Ielts Extensive Course: This Course Contains 2 Books

IELTS EXTENSIVE
COURSE
INTRODUCTION
This course is built for your Extensive Studying skills, which is crucial in IELTS training. In
this course, you will find a number of different exercises divided by the real time period that would
effectively support your IELTS studying.
This course contains 2 books:
The Extensive Course Book.
The Quarterly Updated Book.
The Extensive Course Book will include 10 different Speaking Units spread across the 12-week
time period, each topic will come with a Weekly Assignment that the teacher would require you to do.
Alongside those, the Writing tasks will be based on the given topics and you will be expected to do
at least 1 full Writing Task. Also, you will be doing a full IELTS Reading and Listening Test on class
to help with your time management and test execution skills.
The Quarterly Updated Book is a perk for students who enter this class, the book will include
updated real IELTS Tests from the following Quarter of the year. This book will be updated once in
3 months to make sure you stay updated to the latest IELTS Tests and Topics.
Finally, this course is mostly about to up your band score, so constant self-practice and
improvement week by week are important.
“It will always be impossible until you do it.”
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TABLE OF CONTENTS
UNIT 1: FINDING THE RIGHT MATERIALS UNIT 7: TRAFFIC

Lesson 1: Speaking + Writing Lesson 13: Speaking + Writing
Lesson 2: Listening + Reading Lesson 14: Listening + Reading
UNIT 2: NEWSPAPERS UNIT 8: SOCIAL SKILLS

UNIT 3: CLOTHING/ PERSONAL STYLES UNIT 9: COMFORT ZONE

UNIT 4: CELEBRITIES UNIT 10: HISTORY

UNIT 5: SOCIAL NETWORK UNIT 11: MENTAL HEALTH

UNIT 6: LIVING AND HOUSING

Lesson 11: Speaking + Writing
FINAL TEST
Lesson 1 2: Listening + Reading
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UNIT 1: FINDING THE RIGHT MATERIALS
LESSON 1: SPEAKING & WRITING

1.1. SPEAKING
One of the most important tasks in improving IELT Speaking is to find the right resources for
practicing, but with this way of thinking, most students tend to overlook some of the non-academic
resources that would also be helpful to improve the Speaking skills. In this lesson, we will provide
you with some of the sources to help you with the self- studying skills.
1.1.1. Academic documents
The academic documents are fundamental for improving your IELTS Speaking. The following
board will provide you 5 websites packed with updated Speaking Topics and Sample Answers that
you can follow.
The Source Board
IELTS Buddy https://www.ieltsbuddy.com/IELTS-speaking-questions-with-answers.html
IELTS- Exam net https://www.ielts-exam.net/ielts_speaking_samples/390/
IELTS- Mentor https://www.ielts-mentor.com/speaking-sample
IELTS Online Tests https://ieltsonlinetests.com/ielts-exam-library#academic
So English Me
https://soenglish.me/ielts-speaking-topics/
So, what should we do after accessing these documents?
1.1.2. Execution
It’s likely that you will find it easy to access to these websites and find an unlimited amount of
these documents, but regarding of executions, only a few of you who can fully comprehend and
maximize the usages of these documents.
So, here are the steps that you can follow to depict the academic documents.
Use academic
Identify topics Detect keywords
keywords
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UNIT I: FINNDINNG THE RIIGHHT MATTERRIAALS
Step 1: Identify Topics and Samples

Firstly, you can go onto one of the given websites and select some of the Part 1 and 3 questions
and some Part 2 topics. You should try to answer them in your own words before checking out the
sample answers.
You should prioritize the topics that are close to you before moving on to the topics that being
considered difficult.
For example:
Economic Hometown
Traffic TOPICS Personal skills
Environment
issues Future career
As you can see, you should prioritize the topics on the right side because they can be utilized
for all 3 parts of IELTS Speaking, while the topics on the left can only be used for part 2 Cue
Card and part 3 questions.
Secondly, select a topic, form series of questions and practice your answering skills.
Thirdly, examine the Samples
Here, we choose the “Future Career” topic and come up with some questions with sample
answers.
Part 1: What is your job?
I’m currently working as an IELTS Teacher for a large Foreign Language centre called Pasal.
I’ve been in the job for about five years now. I’m usually assigned to classes with specific
tasks in order to improve students with their IELTS studying as well as their academic skills.
Part 2
Describe a colleague of yours that you admire

You should say:
• Who that is
• Why you admire him/ her
• What impacts him/ her left you with
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Sample answer
Since I first got into the university, which was 5 years ago, I started got the sense of working
and making money to get out from under my parents’ control. So I jumped from jobs to jobs just
to figure out my passion, future path and a worthy paycheck. Every environment I went through
I considered as an opportunity to meet people from different aspects of life, but there is one that
captured my admiration for life.
Her name is Chau, I met her at an English centre called Pasal where I was hired to be an
IELTS Instructor and Teaching Assistant. She was assigned to be my guide to get acquainted
with the job, she was 1-year younger than me but she didn’t even consider that as a disadvantage
of her, not even one bit. Her insights and deep understanding of the IELTS teaching guidance
really caught my attention. She helped me develop solid principles of not only IELTS teaching
but also the methods of teaching, which I’m still applying until this very moment.
Alongside her abilities of teaching, I also admired her personality and the ways she treats
everybody around her. Her kindness and friendliness were the qualities that separate her from
people of her age. It’s quite difficult to find a person who can be so mature at such an early stage
of life. Her ability to balance between her work and personal life was exceptional and that is the
exact thing that I am personally am still learning on the daily basis. To me, she was and still such
a huge inspiration and her impacts on my ways of working are still in the scene to me.
Part 3: What changes in employment have there been in recent years in your country?
As far as I know, more and more people, especially the young generations are involved in
setting up their own businesses. Thus, the “start-up” community is now more alive than
ever, especially tech start-ups. That field can be considered as the land of the heathens since
it is filled with possibilities and opportunities.
Step 2: Academic Keywords Detecting
Now comes the important part: Detecting Academic Keywords and Phrases that can be utilized
in others parts. In the samples, you can find many keywords that would be suitable not only for the
given topics but also for others topics
For example, in the given sample of Part 2 above, you can find so many Academic Vocabulary
and phrases that are suitable for your Speaking.
Here, I have Bolded and Underlined the phrases for you.
Sample answer
Since I first got into the university, which was 5 years ago, I started got the sense of working
and making money to get out from under my parents’ control. So I jumped from jobs to
jobs just to figure out my passion, future path and a worthy paycheck. Every environment I
went through I considered as an opportunity to meet people from different aspects of life, but
there is one that captured my admiration for life.
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Her name is Chau, I met her at an English centre called Pasal where I was hired to be an
IELTS Instructor and Teaching Assistant. She was assigned to be my guide to get acquainted
with the job, she was 1-year younger than me but she didn’t even consider that as a disadvantage
of her, not even one bit. Her insights and deep understanding of the IELTS teaching guidance
really caught my attention. She helped me develop solid principles of not only IELTS teaching
but also the methods of teaching, which I’m still applying until this very moment.
Alongside her abilities of teaching, I also admired her personality and the ways she treats
everybody around her. Her kindness and friendliness were the qualities that separate her from
people of her age. It’s quite difficult to find a person who can be so mature at such an early stage
of life. Her ability to balance between her work and personal life was exceptional and that is the
exact thing that I am personally still learning on the daily basis. To me, she was and still such a
huge inspiration and her impacts on my ways of working are still in the scene to me.
As the example above, in a sample answer, there are a lot of phrases for you to capture, but
there’s no good if they’re not used properly, which will bring us to step 3:
Step 3: Academic Keywords Usage
Like we said, all of the vocabulary phrases are no good without the proper usage, so you need to
figure out the meanings of those vocabulary and phrases and how they are used in a sentence.
Ideally, you should make yourself a board similar to the following one to maximize their usages.
Keywords/ Phrases Meaning Use in a sentence

S + get out from under + noun
to escape from
Get out from under Example: I can’t wait to get out from
something...
under this lesson, it’s so boring
Now fill the board with the vocabulary and phrases you find from the given sample.
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1.1.2. Non-academic documents
1.1.2.1. What are non-academic documents?

Simply put, these documents are not IELTS Speaking related conversations.
They can be almost anything from real life, a casual conversation between a group of people, a line
from a movie, a documentary or even a lecture given by a teacher...
1.1.2.2. How will they help us with our Speaking?

Before answering this question, you must know that there are 3 types of Speaking styles.
Casual Conversation
Speaking
Reported Speaking
Speech
Each type of speaking style has certain ways and speaking vibes, so it is supportive for students to
learn the differences and improve their confidence as well as their coherency.
Each type of speaking style comes with a different set of documents.
1.1.2.3. What are the documents?

Here is my recommendation for each set of documents.
CASUAL CONVERSATION SPEAKING
Materials Shows to watch Purposes
Celebrities The Ellen Show, Jimmy Kimmel, To understand ways of formal

Interview Conan O’Brien... speaking
Jeff Dunham (Ventriloquist), Self To understand casual speaking,

On stage Comedy
-Improv Comedy... Slang and wordplay.
Masterchef, Kitchen Nightmares, Quick-paced communication
Reality shows
The Amazing Race...
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REPORTED SPEAKING
To learn the differences between

BBC News, Worldwide News, Speaking language and Writing
News CC News... Language.
Reports CEO Reports, Access To learn ways of connection

Reports... between different parts of Speaking
Reviews Movie Reviews, Food Review,

Scripted Speaking language
BuzzFeed...
SPEECH
Ted X, Ted Presentation, Ted Presentation skills and vocabulary

Ted Talks
Share... choice
Political talk and critical vocabulary

Presidential election US election, Canadian election...
choice
Horror feeds, Word leads, Can ask

Story telling Emotion and Intonation Speaking
Meh...
1.2. WRITING
1.2.1. Problems when searching for IELTS Writing documents
The most common problem for students to search for IELTS Writing online is the variety of
documents they can find on the Internet. Nowadays, it’s easy to access to multiple platforms which
contain Writing Task 2 Samples on many topics. But unlike Speaking, there are too many different
ways to approach a Writing Test and I would not recommend copying other people’s style of Writing.
So I will refer you to 3 websites that contain Writing samples that all of which are consistently written
in one style. Some of which even used the “friends” technique that you studied in the Intensive
Course.
Sources Link
IELTS Simon https://www.ielts-simon.com/
IELTS Exam Net https://www.ielts-exam.net/IELTS-Writing-Samples/ielts-writing.htm
IELTS Liz https://ieltsliz.com/ielts-sample-essay/
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1.2.2. Execution
Like Speaking, it’s easy to find access to sample answers from these websites, so the most
important step is the execution, to figure out how you would apply the vocabulary and phrases from
the sample answers to your own Writing.
The following is what we call “Read and Track” technique.
Put samples into the

Collect the samples Analyze word use
"track table"
Step 1: Collect the samples
Firstly, go to the recommended websites and find your topics with sample answers.
For each sample, you should be able to identify paragraph structure and the purposes of each
sentence
Step 2: The “Track Table”
Sample topic
Tourism has increased so much over the last 50 years that it is having a mainly negative impact
on local inhabitants and the environment. However, others claim that it is good for the economy.
Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of tourism and give your own opinion.
Sample answer
Whether or not tourist destinations benefit from international tourism is a debatable issue.
To sonic governments, the local economic benefits are worth the overcrowding and hiked prices
of the tourist season. However, there are environmental and social costs and other risks of
relying on tourism as a major source of annual income.
Sleepy coastal communities can be changed beyond recognition by mass-market tourism.
Package holiday companies operate huge numbers of low-cost flights to high-rise hotels in
developing countries every summer. This means, of course, that easy money can be had servicing
this seasonal influx and the government sees increased tax revenue and local employment.
However, when the tourist season comes to an end, employment ceases and the area becomes
a ghost town. The social cohesion of a small community can also be blighted by the seasonal
migration of people to the cities to look for work out of season, leaving only the elderly behind.
This is perhaps made worse by second home owners, who drive up house prices beyond the
means of local inhabitants.
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On the other hand, the local community do gain language skills and other fringe benefits
of cultural exchange. Such a large volume of travellers every year can cause environmental
problems to fragile habitats and historical sites. Age-old stone remains can be worn away and
traditional buildings demolished in favour of bland international hotels. Local infrastructure can
also fail to cope with large numbers of visitors, leading to pollution and litter. However, over time
this can change as the economy improves and tourism becomes more of an established industry.
Local government investment in infrastructure should ensure repeat trade and further benefits for
the economy.
Overall, tourism can be a good source of income for countries blessed with natural beauty or
sites of historical interest. However, governments must ensure that the wishes of local businesses
are not put before the needs of the local community and that any revenue generated by tourism is
reinvested in the area to protect the local environment.
(334 words)
The “Track” Table
Paragraph
Writing samples Sentence Purposes
structure
Whether or not tourist destinations benefit from

international tourism is a debatable issue. To sonic
governments, the local economic benefits are worth Paraphrase
the overcrowding and hiked prices of the tourist
Introduction
season.
However, there are environmental and social costs
and other risks of relying on tourism as a major source
of annual income. Overview Statement
Sleepy coastal communities can be changed beyond

recognition by mass-market tourism. Package holiday Hook Sentence/
companies operate huge numbers of low-cost flights to Controlling Idea
high-rise hotels in developing countries every summer.
This means, of course, that easy money can be had Sub- point 1
servicing this seasonal influx and the government
sees increased tax revenue and local employment. Point 1
Main body 1 However, when the tourist season comes to an end,
employment ceases and the area becomes a ghost
town. The social cohesion of a small community can Example
also be blighted by the seasonal migration of people
to the cities to look for work out of season, leaving
only the elderly behind. This is perhaps made worse
by second home owners, who drive up house prices Example 2
beyond the means of local inhabitants.
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On the other hand, the local community do gain

language skills and other fringe benefits of cultural
Point 2
exchange. Such a large volume of travellers every year
can cause environmental problems to fragile habitats
and historical sites. Age-old stone remains can be worn Sub- point 2.1
away and traditional buildings demolished in favour
Main body 2 of bland international hotels. Local infrastructure Example for sub-
can also fail to cope with large numbers of visitors, point 2.1
leading to pollution and litter. However, over time this
can change as the economy improves and tourism Sub - point 2.2
becomes more of an established industry. Local
government investment in infrastructure should ensure
Personal opinion
repeat trade and further benefits for the economy.
Overall, tourism can be a good source of income

for countries blessed with natural beauty or sites of Summarize
historical interest .
Conclusion However, governments must ensure that the wishes Personal point of view
of local businesses are not put before the needs of
the local community and that any revenue generated
by tourism is reinvested in the area to protect the local
environment.
Like the table above, you should be able to identify the purposes of each sentence and how
they support each others. When you are able to comprehend with that style of Writing, you should be
comfortable creating your own structure.
Step 3: Analyze word usage
One common mistakes that students always make is that they try to memorize all the “big
words” that are considered academic advanced. But similar to the Speaking vocabulary, all of those
words would be no good without the usage, so make sure you fully understand the keywords and
phrases before trying to use them in your Writing.
So, it’s ideal for you to create a board similarly to the Speaking Keywords Board.
Keywords/ Phrases Meaning Use in a sentence
For each keywords/ phrases you find from the given sample answers and put in the board.
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LESSON 2: LISTENING & READING

2.1. READING
Similar to the IELTS Speaking, there are 2 sources of materials you can refer to, which are
the Academic Documents and the Non-Academic Documents. Since nowadays, most of the official
Reading Tests are all public Documents, therefore in today’s lesson we will solely focus on the
Non-Academic Documents.
But firstly, these are some reliable sources of Reading Tests that you can find online.
Sources Link
IELTS Simon https://www.ielts-simon.com/

IELTS Online Tests
https://ieltsonlinetests.com/ielts-exam-library
Exam Library
IELTS Up Reading
https://ielts-up.com/reading/ielts-reading-practice.html
Practice
2.1.1. Non-Academic Documents
Firstly, there are 2 definitions of Reading that you should know:
INTENSIVE READING EXTENSIVE READING
Intensive Reading is considered To simply put, Extensive Reading is

compulsory Reading, which means most reading out of interests and hobbies.
of which do not come from your interests This type of Reading can contribute
in Reading. effectively to the IELTS Reading skills
This type of reading can create a passive since Extensive Reading allows you to be
reading habit that would not fit for IELTS active while Reading. Instead of Read to
Reading since you will tend to skip some know, you Read to comprehend, which will
of the parts that you find not important or create a full understanding of the whole
irrelevant, this is opposite to the Scanning idea and make it easy for you to sum up.
skill in the IELTS Test. There are some types of Documents you
There are some types of Documents you may have read extensively
may have read intensively • Books/ Novels/ E-books
• Syllabus • Theories
• Text Book • Reviews
• Reference Book • Magazines/ Newspaper
• Assignment Paper These types of Documents will allow you
All of which share one thing in common, to improve Skimming and Scanning at the
they are all theoretical and require you to same time, so the Extensive Reading is
summarize in order to fully understand, highly recommended.
which is quite similar to Skimming, but
opposite to Scanning.
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2.1.2. Recommendation for Extensive Reading
For Extensive Reading, we would recommend you all to read Self-Improvement Books in
English. They not only help you with your Reading Skills but also to develop your ways of thinking.
These are some books that we would highly recommend for you to read, the ways of thinking
and expressions are deep, exclusive. The writing languages are sophisticated and bounded to one
or some moral principles.
Books Author Contents
Break Through the Blocks and Win Your Inner

The War of Art Steven Pressfield
Creative Battles
Elastics Leonard Mlodinow Flexible Thinking in a Constantly Changing World
To Kill a Mocking
Harper Lee To find Inner Peace and Positivity in a harsh reality
Bird
Ambition Cheryl Johnson Do big, dream bigger
Here is a piece from the book “The War of Art” for you to practice reading extensively:
THE UNLIVED LIFE
Most of us have two lives. The life we live, and the unlived life within us. Between the two stands
Resistance.
Have you ever brought home a treadmill and let it gather dust in the attic? Ever quit a diet, a
course of yoga, a meditation practice? Have you ever bailed out on a call to embark upon a spiritual
practice, dedicate yourself to a humanitarian calling, commit your life to the service of others? Have
you ever wanted to be a mother, a doctor, an advocate for the weak and helpless; to run for office,
crusade for the planet, campaign for world peace, or to preserve the environment? Late at night
have you experienced a vision of the person you might become, the work you could accomplish, the
realized being you were meant to be? Are you a writer who doesn’t write, a painter who doesn’t paint,
an entrepreneur who never starts a venture? Then you know what Resistance is.
One night I was layin’ down, I heard Papa talkin’ to Mama. I heard Papa say, to let that boy
boogie-woogie. ‘Cause it’s in him and it’s got to come out. —John Lee Hooker, “Boogie Chillen”
Resistance is the most toxic force on the planet. It is the root of more unhappiness than poverty,
disease, and erectile dysfunction. To yield to Resistance deforms our spirit. It stunts us and makes us
less than we are and were born to be. If you believe in God (and I do) you must declare Resistance
evil, for it prevents us from achieving the life God intended when He endowed each of us with our
own unique genius. Genius is a Latin word; the Romans used it to denote an inner spirit, holy and
inviolable, which watches over us, guiding us to our calling. A writer writes with his genius; an artist
paints with hers; everyone who creates operates from this sacramental centre. It is our soul’s seat,
the vessel that holds our being-in-potential, our star’s beacon and Polaris.
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Every sun casts a shadow, and genius’s shadow is Resistance. As powerful as is our soul’s call
to realization, so potent are the forces of Resistance arrayed against it. Resistance is faster than
a speeding bullet, more powerful than a locomotive, harder to kick than crack cocaine. We’re not
alone if we’ve been mowed down by Resistance; millions of good men and women have bitten the
dust before us. And here’s the biggest bitch: We don’t even know what hit us. I never did. From age
twenty-four to thirty-two, Resistance kicked my ass from East Coast to West and back again thirteen
times and I never even knew it existed. I looked everywhere for the enemy and failed to see it right
in front of my face.
Have you heard this story: Woman learns she has cancer, six months to live. Within days she
quits her job, resumes the dream of writing Tex-Mex songs she gave up to raise a family (or starts
studying classical Greek, or moves to the inner city and devotes herself to tending babies with
AIDS). Woman’s friends think she’s crazy; she herself has never been happier. There’s a postscript.
Woman’s cancer goes into remission.
Is that what it takes? Do we have to stare death in the face to make us stand up and confront
Resistance? Does Resistance have to cripple and disfigure our lives before we wake up to its
existence? How many of us have become drunks and drug addicts, developed tumors and neuroses,
succumbed to painkillers, gossip, and compulsive cell-phone use, simply because we don’t do that
thing that our hearts, our inner genius, is calling us to? Resistance defeats us. If tomorrow morning
by some stroke of magic every dazed and benighted soul woke up with the power to take the first
step toward pursuing his or her dreams, every shrink in the directory would be out of business.
Prisons would stand empty. The alcohol and tobacco industries would collapse, along with the junk
food, cosmetic surgery, and infotainment businesses, not to mention pharmaceutical companies,
hospitals, and the medical profession from top to bottom. Domestic abuse would become extinct, as
would addiction, obesity, migraine headaches, road rage, and dandruff.
Look in your own heart. Unless I’m crazy, right now a still, small voice is piping up, telling you as
it has ten thousand times before, the calling that is yours and yours alone. You know it. No one has
to tell you. And unless I’m crazy, you’re no closer to taking action on it than you were yesterday or
will be tomorrow. You think Resistance isn’t real? Resistance will bury you.
You know, Hitler wanted to be an artist. At eighteen he took his inheritance, seven hundred
kronen, and moved to Vienna to live and study. He applied to the Academy of Fine Arts and later to
the School of Architecture. Ever see one of his paintings? Neither have I. Resistance beat him. Call
it overstatement but I’ll say it anyway: it was easier for Hitler to start World War II than it was for him
to face a blank square of canvas.
Book discuss
Spend the next 20 minutes discuss with your partner and share in front of the class:
- What have you learnt from the piece that you read above?
- What book would you recommend to everybody?
- Are you an intensive or extensive reader?
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2.2. LISTENING
Unlike the other 3 skills, you can improve your Listening skills without any specific types of
documents since Listening basically appears all around you as the motivation speaker Julian
Treasures said: “Listening is everything around us”. You can practice your listening from daily
activities such as listening to music, watching movies or even playing games. However, movies and
TV series are the most powerful tools for you to improve your listening.
So here are 4 movies and TV series that are highly recommended for your Listening skills.
MOVIES SHORT DESCRIPTION
THE BIG BANG THEORY

Through this sitcom you will:
- Listen to dialogues delivered in different accents
- Learn a lot of quotes and slangs of science,
technology and daily life sarcasm
- Value the sustainability of friendship
- Have some of the best laugh you will ever going
to have
MODERN LOVE
Through this TV series you will:
- Listen to dialogues delivered in different voice
tones and vibes
- Value the people around you
- Learn the differences between British and
American English
FREE SOLO
Through this documentary you will:
- Learn the way words are delivered in Documentary
fashion
- Follow one of the most remarkable journey human
ever achieved
One more thing, alongside improving your Listening skills, you can also improve your Reading
skills at the same time if you turn on your English subtitles instead of Vietnamese subtitles.
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WEEK 1 ASSIGNMENT
Watch “10 ways to have a conversation – Ted Talk” by Celeste Headlee in English subtitle
and answer these 2 questions.
1. What are the 10 ways to improve the quality of a conversation?
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2. What are the struggles when a person try to make a conversation?
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UNIT 2: NEWSPAPERS

3.1. SPEAKING (FULL 3 PARTS)
Pair up and discuss the following questions:
PART 1
1. Do your often read newspapers?
2. Do you prefer to read local news or international news?
3. What do you prefer, newspapers or magazines?
4. Do you think newspapers will be very important to you in the future?
5. Do you read online newspapers?
6. What websites do you use to read online newspapers?
7. What kind of newspaper categories do you often visit?
PART 2
Note down some keywords and answer these following Cue Cards
Describe a newspaper or a Describe a piece of news that

magazine that you like. you read recently.
You should say: You should say:
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
Describe a piece of newspaper Describe a piece of news

or magazine that you bought you read online that you find
recently . disturbing.
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- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
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PART 3:
1. How do the newspapers market themselves for increasing sales?
2. What kind of marketing practices do these newspapers use?
3. Do you think people will use the internet to read news online instead of newspaper?
4. Do you think newspapers manipulate real stores for increasing their sales?
5. Do you think newspaper is creating negative impacts to the society?
6. How do newspaper affect on a person’s knowledge?
7. Do you think the field journalists should receive better pay check?
3.2. WRITING (MULTIPLE CHARTS)
3.2.1. Identification
A common question on the IELTS academic task 1 paper asks you to write about two different
graphs. Here is an example of the real multiple charts IELTS Test
The Pie Chart below shows the main reasons why agricultural land becomes less productive.
The table shows how these causes affected three regions of the world during the 1990s.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features and make comparisons
where relevant.
18 Pasall độc quyề

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UNIT II: NEWSPAPERS
For example, in the question above we are asked to summarise both a pie chart and a table. You
could also be given a line graph and a bar chart, a pie chart and a line graph or any other combination.
Students normally score lower on these types of questions, not because they are more difficult, but
because they are unfamiliar with this type of question.
This lesson will:
• discuss common problems
• suggest solutions to these problems
• give you a structure that can be used again and again for these questions
• analyse a sample answer
3.2.2. Common problems and solutions
No Problems Solutions
Writing too much
Because there is more than one data source,
students tend to write about everything and
this causes two problems. Pick 2 of the most obvious features from each
The first problem is you only have 20 minutes graph and limit yourself to writing about these
to answer task 1 questions and you therefore things and these things only. Don’t worry
don’t have time to write about everything. about leaving information out; the examiner
1
will be actually looking for your ability to leave
The second problem is that the question asks insignificant information out because this
you to ‘summarise‘ and ‘report the main shows that you are summarizing and only
features‘, therefore you have to pick only a reporting the main features.
few features and report them. In other words,
if you write about everything, you have not
answered the question properly.
- The first important points should be very

visual. You should be able to identify them
without looking at the data; just by looking
at the graphs. Also, look for extremes (highs
Can’t find the main features and lows), major trends, major changes
This is related to the first point. As stated (from beginning to end) and any obvious
above, you will be looking for just 2 features comparisons that can be made between
2 in each graph. It is often very difficult for either the two graphs or within the same
students to decide which features are the graph.
most significant. - Remember that the most obvious things are
the ‘main features’. The examiners are not
trying to trick you and want you to tell them
the very obvious things about the graph, so
don’t get too clever and try to find something
less obvious.
Not grouping information into paragraphs
It is very important that you organise your ideas
into paragraphs. Paragraphs should be logical Don’t write about both graphs in one
and have one main idea. Lots of students fail to paragraph.
3 do this because they get confused between the - Follow the structure we suggest below.
multiple pieces of data in the question and group - Group ideas for each paragraph separately
data from different graphs into one paragraph. i.e 1 paragraph for 1 graph.
This is very difficult to read and understand and
you will lose marks if you do this.
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UNIT II: NEWSPAPERS
Making comparisons
The question states ‘make comparisons
where relevant‘. If you don’t notice a very obvious comparison
The keyword here is ‘relevant’ and this is what between the two sources of data, then stop
tricks many students. Sometimes there will be looking for one and don’t write about one. It
4 a relevant comparison to make, but in some should also be noted that there may also be
questions there will not. Some students see comparisons to be made between the data
two different graphs and they assume that in the same graph.
there must be a comparison. They then spend
too long looking for a comparison and then
write about one even if they don’t find one.
3.2.3. Structure
This structure is called “9 sentences” structure and can be used for every multiple charts question:
A 9-sentence structure
Paragraph 1 Paragraph 2 Paragraph 3 Paragraph 4

Introduction Overview Main body 1 Main body 2
1 sentence:
1 sentence: 1 sentence: Details of first main
1 sentence Details of first main feature of graph
Overview feature of graph 1
Paraphrase number 2.
question
sentences. 1 sentence 1 sentences:
Overview of two of the 1 sentence: Details of second main
main features from Details of second main feature of graph
graph number 2. feature of graph 1 number 2.
1 sentence: 1 sentence:
Details of any Details of any
comparisons (if any) comparisons (if any).
How many
Paragraph Sentence purpose Sample
sentences?
The pie graph displays the
principal causes why farming land
Paragraph 1:
1 Paraphrase question sentences. deteriorates while the table illustrates
Introduction
how three regions of the planet were
affected by these factors in the 1990s.
Overview of two of the main It’s clear from the pie chart that there
1
features from graph number 1. are three primary causes of farmland
degradation, and over-grazing is
Paragraph 2: Overview of two of the main
2 the major one. The table shows that
Overview features from graph number 2.
Europe had a far higher percentage
Overview of any comparisons if of unproductive land compared to the
3
necessary (optional). other two regions in this time period.

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UNIT II: NEWSPAPERS
Details of first main feature The pie chart represents four causes,
1
of graph 1 with over-grazing representing the
biggest proportion at just over a third.
Paragraph 3:
Widespread clearing of trees and the
Main body 1 Details of second main
2 over-use of crops constitute nearly
feature of graph 1 one third and just over a quarter
respectively.
Details of first main feature The table shows that nearly one quarter
1
of graph number 2. of Europe’s entire surface had fallen
victim to degeneration. Only a small
Details of second main
Paragraph 4: 2 proportion of North America’s total land
feature of graph number 2.
Main body 2 became less productive at 5% and
Oceania was marginally higher with a
Details of any comparisons value of 13%.
3
(if any).
Attention: paragraph 2 should just be an overview of the main features and should not include
any details. The details come in paragraphs 3 and 4.
Full sample Answer
The Pie Chart below shows the main reasons why agricultural land becomes less productive.
The table shows how these causes affected three regions of the world during the 1990s.
where relevant.
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UNIT II: NEWSPAPERS
The pie graph displays the principal causes why farming land deteriorates while the table
illustrates how three regions of the planet were affected by these factors in the 1990s.
It’s clear from the pie chart that there are three primary causes of farmland degradation,
and over-grazing is the major one. The table shows that Europe had a far higher percentage of
unproductive land compared to the other two regions in this time period.
The pie chart represents four causes, with over-grazing representing the biggest proportion
at just over a third. Widespread clearing of trees and the over-use of crops constitute nearly one
third and just over a quarter respectively.
The table shows that nearly one quarter of Europe’s entire surface had fallen victim to
degeneration. Only a small proportion of North America’s total land became less productive at
5% and Oceania was marginally higher with a value of 13%.
(151 words)

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UNIT II: NEWSPAPERS
3.3. PRACTICE (FULL TASK WRITING)
Exercise 1: In-class exercise
The bar graph below shows the amount of people take part in artistic classes. The pie chart
shows the age group that attend those classes.
where relevant
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UNIT II: NEWSPAPERS
The graphs show figures relating to hours worked and stress levels amongst professionals
in eight groups.
Describe the information shown to a university or college lecturer.
Write at least 150 words
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UNIT II: NEWSPAPERS
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UNIT II: NEWSPAPERS
Exercise 3: Homework
The pie chart shows the percentage of persons arrested in the five years ending 1994 and the
bar chart shows the most recent reasons for arrest.
where relevant.
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UNIT II: NEWSPAPERS
Exercise 4: Homework
The pie chart below shows the frequency of U.S. Adults’ online purchasing habits in 2015,
while the bar chart shows a further classification denoting online purchasing preferences.
Summarise the data by selecting and reporting the main features and make comparisons
where relevant.
Write at least 150 words.
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UNIT II: NEWSPAPERS
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UNIT II: NEWSPAPERS
WEEK 2 ASSIGNMENT
Since this week is about Writing task 1, your weekly assignment will be a Writing task 2 topic related
to “Newspaper”
Some people think that newspapers are the best way to learn news. However, others believe
that they can learn news better through other media.
Discuss both views and give your opinion.
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UNIT II: NEWSPAPERS

4.1. LISTENING (FULL TEST)
Part 1: Questions 1-10
Questions 1-5
Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Southern Rental Car – Booking

Name: William (Q1) _______________
Address: 10 (Q2) _______________ Nelson
Contact number: 07 (Q3) _______________
Payment by credit card type: (Q4) _______________ card.
Card No. 4550 1392 8309 3221
Card expiry date: July 20XX
Rental period: (Q5) _______________ days.
Questions 6-10
Answer the following questions using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER
How much is a car per day?
Q6. _______________
What does the price include?
Q7. _______________
Who will he be visiting?
Q8. _______________
What kind of car does the agent recommend?
Q9. _______________
What does he need to collect the car?
Q10. ______________
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UNIT II: NEWSPAPERS
Questions 11-15: Complete the tables below. If there is no information given, write X.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER
Overland
Distance / km (Q11) _______________
Highlight 3 volcanoes
Time / hours 11
Transalpine
Distance / km 223
Highlight 16 (Q12) _______________
Time / hours (Q13) _______________
Transcoastal
Distance / km (Q14) _______________
Highlight (Q15) _______________
Time / hours 5
Questions 16-20: Complete the summary below using no more than two words or a number.
Taking three days to complete, the (Q16) _______________ is one of the world’s longest train
journeys. The Ghan is shorter, passing through towns built by the (Q17) _______________. There is
also a sculpture designed to mark the laying of the (Q18) _______________ concrete sleeper. The
Overland was the first train to travel between the capital cities in two (Q19) _______________ and
it is also the oldest journey of its kind on (Q20) _______________
Questions 21-25: Circle the correct letter A-C.
Q21. Lyn is having difficulty completing her project because...

A. She doesn’t have enough information.
B. She can’t organise her presentation.
C. She doesn’t have enough time.

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Q22. Her presentation is going to focus on...
A. Solar power in America
B. Solar-powered water heaters
C. Alternative energy technology
Q23. Why does Lyn think we should be looking for some alternative sources of evergy?
A. Fossil fuels are expensive.
B. Fossil fuels have an impact on the environment.
C. Fossil fuels are limited.
Q24. Solar power is a good form of alternative energy because...
A. It can be harnessed with simple technology
B. It is infinite
C. It can be applied equally well in any country.
Q25. Which graph best indicates what Lyn is describing?
A B C
Questions 26-30
Label the following diagram using no more than two words and/or a number
Q26. _______________
Q27. _______________
Q28. _______________
Q29. _______________
Q30. _______________
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Questions 31-40
Complete the sentences below using NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER.
Lecture on (Q31) _______________
Examples: tourism and (Q32) _______________
Common misconception is that marketing points to (Q33) _______________ in what is being
provided.
Marketing is actually essential in maintaining (Q34) _______________
Selling a product is easier because it is (Q35) _______________ and customers do not have such
different 36. _______________
Aim: offer service beyond hopes of (Q37) _______________
Important to: (a) keep informed & (b) (Q38) _______________
One way to achieve this: (Q39) _______________
(Q40) _______________ must always be available for any queries or problems.
4.2. READING
READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage 1
below.
Secret of Thailand’s Success?
A. It is a question officials here in Asia are being posed more and more: Why are your economies so
vibrant? Answers include young and swelling populations, decreased debt, growing cities, emerging
middle-class consumer sectors, evolving markets and, of course, ( China’s rise. Add this to that list:
Women and their increasing role in Asia’s economies. The idea is that the more opportunities women
have, the more vibrant economies are and, consequently, the less need there is to amass a huge
public debt to boost growth. It is an idea bolstered by a new survey by MasterCard International Inc.,
which compares the socio-economic level of women with men in Asia-Pacific nations. The gauge
uses four key indicators: participation in the labour force, college education, managerial positions,
and above-median income.
B. Which Asian nation is doing host when it comes to women’s advancement? Thailand. It scored
92.3 of a possible 100, and according to MasterCard’s index, 100 equals gender equality. The survey
was based on interviews with 300 to 350 women in thirteen nations and national statistics. Malaysia
came in second with a score of 86.2, while China came in third with 68.4. The average score in Asia
was 67.7. At the bottom of the list is South Korea (45.5), followed by Indonesia (52.5), and Japan
(54.5). Perhaps it is a bizarre coincidence, yet MasterCard’s findings fit quite neatly with two

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important issues in Asia: economic leadership and debt. Thailand, Malaysia, and China are three
economies widely seen as the future of Asia. Thailand’s economic boom in recent years has prompted
many leaders in the region to look at its growth strategy. Malaysia, which has a female central bank
governor, is one of Asia’s rising economic powers. China, of course, is the world’s hottest economy,
and one that is shaking up trade patterns and business decisions everywhere.
C. Something all three economies have in common is an above-average level of female participation.
What the three worst ranked economies share are severe long-term economic challenges of high
levels of debt and a female workforce that is being neglected. Research in economic history is very
conclusive on the role of women in economic growth and development, says Yuwa Hedrick-Wong,
an economic adviser to MasterCard. The more extensive women’s participation at all areas of
economic activities, the higher the probability for stronger economic growth. That, Hedrick-Wong
says, means societies and economies that consistently fail to fully incorporate women’s ability and
talent in businesses, and the workplace will suffer the consequences. Take Korea, which has been
walking in place economically in recent years. Immediately following the 1997— 1998 Asian financial
crisis, Korea became a regional role model as growth boomed and unemployment fell. Yet a massive
increase in household debt left consumers overexposed and growth slowed.
D. Maybe it is a just coincidence that Korea also ranks low on measures of gender equality published
by the United Nations. As of 2003, for example, it ranked below Honduras, Paraguay, Mauritius,
and Ukraine in terms of women’s economic and political empowerment. Utilising more of its female
workforce would deepen Korea’s labour pool and increase potential growth rates in the economy.
The same goes for Japan. The reluctance of Asia’s biggest economy to increase female participation
and let more women into the executive suite exacerbates its biggest long-term challenge: a declining
birth rate. In 2003, the number of children per Japanese woman fell to a record low of 1.29 versus
about. 2 in the early 1970s. Preliminary government statistics suggest the rate declined further in
2004. The trend is nothing short of a crisis for a highly indebted nation of 126 million that has yet
to figure out how to fund the national pension system down the road. Yet Japan has been slow to
realise that for many women, the decision to delay childbirth is a form of rebellion against societal
expectations to have children and become housewives.
E. It may be 2005, yet having children is a career-ending decision for millions of bright, ambitions,
and well-educated Japanese, Until corrected, Japan’s birth rate will drop and economic growth will
lag, UN Secretary General Kofi Annan was absolutely right earlier this month when he said no other
policy is as likely to raise economic productivity than the empowerment of women. Here, in Thailand,
the government is getting some decent marks in this regard, and the economy’s 6 per cent-plus
growth rate may be a direct result. Thailand still has a long way to go. Yet the Bank of Thailand’s
deputy governor, Tarisa Watanagase, is a woman, as are seven of nine assistant governors. Then
there’s Jada Wattanasiritham, who runs Siam Commercial Bank Plc, Thailand’s fourth-biggest lender.
How many female chief executives can you name in Japan or Korea? Looked at broadly in Asia,
MasterCard’s survey is on to something. It is that giving women more opportunities to contribute to
an economy is not just about fairness, but dollars and sense, too.
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Questions 1-4
The text has 5 paragraphs (A-E). Which paragraph contains each of the following pieces of
information?
Q1. The fact that a woman runs one of Thailand’s biggest banks. _______________
Q2. The number of countries included in the survey. _______________
Q3. The fact that Japan’s birth rate is falling quickly. _______________
Q4. The criteria used to get a score for each country. _______________
Questions 5-8
Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each gap.
Higher consumption in the (Q5) _______________ sector of the market is one reason that Asia’s
economies are doing well.
The scores were decided through a combination of interviewers and (Q6) _______________
Higher (Q7) _______________ has created an economic problem for Korea.
Japanese politicians have not yet decided how to get money for the (Q8) _______________
Questions 9-13: Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information.

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information.
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this.
Q9. __________ Other countries are looking at the example of Thailand to see if its policies can help
their economies.
Q10. __________ Higher female participation in an economy always leads to greater economic
growth.
Q11. __________ Female participation in the economy is lower in Japan than in most other developed
economies.
Q12. __________ Most of the Bank of Thailand’s assistant governors are female.
Q13. __________ The writer considers ‘fairness’ to be a bad reason for giving women top jobs.

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UNIT II: NEWSPAPERS
READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14 - 26, which are based on Reading Passage 2
below.
Patients Are a Virtue
A. Despite conference jeers, job cuts, and a financial crisis, health secretary Patricia Hewitt may find
a reason to smile this week, as the NHS (British National Health Service) was named one of the top
places to work by students. Among engineering, science, and IT students, the health service was
ranked second in this year’s Univer-sum UK graduate survey of ideal employers, a leap of 54 places
from last year. The annual survey, conducted in the UK since 1997, canvassed the opinions of
more than 7,700 final and penultimate-year students studying for degrees in business, engineering,
science, IT, and the humanities, at 39 universities, between January and March this year.
B. Each student was presented with a list of 130 employers, nominated by students through a
separate process, from which they selected the five they considered to be ideal employers. The
Universum list is based on the frequency of an organisation being selected as an ideal employer,
following a weighting process. This year, government departments and public sector organisations
dominated the top spots, with the BBC ranked first among humanities, engineering, science, and
IT students, retaining its place from last year, and coming third for those studying business. Among
humanities students, the BBC was followed closely by the Foreign and Commonwealth Office and
the Civil Service fast stream. The Cabinet Office and the Ministry of Defence were not far behind,
ranked fifth and sixth respectively. As well as the NHS, engineering, science, and IT students
favoured the Environment Agency, which leapt 83 places, from 86 in 2005 to number three this year.
Meanwhile, business students voted accountancy giants PricewaterhouseCoopers (PwC) as their
favoured employer, followed by HSBC.
C. At a London awards ceremony sponsored by the Guardian, Foluke Ajayi, head of NHS careers
at NHS employers, said its success this year reflected the reality of the health service, which is the
third largest employer in the world and the largest in Europe. “We employ people in other clinical
areas, such as health care. We employ IT managers, engineers, architects,” she said, adding that
the health service is no longer seen as a “second choice” career. “People recognise that they can
give something back to the community, but still develop a worthwhile career.”
D. Sarah Churchman, director of student recruitment and diversity at PwC, said her company’s
success is down to a good campus presence, its commitment to invest in its employees and, with
offices around the world, the chance to travel, something which just under half of the students polled
said was an important factor when it came to looking for work. One of the big four accountancy firms,
PwC is not into gimmicks, and it does not offer freebies but, said Churchman, it does offer “a solid
foundation” for anyone wanting a career in business. “We sell our people skills, so we are interested
in building skills. We’re not selling something, we invest in our people,” she added.
E. Further down the rankings, but still with reason to celebrate, was John Lewis, which matched
bumper sales this year with a leap from 111th place in 2005 to 26th among this year’s humanities
students. Sky found itself in 12th place, up from 104th last year, and the Environment Agency also
proved popular among this student group, rising from 138th in 2005 to 7th this year. Among the
business fraternity, shell saw a reversal of fortunes, rising to 30th place after last year’s 76th position.
There were a few dramatic drops in the rankings. The Bank of England fell from 14th in 2005 to
27th this year among humanities students, although it retained its mid-table position among those
studying business. British Airways also saw a slight dip, as did McKinsey & Co, which dropped from
11th to 22ndamong business undergraduates.
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F. Perhaps more surprisingly, this year was the first appearance in the rankings of Teach First, a small
charity launched three years ago that aims to create the “leaders of the future” by encouraging top
graduates who would not normally consider a career in teaching to commit to work in “challenging”
secondary schools for at least two years. The organisation came straight in at number eight among
humanities students and was voted 22nd by those studying engineering, science, and IT. James
Darley, director of graduate recruitment at Teach First, said he was “bowled over” by the news. “We
were not expecting this. We’re a registered charity, only able to physically go to 15 universities.”
G. The scheme, based on one run in the US, has the backing of more than 80 businesses, including
Deloitte and HSBC. During their two years, candidates undertake leadership training and emerge
from the programme with a range of skills and experiences. “We hope in the long term they will be
our ambassadors, as we call them, in politics, industry, charities, who will have done it and continue
to support the educationally disadvantaged,” adds Darley. This year, 260 graduates are expected to
take up the Teach First challenge in schools in London and Manchester, More are expected over the
coming years, as the scheme expands to Birmingham and three other cities by 2008. Of the first set
of recruits to complete the programme, half have gone on to work for “some amazing companies”,
while the other half have chosen to stay on in their schools for a further year - 20% in leadership
roles.
H. While more than half of students were concerned about achieving a good work life balance, a
third said they wanted a job that would challenge them. Although male Students tended to focus
more on the practical aspects of work, such as “building a sound financial base”, women, particularly
those studying for humanities degrees, had a more idealistic outlook, saying making a contribution
to society was a key career goal. Almost half of all students said that paid overtime was a key part
of any company compensation package, However, business students said that the most important
compensation, apart from salary, was performance-related bonuses, while important considerations
for humanities students were retirement plans. Working overseas also scored highly among those
surveyed this year, with 45% of business students, and 44% of humanities students, listing it as
a priority. Ethical considerations and corporate social responsibilities were also mentioned, with
a large percentage of humanities and engineering, science and IT students saying it was a key
consideration when it came to choosing an employer.
Questions 14-17
The text has 8 paragraphs (A - H).

Which paragraph does each of the following headings best fit?
Q14. __________ Most popular employers for different students

Q15. __________ Students’ expectations
Q16. __________ Give and develop with the NHS
Q17. __________ Reason for the NHS to be happy

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Questions 18-22: According to the text, FIVE of the following statements are true. Circle the
corresponding letters.
A. In the survey, students could only rate employers on a given list.
B. The Environment Agency rose the most places in this year’s survey.
C. The NHS offers a variety of careers outside health care.
D. British Airways fell in popularity amongst business students.
E. James Darley was surprised by his organisation’s performance in the survey
F. Most Teach First teachers continue in a teaching career after two years.
G. Most students want to achieve a good work/life balance.
H. Most business students were concerned about working for an ethnical company.
Questions 23-24: According to the information given in the text, choose the correct answer or
answers from the choices given.
Q23. The survey covered students...
A. From all British universities.

B. Studying a variety of subjects.
C. Who were in their last year of studies only.
Q24. The BBC...
A. Was first choice in most categories?

B. Was unpopular with business students.
C. Employs more graduates than most other organisations and companies.
Sarah Churchman says PwC did well in the survey because it...
A. Often goes to universities to meet students.

B. Provides many scholarships for students
C. Offers many opportunities to travel
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UNIT II: NEWSPAPERS
READING PASSAGE 3
below.
Rise of the Robots

If you are into technology, you are living in wonderful times. Things are developing in leaps and
bounds, especially gadgets. Let us look at the technology that is set to break through.
CELESTRON SKYSCOUT
Backyard stargazing goes seriously hi-tech with the Celestron SkyScout, which was judged
to be the Best of Innovations at the New York Consumer Electronics Show press preview event in
November. It is not difficult to see why. The SkyScout is a hand-held viewing device that is capable of
finding and identifying more than 6,000 celestial objects visible to the naked eye, thus transforming
the night sky into your own personal planetarium. Using GPS technology and a substantial celestial
database, the camcorder-sized SkyScout enables stargazers to point the device at any visible object
in the sky, press a button, and then listen to a commentary. For the truly celestially challenged, if
you want to view a star or planet but do not have a clue which bit of the heavens to look in, do not
despair; the SkyScout’s “locate” feature will guide you to it using illuminated arrows in the viewfinder.
NOKIA N91
This amazing mobile jukebox is due out early in 2006. Nokia’s N91 looks set to be in a class
of its own as a multimedia mobile phone. It will play music, take photos, surf the web and download
videos, store contact details, and generally organise your life. The robust little phone, resplendent
in its stainless steel case, is the first Nokia to be equipped with a hard drive (4Gb), which means
that it can store up to 3,000 songs. The N91, which has a hi-fi quality headset and remote control,
supports a wide range of digital music formats, including MP3, Real, WAV, and WMA. It uses wireless
technology to allow users to find and buy music from the operator’s music store. You can also drag
and drop music from your PC to the N91 and manage and share playlists. If you can find the time,
you can get on the blower, too.
SEIKO SPECTRUM E-PAPER WATCH
The Seiko Spectrum is no ordinary wristwatch. At first glance, it is an attractive and futuristic
bracelet-style watch. Look closer, however, and you will notice that its display is unlike any you have
seen before. Rather than the usual LCD screen, the display is made of “e-paper” - from the electronic
paper pioneers E Ink Corp - and shows a constantly changing mosaic pattern along with the time.
Because e-paper is so flexible and thin, it allows the display to curve round the wrist along with the
watch band - something conventional liquid-crystal displays cannot do, as they have to be flat. Seiko
says the e-paper display not only produces far better contrast than an LCD screen, but requires no
power to retain an image, so the batteries last longer. Seiko is releasing only 500 of the watches next
month, priced at about £1,250 - so you’d better lose no time.
HIGH-DEFINITION TV
HDTV, already available in the United States, Japan, and Australia, will hit the UK in 2006. When
you watch a programme filmed in the HD format, you will see a much sharper, clearer and more vibrant
image. This is due partly to the way a programme is filmed, but also to the high-definition TV set itself,
which uses either 720 or 1,080 visible rows of pixels (depending on which format the individual HDTV
uses) to display images, compared to the 576 rows of pixels used in current sets.

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ELECTROLUX TRILOBITE 2.0 ROBOT VACUUM CLEANER
Next time you are expecting visitors, do not bother to vacuum first - wait until they arrive, and
then entertain them with this little gadget. The Electrolux Trilobite 2.0 is a robotic vacuum cleaner that
navigates its way around your floors using ultrasound, just like a bat. It pings out ultrasound vibrations
at surfaces to create a map of the room, which it remembers for future cleaning assignments. The
Trilobite has no problem avoiding collision with things placed on the floor. Special magnetic strips
are placed in doorways, near stairs and other openings. These act as a wall, keeping the Trilobite
in the room. You can also programme it to glide round when you’re at work or after you’ve gone to
bed. When Electrolux introduced the original Trilobite in 2001, it was voted among the 100 most
innovative designs (though whether the judges were dedicated couch potatoes, and thus biased, we
were not aide to discover). The name comes from the hard-shelled sea creature from the Paleozoic
era (between 250 million and 560 million years ago) that roamed the ocean floor feeding on particles
and small animals.
HONDA ASIMO ROBOT
Need an extra pair of hands around the office? Look no further; this mouth, the Honda Motor
Company showcased its second-generation humanoid robot, Asimo. The machine has come a long
way since its first incarnation five years ago. The 1.3 metre-tall droid is now capable of performing
a variety of office tasks, including reception duties, serving drinks and acting as an information
guide, as well as making deliveries. Using multiple sensors, Asimo has the ability to recognise the
surrounding environment and interact with people using integrated circuit tags. It can walk and run
at a fair pace, and push a cart. Honda plans to start using Asimo’s receptionist functions at its Wako
Building in Japan early in 2006, and it is hoped it will become available for leasing afterwards. It could
soon be pushing a cart at an office near you.
Questions 27-30
For each question, only ONE of the choices is correct.
Circle the corresponding letter.
Q27. The Celestron SkyScout can...

A. tell you information about the stars.
B. tell you where in the world you are.
C. find objects in the sky that are not normally visible.
Q28. The Seiko Spectrum e-paper watch...

A. cannot be bent.
B. can be used for surfing the Internet.
C. is being produced as a limited edition.
Q29. The Electrolux Trilobite 2.0 robot vacuum cleaner...

A. asks permission before moving from room to room.
B. uses lasers to help it avoid objects.
C. is programmable.
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Q30. The Honda Asimo robot
A. has two pairs of hands.
B. uses lasers to help it recognise its surroundings.
C. can run.
Questions 31-35: Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS
from the text for each gap.
The SkyScout uses GPS and (Q31)__________to help you find a star.
The Seiko Spectrum does not need batteries to power the (Q32) __________
HDTV uses more (Q33) __________than conventional TV.
The Trilobite 2.0 could be used to (Q34) __________guests.
Asimo first appeared (Q35) __________
Questions 36-40: Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading
Passage 3. In boxes 36 - 40 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
Q36. __________The Nokia N91 is strong.
Q37.__________ E-paper can be torn easily.
Q38.__________HDTV is filmed differently to conventional TV.
Q39.__________The Trilobite 2.0 looks just like the original design.
Q40.__________Asimo is available for export.

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UNIT 3: CLOTHING/ PERSONAL STYLES

5.1. SPEAKING
Pair up and discuss the following questions
PART 1
1. What type of clothes do you like to wear?
2. How important is fashion to you?
3. What kind of clothes do you dislike?
4. What kind of clothes do you wear to work?
5. What kind of clothes do you wear to a party?
6. Do you prefer formal clothing or fashionable clothing?
7. What kind of styles do you pursue when it comes to clothing?
PART 2
Describe a piece of clothing Describe a piece of clothing

you find comfortable to wear. you find elegant to wear.
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Describe a piece of clothing Describe your sense of fashion.

that represents your style. You should say:
You should say: - ………………….……………
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- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….……………
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PART 3:
1. How important are clothes and fashion to you?

2. How different are the clothes you wear now from those you wore 10 years ago?
3. What do you think the clothes we wear say about us?
4. Do you think the clothes we wear represent our personality?
5. Do people in your country judge a person by their clothing?
6. What style of clothing is considered formal in your country?
7. Do you think children should be wearing free-styled clothes to school?
8. How important is uniform in your country?
5.2. WRITING (MULTIPLE- CHART PRACTICE)
The charts below give information on UK spending habits for books bought over the internet.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.
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The charts below show reasons for travel and the main issues for the travelling public in the
US in 2009.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.
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Exercise 3: In-class Exercise
The charts below give information on percentage of imported seafood to the UK from 3 nations
and total value of seafood.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons
where relevant
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WEEK 3 ASSIGNMENT
Watch the movie “The Devil Wears Prada” and answer the following Writing task 2.
People say that the clothes you wear show your personal status and social position.
To what extent do you agree or disagree?
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6.1. LISTENING
PART 1: QUESTIONS 1-10
Questions 1-10: Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Example: The library re-opened last month. The library now has
a seating area with magazines
an expanded section for books on (Q1) __________
a new section on local (Q2) __________
a community room for meetings (also possible to (Q3) __________ there)
a new section of books for (Q4) __________
For younger children
The next Science Club meeting: experiments using things from your (Q5) __________
Reading Challenge: read six books during the holidays
For adults
this Friday: a local author talks about a novel based on a real (Q6) __________
IT support is available on Tuesdays - no (Q7) __________ is necessary
free check of blood (Q8) __________ and cholesterol levels (over 60s only)
Other information
the library shop sells wall-charts, cards and (Q9) __________
evenings and weekends: free (Q10) __________is available
PART 2 : QUESTIONS 11-20
Questions 11-12: Choose TWO letters, A-E.

Which TWO age groups are taking increasing numbers of holidays with BC Travel?
A. 16-30 years D. 55-64 years

B. 31-42 years E. Over 65 years
C. 43-54 years
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Questions 13-14: Choose TWO letters, A-E.

Which TWO are the main reasons given for the popularity of activity holidays?
A. Clients make new friends.
B. Clients learn a useful skill.
C. Clients learn about a difference culture.
D. Clients are excited by the rish involved.
E. Clients find them good value for money
Questions 15-17: Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Q15. How does BC Travel plan to expand the painting holidays?
A. by adding to the number of locations

B. by increasing the range of levels
C. by employing more teachers
Q16. What does the speaker say about the photography holidays?
A. Clients receive individual tuition.

B. The tutors are also trained guides.
C. Advice is given on selling photographs.
Questions 18-20: Complete the table below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Fitness Holidays
Location Main focus Other comments

personally designed programme
Ireland and Italy General fitness
also reduces (Q18) __________
Greece (Q19) __________ control includes exercise on the beach
wide variety of levels
Morocco Mountain biking one holiday that is specially designed for
(Q20) __________
Questions 21-26: Complete the flow-chart below.

Choose SIX answers and write the correct letter, A-H, next to Questions 21-26.
A - Patterns E - Employees
B - Names F - Solutions
C - Sources G - Headings
D - Questions H - Officials
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STAGES IN DOING A TOURISM CASE STUDY
RESEARCH
Locate and read relevant articles, noting key information and also (Q21) __________
Identify a problem or need
Select interviewees - these may be site (Q22) __________ , visitors or
city (Q23) __________
Prepare and carry out interviews. If possible, collect statistics.
Check whether (Q24) ___________ of interviewees can be used.
ANALYSIS
Select relevant information and try to identify (Q25) __________

Decide on the best form of visuals
WRITING THE CASE STUDY
Give some background before writing the main sections

Do NOT end with (Q26) __________
The Horton Castle site
Q27. Natalie and Dave agree one reason why so few people visit Horton Castle is that...
A. the publicity is poor.

B. it is difficult to get to.
C. there is little there of interest.
Q28. Natalie and Dave agree that the greatest problem with a visitor centre could be...
A. covering the investment costs.

B. finding a big enough space for it.
C. dealing with planning restrictions.
Q29. What does Dave say about conditions in the town of Horton?
A. There is a lot of unemployment.

B. There are few people of working age.
C. There are opportunities for skilled workers.
Q30. According to Natalie, one way to prevent damage to the castle site would be to...
A. insist visitors have a guide.

B. make visitors keep to the paths.
C. limit visitor numbers.
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Questions 31-40: Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
The effects of environmental change on birds
Mercury (Hg)
Highly toxic
Released into the atmosphere from coal
In water it may be consumed by fish
It has also recently been found to affect birds which feed on (Q31)__________
Research on effects of mercury or binds
Claire Varian-Ramos is investigating
the effects on birds’ (Q32)__________ or mental processes, e.g. memory

the effects on bird song (usually learned from a bird’s (Q33)__________ )
Findings
songs learned by birds exposed to mercury are less (Q34)__________

this may have a negative effect on birds’ (Q35)__________
Lab-based studies
allow more (Q36)__________ for the experimenter
Implications for humans
Migrating birds such as (Q37) __________ containing mercury may be eaten by humans
Mercury also causes problems in learning (Q38) __________
Mercury in a mother’s body from (Q39)__________ may affect the unborn child
New regulations for mercury emissions will affect everyone’s
energy (Q40)__________
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6.2. READING
READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1 -13, which are based on Reading Passage
1 below.
Spot the Difference
A. Taxonomic history has been made this week, at least according In the World Wildlife Fund (WWF).
a conservation group. Scientists have described a new species of clouded leopard from the tropical
forests of Indonesia with spots (or “clouds”, as they are poetically known; smaller than those of other
clouded leopards, with fur a little darker and with a double as opposed to a “partial double” stripe
down its back.
B. However, no previously unknown beast has suddenly leapt out from the forest. In-stead, some
scientists have proposed a change in the official taxonomic accounting system of clouded leopards.
Where there were four subspecies there will likely now be two species. A genetic analysis and a
closer inspection of museum specimens’ coals published in Current Biology has found no relevant
difference between three subspecies described 50 years ago from continental Asia and from the
Hainan and Taiwan islands. The 5.000-11,000 clouded leopards on Borneo, the 3,000 -7,000 on
Sumatra, and the remaining few on the nearby Batu islands can now, the authors say, claim a more
elevated distinction as a species.
C. What this actually means is fuzzy and whether it is scientifically important is questionable. In
any case, biologists do not agree what species and subspecies are. Creatures are given Latin first
and second names (corresponding to a genus and species) according to the convention of Carl
von Linné, who was born 300 years ago this May. But Linneaus, as he is more commonly known,
thought of species as perfectly discrete units created by God. Darwinism has them as mutable
things, generated gradually over time by natural selection. So, delineating when enough variation
has evolved to justify a new category is largely a matter of taste.
D. Take ants and butterflies. Ant experts have recently been waging a war against all types of
species subdivision. Lepidopterists, on the other hand, cling to the double barrel second names from
their discipline’s 19th-century tradition, and categorise many local subclasses within species found
over wide areas. Thus, it would be futile - if one were so inclined - to attempt to compare the diversity
of ant and butterfly populations.
E. The traditional way around the problem is to call a species all members of a group that share the
same gene pool. They can mate together and produce fertile offspring. Whether Indonesian clouded
leopards can make cubs with continental ones remains unknown but seems probable. Instead, the
claim this week is that genetics and slight differences in fur patterning are enough to justify rebranding
the clouded leopard as two significant types. Genetically, that makes sense if many DNA variations
correlate perfectly between members of the two groups. The authors did find some correlation, but
they looked for it in only three Indonesian animals. A larger sample would have been more difficult.
F. One thing is abundantly clear: conservationists who are trying to stop the destruction of the
leopards’ habitat in Borneo and Sumatra see the announcement of a new species of big cat as a
means to gain publicity and political capital. Upgrading subspecies to species is a strategy which
James Mallet, of University College London, likes to call species inflation. It is a common by-product
of genetic analysis, which can reveal differences between populations that the eye cannot. Creating
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ever more detailed genetic categories means creating smaller and increasingly restricted populations
of more species. The trouble is that risks devaluing the importance of the term “species”.
G. The problem of redefining species by genetics is the creation of taxonomic confusion, a potentially
serious difficulty for conservationists and others. The recent proposal to add the polar bear to the list
of animals protected under America’s Endangered Species Act is an example. That seems all well
and good. However, study the genetics and it transpires that polar bears are closer to some brown
bears, than some brown hears are to each other. Go by the genes and it seems that the polar bear
would not count as a species in its own right (and thus might not enjoy the protection afforded to
species) but should be labelled a subspecies of the brown bear.
Questions 1-4: The text has 7 paragraphs (A - G).
Which paragraph contains each of the following pieces of information?
Q1.__________ How it is generally accepted that different species are named
Q2.__________ The reason that conservationists are happy with the apparent discovery of a new
species of leopard
Q3. __________ How genes could cause a potential problem for conservationists
Q4. __________ Some scientists want to change the way clouded leopards are classified into
species and subspecies.
Questions 5-8: Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the
text for each gap.
It is difficult to decide exactly when there is enough (Q5) __________ to say an animal is a new
species.
It is (Q6) __________to compare the number of species of ant and butterfly.
Generally, animals of the same species can make (Q7) __________ together.
Some scientists claim that genetics has led to (Q8)__________ rather than the actual discovery
of new species.
Questions 9-13: Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
In boxes 9 -13 on your answer sheet, write
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Q9.__________ The possible new species of leopard appears different in two ways.
Q10._________ Darwinism created a problem with how species are defined.
Q11. _________ Lepidopterists study ants.
Q12._________ Scientists are going to study more clouded leopards in Indonesia.
Q13. _________ The writer believes that polar bears are not a species in their own right.
READING PASSAGE 2
below.
The Fertility Bust

A. Falling populations - the despair of state pension systems - are often regarded with calmness,
even a secret satisfaction, by ordinary people. Europeans no longer need large families to gather the
harvest or to look after parents. They have used their good fortune to have fewer children, thinking
this will make their lives better. Much of Europe is too crowded as it is. Is this all that is going on?
Germans have been agonising about recent European Union estimates suggesting that 30% of
German women are, and will remain, childless. The number is a guess: Germany does not collect
figures like this. Even if the share is 25%, as other surveys suggest, it is by far the highest in Europe.
B. Germany is something of an oddity in this. In most countries with low fertility, young women have
their first child late, and stop at one. In Germany, women with children often have two or three,
but many have none at all. Germany is also odd in experiencing low fertility for such a long time.
Europe is demographically polarised. Countries in the north and west saw fertility fall early, in the
1960s. Recently, they have seen it stabilise or rise back towards replacement level (i.e. 2.1 births per
woman). Countries in the south and east, on the other hand, saw fertility rates fall much faster, more
recently (often to below 1.3, a rate at which the population falls by half every 45 years). Germany
combines both. Its fertility rate fell below 2 in 1971, However, it has stayed low and is still only just
above 1.3. This challenges the notion that European fertility is likely to stabilise at tolerable levels. It
raises questions about whether the low birth rates of Italy and Poland, say, really are, as some have
argued, merely temporary.
C. The list of explanations for why German fertility has not rebounded is long. Michael Teitelbaum, a
demographer at the Sloan Foundation in New York ticks them off: poor childcare; unusually extended
higher education; inflexible labour laws; high youth unemployment; and non-economic or cultural
factors. One German writer, Gunter Grass, wrote a novel, “Headbirths”, in 1982, about Harm and
Dorte Peters, “a model couple” who disport themselves on the beaches of Asia rather than invest
time and trouble in bringing up a baby. “They keep a cat,” writes Mr. Grass, “and still have no child.”
The novel is subtitled “The Germans Are Dying Out”. With the exception of this cultural factor, none
of these features is peculiar to Germany. If social and economic explanations account for persistent
low fertility there, then they may well produce the same persistence elsewhere.
D. The reason for hoping otherwise is that the initial decline in southern and eastern Europe was
drastic, and may be reversible. In the Mediterranean, demographic decline was associated with
freeing young women from the constraints of traditional Catholicism, which encouraged large
families. In eastern Europe, it was associated with the collapse in living standards and the ending of
pro-birth policies. In both regions, as such temporary factors fade, fertility rates might, in principle, be
expected to rise. Indeed, they may already be stabilising in Italy and Spain. Germany tells you that
reversing these trends can be hard. There, and elsewhere, fertility rates did not merely fall; they went
below what people said they wanted. In 1979, Eurobarometer asked Europeans how many children
they would like. Almost everywhere, the answer was two: the traditional two-child ideal persisted
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even when people were not delivering it. This may have reflected old habits of mind. Or people may
really be having fewer children than they claim to want.
E. A recent paper suggests how this might come about. If women postpone their first child past their
mid-30s, it may be too late to have a second even if they want one (the average age of first births
in most of Europe is now 30). If everyone does the same, one child becomes the norm: a one-child
policy by example rather than coercion, as it were. If women wait to start a family until they are
established at work, they may end up postponing children longer than they might otherwise have
chosen. When birth rates began to fall in Europe, this was said to be a simple matter of choice.
That was true, but it is possible that fertility may overshoot below what people might naturally have
chosen. For many years, politicians have argued that southern Europe will catch up from its fertility
decline because women, having postponed their first child, will quickly have a second and third. The
overshoot theory suggests there may be only partial recuperation. Postponement could permanently
lower fertility, not just redistribute it across time.
F. There is a twist. If people have fewer children than they claim to want, how they see the family may
change, too. Research by Tomas Sobotka of the Vienna Institute of Demography suggests that, after
decades of low fertility, a quarter of young German men and a fifth of young women say they have
no intention of having children and think that this is fine. When Eurobarometer repeated its poll about
ideal family size in 2001, support for the two-child model had fallen everywhere. Parts of Europe,
then, may be entering a new demographic trap. People restrict family size from choice. Social,
economic, and cultural factors then cause this natural fertility decline to overshoot. This changes
expectations, to which people respond by having even fewer children. That does not necessarily
mean that birth rates will fall even more: there may yet be some natural floor, but it could mean that
recovery from very low fertility rates proves to be slow or even non-existent.
Questions 14-17
The text has 6 paragraphs (A - F).
Which paragraph does each of the following headings best fit?
Q14.__________ Even further falls?

Q15. __________ One-child policy
Q16.__________ Germany differs
Q17.__________ Possible reasons
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Questions 18-22: According to the text, FIVE of the following statements are true.
Circle the corresponding letters.
A. Germany has the highest percentage of childless women.
B. Italy and Poland have high birth rates.
C. Most of the reasons given by Michael Teitelbaum are not unique to Germany.
D. Governments in eastern Europe encouraged people to have children.
E. In 1979, most families had one or two children.
F. European women who have their child later usually have more soon after.
G. In 2001, people wanted fewer children than in 1979, according to Eurobarometer research.
H. There may be a natural level at which birth rates ship declining.
Q23. Reasons that ordinary Europeans do not think it is necessary to have as many children
include...
A. Less labour needed to farmland.
B. The feeling that Europe is too crowded.
C. A general dislike of children.
Q24. Michael Teitelbaum adds the following reasons:
A. Poor childcare facilities.
B. Longer working hours.
C. High unemployment amongst young adults.
Q25. Initial declines in southern and eastern Europe were because (of)...
A. The reduced of the Catholic church.
B. Lower standards of living.
C. Governments encouraged smaller families.
Q26. People may have fewer children than they want because...
A. Women are having children at a later age.
B. They are following the example of other people.
C. Politicians want them to.
READING PASSAGE 3
below.
Teens Try to Change the World, One Purchase at a Time
When classes adjourn here at the Fayerweather Street School, eighth-graders ignore the mall
down the street and go straight to the place they consider much cooler: the local natural-foods
grocer’s. There, they gather in groups of ten or more sometimes, smitten by a marketing atmosphere
that links attractiveness to eating well. When time comes to buy something even as small as a
chocolate treat, they feel good knowing a farmer somewhere probably received a good price. “Food
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is something you need to stay alive,” says eighth-grader Emma Lewis. “Paying farmers well is really
important because if we didn’t have any unprocessed food, we’d all be living on candy.”
Eating morally, as some describe it, is becoming a priority for teenagers as well as adults in
their early 20s. What began a decade ago as a concern on college campuses to shun clothing
made in overseas sweatshops has given birth to a parallel phenomenon in the food and beverage
industries. Here, youthful shoppers are leveraging their dollars in a bid to reduce pesticide usage,
limit deforestation, and make sure farmers are not left with a pittance on payday. Once again, college
campuses are setting the pace. Students at 30 colleges have helped persuade administrators to
make sure all cafeteria coffee comes with a “Fair Trade” label, which means bean pickers in Latin
America and Africa were paid higher than the going rates. Their peers on another 300 campuses are
pushing to follow suit, according to Students United for Fair Trade in Washington, D.C.
Coffee is just the beginning. Bon Appetit, an institutional food-service provider based in California,
relies on organic and locally grown produce. In each year since 2001, more than 25 colleges have
asked the company to bid on their food-service contracts. Though Bon Appetit intentionally limits its
growth, its collegiate client list has grown from 58 to 71 in that period. “It’s really just been in the last
five years that we’ve seen students become concerned with where their food was coming from,” says
Maisie Ganzler, Bon Appetit’s director of strategic initiatives. “Prior to that, students were excited to
be getting sugared cereal.”
To reach a younger set that often does not drink coffee, Fair Trade importer Equal Exchange
rolled our a line of cocoa in 2003 and chocolate bars in 2004. Profits in both sectors have justified
the project, says Equal Exchange co-president Hob Everts. What is more, dozens of schools have
contacted the firm to use its products in fundraisers and as classroom teaching, tools. “Kids often are
the ones who agitate in the family’” for recycling and other eco-friendly practices, Mr. Everts says.
“So, it’s a ripe audience.”
Concerns of today’s youthful food shoppers seem to reflect in some ways the idealism that
inspired prior generations to join boycotts in solidarity with farm workers. Today’s efforts are
distinct in that youthful consumers say they do not want to make sacrifices. They want high-quality,
competitively priced goods that do not require exploitation of workers or the environment. They will
gladly reward companies that deliver. One activist who shares this sentiment and hears it repeatedly
from her peers is Summer Rayne Oakes, a recent college graduate and fashion model who promotes
stylish Fair Trade clothing. “I’m not going to buy something that can’t stand on its own or looks bad
just because it’s socially responsible,” Ms. Oakes says. “My generation has come to terms with the
fact that we’re all consumers, and we all buy something. So, if I do have to buy food, what are the
consequences?”
Wanting to ameliorate the world’s big problems can be frustrating, especially for those who
feel ineffective because they are young. Marketers are figuring out that teenagers resent this
feeling of powerlessness and are pushing products that make young buyers feel as though they
are making a difference, says Michael Wood, vice president of Teenage Research Unlimited.
His example: Ethos Water from Starbucks, which contributes five cents from every bottle sold
to water-purification centres in developing countries. “This is a very easy way for young people
to contribute. All they have to do is buy bottled water,” Mr. Wood says. “Buying products or
supporting companies that give them ways to support global issues is one way for them to get
involved, and they really appreciate that.”
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Convenience is also driving consumer activism. Joe Curnow, national coordinator of United
Students for Fair Trade, says she first got involved about five years ago as a high schooler when
she spent time hanging out in cafes. Buying coffee with an eco-friendly label “was a very easy way
for me to express what I believed in”, she says. For young teens, consumption is their first foray
into activism. At the Fayerweather Street School, Emma Lewis teamed up with classmates Kayla
Kleinman and Therese LaRue to sell Fair Trade chocolate, cocoa, and other products at a school
fundraiser in November. When the tally reached $8,000, they realised they were striking a chord.
Some adults hasten to point out the limitations of ethical consumption as a tool for doing good
deeds and personal growth. Gary Lindsay, director of Children’s Ministries, encourages Fair Trade
purchases, but he also organises children to collect toys for foster children and save coins for a play-
ground-construction project in Tanzania. He says it helps them learn to enjoy helping others even
when they are not getting anything tangible in return. “When we’re benefiting, how much are we
really giving? Is it really sacri-lice?” Mr. Lindsay asks. Of Fair Trade products, he says: “Those things
are great when we’re given opportunities like that once in a while, but I think for us to expect that we
should get something out of everything we do is a very selfish attitude to have.”
Questions 27-30: For each question, only ONE of the choices is correct. Circle the correct answer
Q27. Trying to change the world through what people purchase began with...
A. chocolate
B. clothing
C. coffee
Q28. Bon Appetit had.……….. colleges using its services in 2006.
A. 25
B. 58
C. 71
Q29. Buying Ethos Water helps provide money for
A. poor people in Africa.

B. poor farmers.
C. clean water projects.
Q30. Joe Curnow first got involved with consumer activism through buying
A. coffee
B. cocoa
C. water
Questions 31-35: Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN ONE WORD from
the text for each gap.
Eighth-graders from Fayerweather Street School go to the natural-foods grocer’s rather than the
(Q31)__________
Bon Appetit limits its growth (Q32) __________
Previously, young generations were (Q33)__________ to make sacrifices.
Young people can feel frustrated and (Q34) __________because of their age.
Gary Lindsay (Q35) __________ people to buy products that make use of Fair Trade.
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Questions 36-40: Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3
In boxes 36 - 40, write:
Q36. __________ Fair Trade coffee is more expensive than usual coffee.
Q37. __________ Bon Appetit used to sell sugared cereal.
Q38.__________Hob Everts thinks that kids do not understand about protecting the environment.
Q39. __________ Summer Rayne Oakes will wear clothes that do not look so good as long as they
promote Fair Trade.
Q40. __________ Gary Lindsay thinks people should do more than just consume ethically.
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UNIT IV: CELEBRITIES

7.1. SPEAKING
PART 1
1. Who is your favourite celebrity in your country?

2. Do you follow the news about celebrities?
3. Do you want to become famous in the future?
4. Do you like any foreign celebrities?
5. Have you ever met a celebrity in person?
6. Which celebrity would you like to meet?
7. Is there any celebrity that you don’t like?
8. Do you read news about celebrities?
PART 2
Describe a celebrity that you Describe a celebrity that you

admired when you were a child. would like to meet someday.
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
Describe a celebrity from a movie Describe a celebrity that you want

that you like. to cooperate in the future.
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
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PART 3
1. Do you think we should protect famous people’s privacy?
2. What influences can famous people have on society?
3. Do you think it’s moral to sell your private life to the media?
4. What do you think of the paparazzi?
5. Why do celebrities earn a lot of money?
6. Do you think that you have to be beautiful to become a celebrity?
7. What quality people need to have to become a celebrity?
8. Why do so many people have a demand for gossip TV programs/magazines?
9. Do you think that all famous people are happy?
10. What are the benefits of being a celebrity?
7.2. WRITING (PROBLEMS SOLUTIONS ESSAYS)
IELTS problem solution essays are the most challenging essay type for many people. The way
they are worded can vary hugely which can make it difficult to understand how you should answer
the question.
Generally, you’ll be asked to write about both the problem, or cause, and the solution to a
specific issue. Sometimes, however, you will only be required to write about possible solutions.
The 3 essay types
Problem and solution
Cause and solution
Just the solution
Hence, it’s essential that you analyse the question carefully, which I’ll show you how to do in this
lesson. I’m also going to demonstrate step-by-step how to plan and write IELTS problem solution
essays. Here’s what we’ll be covering:
Identifying 6 Common
IELTS problem Essay structure How to plan
mistakes
solution essays
How to write
How to write an How to write a
main body
introduction conclusion
paragraphs
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Once you understand the process, practice on past questions. Take your time at first and gradually
speed up until you can plan and write an essay of at least 250 words in the 40 minutes allowed in
the exam.
7.2.1. Identify
Here are two typical IELTS problem solution essay questions. They consist of a statement followed
by the question or instruction.
1. One problem faced by almost every large city is traffic congestion.

What do you think the causes are? What solutions can you suggest?
2. Since the beginning of the 20th century, the number of endangered species has increased
significantly and we have witnessed more mass extinctions in this period than in any other period
of time.
State some reasons for this and provide possible solutions.
These are some examples of different ways in which questions can be phrased. The first half of
the questions relate to the problem or cause, the second half to the solution.
- What issues does this cause and how can they be addressed?
- What are some resulting social problems and how can we deal with them?
- What problems arise from this and how can they be tackled?
- Why is this? How might it be remedied?
- What are the reasons for this, and how can the situation be improved?
- Why is this happening, and what measures can be taken to tackle this problem?
And here are a few questions where you only have to write about the solution.
- How can this situation be improved?

- What solutions can you suggest to deal with this problem?
- How can this problem be solved?
- What measures could be taken to prevent this?
It’s important that you are able to recognise the common synonyms, words and phrases used in
problem solution questions. Here are the key words and their synonyms used in the questions above.
• Problem – issues, resulting, situation
• Cause – reasons, why
• Solution – deal with, addressed, tackled, remedied, improved, measures taken, solved, prevent
Before we move on to some common mistakes, I want to quickly explain the difference between a
problem and a cause. Read the following examples.
Problem – I've missed the last bus home after visiting my friend for the evening.
Cause – I misread the timetable and thought the bus left at 22.45 when it actually left at 22.35.
The ‘cause’ is the reason for the ‘problem’. We’ll be looking at question analysis in more detail in the
following parts.

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7.2.2. Common Mistakes

These six errors are common in IELTS problem solution essays.
• Confusing problems and causing questions.
• Having too many ideas.
• Not developing your ideas.
• Not developing both sides of the argument equally.
• Not linking the problems and solutions.
• Not being specific enough.
It is common for an essay to consist of a list of problems and solutions without any of them being
expanded on or linked to each other. Sometimes, a student will focus on just the problem or only
the solution which leads to an unbalanced essay. Both these issues will result in a low score for task
achievement.
You must choose just one or two problems and pick solutions directly linked to them. Explain
them and give examples.
Another serious error is to write generally about the topic. You need to be very specific with your
ideas. Analysing the question properly is essential to avoiding this mistake. I’ll show you how to do this.
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7.2.3. Essay Structure

Now let’s look at a simple structure you can use to write IELTS problem solution essays. It’s not the
only possible structure but it’s the one I recommend because it’s easy to learn and will enable you to
quickly plan and write a high-level essay.
Structure
Main body Main body

Introduction paragraph 1 Conclusion
paragraph 2
Problem & Cause Solution
- Topic sentence –
state the problem or - Topic sentence –
- Paraphrase the cause state the solution
question - Explanation – give - Explanation – give Summarise the
- State 1 key detail explaining the detail explaining key points
problem/cause and problem or cause the solution
related solution - Example – give an - Example – give
example an example
This structure will give us a well-balanced essay with 4 paragraphs.
7.2.4. One Problem/Cause & Solution or Two?
Most questions will state problems, causes and solutions in the plural, that is, more than one.
However, it is acceptable to write about just one.
This will give you an essay of just over the minimum 250 words. To write about two problems/
causes and solutions will require you to write between 350 and 400 words which are a lot to plan and
write in the 40 minutes allowed.
It is better to fully develop one problem/cause and solution than ending up with one idea missing
an explanation or an example because you run out of time.
The step-by-step essay structure I’m going to show you includes one problem and solution but
you can write about two if you feel able to or more comfortable doing so.

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7.2.5. How To Plan IELTS Problem Solution Essays
Here’s the question we’re going to be answering in our model essay followed by the 3 steps of the
planning process.
One problem faced by almost every large city is traffic congestion.
Analyse the questions Generate ideas Identify vocabulary
Step 1: Analyse the question
This is an essential step in the planning process and will ensure that you answer the question fully.
It’s quick and easy to do. You just need to identify 3 different types of words:
1. Topic words
2. Other keywords
3. Instruction words
Topics words are the ones that identify the general subject of the question and will be found in the
statement part of the question.
So, this question is about ‘traffic congestion’.

Many people will do this first step of the process and then write about the topic in general. This is a
serious mistake and leads to low marks for task achievement.
What we need to do now that we know the general topic, is to understand exactly what aspect of
traffic congestion we’re being asked to write about.
The other keywords in the question tell you the specific topic you must write about.
By highlighting these words, it’s easy to see that you are being asked to write about the problem
of traffic congestion in large cities. Your essay must only include ideas relevant to these ideas.
The instruction words are the question itself. These tell you the type of IELTS problem solution
essay you must write. This is a ‘causes and solutions’ question.
Step 2: Generate ideas
The next task is to generate some ideas to write about.

We’re going to use the “friends technique” that we learnt from the Intensive Course
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Here’s how it works. Imagine that you are chatting with a friend over a cup of coffee and they
ask you this question. What are the first thoughts to come into your head? Plan your essay around
these ideas.
Doing this will help you to come up with simple answers in everyday language rather than
straining your brain to think of amazing ideas using high-level language, which isn’t necessary.
You might want to try this yourself before reading on for my ideas.
Here are my ideas:
Causes:
• Too many cars on the roads => increasing numbers of people own cars, more convenient
than buses & trains
• Inadequate public transport => crowded, old & dirty
• Poor road layout => accidents potential
• Rush hour traffic => most people travel to & from work at the same times each day
Solutions:
• Car sharing, park-and-ride scheme, congestion charge

• Improve public transport – more frequent and better quality
• Improve infrastructure – bus lanes, cycle lanes will make it safer for people to cycle
• Flexible working hours
For each cause you think of, immediately write down a possible solution. This you will ensure that
the problems and solutions you think of are linked. You don’t need to spend too much time on this
as you only need one or two ideas. I’m going to pick just one cause to develop in the essay and one
or two solutions.
Here are my choices:
Cause: Too many cars on the roads.

Why? Increasing numbers of private vehicles, more convenient than buses & trains
Solution – Park-and-ride schemes
We’re almost ready to start writing our IELTS problem solution essay but first, we have one more
task to do.
Step 3: Identify vocabulary
During the planning stage, quickly jot down some vocabulary that comes to mind as you decide
which cause and solution you are going to write about, especially synonyms of key words. This will
save you having to stop and think of the right language while you’re writing. For example:

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Heavy traffic
Vehicles Queue
Traffic jam
Infrastructure Rush hour
Private transport Commute
With that done, we can focus on the first paragraph of the essay – the introdvuction.
7.2.6. How To Write an Introduction

Good introductions to IELTS problem solution essays have a simple 2 part structure:
• Paraphrase the question
• State 1 key problem/cause and related solution/s (outline sentence)
It should:
• Contain 2-3 sentences

• Be 40-60 words long
• Take 5 minutes to write
Stages Explanation Writing

Start your introduction by paraphrasing the question.
You don’t have to replace every key word but do so
where possible whilst ensuring that your language
sounds natural. One of the most serious
Paraphrase the Question: issues facing the majority of
question large urban areas is traffic
One problem faced by almost every large city is jams.
traffic congestion.
What do you think the causes are? What solutions
can you suggest?
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Now we need to add an outline statement where

we outline the two main points that we’ll cover in the
rest of the essay, that is, the cause and the solution I The main reason for this
chose earlier. Here they are again. is that there are too many
Cause: Too many cars on the roads. Why? Increasing private cars on the roads
Add an outline numbers of private vehicles, more convenient than these days and a viable
statement
buses & trains solution is to introduce more
Solution – Park-and-ride schemes park-and-ride schemes.
And, this is one way to develop them into an outline

sentence.
One of the most serious issues facing the majority of large urban areas is traffic
Full
jams. The main reason for this is that there are too many private cars on the roads
introduction
these days and a viable solution is to introduce more park-and-ride schemes.
It shows the examiner that you understand the question.

It acts as a guide to the examiner as to what your essay is about.
This
introduction It also helps to keep you focused and on track as you write.
achieves three The two ideas in your introduction will become your two main body paragraphs.
important Main body paragraph 1 – Too many cars on the roads
functions:
Main body paragraph 2 – Park-and-ride schemes
7.2.7. How To Write Main Body Paragraphs

Main body paragraphs in IELTS problem solution essays should contain 3 things:
• Topic sentence – outline the main idea

• Explanation – explain it and give more detail
• Example – give an example
The topic sentence summarises the main idea of the paragraph. That’s all it needs to do so it
doesn’t have to be complicated.
It plays an important role in ensuring that your ideas flow logically from one to another. It does this by
acting as a signpost for what is to come next, that is, what the paragraph will be about.
If you maintain a clear development of ideas throughout your essay, you will get high marks for task
achievement and cohesion and coherence.
We’ll now take the idea for our first main body paragraph and create our topic sentence.
Obviously, we’re going to write about the cause of the problem first.
Main body paragraph 1 – Too many cars on the roads
Sentences Writing
The number of people owning private vehicles increases year
Topic sentence by year, with most families now having more than one car.

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Explanation sentence Most people prefer the convenience of travelling at the time
they want to rather than being restricted to public transport
Next, we must write an explanation
timetables, so they prefer to drive themselves around
sentence that develops the idea.
rather than taking the bus or train. This is despite the fact
that they frequently have to sit in long traffic queues as
they near the city centre.
Example sentence
Finally, we add an example to support
our main point. If you can’t think of a Whenever I have to attend a meeting in the city, I always
real example, it’s fine to make one drive because it means that I can leave home when I want
up, as long as it’s believable. The to rather than getting stressed about getting to the station
examiner isn’t going to check your in time to catch the train.
facts. Alternative, you could add
another piece of information to support
your idea.
That’s the 3 parts of our first main body paragraph complete. Here’s the finished paragraph.
The number of people owning private vehicles increases year by year, with most families now
having more than one car. Most people prefer the convenience of travelling at the time they want to
rather than being restricted to public transport timetables, so they prefer to drive themselves around
rather than taking the bus or train. This is despite the fact that they frequently have to sit in long
traffic queues as they near the city centre. Whenever I have to attend a meeting in the city, I always
drive because it means that I can leave home when I want to rather than getting stressed about
getting to the station in time to catch the train.
We now follow the same process for our second main body paragraph.
Main idea 2 – Park-and-ride schemes
Sentences Writing
Topic sentence A solution that is proving successful in many areas is park-and-ride schemes.
This is where you park your car for free in a large car park on the outskirts of the
Explanation city and take a bus for the final part of your journey. The fee you have to pay for
sentence the bus trip is usually very small and this public transport system is generally very
regular, running every ten minutes or so.
A survey carried out in the city of Exeter showed that the rush hour congestion
Example decreased by 10% when the council set up a park-and-ride scheme to the north
sentence of the city. There was an additional drop of another 10% in traffic volume when a
second scheme began operating to the south.
That’s the 3 parts of our second main body paragraph complete. Here’s the finished paragraph
A solution that is proving successful in many areas is park-and-ride schemes. This is where you
park your car for free in a large car park on the outskirts of the city and take a bus for the final part of
your journey. The fee you have to pay for the bus trip is usually very small and this public transport
system is generally very regular, running every ten minutes or so. A survey carried out in the city
of Exeter showed that the rush hour congestion decreased by 10% when the council set up a
park-and-ride scheme to the north of the city. There was an additional drop of another 10% in traffic
volume when a second scheme began operating to the south.
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7.2.8. How To Write a Conclusion
The conclusion is a summary of the main points in your essay and can generally be done in a single
sentence. It should never introduce new ideas.
If you’re below the minimum 250 words after you’ve written your conclusion, you can add a prediction
or recommendation statement.
The conclusion is the easiest sentence in the essay to write but one of the most important.
A good conclusion will:
• Neatly end the essay

• Link all your ideas together
• Sum up your argument or opinion
• Answer the question
If you achieve this, you’ll improve your score for both task achievement and cohesion and coherence
which together make up 50% of the overall marks. Without a conclusion, you’ll score below band 6
for task achievement.
You can start almost any final paragraph of an IELTS problem solution essay with the words:
In conclusion
• In conclusion
• To conclude
Now all you need to do is briefly summarise the main ideas into one sentence.
Here’s a top tip. Go back and read the introduction to the essay because this is also a summary of
the essay. It outlines what you are going to write about.
To create a good conclusion, you simply have to paraphrase the introduction.
Introduction Conclusion
One of the most serious issues facing To conclude, the major urban problem of traffic
the majority of large urban areas is traffic congestion caused by the excessive number
jams. The main reason for this is that there of private cars on city roads can be partly
are too many private cars on the roads these alleviated by the introduction of park-and-ride
days and a viable solution is to introduce more systems on city fringes. I would certainly use
park-and-ride schemes. one if it was introduced in my area.

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Here is the same information formed into a conclusion. We’ve also added a personal statement at
the end to link back to one of my example sentences. You don’t have to do this but in this case, we
think that it rounds the essay off better.
That’s it. We’ve completed our essay. Here it is with the 4 paragraphs put together.
Question:
Completed essay:
One of the most serious issues facing the majority of large urban areas is traffic
jams. The main reason for this is that there are too many private cars on the roads these
days and a viable solution is to introduce more park-and-ride schemes.
The number of people owning private vehicles increases year by year, with most
families now having more than one car. Most people prefer the convenience of travelling
at the time they want to rather than being restricted to public transport timetables, so they
prefer to drive themselves around rather than taking the bus or train. This is despite the fact
that they frequently have to sit in long traffic queues as they near the city centre. Whenever
I have to attend a meeting in the city, I always drive because it means that I can leave home
when I want to rather than getting stressed about getting to the station in time to catch the
train.
A solution that is proving successful in many areas is park-and-ride schemes. This is
where you park your car for free in a large car park on the outskirts of the city and take a
bus for the final part of your journey. The fee you have to pay for the bus trip is usually very
small and this public transport system is generally very regular, running every ten minutes
or so. A survey carried out in the city of Exeter showed that the rush hour congestion
decreased by 10% when the council set up a park-and-ride scheme to the north of the city.
There was an additional drop of another 10% in traffic volume when a second scheme
began operating to the south.
To conclude, the major urban problem of traffic congestion caused by the excessive
number of private cars on city roads can be partly alleviated by the introduction of
park-and-ride systems on city fringes. I would certainly use one if it was introduced in my
area.
(328 words)
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7.3. PRACTICE
Choose 1 from these 2 topics and write a full Writing task 2 passage:
It is said that celebrities are creating Some of the children nowadays are looking
negative impacts to the young generations up to celebrities as their role models.
What are the causes of this and provide some What problems can this lead to and suggest
possible solutions. some possible solutions.
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WEEK 4 ASSIGNMENT
Watch at least 3 videos "73 questions" of your choice on Youtube and fill the following table
What are their

What is their daily Your thoughts on
Celebrities hobbies that you find
routine? them?
interesting?
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8.1. LISTENING
Questions 1-7
Complete the form below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Details of Order
Party Host Example: Customer’s oldest daughter
Occasion 18th birthday
Number of Guests Invited (Q1).__________
Customer Budget (Q2).__________ £800
Marquee Size (Q3).__________ X 9 metres
(Q4). __________ Cost £450
(Q5). __________ £150
Lighting Cost approximately £(Q6)__________
Number of Guests seated 30 / standing 50
Furniture Cost per table £4.00 / per chair £3.00
Dates Marquee Required Set-up date (Q7)__________

To be taken down on June 7th
Questions 8-10
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Customer Details
Name Q8. __________
Postcode Q9. __________
Contact Number Q10. _________

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Questions 11-15
Label the map below of a typical medieval castle.
Write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 11-15.
Q11. __________ Chapel

Q12. __________ Great Hall
Q13. __________ Great Chambers
Q14. __________ Bakehouse
Q15. __________ Stables
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Q16. Medieval castles...
A. shared a common design.

B. were each unique.
C. had the same methods of fortification in common.
Q17. The early medieval Keep served as...
A. a prison and fortified tower.

B. a fortified tower and living area.
C. a fortified entrance to the inner castle area.
Q18. In later medieval castles, the Keep...
A. evolved into a set of different buildings.

B. was used purely for accommodation.
C. played a less significant role in the castle’s domestic life.
Q19. Underground dungeons were built in response to...
A. a shift in the medieval belief system.

B. the Keep being no longer used for prisoners.
C. a call for harsher treatment of prisoners.
Q20. The least effective line of defence was
A. the portcullis.
B. the drawbridge.
C. the barbican.
Q21. Julie and Dave thought the lecture...
A. gave a new insight into Shakespeare’s style.

B. offered a thought-provoking view on Shakespeare and his work.
C. explained Shakespeare’s belief in ghosts.
Q22.Hamlet was a play...
A. which reflected popular belief in the supernatural.

B. that recorded historical events.
C. seemingly in conflict with accepted beliefs.
Q23. In the time of James I...
A. a belief in ghosts was not tolerated.

B. more people believed in ghosts.
C. certain religious beliefs were not acceptable.

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Q24. Shakespeare introduced ghosts into plays...
A. because he believed in a spirit world.
B. as a theatrical device.
C. to provoke religious debate.
Q25. Shakespeare’s audience would probably have...
A. secretly approved of a supernatural content in plays.
B. shown approval for plays with a supernatural content.
C. disapproved of the inclusion of ghosts in plays.
Questions 26-30: What does Julie say about the following subjects?
Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 26-30.
A Scornful, dismissive
B open-minded
C Believing
Q26. __________ witches/astrology
Q27. __________ ghosts
Q28. __________ UFOs/aliens
Q29. __________ premonitions
Q30. __________ telepathy
Questions 31-35: Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Darwin is credited with having (Q31). __________ popular beliefs about Man’s creation. However,
Alfred Russell Wallace simultaneously came up with an (Q32) __________ to Darwin. Unfortunately
for Wallace, Darwin seems to have been given the (Q33)__________ for the theory of evolution.
Darwin’s theory (Q34) __________, upsetting the religious authorities of his time. Today, it is often
accepted that Man is a product (Q35)__________and not spontaneous creation.
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Questions 36-40: Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each
answer.
The absence of a (Q36)__________ might be seen by some to discredit Darwin’s theory.

Finding an evolutionary bridge between Man and ape would provide undeniable (Q37)__________
the theory of evolution.
When (Q38)__________ of the Piltdown Man was first unearthed in 1908, it seemed Darwin’s theory
was no longer in doubt.
In fact, the hoax proved (Q39)__________ that scientists and the Press alike believed in its validity.
After 40 years, Piltdown Man (Q40)__________ as being no more than a fake.
8.2. READING (FULL TEST)
READING PASSAGE 1
Read the text below and answer Questions 1-13.
Daydreaming
Everyone daydreams sometimes. We sit or lie down, close our eyes and use our imagination
to think about something that might happen in the future or could have happened in the past. Most
daydreaming is pleasant. We would like the daydream to happen and we would be very happy if it did
actually happen. We might daydream that we are in another person’s place, or doing something that
we have always wanted to do, or that other people like or admire us much more than they normally do.
Daydreams are not dreams, because we can only daydream if we are awake. Also, we choose
what our daydreams will be about, which we cannot usually do with dreams. With many daydreams,
we know that what we imagine is unlikely to happen. At least, if it does happen, it probably will not
do so in the way we want it to. However, some daydreams are about things that are likely to happen.
With these, our daydreams often help us to work out what we want to do, or how to do it to get the
best results. So, these daydreams are helpful. We use our imagination to help us understand the
world and other people.
Daydreams can help people to be creative. People in creative or artistic careers, such as
composers, novelists and filmmakers, develop new ideas through daydreaming. This is also true
of research scientists and mathematicians. In fact, Albert Einstein said that imagination is more
important than knowledge because knowledge is limited whereas imagination is not.
Research in the 1980s showed that most daydreams are about ordinary, everyday events. It
also showed that over 75% of workers in so-called ‘boring jobs’, such as lorry drivers and security
guards, spend a lot of time daydreaming in order to make their time at work more interesting. Recent
research has also shown that daydreaming has a positive effect on the brain. Experiments with
MRI brain scans show that the parts of the brain linked with complex problem-solving are more
active during daydreaming. Researchers conclude that daydreaming is an activity in which the brain
consolidates learning. In this respect, daydreaming is the same as dreaming during sleep.

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Although there do seem to be many advantages with daydreaming, in many cultures it is

considered a bad thing to do. One reason for this is that when you are daydreaming, you are not
working. In the 19th century, for example, people who daydreamed a lot were judged to be lazy. This
happened in particular when people started working in factories on assembly lines. When you work
on an assembly line, all you do is one small task again and again, every time exactly the same. It is
rather repetitive and, obviously, you cannot be creative. So many people decided that there was no
benefit in daydreaming.
Other people have said that daydreaming leads to ‘escapism’ and that this is not healthy, either.
Escapist people spend a lot of time living in a dream world in which they are successful and popular,
instead of trying to deal with the problems they face in the real world. Such people often seem to be
unhappy and are unable or unwilling to improve their daily lives. Indeed, recent studies show that
people who often daydream have fewer close friends than other people. In fact, they often do not
have any close friends at all.
Questions 1-8: Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
For questions 1-8, write

Q1.________ People usually daydream when they are walking around.
Q2. ________ Some people can daydream when they are asleep.
Q3. ________ Some daydreams help us to be more successful in our lives.
Q4. ________ Most lorry drivers daydream in their jobs to make them more interesting.
Q5. ________ Factory workers daydream more than lorry drivers.
Q6. ________Daydreaming helps people to be creative.
Q7. ________ Old people daydream more than young people.
Q8. ________ Escapist people are generally very happy.
Questions 9-10: Complete the sentences below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from
the text for each answer.
Writers, artists and other creative people use daydreaming to (Q9)________

The areas of the brain used in daydreaming are also used for complicated (Q10)________
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Questions 11-13: Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Q11. Daydreams are...
A. dreams that we have when we fall asleep in daytime.
B. about things that happened that make us sad.
C. often about things that we would like to happen.
D. activities that only a few people are able to do.
Q12. In the nineteenth century, many people believed that daydreaming was...
A. helpful in factory work.
B. a way of avoiding work.
C. something that few people did.
D. a healthy activity.
Q13. People who daydream a lot ...
A. usually have creative jobs.
B. are much happier than other people.
C. are less intelligent than other people.
D. do not have as many friends as other people.
READING PASSAGE 2
TRICKY SUMS AND PSYCHOLOGY
A. In their first years of studying mathematics at school, children all over the world usually have to
learn the times table, also known as the multiplication table, which shows what you get when you
multiply numbers together. Children have traditionally learned their times table by going from ‘1 times
1 is 1’ all the way up to ‘12 times 12 is 144’.
B. Times tables have been around for a very long time now. The oldest known tables using base 10
numbers, the base that is now used everywhere in the world, are written on bamboo strips dating
from 305 BC, found in China. However, in many European cultures the times table is named after
the Ancient Greek mathematician and philosopher Pythagoras (570-495 BC). And so it is called the
Table of Pythagoras in many languages, including French and Italian.
C. In 1820, in his book The Philosophy of Arithmetic, the mathematician John Leslie recommended
that young pupils memorize the times table up to 25 x 25. Nowadays, however, educators generally
believe it is important for children to memorise the table up to 9 x 9, 10 x 10 or 12 x12.
D. The current aim in the UK is for school pupils to know all their times tables up to 12 x 12 by the
age of nine. However, many people do not know them, even as adults. Recently, some politicians
have been asked arithmetical questions of this kind. For example, in 1998, the schools minister
Stephen Byers was asked the answer to 7 x 8. He got the answer wrong, saying 54 rather than 56,
and everyone laughed at him.

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E. In 2014, a young boy asked the UK Chancellor George Osborne the exact same question. As he
had passed A-level maths and was in charge of the UK’s economic policies at the time, you would
expect him to know the answer. However, he simply said, ‘I’ve made it a rule in life not to answer
such questions.’
F. Why would a politician refuse to answer such a question? It is certainly true that some sums are
much harder than others. Research has shown that learning and remembering sums involving 6,7,8
and 9 tends to be harder than remembering sums involving other numbers. And it is even harder
when 6,7,8 and 9 are multiplied by each other. Studies often find that the hardest sum is 6x8, with
7x8 not far behind. However, even though 7x8 is a relatively difficult sum, it is unlikely that George
Osborne did not know the answer. So there must be some other reason why he refused to answer
the question.
G. The answer is that Osborne was being ‘put on the spot’ and he didn’t like it. It is well known that
when there is a lot of pressure to do something right, people often have difficulty doing something that
they normally find easy. When you put someone on the spot and ask such a question, it causes stress.
The person’s heart beats faster and their adrenalin levels go up. As a result, people will often make
mistakes that they would not normally make. This is called ‘choking’. Choking often happens in sport,
such as when a footballer takes a crucial penalty. In the same way, the boy’s question put Osborne
under great pressure. He knew it would be a disaster for him if he got the answer to such a simple
question wrong and feared that he might choke. And that is why he refused to answer the question.
Questions 14-19: The text has seven paragraphs, A-G.
Which paragraph contains the following information?
Q14.________ a 19th-century opinion of what children should learn

Q15.________ the most difficult sums
Q16.________ the effect of pressure on doing something
Q17.________ how children learn the times table
Q18.________ a politician who got a sum wrong
Q19.________ a history of the times table

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Q20.________Pythagoras invented the times table in China.

Q21.________Stephen Byers and George Osborne were asked the same question.
Q22.________All children in the UK have to learn the multiplication table.
Q23.________George Osborne did not know the answer to 7 X 8.
Q24.________7 X 8 is the hardest sum that children have to learn.
Q25.________Stephen Byers got the sum wrong because he choked.
READING PASSAGE 3
Care in the Community
‘Bedlam’ is a word that has become synonymous in the English language with chaos and
disorder. The term itself derives from the shortened name for a former 16th century London institution
for the mentally ill, known as St. Mary of Bethlehem. This institution was so notorious that its name
was to become a byword for mayhem. Patient ‘treatment’ amounted to little more than legitimised
abuse. Inmates were beaten and forced to live in unsanitary conditions, whilst others were placed on
display to a curious public as a side-show. There is little indication to suggest that other institutions
founded at around the same time in other European countries were much better.
Even up until the mid-twentieth century, institutions for the mentally ill were regarded as being
more places of isolation and punishment than healing and solace. In popular literature of the Victorian
era that reflected true-life events, individuals were frequently sent to the ‘madhouse’ as a legal
means of permanently disposing of an unwanted heir or spouse. Later, in the mid-twentieth century,
institutes for the mentally ill regularly carried out invasive brain surgery known as a ‘lobotomy’ on
violent patients without their consent. The aim was to ‘calm’ the patient but ended up producing
a patient that was little more than a zombie. Such a procedure is well documented to devastating
effect in the film ‘One Flew Over the Cuckoo’s Nest’. Little wonder then that the appalling catalogue
of treatment of the mentally ill led to a call for change from social activists and psychologists alike.
Improvements began to be seen in institutions from the mid-50s onwards, along with the
introduction of care in the community for less severely ill patients. Community care was seen as a
more humane and purposeful approach to dealing with the mentally ill. Whereas institutionalised
patients lived out their existence in confinement, forced to obey institutional regulations, patients
in the community were free to live a relatively independent life. The patient was never left purely to
their own devices as a variety of services could theoretically be accessed by the individual. In its
early stages, however, community care consisted primarily of help from the patient’s extended family
network. In more recent years, such care has extended to the provision of specialist community
mental health teams (CMHTs) in the UK. Such teams cover a wide range of services from rehabili-
tation to home treatment and assessment. In addition, psychiatric nurses are on hand to administer
prescription medication and give injections. The patient is therefore provided with the necessary help
that they need to survive in the everyday world whilst maintaining a degree of autonomy.

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Often, though, when a policy is put into practice, its failings become apparent. This is true for the
policy of care in the community. Whilst back-up services may exist, an individual may not call upon
them when needed, due to reluctance or inability to assess their own condition. As a result, such an
individual may be alone during a critical phase of their illness, which could lead them to self-harm or
even become a threat to other members of their community. Whilst this might be an extreme-case
scenario, there is also the issue of social alienation that needs to be considered. Integration into the
community may not be sufficient to allow the individual to find work, leading to poverty and isolation.
Social exclusion could then cause a relapse as the individual is left to battle mental health problems
alone. The solution, therefore, is to ensure that the patient is always in touch with professional
helpers and not left alone to fend for themselves. It should always be remembered that whilst you
can take the patient out of the institution, you can’t take the institution out of the patient.
When questioned about care in the community, there seems to be a division of opinion amongst
members of the public and within the mental healthcare profession itself. Dr. Mayalla, practising
clinical psychologist, is inclined to believe that whilst certain patients may benefit from care in the
community, the scheme isn’t for everyone. ‘Those suffering moderate cases of mental illness stand
to gain more from care in the community than those with more pronounced mental illness. I don’t
think it’s a one-size-fits-all policy. But I also think that there is a far better infrastructure of helpers
and social workers in place now than previously and the scheme stands a greater chance of success
than in the past.’
Anita Brown, mother of three, takes a different view. ‘As a mother, I’m very protective towards
my children. As a result, I would not put my support behind any scheme that I felt might put my
children in danger... I guess there must be assessment methods in place to ensure that dangerous
individuals are not let loose amongst the public but I’m not for it at all. I like to feel secure where I
live, but more to the point, that my children are not under any threat.’
Bob Ratchett, a former mental health nurse, takes a more positive view on community care
projects. ‘Having worked in the field myself, I’ve seen how a patient can benefit from living an
independent life, away from an institution. Obviously, only individuals well on their way to recovery
would be suitable for consideration as participants in such a scheme. If you think about it, is it really
fair to condemn an individual to a lifetime in an institution when they could be living a fairly fulfilled
and independent life outside the institution?’
Questions 26-31
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Q26. Which of the following statements is accurate?
A. In the 20th century, illegal surgical procedures were carried out on the mentally ill.
B. The Victorian era saw an increase in mental illness amongst married couples.
C. Mental institutions of the past were better-equipped for dealing with the mentally ill.
D. In the past, others often benefitted when a patient was sent to a mental asylum.
Q27. What does the writer mean by patient treatment being ‘legitimised abuse’?
A. There were proper guidelines for the punishment of mentally ill patients.
B. Maltreatment of mentally ill patients was not illegal and so was tolerated.
C. Only those who were legally entitled to do so could punish mentally ill patients.
D. Physical abuse of mentally ill patients was a legal requirement of mental institutions.
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Q28. What brought about changes in the treatment of mentally ill patients?
A. A radio documentary exposed patient maltreatment.

B. People rebelled against the consistent abuse of mentally ill patients.
C. Previous treatments of mentally ill patients were proved to be ineffective.
A. The maltreatment of mentally ill patients could never be revealed.
Q29. What was a feature of early care in the community schemes?
A. Patient support was the responsibility more of relatives than professionals.

B. Advanced professional help was available to patients.
C. All mentally ill patients could benefit from the scheme.
D. Patients were allowed to enjoy full independence.
Q30. What is true of care in the community schemes today?
A. They permit greater patient autonomy.

B. More professional services are available to patients.
C. Family support networks have become unnecessary.
D. All patients can now become part of these schemes.
Q31. What can be said of the writer’s attitude towards care in the community?
A. He believes that the scheme has proved to be a failure.

B. He believes that it can only work under certain circumstances.
C. He believes that it will never work as mentally ill patients will always be disadvantaged.
D. He believes it has failed due to patient neglect by professional helpers.
Questions 32-36: Look at the following statements, 32-36, and the list of people, A-C.
Match each statement to the correct person.
A Dr. Mayalla
B Anita Brown
C Bob Ratchett
Q32.________This person acknowledges certain inadequacies in the concept of care in the

community, but recognises that attempts have been made to improve on existing schemes.
Q33.________ This person whilst emphasising the benefits to the patient from care in the community
schemes is critical of traditional care methods.
Q34.________This person’s views have been moderated by their professional contact with the
mentally ill.
Q35.________ This person places the welfare of others above that of the mentally ill.
Q36.________This person acknowledges that a mistrust of care in the community schemes may be
unfounded.

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Q37. ________There is a better understanding of the dynamics of mental illness today.

Q38. ________Community care schemes do not provide adequate psychological support for patients.
Q39. ________Dr. Mayalla believes that the scheme is less successful than in the past.
Q40. ________The goal of community care schemes is to make patients less dependent on the system.
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UNIT V: SOCIAL NETWORK

9.1. SPEAKING
PART 1
1. What kinds of social networking websites do you like to use?
2. Are you a social person?
3. Is it easy for you to find real friends on a social networking website?
4. What kind of people do you like to be friends with on those websites?
5. Do you like to use Facebook?
6. Will you use these sites more in the future?
7. What do you use these sites for?
8. How often do you use these sites?
PART 2
Describe the social network Describe the social network

site that you visit regularly. site that you use to chat with
You should say: your friends.
- ………………….…………… You should say:
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….……………
Describe the social network Describe the social network

site that you use for education site that your friends use but
purposes. you don’t .
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
90 Pasall độcc quyề

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PART 3
1. Why do some people find the internet addictive?
2. What would the world be like without the internet?
3. Why has the use of social media increased in the past few years?
4. In the future, do you think people will use social media more than they do now?
5. What benefits do people get using social networks?
6. Should companies work on social network platforms?
7. Why do the young people prefer using social network?
8. Do you think social networks will someday reduce our face-to-face communication abilities?
9.2. WRITING (PROBLEMS SOLUTIONS ESSAYS PRACTICE)
Exercise 1: Brainstorming
Pair up, Brainstorm and fill the board below with 2 causes and solutions for each problems
It’s ideally you paraphrase all of your ideas:
Problems Causes Solutions
Online fraud
Online Cat fishing
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Personal Information
Leakage
Exercise 2: Full task Writingt
Despite the benefits that social network has brought us, it also contains a lot of threats.
What are the possible problems that can be considered, suggest some possible solutions to
resolve those problems!
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WEEK 5 ASSIGNMENT
Watch the movie “The Social Network” and answer these questions in Short Essay style.
1. Why do you think Mark appreciate Sean Parker more than Eduardo?
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
2. What factors lead to the success of Facebook?

____________________________________________________________________________________
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____________________________________________________________________________________
3. There’s a saying that “Mark traded one real-life best friend for 500 million online ones”.
State your opinion on that saying
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10.1. LISTENING (FULL TEST)
Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
HOTELS
Name Location Cost Notes
$50 per night

Highly recommended
Belvedere Gardens Example: opposite including
(Q2)________ served
Hotel Grimes Tower (Q1)________
each evening
breakfast
price inclusive of
On the south $55 per night (Q5)________
Belfield Grande side of Edgeware ($10 discount if
(Q3)________ (Q4)________) Served in the
(Q6)________
$28 weekdays and

At the entrance to the Must book well
(Q7)________ Hotel $40 on weekends
(Q8)________ zone (Q10)________
and (Q9)________

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Questions 11-16
Now look at the plan of King’s Cross station below.
Write the correct letter, A-H, next to questions 11-16.
Q11.________ Left Luggage office

Q12.________ Underground station
Q13.________ Burgerland
Q14.________ Ticket office
Q15.________ Pizzeria
Q16.________ Platform 9 ¾
Q17. The tour is going to...
A. visit all major London landmarks.

B. only visit selected landmarks in London.
C. be a leisurely tour of most London landmarks.
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Q18. Tour members...
A. may be unfamiliar with the Underground.

B. are all equally familiar with the Underground.
C. are all unfamiliar with the Underground.
Q19. The tour group is intending to...
A. take a morning train.

B. avoid trains crowded with shoppers.
C. avoid the rush hour.
Q20. Seating on Underground trains...
A. has been previously reserved.

B. can be guaranteed for those with a disability.
C. is never guaranteed
Question 21: Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Q21. The construction of the new faculty building will...
A. finish during the summer.

B. conclude during the first term.
C. be approved during the summer.
Questions 22-23: Choose two letters, A-E....
The two main sources of funding for the project were
A. government money
B. a college grant
C. alumni donations
D. the commerce faculty
E. an unnamed patron
Questions 24-25: Choose two letters, A-E.
What two new items are added to the plans?...
A. A larger gym
B. A relaxation room
C. A computer lab
D. A hardware room
E. Lecture rooms

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Questions 26-30: What does Melisa decide about the following modules?

A She will study it.
B She won’t study it.
C She might study it
Modules
Q26.________ International Markets

Q27.________ Product Placement
Q28.________ Organisational Behaviour
Q29.________ Managing People
Q30.________ Public Relations
Questions 31-32: Complete the sentences below.

It seems that personality tests are part of our (Q31)________ as they fulfil a basic human need to
understand motivation,
Understanding why we communicate and (Q32)________ others in the way that we do is revealed
by personality tests.
Questions 33-40: Complete the table below.
Test type What is assessed Who uses it Accuracy Pros/Cons
Can be biased by a/
Believed to have
an (Q34)________
Graphology handwriting such careers officers/ (Q33)________
subjectivity:
(Handwriting as style and how potential by the British
however, on the
test) letters are formed employers Psychological
plus side, it is quick
Society
and easy to use
critics regard
individual Respected A major problem
Rorschach it merely as a
reactions to a (Q35)________ of the test is that
pseudoscience
(Ink blot test) series of ink blots like the Tavistock it is affected by
whilst others hold it
on pieces of card Clinic (Q36)________
in high regard
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individual
doctors, a benefit of the test
response to seemingly a
psychologists, is that it is sensitive
Luscher (Q37)________ (Q38)________
government enough to respond
(Colour test) that are ranked of psycholigical
agencies and to individual mood
in order of assessment
universities changes
preference
due to the
how an individual
(Q40)________ a
TAT creates stories
those working universally agreed the fact that it is
(Thematic based on a set of
in psychological method of scoring quick and simple
cards featuring
Apperception research and and standardised to use is a huge
(Q39)________
forensic, science cards, individual advantage
Test) in ambiguous
comparisons are
scenes
problematic
10.2. READING
READING PASSAGE 1
Read, the text below and answer Questions 1-13.
ALBERT EINSTEIN
Albert Einstein is perhaps the best-known scientist of the 20th century. He received the Nobel
Prize in Physics in 1921 and his theories of special and general relativity are of great importance
to many branches of physics and astronomy. He is well known for his theories about light, matter,
gravity, space and time. His most famous idea is that energy and mass are different forms of the
same thing.
Einstein was born in Wurttemberg, Germany on 14th March 1879. His family was Jewish but he
had not been very religious in his youth although he became very interested in Judaism in later life.
It is well documented that Einstein did not begin speaking until after the age of three. In fact,
he found speaking so difficult that his family were worried that he would never start to speak. When
Einstein was four years old, his father gave him a magnetic compass. It was this compass that
inspired him to explore the world of science. He wanted to understand why the needle always pointed
north whichever way he turned the compass. It looked as if the needle was moving itself. But the
needle was inside a closed case, so no other force (such as the wind) could have been moving it.
And this is how Einstein became interested in studying science and mathematics.
In fact, he was so clever that at the age of 12 he taught himself Euclidean geometry. At fifteen,
he went to school in Munich which he found very boring. he finished secondary school in Aarau,
Switzerland and entered the Swiss Federal Institute of Technology in Zurich from which he graduated
in 1900. But Einstein did not like the teaching there either. He often missed classes and used the
time to study physics on his own or to play the violin instead. However, he was able to pass his
examinations by studying the notes of a classmate. His teachers did not have a good opinion of
him and refused to recommend him for a university position. So, he got a job in a patent office in

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Switzerland. While he was working there, he wrote the papers that first made him famous as a great
scientist.
Einstein had two severely disabled children with his first wife, Mileva. His daughter (whose
name we do not know) was born about a year before their marriage in January 1902. She was looked
after by her Serbian grandparents until she died at the age of two. It is generally believed that she
died from scarlet fever but there are those who believe that she may have suffered from a disorder
known as Down Syndrome. But there is not enough evidence to know for sure. In fact, no one even
knew that she had existed until Einstein’s granddaughter found 54 love letters that Einstein and
Mileva had written to each other between 1897 and 1903. She found these letters inside a shoe box
in their attic in California. Einstein and Mileva’s son, Eduard, was diagnosed with schizophrenia. He
spent decades in hospitals and died in Zurich in 1965.
Just before the start of World War I, Einstein moved back to Germany and became director of
a school there. But in 1933, following death threats from the Nazis, he moved to the United States,
where he died on 18th April 1955.
For questions 1-8, write:

Q1.________ The general theory of relativity is a very important theory in modern physics.
Q2.________ Einstein had such difficulty with language that those around him thought he would
never learn how to speak.
Q3.________ It seemed to Einstein that nothing could be pushing the needle of the compass around
except the wind.
Q4.________ Einstein enjoyed the teaching methods in Switzerland.
Q5.________ Einstein taught himself how to play the violin.
Q6.________ His daughter died of schizophrenia when she was two.
Q7.________ The existence of a daughter only became known to the world between 1897 and 1903.
Q8.________ In 1933 Einstein moved to the United States where he became an American citizen.
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Questions 9-10
Complete the sentences below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.
He tried hard to understand how the needle could seem to move itself so that it always (Q9)________
He often did not go to classes and used the time to study physics (Q10)________ or to play music.
Q11. The name of Einstein’s daughter...
A. was not chosen by him.

B. is a mystery.
C. is shared by his granddaughter.
D. was discovered in a shoe box.
Q12. His teachers would not recommend him for a university position because...
A. they did not think highly of him.

B. they thought he was a Nazi.
C. his wife was Serbian.
D. he seldom skipped classes.
Q13. The famous physicist Albert Einstein was of...
A. Swiss origin.
B. Jewish origin.
C. American origin.
D. Austrian origin.
READING PASSAGE 2
DRINKING FILTERED WATER
A. The body is made up mainly of water. This means that the quality of water that we drink every
day has an important effect on our health. Filtered water is healthier than tap water and some bottled
water. This is because it is free of contaminants, that is, of substances that make it dirty or harmful.
Substances that settle on the bottom of a glass of tap water and microorganisms that carry diseases
(known as bacteria or germs) are examples of contaminants. Filtered water is also free of poisonous
metals and chemicals that are common in tap water and even in some bottled water brands.
B. The authorities know that normal tap water is full of contaminants and they use chemicals, such
as chlorine and bromine in order to disinfect it. But such chemicals are hardly safe. Indeed, their use
in water is associated with many different conditions and they are particularly dangerous for children
and pregnant women. For example, consuming bromine for a long time may result in low blood

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pressure, which may then bring about poisoning of the brain, heart, kidneys and liver. Filtered water
is typically free of such water disinfectant chemicals.
C. Filtered water is also free of metals, such as mercury and lead. Mercury has ended up in our
drinking water mainly because the dental mixtures used by dentists have not been disposed of safely
for a long time. Scientists believe there is a connection between mercury in the water and many
allergies and cancers as well as disorders, such as ADD, OCD, autism and depression.
D. Lead, on the other hand, typically finds its way to our drinking water due to pipe leaks. Of course,
modern pipes are not made of lead but pipes in old houses usually are. Lead is a well-known
carcinogen and is associated with pregnancy problems and birth defects. This is another reason
why children and pregnant women must drink filtered water.
E. The benefits of water are well known. We all know, for example, that it helps to detoxify the body,
So, the purer the water we drink, the easier it is for the body to rid itself of toxins. The result of
drinking filtered water is that the body does not have to use as much of its energy on detoxification
as it would when drinking unfiltered water. This means that drinking filtered water is good for our
health in general. That is because the body can perform all of its functions much more easily and
this results in improved metabolism, better weight management, improved joint lubrication as well as
efficient skin hydration.
F. There are many different ways to filter water and each type of filter targets different contaminants.
For example, activated carbon water filters are very good at taking chlorine out. Ozone water filters,
on the other hand, are particularly effective at removing germs.
G. For this reason, it is very important to know exactly what is in the water that we drink so that we
can decide what type of water filter to use. A Consumer Confidence Report (CCR) should be useful
for this purpose. This is a certificate that is issued by public water suppliers every year, listing the
contaminants present in the water. If you know what these contaminants are, then it is easier to
decide which type of water filter to get.
Questions 14-20: The text has seven paragraphs, A-G. Which paragraph contains the following
information?
Q14.________ a short summary of the main points of the text
Q15.________ a variety of methods used for water filtration
Q16.________making it easier for the body to get rid of dangerous chemicals
Q17.________finding out which contaminants your water filter should target
Q18.________allergies caused by dangerous metals
Q19.________a dangerous metal found in the plumbing of old buildings
Q20.________chemicals of cleaning products that destroy bacteria
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Q21.________The type of water you consume on a regular basis has a great impact on your
overall health and wellness.
Q22.________ Filtered water typically contains water disinfectant chemicals.
Q23.________Exposure to disinfectant chemicals is linked with poisoning of the vital organs.
Q24.________Drinking tap water helps minimise your exposure to harmful elements.
Q25.________ People wearing artificial teeth are more likely to be contaminated.
Q26.________People who are depressed often suffer from dehydration.
READING PASSAGE 3
SPEECH DYSFLUENCY AND POPULAR FILLERS
A speech dysfluency is any of various breaks, irregularities or sound-filled pauses that we make
when we are speaking, which are commonly known as fillers. These include words and sentences that
are not finished, repeated phrases or syllables, instances of speakers correcting their own mistakes as
they speak and “words” such as ‘huh’, ‘uh’, ‘erm’, ‘urn’, ‘hmm’, ‘err’, ‘like’, ‘you know’ and ‘well’.
Fillers are parts of speech which are not generally recognised as meaningful and they include
speech problems, such as stuttering (repeating the first consonant of some words). Fillers are
normally avoided on television and films, but they occur quite regularly in everyday conversation,
sometimes making up more than 20% of “words” in speech. But they can also be used as a pause
for thought.
Research in linguistics has shown that fillers change across cultures and that even the different
English speaking nations use different fillers. For example, Americans use pauses such as ‘um’ or
‘em’ whereas the British say ‘uh’ or ‘eh’. Spanish speakers say ‘ehhh’ and in Latin America (where
they also speak Spanish) but not Spain, ‘este’ is used (normally meaning ‘this’).
Recent linguistic research has suggested that the use of ‘uh’ and ‘um’ in English is connected
to the speaker’s mental and emotional state. For example, while pausing to say ‘uh’ or ‘um’ the brain
may be planning the use of future words. According to the University of Pennsylvania linguist Mark
Liberman, ‘um’ generally comes before a longer or more important pause than ‘uh’. At least that’s
what he used to think.

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Liberman has discovered that as Americans get older, they use ‘uh’ more than ‘um’ and that
men use ‘uh’ more than women no matter their age. But the opposite is true of ‘um’. The young say
‘um’ more often than the old. And women say ‘um’ more often than men at every age. This was an
unexpected result because scientists used to think that fillers had to do more with the amount of time
a speaker pauses for, rather than with who the speaker is.
Liberman mentioned his finding to fellow linguists in the Netherlands and this encouraged the
group to look for a pattern outside American English. They studied British and Scottish English,
German, Danish, Dutch and Norwegian and found that women and younger people said ‘um’ more
than ‘uh’ in those languages as well.
Their conclusion is that it is simply a case of language change in progress and that women and
younger people are leading the change. And there is nothing strange about this. Women and young
people normally are the typical pioneers of most language change. What is strange, however, is that
‘um’ is replacing ‘uh’ across at least two continents and five Germanic languages. Now this really is
a mystery.
The University of Edinburgh sociolinguist Josef Fruehwald may have an answer. In his view,
‘um’ and ‘uh’ are pretty much equivalent. The fact that young people and women prefer it is not
significant. This often happens in language when there are two options. People start using one more
often until the other is no longer an option. It’s just one of those things.
As to how such a trend might have gone from one language to another, there is a simple
explanation, according to Fruehwald. English is probably influencing the other languages. We all
know that in many countries languages are constantly borrowing words and expressions of English
into their own language so why not borrow fillers, too? Of course, we don’t know for a fact whether
that’s actually what’s happening with ‘um’ but it is a likely story.

NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this
Q27. ________Fillers are usually expressed as pauses and probably have no linguistic meaning
although they may have a purpose.
Q28.________In general, fillers vary across cultures.
Q29.________ Fillers are uncommon in everyday language.
Q30.________ American men use ‘uh’ more than American women do.
Q31.________ Younger Spaniards say ‘ehhh’ more often than older Spaniards.
Q32.________ In the past linguists did not think that fillers are about the amount of time a speaker
hesitates.
Q33.________ During a coffee break Liberman was chatting with a small group of researchers.
Q34.________ Fruehwald does not believe that there are age and gender differences related to ‘um’
and ‘uh’.
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Q35. Fillers are not...
A. used to give the speaker time to think.

B. phrases that are restated.
C. used across cultures.
D. popular with the media.
Q36. It had originally seemed to Mark Liberman that ...
A. ‘um’ was followed by a less significant pause than ‘uh’.

B. ‘uh’ was followed by a shorter pause than ‘um’.
C. ‘uh’ was followed by a longer pause than ‘um’.
D. the use of ‘um’ meant the speaker was sensitive.
Q37. Contrary to what linguists used to think, it is now believed that the choice of filler...
A. may have led to disagreements.

B. depends on the characteristics of the speaker.
C. has nothing to do with sex.
D. only matters to older people.
Q38. According to Liberman, it’s still a puzzle why...
A. a specific language change is so widely spread.

B. the two fillers are comparable.
C. we have two options.
D. ‘um’ is preferred by women and young people.
Q39. Concerning the normal changes that all languages go through as time goes by,...
A. old men are impossible to teach.

B. men in general are very conservative.
C. young men simply copy the speech of young women.
D. women play a more important role than men.
Q40. According to Fruehwald, the fact that ‘um’ is used more than ‘uh’...
A. proves that ‘um’ is less important.

B. shows that young people have low standards.
C. shows that they have different meanings.
D. is just a coincidence.

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UNIT VI: LIVING AND HOUSING
11.1. SPEAKING
PART 1
1. Are you living in a house or an apartment?
2. What’s the difference between where you are living now and where you have lived in the past?
3. What do you like the most about your current house?
4. Do you plan to live there for a long time?
5. Would you prefer to buy a house or an apartment?
6. Do you like to live in the city centre or in a suburban area?
7. What don’t you like about the house you currently living in?
PART 2
Describe the house of your dream Describe the kind of house you
in the future want for your children in the future
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
Describe the kind of house Describe the house that you

that you do not want to live in grew up in
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
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UNIT VI: LIVINNG AND HOUSINNG
PART 3
1. How have houses in your city changed over the last 10 years?
2. What do you think are the differences between living in a house and an apartment?
3. Do people in your country prefer houses or apartments?
4. What do you think is ideal living condition?
5. Do you think neighbours affect a family’s living conditions?
6. Do living conditions represent that person’s income?
7. What are the benefits and drawbacks of living in big cities?
8. What are the benefits and drawbacks of living in the countryside?
11.2. WRITING
Task 1: Line graph
The line graph below shows the percentage of the population in rural and urban areas in a span of
five years. Summarise the information and write a 150-word essay to describe the graph
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Task 2 (Opinion essay)

Nowadays, more and more people are flooding into the city. People say that this is a negative trend
and the government should reduce people from the countryside coming into the city.
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WEEK 6 ASSIGNMENT
Watch the movie “Lost in Translation” and answer these questions in Short Essay style.
1. How did the living conditions in Tokyo affect the main character?
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3. How would you feel if one day you wake up in a strange place that people don’t speak
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12.1. LISTENING
PART 1
Questions 1 – 7
Complete the table below.
Details of customer purchase
Lot number Example: 2374
Reserve price ₤ (Q1)………………………..
Name of artist (Q2)…………………………………..
Amount paid ₤ (Q3)………………………….
(Q4)…………………………………… painting of a
Description
(Q5)………………………………… landscape
Width of painting with frame 2 metres
Height without frame 1 metre
Height with frame (Q7)……………………………………..
Questions 8 – 10
Complete the table below.
Customer details
Name Mrs. (Q8)……………………………..
Address Charlton Manor, Kingston Village

Post Code (Q9)………………………….
Requested delivery date (Q10)…………………………….. (Day: Tuesday)
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PART 2
Questions 11 – 15: Label the map below.
Q11. Cloakroom
Q12. Permanent Collection Gallery
Q13. Storage Room
Q14. Cowell Room
Q15. Staffroom and Kitchen
Questions 16 – 20: Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Q16. All museum patrons... 19. Certain events at the Garden Party are...
A. receive advance information about events. A. more expensive than others.
B. have a discount on entry to the museum. B. liable to cancellation.
C. can take one non-paying guest into the C. almost fully booked.
museum.
20. The forthcoming artistic events feature...
Q17. The Masked Ball...
A. newcomers to the art world.
A. is an annual event. B. established artists.
B. will be held on New Year’s Day. C. a mixture of new and established artists.
C. will be a unique event.
Q18. Details of the Masked Ball

A. have yet to be confirmed.
B. have been finalised.
C. may be provided on request.
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PART 3
Q21. ‘Outsider art’ is created by artists who...

A. lack formal art training.
B. have a formal background in art.
C. make a living from their work.
Q22. The art critic believes that...

A. the definition of ‘art’ is very flexible.
B. there is a common perception of what constitutes ‘art’.
C. in theory, quality art can be produced by anyone.
Q23. According to the art critic, good art ...

A. relies more on talent than skill.
B. requires an equal combination of talent and skill.
C. requires significant skill.
Q24. Usually the public ...

A. is unimpressed by outsider art.
B. has little knowledge of outsider artists.
C. only appreciates large-scale works of art.
Q25. The works of Nek Chand and Ferdinand Cheval ...

A. impress most due to their size.
B. were created without official consent.
C. were inspired by a romantic idea
Questions 26 – 30: What does Jake say about the following?

Q26. modern painters
A. are overrated Q27. outsider artists
B. lack skill Q28. Renaissance artists
C. have popular appeal Q29. Impressionist artists
Q30. modern sculptors
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PART 4
Questions 31 – 35: Complete the notes below.
Animal Art
Despite the rather (Q31) ……………………………... animal paintings are nevertheless

impressive.
However, (Q32) …………………………. such artworks are considered rather primitive.
Whilst we might expect apes, (Q33)…………………………………..to have some artistic

talent, other animal species do, too.
Recently, an inter-species exhibition of animal art was held (Q34)………………………………..

such a phenomenon.
Animals, though, tend to adopt an abstract rather than a (Q35)…………………………………….

To art.
Questions 36 – 40: Complete the sentences below.

Today, animal artists are no longer such (Q36)………………………………….. as they once were.
Art equipment and tools need to be species-(Q37)………………………………….. in order for

animals to be creative.
It would seem that Man and animals share (Q38)………………………………………… than at

first thought.
Some animal artworks may, however, be the result of (Q39)…………………………………………
Sceptics are probably best advised, though, to maintain an

(Q40)………………………………………
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12.2. READING
READING PASSAGE 1
Art or Craft?
Down the centuries, craftsmen have been held to be distinct from artists. Craftsmen, such as
woodworkers and plasterers, belonged to their own guild, whilst the artist was regarded as a more
solitary being confined to an existence in a studio or attic. In addition, whilst craftsmen could rely
on a reasonably steady income, artists were often living such a hand-to-mouth existence that the
term ‘starving artist’ became a byword to describe the impoverished existence of artists generally.
Even today, the lifestyles of the craftsman and the artist could not be more different. However, what
exactly separates craft from art from both a practical and a philosophical view?
One of the main distinctions between art and craft resides in the nature of the finished product
or piece. Essentially, the concept of craft is historically associated with the production of useful
or practical products. Art, on the other hand, is not restricted by the confines of practicality. The
craftsman’s teapot or vase should normally be able to hold tea or flowers while the artist’s work is
typically without utilitarian function. In fact, the very reason for art and its existence is purely to ‘be’,
hence the furlined teacup created by Dada artist, Meret Oppenheim. The ‘cup’ as such was quite
obviously never intended for practical use any more than a chocolate teapot might have been.
Artistry in craftsmanship is therefore merely a by-product, since the primary focus is on what
something does, not what it is. The reverse is true for art. Artistic products appeal purely at the
level of the imagination. As the celebrated philosopher, Kant, stated, ‘At its best, art cultivates and
expands the human spirit.’ Whether the artist responsible for a piece of art has sufficient talent to
achieve this is another matter. The goal of all artists nevertheless remains the same: to produce a
work that simultaneously transcends the mundane and uplifts the viewer. In contrast, the world of
the craftsman and his work remain lodged firmly in the practicality of the everyday world. An object
produced by an artist is therefore fundamentally different from the one produced by a craftsman.
Differences between the two disciplines of art and craft extend also to the process required to
produce the finished object. The British philosopher R.G. Collingwood, who set out a list of criteria
that distinguish art from craft, focused on the distinction between the two disciplines in their ‘planning
and execution’. With a craft, Collingwood argued, the ‘result to be obtained is preconceived or thought
out before being arrived at.’ The craftsman, Collingwood says, ‘knows what he wants to make before
he makes it’. This foreknowledge, according to Collingwood, must not be vague but precise. In fact,
such planning is considered to be ‘indispensable’ to craft. In this respect, craft is essentially different
from art. Art is placed by Collingwood at the other end of the creative continuum, the creation of
art being described as a process that evolves non-deterministically. The artist is, therefore, just as
unaware as anyone else as to what the end product of creation will be, when he is actually in the
process of creating. Contrast this with the craftsman who already knows what the end product will
look like before he or she has even begun to create it.
Since the artist is not following a set of standard rules in the process of creation, he or she has
no guidelines like the craftsman. Whilst the table or chair created by the craftsman, for example, has
to conform to certain expectations in appearance and design, no such limitations are imposed on
the artist. For it is the artist alone who, through a trial-and-error approach, will create the final object.
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The object merely evolves over time. Whereas the craftsman can fairly accurately predict when
a product will be finished taking technical procedures into account, the artist can do no such thing.
The artist is at the mercy of inspiration alone and quite apart from not being able to have a projected
finishing date, may never be able to guarantee that the object will be finished at all. Unfinished
symphonies by great composers and works of literature never completed by their authors testify to
this.
Having no definite end-goal in mind, the emphasis on the finished product that is true of
craftsmanship is placed Instead on the act of creation itself with the artist. The creation of the work
of art is an exploration and a struggle and path of discovery for the artist. It could be said that the
artist is producing as much for himself as for those who will view the finished product. This act of
creation is very distinct from the production of an object that is crafted, therefore. The goal of making
craftwork is monetary compensation. Craft is produced for purchase and is essentially a money-gen-
erating industry. Any craftsman who followed the artistic approach to creation would soon be out
of a job. Craftsmen are expected to deliver, artists are not. This is probably the most fundamental
difference that separates the craftsman from the artist.
Questions 1 – 10: Complete the table below. Choose 10 answers from the box and write the
correct letter, A-L, next to questions 1-10
Art Craft
Q1…………………………. Q2…………………………..
End product
Q3…………………………. Q4…………………………..
Q5………………………….. Q6…………………………..
Act of Creation/Production Q7………………………….. Q8…………………………..
Q9………………………….. Q10…………………………
A. the finished object appeals on an emotional and spiritual level

B. the final product has no pretensions to being anything more than it appears
C. only a functional use is considered for the finished object
D. no practical purpose as such is envisaged for the created object
E. the process of creation is merely a means to an end
F. whether or not there is an end product, the product itself is secondary to the process of
creation
G. not having to adhere to a set of rules, the process is a matter of experimentation
H. there is no margin of error for experimentation, all of the process following a set of guidelines
I. its goal is defined from the outset
J. the process is fluid and undefined
K. it is useful but not commercially viable
L. the production process is a mixture of following rules and experimentation
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READING PASSAGE 2
Salvador Dali
Few with even a passing knowledge of the art world are likely not to have heard of Salvador
Dali, the eccentric and avant-garde exponent of the Surrealist movement. Love him or loathe him,
Dali’s work has achieved enduring worldwide fame as his name and work have become virtually
synonymous with Surrealism itself. The artist’s melting clock image is surely one of the most iconic
paintings of the art world, whilst Dali’s antics have become the stuff of anecdotes.
Born into a middle-class family in the Catalonian town of Figueres in north-eastern Spain, Dali
(or Salvador Felipe Jacinto Dali Domenech, to give him his full name) aimed high from the beginning.
In the artist’s 1942 autobiography entitled ‘The Secret Life of Salvador Dali’, the artist wrote: ‘At the
age of six I wanted to be a cook. At seven I wanted to be Napoleon. And my ambition has been
growing steadily ever since.’ Such ambition and self-belief matured into full-blown arrogance in later
years. An example of this is amply shown on an occasion when the artist felt the examiners of the
Madrid Academy, he was attending were well below par.
To a degree, his undeniably impressive and precocious talent excused his conceit. He was
only 14 when his first works were exhibited as part of a show in Figueres. Then three years later
he was admitted to the Royal Academy of Fine Arts of San Fernando, in Madrid. However, it wasn’t
long before Dali’s highly developed sense of self-worth (or conceit, depending on how you view
the artist) came to the fore and also affected the course of his life. Believing himself way superior
to the Academy tutors, who nevertheless refused to grant him a degree, the rebellious artist left for
Paris. There he hoped to avail himself of knowledge that he believed his tutors were not adequate to
impart. He soon made the acquaintance of the French surrealists Jean Arp, Rene Magritte and Max
Ernst and this would prove a turning point in Dali’s artistic life.
Already familiar with the psychoanalytic theories of Sigmund Freud, Dali was to witness how
the French surrealists were attempting to capture Freud’s ideas in paint. The whole world of the
unconscious sublimated into dreams was to become the content of these artists’ work and later
that of Dali’s, too. International acclaim followed shortly after. In 1933 he enjoyed solo exhibitions in
Paris and New York City, becoming, as one exhibition curator put it, ‘Surrealism’s most exotic and
prominent figure’. Praise continued to be heaped on Dali as French poet and critic, Andre Breton, the
leader of the Surrealist movement gave the artist his blessing to continue carrying the torch for the
artistic movement, writing that Dali’s name was ‘synonymous with revelation in the most resplendent
sense of the word’.
Dali’s surrealist paintings were packed with Freudian imagery: staircases, keys, dripping
candles, in addition to a whole host of personally relevant symbolism such as grasshoppers and
ants that captured his phobias on canvas. Despite Dali’s overt adulation for Freud, a meeting with
the grandmaster of psychoanalysis proved somewhat unfortunate. On the occasion that Dali met
Freud, he proceeded to sketch the latter in earnest. However, something about Dali’s fervid attitude
must have alarmed the psychoanalyst as he is said to have whispered to others in the room, ‘The
boy looks like a fanatic.’
Sometimes Dali came across as not only mad but also unintelligible, at least as far as his
paintings were concerned. One work, ‘The Persistence of Memory’, was particularly singled out for
the sheer confusion it caused amongst its viewers. Featuring melting clocks, swarming ants and a
mollusc that was the deflated head of Dali in disguise, the images were so puzzling that one critic
urged readers to ‘page Dr. Freud’ to uncover the meaning of the canvas. His work was, if nothing
else, provocative and powerful.
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With the passing years, Dali became ever more infatuated with money, admitting to a ‘pure,
vertical, mystical, gothic love of cash’. Accordingly, he indiscriminately endorsed a host of products
for French and American TV commercials. Fie also never failed to promote himself and displayed
increasingly exhibitionist behaviour as time went on. Most notably, he once turned up for a lecture
in Paris in a Rolls Royce stuffed with cauliflowers. Fie obviously believed the slogan of one of his
advertising campaigns for Braniff Airlines, where he declares ‘If you got it, flaunt it.’ As a more
positive outcome of his love for money, Dali took on increasingly diverse projects, ranging from set
design to designing clothes and jewellery. His critics, however, believed that early on in his career
his love for money exceeded his dedication to producing great art, resulting in Dali producing ‘awful
junk’ after 1939, according to one art critic.
Despite a lukewarm reception from critics, Dali’s public popularity never declined. In 1974, at
70 years old, the Dali Theatre Museum opened in his hometown, Figueres. More of a surrealist
happening than a museum, one exhibit was a long black Cadillac that rained inside itself whenever
a visitor dropped a coin into the slot. Even today hundreds of thousands of visitors still tour the
museum each year. Whatever your opinion of him, at least Dali is unlikely to ever be forgotten.
Questions 11 – 13: Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-E, below.
Write the correct letter, A-E, next to questions 11-13.
A. of certain limitations in his artistic skills that became

evident in his later works.
B. opened Dali’s eyes to the psychoanalytic movement,

the ideas of which he then incorporated into his works. Q11. Dali displayed a precocious talent
from an early age; however, he was aware
C. his artistic studies needed to be supplemented by
going to Paris to meet the Surrealist artists. Q12. Encountering the French Surrealist
painters in Paris
D. dome art critics are less impressed with his work
than the general public. Q13. Dali’s artistic legacy is secure although
E. inspired Dali to focus on the psychoanalytic content

of his artwork.
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Questions 14 – 16: Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D
Q14. Dali’s departure for Paris was...
A. inspired by a desire to learn about psychoanalysis.

B. a result of being disgraced at the Madrid Academy.
C. to blame for his failure to complete his Academy degree.
D. a quest for self-improvement.
Q15. Dali came to represent the Surrealist movement...
A. due to a personal endorsement by fellow artist, Andre Breton.

B. because he depicted the most memorable images of Surrealism.
C. as he had a better understanding of psychoanalysis than his fellow artists.
D. since he was no more talented, as an artist, than his peers.
Q16. Dali’s work was...
A. accessible to those with an understanding of psychoanalysis.

B. loaded with secret symbolism.
C. more a channel for personal expression than a financial undertaking.
D. to prove more popular as Dali grew older.
Questions 17 – 18: There are two correct answers. Choose two letters from A, B, C, D and E.
What is Dali most likely to be remembered for?
A. His contribution to the field of psychoanalysis
B. His diverse output of artistic works
C. His inappropriate behaviour and eccentricity
D. His striking and unusual paintings
E. His attempt to create popular accessible works
Questions 19 – 21: Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Q19. What does the writer convey about Dali’s childhood and student days?
A. his inability to pursue a goal until its conclusion

B. his mental instability, evident in his grandiose ambitions
C. his supreme confidence in his own abilities
D. his obviously superior intelligence
Q20. Why did critics turn against Dali?
A. It was a reaction to his increasingly obscure works.

B. He was devoting more time to TV commercials than painting.
C. His work no longer did justice to his talent.
D. His obsession with Surrealism overshadowed his work.
Q21. What does the writer convey about his own attitude towards Dali’s life and work?
A. He believes that despite promising beginnings, Dali wasted his talents.

B. In his opinion, few artists have made such an impact as Dali during his lifetime.
C. He thinks that people focused more on Dali’s exhibitionist behaviour than his talent.
D. He believes that despite his failings, Dali has left an enduring legacy.
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Questions 22-26: Complete the summary below.
Use NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Dali has managed to achieve (Q22)……………………………. becoming the figurehead

of the Surrealist movement. His sheer (Q23)……………………………. which for some
might have been interpreted as arrogance, led him to believe he was capable of
achieving anything. Moving to France, where he encountered Surrealist artists, was
a (Q24)……………………………………. in his life. Dali’s work was chiefly inspired by
Freud’s (Q25)…………………………………….. theories. However, as Dali became
increasingly infatuated with money, the standard of his art declined. Despite the fact that
his work is of varying quality, Dali will never (Q26)………………………………………….
READING PASSAGE 3
The Beginnings of Art Therapy
Art therapy is a relative newcomer to the therapeutic field. Art therapy as a profession began
in the mid-20th century, arising independently in English-speaking and European countries. Many
of the early practitioners of art therapy acknowledged the influence of a variety of disciplines on
their practices, ranging from psychoanalysis through to aesthetics and early childhood education.
However, the roots of art as therapy go back as far as the late 18th century, when arts were used in
the ‘moral treatment’ of psychiatric patients.
It wasn’t until 1942, however, that the British artist Adrian Hill coined the term ‘art therapy’, as he
was recovering from tuberculosis in a sanatorium. He discovered that therapeutic benefits could be
derived from drawing and painting whilst recovering. Art, he claimed, could become therapeutic since
it was capable of ‘completely engrossing the mind... releasing the creative energy of the frequently
inhibited patient’. This effect, argued Hill, could in turn help the patient as it would ‘build up a strong
defence against his misfortunes’.
In 1964, the British Association of Art Therapists was founded. Proponents of art therapy fell into
one of two categories: those who believed that the therapeutic effect of art lay in its effectiveness as
a psychoanalytic tool to assess a patient through their drawings and those who held the belief that
art-making was an end in itself, the creative process acting therapeutically on the patient. The two
practices, however, were not incompatible, a degree of overlap occurring between the two. A patient,
for example, could produce work that could be analysed for content and forms of self-expression but
which could also be a creative outlet at the same time.
Who Benefits from Art Therapy

Art therapy in all its forms has proved effective in the treatment of individuals suffering with
a wide range of difficulties or disabilities. These include emotional, behavioural or mental health
problems, learning or physical disabilities. These include emotional, behaviour or mental health
problems, learning or physical disabilities, neurological conditions and physical illness. Therapy can
be provided on a group or individual basis according to the clients’ needs. Whether the approach
adopted by the therapist is oriented towards a psychoanalytic or creative approach, the effect of
therapy is multifold. Partaking in art therapy can raise a patient’s self-awareness and enable them to
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deal with stress and traumatic experience. In addition, art therapy sessions can enhance a patient’s
cognitive abilities and help the patient enjoy the life-affirming pleasures of making art.
What an Art Therapy Session Involves
Typically, an art therapy session is fundamentally different from an art class in that the individual
is encouraged to focus more on their internal feelings and to express them, rather than portray external
objects. Although some traditional art classes may ask participants to draw from their imagination,
in art therapy the patient’s inner world of images, feelings, thoughts and ideas are always of primary
importance to the experience. Any type of visual art and medium can be employed in the therapeutic
process including painting, drawing, sculpture, photography and digital art.
Art therapy sessions are usually held by skilled and qualified professionals. The presence
primarily of the therapist is to be in attendance, guiding and encouraging artistic expression in the
patient, in accordance with the original meaning of the word for therapy derived from the Greek word
‘therapeia’, meaning ‘being attentive to’.
The Regulation of Art Therapy
Requirements for those wishing to become an art therapist vary from country to country. In
the USA, where entry to the profession is highly regulated, a master’s degree in art therapy is
essential. In addition, those applying for such a post must have taken courses in a variety of studio
art disciplines in order to demonstrate artistic proficiency. On completion of the master’s degree,
candidates also have to complete a minimum of 1000 hours of direct client contact post-graduation
that is approved by the American Art Therapy Association (AATA).
However, whilst entry to the profession is strictly regulated in the USA, the same does not hold
true for other countries. The problem is that art therapy is still considered a developing field. As such,
until it becomes truly established as a therapy, its practice and application will remain unregulated in
many countries for some time yet.
Question 27 – 33: Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
Q27. The artist Adrian Hill was strongly influenced by psychoanalytic theories when formulating his
ideas on art therapy.
Q28. Twentieth-century art therapy focuses on treating a client’s mental or physical health problems
rather than dealing with moral issues.
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Q29. Approaches to art therapy can be broadly considered to be creative or psychoanalytic; however,
practitioners tend to avoid combining the two schools of practice.
Q30. Clients who respond best to art therapy have a previous background in art.
Q31. Art therapy sessions are more concerned with expression through art than on the created art
itself.
Q32. Many art therapists are insufficiently qualified as they are not aware of the regulations regarding
the practice of art therapy.
Q33. Art therapy sessions involve limited interaction between therapist and client.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
The early pioneers of art therapy admitted that their beliefs had been shaped by a
(Q34)………………………………….. influences.
Artist Adrian Hill realised the (Q35)………………………………… of art as therapy and coined the
term ‘art therapy’ in 1942.
Those supporting art therapy advised a psychoanalytic approach or alternatively one that placed
more emphasis on the (Q36)………………………………… itself,
Whilst theories behind art therapy may differ, they are (Q37)………………………………….. in practice.
Questions 38-40: Complete the summary with the list of words, A-F.
Write the correct letter, A-F, in spaces 38-40 below.
How Art Therapy Evolved into Its Modern Form

A. capable
B. strong Modern-day art therapy has its beginnings in the 1940s. Adrian Hill, one of its
early pioneers, realised that art therapy was effective in helping patients create
C. keen
a Q38…………………………………… resistance to psychological and social
D. inhibited stresses. Hill considered that Q39……………………………….. patients would
E. creative particularly benefit form having an artistic outlet. Art therapy then developed into
F. therapeutic two types of practice, one emphasising a psychoanalytic approach and the other
a more Q40…………………………………………. one. Today there is often an
overlap between the two practices.
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UNIT VII: TRAFFIC
13.1. SPEAKING
PART 1
1. How do you travel to work from where you live?
2. What traffic problems are there in your area?
3. How do traffic problems affect you?
4. How often do you take buses?
5. Do you like to use bicycles for travelling short distances?
6. What public transport options do you choose to travel?
7. Have you ever walked instead of using vehicles?
PART 2
Describe a vehicle that you Describe an occasion when

would like to buy? you travel by airplane or train
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
Describe a journey you made Describe a time you got stuck

by public transportation in a traffic jam
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
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PART 3
1) What do you think will become the most popular means of transport in your country?
2) Do you think people will drive more in the future?
3) What are the advantages of travelling by planes, compared to other vehicles?
4) Are there any disadvantages of travelling by plane?
5) What are the benefits of public transportation?
6) Why do some people prefer private vehicles to public transport?
7) What are some effective ways to reduce traffic congestion?
8) How can the government encourage people to use public transport?
13.2. WRITING
Task 1: Bar chart

The bar chart shows information on consumer spending on home video entertainment in the US in 2017.
Summarise the information and write a 150-word passage.
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Task 2: (Advantages and Disadvantages)

Electric buses are becoming more and more popular and being aimed to be the priority means of
transportation in the future.
What do you think are the advantages and disadvantages of this mean of transport?
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UNIT VII: TRAFFIC
WEEK 7 ASSIGNMENT
Research the traffic conditions in India and come up with some solutions to reduce the traffic jam
CAUSES POSSIBLE SOLUTIONS

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14.1. LISTENING
PART 1
Crime report form
Crime: Example:.....theft
Name of victim: Mrs. (Q1)…………………………………….
Victim’s details Address: (Q2)………………………. Avenue Park Road, Swindon
Postcode: (Q3)………………………………..
Any distinguishing features:

Two (Q4)……………………………………. and a black shoulder
Article stolen: Bag
strap
A (Q5)……………………………………… fastener on the top
A (Q6)…………………………………….. with some money as well

Contents
as a (Q7)………………………………
Victim’s contact number: (Q8)……………………………………..

Other details Crime number: (Q9)……………………………………..
Victim to be contacted: (Q10)……………………………………
PART 2
Questions 11-15: Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR
A NUMBER for each answer.
Bentham’s Panopticon
Designed: In the (Q11)……………………………
Overall layout: Cells arranged in (Q12)………………………. around central

guard tower
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UNIT VII: TRAFFIC
Individual cell Cells looked like (Q13)…………………………. cute into pieces.

design:
Effect: Prisoners would (Q14)…………………………
Purpose: To reduce (Q15)……………………………
Questions 16-20 Label the identification sheet below. Write the correct letter, A-G, next to
questions 16-20.
Q16. Bentham’s Panopticon Q18. Crawfordsville jail, Indiana

Q17. Pottawattamie County jail Q19. Gallatin Missouri jail
Q20. Halden prison, Norway

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PART 3
Q21. The Ratcliffe murders were particularly shocking...
A. since they remained unsolved.

B. because they showed failings in the police force.
C. as the privacy of the home was violated.
D. since the victims’ homes were also burgled.
Q22. Victims of burglaries are particularly...
A. fearful of not being safe in their own house.

B. traumatised by theft of personal items.
C. upset by the inconvenience.
D. annoyed with themselves at not having properly secured their homes.
Q23. Before the formation of the Metropolitan Police Force...
A. criminal records did not exist.

B. most criminal records were inaccurate.
C. local police officers held no power.
D. policing was not centralised.
Q24. Both the Ratcliffe and Ripper murders...
A. remain unsolved.
B. were probably committed by more than one person.
C. exposed faults in policing systems.
D. happened in the eighteenth century.
Q25. When the Metropolitan Police Force was first formed...
A. all UK police forces had to answer to it.

B. the public was disapproving.
C. a new era of policing started.
D. its faults were immediately apparent.
Questions 26 – 30: What does the lecturer say about the following? Write the correct letter, A,
B or C, next to questions 26-30.
Q26. The Bow Street Runners

A. not in possession of firearms Q27. Night Watchmen
B. paid by local government Q28. Constables
C. non-discriminatory Q29. The Metropolitan Police Force
Q30. Contemporary Police Forces
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PART 4
Questions 31 – 36: Label the diagram below.

Q31………………………
Q32………………………
Q33………………………
Q34………………………
Q35………………………
Q36………………………

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Questions 37 – 40: Complete the flow chart below.
The process of reaching a court verdict
Once all court evidence is given and examined, the judge will summarise the case.
Usually the contents of the summary are (Q37)…………………………………. a meeting between
the judge and the lawyers for the defence and for the prosecution
The summing up may be split into two sections: a legal component and a summary.
In the former section, legal procedure is outlined and (Q38)……………………………….. is given
of the accusation being made against the defendant
In the latter section, the judge tries to ensure (Q39)…………………………….summing up of the case.
The judge will stress the importance of reaching a unanimous verdict to the jury.
Before the jury retires, the judge may offer written guidelines, known as the
‘(Q40)…………………………….. to verdict’
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UNIT VII: TRAFFIC
14.2. READING
READING PASSAGE 1
Prison: The Solution or the Problem?
In the Netherlands and parts of the USA such as Johnson County, a move towards rehabilitation
of offenders and decreasing crime has seen a reduction in incarceration rates. Bucking this trend,
the UK’s prison population has increased by an average rate of 3.6% per year since 1993. As the
situation currently stands, England’s and Wales’ incarceration rate is 148 per 100,000 compared
to 98 in France, 82 in the Netherlands and 79 in Germany. Without a shadow of a doubt, out of all
European countries, the UK has adopted the most hard-line approach to offenders.
The trend towards imposing prison sentences on offenders in the UK is made to seem all the
more harsh since the Dutch Justice Ministry is actively in the process of systematically closing down
prisons. In the period between 2010-2015, 28 prisons were closed in total. If anything, the Dutch
reform of the prison system has been accelerating at a phenomenal pace, with 19 of the prisons
being shut down in 2014 alone.
As would be expected, closures of prisons in the Netherlands have led to a drop in the numbers
of incarcerated offenders. This is also largely due to the fact that those convicted are choosing
electronic tagging instead of incarceration. However, there is more to these statistics than meets the
eye. Defying all expectations of the pro-incarceration lobbyists, crime rates in the Netherlands are
also actually decreasing in direct proportion to the closure of prisons.
With such statistics laid bare for all to see, many are now beginning to question the validity of
incarceration as a method of reforming offenders. All the more so since the average prison place
costs the taxpayer £37,648 per year - a hefty sum for a service that fails to deliver, especially since
there are vastly cheaper and more effective methods to deal with offenders. Allowing offenders to be
tagged electronically rather than be incarcerated would save around £35 million per year for every
1000 convicted offenders. Serving a probation or community service order would also be 12 times
less costly than the average prison placement for an offender.
More tellingly, a decreased incidence of relapse into criminal behaviour when offenders receive
a community sentence, rather than a custodial one, has been revealed in re-offending statistics
issued by the UK Ministry of Justice. There is definitely an argument that serving a prison term
tends to create rather than alleviate the problem of crime. As a Conservative white paper concluded
in 1990, ‘We know that prison is an expensive way of making bad people worse.’ Interestingly, the
report also argued that there should be a range of community-based sentences which would be
cheaper and more effective alternatives to prison.
Quite apart from the cost and relative ineffectiveness of incarceration is the short-sightedness of
imposing a custodial sentence in the first place. A punitive system of incarceration presupposes that
the prisoner needs to be punished for bad behaviour. Since the prisoner is considered answerable
for their behaviour, it is believed that they are also completely responsible for their actions. Such an
approach overlooks social and economic factors that can play an integral role in the incidence of
crime. Such an oversight only serves to perpetuate crime and punish offenders who need help rather
than a penal sentence.

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It would do no harm for the UK to look to the Netherlands for an example in reducing crime
through addressing social problems as a key to reducing incarceration. In the Netherlands, the focus
is on deterring crime by investing in social services rather than seeking purely to punish the offender.
In addition, those who do offend are helped with rehabilitation programmes.Overlooking the social
circumstances of the offender can also be detrimental to children’s welfare, especially if a mother
is convicted and given a custodial sentence. Often childcare arrangements are not in place when
custodial sentences are handed down to mothers caring for children. In fact, research suggests
that more than half of the women who go to court are not expecting a custodial sentence, leading
to provisions made for the children being haphazard at best. The number of children who fall foul of
the custodial system in this way totals a staggering 17,000 per year. Worse still, figures show that
adult children of imprisoned mothers are more likely to be convicted of a crime than adult children of
imprisoned fathers. Viewing the offender and their crime in isolation and disregarding all other social
and environmental factors is therefore mistaken, if not downright morally reprehensible.
All evidence would seem to point to a much-needed shake-up of the English penal system. As
things stand, there are too many losers and no identifiable winners. It was Dostoevsky who said:
‘The degree of civilisation in a society is revealed by entering its prisons.’ Maybe we would do better
to go one step further and amend his quotation to ‘The degree of civilisation in a society is revealed
by not having prisons and instead by addressing social issues in society itself.’
Choose NO MORE THAN T HREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
A decrease in crime in the Netherlands and parts of the US is attributable more to the
(Q1)…………………………………. than to their incarceration.
Closure of prisons in the Netherlands (Q2)………………………………… at an unprecedented rate

over recent years.
Against (Q3)………………………………… the Netherlands are seeing a drop in crime along with the
closure of prisons.
Since statistics do not support the argument for incarceration this has made many
(Q4)………………………………. of such a practice.
In fact, incarceration may serve to fuel rather (Q5)………………………………….. crime, thereby

defeating the purpose of such a punishment.
In recognition of the fact that custodial sentences achieve little, less costly and
(Q6)……………………………….. were put forward by the Conservatives in 1990.
Crime is not only down to individual behaviour but is also a result of (Q7)…………………………………
influences
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Questions 8 – 13: Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text? For
questions 8-13, write:

Q8. Mothers who receive a custodial sentence are worse role models for their children than fathers
who receive similar justice.
Q9. Custodial sentences are intended primarily to reform prisoners.
Q10. Factors other than an individual’s guilt are rarely taken into account by the English judicial
system.
Q11. A proven link exists between mothers receiving a custodial sentence and their offspring
committing crimes in later life.
Q12. The English judicial system stands to benefit from incarcerating offenders.
Q13. There are signs that custodial sentences are becoming less popular in the UK.
READING PASSAGE 2
Physiology and Criminality
Prior to the 19th century, criminality was considered more of a moral or philosophical issue. Only
with the advent of Italian anthropologist Cesare Lombroso did the subject of criminality take a more
scientific turn. With the publication of his theories of criminal behaviour, Lombroso advanced the
idea that criminal behaviour was attributable to physiological disposition rather than to any existential
reasons.
In his ‘atavistic form’ theory published in 1876, Lombroso claimed that criminality was heritable. He
proposed that a distinct biological class of people were prone to criminality. Such people, he claimed,
exhibited ‘atavistic’ or primitive features and were ‘throwbacks’, bearing physical resemblances to
Man’s predecessors, the Neanderthals. Characterised by a strong, well-defined jaw and heavy brow,
they certainly had little to recommend them in the beauty stakes. With such features, coupled with a
tendency towards criminal behaviour, Lombroso’s atavistic type was certainly not cut out for social
success. Just for good measure, Lombroso also included other distinguishing features to identify
criminals, such as bloodshot eyes and curly hair for murderers and thick lips and protruding ears for
sex offenders. It has to be wondered, given the unusual appearance with which they were credited,
how such individuals would have got close enough to their victims to begin with and, more to the
point, how any such criminals hoped to get away with their crime, seeing as they were so readily
identifiable.
In hindsight, Lombroso’s hypothesis seems ludicrous and deeply flawed. One major failing in
Lombroso’s theory of an atavistic type is that no proper controls were used in studies designed to
support his hypo-thesis. All individuals were confined to a criminal population, no comparison being
made at the time with non-criminal control groups. Secondly, the concept of what constitutes a crime

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is in itself a social construct and can vary cross-culturally and over time. Therefore, the argument
that criminal behaviour is inherited is hard to sustain. Finally, in the light of modern genetic research,
complex behaviours are not considered to be controlled by single genes, thereby completely ruling
out any possibility of inherited criminality.
Surprisingly, given his strong conviction of a biological disposition towards criminality, Lombroso
later modified his views to admit environmental influences in determining criminal behaviour.
Such views now form the basis of contemporary theories of criminality. In recognition of this fact,
contemporary criminologists have bestowed on Lombroso the honorary title ‘the father of criminology’.
Furthermore, despite scientific failings in his experimental approach, Lombroso is to be credited with
shifting the study of criminal behaviour from a moral basis to an empirical one, thereby placing the
study of criminology on a more scientific footing.
The argument for a biological basis to criminality resurfaced, however, nearly a century later
with Sheldon’s theory of somatotypes. In 1949, Sheldon advanced the theory that individuals fell
within three broad physical types: the ectomorph, mesomorph and endomorph. The ectomorph
was essentially thin, the mesomorph muscular and athletic, whilst the endomorph type was said
to be fat and rather lethargic. Each physical type, Sheldon claimed, was associated with a distinct
personality and temperament. Ectomorphs were characterised by a solitary and restrained nature,
whilst mesomorphs were said to be adventurous and endomorphs relaxed and pleasure-loving.
Unfortunately for the mesomorphs, Sheldon also claimed that those corresponding to this physical
type had criminal tendencies. By linking inherited physical types with personality, Sheldon thereby
was hypothesising a hereditary aspect to criminal behaviour. Sheldon’s studies of mesomorphic
college students did to some extent confirm his theory as did a later study conducted by Putwain
and Sammons as recently as 2002. In partial support of Sheldon’s theory, an increased level of
testosterone associated with a mesomorphic build could explain such a biological disposition
towards criminality associated with a particular body type. However, social prejudices and self-fulfill-
ing prophecies could also be at play in the above average correlation between mesomorphic types
and criminal behaviour in society.
Following on from Sheldon’s hypothesis, a further argument for a biological disposition to
criminality was proposed in the 1960s. This time, hereditary tendencies were linked to genetic defect
or chromosomal abnormality. Variations of the normal ‘XY’ genetic component or genotype of males
were hypothesised to determine criminal behaviour from homicide to violent crime. The theory was
based on the unproven assumption that possession of an extra ‘X’ chromosome ‘feminises’ a man
and so conversely having an extra male ‘Y’ chromosome should make a man more masculine and
aggressive. However, this somewhat weak hypothesis was severely undermined by the study of Epps
in 1995. Epps demonstrated that possessing an extra ‘Y’ chromosome, as in the ‘XYY’ genotype,
made an individual no more likely to commit violent crime than anyone else. The further finding that
testosterone levels amongst ‘XYY’ men are no different from ‘XY’ men and that the former are no
more aggressive than the latter sounded the final death knell for the hypothesis of a criminal type
determined by genotype alone.
At least those who place trust in rehabilitation programmes to reform criminal types can now
breathe a sigh of relief. It would seem that the rather pessimistic prognosis for individuals born with
a certain physique or genotype no longer holds credence in scientific circles. If biological predispo-
sition does play a role in criminality, it seems to be at least tempered by environmental and social
factors to a large extent.
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Questions 14 – 24: Complete the timeline diagram below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS from the passage for each answer.
1876
No longer is criminality confined to a (Q14)……………………………… realm.
Italian scientist, Lombroso proposes a (Q15)………………………………. to criminality.
A biological theory of criminality presupposes that such a condition is (Q16)………………………………
Criminal types are claimed to be (Q17)…………………………………
distinctive ‘atavistic’ or primitive features.
1949
In common with Lombroso, Sheldon proposes a (Q18)……………………………… to criminality.
Body types are (Q19)……………………………….. particular dispositions.
Mesomorphs are types considered to have (Q20)………………………………..
1960s
(Q21)………………………………… is now implicated in a biological disposition towards criminality.
An additional ‘Y’ chromosome is associated with more (Q22)…………………………………… males.
The proposed link between criminality and genotype is (Q23)…………………………………….. Epps’
study of 1995.
Today
A purely biological basis to criminality is discredited.
Genetic factors are thought to be moderated by (Q24)…………………………………. elements.
Questions 25 – 26: Choose two letters, A-E.
A. Overwhelming evidence exists in support of a biological predisposition towards crime.

B. Lombroso’s experimental work has been completely discredited by modern scientists.
C. Modern criminologists believe that Lombroso hindered rather than helped the advance of
criminology.
D. Recently there has been a shift away from the emphasis of biological factors as a basis of
criminality.
E. Biological evidence may partially support Sheldon’s theory of somatotypes.

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READING PASSAGE 3
Jack the Ripper: A Bungled Investigation?
Few murder enquiries have stirred the public imagination to such an extent as those relating to
Jack the Ripper. The report of murders worthy of a depraved savage simultaneously appalled and
enthralled Victorian society as the 19th century came to a close. The unleashing of a serial killer
onto the London scene caught police unprepared as did the unprecedented brutality of the killings
which earned their perpetrator the nickname ‘Jack the Ripper’. So, given the heightened public
interest and the existence of a police force more competent than ever before since the formation of
the Metropolitan Police in 1829, it has to be asked: why did the Ripper evade capture and why was
no one even charged with the five murders attributed to the Ripper?
Conspiracy theorist would have us believe that the identity of the Ripper was, contrary to public
belief, unmasked by police. However, the truth about the Ripper’s identity proved so unpalatable that
it had to be hushed up. Far-fetched as it may seem, Queen Victoria’s grandson, Prince Albert Victor,
was thought by some to be the Ripper himself. Whilst he did frequent places of ill repute, there is
no tangible evidence to support this somewhat sensationalist theory. In fact, the Ripper may have
successfully evaded the police for far more prosaic reasons.
Back in 1888, when the Ripper began his reign of terror in the streets of Whitechapel, forensic
science was barely in its infancy. Rudimentary knowledge existed as to the necessity of keeping
a murder scene intact to preserve vital clues but the means to thoroughly analyse such evidence
through DNA testing was light years away still. In fact it was only with the publication of Hans Gross’
‘A Handbook for Examining Magistrates, Police Officials, Military Police, etc.’ in 1893 that the
foundation for forensic science was laid. It was too late, however, to help the Ripper investigation
that floundered in its ignorance of modern forensic techniques.
The Ripper investigation also just missed out on developments in fingerprint identification
that might have led police to the identity of the Ripper. Nearly a decade prior to the first Ripper
murder, Dr. Henry Faulds had published a letter in the scientific journal Nature in 1880. In the letter
he outlined for the first time the possibility of using fingerprints for identification purposes. It was
only in 1896 that Sir Francis Galton, Inspector General of Bengal Police, sought to put theory into
practice. Using the new-found method of ‘dactyloscopy’ (later known as fingerprinting) he employed
the technique to successfully identify criminals. Again, new technology arrived just too late for the
Ripper investigators.
Whilst investigative police could not be blamed for a lack of forensic knowledge, their failure
to apply known investigative methods to the crime scene certainly smacked of incompetence.
Photographing the crime scene was not exactly standard practice of the time but it was a known
procedure. Unfortunately the officers leading the investigation at the time saw fit to only photograph
one of the Ripper’s victims, a certain Mary Kelly, at the crime scene. Even more bizarrely, photographs
of the victim were more centred on photographing her eyes to the neglect of all else. The reason
or ‘forlorn hope’ as cited by Inspector Walter Dew was that the imprint of the Ripper might have
been recorded on the victim’s retina at the time of her death. No conclusions were drawn from the
undertaking.
Another more serious criticism that has been levelled at the investigative police at the time is
their deliberate tampering with evidence. It is well-known that a semi-illiterate message was scrawled
above one of the Ripper’s victims. However, before it could be properly analysed, the investigating
officer ordered that it be removed as it was thought to implicate the Jews and racial repercussions
were feared. the motive was well-intended but this action may have destroyed vital clues.
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A final problem was the lack of co-operation that existed not just between the Press and the
police but also between law enforcement agencies themselves. With regard to the former problem,
police distrust if the Press led to limited information being released to the newspapers. This was due
to a fear that information made public could alert a suspect or waste time in throwing up false leads.
Unfortunately, if information had been circulated in the public arena, important information might
have been uncovered that would have led to the arrest of the Ripper. As regards the law enforcement
agencies, in-fighting and rivalry between the City and Metropolitan Police Forces served to delay
exchange of information and so further hinder proceedings.
Questions 27 – 32: Complete the diagram below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
DNA is left unexamined as no (Q27)………………………………… yet is available to analyse it.

Fingerprints are not used (Q28)……………………………………..
Only one of the Ripper’s (Q29)………………………………………. is photographed at the crime scene.
Images taken are (Q30)…………………………………. capturing the victim’s eyes.
Vital written evidence is (Q31)………………………………….. on the orders of a police investigator.
Investigators representing rival (Q32)…………………………………… fail to exchange information.

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Questions 33 – 38: Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from
the passage for each answer.
What is so startling about the Ripper case is how the murderer managed to
(Q33)…………………………….. against the odds.
Only on closer investigation does the reason become more apparent.
Often a (Q34)…………………………….. was disturbed, destroying vital evidence within it.
Only later, with (Q35)…………………………….. a book by Hans Gross, were more scientific
investigative methods introduced.
Until then there was a lack of knowledge of (Q36)………………………………….
In 1896 Sir Francis Galton used a (Q37)……………………………….. method known as dactyloscopy.
This method was to greatly aid the police in identifying criminals.
Curiously, investigative methods known to police at the time were often not employed.
Crime scene photography was rarely (Q38)……………………………………... for example.
Questions 39 – 40: Choose two letters, A-E.
A. Limited forensic knowledge probably affected the outcome of the Ripper case.
B. The Ripper murders convinced the police of a need for mor sophisticated investigative methods.
C. Disagreement existed amongst the police as to what information should be released to the Press.
D. Whilst rivalry existed amongst the police, they were united in their dislike of the press.
E. The police investigating the Ripper murders made good use of what techniques were available to
them at the time.
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UNIT VIII: SOCIAL SKILLS

15.1. SPEAKING
Pair up and discuss these following questions
PART 1
1. What skills does your current job require?

2. What skill of yours do you think is going to help you in the future?
3. What skill of yours do you want to improve?
4. What qualities do you seek in a friend of yours?
5. Are you a punctual person?
6. Are you a perfectionist?
7. If you have to describe yourself in 1 word, what would it be?
8. What quality of yours are you most proud of?
PART 2
Describe one time you did Describe one time you talk to a
something that made you feel complete stranger.
embarrassed in public. You should say:
You should say: - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….……………
Describe one time other Describe a time you have to

people make you proud. speak in front of the audience.
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
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PART 3
1. What skills do you think employers seek in their candidates?

2. What skills do you think working environment require?
3. How important is communication skills to nowadays career?
4. What do you think is more important? Being punctual or being precise?
5. Do you think enterprises nowadays will prioritize multi-talented candidates?
6. What qualities make a great student?
7. What qualities make a great leader?
8. What qualities make a great teacher?
15.2. WRITING
Task 1: Table
The table below shows the amount of burgers consumed by teenagers per month in 4 different
countries from 2015 to 2018
Write an essay at least 150 words.
USA Canada England Ireland
2015 12 6 10 2
2016 16 7 15 6
2017 17 6 22 5
2018 17 4 25 8
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Task 2: Agree/ Disagree essay

People say that social skills is as important as academic qualifications.
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WEEK 8 ASSIGNMENT
Watch the movie “Eighth Grade” and write a short essay on this question
1. Should the children be free to explore the outside world without parental guidance?
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16.1. LISTENING
PART 1
Questions 1 – 7: Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A
NUMBER for each answer.
Mobile Phone Camera Features/

Pricing Appearance Extra notes
Model Battery Power
8-megapixel Special
Example: £ (Q1)……………… Very camera Battery features include
Apple iPhone on a fixed (Q2)………………. lasts for 8 (Q3)……………
24-month Weighing only hours talk time, service in
7S 32GB contract 140 grammes and Standby, 200 addition to a
hours GPS
13-megapixel Quad HD screen
(Q4)……………….
£40 monthly for camera Talk time 19 that is four times
than the iPhone,
LG G8 a fixed 24-month hours, and standby the pixel count
weighing 149
contract time (Q5)………… of a normal HD
grammes
hours screen
Camera lacks
(Q7)…………….
£20 for handset Surprisingly light, Flip top phone
at 131 grammes Talk time: 2.5
(Q6)…………. Pay-as-you-go Hard keys - not
hours
contract touch screen
Standby time: 75
hours
Questions 8 – 10 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A
Customer order form
Model on order Date due in store Customer name Contact number

Apple Iphone 7S (Q8)………………… (Q9)…………………. (Q10)…………………
32GB - April 8th
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PART 2
Questions 11 – 15: Label the floor plan below. Write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions
11-15.
Q11. Unisex toilet
Q12. Eye wash / Emergency shower
Q13. Chest freezer
Q14. Walk-in cooler
Q15. Walk-in freezer
Q16. The speaker is assuming that laboratory workers...
A. are unfamiliar with the Health and Safety Procedure.

B. are fully aware of the Health and Safety Procedure.
C. need to be reminded about the Health and Safety Procedure.
Q17. All experiments...
A. are at the discretion of the Health and Safety Officer.

B. need written approval.
C. only need to be referred to the Health and Safety Officer in special cases.
Q18. If projects are not approved by the Health and Safety Officer...
A. an alternative project has to be undertaken.

B. the project may be reconsidered if required alterations are made to the project.
C. details of the project must be written down as a standard operating procedure.
19. It is not permissible to remove...
A. waste materials from the laboratory.

B. samples and clothing from the laboratory.
C. contaminated objects, such as needles, from the laboratory.
Q20. Contaminated objects e.g. needles...
A. need to be immediately removed from the laboratory.

B. are to be stored in special containers overnight.
C. need to be removed from the laboratory at the end of the working day.
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PART 3
Q21. Annette thinks the lecture will...
A. not be of personal interest.
B. be about an irrelevant subject.
C. coincide with a lecture on Computer Science.
Q22. Mark believes that microchip implant technology ...
A. will benefit everyone.
B. is likely not to be well-received by most people.
C. will have great potential.
Q23. In Mark’s opinion, microchip implant technology...
A. was not really predicted by science fiction.
B. has not yet left the realms of science fiction.
C. was fairly accurately predicted in science fiction.
Q24. Implanting a microchip is...
A. completely painless.
B. barely noticeable.
C. quite painful.
Q25. Microchips are...
A. fitted into the thumbnail.
B. placed beneath the skin’s layer.
C. placed onto the skin’s surface
Questions 26 – 30: What does Annette say about the following? Write the correct letter, A,
B or C, next to questions 26-30.
Q26. turning on electrical appliances

A. She agrees. Q27. accessing medical records
B. She is undecided. Q28. security systems
C. She disagrees. Q29. finding lost pets
Q30. a GPS system
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PART 4
Questions 31 – 35: Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each
answer.
Drone technology is (Q31)………………………. amongst people of all ages and from all walks of life.
Whether for work-related or purely (Q32)………………………….. use, everyone is seemingly
fascinated by drones.
In the US, drone technology is a booming (Q33)……………………………, set to create up to 70,000
new jobs.
E-commerce delivery is probably the most novel and (Q34)…………………………. use envisaged
for drones so far.
Although Amazon was keen to take up the idea of a drone-based (Q35)……………………………
plans have stopped for now.
Questions 36 – 40: Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for
each answer.
Drone-based delivery services fail to conform to US (Q36)…………………………….. thereby making

them illegal in the US.
Due to (Q37)……………………………….. laws in the UK, drones may soon become big business in
this country.
Currently the UK has made a successful venture into drone-based (Q38)………………………………..
Problems have arisen with the new technology due to people not confining their drones to a
(Q39)………………………………..
If (Q40)……………………………….. are brought in, however, the drone industry will not become
very big very quickly.
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16.2. READING
READING PASSAGE 1
3D Printers
Ever wished you could find a pair of shoes to match your outfit? Fancy a pizza but don’t want to
go out or wait for your delivery service to arrive? Simple. All you need is a 3D home printer. Whilst
admittedly not yet mainstream technology, it is only a matter of time until the 3D printer becomes
as much a part of the domestic furniture as the statutory TV or the washing machine. Currently,
however, the technology remains firmly in the province of geeks and gadget lovers.
The design of the 3D home printer is nevertheless refreshingly simple. Its components are
relatively few, and could theoretically be assembled by anyone with a rudimentary knowledge of
mechanics and technological know-how. The 3 main elements of the printer are a metal framework
which contains the mechanical part of the printer, a printer control board and a PC. The PC is
connected via USB to the printer control board, which in turn is connected to the framework of the
printer and attached to the side of the latter. A plastic filament of around 3m m in diameter feeds
into the printer from an external source, connecting to the extruder motor inside the printer. During
printing, the controlled movement of the extruder motor ensures the correct volume of plastic is
used. The extruder motor in turn is connected to a heated extruder or ‘hot end’ that heats the plastic
filament during printing. As the heated plastic emerges or is ‘extruded’ to use the correct terminology,
it cools and is arranged in layers to create a solid 3D model.
In order to move the extruder about in 3D space, there are 3 axes, each controlled by motors.
The X-axis motor, located in a midway position on the metal framework of the printer, moves the
extruder left and right, using a pulley. The two Z-axis motors, which are located on either side of the
heated printing bed, move the entire X-axis up and down via two threaded rods. The heated bed
of the printer, which lies directly underneath the hot end of the extruder, is moved back and forth
beneath the extruder by the Y-axis motor located underneath the heated bed. The bed is heated to
around 70 degrees Celsius to ensure the newly laid plastic does not warp as it cools. Overall control
of the printer is effected by the printer control board and the PC which contains the programme of
the model that is being printed.
Once assembled, in theory it should be possible to print a 3D version of virtually anything.
However, comparatively easy as it is to assemble, would-be DIY gadget enthusiasts should be
warned that the printer has major technical limitations. The finished product will always have banding
and surface detail remaining as evidence of how the model was laid down. In addition, operators of
the printer have to be extremely careful not to knock it whilst the machine is in the process of printing,
since this will end up in model distortion. Extreme care also has to be taken in the choice of plastic
filament which will ultimately create the structure of the model. Some types of plastic may warp if the
temperature is not controlled properly when the melted plastic leaves the nozzle, and later, when it is
cooling on the bed. Obviously, the 3D model will be the same colour as the plastic filament forming it,
but colour limitations can easily be overcome by painting afterwards for a multicolour finish. Another
problem is that the plastic structures have to be supported as they are laid down on the heated bed
or they will distort or fall away as the plastic cools.
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It is virtually certain, however, that such issues will be overcome in the future. The innumerable
advantages of 3D printers far outweigh any disadvantages and justify time and resources spent on
such technology. Firstly, the product can be produced on the spot within a very short time frame,
thereby reducing time and cost of manufacturing by traditional means. Secondly, printing objects on
a 3D printer removes the need for storage space of items since whatever is required is printed as
and when necessary. Finally, despite expensive set-up costs, in the long run, 3D printing works out
far cheaper than normal manufacturing processes since there is no longer a need for labour costs.
However, the 3D printer is still very much in its early stages and can be likened to early home
computers which in technological hindsight now seem so cumbersome and slow. So far, early exper-
imentations with the new technology have been impressive but not earth-shattering. Nevertheless,
in the future that is all set to change. In fact, the potential of 3D printers is jaw-dropping. The most
ambitious plan yet for 3D printing has to be in the military field. If all goes to plan, fighter planes
will at some, probably very distant, point in the future carry printers on board that during flight will
be capable of printing out other fighter planes to replenish the flying squad. Admittedly, it takes a
quantum leap of the imagination to accept that a machine that prints out clothing and pizzas will also
be able to print out planes. Sceptics, however, should remember that one of the forerunners to the
modern computer, designed in the mid-twentieth century, filled an entire room, So, in theory, if we
have come so far in a matter of years then who knows what the future may hold for 3D printers?
Questions 1 – 5: Label the diagram below.
Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 1-5.
Q1. Z-axis motor
Q2. Hot end of extruder
Q3. Extruder motor
Q4. Plastic filament
Q5. X-axis motor
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Questions 6 – 10: Complete the notes below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the
passage for each answer.
The Pros and Cons of 3D Printers
Cons
The finished product is far from perfect, exhibiting (Q6)……………………….in addition to
banding. In order to (Q7)………………………………… desired, extreme care has to be
taken in selecting the plastic filaments to be used. It is also necessary for plastic structures
(Q8)……………………………….. during the printing process to avoid distorting the printed model.
Pros
Only a very (Q9)………………………………….. is required to produce 3D models. 3D products
are also much cheaper to make than using normal manufacturing processes and need no storage
space. In theory (Q10)…………………………………. of 3D printers to create virtually anything
from pizza to fighter planes is astounding.
Questions 11 – 13
Complete the summary below. Use NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each
answer.
Whilst 3D printing is far from becoming (Q11)……………………………. , so far experiments
with the new technology have been promising. Although 3D models have yet to produce
anything as (Q12)…………………………….. as fighter planes, the foundation for such a
technology is in place. For the moment, however, the realisation of such projects remains in
the (Q13)……………………………… future.
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READING PASSAGE 2
Nanotechnology: its development and uses
A Nanotechnology has been hailed by many as being a twentieth-century miracle of science.

Essentially, nanotechnology, a term derived from Greek, translating literally as ‘dwarf technology’ is,
as the origin of its name suggests, engineering at the atomic level. Scientists work with particles of
substances known as ‘nanoparticles’ which may measure no more than 1 nanometre or a billionth of
a metre. That’s around 40,000 times smaller than the width of the average human hair. Whilst some
of these substances derived from carbon compounds are manufactured, others, such as metals, are
naturally-occurring or arise as a by-product of another process e.g. volcanic ash or smoke from wood
burning. What makes these substances of such scientific interest is that their minute size facilitates
medical and technological processes that would otherwise be impossible.
B It may be something of a revelation for many of us to learn that nanotechnology - or its concept - is
far from cutting-edge science. In fact, nanotechnology as an idea was first referred to in an influential
lecture by American physicist, Richard Feynman, as far back as 1959. During the lecture, entitled
‘There’s Plenty of Room at the Bottom’, Feynman outlined the basic concept of nanotechnology.
Individual atoms and molecules, he claimed, could in the future be created by a physical process.
Such a process, he envisaged, would involve the building of a set of precise tools to build and operate
another proportionally smaller set. The building of increasingly minute tools at the microscopic level
would in turn produce ultra-microscopic materials, later to become known as ‘nanoparticles’.
C Strangely, what should have sparked a scientific revolution was then virtually forgotten about for
the next 15 years. In 1974, a Japanese scientist, Norio Taniguchi, of the Tokyo University of Science
reintroduced Feynman’s theory and put a new name to an old concept, referring to the science as
‘nanotechnology’. However, it wasn’t until nearly a decade later, in the 1980s, that the way was paved
for nanotechnology to leave the realm of theoretical science and become reality. Two major scientific
developments within a relatively short period were to enable practical application of nanotechnol-
ogy. The invention of the Scanning Tunnelling Microscope (STM), combined with the discovery of
nano-sized particles termed ‘fullerenes’, were to prove a turning point in nanotechnology.
D Fullerenes are derived from carbon molecules and, in common with other nanoparticles, possess
chemical and physical properties that are of huge scientific interest. The potential value of fullerenes
for medical science was first raised in 2003 and in 2005 when the scientific magazine ‘Chemistry and
Biology’ ran an article describing the use of fullerenes as light-activated antimicrobial agents. Since
then, fullerenes have been used for several biomedical applications ranging from X-ray imaging
to treating cancer by targeting cancer cells. In addition, these nanoparticles have been used in
the manufacture of commercial products, from sunscreen to cosmetics and some food products.
Furthermore, nanoparticles of metals, like gold and silver, have been used in environmental clean-ups
of oil slicks and other forms of pollution. The remarkable properties of nanoparticles are down to two
main factors: their greater surface-to-weight ratio, compared to larger particles which promotes the
attachment of substances to their surface, and their minute size which allows them to penetrate cell
membranes. These properties are of great benefit, for example in medicine, as drugs to fight cancer
or AIDS can be attached to nanoparticles to reach their target cell in the human body.
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E However, despite the amazing properties attributed to nanoparticles such as fullerenes,

nanotechnology has yet to win wider universal acceptance in scientific circles. For the very properties
that make nanoparticles so valuable to technology and medical science are also the ones that make
them potentially so toxic. Such properties are potentially lethal if toxic substances attach themselves
to the same nanoparticles, thereby delivering a fatal toxin through the cell membranes into the cells
themselves. The toxic effect of these compounds is further increased, since their size permits them
to enter the bloodstream and hence the body›s major organs. Furthermore, the nanoparticles in
themselves are essentially a foreign element being introduced to the body. Unlike foreign elements,
such as bacteria, the body has no natural immune system to deal with these ultramicroscopic
particles. Scientists have yet to convince the nanotechnology sceptics that the potential side effects
of nanoparticles are more than compensated for by the advantages that they confer. It may be,
however, that opposition to this technology is no more than a general distrust of scientific innovation.
In fact, Urban Wiesing from the University of Tubingen has been quoted as saying ‹Many of the
risks associated with nanotechnology have at least been encountered in part in other technologies
as well.› He also believes that regulations can be put in place to minimise such risks. This is a view
echoed by the Federal Environment Agency that proposes that such risks are vastly outweighed by
the potential benefits of nanotechnology, in particular for the environment.
Questions 14 – 18: The text has five paragraphs, A-E.

Which paragraph contains the following information? Write the correct letter, A-E, next to
questions 14-18.
Q14. promising beginnings
Q15. definition of a revolutionary technology
Q16. repackaging an old idea
Q17. Dubious attributes
Q18. the foundation of a new technology
Q19. Nanotechnology...
A. has limited value.
B. is not related to science.
C. incites controversy.
D. poses insurmountable safety issues.
Q20. In the beginning, nanotechnology was...

A. overlooked as a science.
B. considered to be irrelevant.
C. highly unpopular.
D. regarded as being revolutionary.
Q21. Nanoparticles are a product of...

A. manufacturing processes alone.
B. natural and manufactured processes.
C. purely biological processes.
D. environmental factors alone.
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Q22. Nanotechnology remained a purely theoretical science until...
A. other technologies caught up with it.

B. scientists were better able to understand its practical applications.
C. Taniguchi convinced other scientists of its practical value.
D. a scientist invented a new technology.
Q23. Safety concerns about nanotechnology are...
A. completely unfounded.
B. exaggerated by its detractors.
C. real but manageable.
D. misunderstood.
Questions 24 – 26: Complete the sentences.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
A major (Q24)………………………………. in the field of nanotechnology came with the discovery of

fullerenes and the invention of the Scanning Tunnelling Microscope.
Amongst scientists, nanotechnology has not met with (Q25)………………………………
The ability of nanoparticles to penetrate (Q26)…………………………….. is somewhat of a mixed
blessing,
READING PASSAGE 3
Driverless cars
Driverless cars may be set to become reality. At least that is, if the executives behind the taxi
app, Uber, are to be believed. Currently, Uber is taking its biggest steps yet towards a driver-free
world, launching the Uber Advanced Technologies Centre in Pittsburgh. The ultimate goal of this
institution is to ‘do research and development, primarily in the areas of mapping and vehicle safety
and autonomy technology’.
To date, Uber has provided a chauffeur-driven taxi service for American clients. Venturing into
the realms of driverless cars is therefore a new direction which will require massive investment. It is
indeed a huge leap of faith on Uber’s part, since technology has yet to catch up with the idea of a
fully autonomous vehicle. On the as well as stay in lane and maintain a steady cruising speed. In a
patchwork fashion such cars could eventually build up to almost full automation and Uber believes
that car owners will readily embrace the idea of driverless taxis. In Uber’s eyes, current car owners
only stand to gain by the introduction of such technology. Hiring a driverless cab means that the
client does not have to pay for the cost of the driver in the cab fee. The only cost incurred by clients is
for fuel, plus wear and tear. It is certainly an attractive proposition. Uber stands to benefit, too, since
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employees currently working as taxi drivers will be removed from the company’s payroll. Apparently
for car drivers and Uber, it is a win-win situation.
Not everyone will benefit however from this technology, the car industry being an obvious
example. Not surprisingly, the industry views the concept of self-driving cars with a sense of growing
alarm. Such technology could well prove the death knell for private car ownership. As a result, the
industry is dragging its feet over the manufacture and introduction of fully automated vehicles onto
the market, due to commercial issues.
The commercial aspect apart, there is also the safety issue. Whilst a fully automated car could
respond to most eventualities in the course of a trip, would it be capable of responding to unforeseen
events, such as changes in route or unexpected diversions? Evidently legislative authorities are also
of this opinion. Currently, no matter how much automation a car has, it still requires a driver with a full
licence behind the wheel to drive on public roads. Whilst robot drivers, on the whole, have the upper
hand on their human counterparts safety-wise, that still does not guarantee that they will become
legal. As a consortium of researchers put it, ‘If self-driving cars cut the roughly 40,000 annual US
traffic fatalities in half, the car makers might get not 20,000 thank-you notes, but 20,000 lawsuits.’
Interestingly, Uber is now undertaking an aggressive hiring campaign for taxi drivers to meet
the demand for their taxi app. It seems that even Uber is less than confident that driverless taxis will
soon become a reality. Whether Uber is backing a doomed campaign or instead is about to bring in
a technology that will be universally greeted with positivity and acceptance depends entirely on your
viewpoint.
John Reynolds, a Pittsburgh taxi driver, is angry at Uber’s attitude on fully automated technology.
‘They are completely disregarding individual livelihoods, such as mine, as well as those of big car
manufacturers in the pursuit of money. Admittedly things change and we have to roll with the times,
but there should be some safeguards in place to protect those potentially affected by the introduction
of new technologies. I guess I’m biased, being a taxi driver myself, but it’s difficult to see it objectively.’
Susie Greenacre, a resident of Pittsburgh, has no such reservations about driverless cars. ‘I’m
all for it. Driverless cars have my backing, any day! I hate the stress of rush-hour traffic! I think if I
could just hop in a driverless car which would take me anywhere I wanted, I would never want to
drive again!’
Jason Steiner, a school teacher in a Pittsburgh secondary school, is inclined to agree with Susie.
‘Whilst I’m not averse to driving, I would swap the stressful daily commute by car to a driverless one if
I had the chance! It just takes the pressure off driving. I would be slightly wary though, of completely
dependent on a robot-driven car when it comes to having to react to unexpected obstacles in the road.’
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Q27. Which of the following statements is accurate?
A. Driverless cars conform to safety regulations.

B. There is an obvious market for fully automated cars.
C. Human drivers are no competition for driverless cars.
D. Potentially, fully automated taxis are more cost-effective than normal taxis.
Q28. Uber is investing in a technology that
A. will prove controversial.

B. has been tried and tested.
C. is unlikely to prove cost-effective.
D. will be universally welcomed.
Q29. What is NOT true about driverless cars?
A. They have become a reality in many countries.

B. They may improve road safety.
C. They will reduce the cost of travelling.
D. They will endanger jobs.
Q30. What can be said about current legislation?
A. It is in favour of driverless cars.

B. It currently doesn’t favour fully automated cars.
C. It is keeping up with technology.
D. It already accommodates driverless cars.
Q31. What is the general view held by car manufacturers?
A. Driverless cars are more dangerous than non-automated cars.

B. Fully automated cars are too expensive to manufacture.
C. The introduction of driverless cars will threaten their livelihoods.
D. Technology is still too underdeveloped to manufacture driverless cars.
Q32. What can be said about the writer’s opinion of driverless cars?
A. He is not really interested, but sceptical, that such a technology will be developed.
B. He reserves judgement as to whether fully automated cars will become a reality.
C. He believes that such a technology will never become a reality.
D. He is critical of Uber’s plans to introduce fully automated car
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Questions 33 – 37: Look at the following statements, 33-37, and the list of people. Match each
statement to the correct person, A-C. You may use any letter more than once.
Q33. This person is willing to give up control of their vehicle because

they appreciate the benefits of fully automated cars.
Q34. This person would have no regrets about giving up driving

A John Reynolds entirely in favour of being driven by a fully automated car.
B Susie Greenacre Q35. This person is aware that the new technology of driverless cars
C Jason Steiner may not provide an adequate substitute for a human driver.
Q36. This person believes that those affected adversely by new

technology should be protected from its effects.
Q37. This person enjoys driving but only under favourable conditions.
Questions 38 – 40: Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

Q38. Driverless technology will have to overcome legal and safety obstacles to become completely
viable.
Q39. Uber has shown nothing but complete self-conviction in its investment in driverless cars,
Q40. The safety issues with driverless technology are likely to be resolved fairly quickly.
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UNIT IX: COMFORT ZONE

17.1. SPEAKING
Pair up and discuss these following questions
PART 1
1. What do you feel comfortable doing when you are alone?
2. Are you comfortable around people or being on your own?
3. Have you ever done something that you don’t like?
4. Who do you find easiest to talk to?
5. Do you have difficulties making friends?
6. Are you an introvert or an extrovert?
7. What is your dream job in the future?
PART 2
Describe one time you feel Describe one time you have to
uncomfortable doing a given do something you don’t know
task anything about
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
Describe one time you Describe something you feel

accomplished a task with comfortable doing but others
flying colours don’t
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………

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PART 3
1. Have you ever stepped out of your comfort zone?

2. Do you think youngsters should experience new things on a daily basis?
3. What is more important? Work satisfaction or money?
4. Why are people afraid of stepping out of their comfort zones?
5. Do you think travelling abroad is a way of stepping out of a person’s comfort zone?
6. Do people in your country usually work against their majors in the universities?
7. What are people going to get when they step out of their comfort zone?
8. Do you think studying multiple subjects is a way to expand your comfort zone?
17.2. WRITING
Exercise 1: Task 1 (Pie Chart)

The charts below show the reasons why people travel to work by bicycle or by car.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons
where relevant.
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Exercise 2: Task 2 (Problems - Solutions Essays)

Nowadays, college students tend to take a gap year in their universities to travel and explore the
world or take up part time jobs
What are the causes of this and is there any possible problems that can occur?
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WEEK 9 ASSIGNMENT
Watch the movie “The secret life of Walter Mitty” and answer these following questions in Short
Essays form.
1. Why didn’t Sean O’Connell take the picture of the Ghost Cat?
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18.1. LISTENING
PART 1

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer
Transport form Highgate village
Example Answer
Destination: Camden Town
• Fast train leaves at (Q1)…………………………….. from platform 9.
• Nearest station is (Q2)………………………………
• Number 999 bus goes to Gower Street (Q3)………………………………..
• The train leaves the railway station from platform (Q4)…………………………….
• There is a train every (Q5)………………………………..
Questions 6 – 19: Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AN DIOR A NUMBER for each answer.
Means of transport Normal fare Discounted fare

Bus £2 £ (Q7)………………….
Train (busy time) £ (Q6)…………………….
Train (off-peak hours) £11 £ (Q8)…………………..
Regular Thames boat trip £6 £ (Q9)…………………..
Half-day sightseeing boat tour £45
Whole-day sightseeing boat £(Q10)……………………

tour
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PART 2
Questions 11 – 16: Label the table below.

Services offered For individuals For groups
• your decision when to allocate

Email counselling time to your issues
• (Q11)…………………and reflect
• talk in person
Face-to-face
• 50-minute session
individual counselling
• (Q12)………………. time
• how to function
(Q13)…………………. to
Group therapy others
• (Q14)………………..
personal development
• find out more about your issues

Self-help resources • (Q15)………………… 24/7
• links to a range of resources
• similar specific issues

Specific issue
workshops • develop helpful
(Q16)………………….
Questions 17 – 20: Which counsellor should you see?

Write the correct letter: A, B or C, next to questions 17-20.
Q17. if you have never seen a counsellor before

A. Deirdre Blythe
Q18. if you are not able to see a counsellor during normal office hour
B. Bobby Foyle
Q19. if you have not made an appointment.
C. Samantha Stewart
Q20. if you suffer from stress or anxiety

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PART 3

How to write an English literature essay
Introductory Points
• Number one criterion for a good essay is (Q21)…………………………………..

• Avoid writing an essay that is a regurgitation of facts, (Q22)………………………………… or
other people’s opinions.
• The second important thing to keep in mind is (Q23)…………………………………
• Write (Q24)…………………………………. and ideas down before you start.
• Look at the (Q25)………………………………. before you start writing.
• Know (Q26)……………………………………. Do not make the mistake of writing for yourself.
Essay Structure
• Absolute maximum paragraph size is an (Q27)…………………………….

Flow
• One thought should (Q28)…………………………… another in your English Literature essay.
• To make the transition between paragraphs smoother, you can use (Q29)………………………..
and phrases.
Argument
• Every English Literature essay should have a clear argument. This should not be
(Q30)…………………………… but rather, it should include several possible sides of the
discussion.
PART 4
Questions 31 – 35: Complete each sentence with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.
Red is a potent colour. It brings to mind many (Q31)…………………………….
It is frequently used to imply or refer to (Q32)………………………………..
Our faces become red when we are very angry, hence the expression to (Q33)…………………….
When (Q34)…………………………….., we become suddenly red in the face from embarrassment
or shame, modesty or guilt.
Finally, red is the colour most often used to symbolise love, the most common example of which
is, of course, (Q35)……………………………
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Questions 36 – 40: Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D
Q36. According to colour psychology, wearing red clothing may influence...
A. our visual perception.
B. our bank balance.
C. our bodily processes.
D. our interest in sport.
Q37. A surprising number of non-primate mammals...
A. have a new cell in their retina.
B. are dogs.
C. are colour-blind.
D. cannot survive in the tropics.
Q38. Russell Hill and Robert Barton’s experiments showed that humans react to red...
A. with humility and arrogance.
B. in the same way as mandrill monkeys.
C. only 5% of the time.
D. as if they are footballers trying to score a penalty.
Q39. Which is NOT mentioned as a reason for the effect of wearing red in sport?
A. Wearing red helps the athlete rise to a higher level of self-confidence.
B. Wearing red makes people domineering and controlling.
C. The opponent of an athlete wearing red feels threatened.
D. Umpires tend to be partial towards athletes wearing red.
Q40. Colour psychology is...
A. studied by very young scientists.
B. an old-fashioned branch of science.
C. considered to use controversial experimental methods.
D. interested in how colour can be used to improve work performance

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18.2. READING
READING PASSAGE 1
A gentle giant and a pint-sized bully
Though a giant - more horse than dog, some say - the Irish Wolfhound, towering over his
canine brethren, makes a surprisingly good pet. Hard as it may be to imagine how a hound bred
for wolf-hunting, with muscular limbs, a swift turn of pace, the eyesight of an eagle, the stature of
a thoroughbred, primed for, and indeed employed in, battle many times for war-hungry Celtic lords
of yore, could possibly cut the mustard as a domestic pet, trust me: looks can be deceiving. In fact,
despite his size and reputation, the wolfhound is becoming an increasingly popular pet choice for
many families up and down the country.
Why? Well, there is a number of very good reasons. Firstly, the wolfhound is of above-average
intelligence, and, therefore, responds very well to obedience training (provided the training is done
from an early age, otherwise the animal’s strong prey drive may hinder development in this area).
Secondly, he is very good-natured; despite the hound’s reputation as a fierce, battle-hardened
animal, he is, in fact, very calm and even-tempered. Thirdly, the Irish Wolfhound is a very social
animal and does well with young children. He views himself as a member of the family and so will
be fiercely protective of all his ‘siblings’ and will not intentionally let any of them get in harm’s way,
though his considerable frame and slight clumsiness can lead to collisions if the little members of the
household don’t watch where they are going.
Though the Irish Wolfhound makes an adequate guard dog, he is, surprisingly perhaps, not
terribly strong in this department. The hound tends to be aloof with strangers rather than aggressive
towards them, and he may not, at least initially, bark at intruders, therefore scoring low in the watchdog
department as well by failing to sound the alarm or alert the other members of the household to
danger in good time. If he is provoked, however, or if a member of his ‘pack’ is threatened, his
primeval instincts kick in. When that happens, intruders’d better look out!
He is a very needy pet and a large enclosed backyard is a must-have for any prospective owner
because though he is easily house-trained, it is simply not fair to keep a dog of his size cooped up
inside all day. His appetite is huge and this is one of the practicalities to consider before buying a
Wolfhound - can you afford him? His large appetite also means that regular exercise is essential in
order for him to remain healthy and at a reasonably good weight. Five-minute walks to the corner
shop will not do; this animal needs proper exercise and should be taken out for between one and two
hours each day. Another practicality, and also a factor that influences cost (the cost of clean-up), is
his tendency to shed. Irish Wolfhounds shed a lot of fur and dog hair will likely be deposited all over
the house in vast quantities. If all this is bearable and if you still want a cuddly, affectionate giant
anyway, then go for it! The Irish Wolfhound will provide you with many years of loyalty and friendship.
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The truth, though, is that not everyone has the space to accommodate such a beast. And,
indeed, others would struggle to find the time to devote to this needy creature. The alternative,
perhaps, is the comparably tiny little West Highland White Terrier. The Highland and the Wolfhound
have one very important thing in common; they are both fantastic with kids. It is here, though, that
the similarity ends. The Highland sheds virtually no hair at all, so you won’t be cleaning up after
him all the time. He also loves to make noise, making him the perfect watchdog and quick to alert
you when anything suspicious occurs. His size limits his ability to respond meaningfully to any real
threat discovered though. Compared to the Wolfhound, he is a little more of a challenge in the
training department, and must be monitored carefully and shown his place in the ‘pack’, otherwise
his aggressive streak may come out and take over.
In almost every way possible, the Highland and the Wolfhound are different characters. The
Highland could never be described as placid, and, in fact, is extremely excitable and very energetic.
This little fellow suffers from a size complex of sorts, too, which sees him determined to boss those
around him and have his way, despite his modest profile. He is not that interested in ‘cuddles’ either,
so don’t let his size fool you into suggesting otherwise -this is no toy dog. And he is, in general, not
the most affectionate of dogs, being far happier digging up your garden or barking at the neighbour’s
cat than lying in the arms of his owner. So, while the Wolfhound is a gentle giant, the West Highland
is, well, a little terrier in every sense of the word.
But while their character may differ, their fondness for exercise does not. The Highland is an
intelligent breed and needs stimulation; regular walks are essential. He also has a penchant for
water and loves to go swimming. And while he is excellent with older kids, toddlers should not be left
alone around the Highland as their size, coupled with their noisiness and hyperactivity, may prompt
an aggressive response from the dog.
Though both breeds have their strengths and weaknesses as pets, overall, either would make
an excellent addition to the family. The West Highland will be content enough indoors, provided he
gets regular exercise, but the Wolfhound must have an outdoor play area. And that is the one point
I must emphasize; don’t buy a Wolfhound unless you have plenty of room

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Questions 1 -10: Complete the table below.
Choose 10 answers from the box and write the correct letter, a-i, next to questions 1-10.
Irish Wolfhound West Highland White Terrier
Temperament and Q1…………………….. Q6……………………….

Considerations Q2……………………. Q7……………………….
When Training: Q3……………………. Q8……………………….
Behaviour around Q4……………………. Q9……………………….

children Q5……………………. Q10………………………
A. not very tolerant of or interested in gestures of affection from children (or any member of the
family)
B. generally well-behaved around children, but inclined to react badly to very young children who are
loud and energetic
C. reacts well to training once training has commenced at an early stage in life
D. strong sense of pack loyalty makes it want to look after and care for young family members
E. restless and can make itself a bit of a nuisance around the house and in the garden
F. reasonably good with children of all ages, though its natural awkwardness can mean it poses a
slight danger to young ones
G. must be taught its place in the hierarchy otherwise may try to dominate
H. a typically sedate and unexcitable temperament
I. requires more training and supervision
J. success of late-start training may be hindered by the animal’s strong hunting instincts
K. better with younger children to whom its size poses less of a threat
L. training from a young age is essential, otherwise it will lack confidence
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Questions 11 – 13: Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-E, below.
Write the correct letter, A-E.
A. actually makes a pretty ineffectual watchdog, being slow to react to intruders or to perceive
them as a threat.
B. it is important to consider the costs of feeding and cleaning up after it, as well as the space
requirements for keeping one, before making the decision to purchase.
C. but it should never be left unsupervised around children of any age since it has an excitable
temperament and can be aggressive towards them.
D. is actually a fierce guard dog, alerting family members at the slightest hint that something is
wrong.
E. though it is largely ineffectual when it comes to neutralising any threats that have been
identified.
Q11. The Irish Wolfhound, despite its size and reputation

Q12. The West Highland White Terrier is quick to respond to intruders and alert the other members
of the household.
Q13. Granted the Irish Wolfhound has the ideal temperament to become a loyal member of the
family.
READING PASSAGE 2
The Scarlet Pimpernel of the Vatican
Born in Kiskeam in his mother’s native North Cork, Hugh O’Flaherty was brought up in Killarney,
where his father was the steward of a local golf club. He was the eldest of four children, and, from an
early age, appeared to have a vocation for the priesthood. His fondness for the church was formed
in part during his education, which began at Presentation Brothers’ School in a local monastery in
his home town. He later attended Waterford College, but the priesthood was always going to be his
calling, so he applied to Mungret College in Limerick and was accepted into the seminary there. He
was posted to Rome as a young seminarian in 1922, the year in which Mussolini came to power.
While studying in Rome, he earned a degree in theology and was ordained in 1925 before going on
to study there for a further two years, earning his doctorates in divinity, canon law and philosophy.
O’Flaherty, posted at various times over the next few years in Egypt, Haiti, San Domingo and
Czechoslovakia, as well as Palestine, soon proved himself a very able diplomat. His golfing skills
were also noted, and he developed a number of high-profile connections in Italy through the world of
golf, often playing with the likes of ex-king Alfonso of Spain and Count Ciana, Mussolini’s son-in-law.
These people were no doubt impressed by the golfing talents of the man, which were, considering he
had been playing the game since early childhood and was a natural, by then rather impressive to say
the least. O’Flaherty would come to rely on his high profile, as well as his ‘high’ connections in the
coming years as war broke out in Europe and Italy aligned itself with Hitler’s Germany and its policy
of discriminating against minority groups. His connections would give him the power and influence to
make a difference to the lives of thousands of innocent people when the time came, whilst his high
profile made the German and Italian authorities slow to move against him.

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In the autumn of 1942, the Germans and Italians started to crack down on prominent figures
they viewed as being hostile to their goals. As their policies became more and more extreme, many
people started to become alarmed by fascist propaganda. The German and Italian governments
were not interested in justice, they were aligned on an ideological level and started to execute their
policy of ethnically cleansing Italy of the so-called ‘unwanted’: Jews, blacks, gypsies and so on.
O’Flaherty, on the other hand, having socialised with many prominent Jews throughout his time in
Italy, did not adhere to the Nazi ideology, and it was then that he started to act, protecting innocent
Jews and other victims of injustice, and keeping them away from the claws of the Italian and German
police, whose orders were to ship them to concentration camps.
O’Flaherty used his old college and indeed his own official residence as hiding places for the
people he was trying to protect. As the situation got more and more desperate, and the numbers
of people threatened grew, he even turned to using monasteries and convents as hideouts, calling
in favours from old friends in these places who, by agreeing to house the ‘unwanted’, were not just
risking a reprimand from the fascists had they been caught but were endangering their own lives
by being party to O’Flaherty’s campaign. In the summer of 1943, O’Flaherty extended his efforts to
include helping escaped British prisoners-of-war and shot-down allied airmen. Calling once again on
his contacts, he developed a network of apartments in which to house them until their safe return to
Britain could be arranged.
By the end of the war, over 6,500 Jews and American and British soldiers had O’Flaherty to
thank for their escape from the Germans and a nearly certain death. His success in never being
identified when on unauthorised rescue missions outside of Vatican City, and in smuggling Jews
and allied airmen inside the city led to him being given the nickname the Scarlet Pimpernel of the
Vatican, an acknowledgement of how much the master of disguise O’Flaherty had become. After the
war, O’Flaherty continued to serve in Rome and received many accolades, including the US Medal
of Freedom and the title Commander of the British Empire. The fledgling Jewish state of Israel also
recognised O’Flaherty’s contribution by proclaiming him Righteous among the Nations.
In 1960, O’Flaherty retired and went home to Ireland to a town called Cahirsheveen. There he
lived for the remainder of his life until he died on the 30th October 1963. His death was mourned
throughout the world and the prestigious New York Times carried a front-page tribute in his honour.
Margaret Mead once said: ‘Never doubt that a small group of thoughtful, committed, citizens
can change the world. Indeed, it is the only thing that ever has’. O’Flaherty and his loyal group of
helpers within the Vatican and without are exactly the kind of people she was referring to. In life, he
saved thousands of innocent Romans; in death, he is remembered as a man who bravely stood up
to extremism and who was not prepared to turn a blind eye to injustice.
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Q14. O’Flaherty went to Rome...
A. voluntarily for personal reasons as he wanted to pursue his studies there.

B. after completing his studies at Mungret College in Limerick and becoming a priest.
C. at the same time as Mussolini went to study there.
D. under the instructions of the religious organisation of which he was a part.
Q15. O’Flaherty’s golfing talents...
A. were exploited by him as a means by which to meet and influence important people.
B. were the product of his extremely hard work and tireless practice from a young age.
C. went unnoticed until he was posted in Italy where they impressed a number of high-profile
individuals.
D. were exaggerated by friends and connections in order to win him favour with the German and
Italian authorities.
Q16. When it came to Nazi ideology, O’Flaherty’s beliefs...
A. were similar to those of Jews, blacks and gypsies, who viewed the German interference in
Italy as unwanted.
B. were influenced by the conclusions he had drawn from socialising with certain groups of
people in the past.
C. were in keeping up with the stated views of the German and Italian governments.
D. were similarly hostile and extreme as he was influenced by fascist propaganda.
Questions 17 – 18: There are TWO correct answers. Choose TWO letters from A, B, C, D and E.
Where did O’Flaherty conceal the people he had taken into his care?
A. in the place at which he was then studying
B. in a former college that had been converted into a network of apartments
C. in the place where he officially lived at the time
D. in the residences of certain religious groups
E. in the houses of old friends of his
Questions 19 – 21 Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Q19.What impressive aspect of the actions of O’Flaherty’s helpers does the writer highlight?
A. how eager they were to help him

B. how many of them were willing to volunteer
C. their disregard for the possible consequences of being caught
D. their ability to coordinate and work together

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Q20. Why was O’Flaherty nicknamed the Scarlet Pimpernel of the Vatican?
A. He resembled a Scarlet Pimpernel in the disguises he used to wear.
B. He often disguised himself as a Vatican priest.
C. He had successfully used disguises to avoid being identified.
D. He had earned a Master’s in the art of disguise.
Q21. What impression does the writer leave us with of his own personal feelings with
respect to O’Flaherty’s life and achievements?
A. He admires O’Flaherty’s bravery and determination to stop injustice.
B. He admires O’Flaherty’s loyalty to the Vatican and his church.
C. He feels that Margaret Mead was a superior speech-maker to O’Flaherty.
D. He feels he didn’t get the recognition he deserves for his achievements.
Questions 22 – 26: Complete the summary below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
A moral, determined and resourceful man
O’Flaherty’s personal beliefs were at loggerheads with fascist ideology, which he saw as mindless
propaganda, so he took it upon himself to combat the injustices being perpetrated against Jews
and other minority groups at the hands of the German and Italian police, who, acting on orders from
above, were rounding said groups up to be sent to (Q22)……………………………
Initially, O’Flaherty used familiar places as hideouts for the people he was trying to conceal. However,
as the situation started to deteriorate, and more and more people were in need of assistance, he was
forced to call upon old friends and contacts for help. In helping O’Flaherty, these friends showed their
own bravery as getting (Q23)…………………………. might have cost them their lives.
Not only did O’Flaherty help the ‘unwanted’, he also extended his assistance to fallen
(Q24)…………………………., as wel1 as British soldiers who had been detained by the Germans.
By the war’s end, the lives of 6,500 people had been spared thanks to O’Flaherty and his helpers.
So effective had he been at (Q25)…………………………… Jews and servicemen inside that he

earned the nickname The Scarlet Pimpernel of the Vatican. O’Flaherty received a huge number
of (Q26)………………………….. from countries all around the world in acknowledgement of his
war-time feats.
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READING PASSAGE 3
ALL YOU NEED TO KNOW ABOUT SNOW
Types of Snowfall
Snow is typically the product of weather conditions in which an extratropical cyclone has formed.
Extratropical cyclones bring extremely hazardous weather, such as high winds and heavy rain or
snow, and are often referred to as windstorms in Europe. The band of precipitation associated
with their warm front is often very extensive. When the warm front and cold front collide, snow can
result on the poleward side of the precipitation band; that is, on the northern side in the Northern
Hemisphere and on the southern side in the Southern Hemisphere.
Lake-effect snow is another kind of common snowfall. Although the name suggests a particular
correspondence of this type of precipitation to lake features, in fact, all narrow bands of water may
generate it. Lake-effect snow occurs when the water temperature is considerably higher than the air
temperature of a cold front progressing over a large water mass. Warm moist air is then attracted
upward at a relatively fast rate, condensing to form vertically oriented clouds. If the temperature
difference between the body of water and the air above is significant, say, 13 degrees or more, this
can result in heavy and prolonged snowfall.
Mountainous areas are also prone to experiencing heavy snowfall. Accumulations typically
occur on the windward side of the mountain as precipitation is ‘squeezed out’ of the warm moist air
as it is forced to ascend the slopes; the moisture condenses upon contact with the colder air found at
higher altitudes and heavy snowfall can then occur if ground conditions are sufficiently cold.
How Snow Is Formed
Snow crystals, tiny supercooled cloud droplets, form at extremely low temperatures in the
atmosphere. Temperatures lower than minus 35 degrees Celsius are required for this supercool
moisture to freeze by itself. In warmer clouds, an aerosol particle such as clay or desert dust, or an
ice nucleus is needed for the freezing to start.
Once a droplet of water has frozen, it starts to grow in the supersaturated environment of the
cloud. Eventually, due to its size, the cloud will not be able to contain the ice crystal anymore. At this
point the ice crystal will fall to the ground and, if it is not melted by warmer air at lower altitudes, it
will do so as snow. Although the ice crystals that land on the ground are actually transparent, hollow
imperfections in them mean that light is scattered and they often appear white in colour owing to
diffuse reflection of the whole spectrum of light.
The Snowflake
The shape of a snowflake is determined by the atmospheric conditions present at the time of its
formation, specifically temperature and humidity. Between 0 and -3 degrees Celsius, thin flat crystals
called planar crystals grow. From -3 to 8, the crystals form needles or prisms with pencil-like shapes.
The shape then reverts back to plate-like until after 22 degrees Celsius when column-like structures
(needles and prisms, etc.) begin to form again. At temperatures of 22 degrees and below, as well as
the column-like structures, more complex growth patterns also form.

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Snowfall in the British Isles
Snowfall occurs frequently in the U.K., but the quantities are typically small and it seldom persists
for very long. In recent years, a trend towards milder, wetter winters has been developing, though
the 2010/11, 2011/12 and 2012/13 winters seem to have bucked the trend and, indeed, represent
the longest period of consecutive cold winters for more than 50 years. For its latitude, the British
Isles should see far more prolonged cold weather in winter and regular snowfall. However, the Gulf
Stream, a mild Atlantic Ocean current, keeps the climate several degrees warmer than regions of
similar latitude in other parts of the world. As a consequence, despite the occasional incident of
prolonged cold, Britain’s winters are typically not very severe.
Some parts of the isles see little, if any, snow from year to year. The most snow-prone are
the Pennines, the Scottish Highlands, the Welsh Hills and the mountains of Northern Ireland. The
Scottish Highlands boasts the isles’ highest peaks and also their only winter ski resorts. For years,
unreliable snowfall has threatened to close these resorts, though, having had three consecutive
bumper seasons, there is now less pressure on the Scottish ski industry, which, not so long ago, was
threatened with going out of existence.
Long-term weather forecasts for the British Isles are notoriously hard to get right; however, so
far, three months before the official start of the meteorological winter in December, forecasters are
predicting another winter of record-breaking low temperatures. They point to sunspot and geothermal
activity, and changes in the strength of the Gulf Stream as key indicators of the fact that a cold winter
is in prospect. Were their predictions to be realised, then this would point to the isles undergoing a
subtle climatic change and a return to more severe winters in general.
Questions 27 – 33: Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading
Passage 3? Write:
YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
Q27. When a warm front from an extratropical cyclone meets a cold front, snow is more likely to
occur on the poleward side of the weather system.
Q28. Lake-effect snow is aptly named, given that it is a weather phenomenon which is only associated
with lakes.
Q29. Heavy snowfall is more likely to be seen on the side of the mountain that is exposed to high
winds.
Q30. In the absence of dust or a similar particle to start the freezing process, supercool moisture will
not freeze in a cloud whose mean temperature is -34 degrees or more.
Q31. The real colour of snow is the same as the colour snow appears to be to the human eye.
Q32. Snowflakes shaped like a prism are more likely to form in milder weather than are flakes with
more intricate growth patterns.
Q33. The thin flat crystals created at temperatures of between zero and minus three degrees Celsius
are more voluminous than column-like crystals.
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Questions 34 – 37: Complete the sentences below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS from the passage for each answer.
While snowfall is not an uncommon feature of a United Kingdom winter, it is rare for significant.
(Q34)………………………………. to accumulate, or for the snow to remain on the ground for any
great length of time.
Three consecutive winters have failed to follow the (Q35)………………………………. towards milder,
wetter weather.
Despite its latitude, the British Isles does not suffer from (Q36)…………………………….. on account
of the influence of the Gulf Stream.
Should next winter be another unusually cold one, this may be indicative of the fact that a
(Q37)………………………….. is under way.
Questions 38 – 40: Complete the summary with the list of words A-F below. Write the correct
letter, A-F, in spaces 38-40 below.
Snowfall is not an uncommon sight in Britain during winter, but such weather
rarely persists for very long. In fact, up until a few years ago, it looked like
A. uninterrupted British winters were getting milder. However, this perception has changed
B. mild fairly dramatically over the last three winters, which have been the longest
C. strengthening Q38……………………………. period of cold winters for more than half a
century. It is now feared that the climate of the British Isles is changing
D. waning
and that, should the next few winters be equally severe, this could signal a
E. extreme permanent move to more Q39……………………………… winter weather
F. direct in general. Scientists blame sunspot and geothermal activity as well as the
Q40…………………………………. influence of the Gulf Stream, which, until
now, has kept Britain’s climate milder than that of areas of similar latitude
throughout the rest of the world.

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UNIT X: HISTORY

19.1. SPEAKING
Pair up and answer these following questions
PART 1
1. Do you have to study history at your school?
2. Are you good at history?
3. Have you ever been to a historical attraction?
4. Does your city have a lot of historical attractions?
5. Do you think it’s important to study history?
6. Have you ever watched a history documentary?
7. When was the last time you read about history?
PART 2
Describe a historical attraction Describe one time you talk to a

you visited complete stranger
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Describe a historical attraction Describe a historical event that

that you would recommended to impact greatly to your country
foreigners You should say:
You should say: - ………………….……………
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- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
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UNIT X: HISTORY
PART 3
1. How is history taught in Viet Nam?
2. Are there any differences between teaching history through books and movies?
3. What is the effective way of learning history, by reading books or watching movies?
4. Why don’t the children like to study history?
5. Do you think history matters in a country’s future development?
6. Do you think the government should spend money renovating historical attractions?
7. Do you think history will still be a school subject in the future?
19.2. WRITING
Exercise 1: Task 1 (Maps)

The diagram shows proposed changes to Foster Road.
Write a 150-word report describing the proposed changes for a local committee.
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UNIT X: HISTORY
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Exercise 2: Task 2 (Advantages/ Disadvantages Essays)

People say that history should be converted into a compulsory subject in the future.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of this?
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UNIT X: HISTORY
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UNIT X: HISTORY
WEEK 10 ASSIGNMENT
Watch the movie “12 years a slave” and answer these following questions in short Essay form
1. The American said that: “Slavery and racism never completely goes away, people just
forget about its existence”. So do you think one of the disadvantages of history is reminding
people of the dark times in the past?
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2. How do history events affect our ways of thinking today?
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UNIT X: HISTORY

20.1. LISTENING
PART 1
Questions 1 – 5: Choose the correct answer, A, B or C

Example:
Andrea is feeling happy because ...
A. she’s seen Harry.
B. she’s finished her exams.
C. she can sleep in.
Q1. What is Harry’s problem?

A. He doesn’t want to sell his things.
B. He needs to decide what to do with his possessions.
C. He wants to take everything to England.
Q2. Which of the items below does Harry want to sell?
A. A
B. B
C. C
Q3. Where is Harry going to advertise his books for sale?
A. In the university bookshop.
B. In the student newspaper,
C. In the economics department.
Q4. Andrea thinks it is unlikely students will buy the furniture because ...
A. they’re all doing the same thing.
B. they live at home.
C. it’s the summer vacation.
Q5. Andrea thinks that a second-hand shop ...
A. may not pay well.
B. may not take your goods.
C. may only take free goods.
UNIT X: HISTORY
Questions 6 – 10
Complete the note below using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.
THINGS TO DO:
(Q6)………………………………….. furniture etc. in Trading Post.
(Q7)…………………………………..or sell kitchen things.
Get (Q8)………………………………….. first from second-hand shop.
Give clothes to (Q9)………………………………….. shop.
(Q10)……………………………………. fridge and microwave to Andrea.
PART 2
Questions 11 – 20: Complete the Fitness Centre brochure using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.
Semnoaks Health and Fitness centre

Located conveniently at the (Q11)………………………………. of Marion Street and Giles Street.
WE ARE OPEN FOR YOU

Monday - Friday (Q12)………………………..am to 9:30 pm
Saturday 9:00 am to 4:00 pm
Sunday 9:00 am to (Q13)…………………………pm
WET AREA
Aqua aerobic (Q14)…………………………….. for all ages and levels.
(Q15)……………………………. lessons on weekday afternoons and weekend mornings.
SUPER-CIRCUIT CLASSES
A cardio-workout class that is easy to (16)……………………………
AEROBIC & STEP CLASSES

Aerobics room holds over 55 participants.
LARGE WELL-EQUIPPED GYM

Have a personal fitness assessment & individual (Q17) ………………………….. to suit you.
CARDIO-VASCULAR ROOM
Use the treadmills, bikes and steppers to burn fat, increase fitness, warm up.
Watch your favourite (Q18)…………………………….. while you exercise.
TWO FOR ONE SPECIAL MEMBERSHIP PLUS (Q19)…………………………. TRIAL OFFER

ONLY $110 each for a whole 20 months! Get ready for summer.
HURRY, OFFER ENDS SOON!
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UNIT X: HISTORY
PART 3
Questions 21 – 25: Complete the notes below using ONE WORD ONLY.
THE CANADIAN FOOD MARKET
• Understanding subtle (Q21)………………………….. between the Canadian and United States

food sectors is important for successful food marketing
• Canada has many different ethnic groups: e.g. Toronto has large (Q22)…………………………..
and Asian populations
• Growth of ethnic specialities of Mediterranean, Caribbean, South East Asian and
(Q23)……………………………… foods
• Therefore demand is increasing for new (Q24)…………………………….. to prepare these
foods plus condiments and sauces
• 80% of Canadian market controlled by 8 major national chains
• Seminar to compare Canadian food trends with (Q25)…………………………….. and UK
Questions 26 – 30: Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each
answer.
RETAIL FOOD SECTOR
Trend Comments
Salads are the third most commonly eaten food in Canadian

Interest in (Q26)…………………………….
healthy food • Most shoppers check (Q27)………………………… and nutritional
information
New way of Labelled according to (Q28)………………………… technique e.g.

labelling meat simmering steak
• More meals eaten away from home

• (Q29)……………………………….. increase in sales of snacks projected
‘Mobile meals’
over next 3 years
• Growth in (Q30)…………………………snacks such as muesli bars
UNIT X: HISTORY
PART 4
Questions 31 – 40: Complete the lecture notes using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for
each answer.
PUBLIC SPEAKING
Public speaking means speaking to (Q31)…………………………. people
Lack of confidence usually due to (Q32)…………………………..
A. PLANNING
First part of public speaking is (Q33)…………………………….
This includes: (Q34)………………………………
and length of talk
Make speech notes on small cards to talk from
(Q35)………………………….. with the audience (very important)
B. VOICE
Speak slowly - this gives time for pronunciation and is easier for audience
- bigger audience requires (Q36)………………………….. speech
Project your voice - rehearse and (Q37)……………………………
Check intonation: varied tone and rhythm give (Q38)……………………………
C. BODY LANGUAGE
Lastly, think about your (Q39)……………………………… and gestures
Show confidence by: head up, chin out, shoulders back
Avoid scratching and fiddling because this (Q40)……………………………….. and irritates your
audience.
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UNIT X: HISTORY
20.2. READING
READING PASSAGE 1
Survivor from the sky
In a remarkable documentary, Wings of Hope, German director Werner Herzog re-counts the
true story of an eighteen-year-old girl, the sole survivor of a plane crash in the Amazon jungle in
1971. Twenty-nine years later, Herzog returns to the jungle with Juliane Koepke, now a 46-year-old
biologist, and she tells her amazing story on film.
Juliane had just graduated from high school in Lima, Peru and, with her mother, was flying
out to spend Christmas at her father’s research station in the jungle. A half hour into the flight they
encountered a horrific storm. In the midst of wild turbulence, the plane was struck by lightning and
fell into a nosedive. Passengers screamed as baggage flew around the compartment. Then the
plane broke into pieces and suddenly Juliane found herself outside free-falling 30,000 feet. ‘I was
suspended in mid-air, still in my scat. It wasn’t so much that I had left the plane but that the plane had
left me. It simply wasn’t there anymore. I was all alone with my row of seats,’ says Juliane. ‘I sailed on
through the air, then I tumbled into a fall. The seatbelt squeezed my stomach and I couldn’t breathe
anymore.’ Before she lost consciousness, Juliane saw the dense jungle below, ‘a deep green, like
broccoli’, with no clearings for hundreds of miles.
Somehow, miraculously, Juliane survived that fall from the sky. In the film, she speculates on
a number of factors which may have combined to save her. First, the storm had produced a strong
updraft from the thunder clouds. Secondly, being strapped into a row of seats, she was aware
of falling in a spiralling movement, like a maple seed pod. Then, hitting the canopy of trees, she
tumbled through a maze of vines which slowed her landing in deep mud.
But surviving the fall, though miraculous in itself, was just the beginning. When Juliane awoke
hours later, wet and covered with mud, she was still strapped to her seat. Staggering to her feet, she
assessed her injuries: a fractured bone in the neck, concussion and deep cuts in her leg and back.
She was also in shock, lost and totally alone in the Amazon jungle.
No doubt it was her familiarity with the wilderness that enabled her to cope. Her parents were
biologists and Juliane had grown up in the jungle. She realised her only hope was to follow a little
stream of water nearby, trusting that it would eventually lead to a larger river and rescue. With no
provisions, dressed in the miniskirt she had worn on the plane and wearing just one shoe, she set off
through the jungle. She passed broken fragments from the plane - a wheel, an engine. ‘Initially, I saw
planes circling above me, but after a few days I realised the search had been called off,’ she said.
Surprisingly she felt no hunger but as the days passed her health was deteriorating rapidly.
The gash in her shoulder, where flies had laid their eggs was now crawling with maggots. ‘I knew
I’d perish in the jungle so I stayed in the water.’ Walking in the stream, however, presented one risk
more serious than any others. Before each step she had to poke ahead in the sand with a stick, to
avoid treading on poisonous sting rays, lying hidden on the bottom.
UNIT X: HISTORY
As the stream grew into a river, swimming was the only option. However, here in deeper water,
there were new threats. Crocodiles basking on the shores slipped silently into the water as she
passed. Juliane trusted that they feared humans and were entering the water to hide. She swam on.
On the tenth day, starving and barely conscious, she spotted a hut and a canoe. They belonged to
three woodcutters working nearby. Rescue was at hand.
For this 46-year-old woman, re-living such a traumatic experience on film must have been a
great challenge. But she shows little emotion. Flying back into the jungle, she sits in the same seat
(19F) as on that fateful day. She is dispassionate, unemotional in describing the flight. On the ground,
when they finally locate the crash site, in dense jungle, Juliane is scientific in her detachment, looking
through the debris, now buried under dense vegetation. She examines a girl’s purse, the skeleton
of a suitcase. Walking along the stream, she spots the engine which she remembers passing on the
third day. Her arms and legs are covered with mosquitoes, but she seems to ignore all discomfort.
Then, back in the town, standing in front of a monument erected in memory of the victims of the
crash, entitled Alas de Esperanza (Wings of Hope), Juliane comments simply, T emerged, as the
sole embodiment of hope from this disaster
Questions 1 – 3: Answer the following questions using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from
the passage.
Q1. How old was Juliane at the time of the crash? ……………………………………
Q2. What is her occupation now? ……………………………………..
Q3. What was the cause of the plane crash?……………………………………..
Questions 4 – 10: Choose the correct letter A – D
Q4. What happened to the plane?
A. It broke apart in the air

B. It hit trees and exploded.
C. It crashed into a mountainside.
D. It hit the ground and burst into flames.
Q5. Which of the following did NOT help to slow her fall?
A. an updraft caused by storm clouds

B. hitting vines
C. the section of seats to which she was attached
D. a parachute
Q6. Which of the following injuries did she sustain?
A. a broken foot
B. a broken arm
C. concussion
D. cuts on her head.
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UNIT X: HISTORY
Q7. What, helped her to survive?
A. Knowledge of the jungle
B. a map showing the location of the river
C. appropriate clothing and shoes
D. food supplies from the plane
Q8. What was the biggest threat to her survival?
A. infected wounds
B. sting rays
C. starvation
D. crocodiles
Q9. How long was she lost in the jungle?
A. 3 days
B. 5 days
C. 10 days
D. 15 days
Q10. How was she finally rescued?
A. A search party found her in the jungle.
B. Native hunters found her.
C. She signalled to a plane from the river.
D. She reached a campsite along the river.
Questions 11 – 14: Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in this passage?
Write:

Q11. Other survivors of the crash were found in the jungle.
Q12. Juliane was upset when she re-visited the crash site.
Q13. Wings of Hope is the name given to a memorial statue.
Q14. Juliane suffered nightmares for many years as a result of her experience
UNIT X: HISTORY
READING PASSAGE 2
The race to make spider silk
The strength, toughness, and elasticity of silk continue to fascinate scientists, who wonder what
gives this natural material its unusual qualities. Finer than human hair, lighter than cotton, and ounce
for ounce stronger than steel, silk is of special interest to materials researchers. They are trying
to duplicate its properties and synthesise it for large-scale production. Silk holds the promise of
wear-resistant shoes and clothes; stronger ropes, nets, seatbelts and parachutes; rustfree panels
and bumpers for automobiles; improved sutures and bandages; artificial tendons and ligaments;
supports for weakened blood vessels as well as bulletproof vests.
Many insects secrete silks of varying quality. Best known is the moth bombyx mori, whose
caterpillar is commonly known as the silkworm. It spins its cocoon from a single thread between
300 and 900 metres long and has been used for centuries to make fine garments. But the focus of
scientific attention today is on spider silk: tougher, stretchier, and more waterproof than silkworm
strands. Spiders make as many as seven different types of silk, but one spider and two types of silk
are at the centre of intense interest. The spider is the golden orb-weaving spider, nephila clavipes.
Its two silks under investigation go by the evocative names ‘dragline’ and ‘capture’.
Dragline is the silk which forms the frame for the wheel-shaped webs and enables the dangling
spider to drop down and grab its prey. This silk exhibits a combination of strength and toughness
unmatched by high-performance synthetic fibre.
Capture silk is the resilient substance at the centre of the web. To catch a speeding insect, it
may stretch to almost three times its original length. Insects get entangled in the sticky web because
the stretchiness of capture silk lets the web move back and forth after the insect hits it. If the web
were stiff, the insect might just bounce off. Whereas dragline is stronger, capture silk is more flexible,
five times more flexible in fact.
Because the orb weaver’s survival depends on its silk, some 400 million years of evolution have
fine-tuned a remarkably tough and versatile material. Now, research groups all over the world are
competing to spin the first artificial spider silk, a job that requires a three-step approach: to determine
the fibre’s molecular architecture, to understand the genes that yield silk proteins, and then to learn
how to spin the raw material into threads.
The first two steps are well underway. The molecular structure for both dragline and capture silk
is known and now researchers have cloned several genes for the silks and unravelled their protein
structure.
The next step is to find hosts for the artificial genes. Plants and fungi, as well as bacteria, are
being considered. If a hardy plant could express a dragline silk gene, silk proteins could eventually
be harvested in large quantities, processed into a liquid, polymer, and spun in factories, A different
experimental approach is to insert the web gene into goats in order to collect the protein from the
goats’ milk. Goats are being used instead of the simpler and much cheaper bacteria, because the
secret of the protein’s strength lies in how the molecules cross-link with one another. When bacteria
is used to make artificial web, the protein folds in a way that prevents it. from cross-linking properly,
resulting in hard while lumps. The spider makes protein in a manner similar to the way mammals
make milk, so the researchers hope that the protein made in the goats’ mammary glands will be able
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UNIT X: HISTORY
to cross-link properly. Once the protein is extracted from the goats’ milk, the next step is to find a
way to spin it.
Spiders make their silk in environmentally friendly ways. They process proteins from water-based
solutions which, from a manufacturing point of view, is very attractive. The process of making
synthetic fibres like nylon, on the other hand, requires petroleum products or organic solvents and
results in pollution. So bio-technologists arc motivated by both the practical and economic potential
of generating artificial spider silk. Globally, as much as 60 per cent of the threads used to weave
clothing come from natural fibre, including cotton, wool, and silk. The aim is to offer substitutes for
natural fibres that arc free of the problems of poor wash-wear performance: stretching, wrinkling arid
shrinkage. They are seeking a better-than-natural alternative fibre for which there is a major market.
Bio-inspired materials are providing a new frontier for the fibre business.
Questions 15 – 19: Classify the following as relating to:
Example: forms the cocoon - A

Q15. forms the framework of a web
A. the silk of bombyx mori
Q16. most elastic silk
B. dragline silk of nephila clavipes
Q17. allows predator to drop quickly
C. capture silk of nephila clavipes
Q18. single strand can be up to 900 metres long
Q19. strongest silk
Questions 20 – 24: Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer in the passage?
Write:

Q20. All spiders secrete silk.
Q21. Artificial genes for spider silk have been produced.
Q22. Spider silk protein occurs naturally in goats’ milk.
Q23. China is leading research efforts in the area of spider silk.
Q24. Spider silk is now being produced commercially.
UNIT X: HISTORY
Questions 25 – 27
Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer, complete the following.
Comparison of Synthetic and Natural Fibres
• Main problem in the production of synthetic fibres:
(Q25)……………………………..
• 3 disadvantages of natural fibres:
(Q26)……………………………..
• Proportion of clothing made from natural fibre:
(Q27)……………………………….
READING PASSAGE 3
Map wars
A map of the world expresses a point of view. A correct model of the earth is a sphere - or an
ellipsoid to be precise. Photographs of the earth from space provide comforting reassurance on that
point. If you wish to know the relative positions of the continents and the oceans you should go out
and buy yourself a globe and spin it around.
But a globe cannot be pinned to a wall or printed in a book. For that you need a two-dimen-
sional representation. This is where the problems start since you cannot project three-dimen-
sional information onto a flat plane without making certain assumptions. The arguments between
cartographers mostly concern what those assumptions should be.
The simplest two-dimensional representation is a ‘cylindrical’ projection - what you get by
wrapping a sheet of paper around a globe and simply transferring the information across. This means
it indicates true north and south. So, Newfoundland is directly north of Venezuela and it appears that
way on the map. East and west similarly are also indicated correctly. Such a map demonstrates what
is called ‘fidelity of axis’.
One of the longest-lived cylindrical projections was based on the needs of sixteenth century
navigators. Gerhard Kremer, a Flemish mathematician, produced his view of the world in 1569.
‘Kremer’ translates to ‘merchant’ in English and ‘mercator’ in Latin. And the Mercator projection
survives to this day in many books and maps.
Mercator’s projection of the world also shows intermediate compass directions like north-west
more or less accurately. So, it is possible to conclude from his map that Brazil is south-west of Liberia
and if you plot a course in that direction you will eventually arrive at your destination. No wonder it
was appreciated by the early explorers! If it can be used in this way a map is said to have ‘fidelity of
angle’.
But fidelity of angle is only achieved at a cost. To make it work, the further away you get from
the equator, the further apart you have to move the horizontal lines of latitude. As these distances
increase so do the sizes of the countries underneath them. So, by the time you get to the North or
South Poles the lines would be drawn infinitely far apart and the Arctic and Antarctic regions can
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scarcely be represented at all since they would be infinitely large. More importantly the relative sizes
of intermediate areas are completely distorted; South America seems smaller than Europe whereas
in fact it is twice the size. These changes in scale distort both the size and shape of countries. Given
such defects, it is surprising that the Mercator projection has survived so long, especially as dozens
of other more satisfactory projections have appeared since. One of the best known of these is the
Aitoff projection of 1889, which attempted to represent country sizes and shapes more correctly. But
to do so required a compromise - the lines of latitude and longitude had to be ‘bent’. Fidelity of axis
had thus been lost and you could no longer judge north, south, east and west so easily. Most of us,
however, did not notice that these projections were different from Mercator. We assumed that all
maps were simply factual statements.
Dr. Arno Peters, a German historian, was irritated by the maps he saw widely published,
particularly by the survival of Mercator which he argued, gave a euro-centric view of the world. It
shrank the developing countries since most of these are around the equator, and it expanded the
richer countries since they lay further north. Even the equator itself is shown two thirds of the way
down on the traditional Mercator map. Dr. Peters insisted that his map, which first appeared in 1985,
has equal-area projection so that no country is given prominence over another, plus fidelity of axis to
avoid the disorientating effect of bent lines of latitude and longitude.
Then there is the question of country shape. If you were to take a photo of a globe in its normal
position you would find the countries around the equator like Zaire or Ecuador came out of it pretty
well. They would be shown relatively large and with something close to their correct shape. But
further north or south there are considerable distortions: Australia tails away alarmingly. Dr. Peters
decided that the minimum distortions should occur not at the equator but at the 45 degree lines of
latitude, as these are much more populated areas. However, this controversial Peters map does
radically change the shape of both Africa and South America; and although all projections distort to
some extent, it is clear that Africa appears exceptionally long and thin on the Peters map.
But the oddity of the Peters projection is at least partly responsible for its success, as there
has been widespread discussion on the misrepresentation of country sizes in previous maps. The
issues which the Peters map raises are relatively simple. If you decide you want an equal area map
with fidelity of axis you will always get something resembling the Peters projection. If you decide that
shape is more significant you will get something else.
The real value of the Peters projection is that it has made the world think about something that
before was never taken seriously: that maps of the world represent a point of view just as do press
articles or TV programmes or photographs. But it isn’t recommended that you navigate a ‘747’ round
the world with the Peters projection or with any other single global projection they would all lead you
astray!
UNIT X: HISTORY
Questions 28 – 31: Complete the summary.
Choose your answers from the box below the summary. NB There are more words than you will
need to fill the gaps
Axis Estimate Perspective

Map Direction Compare
Size Judge Accurately
Angle Distances models
Projection Change
For four centuries, map makers have been trying to convert three-dimensional information as
accurately (example) as possible onto a two-dimensional plane. However, each method of
(Q28)……………………………. involves a compromise. Thus Mercator’s projection indicates
true north and south, known as fidelity of (Q29)…………………………..., but misrepresents the
relative size of countries.
To avoid this distortion, other cartographers rounded the lines of latitude and longitude. Dr.
Peters felt that such maps presented a first-world (Q30)…………………………... His map, with
equal area projection, enables us to (Q31)…………………………… the size of one country with
another.
Questions 32 – 36
Use the information in the text to match the map projections [M A P] with the characteristics listed
below.
Example: designed for the needs of early navigators - M

Q32. makes Europe seem larger than it is
M. Mercator projection
Q33. maximum distortions at the poles
A. Aitoff projection
Q34. maintains greatest accuracy at 45 degrees latitude
P. Peters projection
Q35. most distorts the position of the equator
Q36. more accurately represents country shapes and sizes
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Questions 37 – 39
Choose one drawing (A-D) to match each of the three projection types (37-39).
A B
C D
There are more drawings than names so you will not use all of them.
Q37. Mercator projection
Q38. Aitoff projection
Q39. Peters projection
Questions 40: Choose the correct letter A-D.
Q40. The main point made by the writer of this article is that we need to ...
A. understand maps.
B. understand map-making.
C. understand that maps are not objective.
D. understand the importance of latitude and longitude.
UNIT XI: MENTAL HEALTH

21.1. SPEAKING
Pair up and answer these following questions
PART 1
1. Would you describe yourself as a mental- giant?

2. Are you a determined person?
3. Are you a rational or emotional person?
4. Have you ever cracked under pressure?
5. What would you do to pull yourself up after a failure?
6. What do you think about sore losers?
7. Is being competitive a positive or negative personality?
PART 2
Describe a time you failed at doing Describe a time you successfully

something complete an impossible task
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
Describe a time you are under a Describe a time somebody make

lot of pressures you feel upset or angry
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
- ………………….…………… - ………………….……………
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PART 3:
1. Why do people tend to crack under pressure?

2. Do you think deadlines create motivation or pressure?
3. What would you do if you were given an impossible task?
4. Do you think mental health is more important than physical health?
5. Do you think becoming a celebrity requires a strong mentality?
6. Have you ever fallen under peer pressure?
7. What types of pressure do we receive from our parents?
21.2 WRITING
Exercise 1: Task 1 (Process)
The diagram below shows one way of manufacturing ceramic pots.

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Exercise 2: Task 2 (Problems/ Solutions Essays)
It is said that high school students should be taking part time jobs or internships at official companies
and enterprises in order to gain experience and strengthen their mentality.
What are the problems that can possibly occur? What impacts can it have on students?
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WEEK 11 ASSIGNMENT
Watch the movie “Me, Earl and the Dying Girl” and answer this question:
Why did Greg lie about Rachel’s dying in the beginning of the movie?...
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22.1. LISTENING
PART 1
Questions 1 – 5: Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A
STUDENT EMPLOYMENT BUREAU STUDENT REGISTRATION FORM
Faculty: Sdence
Given name: Charlotte
Surname: (Q1) ………………………………..
Address (Q2) ……………………………….. Heathfield St. Maryland
Telephone numbers:
Home N/A
Mobile: (Q3) ………………………………….
Number of hours (Q4) …………………………………. Per week

preferred
Employment (Q5) ………………………………….

experience:
Questions 6 – 8: Choose the correct answer, A, B or C
Q6. What time should Annetta finish work in the hamburger shop?
A. 7:00 pm
B. 3:00 am
C. 11:00 pm
Q7. What is the problem with Annetta’s pay at the hamburger shop?
A. the pay is too much

B. the pay is late
C. the pay isn’t correct
Q8. How many children will Annetta have to look after?
A two boys and a girl

B two boys and two girls
C two girls and a boy

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Questions 9 – 11: Label the map, choosing your answers from the list below.Write the correct
letters A-E on the map.
(Q9)……………………………
(Q10)…………………………..
(Q11)…………………………..
PART 2
Questions 12 – 14: Choose the correct letter A, B or C
Q12. The excursion is being organised for ...
A. all students.
B. overseas students.
C. new students.
Q13. How far is it from the college to Ironbridge?
A. 59 kilometres
B. 55 kilometres
C. 50 kilometres
Q14. Students going on the excursion should look at the list and ...
A. print their name, telephone number, student number and tick if they have a car.
B. print their telephone number and sign their name.
C. print their name and tick if they have a car.
Questions 15 – 16: Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR NUMBERS for each answer.
Q15. If students do not like eating meat, can they get a cheap meal at the restaurant in Ironbridge?
……………………………..
Q16. What time must the students arrive to catch the bus? ………………………………
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Questions 17: Choose the correct letter A – D. Which building is the bus garage?
(Q17)……………………
Questions 18 – 20: Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS OR NUMBERS for each answer.
Name THREE things that Pamela Sutcliffe recommends the students take on the excursion.
DON’T FORGET
- Comfortable Shoes
- Warm Jacket
- (Q18) …………………
Where will students find details in writing on Monday?
(Q19) ……………………
Why is Ironbridge famous?
(Q20) ……………………
Questions 21: Which three of the following famous tourist sights are mentioned?Write the correct
letters A-H.
(Q21) ……………………………
A. Great Wall of China C. Grand Canyon E. Taj Mahal G. Leaning Tower of Pisa
B. Angkor Wat D. Pyramids F. Mt. Kilimanjaro H. Great Barrier Reef

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PART 3
Questions 22 – 26: Look at this notice detailing the students’ work experience placements.
Write NO CHANGE if the information has NOT changed or WRITE IN THE CHANGES.
Student Day Starting

Business Answer
name Am/pm date
Example:
Theresa University Bookshop Friday mornings 23/3
No change
Example:
Manuel Mainly music Tuesday mornings 7/3
Friday afternoons
Henry The beauty shop Thursday afternoons 22/3 (Q22)…………….
Jo Highway Hotels Monday mornings 5/3 (Q23)…………….
Explore Travel
Nancy Wednesday mornings 14/3 (Q24)…………….
Service
Chris Gorgeous Gowns Wednesday mornings 14/3 (Q25)…………….
Gordon Games to Go Tuesday afternoons 20/3 (Q26)…………….
Questions 27 – 30: Complete Gordon’s notes about his work experience placement using NO
MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER.
Work experience placement
Starting times: (Q27)………………………. am
1 pm
If ill, phone: (Q28)………………………….
Presentation:
• due in week 10
• worth (Q29)…………………………. of assessment
• outline history, management structure, etc.
• include visuals
e.g. (Q30)………………………….. and flow charts.
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PART 4
Questions 31 – 34: Select T for ‘True’ or F for ‘False’.

Q31. One of the main points of the talk is to save money.
Q32. She thinks students should do more housework.
Q33. She argues that plastic containers won’t biodegrade quickly.
Q35. To remove tea or coffee stains, you should use ...

A. bicarbonate of soda.
B. a vacuum cleaner.
C. milk.
Q36. If you burn your saucepan accidentally, you should ...

A. give it to a friend.
B. wipe it with vinegar.
C. put vinegar and salt in it and boil it.
Q37. If you scratch wooden furniture, you can remove the marks using ...
A. a salt mixture.
B. sesame oil.
C. olive oil and vinegar.
Questions 38 – 40: Complete the notes on the bottle label. Write NO MORE THAN TWO
WORDS for each answer.
“Green” carpet shampoo
Ingredients
Pure soap, cloudly ammonia, washing soda

(Q38)……………………….
Instructions
Mix ingredients together and apply to the carpet

(Q39)…………………… until it lathers
Wipe off (Q40)……………………

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22.2. READING
READING PASSAGE 1
PLEASE HOLD THE LINE
Nearly all of us know what it’s like to be put on ‘musical hold’. Call almost any customer service
number, and you can expect to hear at least a few bars of boring elevator music before an operator
picks up. The question is: do you hang up or do you keep holding? That may depend on your
gender and what type of music is playing, according to research reported by University of Cincinnati
Associate Professor of Marketing, James Kellaris.
Kellaris, who has studied the effects of music on consumers for more than 12 years, teamed
with Sigma Research Management Group to evaluate the effects of ‘hold music’ for a company that
operates a customer service line.
The researchers tested four types of ‘on-hold’ music with 71 of the company’s clients, 30 of
them women. Light jazz, classical, rock and the company’s current format of adult alternative (a mix
of contemporary styles) were all tested. The sample included individual consumers, small business
and large business segments. Participants were asked to imagine calling a customer assistance line
and being placed on hold. They were then exposed to ‘on-hold’ music via headsets and asked to
estimate how long it played. Their reactions and comments were also solicited and quantified by the
researchers.
Service providers, of course don’t want you to have to wait on hold, but if you do, they want it
to be a pleasant experience for you. But Kellaris’ conclusions may hold some distressing news for
companies. No matter what music was played, the time spent ‘on hold’ was generally overestimated.
The actual wait in the study was 6 minutes, but the average estimate was 7 minutes and 6 seconds.
He did find some good news for the client who hired him. The kind of music they’re playing now,
alternative, is probably their best choice. Two things made it a good choice. First, it did not produce
significantly more positive or negative reactions in people. Second, males and females were less
polarised in their reactions to this type of music.
Kellaris’ other findings, however, make the state of musical hold a little less firm: time spent ‘on
hold’ seemed slightly shorter when light jazz was played, but the effect of music format differed for
men and women. Among the males, the wait seemed shortest when classical music was played.
Among the females, the wait seemed longest when classical music was played. This may be related
to differences in attention levels and musical preferences.
In general, classical music evoked the most positive reactions among males; light jazz evoked
the most positive reactions (and shortest waiting time estimates) among females. Rock was the least
preferred across both gender groups and produced the longest waiting time estimates. ‘The rock
music’s driving beat kind of aggravates people calling customer assistance with a problem,’ said
Kellaris. ‘The more positive the reaction to the music, the shorter the waiting time seemed to be. So
maybe time does tend to fly when you’re having fun, even if you’re on musical hold,’ Kellaris joked.
But unfortunately for companies operating on-hold lines, men and women have different ideas
about what music is ‘fun’. ‘The possible solution,’ Kellaris joked, ‘might be for the recorded message
to say: if you’re a male, please press one; if you’re a female, please press two. If you are in a bad
mood, please hang up and try later.’
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Questions 1 – 2: Choose the correct letter A-D
Q1. The researchers concluded that ... Q2. The researchers recommended that ...
A. subjects underestimated the time spent ’on A. their client continue to play alternative
hold’. music.
B. it is better for companies not to use any B. four types of music should be offered to
‘on-hold’ music. people ‘on hold’.
C. light jazz was the most acceptable music overall. C. advertising is preferable to music.
D. both gender and type of music influence D. women can be kept waiting for longer than
callers’ reaction. men
Questions 3 – 7: Choose the type of music from the list A-D below which corresponds to the
findings of the study.
Example: longest waiting lime estimate for women C

Types of music
Q3. music preferred by men
A. light jazz
Q4. longest waiting time estimate (both sexes)
B. alternative
Q5. music to avoid on telephone hold
C. classical
Q6. music to use if clients are mostly women
D. rock
Q7. best choice of ‘on-hold’ music overall
Questions 8 -13: Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer? Write:

Q8. Businesses want to minimise the time spent ‘on hold’.

Q9. The research sample consisted of real clients of a company.
Q10. The sample consisted of equal numbers of men and women.
Q11. Advertising is considered a poor alternative to ‘on-hold’ music.
Q12. The consumer service company surveyed was playing classical music.
Q13. Researchers asked subjects only to estimate the length of time they waited ‘on hold’.

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READING PASSAGE 2
Did tea and beer bring about industrialisation?
A. Alan Macfarlane thinks he could rewrite history. The professor of anthropological science at King’s
College, Cambridge has, like other historians, spent decades trying to understand the enigma of the
Industrial Revolution. Why did this particular important event - the world-changing birth of industry -
happen in Britain? And why did it happen at the end of the 18th century?
B. Macfarlane compares the question to a puzzle. He claims that there were about 20 different
factors and all of them needed to be present before the revolution could happen. The chief conditions
are to be found in history textbooks. For industry to ‘take off, there needed to be the technology
and power to drive factories, large urban populations to provide cheap labour, easy transport to
move goods around, an affluent middle-class willing to buy mass-produced objects, a market-driven
economy, and a political system that allowed this to happen. While this was the case for England,
other nations, such as Japan, Holland and France also met some of these criteria. All these factors
must have been necessary but not sufficient to cause the revolution. Holland had everything except
coal, while China also had many of these factors. Most historians, however, are convinced that one
or two missing factors are needed to solve the puzzle.
C. The missing factors, he proposes, are to be found in every kitchen cupboard. Tea and beer,
two of the nation’s favourite drinks, drove the revolution. Tannin, the active ingredient in tea, and
hops, used in making beer, both contain antiseptic properties. This, plus the fact that both are made
with boiled water, helped prevent epidemics of waterborne diseases, such as dysentery, in densely
populated urban areas.
D. Historians had noticed one interesting factor around the mid-18th century that required explanation.
Between about 1650 and 1740, the population was static. But then there was a burst in population.
The infant mortality rate halved in the space of 20 years, and this happened in both rural areas
and cities, and across all classes. Four possible causes have been suggested. There could have
been a sudden change in the viruses and bacteria present at that time, but this is unlikely. Was
there a revolution in medical science? But this was a century before Lister introduced antiseptic
surgery. Was there a change in environmental conditions? There were improvements in agriculture
that wiped out malaria, but these were small gains. Sanitation did not become widespread until the
19th century. The only option left was food. But the height and weight statistics show a decline. So
the food got worse. Efforts to explain this sudden reduction in child deaths appeared to draw a blank.
E. This population burst seemed to happen at just the right time to provide labour for the Industrial
Revolution. But why? When the Industrial Revolution started, it was economically efficient to have
people crowded together forming towns and cities. But with crowded living conditions comes disease,
particularly from human waste. Some research in the historical records revealed that there was
a change in the incidence of waterborne disease at that time, especially dysentery. Macfarlane
deduced that whatever the British were drinking must have been important in controlling disease.
They drank beer and ale. For a long time, the English were protected by the strong antibacterial
agent in hops, which were added to make beer last. But in the late 17th century a tax was introduced
on malt. The poor turned to water and gin, and in the 1720s the mortality rate began to rise again.
Then it suddenly dropped again. What was the cause?
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F. Macfarlane looked to Japan, which was also developing large cities about the same time, and
also had no sanitation. Waterborne diseases in the Japanese population were far fewer than those
in Britain. Could it be the prevalence of tea in their culture? That was when Macfarlane thought about
the role of tea in Britain. The history of tea in Britain provided an extraordinary coincidence of dates.
Tea was relatively expensive until Britain started direct trade with China in the early 18th century.
By the 1740s, about the time that infant mortality was falling, the drink was common. Macfarlane
guesses that the fact that water had to be boiled, together with the stomach-purifying properties of
tea so eloquently described in Buddhist texts, meant that the breast milk provided by mothers was
healthier than it had ever been. No other European nation drank tea so often as the British, which,
by Macfarlane’s logic, pushed the other nations out of the race for the Industrial Revolution.
G. But, if tea is a factor in the puzzle, why didn’t this cause an industrial revolution in Japan? Macfarlane
notes that in the 17th century, Japan had large cities, high literacy rates and even a futures market.
However, Japan decided against a work-based revolution, by giving up labour-saving devices,
even animals, to avoid putting people out of work. Astonishingly, the nation that we now think of as
one of the most technologically advanced, entered the 19th century having almost abandoned the
wheel. While Britain was undergoing the Industrial Revolution, Macfarlane notes wryly, Japan was
undergoing an industrious one.
H. The Cambridge academic considers the mystery solved. He adds that he thinks the UN should
encourage aid agencies to take tea to the world’s troublespots, along with rehydration sachets and
food rations.
Questions 14 – 18: The passage has 8 sections A-H.Choose the most suitable headings for
paragraphs B-F from the list of headings below.Write the appropriate numbers (i-x).
NB There are more headings than sections so you will not use all of them.
List of Headings
i. The significance of tea drinking
ii. Possible solution to the puzzle
iii. Industry in Holland and France Example: A – x

Q14. Section B
iv. Significant population increase
Q15. Section C
v. The relationship between drinks and disease
Q16. Section D
vi. Gin drinking and industrialisation
Q17. Section E
vii. Dysentery prevention in Japan and Holland
Q18. Section F
viii. Japan’s waterborne diseases
ix. Preconditions necessary for Industrial Revolution
x. Introduction

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Questions 19 – 22: Complete the table using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the
passage.
Century Social change in Britain Reason Effect on population
Mid-17th Main drinks were still Imps helped to make

no significant change
century Beer and ale (example) beer last longer
beer becomes
Late 17th gin becomes more popular,
expensive because mortality rate goes up
century especially with poor people
of (Q19)………………..
(Q20)……………………
Early 18th Britain starts trade with mortality rate goes
drinking starts to become
century China down
widespread
(Q22)……………………
decline in urban
Mid-18 th water used for tea infant mortality rate
deaths caused
century and beer; antibacterial goes down by half
by (Q21)…………………
qualities of tannin
Questions 23 – 25: Choose the correct answer, A, B, C or D
Q23. In 1740 there was a population explosion in Britain because ...

A. large numbers of people moved to live in cities.
B. larger quantities of beer were drunk.
C. of the health protecting qualities of beer and tea.
D. of the Industrial Revolution.
Q24. According to the author, the Japanese did not industrialise because they didn’t ...
A. like drinking beer.
B. It want animals to work.
C. like using wheels.
D. want unemployment.
Q25. Macfarlane thinks he has discovered why ...

A. the British drink beer and tea
B. industrialisation happened in Britain when it did.
C. the Japanese did not drink beet.
D. sanitation wasn’t widespread until the 19th century.
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READING PASSAGE 3
TEAM-BASED LEARNING
With the globalisation of information technology (IT) and worldwide access to the Internet, people
from all areas of learning are finding themselves using some form of information technology in the
workplace. The corporate world has seen a boom in the use of IT tools, but conversely, not enough
people with IT skills that can enter the workplace and be productive with minimal on-the-job training.
A recent issue of the New York Times reports that many companies are looking for smart
students who may have a budding interest in IT. Some companies, trying to encourage students to
attend interviews, provide good salary packages and challenging work environments. For example,
one American IT consulting company offers high salaries, annual bonuses, and immediate stock
options to potential recruits. It also brings in 25 to 40 prospective applicants at a time for a two-day
visit to the company. This time includes interviews, team exercises and social events. The idea
behind the team exercises is that the applicants get to see that they will be working with other smart
people doing really interesting things, rather than sitting alone writing code.
In the past 10 years, employers have seen marked benefits from collaborative projects in product
development. Apart from the work environment, there is also a similar body of research indicating
that small team-based instruction can lead to different kinds of desirable educational results. In order
to prepare IT graduates to meet these workplace requirements, colleges and universities are also
beginning to include team-based educational models.
One of the leaders in promoting team-based education is the American Intercontinental
University (AIU), which has campuses worldwide. AIU offers programs in IT with a major portion of
the curriculum based on team projects. AIU has a large body of international students and students
from different educational backgrounds. This team-based learning gives the students a sense of
social and technical support within the group, and allows students first-hand experience of both
potential successes and of inherent problems encountered when working with others.
Team-oriented instruction has not been the common mode of delivery in traditional college
settings. However, since most college graduates who choose to go into an IT work environment
will encounter some form of teamwork at work, it is to their advantage that they are educated using
collaborative learning and that they are taught the tools needed to work with different people in
achieving common goals or objectives.
In team-based learning, students spend a large part of their in-class time working in permanent
and heterogeneous teams. Most teams are made up of individuals with different socio-cultural
backgrounds and varying skill levels. Team activities concentrate on using rather than just learning
concepts, whilst student grades are a combination of overall team performance and peer evaluation
of individual team members.
In a team-based environment, the teacher takes on the role of a facilitator and manager of
learning, instead of just providing information to passive students. The facilitator/teacher also guides
the team in identifying their goals and establishing standards of team performance. Team exercises
then help the students to improve their problem-solving skills by applying theory to simulated
real-world situations. Working as a team allows students to adopt new roles and empowers them to
control their own learning. Students in teams are taught to use each other as resources and accept
the responsibility of managing tasks.

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Team members must also study assigned material individually to ensure their preparation
for classes. There are individual assessment tests to measure if students have not only read the
assigned material, but also understand the concepts of the module, and can apply them to given
problems. Additional team assessment tests present a problem for discussion and require consensus,
helping students learn critical communication skills. This also enables them to deal with conflicts
between members before they escalate to crises. Team presentations (written or verbal) allow the
team to focus and build cohesion, with team members sharing the responsibility for presenting and
persuading the audience to accept their viewpoint. Feedback on how the team is functioning with
task management, team dynamics and overall work is given by the facilitator. Team exercises that
are application-oriented help students experience the practical application of concepts and learn
from other students’ perspectives.
Team-based classrooms are especially beneficial in colleges with international students. Since
this type of learning encourages people to listen and communicate with others, share problems,
resolve personal conflicts, and manage their time and resources, it is a great environment for
students who are in a new social situation. Since social interaction plays an important role during
teamwork, team learning has an added advantage for students who are not comfortable in traditional
classroom settings. It allows students from different cultures to understand their differences and use
them productively. This type of learning environment also allows students to express themselves
freely in a team context, rather than feeling singled out as when answering questions in a traditional
classroom.
This learning model was designed to better prepare students for today’s global workplace.
Students are encouraged to explore ideas together, to build communication skills and achieve
superior results. It is likely that employers will increasingly seek out students with these skills as we
move into the future.
Questions 26 – 32: Complete the summary below. Choose your answers from the box below the
summary. NB There are more words than you will need to fill the gaps.
List of Words Although IT is one of the leading career choice (example) made
exceeds by graduates today, the industry’s demand for qualified applicants

extracts
(Q26)………………………………….. the supply of skilled IT personnel.
choices
candidates Despite the (Q27)……………………………… widespread use of computer
employees technology in all areas of life, (Q28)…………………………….. face difficulties
admiration
recruiting people whose education has equipped them to commence working
previous
financial productively without further training. Several business organisations now offer
employment income and other (Q29)…………………………….. inducements to potential
regularity
employees. They also include group (Q30)…………………………. in their
advantages
employers selection procedures, often inviting up to forty (Q31)………………………….. to
environment their company for the two-day visit. In this way the company can demonstrate
activities
current the reality of the working (Q32)………………………….which is more likely to
involve challenging co-operative projects than individualised tasks.
IEL
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Questions 33 – 37: Do the following statements reflect the views of the writer of the
passage? Write:

Q33. The American Intercontinental University includes team-based learning in all its courses on all
its campuses.
Q34. The composition of teams is changed regularly.
Q35. Theoretical problems are the most important team activity.
Q36. The team members participate in assessment of other team members.
Q37. International students prefer traditional classroom learning to team-based learning.
Questions 38 – 40: Choose one phrase from the list of phrases A-H below to complete each of
the following sentences.NB There are more phrases than questions so you will not use all of them.
List of Phrases
A. to compete with other teams as judged by the facilitator.

Q38. Students’ work is
B. by individual tests and exams. assessed ...
C. to see who has the strongest point of view in the group.

Q39. The teams make a joint
D. individually, by their peers and as a team. presentation ...
E. in the development of communication skills.
F. to practise working as a group while putting theory into Q40. The need to achieve
consensus assists ...
practice.
G. to assist international and non-traditional students.
H. in getting to know new friends and colleagues.

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REFERENCES
Cambridge IELTS Book 12,14
IELTS Online Tests Mock tests
IELTS Simon Writing tasks
IELTS Advanced Tests Recent Tests
Compiled by PASAL R&D Team:

Hoang Anh Tuan
Nguyen Thu Ha
Nguyen Viet Phu
IEL
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OOK 213

Ielts Extensive Course: This Course Contains 2 Books

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Ielts Extensive Course: This Course Contains 2 Books

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IELTS EXTENSIVE

This course contains 2 books:

The Extensive Course Book.

The Quarterly Updated Book.

“It will always be impossible until you do it.”

UNIT 1: FINDING THE RIGHT MATERIALS UNIT 7: TRAFFIC

UNIT 2: NEWSPAPERS UNIT 8: SOCIAL SKILLS

UNIT 3: CLOTHING/ PERSONAL STYLES UNIT 9: COMFORT ZONE

UNIT 4: CELEBRITIES UNIT 10: HISTORY

UNIT 5: SOCIAL NETWORK UNIT 11: MENTAL HEALTH

UNIT 6: LIVING AND HOUSING

LESSON 1: SPEAKING & WRITING

1.1.1. Academic documents

The Source Board

IELTS Buddy https://www.ieltsbuddy.com/IELTS-speaking-questions-with-answers.html

IELTS- Exam net https://www.ielts-exam.net/ielts_speaking_samples/390/

IELTS- Mentor https://www.ielts-mentor.com/speaking-sample

IELTS Online Tests https://ieltsonlinetests.com/ielts-exam-library#academic

So, what should we do after accessing these documents?

Step 1: Identify Topics and Samples

Traffic TOPICS Personal skills

Describe a colleague of yours that you admire

Step 2: Academic Keywords Detecting

Step 3: Academic Keywords Usage

Keywords/ Phrases Meaning Use in a sentence

1.1.2.1. What are non-academic documents?

1.1.2.2. How will they help us with our Speaking?

1.1.2.3. What are the documents?

CASUAL CONVERSATION SPEAKING

Materials Shows to watch Purposes

Celebrities The Ellen Show, Jimmy Kimmel, To understand ways of formal

Jeff Dunham (Ventriloquist), Self To understand casual speaking,

Materials Shows to watch Purposes

To learn the differences between

Reports CEO Reports, Access To learn ways of connection

Reviews Movie Reviews, Food Review,

Materials Shows to watch Purposes

Ted X, Ted Presentation, Ted Presentation skills and vocabulary

Political talk and critical vocabulary

Horror feeds, Word leads, Can ask

1.2.1. Problems when searching for IELTS Writing documents

IELTS Exam Net https://www.ielts-exam.net/IELTS-Writing-Samples/ielts-writing.htm

IELTS Liz https://ieltsliz.com/ielts-sample-essay/

Put samples into the

Step 1: Collect the samples

Step 2: The “Track Table”

The “Track” Table

Whether or not tourist destinations benefit from

Sleepy coastal communities can be changed beyond

On the other hand, the local community do gain

Overall, tourism can be a good source of income

Step 3: Analyze word usage

Keywords/ Phrases Meaning Use in a sentence

LESSON 2: LISTENING & READING

IELTS Simon https://www.ielts-simon.com/

2.1.1. Non-Academic Documents

Firstly, there are 2 definitions of Reading that you should know:

INTENSIVE READING EXTENSIVE READING

Intensive Reading is considered To simply put, Extensive Reading is

Books Author Contents

Break Through the Blocks and Win Your Inner

Elastics Leonard Mlodinow Flexible Thinking in a Constantly Changing World

Ambition Cheryl Johnson Do big, dream bigger