. 56. Central Government has already
a) True b) false constituted Employees Provident
Fund Appellate Tribunal,
53. The employers of all covered consisting of a presiding officer
establishments are required to who is qualified to be a High
pay charges to the Insurance Court Judge or a District Judge
Fund, at the rate of 0.01% of the with effect from 1st July, 1997 in

33 | P a g e MCQ
 accordance with provisions of
Section 7D.
a) True b) false
57. Which authority has been
constituted by the Central
Government to preside over the
cases regarding determination
of monies due from employers?
a) Employees Provident Fund
Appellate Tribunal
b) Employees Provident Fund
Consultancy Tribunal
c) Employees Provident Fund
Helpdesk
d) Employees Provident Fund
Information Centre
58. Section 17A(1) of the Act
provides that where an
employee employed in an
establishment to which this Act
applies leaves his employment
and obtain re-employment in
another establishment to which
this Act does not apply, the
Provident Fund of the
establishment left by him shall be
transferred within such time as
may be specified by Central
Government
34 | P a g e
a) True b) false
59. Statutory protection is provided
to the amount of contribution to
Provident Fund under sec.
______from attachment to any
Court decree.
a) 11 b) 8 c) 12 d) 10
60. There is a statutory vesting of the
fund on dependents after
_______of the subscriber which
on such vesting becomes
absolute property of dependent
and cannot be held to have
inherited by dependent.
a) The death
b) The insolvent
c) The court decree
d) The pending application of
insolvent
61. The above provision shall apply
in relation to the Employees’
Pension Scheme or any other
amount payable under the
Insurance Scheme as they apply
in relation to any amount
payable out of the fund.
a) True
b) False
MCQ
 PAYMENT OF BONUS ACT, 1965
1. The term Bonus is not denied in applicable to any factory or
the payment of Bonus Act1965 establishment
a) True b) False a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

2. __Dictionary defines bonus as 7. An employee is entitled to be

something given in addition to paid by his employer a bonus in
what is ordinarily received by or accounting years subjected to
strictly due to the receipt the condition that he/she has
a) Oxford concise worked for not less than—
b) Webster International working days of that year .
c) A&B a) 20 b) 30 c) 90 d) 45
d) None
8. An employer shall pay minimum
3. The payment of Bonus is to bonus at the rate of __of the
bridge the gap between wages salary or wages earned by an
paid and ideal of a living wages. year or Rs.100/-whichever, is
a) Objection c) purpose higher
b) Advantage d) none a) 8% c) 8.67%
b) 8.33% d) 20%
4. The _____ payment of Bonus Act
1965 applies to every factory or 9. According to sec ______,the Act
defined under extends to whole of India.
a) Factories act 1948 a) 1(1) c) 1(3)
b) Gratuity Act b) 1(2) d) 1(4)
c) Minimum Wages Act 1948
d) Payment of wage Act 1936. 10. The relation to the state of
Jammu and Kashmir, the
5. And every other establishment in reference to the accounting
which 20 or more persons are year commencing on any day in
employed on any day during the year 1964 and every
____ subsequent accounting year
a) Financial year shall be constructed as
b) Calendar year reference to the accounting
c) Accounting year year commencing on any day in
d) Academic year. the year 1968 and every
subsequent accounting year.
6. The Govt. May after living – a) True b) False
months notification in the official 11. This Act is not apply to
gazzette, make the Act employees employed by R.B.I.,

35 | P a g e MCQ
 and the employees employed a) True b) False
by UTI.
a) True b) False 18. Employee is defined under
sec.__
12. The appropriate Govt. Has a) 2(6) c) 2(11)
necessary powers under sec.—to b) 2(7) d) 2(13)
exempt an establishment or class
of establishments from all or any 19. Employer is defined under
of the provisional of the Act for a sec.___
specified period. a) 2(11) c) 2(14)
a) 35 b) 34 c) 36 d) 33 b) 2(13) d) no section

13. What are the different types of 20. Salary or wages is defined under
bonus? sec._____
a) Profit based bonus a) 2(11) c) 2(21)
b) Customary bonus b) 2(13) d) no section
c) Attendance bonus
d) All 21. As per sec.4 in the case of
banking .gross profit is
14. Allocable surplus for banking calculated in the manner
companies is ____ of the specified in the first schedule.
available surplus in accounting a) True b) False
year.
a) 67 b) 60 c) 62 d) 65 22. A employee suspended but
subsequently reinstated with ____
15. Available surplus is defined under back wage cannot be treated
sec.____ to be in eligible for bonus for the
a) 2(1) c) 2(6) period of suspension.
b) 2(4) d) 2(7) a) Full c) half
b) Any of above d)
16. An employee means any person proportionately
other an apprentice, employed
on a salary or wages not 23. As per section 9, an employee
exceeding ____per mensem. shall be disqualified from
a) Rs.1000 c) Rs. 5000 receiving bonus under this Act, if
b) Rs10000 d) Rs. 7500 he is dismissed from service for-
a) Fraud c) theft
17. Part time permanent employees b) Riotous d) all
working on fixed hour are 24. If an employee is dismissed from
employees. service for any act of

36 | P a g e MCQ
 misconduct enumerated in
sec.9, he stands disqualified from
receiving any bonus under the
Act and not the bonus only for
the accounting year in which the
dismissal takes place.
a) True b) False
25. Payment of minimum bonus is
defined in sec.____
a) 9 b) 10 c) 11 d) 12
26. Sec.10 of the act is not violating
of article ___of the constitution.
a) 19 & 301 c) 19 & 302
b) 20 & 301 d) no article
27. Where the salary or wage of an
employee exceeds Rs. ____ per
mensem. The bonus payable
under Sec.10 or 11 shall be
calculated as if his salary or
wage were Rs. ____per mensem.
a) 350 ; 350 c) 355; 355
b) 355 ; 350 d) 355; 10000
28. Where there is a dispute
regarding payment of bonus
pending before any authority
under sec.22,all amount payable
to an employee by the way of
bonus under this act shall be a
paid in cash by his employer
within- month from the date from
which the award becomes
enforceable or the settlement
comes into operation, in respect
of such dispute.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 1 ½ d) 3
37 | P a g e
29. In any other case, the bonus
should be paid within ___ months
from the close of the accounting
year.
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8
30. It may be noted that every
application for recovery of
bonus from an employer shall be
made within _____ from the date
on which the money become
due to the employee from the
employer.
a) 1 month c) 10 year
b) 1 year d) 10
months
31. Bonus payments under sec. ____
are also subject to the minimum
and maximum limit.
a) 31 c) 31B
b) 31A d) 31C
32. __should consider public interest
financial position and whether
workers contributed to the loss
before exemption
a) Appropriate Govt.
b) CG c) SG d) none
33. If any person contravenes any of
the provisions of this Act of any
rule made there under, he shall
be punishable with imprisonment
for a term may extended to six
months, or with fine which may
extended ____ or with both.
a) Rs.1000/- c) Rs. 500/-
b) Rs.5000/- d) Rs. 1500/-
MCQ
34. Sec. ___ states offences by
companies
a) 28 b) 29 c) 30 d) 31
35. For the purpose of sec.29
company means anybody
corporate and includes a firm or
other associations of individuals,
and director, in relation to a firm,
means a partner in the firm.
a) True b) False
36. An employee was dismissed from
service for an act of misconduct
the company did not pay any
bonus to the dismissed employee
for the accounting year in which
38 | P a g e
the dismissal took place, Is the
action of the company justified?
a) Justified b) unjustified
37. Manmauji an employee was
suspended for an alleged
misconduct .An inquiry was
conducted and the charges
against him could not be
proved. As a result he was re-
instated with full back wages.
The employee was however, not
paid bonus for the period of
suspension. Can he challenge
the employer’s action?
a) Yes b) no
MCQ
 PAYMENT OF GRATUITY ACT, 1972
1. It is lump sum payment made by
an employer to an employee in
consideration of his past service
when the employment is
terminated.
a) True b) False
2. In the case of death of an
employee it provides much
needed financial assistance to
the surviving members of the
family.
a) True b) False
3. Gratuity shall be payable to an
employee on the termination of
his employment after he has
rendered continues service for
not less than _____ years
a) 3 b) 5 c) 8 d) 10
4. The employer shall pay gratuity
to an employee at the rate of
_______ days wages based on
the rate of wages last drawn by
the employee concerned for
every completed years of
service or part thereof in excess
of six months.
a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25
5. Act extended to whole of India.
a) True b) False
6. Recently the Act has been
amended twice to enhance the
ceiling on amount of gratuity
from Rs. ______ Lac to Rs.10Lac.
a) 3 b) 3.5 c) 4 d) 5
39 | P a g e
7. Amendment have been
introduced by the payment of
Gratuity (Amendment) Act,2010
with effect from _____
a) 1st May 2010
b) 20May2010
c) 24May 2010
d) 24th June 2010.
8. Application of the Act to an
employed person depends on
factors
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
9. Firstly, he should be employed in
an establishment to which the
act applies and secondly, he
should be an employee as
defined in act.
a) True b) False
10. The CG has specified motor
transport, undertaking societies
trusts circus, etc. In which---or
more persons are employed or
were employed on any day of
the preceding 12 months as class
of establishment to which the
Act shall apply.
a) 10 b) 12 c) 20 d) 15
11. A shop or establishment, to
which the Act has become
applicable once, continues to
be governed by it, even if the
number of persons employed
therein at any time after it has
become so applicable falls
below ten.
MCQ
 a) True b) False
19. Gratuity is payable normally to
12. Sec. ______ defines employee. the employee himself.
a) 2(a) c) 2(e) a) True b) False
b) 2(c) d) 2(g)
20. Gratuity is calculated on the
13. Definition of employees excludes basis of continuous service :-
those persons who holds a post a) True b) False
under______ and it governed by
any other act 21. The right of _____is limited to the
a) Court c) SG extent of damage
b) CG d) B and C a) Surrender c) cancelled
b) Forfeiture d) none
14. Teacher was held to be not an
employee under the Act. 22. In absence of profit of the extent
a) True b) False of damage, the righty of
forfeiture is not available.
15. Retirement means termination of a) True b) False
the service of an employee
otherwise then superannuation. 23. Sec.______ deals with a case
a) True b) false where the services of an
employee have been
16. Superannuation is defined under terminated:-
sec ___ a) 4(6)(a) c) 4(6)(c)
a) 2(p) c) 2(r) b) 4(6)(b) d) 4(6)(d)
b) 2(g) d) 2(s)
24. In such cases the gratuity
17. The completion of the payable to the employee may
continuous service of five years is be wholly or partially forfeited.
not necessary where the a) True b) False
termination of the employment
of any employee is due to death 25. Assignment of gratuity is
or disablement. prohibited it cannot be withheld
a) True b) False for non vacation of service
b) Partly True quarters by retiring employees.
a) True b) False
18. Which of the following are not
included in wages 26. The controlling authority and the
a) DA c) HRA appellate authority are two
b) Bonus d) basic salary

40 | P a g e MCQ
 important functionaries in the
operation of the Act.
a) True b) False
27. Sec.7(1) lays down that a person
who is eligible for payment of
gratuity under the Act or any
person authorized, in writing, to
act on his behalf shall send a
written application to the _____
a) Central Govt.
b) Controlling authority
c) Appellate Authority
d) Employer`
28. Rule _____ of the payment of
gratuity Rules 1972, provides that
the application shall be made
ordinarily within _____ days from
the date gratuity becomes
payable.
a) 30 b) 40 c) 45 d) 60
29. Section ____ lays down that a
person who is eligible for
payment of gratuity under the
Act or any person authorised, in
writing, to act on his behalf shall
send a written application to the
employer.
a) 7(1) c) 7(A)
b) 7(1A) d) 7(a)
30. Rule 7 of the Payment of
Gratuity (Central) Rules, 1972,
provides that the application
shall be made ordinarily within
____ days from the date gratuity
becomes payable.
a) 30 b) 40 c) 15 d) 60
41 | P a g e
31. A nominee of an employee who
is eligible for payment of gratuity
in the case of death of the
employee shall apply to the
employee ordinarily within ____
days from the date of the
gratuity becomes payable to
him.
a) 30 b) 15 c) 90 d) 60
32. Which of the following authorities
are the important functionaries in
the operation of the Payment of
Gratuity Act?
a) Controlling Authority
b) Appellate Authority
c) Concessional Authority
d) A and B
33. Section 7(3) of the Act says that
the employer shall arrange to
pay the amount of gratuity
within ___ days from the date of
its becoming payable to the
person to whom it is payable.
a) 15 b) 60 c) 30 d) 90
34. If the claim for gratuity is not
found admissible, the employer
shall issue a notice in the
prescribed form to the applicant
employee specifying reasons
why the claim for gratuity is not
considered admissible. A copy of
the notice shall be endorsed to
the Controlling Authority.
a) Controlling Authority
b) Appellate Authority
c) Concessional Authority
d) A and B
MCQ
 WORKMEN COMPENSATION ACT, 1923
1. The passing of the Workmen’s 6. The Employees’ Compensation
Compensation Act renamed as Act is ____ legislation
Employees’ Compensation Act, a) Political security
1923 was the first step towards b) Social security
social security of ________ c) Economical security
a) Workmen c) employer d) All of the above
b) Employee d) all
7. The Act extends to the whole of
2. It aims at providing ______- to India except_____
workmen and their dependants a) Jammu and Kashmir
in case of accidental injury by b) Jammu c) Kashmir d)
means of payment of none
compensation by the employers.
a) Protection 8. Dependent define in sec._____
b) Financial protection a) 2(1)(d) c) 2(1)(b)
c) Technical protection b) 2(1)(c) d) 2(1)(e)
d) All of the above
9. Dependent includes an adopted
3. This Act applies to certain railway son, daughter or child.
servants and persons employed a) True b) false
in hazardous employments
a) True b) false 10. Sec. ________ states about
‘employees’
4. Minimum rates of compensation a) 2(aa) c) 2(cc)
for permanent total disablement b) 2(bb) d) 2(dd)
are increased from ___________
a) 80000 to 100000 11. Employee does not include ____
b) 80000 to 120000 of a ship.
c) 100000 to 120000 a) Person recruited for work
d) 100000 to 180000 outside India
b) Seaman of a ship
5. Minimum rates of compensation c) Sub-divisional officer of
for death are increased from railway
_______ d) Driver
a) 90000 to 140000
b) 100000 to 140000 12. Seaman does not include ____.
c) 90000 to 120000 a) Person of a ship
d) 90000 to 100000 b) Crew member
c) Master of the ship

42 | P a g e MCQ
 d) All of the above age of _____ years and who is
infirm.
13. Legal representative of a) 18 b) 10 c) 12 d) 15
deceased employer is covered
under definition of employer. 20. The Act does not define the
a) True b) false word ______
a) Partial disablement
14. A contractor falls within the b) Total disablement
above definition of the employer c) Disablement
a) True b) false d) None of the above

15. a General Manager of a Railway 21. Disablement can be classified

is an employer into____.
a) true b) false a) Temporary: permanent
b) Total: partial
16. ____ include dearness c) Permanent t: total
allowance, free d) Partial: temporary
accommodation, overtime pay,
etc. 22. If disablement is of a temporary
a) Wages c) both nature, reduces the earning
b) Salary d) none capacity of an employee in the
employment in which he was
17. The claim of bonus being a right engaged, called as____
of the workman is a benefit a) Partial disablement
forming part of wages and the b) Total disablement
same can be included in wages c) Disablement
a) True b) false d) None of the above

18. Which of the following terms are 23. Schedule ____ contains list of
defined in the Workmen’s injuries deemed to result in
Compensation Act, 1923? Permanent Total/Partial
a) Dependant disablement.
b) Disablement a) I b) II c) III d) IV
c) Workman
d) Seaman 24. In an injury of the workmen, had
amputated his left arm from
19. If wholly dependent on the elbow who was a carpenter. It
earnings of the employee at the was held that_____.
time of his death, a son or a a) Total disablement
daughter who has attained the b) Partial disablement

43 | P a g e MCQ
 c) Partial temporary compensation in case of
disablement occupational disease
d) Partial permanent a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
disablement
30. That the disease has arisen out of
25. Whether the disablement is and in the course of the
temporary or permanent and employment; the contracting of
whether it results in reduction of such disease shall be deemed to
earning capacity, the answer will be an injury by accident within
depend upon the fact of each the meaning of this section.
case, except when the injury is a) True b) false
clearly included in Part II of
Schedule I. 31. The central government or state
a) True b) false government wants to add any
description of employment to
26. If after the accident a worker the employments specified in
has become disabled, and schedule III gives the notice in
cannot do a particular job but official gazette of not less than
the employer offers him another ____ months.
kind of job, the worker is entitled a) 2 b) 3 c) 1.5 d) 2.5
to compensation for _____
a) Temporary disablement 32. There must be personal injury
b) Partial disablement caused to an employee.
c) Permanent disablement a) True b) false
d) None of the above
33. ______ injury will also include
27. In case of permanent partial nervous shock or break-down or
disablement, the disablement mental strain.
does not result in reduction in a) Physical c)
his/her earning capacity. accidental
a) True b) false b) Personal d) none

28. Where it is not a scheduled injury 34. The personal injury must be
the loss of earning capacity must caused by an “accident”
be proved by evidence. a) True b) false
a) True b) false
35. The cause contemplated is the
29. Sec _____ of the Act provides for proximate cause and not any
employers liability for _____
a) Direct cause

44 | P a g e MCQ
 b) Remote cause period of employment and the
c) Incidental cause place of work.
d) None of the above a) True b) false

36. Generally if an employee is 40. The word “employment” has a

suffering from a particular wider meaning than work.
disease and as a result of wear a) True b) false
and tear of his employment he
dies of that disease, employer is 41. For the expression “accident
not liable arising out of and in the course
a) True b) false of employment” the basic and
indispensable ingredient is
37. In the case of ________ it was unexpectedness.
observed that the words arising a) True b) false
out of employment means that
injury has resulted from risk 42. Which of the following injuries
incidental to the duties of the come under the definition of the
service which unless engaged in term ‘personal injury’?
the duty owing to the master, it is i. Nervous shock
reasonable to believe that the ii. Mental strain
workman would not otherwise iii. Loss of money
have suffered. iv. Breakdown
a) Mackenzie v. I.M. Issak a) I, ii, iii
b) Smt. Sunderbai v. The General b) Ii, Iii, iv
Manager, Ordinance Factory c) I, iii, iv
Khamaria, Jabalpur d) I, iii, iv
c) Divisional Manager KSRTC v.
Bhimaiah 43. Accident arisen ______ of
d) MangruPalji v. Robinsons employment means that the
accident must take place at a
38. It is known as doctrine of notional time and place when he was
extension of employment; doing his master’s job.
whether employment extends to a) In the course
the extent of accident depends b) Out of the course
upon each individual case. c) Both a and b
a) True b) false d) None of the above

39. The expression “in the course of 44. There must be nexus between
employment” suggests the the time and place of the
accident and the employment.

45 | P a g e MCQ
 a) True b) false b) Employee
c) Both a and b
45. When the injury does not result in d) No compensation
disablement for a period
exceeding ____ days then 50. According to Section 12(2),
employer is not liable. where the principal is liable to
a) 3 b) 2 c) 7 d) 10 pay compensation under this
46. Under Section 3(5), an employee section, he shall be entitled to be
is not entitled to any indemnified by the contractor
compensation under the and all questions as the right to
Workmen’s Compensation Act, and the amount of any such
1923, if he has instituted, in a indemnity shall, in default of
_____ court, a suit for damages agreement, be settled by the
against the employer or any _____
other person. a) Commissioner c) CG
a) Civil c) high b) Tribunal d) SG
b) District d) session
51. A Municipal Board entrusted the
47. Which of the following types of electrification work of the town
injuries are listed in Part II of to State employees. A employee
Schedule I? received injuries while performing
a) Permanent total disablement his work. Then who is liable for
b) Temporary disablement compensation?
c) Permanent partial a) State c) central
disablement b) Board d) no
d) Temporary partial compensation
disablement
52. A cartman was engaged by a
48. Sec._____ of the Act envisages Rice Mill to carry rice bags from
the employer’s liability to pay mill to railway station. The
compensation to a contractor. cartman met with an accident
a) 12 b) 11 c) 14 d) 13 on a public road while returning
back from railway station and
49. If any employee do work under this resulted in his death. There
contractor who is engaged to was no evidence to show that
do a work which is part of the employee was engaged through
trade or business of the a contractor. Then who is the
employer, then who is the liable liable for compensation.
for compensation? a) Owner c) SG
a) Contractor

46 | P a g e MCQ
 b) Rice Mill d) b) II and I d) II and III
contractor
57. Compensation becomes due on
53. Section ____ is not applicable the date of death of employee
where the accident arises out of and not when Commissioner
and in the course of decides it
employment. Even assuming that a) True b) false
the deceased was in the
employment of contractor 58. Where an employer is in default
engaged by the employer, the in paying compensation, he
liability of the owner was clear would be liable to pay interest
from Section 12(1) and it had not thereon and also a further sum
been excluded by reason of not exceeding ____of such
Section 12(4). amount of compensation as
a) 12 c) 12(3) penalty.
b) 12(1) d) 12(i) a) 50% c) 25%
b) 55% d) 75%
54. A contractor was entrusted with
the repairs of a defective 59. Where the employee has, during
chimney. A employee engaged a continuous period of not less
by him was injured while carrying than ______ months immediately
out repairs. Question is mill was preceding the accident, the
liable or not? monthly wages of the employee
a) Liable b) not liable shall be 1/12th of the total wages
which have fallen due for
55. “Compensation” has been payment to him by the employer
defined under Sec. ____ of the in the last 12 months of that
Act period.
a) 2(1)(a) c) 2(1)(d) a) 10 b) 12 c) 14 d) 12.5
b) 2(1)(b) d) 2(1)(c)
60. In case where worker was work
56. Amount of compensation is for only 10 days, including cases
payable in the event of an in which it is not possible to
employee meeting with an calculate the monthly wages the
accident resulting into temporary monthly wages shall be _____
or permanent disability or times the total wages earned in
disease as stated in schedule respect of the last continuous
_______in terms of Section 4 of period of service, immediately
the Act, read with Schedule IV. preceding the accident from the
a) I and III c) I and II employer who is liable to pay

47 | P a g e MCQ
 compensation, divided by the b) Employer may prove for the
number of days comprising such balance in the insolvency
period. proceedings or liquidation.
a) 30 b) 3 c) 12 d) 20 c) Employee may not prove for
the balance in the insolvency
61. A period of service shall be proceedings or liquidation.
deemed to be continuous which d) Employee may not prove for
has not been interrupted by a the balance in the insolvency
period of absence from work proceedings or liquidation.
exceeding ______ days.
a) 10 b) 12 c) 14 d) 15 66. As per sec. ____no lump sum or
half-monthly payment payable
62. Sec _____ of the Act provides under this Act can be assigned,
that any half-monthly payment or charged or attached or
payable under this Act. passed to any person other than
a) 6 b) 5 c) 8 d) 7 the employee by operation of
law nor can any claim be set-off
63. The employer cannot make against the same.
payment of compensation a) 8 b) 9 c) 10 d) 11
directly to the deceased legal
heirs. 67. Sec. ____ shall not apply where a
a) True b) false company is wound up voluntarily
merely for purpose of
64. Payment of ex-gratia or reconstruction or of
employment on compassionate amalgamation with another
grounds will not be ____ company.
a) Employees’ liability a) 12 c) 14
b) Employers’ liability b) 15 d) 13
c) Both liability
d) No liability 68. Sec. ____ discuss about
Contracting out of
65. If the liability of the insures to the compensation.
employee is less than the liability a) 16 b) 15 c) 17 d) 18
of the employer to the
employee, then______ 69. If the employer is of opinion that
a) Employee may prove for the he is liable to deposit
balance in the insolvency compensation, he shall make
proceedings or liquidation. the deposit within ______days of
the service of the notice.
a) 30 b) 35 c) 90 d) 60

48 | P a g e MCQ
70. If the employer is of opinion that
he is not liable to deposit
compensation, he shall in his
statement indicate the grounds
on which he disclaims liability.
a) True b) false
71. Where by any law for the time
being in force, notice is required
to be given to any authority, by
or on behalf of an employer, of
any accident occurring in his
premises which results in death or
serious bodily injury, the person
required to give the notice shall,
within _____ days of the death or
serious bodily injury.
a) 7 b) 10 c) 30 d) 20
72. And send a report to the
Commissioner giving the
circumstances attending the
death or serious bodily injury in
the prescribed form ____
a) E b) EE c) EF d) FE
73. “Serious bodily injury” means an
injury which involves, or in all
probability will involve, the
permanent loss of the use of, or
permanent injury to, any limb, or
the permanent loss of or injury to
the sight or hearing, or the
fracture of any limb, or the
enforced absence of the injured
person from work for a period
exceeding ___ days.
a) 10 b) 20 c) 30 d) 3
49 | P a g e
74. No claim for compensation shall
be entertained by a
Commissioner unless the notice
of the accident has been given
in the manner hereinafter
provided as soon as practicable
after the happening thereof and
unless the claim is preferred
before him within _____ years of
the occurrence of the accident.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 1.5
75. In case of partial disablement
due to the contracting of any
such disease and which does not
force the employee to absent
himself from work, the period of
two years shall be counted from
the day the employee gives
notice of the disablement to his
employer.
a) True b) false
76. What is the period within which
an employer must make a
deposit with the Commissioner if
he is liable to pay
compensation?
a) Within 10 days of being
served the notice
b) Within 20 days of being
served the notice
c) Within 30 days of being
served the notice
d) Within 40 days of being
served the notice
77. If an employee, voluntarily
leaves without having been so
examined the vicinity of the
MCQ
 place in which he was 83. The order of the Commissioner
employed, his right to can never be challenged as
compensation shall be being without jurisdiction.
suspended until he returns and a) True b) false
officers himself for such
examination. 84. Sec.___ dealing with venue of
a) True b) false proceedings and transfer of
cases under the Act.
78. Sec. ____ states Appointment of a) 20 b) 21 c) 22 d) 24
Commissioners.
a) 20 b) 21 c) 22 d) 25 85. Where any matter under this Act
is to be done by or before a
79. Appoint any person who is or has Commissioner, the same shall,
been a member of a State subject to the provisions of this
Judicial Service for a period of Act and to any rules made
not less than _____ years. hereunder, be done by or before
a) 5 b) 4 c) 3 d) 4.5 the Commissioner for the area in
which:
80. Every Commissioner shall be a) The accident took place
deemed to be a public servant which resulted in the injury; or
within the meaning of the Indian b) The employer or in case of his
Penal Code. death, the dependent
a) True b) false claiming the compensation
ordinarily resides; or
81. Jurisdiction of a Commissioner to c) The employee has his
entertain a claim in respect of registered office:
payment of compensation to an d) None of the above
employee.
a) True b) false 86. The section deals with territorial
jurisdiction of Commissioner
82. As per the act The Commissioner under the Act.
has jurisdiction over following a) True b) false
matters___
a) Liability of any person to pay 87. Which of the following matters
compensation. are under the jurisdiction of the
b) The nature and extent of Commissioner?
disablement. b) Liability of any person to pay
c) The amount or duration of compensation
compensation. c) Appointment of a substitute
d) All of the above employee

50 | P a g e MCQ
 d) The nature and extent of
disablement
e) The amount or duration of
compensation
88. Any defect in the application,
can be fatal to the claim after
rectifies mistakes.
a) True b) false
89. As per the sec. ___ If the
applicant is illiterate or for any
other reason is unable to furnish
the required information in
writing, the application shall, if
the applicant so desires, be
prepared under the direction of
the Commissioner.
a) 20 b) 21 c) 22 d) 23
90. As per the sec. ___ for all the
purposes of Section 195 and
Chapter XXVI of the Code of
Criminal Procedure, 1973, he
shall be deemed to be a Civil
Court.
a) 20 b) 21 c) 22 d) 23
91. In the case of______, it was held
that the Commissioner should
not make a medical certificate
the basis of his award unless he
has examined the concerned
medical officer.
a) M.S.N. Co. Ltd. v. Mohd.
Kunju,
b) M.B. & G. Engineering Factory
v. Bahadur Singh
c) Madina Saheb v. Province of
Madras
51 | P a g e
d) United India Fire & General
Insurance Co. Ltd. v.
Kamalalshi
92. As per Section 25A, the
Commissioner shall dispose of the
matter relating to compensation
within a period of _____ months
from the date of reference and
intimate the decision in respect
thereof within the said period to
the employee.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6
93. As per sec. ____all costs,
incidental to any proceedings
before a Commissioner, shall
subject to rules made under this
Act, be in the discretion of the
Commissioner.
a) 25 b) 26 c) 23 d) 24
94. A Commissioner may, if he thinks
fit, submit any question of law for
the decision of the High Court
and, if he does so, shall decide
the question in conformity with
such decision.
a) District court
b) High court
c) Civil court
d) Supreme court
95. The Commissioner shall record
the memorandum in a register in
the prescribed manner, after he
has satisfied himself as to its
genuineness provided that the
Commissioner has given at least
____days notice to the parties
MCQ
 concerned before recording officer within the meaning of
such memorandum. Section 5 of the Revenue
a) 5 b) 10 c) 7 d) 6 Recovery Act, 1890.
a) True b) false
96. The Commissioner may at any
time rectify the register. 102. Section 18A of the Act
a) True b) false prescribes penalties for the
contravention of the provisions of
97. The Commissioner may refuse to the Act which include fine up to
register the memorandum on Rs. _____.
ground of Inadequacy of the a) 5,000. c) 25,000.
sum or amount settled. b) 15,000. d) 10,000.
a) True b) false

98. The Commissioner shall have all
the powers of a Civil Court under
the Code of Civil Procedure,
1908.
a) True b) false
99. Appeal should be filed within____
days of order.
a) 60 b) 30 c) 90 d) 75
100. The provisions of Section 5 of
Limitation Act, 1963 shall be
applicable to appeals under the
Section.
a) True b) false
101. The Commissioner may
recover, as an arrear of land
revenue, any amount payable
by any person under this Act,
whether under an agreement for
the payment of compensation or
otherwise, and the Commissioner
shall be deemed to be a public
103. No prosecution under Section
18A shall be instituted except by
or with the previous sanction of
the Commissioner and no court
shall take cognizance of any
offence under this section unless
complaint is made within ______
months of the date on which the
alleged commission of offence
comes to the knowledge of the
Commissioner.
a) 6 b) 5 c) 10 d) 3
104. No half-monthly payment
shall be payable in respect of
the period during which the
owner of the ship is, under any
law in force for the time being
relating to merchant shipping
liable to defray the expenses of
maintenance of the injured
master or seaman.
a) True b) false

52 | P a g e MCQ
 CONTRACT LABOUR (REGULATION AND
ABOLITION) ACT, 1970
1. Contract Labour is significant welfare, health and social
and growing form the security.
employment. a) True b) False
a) True b) False
7. The Act extends to whole of
2. If generally refers to workers India.
engaged by a contractor for a) True b) False
user enterprise. 8. According to Sec.1(4), it applies
a) True b) False –
i. To every establishment in
3. The ______enacted the Contract which twenty or more
labour (Regulations and workmen are employed or
Abolition)Act in1970 and it came were employed on any day
into force on 10.2.71. of the preceding 12months as
a) CG c) SG contract labour.
b) Appropriate Govt. d) Govt. ii. To every contractor who
employer or who employed
4. The act applies to every on any day of the preceding
establishment contractor in 12months, twenty or more
which _____ or more workmen workmen.
are employed or were employed a) True b) False
on any day of the preceding
12months as contract labour 9. The appropriate Govt. May, after
a) 10 b) 12 c) 10 d) 25 giving not less than ______
months notice of its intention to
5. Every establishment and do so, by notification in the
contractor to whom, the Act official Gazettle apply the
applies have to register provisions of this Act to any
themselves or obtain a license establishment or contractor,
for execution of the contract employing such number of
work workman less than 20 as may be
a) True b) False specified in the notification.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
6. Under the act interests of
contract workers are protected 10. The appropriate Govt. Shall
in terms of wages, hours of work, decide that question after
consultation with the Central

53 | P a g e MCQ
 Board or as the maybe, as State knowledge of the principle
Board and its’ decision shall be employer.
final. a) True b) False
a) True b) False
15. Sec ______ requires the Central
11. Contract labour is defined in Govt. To constitute a Central
sec.______ Advisory contract Labour Board
a) 2(i)a c) 2(i)(c) to advise the Central Govt. On
b) 2(i)(b) d) 2(i)(d) such matter arising out of the
administration of the act as may
12. Contract Labour means a be referred to it and to carry out
workman shall be deemed to be other functions assigned to it
employed as contract labour in under the act.
or in connection with the work of a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
an establishment when he is
hired in or in connection with 16. Sec _____ requires the state Govt
such work by or through a to constitute the state advisory
contractor, with or without the contract labour Board to advise
knowledge of the principle the state governments on such
employer. matters arising out of the
a) True b) False administration of the Act as may
be referred to it and carry out
13. Which establishments are other functions assigned to it
exempt from the purview of the under the Act.
contract labour Act.1970? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
a) Establishment where work of an
intermittent nature is performed 17. Sec ______ Empowers the
b) Establishment where embroidery appropriate govt. Appoint by
work is performed. notification in the official
c) Establishment where Metal work Gazette, persons being gazette
is performed. officers of govt. To be registering
d) All officers and define the limits
within which a registering officer
14. A workman shall be deemed to shall exercise the powers
be employed as contract labour conferred on him by or under the
in or in connection with the work Act.
of an establishment when he is a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8
hired in or in connection with
such work by or through a 18. A registration fee varying from Rs.
contractor, with or without the _____ which is related to the nos.

54 | P a g e MCQ
 Of workmen employed as 23. Employee who have put in ____
contract labour, is payable days of work is ordered to be
a) 20 to 200 c) 50 to 500 observed
b) 20 to 500 d) 50 to 200 a) 120 b) 240c) 360 d) 480

19. No. ______ of an establishment to 24. Sec _____ empowers the

which the Act applies can appropriate govt. To appoint
employ contract labour, if he has Gazette officers to be licensing
not obtained the certificate of officers and define the limits of
registration or a certificate has their jurisdiction
been revoked after issue. a) 8 b) 9 c) 10 d) 11
a) Employer d) a and b
b) Principle 25. Under sec _____ of the Act, no
c) Principle employer. contractor to whom the Act is
applies can undertake or
20. Whose approval does the execute any work through
Registering officer require in a contract labour except under
case of revocation of a and in accordance with the
particular establishments license issued in that behalf by
registration? the licensing Officer.
a) Commissioner of Labour a) True b) False
b) SG d) CG 26. The license fee ranges from Rs.
c) Appropriate Government. ___ to Rs.125/- depending on the
numbers of workmen employed
21. Supreme Court cannot under by the contractor.
Article _____ of the constitution of a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 20
India order for abolition of
contract labour system in any 27. The license is not transferable.
establishment. a) True b) False
a) 12 b) 14 c) 32 d) 29
28. The license officer may vary or
22. At present there is no provision in amend a license subject to the
the Act for absorption of rules that be made in this behalf.
contract labour in the event of a) True b) False
prohibition of employment of
contract Labour in any category 29. The aggrieved person may ____
of work job. days from the date on which the
a) True b) False order is communicated to him
prefer an appeal to an
appellate Officer who shall b a

55 | P a g e MCQ
 person nominated in this behalf 35. Final payment shall be made
by the appropriate Govt. within ______ hours of the last
a) Within 60 c) after 30 working day.
b) Within 30 d) after 45 a) 24 b) 48 c) 12 d) 64

30. The appellate Officer may
entertain an appeal even after
the expiry of _____ days, if he is
satisfied that there was sufficient
cause for the delay.
a) 15 b) 30 c) 45 d) 90
31. The____ are required to take
certain specific measures for the
welfare and health of contract
labour.
a) Employees c)
contractor
b) Commissioner
c) Appropriate Govt.
32. Which of the following measures
are not to be a undertaken for
the welfare and health of
contract labour
a) Canteens
b) Rest Rooms
c) Creche
d) Drinking water.
36. Sec. ______ states penalties and
procedures
a) 21 b) 22 c) 23 d) 24
37. Sec.27 prescribing limitation of
prosecutions stipulates that no
court shall take cognizance of
an offence punishable under this
Act unless the complaint thereof
is made within ________ from the
date on which the alleged
commission of the offence came
to be knowledge of an in
respect
a) 3 yrs c) 30 days
b) 3 months d) 60 days
38. Sec ______ state that every
principle employer and every
contractor shall maintain such
registers and record in such forms
as may be prescribed.
a) 28 b) 29 c) 30 d) 31

33. Rule 63 to ____ of the contract 39. Small establishments mean

labour (Regulation and establishments employing not
Abolition) Central Rules 1971. less than 10 persons and not
a) 73 b) 68 c) 83 d) 10 more than _____persons.
a) 18 b) 19 c) 20 d) 21
34. Rule ____ states, no wage period
shall exceed one month. 40. Very small establishments mean
a) 63 b) 64 c) 65 d) 66 establishments employing not
more than _______ persons.
a) 9 b) 19 c) 10 d) 12

56 | P a g e MCQ
41. A contractor made short
payment of wages to a worker
employed by him as contract
Labour. The worker sought the
amount due from the principle
employer. Will he succeed?
a) Yes b) no
42. Raju a contract labour, engaged
for keeping industrial premises
clean, has been engaged for
270 days in a year. He
approached to the employer to
absorb him in the establishment.
Is the employer under an
57 | P a g e
obligation to absorb the
contract labour under the Act?
a) Yes b) no
43. Garuda Ltd. Employed contract
labour for doing some work in
the company. Subsequently, the
nature of work done by the
contract labour was notified to
be work of a perennial nature
by the appropriate Govt. Can
such contract labour claim
automatic absorption as regular
workmen in the company.
a) Yes b) no
MCQ
 MATERNITY BENEFIT ACT, 1961
1. Article _____of the Constitution of a) 3(b) b)3(a) c) 3(c)
India states that the State shall d)3(f)
make provision for securing just 6. Every woman shall be entitled to,
and humane conditions of work and her employer shall be liable
and for maternity relief. for, the payment of maternity
a) 42 b)43 c) 45 d) 24 benefit at the rate of the
average daily wage for the
2. The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 period of her actual absence,
still applicable to women that is to say, the period
employees employed in immediately preceding the day
establishments which are not of her delivery, the actual day of
covered by the ESI Act, as also her delivery and any period
to women employees, employed immediately following that day.
in establishments covered by the a) True b) False
ESI Act, but who are out of its
coverage because of the wage- 7. The ________means the average
limit. of the woman’s wages payable
a) True b) False to her for the days on which she
has worked during the period of
3. It extends to the whole of three calendar months
India______. immediately preceding the date
a) Except Jammu and Kashmir from which she absents herself
b) Except Jammu on account of maternity, the
c) Except Kashmir minimum rate of wage fixed or
d) None revised under the Minimum
Wages Act, 1948 or ten rupees,
4. Maternity Benefits are aimed to whichever is the highest.
protect the _________by a) Average daily wage
providing for the full and healthy b) Average monthly wage
maintenance of women and her c) Daily wage
child when she is not working. d) None of the above
a) Dignity of motherhood
b) Youth protected against 8. A woman shall be entitled to
exploitation maternity benefit if she has
c) Both a and b actually worked in an
d) None establishment of the employer
from whom she claims maternity
5. “Child” includes a still-born child benefit, for a period of not less
define in sec. ____ than _________ days in the twelve

58 | P a g e MCQ
 months immediately preceding
the date of her expected
delivery.
a) 40 b)80 c) 60 d) 90
9. The maximum period for which
any woman shall be entitled to
maternity benefit shall be _______
weeks of which not more than six
weeks shall precede the date of
her expected delivery.
a) 12 b) 30 c) 10 d)15
10. In the case of a woman who is
pregnant, such notice shall state
the date from which she will be
absent from work, not being a
date earlier than ______weeks
from the date of her expected
delivery.
a) 6 b) 10 c) 5 d) 7
11. Any woman who has not given
the notice when she was
pregnant may give such notice
as soon as possible after the
delivery.
a) True b) False
12. The amount of maternity benefit
for the period preceding the
date of her expected delivery
shall be paid in advance by the
employer to the woman on
production of such proof, that
the woman is pregnant, and the
amount due for the subsequent
period shall be paid by the
employer to the woman within
____ hours of production of such
proof as may be prescribed that
59 | P a g e
the woman has been delivered
of a child.
a) 48 b) 40 c) 8 d)
50
13. Every woman delivered of a
child who returns to duty after
such delivery shall, in addition to
the interval for rest allowed to
her, be allowed in the course of
her daily work two breaks of the
prescribed duration for nursing
the child until the child attains
the age of_____ months..
a) 10 b) 15 c)5 d) 25
14. Every employer shall prepare
and maintain such registers,
records and muster-rolls and in
prescribed manner under sec.
_____of the Act.
a) 20 b)2 c) 22 d) 21
15. Penalty for contravention of Act
by employer provides in sec.
______
a) 20 b) 21 c) 22 d) 23
16. If any employer fails to pay any
amount of maternity benefit to a
woman entitled under this Act or
discharges or dismisses such
woman during or on account of
her absence from work in
accordance with the provisions
of the Act, he shall be
punishable with imprisonment
which shall not be less than
________
a) Two months but which
may extend to one year
MCQ
 b) Three months but which
may extend to two year
c) One months but which
may extend to one year
d) Three months but which
may extend to one year
17. If any employer fails to pay any
amount of maternity benefit to a
woman entitled under this Act or
discharges or dismisses such
woman during or on account of
her absence from work in
accordance with the provisions
of the Act, he shall be
punishable with fine which shall
_________
60 | P a g e
a) Not be less than one
thousand rupees but which
may extend to five thousand
rupees.
b) Not be less than two
thousand rupees but which
may extend to four thousand
rupees.
c) Not be less than two
thousand rupees but which
may extend to five thousand
rupees.
d) Not be less than four
thousand rupees but which
may extend to five thousand
rupees.
MCQ
 THE CHILD LABOUR (PROHIBITION AND
REGULATION) ACT, 1986
1. At present _____ hazardous 7. The day specified in notice as a
occupation and ____ processes, weekly holiday for a child shall
where employment of children is not be altered by the occupier
prohibited. more than once in_
a) 65,18 c) 20, 40 A) 1Week c) 2 months
b) 18,65 d) 15, 30 B) 1month d) 3 months

2. Child labour (Prohibition And 8. The ‘notice to Inspector’ as

Regulation) Act , 1986 enacted mentioned in section 9 of the
to prohibit the engagement of act, shall be sent within how
children below the age of ___ many days of employment of a
years is factories & mines. child and commencement of
A) 15 c) 14 this act with respect to that
B) 18 d) 10 particular establishment.
A) 10 c) 20
3. As per the section 2(ii) of the Act B) 15 d) 30
defines children means a person
who has not completed his __ of 9. Provisions of Section 7.8. & 9 of
age. the Act shall not apply to any
A) 15 c) 10 establishment wherein any
B) 18 d) 14 process is carried out by the
occupier with the aid of his
4. As per child labour Act,1986, a family.
child should not be permitted to A) True b) False
work between_____&___.
a) 8P.m. To 7.A.m. 10. Provisions of section 7.8.&9 shall
b) 7PM to 8AM. not apply to any school
c) 6PM to 7AM. established by Government.
d) 5PM to 9AM A) True b) False

5. Is,’ Overtime work’ permissible for 11. Period of work of child on each
a child? day shall be so fixed period shall
A) Yes b) no exceed ___ hours.
a) 5 c) 8
6. The notice specifying the weekly b) 3 d) 7
holiday of a child shall be a kept
displayed permanently. 12. An interval of __hour shall be
A) True b) False allowed if he works more than 3
hours a day.

61 | P a g e MCQ
A) 2hour c) ½ hour b) Noon
B) 1 hour d) 15 minutes c) Midnight
d) Evening 4 PM.
13. The spread over for work of a
child shall not exceed __ hours as 16. No child shall be permitted to
per the child labour Act, 1986. work in any establishment on any
A) 5 c) 7 day on which he has already
B) 6 d) 8
been working in another
14. The time spent for waiting for establishment.
work on any day shall be A) True b) False
included in the spread over for
17. Child labour Act. 1986 extends
work of a child as per the Act.
to_
A) True b) False
a) Whole of India
15. As per child labour Act Day b) Whole of India except
means a peri0d of 24hours Chattighad
beginning at__ c) Whole of India except Jammu
a) Morning 8AM and Kashmir
d) Only to some part of India.

62 | P a g e MCQ
 THE INDUSTRIAL EMPLOYMENT (STANDING
ORDERS) ACT, 1946
1. Standing orders defines the 5. The object of the Act is to have
conditions of recruitment uniform standing orders in
discharge, disciplinary action, respect of matters enumerated
holding, leave etc. go a long in the schedule to the Act,
way towards minimizing friction applicable to all workers
between the management and irrespective of their time of
workers in industrial undertaking. appointment.
a) True b) False a) True b) False

2. The Industrial employment 6. The Act extent to whole India

(standing orders) Act requires a) True b) False
employers in industrial
establishments to clearly define 7. The appropriate Government
the conditions of employment by may, after giving not less than
issuing standing orders duly ____ notice of it’s intention to do
certified. so, by notification in the official
a) True b) False Gazettee extend the provisions
of this Act to any industrial
3. It applies to every industrial establishment employing such
Establishment wherein ____are number of persons less than 100
employed or were employed on as may be specified in the
any day during the preceding 12 notification
months. a) 20 days c) 2 years
a) 100 workmen b) 2 months d) 30 days
b) 100 or more workmen
c) 100 or less workmen 8. The Act does not apply to any
d) None of the above Industry to which provisions of
Chapter VII of the Bombay
4. This Act requires employer’s in Industrial Relation Act.1946,
industrial establishments to apply or any industrial
define with sufficient precision establishment to which provisions
the conditions of employment of Madhya Pradesh Industrial
under them and to make the Employment (Standing Orders)
said conditions known to Act 1961 apply.
workmen employed to them a) True b) False
a) True b) False
9. Notwithstanding anything
contained in the said act, the

63 | P a g e MCQ
 provisions of this act shall apply 16. Wages and workmen define in
to all industrial establishments the Sec____
under the Control of the_____. a) 2(g) c) 2(i)
a) Central Govt b) 2(h) d) 2(ii)
b) State Govt
c) appropriate Govt 17. Sec.3 provides that within-From
d) None of the above the date on which this act
becomes applicable to an
10. Certified standing orders industrial establishment , the
become part of the statutory employees of that establishment
and not contractual terms and shall submit to the certifying
conditions of service and are officer fine copy of the draft
binding on both the employer standing orders proposed by him
and the employments. for adoption in that
a) True b) False establishment:
a) 3month c) 9 months
11. Certifying officer defines in b) 6 month d) 1 months
sec.______
a) 2(a) c) 2(c) 18. Draft standing orders shall be in
b) 2(b) d) 2(d) conformity with the model
standing orders if any.
12. Sec._____ of Act, covered a) True b) False
meaning of employer;
a) 2(d) c) 2(f) 19. Model Standing orders if any
b) 2(e) d) 2(g) shall contain every matter set out
in the schedule which may be
13. Industrial establishment define in applicable to the industrial
sec._____ establishment
a) 2(e) c) 2(g) a) True b) False
b) 2(F) d) 2(h)
20. If the industrial establishments
14. Standing orders define in are of similar nature a group of
sec.______ employers owning those
a) 2(e) c) 2(g) industrial establishments may
b) 2(f) d) 2(h) submit a joint draft of standing
orders subject to such conditions
15. Standing orders means rules as may be prescribed.
relating to matters set out in the a) True b) False
schedule to the Act.
a) True b) False 21. A certifying officer is under a
legal duty to consider that the

64 | P a g e MCQ
 standing orders are in conformity 26. According to Sec.6 of the act,
with the Act. the order of the certifying officer
a) True b) False can be challenged by an
employer workmen trade union
22. Sec___ of the Act lays down the or any other prescribed
procedure to be followed by representatives of the workmen
certifying Officer. who can file an appeal before
a) 3 c)5 the appellate authority _____
b) 4 d)6 from the date on which copies
are sent to employer and the
23. On receipt of the Draft standing workers representatives
Orders from the employer, the a) Within 13 day
certifying Officer shall forward a b) within 30 days
copy thereof to the trade union c) After 13 days
of the workmen or where there is d) After 30days.
no trade union, then to the
workmen, together with a notice 27. The appellate authority is
requiring objections, if any, These required to send copies of the
objections are required to be standing orders as confirmed or
submitted to him within modified by it, to the employer
_____from the receipt of the or workers representatives ______
notice of its order.
a) 10 days c) 20 days a) Within 9 days
b) 15 days d) 25 days b) Within 7 days
c) within 12 days
24. A Copy of the certified standing d) Within 10 days.
orders will be sent by him to both
the employer and the 28. The appellate authority has no
employees’ association ____ of power to set aside the order of
the certification. certifying Officer
a) Within 10 days a) True b) False
b) Within 7 days
c) After 10 days 29. Standing orders shall come into
d) After 7 days. operation on the expiry of
_____from the date on which the
25. Workmen are entitled to apply authenticated copies are sent
for modification of the standing to employer and workers
orders; representatives or where an
a) True b) False appeal has been preferred
a) 15days
b) 30days
65 | P a g e MCQ
c) 45days 35. Sec. _____ does not contain any
d) 60days. time limit for making modification
application
30. They will become effective on a) 10(1) c) 10(3)
the expiry of ____from the date b) 10(2) d) 10(4)
on which copies of the order of
the appellate authority are sent 36. Statutory provisions for payment
to employer and workers of subsistence allowance have
representatives. made under sec._____ of the
a) 5 days c) 10 days Act.
b) 7 days d) 12 days a) 10 c) 10B
b) 10A d) 10C
31. Sec ______ prohibits an employer
to modify the standing orders 37. What is the subsistence
one they are certifying under this allowance payable to a
act except on agreement workman for the first 90 days
between the employer and the when he has been suspended
workmen or a trade union pending an inquiry against him.
a) 8 c) 10 a) 25%of wage
b) 9 d) 11 b) 50%of wages
c) 75%pf wage
32. Such notification will not be d) No wages
affected until the expiry of
____from the date on which the 38. Any dispute regarding
standing orders were last subsistence allowance may be
modified or certified as the case referred by the workman or the
may be. employer to the labour court
a) 3 months c) 8 months constituted under the _____
b) 6 months d) 10 months a) Industrial Dispute Act, 1947
b) Workmen compensation Act,
33. Standing orders modified by 1923
making an application to the c) Indian Trade Union Act.1926
certifying Officer. d) Factories Act, 1948
a) True b) False
39. Where there are two categories
34. Such application should be of workers, daily rated and
accompanied by _____ copies of monthly rated but the certified
the proposal modifications standing orders are in respect of
a) 4 c) 6 daily rated workmen only, then
b) 5 d) no copies model standing orders can be

66 | P a g e MCQ
 applied to monthly rated he be allowed to resume his
workmen duties in Saurabh Ltd.
a) True b) False a) Yes b) no

40. In case where there are no 42. .A workman was suspended for
certified standing orders an act of misconduct. The
applicable to an industrial certified standing orders of the
establishment, the prescribed establishment provided that the
model standing orders shall be workman has to mark
deemed to be adopted and attendance to be eligible for
applicable. subsistence allowance. The
a) True b) False workman argued that he could
not be compelled to attend
41. Sam, an employee of Saurbh ltd. office during the period of
tendered his resignation from the suspension. Will he succeed?
service of the company with a) Yes b) no
effect from 1st July 2003.The
management of the company 43. A Development officer of an
immediately accepted his insurance company used to
resignation and this fact were remain absent from duty without
known to Sam. But the leave. He was asked to show
communication of acceptance cause why he should not be
of his resignation was sent to Sam removed from the service. He
after 13 days from the date of sent his reply. Thereupon, he was
receipt of his resignation. removed from the service
Meanwhile, on 9th July 2003 Sam without holding any inquiry. Is the
sent a fax message to Saurabh removal justified?
ltd. withdrawing his resignation. a) Yes b) no
i. What is the date of
acceptance of Sam’s 44. A worker was placed under
resignation. suspension and disciplinary
a) 1July 2003 proceedings were instituted
b) 9th July 2003 against him. The proceeding
c) 13th July 2003 could not be completed in 90-
d) 2nd July 2003. days after which he suspended.
Worker demanded increase in
ii. Whether the employer should subsistence allowance under the
take cognizance of the Act. Will he succeed?
withdrawal letter of Sam and a) Yes b) no

67 | P a g e MCQ
 INDUSTRIAL DISPUTE ACT, 1947
1. In which case, objectives of the
Act were laid down ______ 6. Worker in a factory went on
a) Workmen of Dimakuchi, Tea strike .Strike was legal .The
Estate v. Dimakuichki, Tea employer deducted wages for
Estate the strike period on the ground
b) Nathuram Shukla v. State of that the legality of the strike did
Madhya Pradesh not always exempt the workers
c) Royal Talkies Hyderabad vs. from deduction of their wages
ESIC for the period of strike was the
d) Ball. V. William Hunt and Sons. employer’s action justified.
a) Yes. B) no
2. Act extends to whole of India.
a) True b) False 7. Efficiency Ltd s in the process of
______ reorganization of its
3. Act prevents collective business. It is likely to result in
bargaining. some labour being rendered
a) True b) False surplus. It has proposed
retrenchment of economies
4. Which was the first enactment dead weight. Can the company
that dealt with the settlement of do so?
industrial dispute? a) Yes b) no
a) Employers and workmen’
Dispute Act.1850 8. Ajay was a primary school
b) Employers and workmen’ teacher in a private school. He
Dispute Act.1860 was dismissed from service after
c) Trade Dispute Act.1860 an enquiry. He wants to file/
d) Trade Dispute Act.1929 institute a suit in the labour court
challenging the order of
5. Which of the following institutions dismissal. Will he succeed?
are not considered industry a) Yes b) no
i. Posts and Telegraphs
Department 9. Raman was retrenched from
ii. Central institute of T service the reason assigned to
iii. Construction and him was that he had become an
maintenance of National economic surplus age. Is the
and State Highways action of the employer justified?
iv. Dock labour Board. a) Yes b) no
a) I, ii& iii c) iii, iv
b) ii, iii d) all

68 | P a g e MCQ
10. The service f a bus conductor a) Central c)central and
was terminated on the ground of state
weak eyesight. Does it amount b) State d) existing
to a valid ground for
retrenchment under Industrial 15. Industrial Dispute Act,1947,is a
Dispute Act, 1947? legislation for____
a) Valid b) not valid a) Sufficient precision of the
conditions of employment,
11. The workmen went on b) Investigation a settlement of all
sympathetic strike by absenting Industrial disputes.
themselves form, work in support c) Settlement of only employer and
of the workmen belonging to employee problems
some other employers. The d) Investigation and settlement of
management intends to take trade Union
disciplinary action against those
workmen. Is the institution of 16. Definition of Industry does not
management? include____
a) Justified a) Printing press
b) Legal b) Public gardens
c) Justified and legal c) Post and telegraphs Department
d) Unjustified & illegal d) Dock labour Board

12. The workman of Abhi. Chemicals 17. Which one of the following
went on & go-slow strike to institutions is considered
compel the management to “Industry”?
concede to their demands .The a) Post and telegraphs
management contended that to Departments
–slow strike is a serious b) Central Institute of fisheries
misconduct and initiated c) Construction and
disciplinary action against the maintenance
every workers. Is the action of d) Dock labour Board.
management justified?
a) Yes b) no 18. The Dispute as per Act shall be
connected with _____
13. Act applied to a _____ industry. a) Employment
a) Dead c) all b) Non employment
b) Existing d) none c) Terms of employment
d) All of the above.
14. Act applies to the industries
owned by ___ government(s)

69 | P a g e MCQ
19. It is mandatory that the dispute b) Non-employment
should be raised by a registered c) Terms of employment
trade union d) Conditions of labour.
a) True b) False
25. In case trade union insists that a
20. Payment of bonus cannot be a particular person should not be
matter of industrial dispute employed by the employer, the
a) True b) False dispute relates to---of workman.
a) Employment
21. Industrial Dispute can be initiated b) Non- Employment
and continued by legal heirs c) Condition of labour
even after the death of a d) Terms of employment
workman.
a) True b) False 26. Term of contract refers to___
22. Essential condition for an a) Terms and conditions in the
individual dispute turning into contract of employment.
industrial dispute is the necessity b) Terms which are understood
of _____ and as prescribed by the,
a) Concerned workman should employer to other employees
be member of Trade Union c) Both a and b
b) Community of interest d) Terms and conditions as
c) Employment prescribed by employer to
d) All of the above. other employee

23. If after supporting the individual 27. ____is a condition precedent to

dispute by a trade union , the an “industrial dispute”
support is withdrawn a) Dispute
subsequently,- b) Industry
a) The jurisdiction of the c) Employee
adjudicating authority is not d) Difference between
affected. employee & employer.
b) The jurisdiction of the
authority is affected. 28. As per the Act workman includes
c) Workman will be held liable apprentice
d) Supporting trade union will be a) True b) False
punished.
29. Workman as per Act includes__
24. If the employer refuses to employ a) Apprentice
a workman dismissed by him, the b) Dismissed person
dispute relates to ___of workman. c) Retrenched person
a) Employment d) All of the above.

70 | P a g e MCQ
30. Who is not an workman from the b) Technical work
following__ c) Manual work
a) Person employed in d) All of the above.
managerial capacity
b) Dismissed person as a e) Where a person doing more
consequence of dispute than one work, he must be
c) Discharged person as a held employed___
consequence of dispute a) In both the works.
d) All of the above. b) In work which is the main work
he is required to do.
31. Who is a worker among all the c) In work which is the incidental
mentioned below ____ to main
a) Person employed in d) All of the above.
supervisory capacity drawing
less than 1600p.m. 35. A person engaged in supervisory
b) Person employed in work will be workman only if he is
administrative capacity drawing more than Rs. ____ per
c) Police service month as wages.
d) Dismissed worker as a a) 1600 c) 5000
consequence of dispute. b) 2000 d) 1200

32. Where ever it is shown that a 36. Teachers are workman as per
person is engaged in fulfilling an Act.
incidental operation of ______ a) True b) False
a) Employee
b) Not an employee 37. A Temple priest is___.
c) Workman of another industry a) Workman
d) All of the above. b) Not a workman
33. Relationship of employer and c) Employed
workman is usually supported by d) None
a contract of employment which
38. Development officer in L.I.C is a
may be ____
___.
a) Expressed
a) Workman
b) Implied
b) Not a workman
c) Expressed or implied
c) Is at supervisory work
d) Expressed and implied.
d) Is at manual work.
34. ____persons engaged in works
39. ___means a cassation of work by
are covered by the definition of
body persons employed in an
“workman”
industry.
a) Supervisory work,
71 | P a g e MCQ
 a) Strike c) lockout 46. Cessation of work is the support
f) None d) all of the demands of workmen
belonging to other employer is
40. Section 3(g) defines___ called _____
a) Strike a) Pen-down
b) lay off b) Stay down
c) Lock-out c) Sympathetic Strike
d) Retrenchment. d) None

41. Strike is a weapon of ____in the 47. In case of Hunger stri9ke, lf it is

favor of workers peaceful and does not result is
a) Demands cessation of work it will____
b) Collective bargaining
a) Constitute a strike
c) fight
d) dispute b) Not constitutes a strike

42. _____is immaterial for strike 48. In case of strike which is legal or
a) Time factor justified, the workmen will be
b) demands entitled to ___for strike period.
c) Common understanding a) Half wages
d) Cessation of work. b) Full wages
c) No wages
43. In which case, workmen after
d) Wages depending upon
taking their seats, refuse to do
period.
work:
a) Go-slow
b) Stay-in 49. In case of strike which is illegal.
c) work to rule And unjustified, strikers will not be
d) All of the above. entitled to the wags.
a) True b) False
44. ____is considered serious type of
misconduct. 50. According to ___ doctrine, when
a) Strike the workmen and the
b) go-slow, management are equally, court
c) Pen-down
normally awards half wages.
d) All of the above.
a) Apportionment of wages
45. ____is not a legitimate weapon is b) Apportionment of blame
the favor of labour. c) Apportionment of work
a) Strike d) All of the above.
b) go-slow
c) Pen-down 51. ___Means the temporary closing
d) All of the above of a place of employment by
employer.

72 | P a g e MCQ
 a) Strike 58. ____means failure or refusal of an
b) Retrenchment employer to give employment
c) Lay-off due to shortage of law material.
d) Lock out. a) Lock out c) lay off
b) Retrenchment. d) strike
52. Section 2(i) defines ____.
a) By off c) strike 59. Which one is not the reason of
b) Lock out d) retrenchment lay off:
a) Accumulation of stock
53. ____ is an antithesis to strike. b) Break down of machinery
a) Lock out c) Lay off c) illegal strike of workman
b) Retrenchment d) all d) shortage of power.

54. The essence of __is the refusal of
the employer to continue to
employ workman.
a) Lock Out c) Strike
b) Retrenchment d) all
55. Mere suspension of work, unless it
is accompanied by an intention
on the part of employer as a
relations, will ___
a) Not amount to lock out
b) be recorded as lock out
c) be a serious mis-conduct
d) Not a strike
56. Closure of a place of bus9ness
amounts to lock out?
a) True b) False
57. A closure of a pledge of business
for a short duration of 30 days in
relation of certain acts of
workman is ____
a) Lockout c) lay off
b) Not a lock out d) strike
60. Which one is not a valid reason
for lay off,
a) Financial stringency
b) Accumulation of stocks
c) Breakdown of machinery
d) None.
61. If employee fails to employ
workman presenting himself for
work-within __hours then he shall
be deemed to be laid off
a) 1 c) 2
b) 3 d) 4
62. If any workman, is asked to
present himself in second shift of
the work instead of giving work in
first shift. Then ____
a) He is laid off for whole day
b) He is laid off for only one half
past of the day.
c) He is shifted to another shift
d) Lock out for a shift.
63. Ram Shukla an employee of
Krishna Krupa Ltd presents himself
for employment while he is not

73 | P a g e MCQ
 given work. He shall deemed 70. Disengagement of workers of
to__ for second Shift. seasonal factories after seasons
a) Be laid off as s retrenchment.
b) Not a laid off
a) True b) false
c) Lock out
d) Retrenched.
71. __means an interium or final
64. Right to lay off cannot be a determination of any industrial
claimed as a inherent right of dispute by any labour courts.
the employer a) decree
a) True b) false b) Award
c) Order
65. Lay off and closure can stand d) All of the above.
together.
a) True b) false 72. Award includes an arbitration
award.
66. In __ case(s) the contract of a) True b) false
employment is not terminated.
a) Lay off c) lock out 73. Whole retrenchment , fact that
b) Retrenchment. d) a and b the implementation of a
reorganization scheme adopted
67. ____is temporary in nature. by an employer for reasons of
a) Strike economy would lead to the
b) Lock –out discharge of some of the
c) Lay-off employees, will have no material
d) All of the above. bearing on the questing as to
whether reorganization has been
68. ___is not a punishment, but an adopted by employer bona-fide
disciplinary action or not . Above statements is-
a) Retrenchment a) True b) false
b) Lock-out
c) Both a & b 74. Management can retrench its
d) None employee only for proper
reasons, it should not be by any
69. ___does not amount to notice of victimisat5ion.
Retrenchment. a) True b) false
a) Voluntary retirement
b) Termination for acting fraud. 75. Arbitration includes an-
c) Both c & d a) Umpire
d) Termination for bad behavior. b) State Govt.
c) Civil Court

74 | P a g e MCQ
 d) Both a & b 81. __includes a written agreement
between employer and
76. In case of monthly paid workmen arrived while in dispute.
workman average pay will be a a) Award
_ b) Settlement
a) three complete calendar months c) conciliation
b) 6 months d) Decree
c) 4 complete calendar months
d) 12mohths. 82. Wages does not include ___.
a) dearness allowance
77. ___ means any industry the b) any bonus
control of which by the Union c) Any traveling allowance
has been declared by any d) All of the above.
central Act to be expedited in
the public interest. 83. Wages does not include____.
a) Contended industry a) Bonus
b) Central government Industry b) Commission payable for
c) Industry promotion of sales.
d) All of the above. c) Gratuity
d) All of the above
78. __includes agent of an .
employer, general manager, 84. Where any employer discharges,
director, occupier etc. dismisses , retrenches or other
a) Employee wise terminates the services of
b) Employer an individual workman arising
c) Supervisor of Employee out of employment such
d) Inspector. termination shall be deemed to
be___
79. __includes any member of a) Industrial Dispute
executive, but does not include b) Individual dispute
a) Auditor. c) employee c) Worker trade union
b) Employer d) office bearer d) The entire above dispute.

80. Unfair labour a practice is 85. Works committee is to be formed

specified in__ Schedule. by employer where __ or more
a) 1st c) 7th workmen are employed.
b) 5th d) 2nd a) 100 c) 1000
b) 200 d) 500

75 | P a g e MCQ
 86. Works committee is to be 92. Time peri8od for submission of
composed of___. awards in case of individual
a) Representative of Employer workmen, shall not exceed_
b) Representative of workmen _months
c) Both a & b a) 5 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6
d) Inspectors, employer, and
supervisors. 93. sec. ___provides for the
settlement of industrial disputes
87. Which of the following is not a by voluntary reference of such
designated authority for dispute to arbitrators.
investigation and settlement of a) 10A b) 13 c) 15
industrial dispute? d) 18
a) Works committee
b) Conciliation 94. __and___ are the two weapons
c) Labour court in the hands of workers and
d) Dispute tribunal employer respectively.
a) Lockouts, strike
88. Board of conciliation shall b) Strike, lay-off
consists of c) Strike, Lockout
a) Chairman c) inspector d) Strike, retrenchment.
b) 2 members d) a and b
95. Industrial Dispute Act.1947 grant
89. A labour court shall consist of __ an __ right of strike and Lock out.
person to be appointed by the a) Restricted
appropriate government. b) Unrestricted
a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) 4 c) express and implied
d) Both a & b
90. A High court Judge is qualified
for appointment as a presiding 96. No worker who is employed in
officer of a labour court. industry can go on strike before
a) True b) false __ of the conclusion of
conciliation proceedings.
91. A person to be qualified a) Two months
appointment as the presiding b) 7days
office of a labour a court he has c) 15days
held any judicial office in India d) 1months
for not less than ___ years.
a) 6 b) 7 c) 10 d) 2 97. No workman who is employed in
industry can go on strike unless __
days have passed after the

76 | P a g e MCQ
 conclusion of proceeding in 99. No employer carrying on any
Arbitration. public utility service shall lock out
a) 60 b) 7 c) 5 d) 15 any of his workmen within __
days of giving notice.
98. No person employed in a public a) 14 b) 10 c) 7 d) 20
utility service shall go on strike,
without giving notice to the 100. No person employed in public
employer __ weeks before Utility service shall go on strike in
striking. breach of contract during the
a) 6 b) 7 c) 3 d) 5 pendency of any conciliation
proceeding.
a) True b false

77 | P a g e MCQ
 THE LABOUR LAWS
1. The labour laws (Exemption from 3. The Labour Laws (Exemption
furnishing returns & maintaining from furnishing returns and
Register by certain Maintaining Registers by Certain
establishments) Act was Establishments)Act 1988 apply to
enacted in a) Whole of Inida
a) 1972 b) Small states of India
b) 1988 c) Small districts of India
c) 1998 d) Whole of India except State
d) 1952 of Jammu and Kashmir

2. The Labour Laws (Exemption 4. _______ are exempted from

from Furnishing Returns and furnishing returns and
Maintaining Registers by Certain ,maintaining registers under
Establishment ) Act, 1988 was certain enactments mentioned
enacted to provide for in the First Schedule to the
a) Easy process in furnishing Labour Laws (Exemption from
returns and maintaining furnishing Returns and
registers under certain labour Maintaining Registers by Certain
laws Establishments) Act, 1988
b) The exemption of employees a) Small establishments
and trade unions in relation to b) Large establishments
establishments employing a c) Government establishments
small number of persons form d) Non-Government
furnishing returns and establishments
maintaining register under
certain labour laws 5. Small establishments were
c) The exemption of employers exempted from furnishing returns
in relation to establishments and maintaining registers under
employing a small number of certain enactments mentioned
person from furnishing returns in the ---------------- Scheduled to
and maintaining registers the Labour Laws (Exemption from
under certain labour law. Furnishing Returns and
d) The exemption of employers establishments) Act, 1988 and
in relation to establishments instead they were required to
employing a large number of furnish returns and maintain
persons from furnishing returns registers in the forms set out in
and maintaining registers the-------------
under certain labour laws a) First; Second
b) Second; First

78 | P a g e MCQ
 c) Second ; Third Schedule and includes the rules
d) Third ; First made there under
a) First
6. The Labour Laws (Exemption b) Second
from Furnishing Returns and c) First and Second
Maintaining Registers by Certain d) First, Second and Third
Establishment) Act, 1988 gives
and exemption to 9. Which of the following Acts is
Large establishments specified in the First Schedule of
a) Small establishments the Labour Laws (Exemption from
b) Very small establishments Furnishing Returns and
c) Very small establishments Maintaining Registers by Certain
d) Both (b) and (c) Establishments) Act, 2988?
a) The Weekly Holidays Act, 1942
7. As per the Labour Laws b) The Minimum Wages Act,
(Exemption from Furnishing 1948
Returns and Maintaining c) The Factories Act, 1948
Registers by Certain d) The Apprentices Act, 1961
Establishment) Act, 1988 Annual
Return is required to maintained 10. Any employer failing to comply
by with the provisions of the Labour
a) Small establishment Laws (Exemption from Furnishing
b) Very small establishment Returns and Maintaining
c) Every establishment Registers by Certain
d) Both of (a) and (b) Establishments) Act, 1988, is
punishable with
8. According to Section2(d) of the a) Fine of Rs. 5,000 for first
Labour Laws (Exemption form contravention
Furnishing Returns and b) Fine of Rs. 20,000 for first
Maintaining Registers by Certain contravention
Establishments) Act, 1988, c) Fine of Rs. 50,000 for first
‘Scheduled Act’ means an Act contravention
specified in the --------------- e) Fine of Rs. 5,00,000 for first
contravention

79 | P a g e MCQ
 TRADE UNION ACT, 1926
1. Trade union means any a) Legal status
combination whether temporary b) Corporate Status
or permanent formed primarily c) Both a & b
for the purpose of regulating the d) None of the above.
relations between work men and
employers or between workmen 6. The act is applicable not only to
and workmen or between Union of workers but also to the
employers and employees or for association of employers?
imposing restrictive conditions on a) True b) false
the conduct of any trade or
business, and includes any 7. It extend to whole of India
federation of two or more trade except____
unions. a) Jammu & Kashmir
a) True b) false b) Kashmir
c) Jammu
2. Trade union is a _____of workers d) None of the above
pertaining to particular trade
industry or a company and 8. Trade dispute is defined under
formed to promote and protect sec.____
their interests and welfare by a) 2(a) c) 2(h)
collective action. b) 2(c) d) 2(g)
a) Voluntary
b) Organization 9. Trade union define in sec_____
c) Both a & b a) 2(g) c) 2(i)
d) None b) 2(h) d) 2 (j)

3. Every registered trade Union shall 10. Trade dispute means any
be a _____by the name under disputes between employers
which it is registered. and workmen, or between
a) Partnership Firm workmen and workmen or
b) HUF between workmen and
c) Company workmen or between employers
d) None. and employer’s which is
connected with the employment
4. They are formed not only to or non-employment or the terms
cates to the ____ but also for of employment or the conditions
inculcating in them the sense of of labours, of any person and
discipline and responsibility. “workmen” means all persons
a) Workers demand employed in trade or industry
b) Employer demand whether or not in the
c) Both employment of the employer
d) None; with whom the trade dispute
5. If, gives _____ to the registered arises;
trade Unions. a) True b) false

80 | P a g e MCQ
11. ________ Means any
combination, whether temporary
or permanent formed primarily or
the purpose of regulating the
relations between workmen and
employers or between W&W or
between E&E or for imposing
restrictive condition on the
conduct of any trade or business
and includes any federation of
two or more trade unions.
a) Registered trade union
b) Trade union
c) Registered union
d) None of the above.
12. _____provides that any for more
members of trade union may by
subscribing their names to the
rules of the trade union any by
otherwise complying with the
provisions of this Act with respect
to registration, apply for
registration of the trade union.
a) Sec.4 c) sec. 6
b) Sec.5 d) sec. 7
13. However, no trade union of
workmen shall be register unless
at least ______ or 100 of the
workmen whichever is less,
engaged or employed in the
establishment or industry with
which it is connected are the
members of such trade Union on
the date of making of
application for registration.
a) 5% c) 12%
b) 10% d) 15%
14. Sec.5 stipulates that every
application for registration of a
trade union shall be a made to
the registrar and shall be
accompanied by a copy of the
81 | P a g e
rules of the trade Union and a
statement includes names,
occupation and address of the
members making application.
a) True b) false
15. Where a trade Union has been in
existence for more than ______
before the making of an
application for it’s registration,
there shall be delivered to the
Registrar, together with the
application, a general statement
of the assets and liabilities of the
Trade union prepared in such
form and containing such
particulars as may be
prescribed.
a) 2Yrs c) 1 yrs
b) 3Yrs d) 1.5 yrs
16. ______,on being satisfied that the
trade Union has complied with
all the requirements of the Act in
regard to registration ,shall
register the trade Union by
entering in a register, to be
maintained in such form as may
be prescribed ,the particulars
relating to the trade union
contained in the statement
accompanying the application
for registration.
a) The registrar
b) The Controller
c) The S.G.
d) CG
17. The registrar, on registering a
trade union under section _____-
__shall issue a certificate of
registration in the prescribed
form which shall be conclusive
evidence that the Trade .Union
MCQ
 has been duly registered under c) 31Dec.
the Act. d) None of the above.
a) 7 c) 9
b) 8 d) 10 20. A copy of every alteration made
in the rules of registered trade
18. The certificate of registration of a union shall be sent to the
trade Union may be withdrawn Registrar_______ of the making of
as cancelled by the registrar on the alteration.
the following; a) After 15 days
i. On the application of b) Within 15 days
Trade union to be verified c) Within 50 days
in such manner as may be d) None of the above
prescribed.
ii. If the registrar is satisfied 21. For the purpose of examining the
that a registered trade above mentioned documents
union of workmen ceases the Registrar, or any officer
to have the requisite no. authorized by him, by general or
Of members. special order may at all
a) True b) false reasonable times inspect the
certificate of registrations
19. Sec.28 of act provides that there account books, registers and
shall be sent annually to the other documents, relating to a
Registrar on or before such date trade union at its registered
as may be prescribed, a general office, as may require their
statement, audited in the production at such place as he
prescribed manners, of all may specify in this behalf, but no
receipt. And expenditure of such place shall be at a distance
every registered trade union of __from the registered office of
during the year ending on a Trade Union.
___next proceeding such a) Less than 10 miles
prescribed date, and of the b) More than 10 miles
assets and liabilities of the trade
union existing on such date. c) Less than 12 miles
a) 31March d) More than 12 miles
b) 31July

82 | P a g e MCQ
 EMPLOYMENT EXCHANGE ACT, 1959
1. The employment exchanges information, either by keeping of
(compulsory Notification of registers or otherwise, respecting
vacancies) Act 1959 provides for i) persons who seek to engage
compulsory notification of employees ii) persons who seek
vacancies and submission of employment, and iii) Vacancies
employment returns by to which persons seeking
employers to the ____. employment, may be
a) stock exchange appointed.
b) employment exchange a) True b) false
c) ROC
d) all of the above. 6. Definition of establishment given
in section___
2. Main activities of employment a) 2(e) c) 2(h)
exchange are registration, b) 2(f) d) 2(j)
placement of job seekers, career
counseling and vocational 7. Means any office or any place
guidance and collection of where any industry, trade,
employment market information. business or occupation is carried
on:
a) True b) false a) Establishment
b) Establishment in public sector
3. Act applies to all establishments c) Establishment in private
in the public sector and such Sector,
establishments in the private d) None of the above.
sector as are engaged in non-
agricultural activities and 8. Establishment in public sector
employing 25 or ore workers. defines in sec. _____
a) Non-Agri. Activities a) 2(f) c) 2(h)
b) Agri. activities. b) 2(g) d) 2(k)
c) Both
d) None 9. Definitions of establishment in
private sector in sec.______
4. It extends to whole of India a) 2(g) c) 2(h)
except__________. b) 2(F) d) 2(k)
a) Jammu & Kashmir
b) Jammu 10. Act does not apply to:
c) Kashmir i. Agricultural & horticulture
d) none ii. Domestic Service
5. As per section 2(d)of act, iii. where period of
employment exchange means employment is less than 3
any office or place established months
and maintained by the govt. for iv. to do unskilled office work
the collection and furnishing of v. connected with staff of
parliament

83 | P a g e MCQ
 vi. This carries a remuneration 13. If any employees fails to notify to
of less than Rs.60/-P.M. Employment Exchange
prescribed for the purpose any
a) True b) false vacancy, the shall be punishable
for the first offence with fine
11. There is n obligation upon any which may extend, to Rs.500/-
employer to recruit any person and for every subsequent
through the employment offence with fine may extend to
exchange to till any vacancy. Rs.___________
a) 1000 c) 750
a) True b) false b) 1500 d) 2000

12. Sec_____ stipulates that the 14. If any refuses or neglects to

employer in every establishment furnish such into or return or
in public sector in that state of furnishes or causes to be
area shall furnish such furnished any into, he shall be
information or return as may be punishable for the offence with
prescribed in relation to fine which may extend to Rs.
vacancies that have occurred or ____ and for every subsequent
are about to occurred in that offence with fine which may
establishment to such extend to Rs.____/-
employment exchange as may a) 250; 500
be prescribed. b) 500; 750
a) 5 c) 7 c) 300; 500
b) 6 d) 8 d) 500; 800

84 | P a g e MCQ
 APPRENTICES ACT, 1961
1. Industrial development of any different categories of
nation depends on apprentices.
development of its_________ a) True b) False
a) Human resource
b) Human being 7. The Act makes it obligatory on
c) Resources part of the employers in
d) All of the above. ______establishments having
requisite training infrastructure as
2. _____is an important component laid down in the Act.
of Human Resource a) Public sector c)
Development both
a) Enhancement of skills
b) Private sector d) none
b) Skills
c) Both
d) None of the above
8. Act extends to whole of India,
except Jammu and Kashmir.
3. Training of apprentices in the
a) True b) False
actual workplace is necessary for
the up gradation and acquisition
of skills
9. Apprentice define in sec. _____
a) True b) False
a) 2(ab) c) 2(ad)
b) 2(aa) d) 2(ac)
4. The Apprentices Act, 1961 was
enacted with the objectives to
10. Apprenticeship training define in
regulate the programme of
sec.______
_______of apprentices
a) 2 (aab) c) 2(aac)
a) Training c) education
b) 2 (aaa) d) 2(aa)
b) Meeting d) a and c

5. Apprentice means a person who 11. Designated trade define in sec.

_______
is undergoing apprenticeship
a) 2 (e) c) 2(g)
Training in pursuance of a
b) 2 (f) d) 2(h)
contract of Apprenticeship
a) True b) False 12. Worker define in sec. _____
a) 2 (p) c) 2(r)
6. Apprenticeship training means a b) 2 (q) d) 2(s)
course of training in any industry
or establishment undergone in
13. _______means any trade or
pursuance of a contract of
occupation or any subject field
apprenticeship and under
in engineering or technology or
prescribed terms and conditions
any vocational course which the
which may be different for
Central Government, after
85 | P a g e MCQ
 consultation with the Central 17. Sec. _______Provides that the
Apprenticeship Council, may, by employer shall pay to every
notification in the Official apprentice during the period of
Gazette, specify as a designated
apprentice ship training such
trade for the purposes of this Act.
a) Designated trade stipend at a rate specified in the
b) Trade contract of apprentice ship and
c) Establishment the stipend so specified shall be
d) Industry paid at such intervals and
subject to such conditions as
14. _______means any person who is may be prescribed.
employed for wages in any kind a) .11 c) 13
of work and who gets his wages
b) .12 d) 14
directly from the employer but
shall not include an apprentice.
a) Worker c) 18. An apprentice shall not be paid
employer by his employer on the basis of
b) Employee d) none piece work nor shall he be
required to take part in any
15. A person shall be qualified for output bonus or other incentive
being engaged as an scheme.
apprentice to undergo a) True b) False
apprenticeship training in any
designated trade, if such person
19. As per sec. ____ the weekly and
–
a) Is not less than fourteen years daily hours of work of an
of age; and apprentice while undergoing
b) Satisfies such standards or practical training in a workshop
education and prescribed shall be such as may be
physical fitness. prescribed.
c) A and b a) 13 c) 15
d) None of the above b) 14 d) 16

16. Apprenticeship training shall be 20. No apprentice shall be required

deemed to have commenced
on the date on which the
contract of apprenticeship has
been entered into and every
contract of apprenticeship may
contain such terms and
conditions as may be agreed to
by the parties to the contract.
a) True b) False
or allowed to work overtime
except within the approval of
the Apprentice ship Adviser who
shall not grant such approval
unless he is satisfied that such
overtime is in the interest of the
training the apprentice or in the
public interest.
a) True b) False

86 | P a g e MCQ
21. Sec. ____ of the act provides that c) After 15 days
all matters of conduct and d) After 30 days.
discipline, the apprentice shall
be governed by the rules and 24. The decision of the committee
regulation applicable to and subject only to such
employees of the corresponding decision the decision of
category in the establishment in Apprentice ship Adviser shall be
which the apprentice in final.
undergoing training. a) True b) false
a) 15 b) 16 c) 17 d) 18
25. Sec. _____ of act provided for
22. As per sec. _____ any penalty and offence.
disagreement or dispute a) 20 b) 25 c) 30 d) 35
between an employer and an
apprentice arising out of the 26. If, any employer engages as an
contract of apprentice ship shall apprentice a person who is not
be referred to the qualified for being so engaged,
apprenticeship Adviser for or fails to carry out the terms and
decision. conditions of a contract of
a) 17 b) 18 c) 19 d) 20 apprentice ship, or contravenes
the provisions of the Act relating
23. Any person aggrieved by the to the number of apprentices
decision of the apprenticeship which he is required to engage
Adviser may _______ from the under these provisions, he shall
date of communication to him of be punishable with imprisonment
such decision prefer an appeal for a term which may extend to
against the decision to the _____ months or with fine or with
apprenticeship council both.
appointed for the purpose. a) 6 c) 8
a) Within 15 day b) 10 d) 12
b) Within 30 days

87 | P a g e MCQ
 EQUAL REMUNERATION ACT, 1976
1. It (labour audit) help to detect a) Principles c) a and b
non-compliance of various labour b) Directive principle d) none
laws applicable to an 8. Labour audit envisages a
organization and to take systematic scrutiny of records
corrective measures. prescribed under labour
a) True b) False legislations by independent
professionals like; company
2. Objectives of labour audit are to Secretary in whole time practice.
protect the interests of all the a) True b) False
stakeholders.
a) True b) False 9. The report should ideally, be
addressed to the ______
3. Labour audit is a process of fact a) Central Govt,
finding. b) State Govt.
a) True b) False c) Appropriate Govt.
d) None
4. Labour audit is continuous
process. 10. The appropriate Govt. May
a) True b) False provide for filing fees for such
report on the lines of filing fees
5. Under the constitution of India, charged by _____ for the
Labour is subject to _____ documents filed by them.
a) Concurrent list a) CG d) ROC
b) State List b) SG
c) Union list c) Appropriate Govt.
d) None
11. The audit should cover all labour
6. Social justice is guaranteed by legislations applicable to _____
the preamble of our constitution. a) Industry
a) True b) False b) Factory
c) Commercial establishment
7. The _____ of state policy also
d) All of the above
provides that it shall be endeavor
of the state to promote the 12. If a particular piece of labour
welfare of the people by legislation is not applicable to a
effectively securing and specific employer, the same
protecting a social order in which should distinctly be disclosed in
social, economic and political the report of an Independent
justice shall inform all the professional like PCS.
institutions of national life.
88 | P a g e MCQ
 a) True b) False before commencement of PCS
audit.
13. The scope will certainly differ from a) True b) False
employer to employer.
a) True b) False 15. Labour audit will increase social
security is the benefit to ______
14. Checklist for compliance of each a) Labour c) society
legislation has to be formulated b) Employer d) govt

89 | P a g e MCQ
 EQUAL REMUNERATION ACT, 1976
1. It (labour audit) help to detect c) Principles c) a and b
non-compliance of various labour d) Directive principle d) none
laws applicable to an
organization and to take 8. Labour audit envisages a
corrective measures. systematic scrutiny of records
b) True b) False prescribed under labour
legislations by independent
2. Objectives of labour audit are to professionals like; company
protect the interests of all the Secretary in whole time practice.
stakeholders. b) True b) False
b) True b) False
9. The report should ideally, be
3. Labour audit is a process of fact addressed to the ______
finding. e) Central Govt,
b) True b) False f) State Govt.
g) Appropriate Govt.
4. Labour audit is continuous h) None
process.
b) True b) False 10. The appropriate Govt. May
provide for filing fees for such
5. Under the constitution of India, report on the lines of filing fees
Labour is subject to _____ charged by _____ for the
e) Concurrent list documents filed by them.
f) State List d) CG d) ROC
g) Union list e) SG
h) None f) Appropriate Govt.

6. Social justice is guaranteed by
the preamble of our constitution.
b) True b) False
7. The _____ of state policy also
provides that it shall be endeavor
of the state to promote the
welfare of the people by
effectively securing and
protecting a social order in which
social, economic and political
justice shall inform all the
institutions of national life.
90 | P a g e
11. The audit should cover all labour
legislations applicable to _____
e) Industry
f) Factory
g) Commercial establishment
h) All of the above
12. If a particular piece of labour
legislation is not applicable to a
specific employer, the same
should distinctly be disclosed in
MCQ
 the report of an Independent before commencement of PCS
professional like PCS. audit.
b) True b) False b) True b) False

13. The scope will certainly differ from 15. Labour audit will increase social
employer to employer. security is the benefit to ______
b) True b) False c) Labour c) society
d) Employer d) govt
14. Checklist for compliance of each
legislation has to be formulated

91 | P a g e MCQ
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 CONSTITUTION OF INDIA
1. A constituent assembly was set a) Bijoe Emmanuel v. state of
up in which year, to frame the Kerala
constitution of India? b) Manska Gandhi v. union of
a) 1949 India
b) 1946 c) R.C. Cooper v. union of India
c) 1982 d) Kesavenanda Bharati v. state
d) 1950 of Kerala

2. When the constituent assembly 7. Which of the following forms he

did adopted the constitution of federal features of our
India? constitution?
a) 26 January 1949 a) Written constitution
b) 26 August 1946 b) Dual authority
c) 26 November 1949 c) Both a and b
d) 26 April 1946 d) None of the above

3. Constitution of India came into 8. The constitution of India

force on? distributes the power to make
a) 26 January 1949 law by way of _________ list
b) 26 March 1950 a) State list
c) 26 November1949 b) Union list
d) 26 January 1950 c) Concurrent list
d) All of the above
4. How many articles are there in’
The constitution of India’? 9. which of the following forms the
a) 390 pillar of our constitution ________
b) 260 a) legislature
c) 395 b) executive
d) 382 c) judiciary
d) all of the above
5. The constitution of India is
divided into _______ parts and 10. The judiciary of our country is
______________ schedules totally independent but at times
respectively? it can be controlled either by
a) 12 parts and 22 schedules legislature or executive.
b) 22 parts and 12 schedules a) True
c) 20 parts and 22 schedules b) Partly true
d) 19 parts and 12 schedules c) False
d) Partly false
6. On which case it was viewed
that the “federal features form 11. The constitution of India is a
the basic structure of the Indian ______________ document.
constitution”? a) Oral
b) Written

92 | P a g e MCQ
 c) Both a and b above b) 5
d) None of the above c) 4
d) 6
12. The union list contains
____________ no. of entries. 18. Under concurrent list, if there is
a) 96 an inconsistency between two
b) 92 laws then ________ law will
c) 95 prevail over ____________ law.
d) None of the above a) Only state law will prevail
over.
13. Out of the number of entries b) Only state law will prevail over
contained in the union list, how other law
many entries have been c) State law will prevail over
specifically named? union law
a) 96 d) Union law will prevail over
b) 97 state law.
c) 92
d) All of the above 19. The Indian constitution
establishes two co- ordinate
14. ________ Item has been left independent Governments.
bank of the union list and is a) True
unknown as residuary item. b) False
a) 97 c) Partly false
b) 96 d) Partly true
c) 98
d) 92 20. It is the function of to recognize
the fundamental rights.
15. Only parliament can make law a) Legislature
in the union list. b) Parliament
a) False c) State
b) True d) Judiciary
c) Absolutely false
d) Partly true 21. In which part of the constitution
of India, fundamental rights are
16. Under state list, which article recognizes?
permits the parliament to pass a) Part 4
law on state list matters? b) Part 3
a) Article 224 c) Part 2
b) Article 232 d) Part 1
c) Article 246
d) Article 240 22. How many numbers of
fundamental rights are granted
17. Under ______________ number of by the constitution of India?
circumstances parliament can a) 4
pass law on state list matters. b) 6
a) 7 c) 7

93 | P a g e MCQ
 d) 5 b) The government and
legislature of each of the
23. An article 25 to 28 tells about states.
which of the following c) The government and
fundamental rights? parliament of India.
a) Right to equality d) All of the above
b) Right to freedom
c) Cultural and educational right 29. The expression ‘local authority’
d) Right to freedom of religion includes: ________
a) Municipalities
24. Cultural and educational right is b) Electricity authorities
defined in which article? c) Universities
a) Article 32 d) All of the above
b) Article 23 and 24
c) Article 14 and 18 30. The expression ‘other authority’
d) Article 29 and 30 includes: ________
a) District boards
25. Article 15, 16, 19 and 30 are b) Panchayats
guaranteed to _________ c) Income tax department
a) Only citizens d) Both b and c
b) Only foreigner
c) Both citizen and 31. The expression ‘under’ the
d) None of the above control of the government of
India’ covers into the definition
26. The rights guaranteed by of ________.
articles 15, 17, 18, 20, 24 are a) Union
absolute limitations upon the b) State
____________ power. c) Legislature
a) Judiciary d) None
b) Executive
c) Legislative 32. Where the court exercises a
d) All of the above judicial function, it cannot be
regarded as state as the
27. The term ‘state’ is defined in expression ‘state’ covers
which article of the constitution. _________.
a) Article 13 a) Legislature
b) Article 12 b) Judiciary
c) Article 11 c) Both legislature and judiciary
d) Article 14 d) Both legislature and
executive
28. The term state includes:-
_________ 33. Which article of constitution of
a) All local or other authorities India invalidates any pre or post
within the territory of India or constitutional law which is
under the control of against the fundamental rights
government of India. and also restricts the

94 | P a g e MCQ
 amenability of fundamental b) A.K. Gopalan v. state of
rights. madras
a) Article 10 c) Basheshar nath v. I.T.
b) Article 11 commissioner
c) Article 12 d) Maneka Gandhi v. union of
d) Article 13 India.

34. The question whether a 38. Fundamental rights can be

fundamental right can be waived by the citizens of India
amended, abridge or taken according to doctrine of wavier
away has been examined of rights.
settled in which case? a) True
a) Keshavanand case b) False
b) Golaknath case c) Partly false
c) Maneka Gandhi case d) Partly true
d) Kharak singh case
39. Which of the following are
35. Fundamental rights can be included between articles 14 to
affected by constitutional 18?
amendment. a) Right to move freely
a) False throughout the territory of
b) True India.
c) Absolutely true b) Equality of opportunity in
d) Partly false matters of public
employment.
36. In which of the following c) Right to freedom speech and
doctrine it was decided that expression.
only that part of law will be d) All of the above.
declared invalid which is
inconsistent with the 40. Article 17 describes _________.
fundamental rights and the rest a) Equality before law
of the law will stand. b) Abolition of titles
a) Doctrine of severability c) Abolition of untouchability
b) Doctrine of Eclipse d) Right to freedom of speech
c) Doctrine of waiver of rights and expression.
d) Both a and b above
41. The expression ‘equality before
37. In which case it was decided law’ is a negative concept.
that, “if the valid portion was a) False
severable from the rest, the b) True
valid portion would be c) partly false
maintained, provided that it d) Absolutely false
was sufficient to carry out the
purpose of the act”. 42. Which article forbids class
a) Bhikaji narain dhakars v. state legislation, but does not forbid
of M.P. classification.

95 | P a g e MCQ
 a) Article 12 a) Right to practice any
b) Article 13 profession or to carry trade,
c) Article 14 business or occupation.
d) Article 18 b) Right to freely practice and
propagate religion
43. Article 14 applies to any person c) Right to establish and
and is not limited to citizens maintain institutions for
done. religious and charitable
a) True purpose.
b) False d) All of the above.
c) Partly true
d) Partly false 48. Right to freedom i.e. [article 19
to 227] imposes certain rights
44. Which article provides that the which are not absolute and
state shall not discriminate hence reasonable restriction
against any citizen on grounds may not be imposed on them.
only of religion, race, caste etc? a) True
a) Article 32 b) False
b) Article 19 c) Partly true
c) Article 15 d) Partly false
d) Article 20
49. Reasonableness is an objective
45. Which of the following are not test to be applied by the
exceptional to article 15: ___________.
_________. a) Executive
a) The state can make any b) Legislature
special provision for women c) Judiciary
and children. d) None of the above
b) The state can make any
special provision for the 50. Right to freedom of speech and
advancement of any socially expression also includes the
and educationally backward expression of idea through
classes of citizens. _________.
c) Both and b above a) Dramatic performance
d) None of the above. b) Cinematographic
c) Both a and b above
46. Abolition of titles is defined in d) None a and b above
article ___________.
a) 18 51. In which case it was held that
b) 19 the right to freedom of speech
c) 20 and expression also includes the
d) 21 right to remain silent.
a) Maneka Gandhi v. union of
47. Which of the following freedoms India
are granted to citizen of India as b) Bijoe Emmanuel v. state of
per article 19? Kerala

96 | P a g e MCQ
 c) A.K. Gopalan v. state
Madras
d) Khrak singh v. state of U.P.
52. Which of the following are
permissible restrictions: ________.
a) Public order
b) Security of the state
c) Contempt of court
d) All of the above
53. Right to form association and
union, this right is subject to
reasonable restrictions which
may be imposed in a interest of
: _________.
a) Morality
b) Public order
c) Sovereignty and integrity
d) All of the above
54. Right to move freely is confined
only to the territory of India and
it cannot be extended to travel
abroad.
a) True
b) False
c) Partly true
d) Partly false
55. Protection against ex-post facto
law, this right is granted by
which article?
a) Article 19
b) Article 14
c) Article 20
d) Article 32
of d) Partly false
57. ‘No person can be prosecuted
and punished for the same
offence more that once’. This
has been defined in which right.
a) Protection against double
jeopardy
b) Protection against self-
communication
c) Protection against ex-post
facto law
d) Protection against self-
employment
58. Amongst the following, which
are the specific safeguards
made available by article 22
against arbitrary arrest and
detention.
a) A person who is arrested
cannot be detained in
custody, unless he has been
informed of the grounds for
such arrest.
b) Such person shall have the
right to consult and to be
defended by lawyer of his
choice. Such person must be
produced before the nearest
magistrate within 12 hours of
arrest.
c) Such person shall not be
detained in custody beyond
12 hours without the authority
of the magistrate.
d) All of the above

56. Article 20 prohibits the 59. Article 25 to 28 guarantees

conviction under ex-post facto certain rights by imposing
law only in respect of certain prohibitions not only
procedural law and not in against the state but also
respect of substantive law. against private persons.
a) True a) True
b) False b) Partly true
c) Absolutely true c) False

97 | P a g e MCQ
 d) Partly false the state to dissolve the state
legislature.
60. Article 23 deals in _________. a) True
a) Freedom of conscience b) False
b) Child labour c) Partly true
c) Traffic in human beings d) Partly false
d) Education right
66. The writ of ________ is issued to
61. Article 24 provides that no child an inferior court preventing the
belong the age of _________ latter from usurping jurisdiction
years shall be employed to work which is not legally vested in it.
in any mine. a) Mandamus
a) 12 years b) Certiorari
b) 14 years c) Prohibition
c) 18 years d) Quo warranto.
d) 15 years
67. The parliament is empowered to
62. Article 27 provides which of the make laws on the subjects
following rights ________. enumerated in________
a) The right to establish and a) List-I
maintain institutions for b) List-II
religious and charitable c) Both I and II
purposes. d) None of above
b) The right against child 2
labour 68. The preamble of the
c) No tax for pilgrimage constitution:-
d) Right to manage its own a) Is a part of the constitution
affairs in matters of religion. b) Can be used for interpreting
the constitution.
63. Right to education has been c) Both a and b above
defined in which article _______. d) None of the above
a) Article 27
b) Article 28 69. The law passed by the
c) Article 29 parliament in the national
d) Article 30 interest cease after nine months.
a) True
64. Secularism means that the state b) False
should:- c) Partly true
a) Have its own religion d) Partly false
b) Ignore all religion
c) Have all religious of its own 70. Which of the following writs
d) Have no religion of its own. enables enquiry into the legality
of the claim which a person
65. Article 174 of the constitution of asserts, to an office or franchise
India empowers the Governor of and to oust him from such
position if he is a usurper?

98 | P a g e MCQ
 a) Habeas corpus 76. Subordinate legislation cannot
b) Mandamus take effect unless published.
c) Certiorari a) True
d) Quo warranto b) False
c) Partly true
71. As per Article 21A, the state shall d) Partly false
provide free and compulsory
education to all children of the 77. Which of the following courts
age of: can advise the president an a
a) Six to ten years reference made by the
b) Six to fourteen years president on questions of fact
c) Six to sixteen years and law?
d) Six to eighteen years a) The supreme court
b) The high courts
72. Article _______ imposing the c) The subordinate courts.
fundamental duties on every d) Special Tribunals.
citizen of india
a) 49(A) 78. Which pattern was followed by
b) 50(A) the government of India Act,
c) 51(A) 1935?
d) 52(A) a) Australian
b) Canadian
73. Fundamental duties are not c) British
enforceable by the courts. d) African
a) True
b) False 79. Which of the following is not
c) Partly true included in the state list?
d) Partly false a) Police
b) Public order
74. The courts in the Indian legal c) Railways
system consist of; d) Public health and sanitation
a) The supreme court
b) The high court 80. Which of the following is not
c) The subordinate courts included in the union list?
d) All of the above a) Defence of India
b) Foreign affairs
c) Reserve bank of India
75. The writ of ________ provides a d) Police
remedy to a person who is
confined without legal 81. The right to speech and
justification. expression includes right to
a) Hebeas corpus make a good or bad speech.
b) Mandamus a) True
c) Prohibition b) False
d) Quo warranto c) Partly true
d) Partly false

99 | P a g e MCQ
 82. As per the Article 22, generally a d) None of these
person cannot be detained for
a period more than: 87. Article 14 to 18 of the
a) 1 month constitution covers:
b) 2 months a) Right to Religion
c) 3 months b) Right to Freedom
d) 6 months c) Right to Equality
d) Right to Education
83. The various powers that are
included within the 88. Article 14 applies to all persons
comprehensive expression and is not limited to citizens.
‘executive power’ in a modern a) True
state includes: b) False
a) Administrative power c) Partly true
b) Military power d) Partly false
c) Legislative power and judicial
power 89. Under Article 15(3), the state
d) All of the above can make special provision for:
a) Women
84. A citizen of the federal country b) Children
thus becomes subject to the c) Both (a) & (b)
decrees of following d) None of the above
government
a) Executive power 90. The preamble declares India to
b) Military power be a:-
c) Legislative power a) Sovereign
d) Judicial power b) Socialist & secular
c) Democratic & republic
85. Article 20 guarantees to all d) All of the above
persons – whether citizens or
non-citizens the following 91. Article 14 forbids class
right(s): legislation, but does not forbid
a) Protection against ex-post classification
facto laws a) True
b) Protection against double b) False
jeopardy c) Partly true
c) Protection against self- d) Partly false
incrimination
d) All of the above 92. Person can be prosecuted &
punished for the same offence
86. Preventive detention means: more than once.
a) Detention of a person with a) True
trial b) False
b) Detention of a person without c) Partly true
trial d) Partly false
c) Both (a) & (b)

100 | P a g e MCQ
 93. The Directive principles: a) Union list
a) Enforceable in the courts b) State list
b) Not Enforceable in the courts c) Concurrent list
c) Partly Enforceable in the d) None of the above
courts
d) None of the above 98. The _____ is the highest court in
the country
94. The executive power of the a) Supreme court
state is vested in the _____ b) The high courts
a) Prime minister c) The subordinate courts
b) Chief Minister d) All of the above
c) Governor
d) Courts 99. Which of the following is not
correct?
95. The governor of a state is not a) List I is named as the Union list
elected but is appointed by the: b) List II as the state list
a) Prime Minister c) List III as the concurrent list
b) President d) None if the above
c) Member of Parliament
d) Chief Minister 100. With respect to all those
matters which are not included
96. Which of the following powers in any of the three lists, _____ has
are not held by the Governor? the exclusive power to make
a) Executive power laws.
b) Military power a) Parliament
c) Legislative power b) State Legislatures
d) Judicial power c) Courts
d) All of the above
97. There is no tax subject included
in the ____

101 | P a g e MCQ
 INTERPRETATION OF STATUTES
1. The purpose of interpretation
is_________
a) To see what is the intention
expressed by the words used.
b) To understand the statute
according to one’s own
comprehension
c) To make a guess of what is
written
d) To be able to change the
meaning according to the
situation
2. According to the rule of literal
construction, a statute is
interpreted according to the
general meaning of the words
even if it leads to absurdity.
a) False
b) Partly false
c) True
d) Partly true
3. The rule of Ejusdem generis must
be applied with great caution
because it implies a departure
from the natural meaning of
words.
a) True
b) Partly false
c) Partly true
d) False
4. The purpose of interpretation
clause is __________
a) To give dictionary meaning of
the word and expression
b) To give an overview of the
statute
c) To give complete meaning of
the statute
d) To avoid the necessity of
frequent repetition in
describing all the subject
102 | P a g e
matter to which the word or
expression so defined is
intended
5. To avoid any inconsistency or
repugnancy either in a section or
between sections and other
parts of the statutes, the rule
applied is that of __________
a) Literal construction
b) Harmonious construction
c) Reasonable construction
d) None of the above
6. Internal aids in interpretation of
statute include _________.
a) Title
b) Preamble
c) Marginal notes
d) All of the above
7. If there is any appearance of
inconsistency between the
schedule and a specific
provision in an enactment the
______ shall prevail.
a) Schedule
b) Provision
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Either (a) and (b)
8. The rule of reasonable
construction should be rejected
if it results in ________
a) Absurdity
b) Serious inconvenience
c) Hardship
d) All of the above
9. According to the doctrine “ ut
res magis valeat quam pareat” if
the letter of law is not clear the
interpretation must be according
to ________
MCQ
 a) Purpose 14. “ Expressio unis est exclusio
b) Object alterious means ___________
c) Either (a) or (b) a) Words are known by its
d) None of the above associates
b) Contemporaneous is best
10. Mischief rule is also called as and strongest in law
_________ c) Express mention of one thing
a) Rule of exceptional the exclusion of other
construction d) Of the same kind or species
b) Rule of ejusdem generis
c) Heydon’s rule 15. As per which rule when two or
d) Rule of literal consruction more words having analogous
meaning are coupled together,
11. The law of mischief rule should they are understood in their
be interpreted in such a way so cognate sense _________
that it ________ a) Rule of ejusdem generis
a) Suppresses the remedy and b) Noscitur a sociis
advances c) Heydons rule
b) Only suppress the mischief d) Rule of reasonable
c) Only advance the remedy construction
d) Both b and c
16. Basic presumptions of
12. Whenever there is any conflict, interpretation of statute are
or contradiction between two ___________
provisions of law out of which a) Liability only attaches where
one is specific and the other is there is no mens rea
general then the general rule will b) The statute or governmental
prevail over the specific. institutions unless expressly
a) False covered are deemed to be
b) True exempted
c) Partly false c) No mistakes has been
d) Partly true committed by the legislature
in drafting the statute
13. The rule of ejusdem generis d) Both (a) and (c) above
applied only when the following
some conditions are fulfilled. 17. Internal aids of interpretation
Which are those conditions? includes __________
a) The statute contains an a) Statements of objects and
enumeration of general reasons
words b) Reference to reports of
b) The members of enumeration committee
constitute a class or category c) Reference to other statutes
c) Both a and b d) Dictionaries
d) All of the above
18. In which case it was provided
that the preamble may be

103 | P a g e MCQ
 legitimately consulted in case 22. Rule of literal construction is also
any ambiguity arises in the known as
construction of an act and it a) Golden
may be useful to fix the meaning b) Primary
of words used so as to keep the c) Herdon
effect of the statute within its real d) Both a) & b)
scope.
a) Balraj kumar vs. jagatpal singh 23. Hardon’s Rule is also called as –
b) Kamalpara kochunni vs. state a) Rule of Ejusdem generis
of madras b) Rule of harmonious
c) Thakara singh vs. revenue construction
minister c) Rule of literal construction
d) Venkataramana devaru vs. d) Mischief rule
state of mysore
24. Purpose of interpretation is to –
19. Pari metria means __________ in a) To understand the statute
relation to the interpretation of according to ones owns
statutes comprehension
a) Dealings with different subject b) To see what is the intention
matter expressed by words.
b) Dealing with same subject c) To able to change the
matter meaning according to
c) Dealing in more than two situation
subject matter d) To make a guess of what is
d) None of the above written

20. External aids of interpretation 25. Statute are commonly divided

includes _______ into which of the following
a) Parliamentary history classes –
b) Historical facts and a) Codifying
circumstances b) Remedial
c) Both a and b c) Declaratory
d) None of the above d) All of the above

21. According to ___________ 26. Internal aids in interpretation are

interpretation or construction is –
process by which court seek to a) Proviso
ascertain the meaning of b) Dictionaries
legislature through the medium c) None of the above
of authoritative form in which it d) Both A & B
expressed
a) Halsbury 27. Which of the following is not
b) Salmond external aid in interpretation
c) Denning a) Use of foreign decision
d) None of the above b) Parliamentary history
c) Marginal notes

104 | P a g e MCQ
 d) Dictionaries
28. The rule of __________________
must be applied with great
caution because it implies a
departure from the natural
meaning of words in order to
give them a meaning or
supposed intention of legislation.
a) Ejusdem Generis
b) Heydon’s Rule
c) Rule of literal construction
d) None of the above
29. Utres magis valeat quam pareat
called as
a) Rule of harmonious
construction
b) Rule of reasonable
construction
c) Rule of Ejusdem Generis
d) Noscitur a sociis
30. __________ are attatched to
sections, are part of statute &
they are useful so far as they
help to furnish same indication of
presumable intention
legislature.
a) Illustrations
b) Schedules
c) Proviso
d) Heading
31. Expressio unls est exclusion
alterius means-
a) Express mention of one thing
& exclusion of another
b) Express mentionof two thing &
exclusion of one.
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
105 | P a g e
32. The language of statute must be
understood in the sense in which
it was understood when it made
in rule of
a) Expression unls est exclusion
alterius
b) Contemporanea exposition
est optima est fortissimo lege
c) Noscitur a sociis
d) Strict & liberal construction
33. Rule of Ejusdem generis means
a) Mention of one thing &
exclusion of another
b) Law should be interpreted in
such a way to suppress its
mischief
c) Same kind or species
d) None of the above
34. In heydon’s case it was resolved
that for the sure & true
interpretation of all statute in
general which of the following
thing are discerned &
considered.-
a) What was the common law
of before making of act
b) What was the mischief &
defact for which common
law provide
c) Both a & B
d) None of the above
35. The words of statute are to be
constructed in the manner in
which they are stated in –
a) Harmonious construction
b) Strict & liberal construction
c) Literal construction
d) Reasonable construction
MCQ
 SPECIFIC RELIEF ACT, 1963
1. Generally, only a part to the 6. Which of the following are
contract can get its specific instances of legal character?
performance. a) Divorce on the ground of
a) True imptency
b) False b) Legal character by marriage
c) Partly true c) Status of an adopted son
d) Partly false d) All of the above

2. As per section 10, which of the 7. The act of trespassing upon

following cases are specifically another land is not actionable if
enforceable? it has not caused the plaintiff the
a) Copyright slightest harm.
b) Future property a) True
c) Both a and b above b) False
d) Only b above c) Partly true
d) Partly false
3. Which of the following sections
deal with the recovery of 8. A person entitles to the
possession of movable property? possession of specific immovable
a) Sec 1 and 2 property may file a suit for
b) Sec 3 and 4 enjectment on the strength of his
c) Sec 7 and 8 title of property within how many
d) Sec 9 and 10 years from the date of
dispossession?
4. Under the specific relief act, a a) 6 years
court can give both specific b) 12 years
relief and not both. c) 14 years
a) True d) 8 years
b) False
c) Partly true 9. Section 8 of the specific relief act
d) Partly false deals in ________
a) General relief
5. Which of the following are not b) Specific relief
required for rectification of c) Both
instruments? d) None
a) Existence of a complete
agreement prior to the 10. Specific performance may be
instrument enforced on which of the
b) In writing form following?
c) A clear evidence of mutual a) When there is no standard for
mistake or fraud determining the actual
d) A verbal agreement damage caused as a result of
non performance of the
contract

106 | P a g e MCQ
 b) When compensation is
money an adequate relief for
the performance of the
contract
c) Both
d) None
11. In which of the following cases
the compensation in money is
not adequate relief _________
a) When the property is an
ordinary article of commerce
b) When the property is not of
special value or interest to
plaintiff
c) Where the property consists of
goods which are easily
available in the market
d) None of the above
12. A builds a house with eaves
projecting over B’s land, B may
sue for an injunction to pull down
so much of the eaves as so
projecting over his land. Which
type of injunction is this?
a) Temporary injunction
b) Perpetual injunction
c) Mandatory injunction
d) Ex-parte injunction
13. Which type of injunction is also
known as interlocutory or interim
injunction?
a) Temporary injunction
b) Perpetual injunction
c) Mandatory injunction
d) Ex-parte injunction
14. The court may issue declaratory
decree, on the fulfillment of
which of the following condition
________
a) The plaintiff is entitled to any
property
107 | P a g e
b) The court is not satisfied that
the relief is proper
c) The declaration asked is not
for legal character
d) All of above
15. _______________ is granted under
the discretion of the court by
way of injunction.
a) Specific relief
b) Preventive relief
c) Declaratory decree
d) General relief
16. Declaration under section 34 is a
judgment in rem and not a
judgment in personam.
a) True
b) False
c) Partly true
d) Partly false
17. Which of the following parties
are not entitled to specific
performance?
a) Any person not beneficially
entitled
b) Any person beneficially
entitled
c) Parties to contract
d) Representative in interest
18. Section 42 i.e. injunction to
perform negative agreement is
based on which of the following
case law?
a) Sudha singh vs. Munshi Ram
b) Anglo danubian co. vs.
Rogerson
c) Lumely vs. Wanger
d) State of Madhya Pradesh vs.
Mangilal Sharma
19. A person suing for rescission can,
in the alternative sue for specific
MCQ
 performance but a person suing a) Recovery of Immovable
for specific performance cannot property
sue for rescission. b) Recovery of Movable
a) True property
b) False c) Both (a) & (b)
c) Absolutely true d) None of the above
d) Partly false
25. Specific performance is a
20. Which of the following injunction equitable relief given by the
is granted only after full trail or court in cases of _____.
hearing of the cases, when a a) Misrepresentation
right is firmly established. b) Fraud
a) Temporary injunction c) Breach of contract
b) Perpetual injunction d) All of the above
c) Mandatory injunction
d) Ex-parte injunction 26. Which of the following sections
deal with the recovery of
21. The term ‘relief’ means:- possession of movable property?
a) Remedy granted for some a) Sec 3 & 4
wrong b) Sec 5 & 6
b) Remedy granted for some c) Sec 7 & 8
injury d) Sec 9 & 10
c) Remedy granted for some
wrong or injury 27. Which of the following section
d) All of the above deals with the specific
performance of part of
22. The first remedy is the “______”, contract?
while the second remedy is the a) Section 10
“______”. b) Section 11
a) Specific relief, compensatory c) Section 12
relief d) Section 13
b) compensatory relief, Specific
relief 28. ________ of the specific relief act,
c) both (a) & (b) 1963 contains the law as to
d) All of the above rectification of instruments
a) Section 26
23. The concept of _____ is governed b) Section 27
by various provisions of specific c) Section 28
relief act, 1963 d) Section 29
a) Compensatory relief
b) Specific relief 29. Section 31 provides that any
c) Both (a) & (b) person against whom a written
d) None of the above instrument is ______.
a) Valid
24. The specific relief act, 1963 lays b) Void
down the following heads:- c) Voidable

108 | P a g e MCQ
 d) Void or voidable b) A person who violates any
essential terms of contract
30. _____ means the relief where a c) A person who acts in
party to the contract is fraudulent manner
prevented from doing a d) All of the above
particular act, which he is under
an obligation not to do. 35. Section deals with persons
a) Specific relief against whom contract may be
b) Preventive relief specifically performed
c) Compensatory relief a) Section 17
d) All of the above b) Section 18
c) Section 19
31. _____ is granted under the d) Section 20
discretion of the court by way of
injunction. 36. Declaratory decree:-
a) Specific relief a) Section 33
b) Preventive relief b) Section 34
c) Compensatory relief c) Section 35
d) All of the above d) Section 36

32. _______ section deals with 37. The court may issue a
Recovery on the strength of tittle declaratory decree, if the
a) Section 5 following conditions are fulfilled:-
b) Section 6 a) The plaintiff is entitles to any
c) Section 7 property
d) Section 8 b) The defendant denied the
plaintiff’s title to such legal
33. Defence many not be taken by character or right
a defendant against a suit for c) The court is satisfied that the
specific performance of relief is proper
contract d) All of the above
a) Contract by trustee in excess
of his powers. 38. Effect of declaration
b) Unperformed part of a a) Section 33
contract not separate & b) Section 34
independent c) Section 35
c) Contract specifically d) Section 36
enforceable
d) All of the above 39. Injunction to perform Negative
Agreement
34. Specific performance of a a) Section 40
contract cannot be enforced in b) Section 41
favour of a person c) Section 42
a) A person who has became d) Section 43
incapable of performing

109 | P a g e MCQ
40. Following are the essential
requirements of section 42:-
a) The contract must consist of
two agreements i.e., positive
& negative agreements;
b) The contract must be divisible
& the negative part must be
110 | P a g e
capable of being separated
from the rest of the contract;
c) The applicant must not have
failed to perform the contract
so far as it is binding on him
d) All of the above
MCQ
 LAW RELATING TO TORTS
1. Wrong, in law are 6. Extra-judicial remedies are
_____________________ ___________
a) Public a) Re-entry on land
b) Private b) Damages
c) Public or private c) Injunction
d) Both public and private d) Specific restitution of property

2. To constitute a tort, which of the 7. Self defence or self help is a

following conditions are remedy which the injured party
required? can avail himself without going
a) A wrongful act or omission of to the court of law.
the defendant a) True
b) The wrongful act must result in b) False
causing no legal damage to c) Partly true
another. d) Partly false
c) Both a and b above
d) None of the above 8. In which case it was held that, “If
a person brings or accumulates
3. Dammum sine injuria means on his land anything which, if it
__________ should escape may cause
a) Damage with injury damage to his neighbours, be
b) Damage without injury does so at his own peril. If it does
c) Injury with damage escape and cause damage he
d) Injury without damage is responsible, however careful
he may have been, and
4. Injuria means _____________ whatever precautions he may
a) Infringement of a law have taken to prevent
conferred by right on the damage”.
plaintiff. a) M.C. Mehta V. Union of India
b) Infringement of a right case
conferred by the law on the b) Lioyd v. Grace
plaintiff c) Rylands V. Fletcher case
c) Infringement of a law d) Hamlyn V. Housetan and Co.
d) Infringement of a right
plaintiff. 9. Normally, the torts feasor is- liable
for his tort. But in some cases a
5. To constitute a tort _____________ person may be held liable for the
must come under the law. tort committed by another. This is
a) Guilty mind known as _____________
b) Wrongful act a) Strict liability
c) Damage b) Vicarious liability
d) Injury c) Absolute liability
d) Both a and b above

111 | P a g e MCQ
10. The nature of remedy under the b) False
law of torts is- c) Absolutely true
a) Criminal d) Partly false
b) Civil
c) Quasi-criminal 16. Any direct application of force
d) Quasi-civil to the person of another
individual without his consent or
11. Under certain circumstance, a lawful justification is a wrong
person is liable for the torts ____________
committed by another. a) Assault
a) True b) False imprisonment
b) False c) Malicious prosecution
c) Partly true d) Battery
d) Partly false
17. When there is a battery, there will
12. The word ‘tort is a French also be assault.
equivalent of English word a) True
____________. b) False
a) Right c) Partly true
b) Similar d) Partly false
c) Wrong
d) Different 18. If a man is restrained, by a threat
of force from leaving his own
13. Where there is infringement of a house or an open field there is
legal right not resulting in harm, ___________________
but plaintiff can still sue under a) Defamation
the law relating to torts. b) Battery
a) True c) Assault
b) False d) False imprisonment
c) Absolutely false
d) Partly true 19. Written words, pictures,
caricatures and recorded words
14. Under law of torts, exception to are examples of ____________
the strict liability is- a) Battery
a) National use of land b) Slander
b) Act of third party c) Libel
c) Act of God d) None of the above
d) All of the above
20. Defamation is a tort but not a
15. Government is liable for the acts crime in India.
and defaults, of its employees a) True
and servants, done in the b) Partly true
exercise of its sovereign c) False
functions. d) Absolutely false
a) True

112 | P a g e MCQ
 LIMITATION ACT
1. The time limit for making an
apsplication for setting aside an
arbitral award is 2 months from
the date of receipt of award.
a) True
b) Partly false
c) Partly true
d) False
2. In computing the period of
limitation for an application to
set aside an award, the time
required for obtaining a copy of
the award shall not be excluded.
a) False
b) True
c) Partly true
d) Absolutely true
3. The law of limitation bars the
remedy as well as extinguishes
the right where:___________
a) Where the remedy is
extinguished by limitation.
b) Where only the remedy is
extinguished.
c) Where there is no remedy
d) Where there is only remedy
4. Doctrine of sufficient cause
under section 5 of the limitation
act, 1963 will apply on-
a) Suits
b) Appeals and applications
c) Both a and b above
d) None of the above
5. The law of limitation is not
unconstitutional.
a) False
b) True
c) Partly false
d) Partly true
6. The maximum period of limitation
prescribed under the limitation
act, 1963 is __________
a) 20 years
b) 80 years
c) 30 years
d) 40 years
7. Which of the following authority
under section 5 of the limitation
act, 1963 is empowered to
extend the period of limitation-
a) Labour court
b) District court
c) Arbitrator court
d) All of above
8. Which of the following states
does not come under the
purview of the act of limitation?
a) Punjab
b) Jammu and Kashmir
c) Uttar Pradesh
d) Bihar
9. Which of the following authorities
do not have the power to
extend the period as per sec 5?
a) Labour courts
b) Quasi judicial court
c) Executive authorities
d) All of the above
10. Which of the following sections
states the time which shall be
excluded in computing the time
of limitation in legal
proceedings?
a) Sec 10
b) Sec 11
c) Sec 12
d) Sec 13

113 | P a g e MCQ
11. Which articles of the India a) Person under legal disability
constitution states that the state b) Disability of several person
cannot place any hindrance by c) Continuous running of time
prescribing a period of limitation d) Expiry of period when court is
in the way of an aggrieved closed
person seeking to approach the 16. _______ deals with disability of
supreme court of India? several persons
a) Article 30 a) Section 6
b) Article 32 b) Section 7
c) Article 34 c) Section 8
d) Article 36 d) Section 9

12. Section 8 provides that shall not 17. Which section deals with the
apply to suit to enforce rights or fresh period of limitation shall be
pre-emption. computed from the time when
a) Sec 6 and 7 the payment was made
b) Sec 7 and 8 a) Section 16
c) Sec 8 and 9 b) Section 17
d) Sec 6 only c) Section 18
d) Section 19
13. As per sec 15, where the suit
application for the execution of 18. The law relating to limitation is
decree has been stayed by an incorporated in the limitation Act
injunction order which of the of 1963, which prescribes
following day shall be excluded different periods of limitation for
____________ a) Suits
a) The day on which it was b) Petitions
withdrawn c) Applications
b) The day on which it d) All of the above
continued
c) The day on which it was 19. The act extends to whole of India
issued a) True
d) All of the above b) False
c) Partly true
14. Which section provides for fresh d) Partly false
period of limitation at every
moment of time during which 20. The courts in India are bound by
breach/wrong continues. the specific provisions of the
a) Sec 19 limitation Act & not permitted to
b) Sec 20 move outside the ambit of these
c) Sec 21 provisions.
d) Sec 22 a) True
b) False
15. Sec 9 as per limitation act 1963 c) Partly true
tells about ________________ d) Partly false

114 | P a g e MCQ
 LAW RELATING TO EVIDENCE
1. The term evidence is defined
under which section of evidence
act?
a) Sec 2
b) Sec 3
c) Sec 4
d) Sec 5
2. All statements which the court
permits or requires to be made
before it by witnesses, in relation
to matters of fact under inquiry
such statements are called
______________
a) Evidence
b) Oral evidence
c) Documentary evidence
d) Both b and c above
3. In general the rules of evidence
are same in civil and criminal
proceedings but there is a strong
and marked difference as to the
effect of evidence in civil and
criminal proceedings.
a) True
b) Partly true
c) False
d) Partly false
4. According to sec 3 ‘fact’ means
and includes: ___________
a) Anything, state of things or
relation of things capable of
being perceived by the
senses.
b) Any mental condition of
which any person is conscious
c) Either a or b above
d) Both a and b above
5. Which of the following are the
examples of psychological fact?
115 | P a g e
a) That a man heard or saw
something, is a fact
b) That a man said certain
words, is a fact
c) That a man has a certain
reputation, is a fact
d) All of the above
6. Which of the following are the
examples of physical facts:
____________
a) That there are certain objects
arranged in a certain order in
a certain place, is a fact
b) That a man heard or saw
something is a fact.
c) That a man said certain words
is a fact
d) All of the above
7. What is the fact in above case?
a) A’s punishment
b) B’s murder
c) B’s intention to kill A
d) A’s intention to cause horm to
B
8. Relevant fact has been defined
in which section?
a) Sec 3
b) Sec 4
c) Sec 5
d) Sec 6
9. All facts logically relevant are
not, however, legally relevant.
a) False
b) True
c) Partly false
d) Partly true
10. Which of the following are facts
not necessary to explain or
introduce relevant facts?
MCQ
 a) Facts necessary to explain or b) The contents of documents
introduce a fact must be stated orally.
b) Facts which do not support c) It can be indirect
an inference d) All of the above.
c) Facts which establishes the
identity of a person or thing 15. A presumption is in itself
d) Facts which show the relation evidence, but only makes a
of parties by whom any such prime facie case for the party in
fact was transacted. whose favour it exists.
a) True
11. What are the main b) False
characteristics of an admission? c) Partly true
a) It must be clear and vague d) Partly false
b) It must be vague and precise
c) It must be clear and precise 16. Confession made before the
d) It must be precise and magistrate by co-accused
ambiguous. against another co-accused,
who is not jointly tried with him for
12. Which of the following are not an offence, is admissible as
judicial confessions? evidence.
a) Confessions made to the a) False
police b) Partly false
b) Confessions made before a c) True
court d) Partly true
c) Confessions made to a judge
d) Confessions made to a 17. Relevancy and admissibility are :
magistrate ______________
a) Co-extensive or
13. What are the matters in respect interchangeable terms
of which a witness is bound to b) Not co-extensive or
answer questions while giving interchangeable terms
evidence? c) Co-extensive terms
a) Evidence of an individual in d) Interchangeable terms
regard to certain matters
b) Communications during 18. Which section embodies the rule
marriage of admission of evidence relating
c) Affairs of state to what is commonly known as
d) Source of information of a res gestae
magistrate or police officer or a) Sec 6
revenue officer as to b) Sec 7
commission of an offence or c) Sec 8
crime. d) Sec 9

14. What are the broad rules 19. The word ‘by-standers’
regarding oral evidence? means:____________
a) It must be direct in all cases.

116 | P a g e MCQ
 a) Persons present at the time of b) Confessions
beating c) Admissions and confessions
b) Persons who gather on the d) Statement made under
spot after the beating special circumstances.
c) Persons supporting the
beating 24. Admissions defined under which
d) Persons responsible for sec _________________
beating a) 17
b) 31
20. Motive is a ____________________ c) 24
fact. d) 30
a) Physical
b) Circumstantial 25. Admission may be verbal or
c) Specific contained in documents as
d) Psychological maps, letters etc.
a) True
21. A sues B for inducing C to break b) False
a contract of service made by c) Partly true
him with A., on leaving A’s d) Partly false
service, says to A-‘I am leaving
for because B has made me a 26. An admission may be made by
better offer’. This statement is ________________
_______________ a) By the agent
a) A relevant fact in issue b) Predecessor-in-interest of a
b) Not a relevant fact in issue party
c) A fact but a relevant fact in c) By a reference
issue d) All of the above
d) Neither relevant nor fact in
issue 27. All confessions are admissions.
a) True
22. Which of the following are not b) False
the exceptions of hearsay rule? c) Partly false
a) Admissions and confessions d) Partly true
b) Statements as to certain
matters under certain 28. The law of evidence does not
circumstances by persons define _______________
who are not witnesses. a) Admissions
c) Statements made under b) Confessions
special circumstances c) Facts
d) None of the above. d) Relevant facts

23. Sec 17 to 31 of evidence act lays 29. The confession is evidence only
down the first exception to the against _______________
general rule know as a) Its makers
____________
a) Admissions

117 | P a g e MCQ
 b) Against another person who is
being jointly tried with him for
an offence.
c) Both a and b above
d) Either a and b above
30. Which section is an exception to
the general rule that confession
is only evidence against the
confessor and not against the
others?
a) Sec 19
b) Sec 33
c) Sec 30
d) Sec 22A
and indirect evidence are used
to signify evidence which relates
only to ______________
a) Factum probandum
b) Facts probandum
c) Both a and b above
d) None of the above.
35. The terms presumption of law
and fact are not defined by the
act.
a) False
b) True
c) Absolutely false
d) Partly false

31. Privileged communications are 36. _______ indicates rebuttable

also reffered to as _____________ presumptions of law
a) Facts of which evidence can a) Conclusive proof
be given b) Shall presume
b) Facts of which evidence c) May presume
cannot be given d) None of the above
c) Facts which are irrelevant
d) Relevant facts 37. The word evidence in the act
signifies only the instruments by
32. All facts except contents of means of which relevant facts
documents or electronic records are brought before the court
may be proved by __________ a) True
evidence which must in all cases b) False
be “direct” c) Partly true
a) Oral d) Partly false
b) Written
c) Documentary 38. “Facts in issue” means & includes
d) Circumstantial any fact from which, _____
a) Either by itself
33. Sec 60 provides that the b) In connection with other fact
contents of a document must be c) Both (a) & (b)
proved by _____________ d) None of the above
evidence
a) Primary 39. When described in the context
b) Secondary of civil procedure code, it is an
c) Both a and b above ______
d) Either a or b above a) Issue of fact
b) Fact in issue
34. The terms circumstantial c) Both (a) & (b)
evidence, presumptive evidence d) None of the above

118 | P a g e MCQ
40. When described in the context c) Both (a) & (b)
of civil procedure code, it is an d) None of the above
______
a) Issue of fact 45. Section 24 to 30 deals with ______
b) Fact in issue a) Admissions
c) Both (a) & (b) b) Confessions
d) None of the above c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of the above
41. According to ______ evidence
may be given in any suit or 46. Estoppels is based on the maxim
proceeding of the existence or ‘allegans contraia non est
non-existence of every fact in audiendus’ i.e. a person alleging
issue & of such other fact as are contrary facts should not be
here in after declared to be heard
relevant, & of no others. a) True
a) Section 4 b) False
b) Section 5 c) Partly true
c) Section 6 d) Partly false
d) Section 7
47. Kinds of estoppels by conduct or
42. According to section 3”fact” estoppels in pasis.
means & includes:- a) Estoppels by election
a) Anything, state of things, or b) Constructive estoppels
relation of things capable of c) Estoppels by silence
being perceived by the d) All of the above
senses
b) Any mental condition of 48. In English law the expression
which any person in direct evidence is used to signify
conscious relating to the ‘fact in issue’
c) Both (a) & (b) a) True
d) None of the above b) False
c) Partly true
43. The general rule known as the d) Partly false
hearsay rule is that what is stated
about the fact in question is 49. Rules of presumption are
irrelevant deduced from enlightened
a) True human knowledge & experience
b) False & are drawn from the ______ of
c) Partly true facts & circumstances
d) Partly false a) Connection
b) Relation
44. Section 17 to 31 lay down the first c) Coincidence
exception to the general rule d) All of the above
known as ________
a) Admissions 50. The term ________ specifies those
b) Confessions presumptions which in English

119 | P a g e MCQ
 law are called irrebuttable b) Shall presume
presumptions of law c) May presume
a) Conclusive proof d) All of the above

120 | P a g e MCQ
 THE CODE OF CIVIL PROCEDURE, 1908
1. The civil procedure code
consolidates and amends the
law relating to the procedure of
the courts of civil jurisdiction.
a) False
b) True
c) Partly true
d) Partly false
2. What are the essentials of a
decree:
a) There must be a formed
expression of adjudication
b) There must be a conclusive
determination of the rights of
parties
c) The adjudication should have
been given in the suit
d) All of the above
3. Which section is enacted to
prevent the court of concurrent
jurisdiction from simultaneously
trying two parallel suits in respect
of same matter issue?
a) Sec 9
b) Sec 10
c) Sec 11
d) Sec 12
4. Res judicata in sec 11 of the civil
procedure code deals with bar
or restraint on repetition of
litigation of the same issues.
a) True
b) False
c) Partly true
d) Partly false
5. What are the main essentials for
instituting the suit?
a) The opposing parties
b) The cause of action
c) The subject matter of the suit
d) All of the above
6. How many kinds of appeals are
there under the civil procedure
code?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
7. To which of the courts are the
rules of summary suit not
applicable
a) High courts
b) District court
c) City civil courts
d) Small courts
8. The defendant is entitled to
‘leave to defend’ in a summary
suit if he enters an appearance
after service of summons within_
a) 30 days
b) 10 days
c) 60 days
d) 15 days
9. The definition of ‘decree’ as
given under section 2 of the
code of civil procedure, 1908
includes-
a) An ‘award’ passed by the
arbitral tribunal under the

121 | P a g e MCQ
 arbitration and conciliation 13. The right of review has been
act, 1996 conferred by the code of civil
b) Rejection of plaint under procedure, 1908. It provides that
order 7, rule 11 of the code of any person considering himself
civil procedure, 1908. aggrieved by a decree or order
c) Adjudication of any question may apply for a review of the
raised by any party to the judgment to the:-
decree during execution a) Appellate court
proceedings under section 47 b) High court
of the code of civil c) District court
procedure, 1908 d) Court who passed the decree
d) An order of which appeal like or order.
an order.
10. The application of revision under 14. The definition of ‘legal
the provisions of the code of civil representative’ under the code
procedure, 1908 is made to of civil procedure, 1908 means:-
____________ a) A person who represents in
a) The supreme court law the estate of the
b) The high court deceased
c) The district court b) A person who intermeddles
d) The small court with the estate of the
decreased
11. A fresh suit is barred for the same c) Both a and b above
cause of action under section d) None of the above
CSD _________ of the code of
civil procedure, 1908 15. Under the provisions of the code
a) 9 of civil procedure, 1908, from the
b) 10 date of the decree or order, an
c) 11 appeal can be made in the high
d) 12 court within- ___________
a) 60 days
12. Summary trials will apply to those b) 30 days
offences which are not c) 90 days
punishable with imprisonment for d) 120 days
a term exceeding-_____________
a) Two year 16. Under the provisions of the code
b) One year of civil procedure, 1908, the
c) 60 days defendant has to file the written
d) 90 days statement of his defence from
the date of the service of

122 | P a g e MCQ
 summons within a period of
______________ 22. A decree comes into existence
a) 40 days as soon as the ________ is
b) 30 days pronounced and not on the
c) 45 days date when it is sealed and
d) 60 days signed.
a) Order
17. The rule of summary procedure b) Decision
are applicable to which of the c) Judgement
following court__________ d) Action.
a) City civil courts
b) District court 23. Which of the following statement
c) Supreme court is true:
d) All of the above a) Final decree is dependent
and subordinate the
18. A minor is a person who has preliminary decree.
completed the age of 18 years: b) Final decree is neither
a) True dependent and nor
b) False subordinate the preliminary
c) Partly true decree.
d) Partly false c) Final decree is partly
dependent and subordinate
19. The main essentials of the suit are the preliminary decree.
: ____________ d) None of the above.
a) The opposing parties
b) The cause of action 24. Section 15 lays down that every
c) The reliefcs claimed suit shall be instituted in the court
d) All of the above of the __________ grade to try it.
a) Highest
20. CPC stands for: b) Middle
a) Civil procedure code c) Lowest
b) Civil protection code d) Any of the above.
c) Chief procedure code
d) Central procedure code 25. The principle of res judicata does
not generally apply to a consent
21. A decree may be:- or compromise decree.
a) Partly preliminary a) True
b) Partly final b) False
c) Both (a) & (b). c) Depends on case to case
d) None of the above. d) None of the above

123 | P a g e MCQ
26. When court issues summons, c) Partly true
defendant has to appear within d) Partly false
_________ days from the date of
service of summons. 31. Law can be divided into ______
a) 10 groups
b) 25 a) One
c) 30 b) Two
d) 45 c) Three
d) Four
27. “___________” means every fact
which, if traversed, would be 32. Law can be substantive law &
necessary for the plaintiff to procedural law
prove in order to support his right a) True
to the judgement of the court. b) False
a) Plaint c) Partly true
b) Cause of action d) Partly false
c) Cause of protection
d) Claim 33. Substantive law determines _____
of parties
28. In every plaint the facts must be a) Rights
proved by an _________. b) Liabilities
a) Advocate c) Both
b) Affidavit d) None of the above
c) Evidence
d) Fact 34. A decree may be:-
a) Partly preliminary
29. It is sufficient that if there is one b) Partly final
common question of law or of c) Both
fact to avoid misjoinder of d) None of the above
parties
a) True 35. A limitation on jurisdiction of a
b) False civil court may be any of the
c) Partly true following
d) Partly false a) Jurisdiction over the subject
matter
30. Every summons need not be b) Place of suing or territorial
accompanied by a copy of the jurisdiction.
plaint. c) Jurisdiction over persons
a) False d) All of the above
b) True

124 | P a g e MCQ
36. Section 15 lays down that every
sit shall be instituted in the court
of the ______ grade to try it.
a) Highest
b) Middle
c) Lowest
d) Any of the above
37. The principle of res judicata does
not generally apply to a consent
or compromise decree.
a) True
b) False
c) Depends on case to case
d) None of the above
38. Res judicata does not presume
conclusively the truth of the
former decision and ousts the
jurisdiction of the court to try the
case.
a) True
b) False
c) Partly true
d) Partly false
39. Discovery may be
a) By interrogatories
b) By documents.
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these.
40. A party may refuse to produce
the document for inspection on
the following grounds
a) Where it discloses a party’s
evidence
b) When it enjoys a legal
professional privilege
125 | P a g e
c) When it is injurious to public
interest
d) All of the above
41. Right to appeal is a
a) Inherent right
b) Natural right
c) Right provided by statue
d) None of these
42. Which of the following statement
is false
a) The judgment must be dated.
b) The judgment must be signed
by the judge
c) The judgment must be dated
and signed by the judge
d) None of the above
43. Decree should be drawn up
expeditiously and in any case
within a period of ______ days
from the date on which the
judgment is pronounced.
a) 10
b) 15
c) 20
d) 25
44. ________ is the enforcement of
decrees or orders of the court
a) Judgment
b) Decision
c) Execution
d) None of the above
45. Second appeal lies to the high
court in case where:
a) Substantial question of law is
involved
MCQ
 b) Substantial question of fact is
involved 48. To which of the courts are the
c) Either (a) or (b) rules for summary suit procedure
d) Both (a) & (b) applicable?
a) High courts
46. No appeal lies in any suit of the b) City civil courts
nature cognizable by court of c) Small courts
small causes when the amount d) All of the above
or value of the subject matter of
the original suit does not exceed 49. A minor is a person who has not
_______ thousand rupees. completed the age of _______
a) One years.
b) Ten a) 15
c) Twenty b) 18
d) Fifty c) 21
d) 24
47. How many kinds of appeals are
there under the civil procedure 50. A procedure by way of summary
code? suit apples to suits upon:
a) One a) Bill of exchange
b) Two b) Hundies
c) Three c) Promissory notes
d) Four d) All of the above

126 | P a g e MCQ
 CRIMINAL PROCEDURE CODE, 1973
1. The main object of the criminal 6. Which one of the following is the
procedure code is to essential ingredient to try a
supplement the _____________ person under criminal law?
contained in Indian penal code a) A guilty personality
by prescribing the suitable b) A guilty mind or intent
procedure. c) An intention
a) General law d) A motive
b) Criminal law
c) Substantive law 7. In a non-cognizable case, a
d) Civil law police officer can arrest without
a warrant.
2. Offence is defined is which sec? a) Partly false
a) 2(j) b) False
b) 2(n) c) True
c) 2(c) d) Partly true
d) 2(I)
8. Which of the following are not
3. Which of the following do not the stages of a criminal case
constitute an offence? ____________
a) A human being a) Investigation
b) Mens Rea b) Inquiry
c) Actus Rea c) Arrest
d) None of the above d) Trial

4. “ACTUS NON FACIT REAM HISI 9. An ‘anticipatory bail’ is granted

MENS SIT REA” means ________ by:______________
a) The intention must constitute a) The high court and supreme
the crime. court
b) The act must constitute the b) The supreme court and court
crime of session
c) The intention or must concur c) The high court and any
to constitute the crime magistrate
d) The intention and act both d) The Court of Session and high
must concur to constitute the court.
crime.
10. When a person is arrested
5. Bailable offences are more without a warrant he/she can be
serious than non-bail able kept in the custody not more
offence. than:________________
a) True a) 24 hours
b) false b) 48 hours
c) Partly true c) 72 hours
d) Partly false d) 15 hours

127 | P a g e MCQ
11. Warrants have been defined
under sec ______________?
a) 60
b) 71
c) 70
d) 61
12. A search warrant can be issued
under :____________
a) Sec 91
b) Sec 92
c) Sub - Sec (3)
d) Sec 93
13. If a case relates to two or more
offences are a cognizable
offence, the case will be treated
as a non-cognizable case.
a) True
b) false
c) Partly true
d) Partly false
14. Which of the following judicial
authorities can conduct a
summary trial?
a) Any judge of a high court
b) Any metropolitan magistrate
c) Any first class magistrate
empowered by a high court
d) All of the above.
15. No sentence of imprisonment for
a term exceeding _____________
shall be passed in any case or
instance in a summary trial.
a) Two months
b) Six months
c) Three months
d) Four months
16. A magistrate of the first class
may pass a sentence of
____________
a) Imprisonment for a term not
exceeding 10 years or of fine
up to Rs. 10,000 or of both.
128 | P a g e
b) Imprisonment for a term not
exceeding 5 years or of fine
up to Rs. 20,000 or of both.
c) Imprisonment for a term not
exceeding 7 years or of fine
up to Rs. 15,000 or of both.
d) Imprisonment for a term not
exceeding 3 years or of fine
up to Rs. 5,000 or of both.
17. The chief judicial magistrate is
empowered to pass –
a) Any sentence except a
sentence of death
b) Any sentence authorized by
law
c) Any sentence except a
sentence of death, life
imprisonment or imprisonment
for a term exceeding seven
years
d) Any sentence except a
sentence of death and life
imprisonment.
18. A magistrate may take
cognizance of any offence
open-
a) His own knowledge, police
report and complaint or
information received from
any person other than police
officer.
b) The information of any person
other than police officer.
c) The information of police
officer
d) His own knowledge.
19. A police officer may arrest any
person without warrant if he has
committed ___________ offence.
a) Non-cognizable
b) Non-bailable
c) Cognizable
d) Bailable
MCQ
 c) Illegal Act
20. Who may pass sentence d) Injury to another person.
authorized by law-
a) District magistrate 25. A complaint in a criminal case
b) Chief judicial magistrate must be made to ______________
c) Sessions judge a) Police officer
d) Magistrate of the first class b) Magistrate
c) High court
21. A complaint in a criminal case is d) Chief judicial
what a plaint is in a civil case.
a) True 26. The code of criminal procedure,
b) Partly false 1898 (cr.P.C) was repealed by
c) False the code of:
d) Partly true a) 1971
b) 1972
22. Where warrant remains
c) 1973
unexecuted the code of criminal
procedure, 1973 provides the d) 1974
remedy(ies) of –
a) Issuing a proclamation and 27. “______” means any allegation
sale of the property made orally or in writing to a
b) Attachment and sale of magistrate, with a view to his
property taking action under this code,
c) Issuing a proclamation and that some person, whether
attachment sale of the known or unknown, has
property committed an offence.
d) All of the above a) Case
b) Report
23. Any magistrate of the first class c) Complaint
and of the second class is d) None of the above
specially empowered to take
cognizance of an offence upon-
a) His own knowledge that such 28. Summon issued by the court shall
offence has been committed be in:
b) Receiving a complaint of a) Oral
facts constituting such b) Writing
offence c) Oral or writing
c) Information received from a d) Depend on case to case
police officer
d) Both a and b above 29. _______ means the “speedy
disposal” of cases.
24. In every criminal offence, a) Fast trials
______________ is an essential b) Summary trials
ingredient. c) Speedy trails
a) A human being d) Limited trails
b) Mens Rea

129 | P a g e MCQ
30. Section _____ relates to c) Both (a) & (b)
cognizance of offences by d) None of the above
Magistrates.
a) 188 35. A _____ is issued either for
b) 189 appearance or for producing a
c) 190 document or thing which may
d) 191 be issued to an accused person
or witness.
31. According to section 28, a HC a) Summon
may pass any sentence b) Warrant
authorized by law c) Notice
a) True d) All of the above
b) False
c) Partly true 36. The summons can be served by
d) Partly false a:
a) Police officer
32. The term judicial proceeding b) Officer of the court
includes c) Public servant
a) Inquiry and trial but not d) All of the above
investigation
b) Investigation and trial but not 37. which of the following judicial
inquiry authority cannot conduct a
c) Investigation and inquiry but summary trial?
not trial a) Any judge of a high court
d) Only inquiry b) Any chief judicial magistrate
c) Any metropolitan magistrate
33. Which of the following is not a d) Any first class magistrate
class of criminal courts? empowered by a High Court
a) High courts
b) Courts of session 38. Summons or warrant can not be
c) Judicial Magistrates of the first issued against the accused
& second class, executive unless and until the list of
magistrate prosecution witnesses has been
d) Consumer court filed.
a) True
34. The general processes to compel b) False
appearance are c) Partly true
a) Summons d) Partly false
b) Warrants

130 | P a g e MCQ
 LAW RELATING TO RIGHT TO INFORMATION
1. Which of the following articles
grant us right of freedom of
speech and expression:
a) Articles 19
b) Articles 19(1)
c) Articles 19(1)(a)
d) Articles 21
2. The RTI Act is applicable to the
whole of India with all its
Provisions
a) False
b) True
c) Partly true
d) Partly false
3. Where the information requested
for concerns the life or liberty of
a person, the same shall be
provided within 48 hours of the
receipt of the request
a) False
b) True
c) Partly false
d) Partly true
4. Which of the following acts as a
chairman of the central
information commission:
a) President of India
b) Prime minister of India
c) The leader of opposition in
the parliament
d) Any designated member of
the parliament
5. Section 20 of the right to
information act, 2005 impose
penalty on a public information
officer for failing to provide
information-
a) 250 per day
b) 250 per day to the extent to
maximum Rs. 50,000
131 | P a g e
c) 300 per day to the extent of
maximum Rs. 25,000
d) 250 per day to the extent of
maximum Rs. 50,000
6. Application for obtaining
information with prescribed fees
may be submitted to ___________
under the provisions of the right
to information act, 2005.
a) The central Government
b) Public information officer
c) Certifying authorities
d) The state Government
7. Central information commission is
constituted by _____________
through a gazette notification.
a) The state Government
b) The central Government
c) President India
d) Any designated member of
the parliament
8. Any person aggrieved by an
order of controller of certifying
authorities or of the
adjudications can appeal to the
cyber regulations appellate
tribunal within ______________
days.
a) 50
b) 90
c) 60
d) 45
9. Right to information is derived
from the constitutional right, i.e.-
a) Right of freedom of speech
and expression
b) Right to liberty
c) Right of trade and commerce
d) Right to equality
MCQ
10. Public information officer for 14. A public information officer has
failing to provide information will to render information within
be liable for fine of Rs. 250 per __________ days under the right
day upto maximum of – to information act, 2005.
a) 25,000 a) 30 days
b) 50,000 b) 40 days
c) 75,000 c) 60 days
d) 1,00,000 d) 90 days

11. Second appeal to the central 15. The information commissions at

information commission or the _________________ levels have the
state information commission, as power to impose penalty.
the case be, may be filed within a) State level
– b) Centre level
a) 30 days c) Both a and b above
b) 90 days d) Both a or b above
c) 60 days
d) 120 days 16. Right to information Act was
enacted in year:
12. The right to information act, 2005 a) 2002
confers on all citizens a right to b) 2005
receive information. This is now a c) 2007
- d) 2010
a) Legal right
b) Constitutional right 17. Right to information shall apply
c) Fundamental right to
d) Human right a) Public Authorities
b) Private Authorities
13. Certain categories of information c) Non Govt. Organization
have been exempted from d) None of these
disclosure under the right to
information act, 2005- 18. Application is to submitted
a) Where the disclosure a) In writing
prejudicially affects the b) Electronically
sovereignty and integrity of c) In writing or electronically
India. d) Both (a) or (b)
b) Where the disclosure would
cause a breach of privilege 19. Time taken for calculation and
of the parliament or the state intimation of fees is ______ from
legislature the time frame
c) Information received in a) Excluded
confidence From foreign b) Included
government c) Excluded or included
d) All of the above depends on case to case
d) Excluded or included
depends on discretion of PIO

132 | P a g e MCQ
 d) 20
20. Which of the information is true:
a) All information requested is 23. Burden of proving that denial of
compulsorily required to be information was justified lies with
given by PIO the:
b) Information to be provided or a) PIO
not depends on sole b) Applicant
discretion of PIO c) Both PIO and applicant
c) Certain categories of d) None of these
information have been
exempted from disclosure 24. The central information
under the right to information commission consists of the:
act a) Chief information
d) All of the above commissioner
b) Central information
21. The ____ at the centre and at the commissioners
state levels will have the power c) Both (a) & (b)
to impose this penalty under d) Either (a) & (b)
Right to information Act
a) Information Commission (IC) 25. Third party appeal against PIO’s
b) High court decision must be filed within
c) Civil court ______ days before first Appellate
d) Officer senior in rank to the Authority; &, within _____ days of
PIO in the concerned public the decision on the first appeal
authority before the appropriate
information commission which is
22. Time limit for disposing first the second appellate authority
appeal can be extended by a) 10 & 30 days
_____ days if necessary: b) 20 & 60 days
a) 5 c) 30 & 90 days
b) 10 d) 40 & 120 days
c) 15

133 | P a g e MCQ
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