PRACTICE TEST 14-8

SECTION I: LISTENING
Section 1: You will hear part of a radio programme about hypnotism. For questions 1 – 10, fill in each blank
with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER to complete the sentences. (20 points) source: CAE
Cambridge
Dr. Anton Mesmer took his new form of treatment to Paris in (1)_______________________.
 Mesmerism was used to cure conditions such as deafness, rheumatism and (2)_________________.
 Patients were treated in dark rooms, sitting in (3)____________________.
 The English (4)___________________, James Braid, coined the word ‘hypnotism’ in 1841.
 Hypnotists use a swinging watch to (5)_________________the left of the brain.
 Watches, magnets and pictures of (6)__________________have all been used as props.
 Hypnotherapists say they can help people who want to overcome (7)_________________or
(8)________________.
 Hypnosis is particularly useful with problems which are (9)_________________in origin such as stomach
problems, skin disorders and (10)____________________.

Section 2: You are going to hear a conversation between Richard and Louise. As you listen, indicate whether
the statements are True (T) or False (F). (10 points)
 Richard does most of the washing up in his family.
 Richard’s father makes him clean his shoes.
 Louise doesn’t mind shopping for food.
 Louise prefers to wait for her grandparents to visit her.
 Louise’s father cleans the car himself.

Section 3. You will hear a guide speaking to tourists who are visiting some Romans remains. Listen and give
short answers to the questions. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER taken
from the recording. (10 points)
Source: Cambridge English
1. When did the Romans first come to the Corbridge area?
_________________________________________________________________________
2. Why did the Romans built a series of forts and strongholds?
_________________________________________________________________________
3. What did people begin to search for in 1201?
_________________________________________________________________________
4. How often have archaeological digs taken place since 1934?
_________________________________________________________________________
5. What are the two things that visitors should pay attention to?
_________________________________________________________________________

Section 4: You will hear an interview in which two young entrepreneurs – Chloe Price, who sells skincare
products online, and Martin Moore, who is a distributor of snack foods – are talking about their work. For
questions 1 – 5, choose the answer which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points) source: CAE Cambridge
1. Chloe attributes her success as an entrepreneur to her
A. Exposure to unconventional business concepts.
B. Willingness to take risks.
C. Ability to benefit from experience.
D. Natural flair for money management.
2. Chloe thinks the greatest benefit new technology has brought her is in
A. Being able to promote her products through friends.
B. Encouraging interaction with consumers.
C. Reducing her ongoing business expenditure.
D. Enabling her to manage her time more effectively.
3. What does Martin say about finding work in the food industry?
A. It was a long-held ambition.
B. It was something he soon regretted.
C. It happened by chance.
D. It followed naturally from his studies.
4. Martin’s choice of product to distribute was based on his belief that
A. It was a quality item.
B. It was effectively marketed.
C. It was part of a well-established brand.
D. It was endorsed by famous people.
5. Both Chloe and Martin have been surprised by the importance in their work of
A. Collaborative decision-making.
B. Paying attention to detail.
C. Securing sound financial backing.
D. A total commitment to the enterprise.
SECTION II: LEXICO & GRAMMAR

Part 1. Choose a word or phrase that best completes each sentence.

1. There wasn't a...................of truth in what he said.
A. ray B. lump C. grain D. pinch
2. I would ............ my colleague's wrath and displeasure by using his research without consent.
A. incur B. co-occur C. concur D. recur
3. A student on the............. of a new life at university killed himself with a massive tranquiliser overdose
A. inception B. kick-off C. portal D. threshold
4. We giggled at the sight of Mrs. Brown.........down the road in her six-inch stiletto high-heels.
A. staggering B. tottering C. reeling D. stumbling
5. Has the show finally jumped the..............?
A. salmon B. herring C. shark D. dolphin
6.The end-of- semester marks in each year all count...............your final degree.
A. for B. towards C. in for D. as
7. I found the information for the project in the encyclopedia but I couldn’t give …………. and verse on it.
A. chapter B. unit C. poem D. extract
8.He was engrossed in the paperwork to the .............of his own interests and the annoyance of everybody
concerned.
A. damage B. harm C. detriment D. disadvantage
9. He was absolutely _________ with anger when he found that I had scratched his car.
A, burned B. carmine C. fickle D. livid
10. She gets fifteen per cent...........on every insurance policy she sells.
A. salary B. commission C. bonus D. pension
11. The removal men.................. the heavy piano up the stairs with great difficulty.
A. pushed B. shoved C. thrust D. heaved
12. Members of rock groups were asked to............their behaviour or else leave the hotel.
A. modify B. amend C. transfer D. convert
13. Hedgehogs, bears and other animals and hibernate remain................during winter.
A. deactivated B. impassive C. dormant D. inert
14. I don't know how George could ever find anything as his desk was always ..........
A. messed B. cluttered C. jumbled D. crammed
15. Her father ...............her when she came home two hours late from a party.
A. let in for B. let out C. laid into D. laid aside
16. I'm afraid we got our ................crossed. I thought my husband would be picking up the children and he thought
I was doing it.
A. minds B. purposes C. fingers D. wires
Part 2: Write the correct form of each bracketed word.
Slave Narratives
In the wake of the bloody Nat Turner (1. rebel) __________ in Southampton County, Virginia, in 1831, an
increasingly fervent (2. slave) __________ movement in the United States sponsored (3. hand) __________
autobiographical accounts of slavery by fugitives from the South in order to make (4. abolish) __________ of a
largely (5. difference) __________ white Northern readership. From 1830 to the end of the slavery era, the
fugitive slave narrative dominated the (6. literature) __________ landscape of antebellum black America. The
Narrative of the Life of Frederick Douglass, an American Slave, Written by Himself (1845) gained the most
attention, (7. establishment) __________ Frederick Douglass as the leading African American man of letters of
his time. By predicating his struggle for freedom on his (8. sole) __________ pursuit of literacy, education, and (9.
depend) __________, Douglass portrayed himself as a (10. make) __________ man, which appealed strongly to
middle-class white Americans.

SECTION III. READING

Part 1. Read the following passage and choose the words that best complete the sentences.
From the words listed below, choose the one which best fits the space, A, B, C or D.
LONDON’S BLACK CABS
Black cabs, officially known as Hackney Carriages, are (1) _______ London and are special for a number of
reasons. For a start, they are the only taxis in the city that can be hailed from the kerb with a raised hand signal to
get the driver’s attention. Currently, it is estimated that there are 20,000 black cabs (2) _______ on the capital’s
streets. Their origin, in fact, can be (3) _______ the name ‘Hackney Carriage’ said to derive from the French word
haquenée referring to the type of horse used to pull the carriages in the days of horse-drawn carriages. The first
horse-drawn Hackney coaches appeared on London’s streets in the 17th century during the reign of Queen
Elizabeth I. As transport developed and motor cars were (4) _______, motor cabs replaced the horse-drawn
carriages. Since the end of the 19th century, various car manufacturers’ vehicles have been used as motor cabs but
it was not until the mid-20th century that the cabs we have been (5) _______ over the last decades first appeared.
It is such a(n) (6) _______ of becoming a black cab driver in London and it is (7) _______. If you want to gain this
honour you will need to have passed the infamous test known as ‘the Knowledge’, which was first introduced in
1851 following (8) _______ of complaints by passengers whose cab drivers got lost. This incredibly difficult test
can take around three or four years to prepare for and you can often catch a glimpse of those drivers who are doing
just this zipping around London on their mopeds, with a map (9) _______ to a clipboard on their handlebars. These
people are essentially trying not only to master the 25,000 or so streets within a six-mile radius of Charing Cross,
but also to work out the most direct routes from place to place. They must know thousands of ‘points of interest’
such as hotels, hospitals, places of worship, theatres, stations, sports and leisure facilities, to name but a few.
Practically everywhere and anywhere that a potential passenger would wish to be taken to or from must be known,
so a nodding acquaintance, for a black cab driver, is (10) _______, and perhaps this is the most difficult part,
knowing the quickest way to get from one place to another. Little wonder so few people are successful.
1. A. commensurate with B. equivalent to C. synonymous with D. tantamount to
2. A. hereabouts B. hither and thither C. or thereabouts D. there and then
3. A. ferreted out from B. hunted down from C. mapped out to D. traced back to
4. A. all the rage B. of high standing C. of repute D. in vogue
5. A. clued in on B. gunned up on C. in the know about D. no stranger to
6. A. handiwork B. procurement C. realisation D. undertaking
7. A. beyond you B. no brainer C. no mean feat D. over your head
8. A. droves B. hordes C. packs D. swarms
9. A. chained B. fastened C. linked D. sealed
10. A. beyond measure B. beyond redemption C. beyond the pale D. beyond the veil
PART 2. Fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word and write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.
A new online service is now available, which should reassure any parents concerned about their children
watching too much TV or those who believe that the Internet represents a (1)_______ to children’s safety. Some
TV shows, (2) _______ soap operas, are known to be (3) _______. with young people. Having watched certain of
these, the viewers are then (4) _______ to a website (5) _______ they can get information on issues raised on
screen such as drugs, eating disorders or unwanted pregnancies. Internet sites (6) _______ by TV channels are
important because it would be irresponsible for the channel to (7) _______ serious health issues without providing
a means of finding further information and advice. Soap operas touch people and make them think, and such sites
offer a safe place for teenagers to ask questions without the (8) _______ of being ignorant. Knowing that young
people (9) _______ on their peers for advice, rather than their parents or doctors, sites are careful not to be
judgmental or to tell people what to do. A site offering quality information and a chance for young people to chat
about their problems whenever they feel the need is more likely to attract the (10) _______ of those who need it
than more traditional sources of advice.

Part 3: Read the text and choose the best answer A, B, C or D.

Population ecology is the science that measures changes in population size and composition and identifies the
causes of these fluctuations. Population ecology is not concerned solely with the human population. In ecological
terms, a population consists of the individuals of one species that simultaneously occupy the same general area,
rely on the same resources, and are affected by similar environmental factors. The characteristics of a population
are shaped by its size and by the interactions among individuals and between individuals and their environment.
Population size is a balance between factors that increase numbers and factors that decrease numbers. Some
factors that increase populations are favourable light and temperature, adequate food supply, suitable habitat,
ability to compete for resource, and ability to adapt to environmental change. Factors that decrease populations are
insufficient or excessive light and temperature, inadequate food supply, unsuitable or destroyed habitat, too many
competitors for resources, and inability to adapt to environmental change.
Another important characteristic of any population is its density. Population density is the number of
individuals per units, such as the number of maple trees per square kilometer in a county. Ecologists can rarely
determine population size by actually counting all individuals within geographical boundaries. Instead, they often
use a variety of sampling techniques to estimate densities and total population sizes. For example, they might
estimate the number of black bears in a national park by counting individuals in a few sample plots representative
of the whole park. In some cases, they estimate population size through indirect indicators, such as the number of
nests or burrows, or signs such as tracks or droppings.
Another important population characteristic, dispersion, is the pattern of spacious among individuals within
the population’s geographical boundaries. Various species are distributed in their habitats in different ways to take
better advantage of food supplies and shelter, and to avoid predators or find prey. Within a population’s range,
densities may vary greatly because not all areas provide equally suitable habitat, and also because individuals space
themselves in relation to other members of the population.
Three possible patterns of dispersion are clumped, uniform, and random. A clumped dispersion pattern
means that individuals are gathered in patches throughout their habitat. Clumping often results from the irregular
distribution of resources needed for survival and reproduction. For example, fallen trees keep the forest floor moist,
and many forest insects are clumped under logs where the humidity is to their liking. Clumping may also be
associated with mating, safety, or other social behavior. Crane flies, for example, swarm in great numbers, a
behavior that increases mating chances, and some fish swim in large schools so they are less likely to be eaten by
predators.
A uniform or evenly spaced distribution results from direct interactions among individuals in the
population. For example, regular spacing of plants may result from shading and competitions for water. In animal
populations, uniform distribution is usually caused by competition for some resource or by social interactions that
set up individual territories for feeding, breeding, or testing.
Random spacing occurs in the absence of strong attraction or repulsion among individuals in a population.
Overall, random pattern are rare in nature, with most populations showing a tendency toward either clumped or
uniform distribution.
Populations change in size, structure, and distribution as they respond to changes in environmental
conditions. Four main variables- births, deaths, immigration and emigration – determine the rate of change in the
size of the population over time. A change in the birth rate or death is the major way that most populations respond
to changes in resource availability. Members of some animal species can avoid or reduce the effects of another
with more favorable environmental conditions, thus altering the population’s dispersion.

1.According to the passage, which factor might cause the population of a species to decrease in size?
A. A favorable amount of light and water
B. An ability to hide from or defend against predators
C. A large number of other species competing for food
D. A greater number of births than deaths

2. Which of the following is an indirect indicator of a population’s density?

A. The distribution of food in a given area
B. The number of nests in a given area
C. The number of births in a given period of time
D. The number of individuals counted in a given area
3. The distribution pattern of individuals within a population’s geographical boundaries is known as
A. population ecology B. population density
C. population change D. population dispersion
4. The word range in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. territory B. control C. history D. shelter
5. The word patches in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to
A. dark places B. family groups C. warm spots D. small areas
6. The word their in paragraph 5 refers to
A. resources B. trees C. insects D. logs
7. All of the following are given as reasons for clumping EXCEPT
A. uneven resource distribution B. territorial disputes
C. mating behavior D. safety from predators
8. The phrase set up in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to
A. forbid B. establish C. increase D. conceal
9. Which of the following situation s would be most likely to result in a uniform dispersion pattern?
A. Birds compete for a place to build their nests
B. Fish swim in large schools to avoid predators
C. Whales develop strong bonds among relatives
D. Elephants form a circle to protect their young
10. Why does the author mention immigration and emigration in paragraph 8?
A. To identify factors affecting population dispersion
B. To give examples of territorial behavior in animals
C. To show that populations balance themselves over time
D. To explain why animal populations are uniformly dispersed

Part IV: For question 31-40, read the text about Hurricanes then do the tasks that follow.(10 points)
Choose the correct headings for each section from the list of headings below. (10 points)
List of Headings 
(i) Dangers of nuclear contamination
(ii) Energy from the sun
(iii) Uncontrolled and moderated nuclear reactions
(iv) Energy from food
(v) The advantages of nuclear energy
(vi) The nuclear fission chain reaction
(vii) Nuclear fusion
(viii) The nuclear energy square
Example : Paragraph A: ii
1. Paragraph B iv
2. Paragraph E vi
3. Paragraph F iii
4. Paragraph G v
5. Paragraph H vii

Energy, Fission and Fusion

A . Almost all the energy that living things make use of comes in the beginning from the sun. The chief exception
is the gravitational pull of the earth itself, and of the moon upon the waters of the earth. The sun gives out
enormous quantities of energy in the form of radiation – rays of light and other forms of energy.
B. Green plants have the power, through the process called photosynthesis, to change the energy of sunlight into
chemical energy. This is stored in the plant in the form of organic molecules. Some of the plants are eaten and the
stored energy used by herbivorous animals – or by human beings. Human beings are omnivorous, that is their food
and therefore their energy can come from either plant or animal sources. But that energy originated in the sun.
C .To satisfy human needs, other kinds of energy are needed – mechanical, driving and heating. The energy for
heating, or for driving heat engines, usually comes from a fuel and most fuels were once living things. Fuel
obtained in this way, with the exception of wood and other fresh organic matter, is called fossil fuel and includes
oil, natural gas and coal. All of these are the very ancient buried remains of animal or plant life. They are finite and
the processes by which they were made are not repeatable(8). They are yet another form of solar or sun energy.
D .The energy given out by the sun is created by the process known as nuclear fusion. Fusion means ‘joining
together’. The opposite process is nuclear fission, meaning ‘splitting apart’ or ‘dividing’. If either fission or fusion
takes place quickly, the result is a great and sudden release of energy – an explosion, in fact. Both kinds of nuclear
event can be created on earth but so far the only one that can be slowed down and controlled is fission.
E. Nuclear fission is the splitting of the nucleus of an atom. Only a few elements are suitable for use in this way(7),
the most important ones being Uranium-235, Uranium-233 and Plutonium-239. When a nucleus of one of these
elements is struck by a free neutron it breaks down into two lighter nuclei which fly apart at high speed, colliding
with surrounding atoms. Their kinetic energy is converted into heat energy. At the same time, two or three free
neutrons are released and one of them enters the nucleus of a neighbouring atom, causing fission to occur again;
and so on. The reaction spreads very quickly, with more and more heat energy released. This is called a ‘chain’
reaction because the splitting of each nucleus is linked to another, and another and another.
F. If this reaction takes place in an atomic bomb, where nothing is done to slow it down, the result is a violent
explosion that can destroy a town in a few seconds. Fission can also, however, take place within a construction
called a nuclear reactor, or atomic pile. Here the highly fissile material (U-235, U-233, Pu-239) is surrounded by a
substance that is non-fissile, for instance graphite(10). This material is called a moderator. The neutrons lose some
of their energy and speed through colliding with the atoms of the moderator. Energy – heat energy – is still created
on an enormous scale, but no expansion takes place. The moderator has another function: by slowing down the
speed of the free neutrons, it makes it more likely that one of them will collide with the nucleus of a neighbouring
atom to continue the chain reaction.
G.The chief advantage of nuclear energy is that it does not depend on any local factors. A nuclear reactor, unlike
an oil-well or a coalmine, does not have to be sited on top of a fossil-fuel source; unlike a solar energy unit, it does
not have to go out of production when the sun is not shining; unlike hydroelectric power, it does not depend on a
large flow of water which may be reduced during some seasons of the year(9). With an atomic power station, the
only limiting factor is that of safety.
H. In the opposite process, nuclear fusion, two nuclei come together to form a new nucleus of a different kind and
this process also releases energy on an enormous scale. Fusion can only occur under conditions of very great heat -
at least 50,000,000 degrees Celsius. (The temperature at the centre of the sun is estimated as 130,000,000 degrees
Celsius.) A fusion reaction on earth has already been created – the hydrogen bomb. This is an uncontrolled
reaction. It is not yet possible to produce a controlled fusion reaction that can be used for
the production of useful energy.
I .Nuclear energy can be thought of as a kind of square. Three of the quarters of the square are known and used,
but the fourth cannot yet be used. 

b. Decide if each of the following statements is TRUE or FALSE according to the information provided in
the passage. Please write(10 points)
TRUE if the statement is true;
FALSE if the statement is true;
NOT GIVEN if the statement is not given in the passage

6. The purpose of the moderator is prevent the escape of dangerous radiation F

7. Few elements are suitable for use as atomic fuel T
8. Fossile fuel can not last for ever T
 9. A hydroelectric power station can be built anywwhere. F
10. Graphite is a non- fissile material T

Part 5: : You are going to read an article containing reviews of recently-published books. For
questions 1-10, choose from the Books (A-F). The reviews may be chosen more than once. (1 point)
Book Corner
A round-up of the latest fiction and non-fiction from Beth Young.
A.
Reading a new novelist is a bit like asking a stranger out on a date(4). You never quite know if this is the
start of a beautiful relationship. You check the blurbs, the publicity photograph, and flick through the book to look
for the two essentials: entertainment and substance. Beginner's Greek by James Collins is certainly big on the
latter, weighing in at 400-plus pages. And the quotes on the back cover have the effect of a bunch of friends saying
to you, 'Go on, you'll get on brilliantly'(6). Early indications are that this blind date could lead to a deeper
relationship. Beginner's Greek is described by The New York Times as a "great big sunny lemon chiffon pie of a
novel" about romantic love amongst the American middle classes. It is indeed delicious.
B
In Manil Suri's second outing The Age of Shiva we have a broad-sweeping, epic novel with an
unforgettable heroine so wilful yet flawed that it calls to mind that other famous leading lady, Scarlett O'Hara in
Gone With the Wind. The story begins at a firework party in Delhi where Meera falls disastrously in love(2). We
follow her journey to Bombay, marriage and obsessive motherhood, with occasional flashbacks to a childhood that
was marred by political turmoil. Mathematics professor, Suri, captures the fluidity of the role of women with a
beautiful kind of precision.
C
Devotees of playwright David Mamet, whose screen work includes Wag The Dog and the award-winning
Glengarry Glen Ross may be less than enamored of Ira Nadel's new biography, David Mamet: A Life in the
Theatre. It may seem churlish to question the minutia of incidents that abound in this comprehensive tome, but
whilst Nadel is clearly striving for accuracy(9) one feels there ought to have been more sifting, more mining for the
gold amongst the biographical trivia. In addition, Nadel's tone is somewhat dry and academic and seems at odds
with the brilliance of David Mamet's own writing. That said, the book offers a sound introduction to the life and
career of the man hailed as one of America's most outstanding writers.
D
Can any Mother help me? is the true story of a desperately lonely mother who, in 1935, appealed to other
women through the letters page of a women's magazine. Writing under a pseudonym, the woman known as Ubique
(meaning 'everywhere') little realised that she would be the trigger for the launch of a new and private magazine
that would last for the next fifty years(1). The Cooperative Correspondence Club was formed to offer comfort and
support to wives, often well-educated women, who craved stimulation beyond the drudgery of family life. Jenna
Bailey has done a superb job of organising and editing this compendium(10), adding her own insightful
commentary.
E
Subtitled, The Life and Times of Henry Howard, Earl of Surrey, Jessie Child's debut historical biography,
Henry VIII's Last Victim, was the worthy winner of last year's Elizabeth Longford Prize. Henry Howard's victim
status is owing to the fact that he was the final person to be executed by King Henry VIII, a mere nine days before
the king himself expired. Although killed ostensibly for treason, the Earl of Surrey's only real crime it seems was
leading an unsuccessful army campaign in France. Only 29, he was also a distinguished poet with a fine literary
voice, a persona which refutes his reputation as the spoilt son of the Duke of Norfolk(8).
F
This is the 25th outing for T. Keneally but he's lost none of his writing powers. The Widow and Her Hero
takes real life events during the Second World War as its inspiration and builds a tale of love and intrigue. Grace
looks back on her life to recall her courtship with the hero of the title, the handsome Captain Leo Waterhouse. Leo
is tragically killed whilst on a secret mission but it is many years before Grace discovers the facts about his
death(5). Keneally made fans galore when Schindler's Ark was published and later made into the award-winning
Steven Spielberg film, Schindler's List. The Widow and Her Hero will bring him even more fans.
Questions
In which review are the following mentioned?
 1) A story in which someone is unaware of the impact of their action. D
2) A description of the opening scene. B
3) An author who exemplifies source material with their own analysis. D
4) A humorous comparison with a real-life situation. A
5) A character who finds out the truth about a situation. F
6) A hint that the author's future writing career will be positive. A
7) A book that would be appreciated by people without much previous knowledge of the subject. C
8) A book which has already won critical acclaim. E
9) A book which includes too much factual detail. C
10) A mention of the profession of the author. D

SECTION IV: Writing

Part 1: Use the word(s) given in brackets and make any necessary additions to complete a new sentence in
such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do not change the form of the
given word(s). (10pts)
1. I did not know it was Mike until he took off his hat. (WHEN)
 ____________________________________________________________________
2. “You really must stay for dessert”, Mary’s brother said to him. (STAYING)
 ____________________________________________________________________
3. I do not mind at all if you film my wedding speech.(OBJECTION)
 ____________________________________________________________________
4. Please don’t tell anyone about this for the time being. (SOONER)
 ____________________________________________________________________
5. Digging the garden always makes me hungry. (GIVES)
 ____________________________________________________________________
6. The boy was about to cry when he was reprimanded by his mother. (ON)
→ The boy was on ____________________________________________________.

Part 2: You are not happy about a service you received a couple of days ago from a company and you have
decided to complain about it.
Write a letter to the company to complain about the poor service you received from its employee.
In your letter, express:
 why you went to the shop/office
 how the employees behaved to offend you
 what you expect the company to do
Write at least 150 words.

Part 3: Write an essay of about 350 words on the following topic.

A recent survey by a high school teacher reveals an alarming deficiency of basic life skills among high school
students. What are the causes of this problem? Suggest possible solutions to the problem.
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.