Clinical Science Questions and Answers – Laws of Gases,

Uptake of Anaesthetic Gases and Vapours, Patient

Monitoring During Surgery
This set of Clinical Science Interview Questions and Answers focuses on “Laws of Gases, Uptake
of Anaesthetic Gases and Vapours, Patient Monitoring During Surgery”.

1. After oxygenation of blood, what is the percentage of oxygen carried by hemoglobin?

a) 70 %
b) 75 %
c) 87 %
d) 97 %
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: After oxygenation, the partial pressure of oxygen increases. At this point, arterial
blood has 0.29 ml oxygen in 5 ml of blood and veins have 0.12 ml of oxygen in 5 ml of blood. This
way, we find that 3% oxygen is carried dissolved in the blood and 97% in a hemoglobin.

2. What is the pressure of gases maintained in medical air supply?

a) 300 – 345 kPa
b) 345 – 380 kPa
c) 380 – 400 kPa
d) 400 – 425 kPa
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The gases are usually under a higher pressure to allow more filling up of the cylinder
and better control of the temperature. Also, it helps them travel long distances more easily.

3. What is the residual capacity of the lungs?

a) 2000 ml
b) 2300 ml
c) 2500 ml
d) 2700 ml
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Residual Lung capacity is the amount of air that stays in the lungs after normal
expiration. Lungs normally have 2800 ml is a normal volume in which the tidal volume is 500 ml.
This is the amount of air taken in and given out normally. Since the left side of the lung is little
smaller to accommodate the heart, there are some minor volume differences between the two
lungs.

4. What all modes exist in ventilator?

a) Neonatal mode, normal mode
b) Normal mode, geriatric mode
c) Neonatal mode, normal mode, geriatric mode
d) Neonatal mode, pediatric mode, normal mode, geriatric mode
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A neonate has very delicate lungs so they need special care during ventilation. Thus,
they have a separate mode. In modern ventilators, there is separate kind of ventilators, especially
for the neonates. All the other population is kept on the normal mode.

5. The operation which allows air to be given directly in the trachea is called ________
a) Tracheotomy
b) Vasectomy
c) Disc Prolapse
d) Clog Removing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Tracheotomy is a process in which an incision is made on the throat and the
respiratory passage is accessed. A tube is directly inserted in the passage and the ventilator is
used to send air into the tube. Thus, the air is given directly in the trachea and lungs. This
happens in very severe cases when the person is not able to breathe by themselves.

6. The pump used to pump air mechanically into the respiratory tract __________
a) Mechanical Pump
b) Ventilator
c) Ambulatory Bag
d) CPR
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An ambulatory bag has a mouth piece which is placed in the mouth of the patient and
a rubber bulb which is used to pump air. It is a self-inflating bag and so it keeps getting air. Once
the bulb is compressed, the air is sent back to the patient in their respiratory tract.

7. A ventilator can sometimes cause a disruption in the normal breathing pattern.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ventilator is supposed to ensure proper oxygen supply during operation. Depending
on parameters like heart rate, weight, etc ventilation pattern is selected and adjusted for the
patient and the ventilator follows that. Often times, this ventilator pattern may clash with the
normal breathing of the person. It may send in oxygen when the person is trying to exhale or the
breathing of the device may not be synchronized.

8. Prolonged bed rest can lead to which problem?

a) Tuberculosis
b) Diarrhea
c) Cholera
d) Hyper Tension
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When a person is lying down for long periods of time, the most commonly known
problem that occurs is bed sores. However, long periods of bed rest also causes water to be
slowly accumulated in the lungs. Due to the horizontal posture of the body, the body is not able to
expel microorganisms as properly as it does in the vertical posture. The existing and accumulated
water in the lungs becomes their breeding ground and the person suffers from tuberculosis.

Clinical Science Questions and Answers – Anaesthesia Pre

and Post Care
This set of Clinical Science Problems focuses on “Anaesthesia Pre and Post Care”.

1. The first anesthesia used was ___________

a) polyvinyl chloride
b) trichloro methane
c) chlorofluorocarbon
d) tetra fluorocarbon
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Trichloro Methane, more popularly known as chloroform was the first known and
widely used anesthetic. It was used to numb the area, or inhaled as general anesthesia. It was
used as a pain reliever and an anesthetic. However, it was found harmful for the kidneys.

2. Which of the following parameters does not affect anesthesia?

a) Blood pressure
b) Blood sugar
c) Temperature
d) Moisture content of the exhaled air
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When a person goes for surgery, certain conditions need to be maintained. They
include the blood pressure, blood sugar, pulse oximetry, electrocardiography etc. The moisture
content of the exhaled air, though important, but it does not affect anesthesia. If the moisture
content falls below, the ventilator adjusts it automatically but the other parameters all need to be
monitored by the doctors.

3. Obesity can pose a risk of anesthesia.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An obese person is the one whose body mass index is high and they are overweight.
Obesity can cause a condition called sleep apnea in which a person snores due to trouble in
breathing. Under anesthesia, a person may stop breathing at all for a few seconds which is
dangerous for the patient. Thus, if the surgery is not a life saving one, a person is recommended
to lose weight before they are operated upon.

4. What is epidural?
a) A type of anesthesia used during childbirth
b) A type of anesthesia used for implants
c) A type of anesthesia used for rheumatic surgery
d) A type of anesthesia used for renal transplant
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Epidural is when anesthesia is administered in the epidural space of the spinal
chord. During a normal childbirth, it is used as a relaxant and dilator. During cesarian, an
increased dose is used as anesthesia. Epidural is commonly known for childbirth but is used in
many other cases. Sometimes, a catheter is used to continuously administer the drug to prolong
the numbing sensation.

5. The anesthesia applied directly to the skin is ___________

a) Topical Anesthesia
b) Caudal Anesthesia
c) Local Blocks
d) General Anesthesia
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When anything is applied externally on the skin, it is called a topical application.
Thus, the anesthesia that is applied directly on the skin is called as topical anesthesia. It numbs a
certain region of the skin and allows surgical procedures to happen.

7. In a caudal block, where is the anesthesia injected?

a) Thoracic Canal
b) Lumbar Canal
c) Sacral Canal
d) Coccyx Canal
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Caudal means the posterior thus the caudal block anesthetizes the lower parts of the
body. Since the sacral canal has nerves that supply to the lower regions, thus injecting anesthesia
in the sacral region numbs the lower extremities.

8. In this type of anesthesia, all the impulses from a nerve are blocked.
a) Nerve Blocks
b) Spinal Anesthesia
c) Topical Anesthesia
d) Epidural Blocks
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a nerve block, the anesthesia is injected in the nerves that supply to the system.
When the particular nerve is anesthetized, it becomes paralyzed for the duration of the operation
and the whole area where the nerve supplied becomes numb as there is no exchange of
information between that area and the brain.

9. In a spinal anesthesia, where all is the anesthetic injected?

a) 1st and 2nd thoracic space, 11th and 12th thoracic space
b) 3rd and 4th Lumbar space, 5th lumbar and 1st sacral space
c) 7th cervical and 1st thoracic space, 12th thoracic and 1st lumbar space
d) 1st and 2nd lumbar space, 4th and 5th lumbar space
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A spinal anesthesia is given when the lower body is being operated upon. The
lumbar region can numb the abdominal areas and allows the operation of the GI track and the
sacral area numbs the lower extremities. Since the sacral and coccyx bones are almost fused
together, 1st sacral space is the only accessible space.

10. In which of these sub cutaneous infiltration with a desensitizing agent is done?
a) Saddle Blocks
b) Epidural Blocks
c) Local Blocks
d) General Anesthesia
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In a local anesthesia, the anesthetic or the desensitizing agent is injected in the sub
cutaneous region of the skin. This allows a certain region of the body to become numb and the
doctors are able to perform the operation. This is done when the area of operation is small or the
time needed for the operation is small

Clinical Science Questions and Answers – Pre and Post

Operative Care
This set of Clinical Science Questions and Answers for Campus interviews focuses on “Pre and
Post Operative Care”.

1. Immediately after the surgery, the patient is usually shifted to _____________

a) ICU
b) PACU
c) CCU
d) Recovery room
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: After the surgery, a patient is shifted to PACU (Post Anesthesia Care Unit). After a
surgical procedure, anesthesia reversal is done and if needed, it is followed by extubation. The
patient is monitored here for a duration which depends upon factors like the surgery performed,
length of the surgery, type of anesthesia administered and the level of consciousness of the
patient.

2. In the usual preparation for general surgery, the client may be __________
a) Given specifically ordered oral medications with small amounts of water
b) Given ice chips
c) NPO for 12 to 14 hours before
d) Allowed regular diet
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: General Anesthesia is the process in which the whole body becomes numb and the
mind is unconscious. In such cases, the mind has no control over the bladder or the sphincter
muscles. The GI track is usually kept empty before the procedure to avoid any urinary or faecal
discharges. It is also best kept empty to avoid any discharges of the GI track from leaking in the
abdominal, which may end up causing infections after the surgery.

3. If a nurse finds that a patient’s abdominal wound has eviscerated, she should ________
a) Administer antibiotics
b) Position the patient sideways and call for help
c) Attempt to drain the site
d) Cover the site with saline-soaked sterile gauze
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When an abdominal wound eviscerates, the organs actually have shifted and come
out. In such cases, emergency medicine must be applied first. Using a saline soaked sterile gauze
will control any infection and keep the wound as clean and harmless as possible. Keeping the
bandage well soaked will ensure that the bandage does not stick to the wound and is easily
removable otherwise pulling the bandage off can cause other complications. The further
procedures are taken care of by the doctors.

4. After surgery, an incentive spirometer is used to prevent _________

a) Lung collapse
b) Gastric and intestinal problems
c) Elevated blood pressure
d) Blood Clotting
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A spirometer is used to help the lungs regain their strength. After a surgery, due to
the use of the ventilator, the lungs may feel a little abnormal and may have a weakness. This is
also possible due to age. The person is made to breathe into the spirometer to exercise their lungs
and regain normal lung function. Normally, 10 to 15 breaths with the spirometer every 1 to 2 hours
is prescribed, or as often as instructed by your nurse or doctor.

5. What is the ideal time interval for patient monitoring in the Postanesthesia care unit?
a) Every hour
b) Every 15 mins
c) Every 30 mins
d) Every 10 mins
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Usually the patient remains in PACU for 60-90 minutes after surgery depending upon
patient response. Vitals like heart rate, body temperature, oxygen levels, ensuring airways need to
be constantly monitored in the immediate post-op period.

6. Spinal Anaesthesia used on a patient needs monitoring for ________

a) Oxygen levels
b) Hyper tension
c) Renal Function
d) Brain activity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: All the toxins and the administered medicines are removed by the kidney. Thus,
when anesthesia is given in the spine, it is usually a local anesthesia and numbs the lower part of
the body. Since the lower part of the body had been anesthetized, kidney which is also supplied to
by these nerves may also be affected thus monitoring renal function becomes important.

7. To be approved for discharge from PACU, the patient should exhibit:

a) Normal breathing
b) No bleeding and swelling
c) Oxygen saturation of min 90
d)Temperature greater than 96.8
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Patients recovering from surgery and anesthesia have lost physiologic homeostasis.
They’re at risk for respiratory and circulatory deficits, reduced physical activity and alterations in
core body temperature and level of consciousness. It is an essential condition for discharge to
possess a core body temperature of not less than 36° C (96.8° F).

8. A preoperative assessment should include all of the following except:

a) Current medication and drugs
b) Psychological aspects
c) Patient knowledge of rehabilitation
d) Age, Weight, Height
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The main goal of preoperative care is to reduce the patients surgical and anaesthetic
perioperative morbidity or mortality and to allow the patient to get back to their original state as
soon as possible. Thus, it is important to know the medical history of the patient. This also helps
to guide the patient better for post operation rehabilitation.

9. A patient with a history of heart disease can be put on a prophylactic antibiotic.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: During surgery, high levels of sterility is maintained, be it the instruments used, the
operation theatre or even the operation table. However, the risk of infections always exists. Thus,
people with a history of a heart disease may have a weaker heart and so they are put on a
prophylactic antibiotic to prevent bacterial endocarditis.

10. Paralytic ileus is a possible postoperative complication. To check for it, which of the following
should be done?
a) Monitor renal function
b) Auscultate for bowel sounds every 4 hours
c) Administer antibiotics
d) Observe and monitor patient heart rate
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Paralytic ileus is an obstruction of the intestine due to paralysis of the intestinal
muscles. The paralysis does not need to be complete to cause ileus, but the intestinal muscles
must be so inactive that it prevents the passage of food and leads to a functional blockage of the
intestine. It inhibits propulsive bowel movement and hence frequently needs to be assessed.

Clinical Science Questions and Answers – Organization of

Theaters
This set of Clinical Science Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Organization of Theaters”.

1. Before reaching the operation theater, how many zones exist?

a) 1
b) 3
c) 5
d) 7
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Before entering an OT, normally there will be three zones. The outermost zone is a
waiting zone, until where the patient may be accompanied by a family member. Here is also a
nursing management station where the nurses and doctors go through the final paperwork for
operation. The next zone is the changing zone. The changing rooms are right next to the entry so
that the doctors, nurses, and technicians can immediately change into their OT scrubs. Even the
shoes need to have a covering or normally they have different pairs of shoes and slippers in the
changing room. Beyond that is the anesthesia room where the vitals are monitored for one last
time and anesthesia is administered. Finally comes the operation theater. Within the zones, there
are often resting chambers for the OT staff, offices of the surgeons, pharmacy and supply door to
C.S.S.D.

2. How many sections are there in the operation table?

a) 1 – 3
b) 4 – 5
c) 6 – 7
d) 7 – 8
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The table is divided in such a way that during an operation a certain area of the body
can be elevated and it allows better access to the area to the surgeon. The main four divisions of
the bed are for the head, thorax, thigh and then legs. Sometimes, there is a support for the waist in
the abdomen and leg pelvic region.

3. What kind of lights exists in the OT?

a) Fluorescent Lamps
b) LED lights
c) Tungsten Light
d) LCD
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: LED lights are also called shadow less lights. This is the reason they are widely used
in operations as the shadow of the surgeon and nurse is not cast on the patient then. They can
also produce an illumination of 70,000 – 1,20,000 lumen which ensures sufficient brightness in the
theater.

4. When a baby is born, why are they placed under UV lamps?

a) To reduce the possibility of skin disease
b) To reduce the possibility of jaundice
c) To ensure proper blood flow
d) To allow the bones to absorb nutrients
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: After birth, the liver of an infant becomes very active. This is because the
environment of the child changes completely and to ensure that the body is under no harm, the
activity of the liver increases. This increased activity causes a rise in the production of bile
pigments and causes jaundice. To ensure that jaundice does not harm the baby, a baby after birth
is placed under mild UV light and kept for monitoring.

5. What is all usually present in an OT trolley?

i. Bandages ii.Basic Medicines iii. Disinfectants iv. Antiseptic v. Cannula vi. Syringe vii. Catheter
a) i, ii, iii, iv
b) i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi, vii
c) ii, iii, iv
d) iii, iv, vi
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An OT trolley is used to carry all the things that are needed in surgery. Most of the
products are brought in from the CSSD but some like medicines, antiseptics etc are already there
in the trolley.

6. What is the ratio of the gases in medical air?

a) 78% Nitrogen, 21 % oxygen
b) 75 % Oxygen, 25 % Carbon dioxide
c) 60% Nitrogen, 20% Oxygen, 20% Carbon Di oxide
d) 50% Nitrogen, 50% Oxygen
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Medical air is like normal air, but has been treated in air plants. It is used to provide
air to the patients during or after surgery and maintain the normal respiratory functions.

7. How are the OT ventilated?

a) Air is blown in from the lower part of the wall
b) Air is sucked out from the upper region of the wall
c) Air is blown in from the lower part and sucked out from the upper part
d) Air is blown in from the upper part and sucked out from the lower part
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: This kind of ventilation system should actually exist throughout the hospital. The air
which passes through various filters is pumped in and the air in the room is pulled out from the
lower regions. This forms a steady air current and fresh, treated air is constantly circulated. This
reduces the chances of nosocomial infections and wound festering.

8. What is the general equipment found in OT?

i) OT Trolley ii) Heart Lung Machine iii) Pendant iv) Ventilator v) Electron Microscope vi) Medical
Air Tank vii) Intubation Equipment viii) Fire Extinguisher
a) i, iii, iv, vi, vii
b) i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi, vii, viii
c) ii, iii, vi, vii
d) i, iii, iv, vii, viii
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a general OT room, there is a trolley, a pendant (it sockets for connections and
shelves to hold things) a ventilator, medical air tank and intubation equipment. Sophisticated
machines like the heart lung machine or the electron microscope are present in OTs that
specialize in cardiac surgery or neurosurgery. A fire extinguisher may be found outside in the
hallways but not necessarily in an OT.

9. What is the resolution of the microscopes used in neurosurgery?

a) 1 μm
b) 1 nm
c) 1 Åm
d) 1 pm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A scanning electron microscope (SEM) is used in neurosurgery. It can give a good
resolution up to 1 nm. Neurosurgery deals with nerves and neurons and it needs good
magnification and resolution to look into the structures properly.

10. For how long can a heart lung machine be used?

a) 4 hours
b) 6 hours
c) 8 hours
d) 10 hours
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A heart lung machine or rather a cardiopulmonary bypass machine is used during a
cardiac surgery. The machine acts like the heart, it receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and
sends it to the body. It receives deoxygenated blood from the body and sends it to the lungs.
However, since its a machine, various problems like clotting, leakage, air bubble etc may happen
so it is recommended that the machine is not used for more than six hours. Under extreme
precautions and severely critical cases, it can be used for ten hours.

11. In which of the following is not used for suturing?

a) Silk
b) Nylon
c) Polyester
d) Bakelite
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Suturing is the process of closing the wound. It is either stitched back or stapled
back. Various different materials are used to suture the wound. Bakelite is hard, non flexible
material so it cannot be used as a suture thread but recent trials are being made to develop a
suturing needle from Bakelite.

12. What are all precautions taken for a patient directly out of surgery?
a) The injury should not be infected
b) The person must take a bath
c) The blood pressure should go down
d) The blood sugar should go up
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For a person directly out of surgery, the main concern is that the site of operation
and injury should not be infected. An operated person is given a sponge bath if the need arises
but mostly after surgery, they should keep away from water. The parameters that were observed
before and during the surgery, the same parameters are monitored even after the surgery.

13. The following steps are for _______

i. Alcohol with Chlorhexidine ii. Alcohol without Chlorhexidine iii. Chlorhexadine 2% iv.
Chlorhexadine 4% v. Povidone with Iodine 7.5% – 10% vi. Triclosan 1% vii. Phenolics viii.
Quarternary Ammonium Compound ix. 3% hexachlorophane
a) sterilization
b) disinfection
c) antiseptic
d) hand washing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Before and after surgery it is important to wash hands properly. The above given
steps are used to wash hands properly with procedure and chemicals that are used. The
movements of washing the hands also need to be followed carefully.

14. What are the temperature and humidity maintained in an OT?

a) T = 20 – 26 ℃, H = 20% – 30% air exchanges = 7 – 8 per hour
b) T = 18 – 22 ℃, H = 40% – 50% air exchanges = 10 – 12 per hour
c) T = 10 – 12 ℃, H = 10% – 30% air exchanges = 9 – 10 per hour
d) T = 30 – 35 ℃, H = 50% – 60% air exchanges = 15 – 20 per hour
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An OT is normally cool without being cold. The humidity and temperature need to be
maintained so that the body does not go into any other kind of shock. Once under anaesthesia,
the normal functions like homeostasis of the body can also get disrupted thus an external
maintenance is needed. It is important for fresh air to keep circulating in the room so that the risk
of infection goes down. The number of exchanges can’t be too high to avoid cooling nor can they
be too low or else infectious particles may settle down.

Clinical Science Questions and Answers – CSSD

This set of Clinical Science Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “CSSD”.

1. What is the purpose of CSSD?

a) storage of clean equipment
b) providing sterile equipment to the operation theater
c) storing sterile equipment
d) pharmacy of the operation theater
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: CSSD stands for Central Sterile & Supply Department. All the equipment that is used
in the hospital, especially surgeries, is kept in this store. The area is responsible for disinfecting
all the equipment and preparing it for use again and keeping the disinfected instruments in a
sterile environment.

2. Which machine uses the temperature and pressure of the steam for disinfection?
a) Laminar Airflow
b) Autoclave
c) Oven
d) Water Jet
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An autoclave produces steam at high temperature and maintains great pressure to
destroy the microbes. The autoclave does heat and steam treatment of the instruments at 134℃ for
three minutes or at 121℃ for fifteen minutes. This high pressure and high heat treatment help
destroy a number of microbes.

3. Which of the following cannot be autoclaved?

a) catheter
b) mes
c) scalpel
d) scissors
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Catheter is a soft instrument, made of polymers rather than any metallic substance.
The high heat and water pressure of the autoclave can cause the polymer to melt or get damaged.
Thus, it undergoes chemical treatment.

4. Which of the following chemicals are used to treat the instruments made out of polymers?
i) Ethylene Oxide ii) Hydrochloric Acid iii) Silver Cyanide iv) Ozone v) Bleach vi) Saline Solution vii)
Sulphuric Acid viii) Glutaraldehyde and Formaldehyde ix) Phthalaldehyde x) Hydrogen Peroxide xi)
Nitric Acid xii) Peracetic Acid xiii) Silver xiv) Formic Acid xv) Citric Acid
a) i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi
b) ii, iv, vi, viii, x, xii
c) i, iv, v, viii, ix, x, xii, xiii
d) iii, iv, ix, xii, xv
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Instruments made out of polymers cannot be treated with high heat or pressure like
autoclaves because it can cause the instrument to be damaged. Thus, they are treated with
chemicals. These chemicals need to be strong enough to destroy the microorganisms but should
not be corrosive or else they will destroy the instrument.

5. How are the gauze and cotton sterilized?

a) Hot air sterilization
b) Wet Heat Sterilization
c) Sterilization Under High Pressure
d) Chemical Sterilization
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gauze and cotton are cloth materials which have their own pores. Using moist
sterilization will cause them to become wet and they may not dry out. Chemical sterilization also
poses the same problem, the chemicals may stay back and adhere to the gauze and cotton. For
sterilization under pressure, again moisture is required. Thus, hot air sterilization is used. Hot air
at high temperature and pressure is blown and the gauze and cotton are sterilized.

6. What machine is used to package the cotton and gauze?

a) Heat Sealing Machine
b) UV sealing Machine
c) Zip Lock Machine
d) Needle and Thread Sealing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The gauze and cotton are placed in special pouches which have been sealed from
three sides before hand. After the gauze or the cotton has been placed, the fourth side, which is
open is placed in between the heat sealing tubes and the pouch is sealed.

7. What is sterilized in dry conditions?

a) Implant
b) Gauze
c) Scalpel
d) Cannula
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A gauze is like a bandage that is used to wrap up an injury. Since it is made of cloth,
it cannot undergo wet sterilization as it may not dry out and become a site of infections. Thus, it is
sterilized in dry conditions like in an oven or a microwave or some other heat therapy.

8. How is dry sterilization done?

a) In autoclave
b) In oven
c) In Magnetic Vibrator
d) In Hot Plate
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The oven is a specialized device that helps in dry sterilization with the help of heat. It
may also use some gases at times to sterilize the object. Dry Air sterilization is also done. Other
devices for dry sterilization are microwaves, hot air sterilization, desiccators etc.

Clinical Science Questions and Answers – Anatomy and

Physiology of G.I.T – 1
This set of Clinical Science Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Anatomy
and Physiology of G.I.T – 1”.

1. What is the pH of an empty stomach?

a) 0.13
b) 1.3
c) 13
d) 130
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The stomach produces acid to destroy any harmful substances and microbes that
may enter the body through food. It also produces pepsin which starts the digestion of proteins.
Pepsin requires an acidic medium to work. When the stomach is full, the acidity may fall to pH 4.
2. islets of Langerhans are found in __________
a) Liver
b) Stomach
c) Pancreas
d) Intestines
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pancreas is one of the organs which has both endocrine and exocrine functions. The
islets of Langerhans are dense clusters of cells which act as the endocrine systems of the
pancreas. They produce various hormones for the regulation of glucose the most important one
being insulin.

3. Digestion of fats begins in _______

a) Mouth
b) Esophagus
c) Stomach
d) Duodenum
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Fats are in the form of large globules and so because of their small surface area, they
cannot be digested easily. When the food in the form of chyme enters the duodenum of the small
intestine, it comes in contact with the bile salts which break fat into smaller globules. The
pancreatic juices contain enzymes for the digestion of fats.

4. Chewing of food is called ______

a) Emulsification
b) Mastication
c) Injection
d) Peristalses
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The chewing process is called as mastication. The incisors bit and cut, the canines
rip, the premolars and molars chew. Since the molars and premolars are at the back of the mouth,
they receive the most muscle and skeletal support. These teeth cause mastication.

5. Which organ contributes the most enzymes and hormones towards digestion?
a) Liver
b) Pancreas
c) Duodenum
d) Ileum
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The major sites of digestion are mouth, stomach, duodenum and ileum. However, the
duodenum does not secrete any digestive juices. It is simply the receiving site for the incoming
food from the stomach and the secretions from the bile duct. The bile salts are produced in the
liver but it is finally the pancreas that brings in juices for the digestion of proteins, fats and
carbohydrates. After digestion is done and food has been absorbed by the blood, it is the
pancreatic hormonal secretions that help in regulating the amount of glucose in the blood.

6. The movement of an esophagus to help the food down the GI tract __________
a) Mastication
b) Emulsification
c) Peristalses
d) Ejection
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: After chewing, the tongue rolls the food in the form of a bolus and shifts the food to
the oesophagus. The walls of the esophagus contract and relax and slowly allow the food to move
down and enter the stomach. This allows the food to enter the stomach slowly and avoid and acid
splash. This movement is peristalsis.

7. The three different cells found in the stomach

a) Chief cells, renal cells, nephron
b) Renal cells, mucous cells, hepatic cells
c) Nephrons, hepatic cells, parietal cells
d) Chief cells, parietal cells, mucous cells
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Chief cells are also called as zymogen cells as they secrete enzymes. Parietal cells
are oxygentic cells and they secrete HCl to destroy the microbes and any other harmful
substances. The mucous cells secrete mucous to protect the walls of the stomach being harmed
by the HCl. It also allows for the smooth passage of food.

8. The band of muscles guarding the two openings of the stomach towards the esophageal and
intestinal sides is called as _______________
a) pyloric sphincter and pyruvic sphincter
b) diaphragm and pyloric sphincter
c) cardiac sphincter and lower sphincter
d) cardiac sphincter and pyloric sphincter
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The sphincters are basically a band of muscles that regulate the opening and closing
of any opening in the body. The sphincter muscles towards the esophagus are called the cardiac
sphincter because they are close to the heart or the lower sphincter because it brings the food
down. The opening towards the intestine is called the pylorus and the muscles guarding them are
the pyloric sphincter.

9. A vestigial organ for humans found near the junction of the small and large intestine is the
_______
a) Appendix
b) Nictitating Membrane
c) Coccyx
d) Pinna
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In herbivores, especially like cows, the appendix produces enzymes that help in the
digestion of cellulose, something that the human stomach cant do. Thus, this is a vestigial organ
that is present at the junction of the large and small intestine.

Clinical Science Questions and Answers – Anatomy and

Physiology of G.I.T. – 2
This set of Clinical Science Questions and Answers for Freshers focuses on “Anatomy and
Physiology of G.I.T. – 2”.

1. The cells of the small intestine have a special structure that helps in the absorption of food. This
structure is ________
a) villi
b) pseudopodia
c) flagella
d) attachment sites
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The inner lining of the intestines are lined with villi which help increase the surface
area of absorption. These villi have blood and lymph supply and have microvilli which further
increase the surface area for absorption.

2. Fats effectively begin digesting due to __________

a) Salivary emulsification
b) Esophageal emulsification
c) Acidic emulsification
d) Bile emulsification
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Fat molecules are usually a clumped mass and it is difficult to act upon them to
digest them. Due to their large size, their surface area is too small. Bile salts cause emulsification
which breaks down the fats into smaller globules which allows the various digestive enzymes to
work on them and finally digest them.

3. Fats are absorbed by ________ in the form of a ________

a) micelles, lacteal
b) lacteal, enterocytes
c) enterocytes, micelles
d) micelles, enterocytes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The fats in their digested state consist of free fatty acids, monoglycerides,
cholesterol and lysolipids. They cannot be absorbed directly by the enterocytes of the villi. Thus,
the digested fats are encapsulated into small balls of bile which allow them to enter the villi and
get absorbed by the enterocytes. These enterocytes have microvilli to allow better absorption. On
entering the enterocytes, monoglycerides, cholesterol and lysolipids react with 2 units of Fatty
acids to form these enter the lacteals, a part of the lymphatic system. From here, they can enter
blood as needed.

4. Enzyme secreted by the small intestine to digest protein is ____________

a) trypsin
b) chymotrypsin
c) zymogens
d) peptidase
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Peptidase is the last enzyme that is secreted for the digestion of the proteins. Trypsin
and chymotrypsin are secreted by the pancreas in their inactive forms called zymogens. When
trypsinogen and chymptypsinogen are secreted by the pancreas and they enter the duodenum,
they get converted into trypsin and chymotrypsin due to the activation action of enterokinase.

5. The enzyme that breaks ________ into 2 glucose molecules is ________

a) maltose, lactase
b) lactose, lactase
c) maltose, maltase
d) lactose, maltase
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Maltose is a diasaccharide which is made of two molecules of glucose. Maltase is
secreted by the small intestine and it breaks down maltose into two glucose. Lactase breaks
lactose into glucose and galactose while sucrase breaks sucrose into glucose and fructose.

6. An enzyme that is secreted by infants but not by adults

a) Renin
b) Gelatinase
c) Pepsinogen
d) Amylase
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Renin is the enzyme that helps in the digestion of milk in the infants. As the children
grow up, the production of this enzyme goes down and so it is not found in adults. Renin is found
in all mammalian infants which feed on their mother’s milk.

7. Amylase works in pH as _________

a) 1.3 – 2.5
b) 2.5 – 5.7
c) 5.7 – 6.8
d) 6.8 – 7.2
View Answer
8. pH in the small intestine is __________
a) 2
b) 5
c) 7
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The digestive enzymes mostly work in the basic or mildly basic mediums. When the
food reaches the stomach, the high pH content of the stomach destroys the microbes and any
other harmful material in the food. Then the food moves down to the small intestine where the bile
salts help neutralize the acidity of the food and then make them slightly basic to allow the
intestinal enzymes to work on them.

9. The _______ connects the small intestine and liver.

a) pulmonary vein
b) renal vein
c) hepatic portal
d) cardiac vein
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The hepatic portal connects the small intestine and the liver. After food has been
digested by the intestines, the extracted nutrients and toxins move to the liver to allow the liver to
purify the blood. The liver breaks down the toxic substances into less harmful substances and
allows the blood to carry it away to the kidney where it gets filtered out.

Clinical Science Questions and Answers – Intravenous

Cannulae, Stomach Wash Tubes, Infusion Pumps v/s Syringe
Pumps
This set of Clinical Science Interview Questions and Answers for freshers focuses on
“Intravenous Cannulae, Stomach Wash Tubes, Infusion Pumps v/s Syringe Pumps”.
1. Where are the access sites for the stomach wash tubes?
a) Mouth
b) Diaphragm
c) Abdomen
d) Anus
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Stomach wash tubes are used to flush out the stomach. This is done by sending in
warm water or saline solution. The mouth or the nose is used as the access point and careful
monitoring is done to ensure that the solution reaches the stomach and not the lungs.

2. How is a graft made?

a) By surgically connecting two arteries
b) By externally connecting two veins
c) By surgically placing a connection between two capillaries
d) By surgically placing a connection between an artery and vein
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When a graft is made, an artery and a vein are connected by using an external tube
(graft). This allows the blood to flow from higher pressure, i.e. artery, through the graft and then
into the low pressure area, i.e. vein. The graft is where the needles are used for withdrawal or
injection.

3. What is a fistula?
a) The connection between two arteries
b) The connection between two veins
c) The connection between two capillaries
d) The connection between artery and vein
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A fistula is also a disease but in this case, it is a connection between an artery and
vein. It provides an access point for better withdrawal and injection of blood, saline etc. It is
surgically created by creating a small longitudinal incision in an artery and vein facing each other
and then they are joined together. This provides a better access point.

4. Cannula acts like an access point for _________

a) catheters
b) syringe
c) scalpel
d) mes
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Catheters are like small tubes which may or may not have a bifurcation. They have
openings on both the ends. The catheter is placed at the access point and often filled with heparin
or other anticoagulants and sealed. When the access point needs to be used, a catheter is easily
sent in. The cannula can be placed in the body for some period of time.

5. Long periods of cannulization can lead to ___________

a) Inflammation in the area
b) Heart Diseases
c) Increase in uric acid
d) Death
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When some external substance is placed in the body, the body tries to remove and
reject it. If the body is unable to break down this foreign substance, the WBCs that tried to get rid
of this foreign substance accumulate in the area and cause inflammation.

6. How is monitoring done for stomach wash?

a) Air insufflation while listening to the stomach
b) Auscultation
c) Patting the stomach
d) Ultrasound
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Air insufflation is the process in which air is filled in the cavity and then the cavity is
monitored. For stomach wash, the abdominal area is filled with air and then the stomach sounds
are heard. This ensures that the tube is in the correct place.

7. Why is the stomach lavage done?

a) to remove poison
b) to induce vomiting
c) to allow better respiration
d) to hydrate the stomach
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Lavage is the term that is used for washing. Thus, stomach lavage means washing
the stomach. When a person has been poisoned or has had an excess intake of alcohol or is
preparing for a surgery, the stomach is cleaned out. Vomiting is a side effect of stomach lavage.

8. What is the entry site for a feeding tube?

a) Oral cavity
b) G – tube site
c) Ileum
d) Diaphragm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The tube is inserted in the G – site of the stomach and may extend up to the jejunum
of the small intestines. These tubes are used for enteral feeding and send the food directly to the
stomach. This kind of food is given to patients who are unable to eat by themselves, for eg
comatose patients, geriatric population etc.

9. Which gas is used for insufflation in surgical processes?

a) Carbon Di Oxide
b) Helium
c) Nitrogen
d) Oxygen
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Carbon Di Oxide is colorless, non inflammable and non harmful to the body. Thus, it
is often used for insufflation, especially in endoscopy. It allows a good view of the insides.
Oxygen, helium, nitrous oxide, xenon etc are also used for insufflation in other processes like
anesthesia, nasal drug administration etc.

10. What is the difference between the infusion pump and syringe pump?
a) Syringe Pumps are used when a larger amount of medication has to be sent in while infusion
pumps are used for smaller doses of medication
b) Infusion pump injects into the abdomen and syringe pump injects in the blood vessels
c) Infusion Pumps are used when a larger amount of medication has to be sent in while syringe
pumps are used for smaller doses of medication
d) Syringe pump injects into the abdomen and infusion pump injects in the blood vessels
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Syringe pumps and infusion pumps are both used for the same job, injecting
medicines, saline, drip or other substances in the blood and body. Infusion pumps are used for
injecting larger amounts of materials but in a regulated speed and volume while the syringe
pumps are used to inject a lesser amount of materials but in a lesser volume. For eg, to send in
medicines, it is better to use syringe pumps but to send in parenteral nutrition, it is better to use
infusion pumps.

11. What are feeding tubes made of?

a) Bakelite
b) Polyurethane
c) Polyvinyl Chloride
d) Poly ethene
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Polyurethane can stay in the body for longer periods of time without causing harm to
it. It is stable, non reactive and does not corrode in the body. It provides good biocompatibility,
flexibility, high endurance etc which makes it a good choice for making various medical
equipment.

Clinical Science Questions and Answers – Basics of

Endoscopy
This set of Clinical Science Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Basics of
Endoscopy”.

1. The endoscope that examines the respiratory tract is called as ____________

a) Bronchoscopy
b) Laparoscopy
c) Colonoscopy
d) Arthroscopy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Broncoscope is inserted in the body via the nasal passage and it used to image the
respiratory tract. It has a very thin tube so that the patient feels minimal discomfort as the scope
goes down the track. A laryngoscope can be used to examine the larynx. It is inserted through the
mouth and the direction of the scope is changed at the epiglottis. This allows the scope to look at
the larynx and not enter the GI tract.

2. Endoscope used to examine the upper GI tract is ___________

a) Laparoscopy
b) Bronchoscopy
c) Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
d) Laryngoscopy
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As the name suggests, this particular endoscope has a really long range and can be
used to view esophagus, stomach and the duodenum. The region till here is mostly considered as
the upper GI tract.
3. Capsule endoscope has a ________ for taking images.
a) CCD camera
b) LED camera
c) X-Ray camera
d) US camera
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The CCD (Charge coupled device) camera is small and is easily fitted in the capsule.
It does not require too much energy and the range of the camera is wide enough. It may also be
called as CMOS (Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor) imager.

4. Extraction of a small piece of the diseased organ is called __________

a) biopsy
b) surgery
c) chemotherapy
d) replacement
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The smallest unit of any system is its cell. Every organ is made of tissues and
tissues are a collection of similar cells. Thus, what a tissue system does is a result of the network
of the similar cells. So, when a tissue is diseased or injured, a part of the tissue is extracted to
study the nature of the trauma or disease. This extracted part is called a biopsy.

5. The cleaning of the endoscope is done with ____________

i) 2% Glutarldehyde (CIDEX)
ii) Sodium Hypochlorite
iii) Hydrochloric acid
iv) Iodophor (Betadine-providone)
v) 1% Saline Solution
vi) 70% ethyl or isopropyl alcohol
vii) Ethylene oxide (ETO)
viii) Formaldehyde vapour
ix) Phenol Solution
x) Vinegar
a) i,iv, vi, vii, viii
b) i, vii, viii, ix, x
c) ii, iii, ix, x
d) iii, iv, v, ix
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The body of an endoscope is flexible because it is made of polymers. The cleaning
agents used need to be harsh enough for the microbes that may get attached to the endoscope as
it is examining the patient but they should not corrode or harm the body of the endoscope.

6. None of the endoscopic procedures require any cuts.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Some procedures like laparoscopy and arthroscopy require a small cut to allows the
devices to go in. Laparoscopy is done for the diaphragm and the organs in that region. It can help
look at kidneys and the reproductive organs in women.

7. Which of the following operations can be done with an endoscope?

i. Bypass surgery
ii. Cardiac Catherization
iii. Kidney Stone Removal
iv. Knee Replacement
v. Biopsy
vi. Tracheotomy
vii. Appendix Removal
a) i, ii, iii, iv, vii
b) ii, iii, v, vii
c) iii, vii
d) v, vi, vii
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: All of the above mentioned processes are minimally invasive procedures and can be
quickly resolved with the help of endoscopes. Come to require a small cut to allow insertion of the
scope along with the micro instruments while others may be performed without any incisions.
These use the nasal opening, oral opening, the anal opening and the vaginal opening for
visualization and surgery.

8. Which if the following diagnostic procedures require an endoscope?

a) Transesophagal Echocardiography
b) X Ray of the Chest
c) Counting the Number of Platelets
d) Detecting Leukemia
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This is a type of Ultrasound of the heart where the endoscope is sending through the
oral cavity and placed close to the heart via the oesophagus. This helps in taking an unhindered
ultrasound of the heart.

9. Which endoscope can be used to look at the knees before and after a surgery?
a) Colonoscopy
b) Arthroscopy
c) Bronchoscopy
d) Laryngoscopy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Arthroscopy is a process where the bones are visualized and worked upon with the
help of an endoscope. The soft parts of the knee like the cartilage or the synovial capsule cannot
be properly visualized with an X-Ray so an arthroscope is used to look at them. The healing of the
bones after a surgery can be monitored by the arthrocope. Small operations regarding the bones
can be performed with the help of the arthroscope
 Clinical Science Questions and Answers – General
Pathology
This set of Basic Clinical Science Questions and Answers focuses on “General Pathology”.

1. A Histopathology lab will deal with _________

a) Cells
b) Tissues
c) Organs
d) Organ System
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Histology stands for the study of tissues while pathology stands for the study of
diseases or abnormal conditions. Thus, the histopathology lab will deal with diseased or abnormal
tissues.

2. What is the temperature which is maintained by the Freezers in the pathology labs?
a) 10℃ – 15℃
b) 0℃ – 10℃
c) -10℃ – -60℃
d) -100℃
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When pathological samples are collected, they may have to be stored for further
study or for future use. They are stored at a temperature of -10℃ – -60℃. At this temperature, the
solution used for preserving freezes without causing damage to the samples.

3. What solution is used to maintain sterility in labs?

a) Sodium Chloride
b) Sodium Hypochlorite
c) Sodium Cyanide
d) Sodium Sulphate
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sodium Hypochlorite acts like a bleaching agent. When it is dissolved in water and
used to clean the labs, it gives off nascent oxygen. This oxygen is highly reactive and dangerous
to microbes. It destroys the microbes that may have grown in the lab. It also helps remove stains
due to its reactive nature and thus reduces/destroys the environment for microbes to breed.

4. An electrophoresis machine is used to __________

a) separate DNA
b) separate blood components
c) separate the bone components
d) separate the muscle fibers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An electrophoresis machine uses the charge present on the substance and the
weight of the substance to separate the various components of the substance. The DNA strand is
taken and broken at various places which is detected by markers. These strands all possess
individual charges and weights. When a potential difference is developed across the two ends, the
strands start moving according to their weight and charges. Thus, the strands of the DNA get
separated.
5. Which of the following devices are used to maintain a sterile environment while working with
microorganisms?
a) Laminar Airflow
b) Microwave oven
c) Water Bath
d) Incubator
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A laminar air flow is like a sterile work station. It has a UV lamp and the whole
chamber is aerated with sterile air to destroy any unwanted microorganisms. When any work is
being done with microorganisms, they are placed in a petridish and placed in the laminar air flow.
This allows sufficient aeration to the organisms without posing danger to the scientists. The
scientists can work on the organisms by using gloves and accessing the chamber via special
small holes which are wide enough for only the arms to pass through. Thus, the body stays out
while the work in being done. This allows for isolation and maintains sterility.

6. Which device is used to separate the components of blood?

a) auto analyzer
b) centrifuge
c) hematocrit
d) magnetic stirrer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The various components of blood precipitate at various speeds. The centrifuge
rotates at high speed and the components depending upon their density separate out. The high
speed causes them to clump together and then they either float up or sink down.

7. How are the blood cells and plasma separated?

a) hematocrit
b) hot plate
c) centrifuge
d) water bath
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The blood is collected, heparin is added to it and then the blood is centrifugated at
10,000 RPM. Then the blood is left to settle down. The cells due to higher weight settle down and
the plasma floats up. The RBCs have the highest density so they settle down at the bottom. Then
comes a layer of WBCs and then platelets. The plasma is collected above the platelets.

8. The cells related to blood are collectively called as

a) oestoblast cells
b) concdrocyte cells
c) hematopoietic cells
d) megakaryocytes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hemato is a term that related to blood. All the cellular components of the blood
originate from the hematopoietic cells. They are found in the bone marrow of the long bones and
are self renewing in nature. These are also considered as stem cells as they can give rise to
different types of cells.
 Clinical Science Questions and Answers – Blood Groups
This set of Clinical Science Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Blood
Groups”.

1. On what basis is the blood type classified?

a) Antigen
b) Antibody
c) Rhesus Factor
d) Oxygen Content
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Rhesus factor, also known as antigen D is used to classify blood into positive and
negative. If the RH factor is present, it is called +ve blood type. If the RH factor is absent, it is
called as -ve blood type.

2. On what basis is the blood group classified?

a) Antigen and antibody
b) Haemoglobin content
c) Rhesus Factor
d) Oxygen Content
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The blood groups have antigens which produce antibodies for the opposite blood
group. Thus, blood group A has antigen A and it produces antibody B against the blood group B
which contains antigen B. When a blood test is done, the blood of group A will clump up when
antigen B is added to the taken blood. In the same way, the blood of group B will clump when
antigen A is added. For blood group AB, no clumping happens and for group O, clumping
happens for both Antigen A and B.

3. How many blood types exist including the positive and negative factors?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 8
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Blood is classified into two factors, antigen-antibody and rhesus factor. There are
two types of antigens A and B. The cells having antigen A have antibody B while those having
antigen B have antibody A. This makes the blood group A and B. AB blood group have both
antigens A and B and no antibodies. Blood group has no antigens but antibodies for both. This
makes four blood groups A, B, AB, O. The presence and absence of Rh factor make these four
blood groups into 8. A+, A-, B+, B-, AB+, AB-, O+ and O-.

4. If the blood of two different groups is mixed together, what problem is observed?
a) Coagulation
b) Agglutination
c) Thrombus formation
d) Embolism
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The blood group is determined by the presence of antigen on the surface of the
blood cells. When this antigen exists for one group, an antibody for the other group will exist as
well. Thus, when the blood of the opposing group enters the body, the antibody attacks the
antigen and they form a clump. This is called as agglutination.
5. Other than transfusion, when is it necessary to take the Rh factor into consideration?
a) Cathertization
b) Spleen Rupture
c) Pregnancy
d) Blood Donation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Erythroblastosis foetalis is a condition that may happen to a woman when she is
pregnant. When a woman with RH- blood type conceives a baby with RH+ blood type, the body
perceives it as a threat and starts producing antibodies. This can cause the baby to die in the
womb and so RH factor must be monitored especially if the woman is RH-. Certain medications
and treatments can help reverse this condition.

6. Which blood type is a universal donor?

a) O –
b) O +
c) AB –
d) AB +
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In O- the antigens for A and B are both absent and so is the antigen D (more
commonly known as the Rhesus factor). Thus, O- can donate blood to all types of blood groups
quite safely.

7. If a person has AB- blood, who all can donate blood to him?
a) A+ , B-, O -, AB+
b) A- , B -, O+, AB+
c) A+, B+, O+, AB-
d) A-, B-, O-, AB-
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A person with AB- blood has antigens for A and B and the antibodies for them are
absent. Since the blood group is negative, it means that antigen D or the Rhesus factor is also
absent in the blood. Thus, all blood groups with negative rhesus factors can donate blood.

8. Extraction of a small section of diseased tissue to study and diagnose is called ______
a) autopsy
b) biopsy
c) necrosis
d) endoscopy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A cell is the smallest individually functioning unit of a body. Thus, when a body is
diseased, all the cells of the diseases tissues shows a similar kind of response and reactions.
Thus, a small part of the diseased tissue is extracted which is used to study and analyze the
problem. This is called a biopsy.
 Clinical Science Questions and Answers – Collection of
Blood in Pathology
This set of Clinical Science Questions and Answers for Experienced people focuses on
“Collection of Blood in Pathology”.

1. On collecting blood, what solution is added to it?

a) sodium citrate
b) potassium citrate
c) sodium phosphate
d) potassium phosphate
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sodium Citrate is an anticoagulant. Adding it ensures that the blood does not
coagulate in the blood bags. If the blood is left static, i.e. if it does not keep moving, it starts
coagulating. Once even if a small amount of blood has coagulated, even if it has a few cells, the
coagulation spreads. The coagulation of blood can begin within a few minutes after extraction of
blood and can finish within a few hours. To avoid this situation, anticoagulants are used.

2. Which of the following tests can be performed on the extracted blood?

i) HIV ii) Diabetes iii) Hepatitis B surface antigen iv) Malaria v) Antibody to Hepatitis C vi)
Serological test for Syphilis vii) Dengue viii) Creatinine
a) i, iii, v, vi
b) i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi, viii, viii
c) ii, iv, vii, viii
d) i, v, viii
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Once the blood has been donated, before storing it, it undergoes some basic tests to
ensure that it can be used for transfusing into a patient in times of need. The tests include all
those pathological problems that can be transmitted via blood. This blood test serves two
purposes, one is to check if the donated blood is appropriate for transfusion, the second is that if
any abnormality is detected, the person can be called back for further tests.

3. How much blood does the body have in reserve and where is it stored?
a) 150 ml stored in liver
b) 10 ml stored in gall bladder
c) 100 ml stored in the spleen
d) 15 ml stored in the heart
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Spleen stores almost three months of reserves of blood. When the body suffers from
blood loss due to injury or trauma, the spleen releases blood to act as a buffer and prevent any
critical situations from happening. Even after blood donation, the spleen releases blood to cover
up for the loss. It takes almost three months for the spleen to recover its lost blood.

4. What is the optimum temperature to store blood right after collecting it?
a) 25℃
b) 22℃
c) 20℃
d) 15℃
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Once the blood is collected, it is stored at 22℃. At this temperature, the blood
proteins are safe from degeneration, the cells function properly and the presence of
anticoagulants ensures that the blood is not clotting.

5. How is dengue detected in blood?

a) Low level of RBCs
b) Low level of WBCs
c) Low level of Platelets
d) Low level of fibrin
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: While dengue expresses itself in the form of fever, the sure test for dengue is the
reduction in the number of platelets. The loss of platelets reduces the blood clotting capacity.
When a person suffers from external injury the bleeding does not stop easily. When there is a
severe reduction of platelets, the person may suffer from internal bleeding and die.

6. What machine is used to test the blood?

a) Auto analyzer
b) Hemodialyzer
c) Diathermy machine
d) Ventilator
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An auto analyzer has various tests and processes of doing those tests fed into it. It
can do a test for over hundred samples using minimum amounts of blood within a span of few
hours. Thus, an auto analyzer is currently the most favorite machine to do the various tests
regarding blood.

7. What is the normal haemoglobin content of the RBCs?

a) 0.3pgm
b) 3.0pgm
c) 30pgm
d) 300pgm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Haemoglobin is the protein that is responsible for the transport of oxygen and
carbon-dioxide from the lungs to the cells in the body. Haemoglobin is carried by the RBCs and
every RBC has 30pgm of haemoglobin.

8. Anaemia is caused due to deficiency of _________

a) Haemoglobin
b) Fibrin
c)Thrombin
d) Neutrophils
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An important component of haemoglobin is iron. When the quantity of iron goes
down in body, it causes the haemoglobin content of the body to go down. Anemia symptoms
include fatigue, dizziness, shortness of breath etc.

9. Hemophilia is more dominant in _________

a) Males
b) Females
c) Young children
d) Transvestite
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Haem

ophilia is a genetic problem in which the X chromosome is the carrier of the mutated gene. If a
person is suffering from hemophilia, their blood has lost the ability to clot or the blood clotting
ability has gone down. Since men have one X and one Y chromosome, they are more susceptible
to get hemophilia.

10. A virus that destroys the immunity of the body and can spread through blood is __________
a) HIV
b) Gonorrhea
c) Anemia
d) Hemophilia
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: HIV stands for Human Immunodeficiency Virus. HIV attacks the immune system of
the body and causes AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome). A common method for HIV to
propagate is through the transfusion of blood. It can stay hidden for long periods of time and can
be discovered much later after it has attacked.

Clinical Science Questions and Answers – Components of

Blood
This set of Clinical Science Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Components of Blood”.

1. In a normal adult male, what is the ration of RBCs: WBCs: Platelets per ml of blood?
a) 5000:11:300
b) 50:11:300
c) 5000:11:3
d) 50:11:3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A normal adult male is 5000000 RBCs, 11000 WBCs in total and 300000 platelets. The
RBCs carry oxygen, WBCs are a part of the immune system and the platelets help in the clotting of
blood.

2. Where are the platelets produced?

a) In Liver
b) In Spleen
c) In Gall Bladder
d) In Megakaryocytes
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Megakaryocytes simply mean cells with a large nucleus and they are found in the
bone marrow. Normally, there is 1 megakaryocyte for every 10,000 cells of the bone marrow.
These megakaryocytes break into smaller pieces and give rise to platelets.

3. What is the ratio of basophils to eosinophils?

a) 4:1
b) 1:4
c) 2:1
d) 1:2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Basophils form 0.5% of all WBCs and neutrophil constitute 2% of WBCs. Basophils
go to the site of injury and cause inflammation. The presence of this inflammation brings in
eosinophils which surround the area and attack the source of the problem.

4. How to distinguish eosinophils from basophils?

a) Eosinophils have a bilobed nucleus and basophils have a single round nucleus
b) Eosinophils are granulated while Basophils are non granulated
c) Eosinophils have a single nucleus and basophils have a trilobed nucleus
d) Eosinophils stain blue while basophils stain pink
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Eosinophils and basophils are both granulocytes i.e. they have granules in their
cytoplasm. Their granules are stained with dyes of different pH and their nucleus is differentiated
by the lobes they have.

5. Where are Kupffer cells found?

a) Brain
b) Lungs
c) Liver
d) Spleen
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Kupffer cells is another name for megakaryocytes. These are Monocytic
Agranulocytes, i.e. agranular WBCs having one large nucleus. They leave the Blood Vessels and
can enlarge almost 30 times their size. The megakaryocytes of the brain are called mircoglial cells,
lungs are alveolar macrophages, liver is Kupffer cells and for lymph nodes, spleen and bone
marrow, they are sinuslining macrophages.

6. The leaving of neutrophils from the blood vessels to act on the site of injury is called as
________
a) Histosis
b) Diapedesis
c) Amboidal Movement
d) Flagellation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When a WBC or a neutrophil, in this case, is moving out of the blood vessels, the size
of the pores in the blood vessels is too small as compared to the size of the WBC. Thus, for the
WBCs to come out, they squeeze out a tiny amoeboid leg out if the pore and slowly move out. This
process is diapedesis.

7. How are mature and non – matured RBCs distinguished?

a) Mature RBCs are biconcave while non – mature RBCs are round
b) Mature RBCs have mitochondria while non – mature RBCs do not have mitochondria
c) Mature RBCs have nucleus while non – mature RBCs do not have nucleus
d) Mature RBCs have haemoglobin while non – mature RBCs do not have haemoglobin
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When an RBC is produced in the bone marrow of the long bones, it is round in shape.
It has a nucleus and a mitochondira. However, once the RBC matures, it looses its nucleus and
mitochondira. Thus, the RBC are unable to reproduce by cell division or produce energy for
themselves. Since the nucleus is usually the biggest organelle, the loss of nucleus makes the RBC
become biconcave.

8. Where are the RBCs destroyed?

a) Liver
b) Pancreas
c) Stomach
d) Intestines
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The liver is responsible for detoxifying the body. Just like kidney filters blood and
removes all the waste, the liver detoxifies the blood and ensures that the dead and dying cells are
destroyed and removed.

9. What is the lifespan of platelets?

a) 1 – 7 days
b) 8 – 12 days
c) 14 days
d) 1 month
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Platelets are formed from the megakaryocyes. Thus, essentially, they are broken
parts of a cell and thus must be removed eventually to avoid any problems to the body. Thus,
within 8 – 12 days, the liver removes them from blood circulation.

10. The non – cellular components of blood consist of

i) Fibrin ii) Thrombin iii) Sodium iv) Plasma v) Thrombocytes vi) Phagocytes vii) creatinine viii)
Water ix) hormones x) enzymes
a) i, iii, x
b) i, ii, iii, iv, vii, viii, ix
c) ii, iii, vii, ix
d) viii, ix, x
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The non cellular component is called the plasma. It is basically the suspended
solution in which the blood cells flow. It has 95% water. Fibrin and thrombin are proteins that are
used for coagulation of blood. Sodium is an electrolyte, also important for impulse conduction,
creatinine is a waste product and hormones are injected directly in the blood