PRACTICE TEST 14-8

SECTION I: LISTENING
Section 1: You will hear part of a radio programme about hypnotism. For questions 1 – 10, fill in each blank with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER to complete the
sentences. (20 points) source: CAE Cambridge
Dr. Anton Mesmer took his new form of treatment to Paris in (1)____1778___________________.
● Mesmerism was used to cure conditions such as deafness, rheumatism and (2)____paralysis_____________.
● Patients were treated in dark rooms, sitting in (3)____tops of water________________.
● The English (4)__surgeon_________________, James Braid, coined the word ‘hypnotism’ in 1841.
● Hypnotists use a swinging watch to (5)_____switch off____________the left of the brain.
● Watches, magnets and pictures of (6)______magical symbols____________have all been used as props.
● Hypnotherapists say they can help people who want to overcome (7)____insomnia_____________or (8)______lose weight__________.
● Hypnosis is particularly useful with problems which are (9)____psychologically-based_____________in origin such as stomach problems, skin disorders and (10)______chronic
headaches______________.
Section 2: You are going to hear a conversation between Richard and Louise. As you listen, indicate whether the statements are True (T) or False (F). (10 points)
● Richard does most of the washing up in his family. F (the most he has to do is take the dishes out of the dishwasher)
● Richard’s father makes him clean his shoes. T
● Louise doesn’t mind shopping for food. F
● Louise prefers to wait for her grandparents to visit her. T
● Louise’s father cleans the car himself. F (he takes it to the local car wash)
Section 3. You will hear a guide speaking to tourists who are visiting some Romans remains. Listen and give short answers to the questions. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS
AND/OR A NUMBER taken from the recording. (10 points)
Source: Cambridge English
1. When did the Romans first come to the Corbridge area?
__________79_______________________________________________________________
2. Why did the Romans built a series of forts and strongholds?
_______To establish position__________________________________________________________________
3. What did people begin to search for in 1201?
________________________Treasure_________________________________________________
4. How often have archaeological digs taken place since 1934?
_______________________________Once a year__________________________________________
5. What are the two things that visitors should pay attention to?
_________________________________________Loose stones, walls________________________________
Section 4: You will hear an interview in which two young entrepreneurs – Chloe Price, who sells skincare products online, and Martin Moore, who is a distributor of snack foods – are
talking about their work. For questions 1 – 5, choose the answer which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points) source:
CAE Cambridge
1. Chloe attributes her success as an entrepreneur to her
A. Exposure to unconventional business concepts.
B. Willingness to take risks.
C. Ability to benefit from experience.
D. Natural flair for money management.
2. Chloe thinks the greatest benefit new technology has brought her is in
A. Being able to promote her products through friends.
B. Encouraging interaction with consumers.
C. Reducing her ongoing business expenditure.
D. Enabling her to manage her time more effectively.
3. What does Martin say about finding work in the food industry?
A. It was a long-held ambition.
B. It was something he soon regretted.
C. It happened by chance.
D. It followed naturally from his studies.
4. Martin’s choice of product to distribute was based on his belief that
A. It was a quality item.
B. It was effectively marketed.
C. It was part of a well-established brand.
D. It was endorsed by famous people.
5. Both Chloe and Martin have been surprised by the importance in their work of
A. Collaborative decision-making.
B. Paying attention to detail.
C. Securing sound financial backing.
D. A total commitment to the enterprise.
SECTION II: LEXICO & GRAMMAR
Part 1. Choose a word or phrase that best completes each sentence.
1. There wasn't a...................of truth in what he said.
A. ray B. lump C. grain D. pinch
2. I would ............ my colleague's wrath and displeasure by using his research without consent.
A. incur B. co-occur C. concur D. recur
3. A student on the............. of a new life at university killed himself with a massive tranquiliser overdose
A. inception B. kick-off C. portal D. threshold
4. We giggled at the sight of Mrs. Brown.........down the road in her six-inch stiletto high-heels.
A. staggering B. tottering C. reeling D. stumbling
5. Has the show finally jumped the..............?
A. salmon B. herring C. shark D. dolphin
6.The end-of- semester marks in each year all count...............your final degree.
A. for B. towards C. in for D. as
7. I found the information for the project in the encyclopedia but I couldn’t give …………. and verse on it.
A. chapter B. unit C. poem D. extract
8.He was engrossed in the paperwork to the .............of his own interests and the annoyance of everybody concerned.
A. damage B. harm C. detriment D. disadvantage
9. He was absolutely _________ with anger when he found that I had scratched his car.
A, burned B. carmine C. fickle D. livid
10. She gets fifteen per cent...........on every insurance policy she sells.
A. salary B. commission C. bonus D. pension
11. The removal men.................. the heavy piano up the stairs with great difficulty.
A. pushed B. shoved C. thrust D. heaved
12. Members of rock groups were asked to............their behaviour or else leave the hotel.
A. modify B. amend C. transfer D. convert
13. Hedgehogs, bears and other animals and hibernate remain................during winter.
A. deactivated B. impassive C. dormant D. inert
14. I don't know how George could ever find anything as his desk was always ..........
A. messed B. cluttered C. jumbled D. crammed
15. Her father ...............her when she came home two hours late from a party.
A. let in for B. let out C. laid into D. laid aside
16. I'm afraid we got our ................crossed. I thought my husband would be picking up the children and he thought I was doing it.
A. minds B. purposes C. fingers D. wires
Part 2: Write the correct form of each bracketed word.
Slave Narratives
In the wake of the bloody Nat Turner (1. rebel) ____rebellion______ in Southampton County, Virginia, in 1831, an increasingly fervent (2. slave) ____antislavery______ movement in the United
States sponsored (3. hand) ___first-hand_______ autobiographical accounts of slavery by fugitives from the South in order to make (4. abolish) ___abolitionists_______ of a largely (5. difference)
____indifferent______ white Northern readership. From 1830 to the end of the slavery era, the fugitive slave narrative dominated the (6. literature) ____literary______ landscape of antebellum
black America. The Narrative of the Life of Frederick Douglass, an American Slave, Written by Himself (1845) gained the most attention, (7. establishment) ___establishing_______ Frederick
Douglass as the leading African American man of letters of his time. By predicating his struggle for freedom on his (8. sole) ___solitary_______ pursuit of literacy, education, and (9. depend)
___independence_______, Douglass portrayed himself as a (10. make) ___self-made_______ man, which appealed strongly to middle-class white Americans.
SECTION III. READING
Part 1. Read the following passage and choose the words that best complete the sentences.
From the words listed below, choose the one which best fits the space, A, B, C or D.
LONDON’S BLACK CABS
Black cabs, officially known as Hackney Carriages, are (1) _______ London and are special for a number of reasons. For a start, they are the only taxis in the city that can be hailed from the kerb with
a raised hand signal to get the driver’s attention. Currently, it is estimated that there are 20,000 black cabs (2) _______ on the capital’s streets. Their origin, in fact, can be (3) _______ the name
‘Hackney Carriage’ said to derive from the French word haquenée referring to the type of horse used to pull the carriages in the days of horse-drawn carriages. The first horse-drawn Hackney coaches
appeared on London’s streets in the 17th century during the reign of Queen Elizabeth I. As transport developed and motor cars were (4) _______, motor cabs replaced the horse-drawn carriages.
Since the end of the 19th century, various car manufacturers’ vehicles have been used as motor cabs but it was not until the mid-20th century that the cabs we have been (5) _______ over the last
decades first appeared.
It is such a(n) (6) _______ of becoming a black cab driver in London and it is (7) _______. If you want to gain this honour you will need to have passed the infamous test known as ‘the Knowledge’,
which was first introduced in 1851 following (8) _______ of complaints by passengers whose cab drivers got lost. This incredibly difficult test can take around three or four years to prepare for and
you can often catch a glimpse of those drivers who are doing just this zipping around London on their mopeds, with a map (9) _______ to a clipboard on their handlebars. These people are essentially
trying not only to master the 25,000 or so streets within a six-mile radius of Charing Cross, but also to work out the most direct routes from place to place. They must know thousands of ‘points of
interest’ such as hotels, hospitals, places of worship, theatres, stations, sports and leisure facilities, to name but a few. Practically everywhere and anywhere that a potential passenger would wish to be
taken to or from must be known, so a nodding acquaintance, for a black cab driver, is (10) _______, and perhaps this is the most difficult part, knowing the quickest way to get from one place to
another. Little wonder so few people are successful.
1. A. commensurate with B. equivalent to C. synonymous with D. tantamount to
2. A. hereabouts B. hither and thither C. or thereabouts D. there and then
3. A. ferreted out from B. hunted down from C. mapped out to D. traced back to
4. A. all the rage B. of high standing C. of repute D. in vogue
5. A. clued in on B. gunned up on C. in the know about D. no stranger to
6. A. handiwork B. procurement C. realisation D. undertaking
7. A. beyond you B. no brainer C. no mean feat D. over your head
8. A. droves B. hordes C. packs D. swarms
9. A. chained B. fastened C. linked D. sealed
10. A. beyond measure B. beyond redemption C. beyond the pale D. beyond the veil
PART 2. Fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
A new online service is now available, which should reassure any parents concerned about their children watching too much TV or those who believe that the Internet represents a (1)_threat______ to
children’s safety. Some TV shows, (2) __including_____ soap operas, are known to be (3) ____popular___. with young people. Having watched certain of these, the viewers are then (4)
___referred____ to a website (5) ____where___ they can get information on issues raised on screen such as drugs, eating disorders or unwanted pregnancies. Internet sites (6) ___run____ by TV
channels are important because it would be irresponsible for the channel to (7) ___raise____ serious health issues without providing a means of finding further information and advice. Soap operas
touch people and make them think, and such sites offer a safe place for teenagers to ask questions without the (8) ___risk____ of being ignorant. Knowing that young people (9) ____rely___ on their
peers for advice, rather than their parents or doctors, sites are careful not to be judgmental or to tell people what to do. A site offering quality information and a chance for young people to chat about
their problems whenever they feel the need is more likely to attract the (10) ___attention____ of those who need it than more traditional sources of advice.
Part 3: Read the text and choose the best answer A, B, C or D.
Population ecology is the science that measures changes in population size and composition and identifies the causes of these fluctuations. Population ecology is not concerned solely with the human
population. In ecological terms, a population consists of the individuals of one species that simultaneously occupy the same general area, rely on the same resources, and are affected by similar
environmental factors. The characteristics of a population are shaped by its size and by the interactions among individuals and between individuals and their environment.
Population size is a balance between factors that increase numbers and factors that decrease numbers. Some factors that increase populations are favourable light and temperature, adequate food
supply, suitable habitat, ability to compete for resource, and ability to adapt to environmental change. Factors that decrease populations are insufficient or excessive light and temperature, inadequate
food supply, unsuitable or destroyed habitat, too many competitors for resources, and inability to adapt to environmental change.
Another important characteristic of any population is its density. Population density is the number of individuals per units, such as the number of maple trees per square kilometer in a county.
Ecologists can rarely determine population size by actually counting all individuals within geographical boundaries. Instead, they often use a variety of sampling techniques to estimate densities and
total population sizes. For example, they might estimate the number of black bears in a national park by counting individuals in a few sample plots representative of the whole park. In some cases,
they estimate population size through indirect indicators, such as the number of nests or burrows, or signs such as tracks or droppings.
Another important population characteristic, dispersion, is the pattern of spacious among individuals within the population’s geographical boundaries. Various species are distributed in their habitats
in different ways to take better advantage of food supplies and shelter, and to avoid predators or find prey. Within a population’s range, densities may vary greatly because not all areas provide
equally suitable habitat, and also because individuals space themselves in relation to other members of the population.
Three possible patterns of dispersion are clumped, uniform, and random. A clumped dispersion pattern means that individuals are gathered in patches throughout their habitat. Clumping often results
from the irregular distribution of resources needed for survival and reproduction. For example, fallen trees keep the forest floor moist, and many forest insects are clumped under logs where the
humidity is to their liking. Clumping may also be associated with mating, safety, or other social behavior. Crane flies, for example, swarm in great numbers, a behavior that increases mating chances,
and some fish swim in large schools so they are less likely to be eaten by predators.
A uniform or evenly spaced distribution results from direct interactions among individuals in the population. For example, regular spacing of plants may result from shading and competitions for
water. In animal populations, uniform distribution is usually caused by competition for some resource or by social interactions that set up individual territories for feeding, breeding, or testing.
Random spacing occurs in the absence of strong attraction or repulsion among individuals in a population. Overall, random pattern are rare in nature, with most populations showing a tendency
toward either clumped or uniform distribution.
Populations change in size, structure, and distribution as they respond to changes in environmental conditions. Four main variables- births, deaths, immigration and emigration – determine the rate
of change in the size of the population over time. A change in the birth rate or death is the major way that most populations respond to changes in resource availability. Members of some animal
species can avoid or reduce the effects of another with more favorable environmental conditions, thus altering the population’s dispersion.
1.According to the passage, which factor might cause the population of a species to decrease in size?
A. A favorable amount of light and water
B. An ability to hide from or defend against predators
C. A large number of other species competing for food
D. A greater number of births than deaths
2. Which of the following is an indirect indicator of a population’s density?
A. The distribution of food in a given area
B. The number of nests in a given area
C. The number of births in a given period of time
D. The number of individuals counted in a given area
3. The distribution pattern of individuals within a population’s geographical boundaries is known as
A. population ecology B. population density
C. population change D. population dispersion
4. The word range in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. territory B. control C. history D. shelter
5. The word patches in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to
A. dark places B. family groups C. warm spots D. small areas
6. The word their in paragraph 5 refers to
A. resources B. trees C. insects D. logs
7. All of the following are given as reasons for clumping EXCEPT
A. uneven resource distribution B. territorial disputes
C. mating behavior D. safety from predators
8. The phrase set up in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to
A. forbid B. establish C. increase D. conceal
9. Which of the following situation s would be most likely to result in a uniform dispersion pattern?
A. Birds compete for a place to build their nests
B. Fish swim in large schools to avoid predators
C. Whales develop strong bonds among relatives
D. Elephants form a circle to protect their young
10. Why does the author mention immigration and emigration in paragraph 8?
A. To identify factors affecting population dispersion
B. To give examples of territorial behavior in animals
C. To show that populations balance themselves over time
D. To explain why animal populations are uniformly dispersed
Part IV: For question 31-40, read the text about Hurricanes then do the tasks that follow.(10 points)
Choose the correct headings for each section from the list of headings below. (10 points)
List of Headings 
(i) Dangers of nuclear contamination
(ii) Energy from the sun
(iii) Uncontrolled and moderated nuclear reations
(iv) Energy from food
(v) The advantages of nuclear energy
(vi) The nuclear fission chain reation
(vii) Nuclear fusion
(viii) The nuclear energy square
Example : Paragraph A: ii
1. Paragraph B iv
2. Paragraph E vi
3. Paragraph F iii
4. Paragraph G v
5. Paragraph H vii
Energy, Fission and Fusion
A . Almost all the energy that living things make use of comes in the beginning from the sun. The chief exception is the gravitational pull of the earth itself, and of the moon upon the waters of the
earth. The sun gives out enormous quantities of energy in the form of radiation – rays of light and other forms of energy.
B. Green plants have the power, through the process called photosynthesis, to change the energy of sunlight into chemical energy. This is stored in the plant in the form of organic molecules. Some of
the plants are eaten and the stored energy used by herbivorous animals – or by human beings. Human beings are omnivorous, that is their food and therefore their energy can come from either plant or
animal sources. But that energy originated in the sun.
C .To satisfy human needs, other kinds of energy are needed – mechanical, driving and heating. The energy for heating, or for driving heat engines, usually comes from a fuel and most fuels were
once living things. Fuel obtained in this way, with the exception of wood and other fresh organic matter, is called fossil fuel and includes oil, natural gas and coal. All of these are the very ancient
buried remains of animal or plant life. They are finite and the processes by which they were made are not repeatable. They are yet another form of solar or sun energy.
D .The energy given out by the sun is created by the process known as nuclear fusion. Fusion means ‘joining together’. The opposite process is nuclear fission, meaning ‘splitting apart’ or ‘dividing’.
If either fission or fusion takes place quickly, the result is a great and sudden release of energy – an explosion, in fact. Both kinds of nuclear event can be created on earth but so far the only one that
can be slowed down and controlled is fission.
E. Nuclear fission is the splitting of the nucleus of an atom. Only a few elements are suitable for use in this way, the most important ones being Uranium-235, Uranium-233 and Plutonium-239. When
a nucleus of one of these elements is struck by a free neutron it breaks down into two lighter nuclei which fly apart at high speed, colliding with surrounding atoms. Their kinetic energy is converted
into heat energy. At the same time, two or three free neutrons are released and one of them enters the nucleus of a neighbouring atom, causing fission to occur again; and so on. The reaction spreads
very quickly, with more and more heat energy released. This is called a ‘chain’ reaction because the splitting of each nucleus is linked to another, and another and another.
F. If this reaction takes place in an atomic bomb, where nothing is done to slow it down, the result is a violent explosion that can destroy a town in a few seconds. Fission can also, however, take
place within a construction called a nuclear reactor, or atomic pile. Here the highly fissile material (U-235, U-233, Pu-239) is surrounded by a substance that is non-fissile, for instance graphite. This
material is called a moderator. The neutrons lose some of their energy and speed through colliding with the atoms of the moderator. Energy – heat energy – is still created on an enormous scale, but
no expansion takes place. The moderator has another function: by slowing down the speed of the free neutrons, it makes it more likely that one of them will collide with the nucleus of a neighbouring
atom to continue the chain reaction.
G.The chief advantage of nuclear energy is that it does not depend on any local factors. A nuclear reactor, unlike an oil-well or a coalmine, does not have to be sited on top of a fossil-fuel source;
unlike a solar energy unit, it does not have to go out of production when the sun is not shining; unlike hydroelectric power, it does not depend on a large flow of water which may be reduced during
some seasons of the year. With an atomic power station, the only limiting factor is that of safety.
H. In the opposite process, nuclear fusion, two nuclei come together to form a new nucleus of a different kind and this process also releases energy on an enormous scale. Fusion can only occur under
conditions of very great heat -at least 50,000,000 degrees Celsius. (The temperature at the centre of the sun is estimated as 130,000,000 degrees Celsius.) A fusion reaction on earth has already been
created – the hydrogen bomb. This is an uncontrolled reaction. It is not yet possible to produce a controlled fusion reaction that can be used for
the production of useful energy.
I .Nuclear energy can be thought of as a kind of square. Three of the quarters of the square are known and used, but the fourth cannot yet be used. 
b. Decide if each of the following statements is TRUE or FALSE according to the information provided in the passage. Please write(10 points)
TRUE if the statement is true;
FALSE if the statement is true;
NOT GIVEN if the statement is not given in the passage
6. The purpose of the moderator is prevent the escape of dangerous radiation F
7. Few elements are suitable for use as atomic fuel T
8. Fossile fuel can not last for ever T
9. A hydroelectric power station can be built anywwhere. F
10. Graphite is a non- fissile material T
Part 5: : You are going to read an article containing reviews of recently-published books. For questions 1-10, choose from the Books (A-F). The reviews may be chosen more than once. (1
point)
Book Corner
A round-up of the latest fiction and non-fiction from Beth Young.
A.
Reading a new novelist is a bit like asking a stranger out on a date. You never quite know if this is the start of a beautiful relationship. You check the blurbs, the publicity photograph, and flick
through the book to look for the two essentials: entertainment and substance. Beginner's Greek by James Collins is certainly big on the latter, weighing in at 400-plus pages. And the quotes on the
back cover have the effect of a bunch of friends saying to you, 'Go on, you'll get on brilliantly'. Early indications are that this blind date could lead to a deeper relationship. Beginner's Greek is
described by The New York Times as a "great big sunny lemon chiffon pie of a novel" about romantic love amongst the American middle classes. It is indeed delicious.
B
In Manil Suri's second outing The Age of Shiva we have a broad-sweeping, epic novel with an unforgettable heroine so wilful yet flawed that it calls to mind that other famous leading lady, Scarlett
O'Hara in Gone With the Wind. The story begins at a firework party in Delhi where Meera falls disastrously in love. We follow her journey to Bombay, marriage and obsessive motherhood, with
occasional flashbacks to a childhood that was marred by political turmoil. Mathematics professor, Suri, captures the fluidity of the role of women with a beautiful kind of precision.
C
Devotees of playwright David Mamet, whose screen work includes Wag The Dog and the award-winning Glengarry Glen Ross may be less than enamored of Ira Nadel's new biography, David
Mamet: A Life in the Theatre. It may seem churlish to question the minutia of incidents that abound in this comprehensive tome, but whilst Nadel is clearly striving for accuracy one feels there ought
to have been more sifting, more mining for the gold amongst the biographical trivia. In addition, Nadel's tone is somewhat dry and academic and seems at odds with the brilliance of David Mamet's
own writing. That said, the book offers a sound introduction to the life and career of the man hailed as one of America's most outstanding writers.
D
Can any Mother help me? is the true story of a desperately lonely mother who, in 1935, appealed to other women through the letters page of a women's magazine. Writing under a pseudonym, the
woman known as Ubique (meaning 'everywhere') little realised that she would be the trigger for the launch of a new and private magazine that would last for the next fifty years. The Cooperative
Correspondence Club was formed to offer comfort and support to wives, often well-educated women, who craved stimulation beyond the drudgery of family life. Jenna Bailey has done a superb job
of organising and editing this compendium, adding her own insightful commentary.
E
Subtitled, The Life and Times of Henry Howard, Earl of Surrey, Jessie Child's debut historical biography, Henry VIII's Last Victim, was the worthy winner of last year's Elizabeth Longford Prize.
Henry Howard's victim status is owing to the fact that he was the final person to be executed by King Henry VIII, a mere nine days before the king himself expired. Although killed ostensibly for
treason, the Earl of Surrey's only real crime it seems was leading an unsuccessful army campaign in France. Only 29, he was also a distinguished poet with a fine literary voice, a persona which
refutes his reputation as the spoilt son of the Duke of Norfolk.
F
This is the 25th outing for T. Keneally but he's lost none of his writing powers. The Widow and Her Hero takes real life events during the Second World War as its inspiration and builds a tale of love
and intrigue. Grace looks back on her life to recall her courtship with the hero of the title, the handsome Captain Leo Waterhouse. Leo is tragically killed whilst on a secret mission but it is many
years before Grace discovers the facts about his death. Keneally made fans galore when Schindler's Ark was published and later made into the award-winning Steven Spielberg film, Schindler's List.
The Widow and Her Hero will bring him even more fans.
Questions
In which review are the following mentioned?

1) A story in which someone is unaware of the impact of their action. D

2) A description of the opening scene. B

3) An author who exemplifies source material with their own analysis. D

4) A humorous comparison with a real-life situation. A

5) A character who finds out the truth about a situation. F

6) A hint that the author's future writing career will be positive. A

7) A book that would be appreciated by people without much previous knowledge of the subject. C

8) A book which has already won critical acclaim. E

9) A book which includes too much factual detail. C

10) A mention of the profession of the author. B

SECTION IV: Writing

Part 1: Use the word(s) given in brackets and make any necessary additions to complete a new sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do
not change the form of the given word(s). (10pts)
1. I did not know it was Mike until he took off his hat. (WHEN)
🡪 _Only when Mike took of his hat did I know it was him
2. “You really must stay for dessert”, Mary’s brother said to him. (STAYING)
Mary’s brother insisted on him staying for dessert
3. I do not mind at all if you film my wedding speech.(OBJECTION)
I don’t have any objection to you filming my wedding speech
4. Please don’t tell anyone about this for the time being. (SOONER)
🡪 _I would sooner you didn’t tell anyone about this for the time being
5. Digging the garden always makes me hungry. (GIVES)
🡪 Digging the garden always gives me appetite
6. The boy was about to cry when he was reprimanded by his mother. (ON)
→ The boy was on the point of crying when he was reprimanded by his mother
Part 2: You are not happy about a service you received a couple of days ago from a company and you have decided to complain about it.
Write a letter to the company to complain about the poor service you received from its employee.
In your letter, express:
● why you went to the shop/office
● how the employees behaved to offend you
● what you expect the company to do
Write at least 150 words.
Part 3: Write an essay of about 350 words on the following topic.
A recent survey by a high school teacher reveals an alarming deficiency of basic life skills among high school students. What are the causes of this problem? Suggest possible solutions to the
problem.
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.