DATE : 05/05/2019 Test Booklet Code

R1
SURYAA

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456

Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) - 2019
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

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 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

1. Match the following genes of the Lac operon Answer (1)

with their respective products :
S o l . The direction of movement of sugar in phloem
(a) i gene (i) -galactosidase
is bi-directional as it depends on source-sink
(b) z gene (ii) Permease relationship which is variable in plants.
(c) a gene (iii) Repressor
4. The ciliated epithelial cells are required to
(d) y gene (iv) Transacetylase
move particles or mucus in a specific
Select the correct option. direction. In humans, these cells are mainly
(a) (b) (c) (d) present in
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(1) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) Bile duct and Bronchioles
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (3) Fallopian tubes and Pancreatic duct
Answer (4) (4) Eustachian tube and Salivary duct
S o l . In lac operon
Answer (1)
i gene Repressor
z gene -galactosidase S o l . Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes are lined with
ciliated epithelium to move particles or mucus
y gene Permease
in a specific direction.
a gene  Transacetylase
5. Which of the following is the most important
2. Match the following structures with their
respective location in organs cause for animals and plants being driven to
extinction?
(a) Crypts of Lieberkuhn (i) Pancreas
(b) Glisson's Capsule (ii) Duodenum (1) Alien species invasion

(c) Islets of Langerhans (iii) Small (2) Habitat loss and fragmentation
intestine (3) Drought and floods
(d) Brunner's Glands (iv) Liver
(4) Economic exploitation
Select the correct option from the following
(a) (b) (c) (d) Answer (2)

(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) S o l . Habitat loss and fragmentation is the most
(2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) important cause driving animals and plants to
extinction.
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) eg: Loss of tropical rainforest reducing the
Answer (4) forest cover from 14 % to 6 %.

S o l . Crypts of Lieberkuhn are present in small 6. Which of the following contraceptive methods
intestine. Glisson's capsule is present in liver. do involve a role of hormone?
Islets of langerhans constitutes the endocrine
(1) Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier
portion of pancreas. Brunner's glands are
found in submucosa of duodenum. methods.

3. What is the direction of movement of sugars (2) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills Emergency
in phloem? contraceptives.
(1) Bi-directional
(3) Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea,
(2) Non-multidirectional
Pills.
(3) Upward
(4) Downward (4) CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptives.

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NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

Answer (2) Answer (3)

S o l .  In lactational amenorrhoea, due to high
prolactin level, gonadotropin level
decreases.
 Oral pills are either progestogens or
progestogen-estrogen combinations used
by the females.
 Emergency contraceptives includes the
administration of progestogens or
progestogen-estrogen combination or
IUDs within 72 hour of coitus.
S o l . Earth Summit (Rio Summit)-1992, called upon
all nations to take appropriate measures for
conservation of biodiversity and sustainable
utilisation of its benefits
10. Purines found both in DNA and RNA are
(1) Cytosine and thymine
(2) Adenine and thymine
(3) Adenine and guanine

So, lactational amenorrhoea, oral pills and (4) Guanine and cytosine
emergency contraceptives involve a role of
Answer (3)
hormone.
S o l . Purines found both in DNA and RNA are
7. Which of the following pair of organelles does
Adenine and guanine
not contain DNA?
(1) Nuclear envelope and Mitochondria 11. Match the following hormones with the
respective disease
(2) Mitochondria and Lysosomes
(3) Chloroplast and Vacuoles (a) Insulin (i) Addison's disease

(4) Lysosomes and Vacuoles (b) Thyroxin (ii) Diabetes insipidus

Answer (4) (c) Corticoids (iii) Acromegaly

S o l . Lysosomes and Vacuoles do not have DNA. (d) Growth Hormone (iv) Goitre
8. Placentation in which ovules develop on the (v) Diabetes mellitus
inner wall of the ovary or in peripheral part, is
Select the correct option.
(1) Free central
(2) Basal (a) (b) (c) (d)

(3) Axile (1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(4) Parietal (2) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)

Answer (4) (3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
S o l . In parietal placentation the ovules develop on
(4) (v) (iv) (i) (iii)
the inner wall of ovary or in peripheral part.
eg. Mustard, Argemone etc. Answer (4)
9. The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in Sol.  Insulin deficiency leads to diabetes
1992 was called mellitus
(1) for immediate steps to discontinue use of  Hypersecretion or hyposecretion of
CFCs that were damaging the ozone layer thyroxine can be associated with
(2) to reduce CO 2 emissions and global enlargement of thyroid gland called goitre
warming  Deficiency of corticoids (Glucocorticoid +
(3) for conservation of biodiversity and mineralocorticoid) leads to Addison's
sustainable utilization of its benefits disease

(4) to assess threat posed to native species  Growth hormone hypersecretion in adults
by invasive weed species leads to Acromegaly

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 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

12. The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle 16. Following statements describe the
is characteristics of the enzyme Restriction
(1) G1  S  G2  M (2) M  G1  G2  S Endonuclease. Identify the incorrect
(3) G1  G2  S  M (4) S  G1  G2  M statement.

Answer (1) (1) The enzyme recognizes a specific

S o l . The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is palindromic nucleotide sequence in the
DNA.
G1  S  G2  M
(2) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at
13. Which of the following sexually transmitted
identified position within the DNA.
diseases is not completely curable?
(1) Chlamydiasis (2) Gonorrhoea (3) The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites
and cuts only one of the two strands.
(3) Genital warts (4) Genital herpes
(4) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate
Answer (4)
backbone at specific sites on each strand.
S o l . Genital herpes is caused by type-II-herpes
Answer (3)
simplex virus. At present there is no cure for
type-II-herpes simplex virus and therefore the S o l . Restriction enzymes cut DNA molecules at a
disease caused, genital herpes. Other non- particular point by recognising a specific
curable STIs are hepatitis-B and HIV. sequence. Each restriction endonuclease
functions by inspecting the length of a DNA
14. Polyblend, a fine powder of recycled modified
plastic, has proved to be a good material for sequence. Once it finds its specific
recognition sequence, it will bind to the DNA
(1) Making tubes and pipes
and cut each of the two strands of the double
(2) Making plastic sacks helix at specific points in their sugar-
(3) Use as a fertilizer phosphate backbone.

(4) Construction of roads 17. Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as

Answer (4) (1) Tegmen (2) Chalaza

S o l . Polyblend is a fine powder of recycled (3) Perisperm (4) Hilum
modified plastic waste. The mixture is mixed
Answer (3)
with bitumen that is used to lay roads
15. The shorter and longer arms of a S o l . Persistent Nucellus is called Perisperm
submetacentric chromosome are referred to e.g.: Black pepper, Beet
as
18. Identify the cells whose secretion protects the
(1) m-arm and n-arm respectively
lining of gastro-intestinal tract from various
(2) s-arm and l-arm respectively enzymes.
(3) p-arm and q-arm respectively (1) Duodenal Cells (2) Chief Cells
(4) q-arm and p-arm respectively
(3) Goblet Cells (4) Oxyntic Cells
Answer (3)
Answer (3)
S o l .  Sub metacentric chromosome is
Heterobrachial. S o l . Goblet cells secrete mucus and bicarbonates
present in the gastric juice which plays an
 Short arm designated as 'p' arm
important role in lubrication and protection of
(p = petite i.e. short) the mucosal epithelium from excoriation by
 Long arm designated as 'q' arm the highly concentrated HCl.

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NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

19. Which of the following statements is not Answer (3)

correct? S o l . Hypothalamus in the thermoregulatory centre
(1) Lysosomes are formed by the process of of our brain. It is responsible for maintaining
packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum constant body temperature.
(2) Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic 22. In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red flower
enzymes was crossed with a white flower and in F 1
generation pink flowers were obtained. When
(3) The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are
active under acidic pH pink flowers were selfed, the F2 generation
showed white, red and pink flowers. Choose
(4) Lysosomes are membrane bound
the incorrect statement from the following :
structures
(1) Law of Segregation does not apply in this
Answer (1) experiment
S o l . Lysosomes bud off from trans face of Golgi (2) This experiment does not follow the
bodies. Principle of Dominance.
Precursor of lysosomal enzymes are (3) Pink colour in F 1 is due to incomplete
synthesised by RER and then send to Golgi dominance.
bodies for further processing. 1 2 1
(4) Ratio of F 2 is (Red) : (Pink) :
20. Match the following organisms with the 4 4 4
products they produce (White)
(a) Lactobacillus (i) Cheese Answer (1)
(b) Saccharomyces (ii) Curd S o l . Genes for flower colour in snapdragon shows
cerevisiae incomplete dominance which is an exception
of Mendel's first principle i.e. Law of
(c) Aspergillus niger (iii) Citric Acid dominance.
(d) Acetobacter aceti (iv) Bread Whereas Law of segregation is universally
(v) Acetic Acid applicable.
Select the correct option. 23. Which of the following can be used as a
(a) (b) (c) (d) biocontrol agent in the treatment of plant
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (v) disease?

(2) (ii) (iv) (v) (iii) (1) Lactobacillus

(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (v) (2) Trichoderma
(4) (iii) (iv) (v) (i) (3) Chlorella
Answer (3) (4) Anabaena
S o l . Microbes are used in production of several Answer (2)
household and industrial products –
S o l . Fungus Trichoderma is a biological control
Lactobacillus – Production of curd
agent being developed for use in the
Saccharomyces cerevisiae – Bread making treatment of plant diseases.
Aspergillus niger – Citric acid production
24. Select the correct group of biocontrol
Acetobacter aceti – Acetic acid agents.
21. Which part of the brain is responsible for (1) Nostoc, Azospirillium, Nucleopolyhedrovirus
thermoregulation?
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis, Tobacco mosaic
(1) Medulla oblongata virus, Aphids
(2) Cerebrum (3) Trichoderma, Baculovirus, Bacillus
(3) Hypothalamus thuringiensis
(4) Corpus callosum (4) Oscillatoria, Rhizobium, Trichoderma

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 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

Answer (3) Answer (4)

S o l . Fungs Trichoderma, Baculoviruses (NPV) and S o l . Cardiac output = stroke volume × Heart rate
Bacillus thuringiensis are used as biocontrol
 Cardiac output = 5L or 5000 ml
agents.
 Blood volume in ventricles at the end of
Rhizobium, Nostoc, Azospirillum and
Oscillatoria are used as biofertilisers, diastole = 100 ml
whereas TMV is a pathogen and aphids are  Blood volume in ventricles at the end of
pests that harm crop plants. systole = 50 ml
25. The frequency of recombination between Stroke volume = 100 – 50
gene pairs on the same chromosome as a
measure of the distance between genes was = 50 ml.
explained by : So,
(1) Sutton Boveri 5000 ml = 50 ml × Heart rate
(2) T.H. Morgan
So, Heart rate = 100 beats per minute.
(3) Gregor J. Mendel
28. From evolutionary point of view, retention of
(4) Alfred Sturtevant the female gametophyte with developing
Answer (4) young embryo on the parent sporophyte for
S o l . Alfred Sturtevant explained chromosomal some time, is first observed in
mapping on the basis of recombination (1) Gymnosperms
frequency which is directly proportional to
distance between two genes on same (2) Liverworts
chromosome (3) Mosses
26. Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value of tripalmitin (4) Pteridophytes
is
Answer (4)
(1) 0.09 (2) 0.9
S o l . In Pteridophyte, megaspore is retained for
(3) 0.7 (4) 0.07 some times in female gametophyte, however
Answer (3) the permanent retention is required for seed
formation in Gymnosperms.
Amount of CO2 released
Sol. Respiratory Quotient  That's why Pteridophytes exhibit precursor to
RQ  Amount of O2 consumed seed habit only.
29. Which of the following ecological pyramids is
2(C51H98O6) + 145O2  102CO2 + 98H2O
generally inverted?
Tripalmitin + Energy (1) Pyramid of biomass in a sea

102 CO2 (2) Pyramid of numbers in grassland

RQ   0.7
145 O2 (3) Pyramid of energy
(4) Pyramid of biomass in a forest
27. What would be the heart rate of a person if
Answer (1)
the cardiac output is 5 L, blood volume in the
ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and S o l . In an aquatic ecosystem, the pyramid of
at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL? biomass is generally inverted.

(1) 125 beats per minute

TC = Large fishes
(2) 50 beats per minute SC = Small fishes
PC = Zooplanktons
(3) 75 beats per minute
PP = Phytoplanktons
(4) 100 beats per minute

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NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

30. Colostrum the yellowish fluid, secreted by (c) Pleurobrachia is Ctenophore. The body
mother during the initial days of lactation is bears eight external rows of ciliated comb
very essential to impart immunity to the new plates, which help in locomotion.
born infants because it contains (d) Taenia is a platyhelminth specialised cells
called flame cells helps in osmoregulation
(1) Immunoglobulin A
and excretion
(2) Natural killer cells 33. Use of an artificial kidney during hemodialysis
(3) Monocytes may result in :

(4) Macrophages (a) Nitrogenous waste build-up in the body

Answer (1) (b) Non-elimination of excess potassium ions

S o l . Colostrum, the yellowish fluid secreted by the (c) Reduced absorption of calcium ions from
gastro-intestinal tract
mother during initial days of lactation is very
essential to impart immunity to the new born (d) Reduced RBC production
infant because it contains Immunoglobulin A. Which of the following options is the most
It will impart naturally acquired passive appropriate?
immunity to the newborn (1) (a) and (d) are correct
31. Phloem in gymnosperms lacks : (2) (a) and (b) are correct
(1) Both sieve tubes and companion cells (3) (b) and (c) are correct
(2) Albuminous cells and sieve cells (4) (c) and (d) are correct
(3) Sieve tubes only Answer (4)
(4) Companion cells only S o l . (a) and (b) statements are incorrect because
Answer (1) dialysis eliminates urea and potassium from
the body whereas, c and d are correct. As
S o l . Phloem in Gymnosperms lacks both sieve phosphate ions are eliminated during dialysis,
tube and companion cells. along with that calcium ions are also
32. Match the following organisms with their eliminated. So, there will be reduced
respective characteristics : absorption of calcium ions from
gastrointestinal tract. RBC production will be
(a) Pila (i) Flame cells reduced, due to reduced erythropoietin
(b) Bombyx (ii) Comb plates hormone.
(c) Pleurobrachia (iii) Radula 34. Which of the following statements is
correct?
(d) Taenia (iv) Malpighian tubules
Select the correct option from the following : (1) Cornea consists of dense matrix of
collagen and is the most sensitive portion
(a) (b) (c) (d) the eye.
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (2) Cornea is an external, transparent and
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) protective proteinacious covering of the
eye-ball.
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (3) Cornea consists of dense connective
tissue of elastin and can repair itself.
Answer (3)
(4) Cornea is convex, transparent layer which
S o l . (a) Pila is a Mollusc. The mouth contains a file is highly vascularised.
- like rasping organ for feeding called
radula. Answer (1)

(b) Bombyx is an Arthropod. In Bombyx S o l . Cornea consists of dense matrix of collagen

excretion takes place through malpighan and corneal epithelium. It is the most
tubules. sensitive part of eye.

7

35. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) Human males have one of their sex-
chromosome much shorter than the other
(2) Male fruit fly is heterogametic
(3) In male grasshoppers 50% of sperms have
no sex-chromosome
(4) In domesticated fowls, sex of progeny
depends on the type of sperm rather than
egg
Answer (4)
S o l . In birds female heterogamety is found thus sex
of progeny depends on the types of egg rather
than the type of sperm.
eg.
 sperm = A + Z type (100%)
Birds
(fowls) A + Z (50%)
 eggs
A + W (50%)
36. The concept of “Omnis cellula-e cellula”
regarding cell division was first proposed by
(1) Aristotle
(2) Rudolf Virchow
(3) Theodore Schwann
(4) Schleiden
Answer (2)
S o l . Concept of “Omnis cellula-e cellula” regarding
cell division was proposed by Rudolf Virchow.
37. Which of the statements given below is not
true about formation of Annual Rings in trees?
(1) Annual rings are not prominent in trees of
temperate region.
(2) Annual ring is a combination of spring
wood and autumn wood produced in a
year
(3) Differential activity of cambium causes
light and dark bands of tissue early and
late wood respectively.
(4) Activity of cambium depends upon
variation in climate.
Answer (1)
S o l . Growth rings are formed by the seasonal
activity of cambium. In plants of temperate
regions, cambium is more active in spring and
less active in autumn seasons. In temperate
regions climatic conditions are not uniform
throughout the year. However in tropics
climatic conditions are uniform throughout
the year.
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NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)
38. Thiobacillus is a group of bacteria helpful in
carrying out
(1) Denitrification
(2) Nitrogen fixation
(3) Chemoautotrophic fixation
(4) Nitrification
Answer (1)
S o l . Thiobacillus denitrificans cause denitrification
i.e., conversion of oxides of nitrogen to free
N2.
39. Due to increasing air-borne allergens and
pollutants, many people in urban areas are
suffering from respiratory disorder causing
wheezing due to
(1) reduction in the secretion of surfactants
by pneumocytes.
(2) benign growth on mucous lining of nasal
cavity
(3) inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles
(4) proliferation of fibrous tissues and
damage of the alveolar walls
Answer (3)
S o l . Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing
wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and
bronchioles. It can be due to increasing air
born allergens and pollutants. Asthma is an
allergic condition. Many people in urban areas
are suffering from this respiratory disorder.
40. In some plants, the female gamete develops
into embryo without fertilization. This
phenomenon is known as
(1) Parthenogenesis
(2) Autogamy
(3) Parthenocarpy
(4) Syngamy
Answer (1)
S o l . The phenomenon in which female gamete
develops into embryo without getting fused
with male gamete (fertilisation) is called
parthenogenesis.
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)
41. Select the correct option.
(1) There are seven pairs of vertebrosternal,
three pairs of vertebrochondral and two
pairs of vertebral ribs.
(2) 8th , 9 th and 10 th pairs of ribs articulate
directly with the sternum.
(3) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are connected to
the sternum with the help of hyaline
cartilage.
(4) Each rib is a flat thin bone and all the ribs
are connected dorsally to the thoracic
vertebrae and ventrally to the sternum.
Answer (1)
Sol. • Vertebrosternal ribs are true ribs, dorsally
they are attached to the thoracic
vertebrae and ventrally connected to the
sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage.
First seven pairs of ribs are called true
ribs.
• 8 th , 9 th and 10 th pairs of ribs do not
articulate directly with the sternum but
join the seventh ribs with the help of
hyaline cartilage. These are
vertebrochondral or false ribs.
• Last 2 pairs (11 & 12) of ribs are not
connected ventrally and are therefore,
called floating ribs.
• Only first seven pairs of ribs are ventrally
connected to the sternum.
42. How does steroid hormone influence the
cellular activities?
(1) Using aquaporin channels as second
messenger
(2) Changing the permeability of the cell
membrane
(3) Binding to DNA and forming a gene-
hormone complex
(4) Activating cyclic AMP located on the cell
membrane
Answer (3)
S o l . Steroid hormones directly enter into the cell
and bind with intracellular receptors in
nucleus to form hormone receptor complex.
Hormone receptor complex interacts with the
genome
9
43. Select the correctly written scientific name of
Mango which was first described by Carolus
Linnaeus
(1) Mangifera Indica
(2) Mangifera indica Car. Linn.
(3) Mangifera indica Linn.
(4) Mangifera indica
Answer (3)
S o l . According to rules of binomial nomenclature,
correctly written scientific name of mango is
Mangifera indica Linn.
44. What map unit (Centimorgan) is adopted in the
construction of genetic maps?
(1) A unit of distance between genes on
chromosomes, representing 50% cross
over.
(2) A unit of distance between two expressed
genes representing 10% cross over.
(3) A unit of distance between two expressed
genes representing 100% cross over.
(4) A unit of distance between genes on
chromosomes, representing 1% cross
over.
Answer (4)
S o l . 1 map unit represent 1 % cross over.
Map unit is used to measure genetic distance.
This genetic distance is based on average
number of cross over frequency.
45. Cells in G0 phase :
(1) terminate the cell cycle
(2) exit the cell cycle
(3) enter the cell cycle
(4) suspend the cell cycle
Answer (2)
S o l . Cells in G0 phase are said to exit cell cycle.
These are at quiescent stage and do not
proliferate unless called upon to do so.
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

46. Which one of the following statements Answer (1)

regarding post-fertilization development in
flowering plants is incorrect? Sol.

(1) Ovules develop into embryo sac 5 3

m-RNA - A A C A G C G G U G C U A U U
(2) Ovary develops into fruit
(3) Zygote develops into embryo
Deletion
(4) Central cell develops into endosperm
Answer (1) 5 3
A A C A G C G C U A U U
S o l . Following are the post-fertilisation changes.
• Ovule  Seed No change in reading frame of m-RNA.
• Ovary  Fruit 50. Select the hormone-releasing Intra-Uterine
• Zygote  Embryo Devices.
• Central cell  Endosperm
(1) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375
47. Which of the following features of genetic
code does allow bacteria to produce human (2) Vaults, LNG-20
insulin by recombinant DNA technology?
(3) Multiload 375, Progestasert
(1) Genetic code is specific
(4) Progestasert, LNG-20
(2) Genetic code is not ambiguous
(3) Genetic code is redundant Answer (4)
(4) Genetic code is nearly universal S o l . Progestasert and LNG-20 are hormone
Answer (4) releasing IUDs which make the uterus
S o l . In recombinant DNA technology bacteria is unsuitable for implantation and the cervix
able to produce human insulin because hostile to sperms.
genetic code is nearly universal. 51. Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by
48. Which of the following glucose transporters is Hugo de Vries are
insulin-dependent?
(1) small and directionless
(1) GLUT IV (2) GLUT I
(3) GLUT II (4) GLUT III (2) random and directional

Answer (1) (3) random and directionless

S o l . GLUT-IV is insulin dependent and is
(4) small and directional
responsible for majority of glucose transport
into muscle and adipose cells in anabolic Answer (3)
conditions. Whereas GLUT-I is insulin
independent and is widely distributed in S o l . According to Hugo de Vries, mutations are
different tissues. random and directionless.

49. Under which of the following conditions will Devries believed mutation caused speciation
there be no change in the reading frame of and hence called saltation (single step large
following mRNA? mutation).
5AACAGCGGUGCUAUU3
52. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to :
(1) Deletion of GGU from 7 th , 8 th and 9 th
positions (1) Novel DNA sequences
(2) Insertion of G at 5th position (2) Genes expressed as RNA
(3) Deletion of G from 5th position
(3) Polypeptide expression
(4) Insertion of A and G at 4th and 5th positions
respectively (4) DNA polymorphism

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NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

Answer (2) Answer (4)

S o l . The correct match of hominids and their brain
S o l . Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) are DNA
sizes are :
sequences (genes) that are expressed as
Homo habilis — 650-800 cc
mRNA for protein synthesis. These are used in
Homo neanderthalensis — 1400 cc
human Genome Project.
Homo erectus — 900 cc
53. What triggers activation of protoxin to active
Homo sapiens — 1350 cc
Bt toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis in boll
55. Which of the following pairs of gases is mainly
worm?
responsible for green house effect?
(1) Acidic pH of stomach (1) Carbon dioxide and Methane

(2) Body temperature (2) Ozone and Ammonia

(3) Oxygen and Nitrogen
(3) Moist surface of midgut
(4) Nitrogen and Sulphur dioxide
(4) Alkaline pH of gut Answer (1)
Answer (4) S o l . Relative contribution of various greenhouse
gases to total global warming is
S o l . Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals
during a particular phase of their growth.  CO2 = 60%

These crystals contain a toxic insecticidal  CH4 = 20%

protein. These protein exist as inactive  CFC = 14%
protoxins but once an insect ingest the  N2O = 6%
inactive toxin, it is converted into an active
 Therefore CO 2 and CH 4 are the major
form of toxin due to alkaline pH of the gut greenhouse gases
which solubilize the crystals. The activated
56. Match Column - I with Column - II
toxin binds to the surface of midgut epithelial
Column - I Column - II
cells and create pores that cause cell
swelling and lysis and eventually cause death (a) Saprophyte (i) Symbiotic association
of fungi with plant
of insect.
roots
54. Match the hominids with their correct brain (b) Parasite (ii) Decomposition of
size : dead organic
(a) Homo habilis (i) 900 cc materials
(c) Lichens (iii) Living on living
(b) Homo neanderthalensis (ii) 1350 cc
plants or animals
(c) Homo erectus (iii) 650-800 cc (d) Mycorrhiza (iv) Symbiotic
association of algae
(d) Homo sapiens (iv) 1400 cc
and fungi
Select the correct option. Choose the correct answer from the option
(a) (b) (c) (d) given below
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

11
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

Answer (1) Answer (2)

S o l . Saprophytes - Decomposition of dead S o l . Extrusion of second polar body from egg

organic materials nucleus occurs after entry of sperm but
before fertilization.
Parasites - Grow on/in living plants and
animals The entry of sperm into the ovum induces
completion of the meiotic division of the
Lichens - Symbiotic association of
secondary oocyte.
algae and fungi
Entry of sperm causes breakdown of
Mycorrhiza - Symbiotic association of fungi
metaphase promoting factor (MPF) and turns
with plant roots
on anaphase promoting complex (APC).
57. Which of the following is true for Golden
60. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the
rice?
frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then
(1) It has yellow grains, because of a gene what will be the frequency of homozygous
introduced from a primitive variety of rice dominant, heterozygous and homozygous
(2) It is Vitamin A enriched, with a gene from recessive individuals in the population?
daffodil (1) 0.16(AA); 0.36(Aa); 0.48(aa)
(3) It is pest resistant, with a gene from
(2) 0.36(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.16(aa)
Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) 0.16(AA); 0.24(Aa); 0.36(aa)
(4) It is drought tolerant, developed using
Agrobacterium vector (4) 0.16(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.36(aa)
Answer (2) Answer (4)
S o l . Golden rice is vitamin A enriched rice, with a S o l . Frequency of dominant allele (say p) = 0.4
gene from daffodil and is rich in carotene.
Frequency of recessive allele (say q)
58. What is the genetic disorder in which an
= 1 – 0.4 = 0.6
individual has an overall masculine
development gynaecomastia, and is sterile ?  Frequency of homozygous dominant
individuals (AA)
(1) Down's syndrome
= p2 = (0.4)2 = 0.16
(2) Turner's syndrome
Frequency of heterozygous individuals (Aa)
(3) Klinefelter's syndrome
= 2pq = 2(0.4)(0.6) = 0.48
(4) Edward syndrome
Frequency of homozygous recessive
Answer (3) individuals (aa)
S o l . Individuals with Klinefelter’s syndrome have = q2 = (0.6)2 = 0.36
trisomy of sex chromosome as 44 + XXY (47).
61. What is the fate of the male gametes
They show overall masculine development,
discharged in the synergid?
gynaecomastia and are sterile.
(1) One fuses with the egg and other fuses
59. Extrusion of second polar body from egg
with central cell nuclei.
nucleus occurs :
(2) One fuses with egg other(s) degenerate
(1) simultaneously with first cleavage
(s) in the synergid.
(2) after entry of sperm but before fertilization
(3) All fuse with the egg.
(3) after fertilization
(4) One fuses with the egg, other(s) fuse(s)
(4) before entry of sperm into ovum with synergid nucleus.

12
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R 1)
Answer (1)
S o l . In flowering plants, out of the two male
gametes discharged in synergids, one fuses
with the egg and other fuses with the
secondary or definitive nucleus present in
central cell.
Egg (n) + 1st male gamete (n)  Zygote (2n)
Secondary nucleus  2nd male gamete (n) 

(2n)
(central cell nuclei)
PEN (3n)
62. In a species, the weight of newborn ranges
from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborn with an
average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive
whereas 99% of the infants born with weights
from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 to 5 kg die. Which type
of selection process is taking place?
(1) Cyclical Selection
(2) Directional Selection
(3) Stabilizing Selection
(4) Disruptive Selection
Answer (3)
S o l . The given data shows stabilising selection as
most of the newborn having average weight
between 3 to 3.3 kg survive and babies with
less and more weight have low survival rate.
63. Which of the following muscular disorders is
inherited?
(1) Botulism
(2) Tetany
(3) Muscular dystrophy
(4) Myasthenia gravis
Answer (3)
S o l . Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle
mostly due to genetic disorder is muscular
dystrophy where as tetany is muscular spasm
due to low calcium in body fluid. Myasthenia
gravis is an anto immume disorder leading to
paralysis of skeletal muscles. Botulism is rare
and dangerous type of food poisoning caused
by bacterium Clostridium Botulinum.
13
64. Which of the following protocols did aim for
reducing emission of chlorofluorocarbons into
the atmosphere?
(1) Geneva Protocol
(2) Montreal Protocol
(3) Kyoto Protocol
(4) Gothenburg Protocol
Answer (2)
S o l . To control the deleterious effect of the
stratospheric ozone depletion an
international treaty was signed at Montreal,
Canada in 1987. It is popularly known as
Montreal protocol.
65. Consider the following statement :
(A) Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly
bound to enzyme protein is called
prosthetic group.
(B) A complete catalytic active enzyme with
its bound prosthetic group is called
apoenzyme.
Select the correct option.
(1) (A) is false but (B) is true.
(2) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(3) (A) is true but (B) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (B) are false.
Answer (4)
S o l . “Coenzymes, metal ions and prosthetic groups
that is bound to enzyme protein is called co-
factor. Prosthetic groups are tightly bound to
enzyme where as metal ions and coenzymes
are not tightly bound to enzyme.”
66. Consider following features
(a) Organ system level of organisation
(b) Bilateral symmetry
(c) True coelomates with segmentation of
body
Select the correct option of animal groups
which possess all the above characteristics
(1) Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata
(2) Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata
(3) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca
(4) Arthropoda, Mollusca and Chordata
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

Answer (2) 69. Which of the following statements regarding

mitochondria is incorrect?
S o l . True segmentation is present in Annelida,
(1) Mitochondrial matrix contains single
Arthropoda and Chordata. They also have
circular DNA molecule and ribosomes.
organ system level of organisation, bilateral
symmetry and are true coelomates (2) Outer membrane is permeable to
monomers of carbohydrates, fats and
67. Pinus seed cannot germinate and establish proteins.
without fungal association. This is because :
(3) Enzymes of electron transport are
(1) its seeds contain inhibitors that prevent embedded in outer membrane.
germination. (4) Inner membrane is convoluted with
infoldings.
(2) its embryo is immature.
Answer (3)
(3) it has obligate association with
mycorrhizae. S o l . In mitochondria, enzymes for electron
transport are present in the inner membrane.
(4) it has very hard seed coat.
70. Drug called ‘Heroin’ is synthesized by
Answer (3) (1) nitration of morphine

S o l . Fungus associated with roots of Pinus (2) methylation of morphine

increases minerals & water absorption for (3) acetylation of morphine
the plant by increasing surface area and in (4) glycosylation of morphine
turn fungus gets food from plant. Therefore,
Answer (3)
mycorrhizal association is obligatory for Pinus
S o l . Heroin, commonly called smack and is
seed germination
chemically diacetylmorphine which is
68. Select the correct sequence of organs in the synthesized by acetylation of morphine.
alimentary canal of cockroach starting from 71. Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate,
mouth the first irreversible reaction of glycolysis, is
catalyzed by
(1) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Ileum  Crop (1) Phosphofructokinase
 Gizzard  Colon  Rectum
(2) Aldolase
(2) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Crop  Gizzard (3) Hexokinase
 Ileum  Colon  Rectum
(4) Enolase
(3) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Gizzard  Crop Answer (3)
 Ileum  Colon  Rectum
S o l . Hexokinase catalyse the conversion of
Glucose to Glucose-6 phosphate. It is the first
(4) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Gizzard 
step of activation phase of glycolysis.
Ileum  Crop  Colon  Rectum
72. DNA precipitation out of a mixture of
Answer (2) biomolecules can be achieved by treatment
with
S o l . The correct sequence of organs in the
alimentary canal of cockroach starting from (1) Chilled chloroform
mouth is : (2) Isopropanol

Pharynx  Oesophagus Crop  Gizzard  (3) Chilled ethanol

Ileum  Colon  Rectum (4) Methanol at room temperature

14
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

Answer (3) Answer (4)

S o l . During the isolation of desired gene, chilled S o l . Infective constituent in viruses is either DNA
ethanol is used for the precipitation of DNA. or RNA, not protein.

73. Which of the following is a commercial blood 76. Grass leaves curl inwards during very dry
cholesterol lowering agent? weather. Select the most appropriate reason
from the following
(1) Lipases
(1) Tyloses in vessels
(2) Cyclosporin A
(2) Closure of stomata
(3) Statin
(3) Flaccidity of bulliform cells
(4) Streptokinase
(4) Shrinkage of air spaces in spongy
Answer (3) mesophyll

Sol.  Statin is obtained from a yeast (Fungi) Answer (3)

called Monascus purpureus S o l . Bulliform cells become flaccid due to water
loss. This will make the leaves to curl inward
 It acts by competitively inhibiting the
to minimise water loss
enzyme responsible for synthesis of
cholesterol. 77. Xylem translocates

74. Which one of the following equipments is (1) Water, mineral salts, some organic
nitrogen and hormones
essentially required for growing microbes on
a large scale, for industrial production of (2) Water only
enzymes?
(3) Water and mineral salts only
(1) Bioreactor (4) Water, mineral salts and some organic
(2) BOD incubator nitrogen only

Answer (1)
(3) Sludge digester
S o l . Xylem is associated with tanslocation of
(4) Industrial oven
mainly water, mineral salts, some organic
Answer (1) nitrogen and hormones.

S o l . To produce enzyme in large quantity 78. Select the correct sequence for transport of
equipment required are bioreactors. Large sperm cells in male reproductive system.
scale production involves use of (1) Testis  Epididymis  Vasa efferentia 
bioreactors. Vas deferens  Ejaculatory duct 
Inguinal canal  Urethra  Urethral
75. Which of the following statements is
meatus
incorrect?
(2) Testis  Epididymis  Vasa efferentia 
(1) Prions consist of abnormally folded Rete testis  Inguinal canal  Urethra
proteins.
(3) Seminiferous tubules  Rete testis 
(2) Viroids lack a protein coat. Vasa efferentia  Epididymis  Vas
deferens  Ejaculatory duct  Urethra 
(3) Viruses are obligate parasites. Urethral meatus
(4) Infective constituent in viruses is the (4) Seminiferous tubules  Vasa efferentia 
protein coat. Epididymis  Inguinal canal  Urethra

15

Answer (3)
S o l . The correct sequence for transport of sperm
cells in male reproductive system is
Seminiferous tubules  Rete testis  Vasa
efferentia  Epididymis  Vas deferens 
Ejaculatory duct  Urethra  Urethral
meatus
79. Which of these following methods is the most
suitable for disposal of nuclear waste?
(1) Bury the waste within rocks deep below
the Earth's surface
(2) Shoot the waste into space
(3) Bury the waste under Antarctic ice-cover
(4) Dump the waste within rocks under deep
ocean
Answer (1)
S o l . Storage of nuclear waste should be done in
suitably shielded containers and buried within
rocks deep below the earth's surface (500 m
deep)
80. Which of the following immune responses is
responsible for rejection of kidney graft?
(1) Cell-mediated immune response
(2) Auto-immune response
(3) Humoral immune response
(4) Inflammatory immune response
Answer (1)
S o l . The body is able to differentiate self and
nonself and the cell-mediated response is
responsible for graft rejection.
81. What is the site of perception of photoperiod
necessary for induction of flowering in
plants?
(1) Leaves
(2) Lateral buds
(3) Pulvinus
(4) Shoot apex
Answer (1)
S o l . During flowering, photoperiodic stimulus is
perceived by leaves of plants.
16
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)
82. Identify the correct pair representing the
causative agent of typhoid fever and the
confirmatory test for typhoid.
(1) Salmonella typhi / Widal test
(2) Plasmodium vivax / UTI test
(3) Streptococcus pneumoniae / Widal test
(4) Salmonella typhi / Anthrone test
Answer (1)
S o l . Salmonella typhi is the causative agent.
Confirmatory test = Widal test, it’s based on
antigen antibody reaction.
83. Concanavalin A is
(1) a pigment
(2) an alkaloid
(3) an essential oil
(4) a lectin
Answer (4)
S o l . Concanavalin A is a secondary metabolite e.g
is lectin, it has the property to agglutinates
RBCs.
84. It takes very long time for pineapple plants to
produce flowers. Which combination of
hormones can be applied to artificially induce
flowering in pineapple plants throughout the
year to increase yield?
(1) Cytokinin and Abscisic acid
(2) Auxin and Ethylene
(3) Gibberellin and Cytokinin
(4) Gibberellin and Abscisic acid
Answer (2)
S o l . Plant hormone auxin induces flowering in
pineapple. Ethylene also helps in
synchronization of flowering and fruit set up
in pineapple.
85. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) Inbreeding helps in accumulation of
superior genes and elimination of
undesirable genes
(2) Inbreeding increases homozygosity
(3) Inbreeding is essential to evolve purelines
in any animal.
(4) Inbreeding selects harmful recessive
genes that reduce fertility and productivity
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)
Answer (4) 89. Which of the following factors is responsible
S o l . Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive genes for the formation of concentrated urine?
that are eliminated by selection. It also helps (1) Hydrostatic pressure during glomerular
in accumulation of superior genes and
filtration
elimination of less desirable genes. Therefore
this is selection at each step, increase the (2) Low levels of antidiuretic hormone
productivity of inbred population. Close and
(3) Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards
continued inbreeding usually reduces fertility
and even productivity. inner medullary interstitium in the kidneys.

86. Which of the following statements is (4) Secretion of erythropoietin by

incorrect? Juxtaglomerular complex
(1) Yeasts have filamentous bodies with long Answer (3)
thread-like hyphae. S o l . The proximity between loop of henle and vasa
(2) Morels and truffles are edible delicacies. recta as well as counter current in them help
(3) Claviceps is a source of many alkaloids in maintaining an increasing osmolalrity
and LSD. towards the inner medullary interstitium. This
mechanism help to maintain a concentration
(4) Conidia are produced exogenously and
gradient in medullary interstitium so human
ascospores endogenously.
urine is nearly four times concentrated than
Answer (1) initial filtrate formed.
S o l . Yeast is an unicellular sac fungus. It lacks 90. Match the Column-I with Column-II
filamentous structure or hyphae.
Column-I Column-II
87. Tidal Volume and Expiratory Reserve Volume
(a) P - wave (i) Depolarisation of
of an athlete is 500 mL and 1000 mL,
ventricles
respectively. What will be his Expiratory
Capacity if the Residual Volume is 1200 mL? (b) QRS complex (ii) Repolarisation of
ventricles
(1) 2700 mL (2) 1500 mL
(c) T - wave (iii) Coronary ischemia
(3) 1700 mL (4) 2200 mL
(d) Reduction in the (iv) Depolarisation of
Answer (2)
size of T-wave atria
S o l . Tidal Volume = 500 ml
(v) Repolarisation of
Expiratory Reserve Volume = 1000 ml atria
Expiratory Capacity = TV + ERV Select the correct option.
= 500 + 1000 (a) (b) (c) (d)

= 1500 ml (1) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv)

(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
88. Which one of the following is not a method of
in situ conservation of biodiversity? (3) (iv) (i) (ii) (v)

(1) Sacred Grove (4) (ii) (i) (v) (iii)

(2) Biosphere Reserve Answer (2)

S o l . In ECG P-wave represents depolarisation of
(3) Wildlife Sanctuary
atria. QRS complex represents depolarisation
(4) Botanical Garden of ventricles. T-wave represents
repolarisation of ventricle i.e. return from
Answer (4)
excited to normal state. Reduction in the size
S o l . Botanical garden - ex - situ conservation (off- of T-wave i.e. if the T-wave represents
site conservation) i.e. living plants (flora) are insufficient supply of oxygen i.e. coronary
conserved in human managed system. ischaemia.

17
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

91. When an object is shot from the bottom of a 4  2.5  102

long smooth inclined plane kept at an angle 60° Z0  m
103  1000  10
with horizontal, it can travel a distance x 1
Z0 = 1 cm
along the plane. But when the inclination is
decreased to 30° and the same object is shot 93. Two similar thin equi-convex lenses, of focal
with the same velocity, it can travel x2 distance. length f each, are kept coaxially in contact
Then x1 : x2 will be: with each other such that the focal length of
the combination is F 1 . When the space
(1) 1: 2 3 (2) 1: 2
between the two lenses is filled with
glycerine (which has the same refractive index
(3) 2:1 (4) 1: 3 ( = 1.5) as that of glass) then the equivalent
Answer ( 4 ) focal length is F2. The ratio F1 : F2 will be :

Sol. (1) 3 : 4 (2) 2 : 1

(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 3
Answer ( 3 )
u
60° Sol.

g sin60°

u
30°
g sin30°

u2
(Stopping distance) x1 
2gsin60

u2
(Stopping distance) x2 
2gsin30

x1 sin30 1 2
    1: 3
x2 sin60 2  3
1 1 1 2
92. A soap bubble, having radius of 1 mm, is blown Equivalent focal length in air   
F1 f f f
from a detergent solution having a surface When glycerin is filled inside, glycerin lens
tension of 2.5 × 10–2 N/m. The pressure inside behaves like a diverging lens of focal length (–f)
the bubble equals at a point Z 0 below the
1 1 1 1
free surface of water in a container. Taking   
F2 f f f
g = 10 m/s2, density of water = 103 kg/m3, the
value of Z0 is : 1

f
(1) 0.5 cm (2) 100 cm
F1 1
(3) 10 cm (4) 1 cm 
F2 2
Answer ( 4 )
94. -particle consists of :
4T (1) 2 protons only
S o l . Excess pressure = , Gauge pressure
R (2) 2 protons and 2 neutrons only
= gZ0
(3) 2 electrons, 2 protons and 2 neutrons
4T (4) 2 electrons and 4 protons only
P0   P0  gZ0
R Answer ( 2 )
4T S o l . -particle is nucleus of Helium which has two
Z0 
R  g protons and two neutrons.

18
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

95. Which of the following acts as a circuit   

VSG  VSR  VRG
protection device?

(1) Fuse (2) Conductor VRG
sin   
(3) Inductor (4) Switch VSR
Answer ( 1 )
10
S o l . Fuse wire has less melting point so when sin  
20
excess current flows, due to heat produced
1
in it, it melts. sin  
2
96. In total internal reflection when the angle of  = 30° west
incidence is equal to the critical angle for the
pair of media in contact, what will be angle of 98. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 20 F
refraction? is being charged by a voltage source whose
potential is changing at the rate of 3 V/s. The
(1) 90°
conduction current through the connecting
(2) 180° wires, and the displacement current through
(3) 0° the plates of the capacitor, would be,
respectively
(4) Equal to angle of incidence
(1) Zero, zero (2) Zero, 60 A
Answer ( 1 )
(3) 60 A, 60 A (4) 60 A, zero
Sol.
Answer ( 3 )

90° S o l . Capacitance of capacitor C = 20 F

= 20 × 10–6 F
iC
 dV 
Rate of change of potential    3 v/s
 dt 
At i = i c , refracted ray grazes with the
surface. q = CV
So angle of refraction is 90°.
dq dV
C
97. The speed of a swimmer in still water is dt dt
20 m/s. The speed of river water is 10 m/s and
is flowing due east. If he is standing on the ic = 20 × 10–6 × 3
south bank and wishes to cross the river along = 60 × 10–6 A
the shortest path the angle at which he should = 60 A
make his strokes w.r.t. north is given by :
As we know that id = ic = 60 A
(1) 45° west (2) 30° west
99. The total energy of an electron in an atom in
(3) 0° (4) 60° west
an orbit is –3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential
Answer ( 2 ) energies are, respectively:

S o l . VSR  20 m/s (1) 3.4 eV, 3.4 eV (2) –3.4 eV, –3.4 eV
VRG  10 m/s (3) –3.4 eV, –6.8 eV (4) 3.4 eV, –6.8 eV
N Answer ( 4 )
V RG
S o l . In Bohr's model of H atom
V SG U
W E  K.E.  TE 
V SR  2
 K.E. = 3.4 eV
S U = –6.8 eV
19
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

100. In an experiment, the percentage of error   qen

occurred in the measurement of physical By Gauss law,  Ein · dS  0
0
quantities A, B, C and D are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4%
 Ein = 0 (∵ qen  0)
respectively. Then the maximum percentage of
1 (ii) For r > R (outside)
A2B 2
error in the measurement X, where X  ,
1
C 3D3 +
+ +
will be r
+ +
 3  + +
(1) 10% (2)  % +
 13 
(3) 16% (4) – 10% E
Answer ( 3 ) 1
E0 
S o l . Given r2
1 Ein = 0
A2B 2 r
x 1
O R
C 3 D3   q
 E0 · dS  en0
x A 1 B
% error,  100  2  100  
x A 2 B Here, qen = Q (∵ qen  Q)
1 c D Q
100   100  3  100  E0 4 r 2 
3 c D 0
1 1 1
 2  1%   2%   3%  3  4%  E0 
2 3 r2
 2%  1%  1%  12% 102. Two parallel infinite line charges with linear
= 16% charge densities + C/m and – C/m are
placed at a distance of 2R in free space. What
101. A hollow metal sphere of radius R is uniformly
is the electric field mid-way between the two
charged. The electric field due to the sphere
line charges?
at a distance r from the centre

(1) Decreases as r increases for r < R and for (1) N/C (2) Zero
2 0R
r>R
2 
(2) Increases as r increases for r < R and for (3) N/C (4) N/C
 0R  0R
r>R
Answer ( 4 )
(3) Zero as r increases for r < R, decreases as
(2) (1)
r increases for r > R S o l . + + – –
–
(4) Zero as r increases for r < R, increases as +
+ E1 –
r increases for r > R –
+ E2 –
Answer ( 3 ) + R –
–
+ –
Sol. + Q
+ –
+ + + –
R
r
+ + –X X
C

+ +
+ Electric field due to line charge (1)
Charge Q will be distributed over the surface   ˆ
of hollow metal sphere. E1  i N/C
2  0R
(i) For r < R (inside) Electric field due to line charge (2)
20
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

  ˆ Resultant amplitude
E2  i N/C
2  0R R  A2  B2  2ABcos90
  
Enet  E1  E2
 A 2  B2
 ˆ  ˆ
= i i 105. In a double slit experiment, when light of
2  0R 2 0R wavelength 400 nm was used, the angular
width of the first minima formed on a screen

= î N / C placed 1 m away, was found to be 0.2°. What
 0R
will be the angular width of the first minima, if
the entire experimental apparatus is immersed
103. The unit of thermal conductivity is :
in water? (water = 4/3)
(1) W m–1 K–1 (2) J m K–1
(1) 0.1° (2) 0.266°
(3) J m–1 K–1 (4) W m K–1
(3) 0.15° (4) 0.05°
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . The heat current related to difference of

temperature across the length l of a S o l . In air angular fringe width 0 
D
conductor of area A is
Angular fringe width in water
dH KA
 T (K = coefficient of thermal  
w   0
dt  D 
conductivity) 0.2
 = 0.15°
4
 dH 3
 K  
A dt T
106. A body weighs 200 N on the surface of the
Unit of K = Wm–1 K–1 earth. How much will it weigh half way down
to the centre of the earth ?
104. The displacement of a particle executing
simple harmonic motion is given by (1) 100 N (2) 150 N

y = A0 + Asint + Bcost (3) 200 N (4) 250 N

Then the amplitude of its oscillation is given Answer ( 1 )

by : Sol. g

(1) A + B R d

(2) A0  A2  B2 g
C
(3) A 2  B2

(4) A20  (A  B)2

Acceleration due to gravity at a depth d from
Answer ( 3 ) surface of earth

Sol. B  d
A 2 B 2 g  g  1   ...(1)
 R
Where g = acceleration due to gravity at
earth's surface
A
Multiplying by mass 'm' on both sides of (1)
y = A0 + Asint + Bsint  d  R
mg  mg  1   d  
Equate SHM  R  2
 R  200
y = y – A0 = Asint + Bcost  200  1    2  100 N
 2R
21
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

107. A particle moving with velocity V is acted by 2
A 
three forces shown by the vector triangle PQR. TA
The velocity of the particle will :
2
P B 
TB

 A TB T
  1
B TA T

R Q 109. A 800 turn coil of effective area 0.05 m2 is kept

perpendicular to a magnetic field 5 × 10–5 T. When
(1) Change according to the smallest force
 the plane of the coil is rotated by 90° around
QR any of its coplanar axis in 0.1 s, the emf
(2) Increase induced in the coil will be:

(3) Decrease (1) 0.02 V

(4) Remain constant (2) 2 V

Answer ( 4 ) (3) 0.2 V

(4) 2 × 10–3 V
Sol. P
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Magnetic field B = 5 × 10–5 T
Number of turns in coil N = 800
Area of coil A = 0.05 m2
R Q
Time taken to rotate t = 0.1 s
As forces are forming closed loop in same
order Initial angle 1 = 0°
 Final angle 2 = 90°
So, Fnet  0
 Change in magnetic flux 
dv
 m 0 = NBAcos90° – BAcos0°
dt
 = – NBA
 v  cons tant
= – 800 × 5 × 10–5 × 0.05
108. Two particles A and B are moving in uniform = – 2 × 10–3 weber
circular motion in concentric circles of radii rA
and rB with speed vA and vB respectively. Their  ()2  103 Wb
e–   0.02 V
time period of rotation is the same. The ratio of t 0.1 s
angular speed of A to that of B will be :
110. A block of mass 10 kg is in contact against the
(1) 1 : 1 (2) rA : rB inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of
(3) vA : vB (4) rB : rA radius 1 m. The coefficient of friction between
Answer ( 1 ) the block and the inner wall of the cylinder is
0.1. The minimum angular velocity needed for
the cylinder to keep the block stationary when
Sol. rB
the cylinder is vertical and rotating about its
axis, will be : (g  10 m/s2 )
rA
(1) 10rad/s (2) 10 rad/s
10
(3) rad/s (4) 10 rad/s
2
TA = TB = T Answer ( 4 )

22
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

Sol. S o l . Increase in temperature would lead to the

increase in kinetic energy of gas (assuming
fL F
N mr
2 far as to be ideal) as U  nRT
2
mg
113. A cylindrical conductor of radius R is carrying
a constant current. The plot of the magnitude
For equilibrium of the block limiting friction of the magnetic field. B with the distance d
fL  mg from the centre of the conductor, is correctly
represented by the figure :
 N  mg
 mr2  mg B B
(1) (2)
g
 R d R d
r
B B
g
min  (3) (4)
r
R d R d
10
min  = 10 rad/s Answer ( 4 )
0.1 1

111. When a block of mass M is suspended by a long Sol.

wire of length L, the length of the wire
becomes (L + l). The elastic potential energy d
stored in the extended wire is :
1
(1) MgL (2) Mgl
2
1 B
(3) MgL (4) Mgl
2
Answer ( 4 )
Sol. O R d
Inside (d < R)
L Magnetic field inside conductor

0 i
B d
l 2  R2

or B = Kd ...(i)
Mg Straight line passing through origin
1
U  (work done by gravity) At surface (d = R)
2
1 0 i
U  Mgl B ...(ii)
2 2 R
112. Increase in temperature of a gas filled in a
container would lead to : Maximum at surface

(1) Decrease in intermolecular distance Outside (d > R)

(2) Increase in its mass 0 i

B
(3) Increase in its kinetic energy 2 d

(4) Decrease in its pressure 1

or B  (Hyperbolic)
Answer ( 3 ) d

23
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

114. Body A of mass 4m moving with speed u (3) Holes are the majority carriers and
collides with another body B of mass 2m, at trivalent atoms are the dopants.
rest. The collision is head on and elastic in (4) Holes are the majority carriers and
nature. After the collision the fraction of pentavalent atoms are the dopants.
energy lost by the colliding body A is :
Answer ( 3 )
5 1
(1) (2) S o l . In p-type semiconductor, an intrinsic
9 9
8 4 semiconductor is doped with trivalent
(3) (4) impurities, that creates deficiencies of
9 9
valence electrons called holes which are
Answer ( 3 )
majority charge carriers.
S o l . Fractional loss of KE of ccolliding body
118. The radius of circle, the period of revolution,
KE 4  m1m2  initial position and sense of revolution are
 indicated in the fig.
KE  m  m 2
1 2 y
P(t = 0)
4  4m  2m

 4m  2m 2 T=4s

x
32m2 8 3m
 
36m2 9

115. Which colour of the light has the longest y - projection of the radius vector of rotating
wavelength? particle P is :
(1) Violet (2) Red  t 
(1) y(t)  3cos   , where y in m
(3) Blue (4) Green 2
Answer ( 2 ) (2) y(t) = –3 cos2t, where y in m

S o l . Red has the longest wavelength among the  t 

(3) y(t)  4 sin   , where y in m
given options. 2
116. A copper rod of 88 cm and an aluminium rod of  3t 
unknown length have their increase (4) y(t)  3cos   , where y in m
 2 
in length independent of increase in
temperature. The length of aluminium rod is : Answer ( 1 )
(Cu = 1.7 × 10–5 K–1 and Al = 2.2 × 10–5 K–1) S o l . At t = 0, y displacement is maximum, so
(1) 68 cm (2) 6.8 cm equation will be cosine function.

(3) 113.9 cm (4) 88 cm y

Pt=0
Answer ( 1 )
T=4s
S o l . CuLCu   AlL Al
x
1.7 × 10–5 × 88 cm = 2.2 × 10–5 × LAl
1.7  88
LAl   68 cm
2.2
T=4s
117. For a p-type semiconductor, which of the
following statements is true ? 2 2 
   rad/s
(1) Electrons are the majority carriers and T 4 2
pentavalent atoms are the dopants. y = a cost

(2) Electrons are the majority carriers and 

y  3cos t
trivalent atoms are the dopants. 2

24
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

119. A force F = 20 + 10 y acts on a particle in y- Answer ( 1 )

direction where F is in newton and y in meter. S o l . In one complete vibration, displacement is
Work done by this force to move the particle zero. So, average velocity in one complete
from y = 0 to y = 1 m is vibration
(1) 20 J (2) 30 J
Displacement y f  yi
(3) 5 J (4) 25 J   0
Time interval T
Answer ( 4 ) 122. Pick the wrong answer in the context with
S o l . Work done by variable force is rainbow.
(1) Rainbow is a combined effect of dispersion
yf
refraction and reflection of sunlight
W  Fdy (2) When the light rays undergo two internal
yi
reflections in a water drop, a secondary
Here, yi = 0, yf = 1 m rainbow is formed

1
(3) The order of colours is reversed in the
1
 10y2  secondary rainbow
 W   (20  10y)dy  20y   = 25 J
0
 2 0 (4) An observer can see a rainbow when his
front is towards the sun
120. A mass m is attached to a thin wire and Answer ( 4 )
whirled in a vertical circle. The wire is most
S o l . Rainbow can't be observed when observer
likely to break when:
faces towards sun.
(1) inclined at an angle of 60° from vertical
123. An electron is accelerated through a potential
(2) the mass is at the highest point dif ference of 10,000 V. Its de Broglie
(3) the wire is horizontal wavelength is, (nearly) : (me = 9 × 10–31 kg)
(4) the mass is at the lowest point (1) 12.2 nm (2) 12.2 × 10–13 m
Answer ( 4 ) (3) 12.2 × 10–12 m (4) 12.2 × 10–14 m
Sol. Answer ( 3 )
S o l . For an electron accelerated through a
potential V
T
12.27 12.27  1010
 Å  12.27  1012 m
u V 10000
mg 124. A disc of radius 2 m and mass 100 kg rolls on
mu2 a horizontal floor. Its centre of mass has speed
T  mg 
l of 20 cm/s. How much work is needed to stop
mu2 it?
T  mg 
l (1) 1 J (2) 3 J
The tension is maximum at the lowest (3) 30 kJ (4) 2 J
position of mass, so the chance of breaking is
maximum. Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Work required = change in kinetic energy
121. Average velocity of a particle executing SHM in
one complete vibration is : Final KE = 0

1 1 3
A Initial KE = mv2  I2  mv2
(1) Zero (2) 2 2 4
2
3
  100  (20  102 )2  3 J
A2 4
(3) A (4)
2 |KE| = 3 J

25
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)
+6 V 127. Two point charges A and B, having charges +Q
125. 0 R and –Q respectively, are placed at certain
A 1 distance apart and force acting between them
LED (Y)
is F. If 25% charge of A is transferred to B, then
R force between the charges becomes :
0
4F
B 1 (1)
3
The correct Boolean operation represented by (2) F
the circuit diagram drawn is :
(1) NOR (2) AND 9F
(3)
16
(3) OR (4) NAND
Answer ( 4 ) 16F
(4)
9
S o l . From the given logic circuit LED will glow,
when voltage across LED is high. Answer ( 3 )
+6 V
A B
R S o l . +Q –Q
r
A
kQ 2
F
r2
If 25% of charge of A transferred to B then
B
Q 3Q Q 3Q
Truth Table qA  Q   and q B  Q  
4 4 4 4
A B Y qA qB
0 0 1 r
0 1 1
1 0 1
kqA qB
F1 
1 1 0 r2

This is out put of NAND gate. 2

 3Q 
k 
126. Ionized hydrogen atoms and -particles with F1   42 
same momenta enters perpendicular to a r
constant magnetic field, B. The ratio of their
radii of their paths rH : r will be : 9 kQ
F1 
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 2 : 1 16 r 2
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 4 : 1
9F
Answer ( 2 ) F1 
16
p
S o l . rH  128. In which of the following devices, the eddy
eB
current effect is not used?
p
r  (1) Electric heater
2eB
(2) Induction furnace
p
rH (3) Magnetic braking in train
 eB
r p (4) Electromagnet
2eB Answer ( 1 )
rH 2 S o l . Electric heater does not involve Eddy

r 1 currents. It uses Joule's heating effect.

26
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

129. At a point A on the earth’s surface the angle S o l . (i) All bulbs are glowing
of dip,  = +25°. At a point B on the earth’s R R
surface the angle of dip,  = –25°. We can
interpret that: R R

(1) A and B are both located in the southern R R

hemisphere.
(2) A and B are both located in the northern
E
hemisphere.
R R 2R
(3) A is located in the southern hemisphere Req   
3 3 3
and B is located in the northern
hemisphere. E2 3E2
i 
Power (P)  ...(1)
(4) A is located in the northern hemisphere Req 2R
and B is located in the southern (ii) Two from section A and one from section
hemisphere. B are glowing.
Answer ( 4 ) R
R
S o l . Angle of dip is the angle between earth's
resultant magnetic field from horizontal. Dip R
is zero at equator and positive in northern
hemisphere.
BH E
BV B
 = (+) ve R 3R
Req  R 
2 2
 = (–) ve 2E2
B Power (Pf )  ...(2)
BH 3R
BV
Pi 3E 2 3R
In southern hemisphere dip angle is   9:4
Pf 2R 2E 2
considered as negative.
131. A small hole of area of cross-section 2 mm2 is
130. Six similar bulbs are connected as shown in
present near the bottom of a fully filled open
the figure with a DC source of emf E and zero
tank of height 2 m. Taking g = 10 m/s2, the rate
internal resistance.
of flow of water through the open hole would
The ratio of power consumption by the bulbs be nearly
when (i) all are glowing and (ii) in the situation
(1) 6.4 × 10–6 m3/s (2) 12.6 × 10–6 m3/s
when two from section A and one from section
B are glowing, will be : (3) 8.9 × 10–6 m3/s (4) 2.23 × 10–6 m3/s
Answer ( 2 )
A B
Sol.

2m

a = 2 mm2

E Rate of flow liquid

(1) 2 : 1 Q  au  a 2gh
(2) 4 : 9
 2  106 m2  2  10  2 m/s
(3) 9 : 4
= 2 × 2 × 3.14 × 10–6 m3/s
(4) 1 : 2
= 12.56 × 10–6 m3/s
Answer ( 3 )
= 12.6 × 10–6 m3/s

27
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

132. In the circuits shown below, the readings of Sol.

voltmeters and the ammeters will be
M R
10  i1 h=R

Initial potential energy at earths surface is

V1 A1
GMm
Ui 
R
Final potential energy at height h = R
10 V
Circuit 1 GMm
Uf 
2R
10  i2
As work done = Change in PE
10   W = Uf – Ui
V2 A2
GMm gR2m mgR
   (∵ GM = gR2)
2R 2R 2

134. In which of the following processes, heat is

10 V neither absorbed nor released by a system?
Circuit 2
(1) Isochoric (2) Isothermal
(1) V2 > V1 and i1 > i2 (2) V2 > V1 and i1 = i2
(3) Adiabatic (4) Isobaric
(3) V1 = V2 and i1 > i2 (4) V1 = V2 and i1 = i2 Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 4 ) S o l . In adiabatic process, there is no exchange of
heat.
S o l . For ideal voltmeter, resistance is infinite and
for the ideal ammeter, resistance is zero. 135. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 4 cm
is rotating about its axis at the rate of 3 rpm.
10 The torque required to stop after 2
V1  i1  10   10  10 volt revolutions is
10
(1) 2 × 106 N m (2) 2 × 10–6 N m
10 (3) 2 × 10–3 N m (4) 12 × 10–4 N m
V2  i2  10   10  10 volt
10
Answer ( 2 )
V1 = V2 S o l . Work energy theorem.

10 V 1 2
i1  i2  1 A W I(f  i2 )  = 2 revolution
10  2
= 2 × 2 = 42 rad
133. The work done to raise a mass m from the 2
surface of the earth to a height h, which is Wi  3  rad / s
60
equal to the radius of the earth, is: 1 1 2 2
 –    mr (0  i2 )
2 2
3
(1) mgR (2) mgR
2 2
1 1  2 
  2  (4  10 2 )  3  
– 2 2  60 
1 2
(3) 2mgR (4) mgR 4
2

Answer ( 4 )    2  106 N m

28
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

136. Which one is malachite from the following? S o l . K4[Fe(CN)6]

(1) CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 Fe ground state: [Ar]3d64s2
(2) CuFeS2 Fe2+: 3d64s0

(3) Cu(OH)2 eg
(4) Fe3O4
Answer ( 1 )
In
Energy
S o l . Malachite : CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 (Green colour) Spherical t2g
2+ field
137. Enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate transfer Fe
require an alkaline earth metal (M) as the t 62g e0g In the presence of
–
cofactor. M is : 6CN strong field
140. The number of sigma () and pi () bonds in
(1) Sr
pent-2-en-4-yne is
(2) Be
(1) 13 bonds and no  bonds
(3) Mg
(2) 10 bonds and 3 bonds
(4) Ca (3) 8 bonds and 5 bonds
Answer ( 3 ) (4) 11 bonds and 2 bonds
S o l . All enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate Answer ( 2 )
transfer require magnesium(Mg) as the
H H
co-factor. 
  
 C – C 
S o l . H – C – C = C – H

138. For an ideal solution, the correct option is :  
H H
(1) mix G = 0 at constant T and P
Number of  bonds = 10
(2) mix S = 0 at constant T and P
and number of  bonds = 3
(3) mix V  0 at constant T and P 141. A compound is formed by cation C and
(4) mix H = 0 at constant T and P anion A. The anions form hexagonal close
packed (hcp) lattice and the cations occupy
Answer ( 4 )
75% of octahedral voids. The formula of the
S o l . For ideal solution, compound is :
mixH = 0 (1) C4A3

mixS > 0 (2) C2A3

mixG < 0 (3) C3A2

mixV = 0 (4) C3A4

139. What is the correct electronic configuration Answer ( 4 )

of the central atom in K4[Fe(CN)6] based on Sol. • Anions(A) are in hcp, so number of anions
crystal field theory? (A) = 6

(1) e 4 t 22 Cations(C) are in 75% O.V., so number of

cations (C)
4
(2) t 2g e2g 3
= 6×
4
6 0
(3) t 2g e g
18
=
4
(4) e3 t 32
9
Answer ( 3 ) =
2

29
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

• So formula of compound will be 145. The manganate and permanganate ions are
tetrahedral, due to :
C 9 A6  C9 A12
2 (1) The -bonding involves overlap of
d-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of
C9A12  C3A4
manganese
142. The number of moles of hydrogen molecules
(2) The -bonding involves overlap of
required to produce 20 moles of ammonia
p-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of
through Haber's process is :
manganese
(1) 40
(3) There is no -bonding
(2) 10
(4) The -bonding involves overlap of
(3) 20 p-orbitals of oxygen with p-orbitals of
manganese
(4) 30
Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 4 )
O
S o l . Haber's process
S o l . • Manganate (MnO42–) : Mn O
N2 (g)  3H2 (g)  2NH3 (g) –
O –
O
20 moles need to be produced
 -bonds are of d–p type
2 moles of NH3  3 moles of H2
O
3  20
Hence 20 moles of NH3   30 moles of H2
2 • Permanganate (MnO4–) : Mn O
O –
143. Which of the following is incorrect statement? O
(1) SnF4 is ionic in nature  -bonds are of d–p type

(2) PbF4 is covalent in nature 146. pH of a saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is 9. The

solubility product (Ksp) of Ca(OH)2 is:
(3) SiCl4 is easily hydrolysed
(1) 0.5 × 10–10
(4) GeX4 (X = F, Cl, Br, I) is more stable than
GeX2 (2) 0.5 × 10–15

Answer ( 2 ) (3) 0.25 × 10–10

S o l . PbF4 and SnF4 are ionic in nature. (4) 0.125 × 10–15

144. Which of the following is an amphoteric Answer ( 2 )

hydroxide?
 2 
S o l . Ca(OH)2  Ca  2OH
(1) Be(OH)2

(2) Sr(OH)2 pH = 9 Hence pOH = 14 – 9 = 5

(3) Ca(OH)2 [OH–] = 10–5 M

(4) Mg(OH)2 105

Hence [Ca2+] =
Answer ( 1 ) 2

S o l . Be(OH)2 amphoteric in nature, since it can Thus Ksp = [Ca2+][OH–]2

react both with acid and base
 105  5 2
Be(OH)2 + 2HCl  BeCl2 + 2H2O =   (10 )
 2 
Be(OH)2 + 2NaOH  Na2 [Be(OH)4] = 0.5 × 10–15

30
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

147. The mixture that forms maximum boiling 149. Which of the following reactions are
azeotrope is: disproportionation reaction?
(1) Heptane + Octane (a) 2Cu 
 Cu2   Cu0
(2) Water + Nitric acid
(b) 3MnO24  4H 
 2MnO4  MnO2  2H2 O
(3) Ethanol + Water

(c) 2KMnO 4   K2MnO 4  MnO2  O2
(4) Acetone + Carbon disulphide
Answer ( 2 ) (d) 2MnO4  3Mn2   2H2 O 
 5MnO2  4H
S o l . Solutions showing negative deviation from Select the correct option from the following
Raoult's law form maximum boiling azeotrope
(1) (a) and (d) only (2) (a) and (b) only
Water and Nitric acid  forms maximum
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a), (c) and (d)
boiling azeotrope
Answer ( 2 )
148. Match the Xenon compounds in Column-I
with its structure in Column-II and assign the 1

correct code: S o l . (a) 2Cu1 



Column-I Column-II 2 0
Cu2(  )  Cu0 } Disproportionation
(a) XeF4 (i) Pyramidal
6
) ()
(b) XeF6 (ii) Square planar (b) 3MnO2(
4  4H 

(c) XeOF4 (iii) Distorted octahedral 7 4
2MnO4  MnO2  2H2 O} Disproportionation
(d) XeO3 (iv) Square pyramidal
7 6

Code: (c) 2KMnO42   K2MnO4 
(a) (b) (c) (d) 4 0
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) MnO2  O2 }  Not a disproportionation
7 2
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(d) 2MnO 4  3Mn2(  )  2H2 O 

(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
4
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) 5MnO2  4H }
ii
Answer ( 3 ) 150. Conjugate base for Br onsted acids H2O and
HF are :
F F
S o l . (a) XeF4 : Xe  Square planar (1) H3O+ and H2F+, respectively
F F (2) OH– and H2F+, respectively

F (3) H3O+ and F–, respectively

F F (4) OH– and F–, respectively

(b) XeF6 : Xe  Distorted Answer ( 4 )
octahedral
F F –
OH Conjugate base
F S o l . H2O
+
H3O Conjugate acid
F F
(c) XeOF4 : Xe  Square HF on loss of H + ion becomes F – is the
F F pyramidal conjugate base of HF
O
Example :
– +
Xe O HF + H2O F + H3O
(d) XeO3 : Pyramidal
O Acid Base Conjugate Conjugate
O base acid

31
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

151. Among the following, the reaction that 152. An alkene "A" on reaction with O3 and Zn–H2O
proceeds through an electrophilic gives propanone and ethanal in equimolar
substitution, is: ratio. Addition of HCl to alkene "A" gives "B"
as the major product. The structure of
product "B" is:
heat
(1) CH 2OH + HCl
CH3

CH 2Cl + H 2O (1) H3C–CH–CH

Cl CH3

+ –
Cu 2Cl2 CH3
(2) N 2CI CI + N 2
(2) Cl–CH2–CH2–CH

CH3
AlCl 3
(3) + Cl2 CI + HCl
CH2Cl

(3) H3 C–CH2 –CH–CH3

CI CI

CH3
UV light
(4) + Cl2 CI CI (4) H3C–CH2–C–CH3

Cl
CI CI
Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 3 )
Sol.
Cl

AlCl 3
Sol. + Cl2 + HCl

Generation of electrophile:

.. + –
Cl Cl
.. + AlCl3 Cl Cl AlCl3
..

.. + –
Cl
.. + AlCl4
..

Electrophile
153. A gas at 350 K and 15 bar has molar volume
20 percent smaller than that for an ideal gas
Cl H under the same conditions. The correct
option about the gas and its compressibility
+
Cl+ factor (Z) is :
(i) etc
(1) Z < 1 and repulsive forces are dominant

(2) Z > 1 and attractive forces are dominant

Cl Cl
H (3) Z > 1 and repulsive forces are dominant
+
(ii) (4) Z < 1 and attractive forces are dominant

Answer ( 4 )

32
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

Vreal 157. Which of the following species is not stable?

Sol. • Compressibility factor(Z) =
Videal (1) [SiCl6]2–

∵ Vreal < Videal; Hence Z < 1 (2) [SiF6]2–

• If Z < 1, attractive forces are dominant (3) [GeCl6]2–

among gaseous molecules and
(4) [Sn(OH)6]2–
liquefaction of gas will be easy.
Answer ( 1 )
154. Among the following, the one that is not a
green house gas is S o l . • Due to presence of d-orbital in Si, Ge and
(1) Sulphur dioxide (2) Nitrous oxide Sn they form species like SiF62–, [GeCl6]2–,
[Sn(OH)6]2–
(3) Methane (4) Ozone
Answer ( 1 ) • SiCl 62– does not exist because six large
chloride ions cannot be accommodated
S o l . Fact
around Si4+ due to limitation of its size.
SO2 (g) is not a greenhouse gas.
158. For a cell involving one electron E°cell = 0.59 V
155. In which case change in entropy is negative? at 298 K, the equilibrium constant for the cell
(1) 2H(g)  H2(g) reaction is :

(2) Evaporation of water  2.303 RT 

Given that  0.059 V at T = 298 K 
(3) Expansion of a gas at constant F 
temperature
(1) 1.0 × 1030
(4) Sublimation of solid to gas
(2) 1.0 × 102
Answer ( 1 )
(3) 1.0 × 105
Sol. •  H2 O  v  , S  0
H2 O     (4) 1.0 × 1010

• Expansion of gas at constant Answer ( 4 )

temperature, S > 0
0.059
S o l . Ecell = E°cell – log Q ...(i)
• Sublimation of solid to gas, S > 0 n

• 2H(g) 
 H2(g), S < 0 (∵ ng < 0) (At equilibrium, Q = Keq and Ecell = 0)

156. Under isothermal condition, a gas at 300 K 0.059

expands from 0.1 L to 0.25 L against a 0 = E°cell – log Keq (from equation (i))
1
constant external pressure of 2 bar. The work
done by the gas is E°cell 0.59
log Keq = = = 10
(Given that 1 L bar = 100 J) 0.059 0.059

(1) 30 J (2) –30 J Keq = 1010 = 1 × 1010

(3) 5 kJ (4) 25 J 159. The method used to remove temporary
Answer ( 2 ) hardness of water is :
S o l .  Wirr = – Pext V (1) Synthetic resins method
= – 2 bar × (0.25 – 0.1) L
(2) Calgon's method
= – 2 × 0.15 L-bar
(3) Clark's method
= – 0.30 L-bar
= – 0.30 × 100 J (4) Ion-exchange method

= – 30 J Answer ( 3 )

33
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

S o l . Clark's method is used to remove temporary 161. The most suitable reagent for the following
hardness of water, in which bicarbonates of conversion, is :
calcium and magnesium are reacted with
H3 C CH3
slaked lime Ca(OH)2
H 3C C C CH3
Ca(HCO3)2 + Ca(OH)2  2CaCO3 + 2H2O H H
cis-2-butene
Mg(HCO3)2 + 2Ca(OH)2  2CaCO3  + Mg(OH)2 
(1) Hg2+/H+, H2O
+ 2H2O
(2) Na/liquid NH3
160. Which will make basic buffer?
(3) H2, Pd/C, quinoline
(1) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 100 mL of 0.1 M
NaOH (4) Zn/HCl
(2) 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 25 mL of 0.1 M Answer ( 3 )
CH3COOH
H3C CH3
(3) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 100 mL of 0.1 M H2, Pd/C,
S o l . H3C C C CH3 C C
NaOH quinoline
H H
(4) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 200 mL of 0.1 M cis-2-butene
NH4OH 162. The compound that is most difficult to
Answer ( 4 ) protonate is :
Sol. O
(1) HCl  NaOH  NaCl  H2O (1) Ph H

Before 100 mL 100 mL O

0
× 0.1 M × 0.1 M (2) H H
 10 mmol  10 mmol
O
After 0 0 10 mmol
(3) H3C H
 Neutral solution
O
(2) CH3COOH  NaOH  CH3COONa  H2O (4) H3C CH3
Before 25 mL 50 mL
0 Answer ( 1 )
× 0.1 M × 0.1M
= 2.5 mmol = 5 mmol S o l . Due to involvement of lone pair of electrons in
After 0 2.5 mmol 2.5 mmol resonance in phenol, it will have positive
charge (partial), hence incoming proton will
This is basic solution due to NaOH.
not be able to attack easily.
This is not basic buffer.
163. Which is the correct thermal stability order
(3) CH3COOH  NaOH  CH3COONa  H2O for H2E (E = O, S, Se, Te and Po)?
Before 100 mL 100 mL
0 (1) H2Se < H2Te < H2Po < H2O < H2S
× 0.1 M × 0.1 M
 10 mmol  10mmol (2) H2S < H2O < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po
After 0 0 10 mmol
(3) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po
Hydrolysis of salt takes place. (4) H2Po < H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O
This is not basic buffer.
Answer ( 4 )
(4) HCl  NH4OH  NH4Cl  H2O
S o l . On going down the group thermal stability
Before 100 mL 200 mL
0 order for H2E decreases because H–E bond
× 0.1 M × 0.1 M
energy decreases
 10 mmol  20 mmol
After 0 10 mmol 10 mmol  Order of stability would be:-

This is basic buffer. H2Po < H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O

34
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

164. The correct structure of tribromooctaoxide is 166. Match the following :

–
O O O O O O (a) Pure nitrogen (i) Chlorine
(1) O = Br – Br – Br – O – (2) O = Br – Br – Br = O
O – O O O
(b) Haber process (ii) Sulphuric acid
O O
O O O O O O
– (c) Contact process (iii) Ammonia
– –
(3) O = Br – Br – Br – O (4) O – Br – Br – Br = O (d) Deacon’s process (iv) Sodium azide or
– – –
O O
– O O O O
Barium azide
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . The correct structure is Which of the following is the correct option?

O O O (a) (b) (c) (d)

O = Br – Br – Br = O (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
O O O
Tribromooctaoxide
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
165. The major product of the following reaction (3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
is:
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
COOH
strong heating Answer ( 1 )
+ NH3
COOH S o l . (a) Pure nitrogen : Sodium azide or
Barium azide
NH2 COOH
(b) Haber process : Ammonia
(1) (2)
NH2 (c) Contact process : Sulphuric acid
CONH 2
(d) Deacon’s process : Chlorine
O
COOH 167. For the chemical reaction
(3) NH (4)
 2NH3 (g)
N2 (g)  3H2 (g) 
NH2
O
The correct option is:
Answer ( 3 )
d[H2 ] d[NH3 ]
COOH
–
COO NH4
+ (1) 3 2
dt dt
Sol. + NH3
– +
COOH COO NH4 1 d[H2 ] 1 d[NH3 ]
(2)  
3 dt 2 dt
– 2H2O 
d[N2 ] d[NH3 ]
CONH 2 (3)  2
dt dt

d[N2 ] 1 d[NH3 ]
CONH 2 (4)  
dt 2 dt
– NH3 Strong heating
Answer ( 4 )
O
 2NH3
S o l . N2  3H2 
C
NH Rate of reaction is given as
C
d[N2 ] 1 d[H2 ] 1 d[NH3 ]
O   
Phthalimide dt 3 dt 2 dt

35
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

168. The structure of intermediate A in the S o l . In aqueous solution, electron donating

following reaction, is inductive effect, solvation effect (H-bonding)
CH3 and steric hindrance all together affect basic
CH OH
CH3 O strength of substituted amines
+
O2 H
A + H3C CH3 Basic character :
H2 O

CH3 (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N

CH2 – O – O – H
CH
HC O– CH3
2° 1° 3°
CH3
172. Which mixture of the solutions will lead to the
(1) (2) formation of negatively charged colloidal
CH3 CH3
[Agl]l– sol ?
H3C – C – O – O – H O – O – CH (1) 50 mL of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 0.1 M KI
CH3 (2) 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI
(3) (4)
(3) 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 2 M KI
Answer ( 3 )
CH3 (4) 50 mL of 2 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI
CH3
CH H3C – C – O – O – H Answer ( 3 )
CH3
+
O2 H
Sol. S o l . Generally charge present on the colloid is due
H 2O
to adsorption of common ion from dispersion
Cumene (A) medium. Millimole of KI is maximum in
Cumene
hydroperoxide option (2) (50 × 2 = 100) so act as solvent and
anion I– is adsorbed by the colloid AgI formed
OH
O
+ H3C – C –CH3

169. The non-essential amino acid among the

following is:
173. Identify the incorrect statement related to
(1) Lysine (2) Valine
PCl5 from the following:
(3) Leucine (4) Alanine
(1) PCl5 molecule is non-reactive
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Alanine (2) Three equatorial P–Cl bonds make an
170. Which of the following diatomic molecular angle of 120° with each other
species has only  bonds according to (3) Two axial P–Cl bonds make an angle of
Molecular Orbital Theory? 180° with each other
(1) Be2 (2) O2
(4) Axial P–Cl bonds are longer than
(3) N2 (4) C2 equatorial P–Cl bonds
Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . MO configuration C2 is:
2 2 Axial bond
1s2, *1s2, 2s2, *2s2, 2p x  2p y Cl
240 pm
Cl 90°
171. The correct order of the basic strength of
methyl substituted amines in aqueous solution Sol. 120° P Cl Equatorial bond
Cl 202 pm
is :
Cl
(1) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N
(1) False
(2) (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N
(3) (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH Due to longer and hence weaker axial
(4) (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 bonds, PCl5 is a reactive molecule.

Answer ( 2 ) (2) True

36
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-R1)

Cl S o l . ‘Be’ and ‘N’ have comparatively more stable

valence sub-shell than ‘B’ and ‘O’.
(3) True P 180°  Correct order of first ionisation enthalpy
is:
Cl
Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
(4) True
177. 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in the
Axial bond : 240 pm order of decreasing energy. The correct
Equatorial bond : 202 pm option is
174. Among the following, the narrow spectrum (1) 5f > 6p > 4d > 5p (2) 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d
antibiotic is : (3) 6p > 5f > 5p > 4d (4) 6p > 5f > 4d > 5p
(1) Chloramphenicol Answer ( 2 )
(2) Penicillin G S o l . (n + l) values for, 4d = 4 + 2 = 6
(3) Ampicillin 5p = 5 + 1 = 6
(4) Amoxycillin 5f = 5 + 3 = 8
Answer ( 2 ) 6p = 6 + 1 = 7
S o l . Penicillin G  Correct order of energy would be
175. If the rate constant for a first order reaction 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d
is k, the time (t) required for the completion
178. For the cell reaction
of 99% of the reaction is given by:
(1) t = 2.303/k (2) t = 0.693/k 2Fe3 (aq)  2I (aq)  2Fe2 (aq)  I2 (aq)

(3) t = 6.909/k (4) t = 4.606/k EΘ

cell  0.24 V at 298 K. The standard Gibbs
Answer ( 4 ) energy (r GΘ ) of the cell reaction is :
S o l . First order rate constant is given as, [Given that Faraday constant F = 96500 C mol–1]
2.303 [A ] (1) 23.16 kJ mol–1 (2) – 46.32 kJ mol–1
k log 0
t [A]t (3) – 23.16 kJ mol–1 (4) 46.32 kJ mol–1
99% completed reaction, Answer ( 2 )

2.303 100 S o l . GΘ =  nF Ecell

Θ
k log
t 1 = – 2 × 96500 × 0.24 J mol–1
2.303 = – 46320 J mol–1
 log102
t = – 46.32 kJ mol–1
2.303 179. Which of the following series of transitions in
k  2log10
t the spectrum of hydrogen atom fall in visible
2.303 4.606 region?
t 2 
k k (1) Brackett series (2) Lyman series
4.606 (3) Balmer series (4) Paschen series
t
k Answer ( 3 )
176. For the second period elements the correct S o l . In H-spectrum, Balmer series transitions fall
increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy is: in visible region.
(1) Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne 180. The biodegradable polymer is:
(2) Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne (1) Buna-S (2) Nylon-6,6
(3) Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne (3) Nylon-2-Nylon 6 (4) Nylon-6
(4) Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 3 ) S o l . Nylon-2-Nylon 6

‰‰‰
37