NEET 2020 Exam Paper

Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

1. 5.
Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of
organisms which have evolved due to changes in inheritance was done by:
environment brought about by anthropogenic action?
(1) Sutton
(a) Darwin's Finches of Galapagos islands
(2) Boveri
(b) Herbicide resistant weeds
(3) Morgan
(c) Drug resistant eukaryotes
(4) Mendel
(d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals like
dogs 6.

(1) (a) and (c) Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae?

(2) (b), (c) and (d) 1. Gelidium and Gracilaria

2. Anabaena and Volvox

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(3) only (d)
3. Chlorella and Spirulina
(4) only (a)
2.
Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed:
LIV
4. Laminaria and Sargassum
7.
AV
(1) At the time of copulation Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine and
caffeine are produced by plants for their:
(2) After zygote formation
1. Growth response
AN

(3) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum

2. Defence action
(4) Prior to ovulation
3. Effect on reproduction
PR

3.
4. Nutritive value
Which of the following is correct about viroids?
8.
(1) They have free RNA without protein coat
By which method was a new breed 'Hisardale' of sheep
(2) They have DNA with protein coat found by using Bikaneri ewes and Marina rams?
(3) They have free DNA without protein coat 1. Mutational breeding
(4) They have RNA with protein coat 2. cross breeding
4. 3. Inbreeding
The plant parts which consists of two generations one 4. Out crossing
within the other:
9.
(a) Pollen grains inside the anther
The infectious stage of plasmodium that enters the
(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes human body is:
(c) Seed inside the fruit 1. Sporozoites
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule 2. female gametocytes
(1) (a), (b) and (c) 3. Male gametocytes
(2) (c) and (d) 4. Trophozoites
(3) (a) and (d)
(4) (a) only

Page: 1
 NEET 2020 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
10. 14.
The process responsible for facilitating loss of water in Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is
liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night and early found in :
morning is:
1. Ducts of salivary glands
1. Root pressure
2. Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
2. Imbibition
3. Eustachian tube
3. Plasmolysis
4. Lining of intestine
4. Transpiration
15.
11.
The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at :
From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino acids
by mixing the following in a closed flask : 1. Micropyle
2. Nucellus

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1. CH 3,  H2 ,   NH4   and   water   vapour   at  800°C

3. Chalaza
2. CH
3. CH
4. CH
4,

4,
 H2 ,   NH3   and   water   vapour   at  600°C

,  H2 ,   NH3   and   water   vapour   at  600°C

 H2 ,   NH3   and   water   vapour   at  800°C

LIV
4. Hilum
16.
AV
In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of
12. electrons from :
In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net primary 1. Cytb6f complex to PS-I
AN

productivity of an ecosystem, which one of the following

statements is correct? 2. PS-I to NADP+
1. Gross primary productivity is always more than Net 3. PS-I to ATP synthase
PR

primary productivity.
4. PS-II to Cytb6f complex
2. Gross primary productivity and Net primary
productivity are one and same. 17.
3. There is no relationship between Gross primary Match the following diseases with the causative organism
productivity and Net primary productivity. and select the correct option.
4. Gross primary productivity is always less than net
Column -I Column- II
primary productivity.
(a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria
13.
(b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium
The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked
DNA in the vector, is termed : (c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella
1. Ori site (d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus
2. Palindromic sequence
3. Recognition site
(a) (b) (c)
4. Selectable marker
(1) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (i) (iii) (ii)

Page: 2
 NEET 2020 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
18. 21.
Match the following microorganism with product Which of the following is not an inhibitory substance
governing seed dormancy?
Column -I Column- II
1. Abscisic acid
(a) Clostridium 2. Phenolic acid
(i) Cyclosporin A
butylicum
3. Para-ascorbic acid
(b) Trichoderma
(ii) Butyric acid 4. Gibberellic acid
polysporunt
22.
(c) Monascus
(iii) Citric acid Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix
purpureus
during transcription.
(iv) Blood 1. DNA helicase
(d) Aspergillus niger cholesterol lowering

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agent 2. DNA polymerase

LIV3. RNA polymerase

4. DNA ligase
23.
AV
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Match the following:
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
AN

(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)Inhibitor of catalytic

(a) (i) Ricin
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) activity
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
PR

(b) Possess peptide bonds (ii) Malonate

19.
Which of the following statements are true for the Cell wall material in
phylum-Chordata? (c) (iii) Chitin
fungi
1. In Urochordata notochord extends from head to tail
and it is present throughout their life (d) Secondary metabolite (iv) Collagen
2. In Vertebrata notochord is present during the
embryonic period only Choose the correct option from the following:

3. Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow

(a) (b) (c) (d)
4. Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla : Hemichordata,
Tunicata and Cephalochordata (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
1. (c) and (a)
2. (a) and (b) (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

3. (b) and (c)

(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
4. (d) and (c)
20. (4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from:

1. Columnar epithelial cells
2. Chondrocytes
3. Compound epithelial cells
4. Squamous epithelial cells Page: 3
 NEET 2020 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
24. 29.
Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter the
exemplified by : vegetative inactive stage. This is called the quiescent
stage (G ). This process occurs at the end of:
1. Platyhelminthes
0

1. G1  phase
2. Aschelminthes
2. S phase
3. Annelida
3. G2  phase
4. Ctenophora
25. 4. M phase

Presence of which of the following conditions in urine 30.

are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus: Identify the correct statement with regard to G1 phase
1. Uremia and Renal Calculi (Gap 1) of interphase.

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2. Ketonuria and Glycosuria 1. The reorganisation of all cell components takes place.

3. Renal Calculi and Hyperglycaemia

4. Uremia and Ketonuria
26.
LIV 2. The cell is metabolically active, grow but does not
replicate its DNA
3. Nuclear Division takes place
AV
4. DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
Ray florets have:
31.
1. Superior ovary
AN

The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents:

2. Hypogynous ovary
1. Depolarisation of auricles
3. Half inferior ovary
2. Depolarisation of ventricles
PR

4. Inferior ovary
3. Reploarisation of ventricles
27.
4. Repolarisation of auricles
Identify the substances having a glycosidic bond and
peptide bond, respectively in their structure: 32.

1. Glycerol, trypsin If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34
nm and the total number of base pairs of a DNA double
2. Cellulose, lecithin helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6. 6 × 10 bp, then
9

the length of the DNA is approximate:

3. Inulin, insulin
1. 2.5 meters
4. Chitin, cholesterol
2. 2.2 meters
28.
3. 2.7 meters
Which of the following statements is not correct?
4. 2.0 meters
1. The proinsulin has an extra peptide called C-peptide
33.
2. The functional insulin has A and B chains linked
together by hydrogen bonds. Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits
highest species diversity ?
3. Genetically engineered insulin is produced in E-Coli.
(1) Madagascar
4. In man, insulin is synthesized as proinsulin.
(2) Himalayas
(3) Amazon forests
(4) Western Ghats of India

Page: 4
 NEET 2020 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
34. 39.
Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge In-gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be
digester for further sewage treatment? visualized with the help of:
(1) Floating debris 1. Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
(2) Effluents of primary treatmet 2. Acetocarmine in UV radiation
(3) Activated sludge 3. Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
(4) Primary sludge 4. Acetocarmine in bright blue light
35. 40.
Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during In Which of the following techniques, the embryos are
: transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?
(1) Zygote 1. GIFT and ZIFT

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(2) Diplotene 2. ICSI and ZIFT
(3) Leptotene
(4) Pachytene
36.
LIV 3. GIFT and ICSI
4. ZIFT and IUT
41.
AV
Select the option including all sexually transmitted Select the correct match
diseases.
1. Phenylketonuria - Autosomal dominant trait
AN

1. Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes

2. Sickle cell anemia - Autosomal recessive trait
2. AIDS, Malaria, Filaria chromosome - 11
PR

3. Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis 3. Thalassemia - X linked

4. Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes 4. Haemophilia - Y linked
37. 42.
Select the correct statement. Which of the following is not an attribute of a
population?
1. Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.
1. Natality
2. Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes.
2. Mortality
3. Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
3. Species interaction
4. Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
4. Sex ratio
38.
43.
The product(s) of the reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase in
root nodules of leguminous plants is/are. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in
photorespiration leads to the formation of:
1. Nitrate alone
1. 1 molecule of the 3-C compound
2. Ammonia and oxygen
2. 1 molecule of the 6-C compound
3. Ammonia and hydrogen
3. 1 molecule of a 4-C compound and 1 molecule of the
4. Ammonia alone 2-C compound
4. 2 molecules of the 3-C compound

Page: 5
 NEET 2020 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
44. 48.
Match the following concerning essential elements and The ovary is half inferior in:
their functions in plants :
(1) Mustard
(a) Iron (i) Photolysis of water
(2) Sunflower
(b) Zinc (ii) Pollen germination
(3) Plum
(c) Boron (iii) Required for chlorophyll biosynthesis
(4) Brinjal
(d) Manganese (iv) IAA biosynthesis
49.
Select the correct option:
Match the following columns and select the correct
(a) (b) (c) (d) option.
1. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) Column-I Column-II
2. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (a) Floating Ribs (i) Located between

E
second and seventh ribs
3. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
4. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
45.
LIV (b) Acromion
Humerus
(c) Scapula
(ii) Head of the

(iii) Clavicle
AV
Which is the important site of formation glycoproteins (d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect
and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells with the sternum
(1) Peroxisomes (a) (b) (c) (d)
AN

(2) Golgi bodies (1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(3) Polysomes (2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
PR

(4) Endoplasmic reticulum (3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

46. (4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Select the correct events that occur during inspiration. 50.
(a) Contraction of diaphragm If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for few
(b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles days because:

(c) Pulmonary volume decreases (1) The cockroach does not have nervous system

(d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases (2) The head holds a small proportion of a nervous
system while the rest is situated along the ventral part of
(1) (c) and (d) its body
(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) The head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system while the
(3) only (d) rest is situated along the dorsal part of its body
(4) (a) and (b) (4) The supra-oesophageal ganglia of the cockroach are
situated in ventral part of abdomen.
47.
The roots that originate from the base of the stem are:
(1) Primary roots
(2) Prop roots
(3) Lateral roots
(4) Fibrous roots

Page: 6
 NEET 2020 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
51. 56.
Identify the incorrect statement. Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport
of oxygen.
1. Sapwood is involved in conduction of water and
minerals from root to leafs. 1. Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with O2 binding
2. Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem and is with haemoglobin.
lighter in colour
2. Higher H+ conc. in alveoli favours with formation of
3. Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc., heart oxyhaemoglobin.
wood is dark in colour.
3. Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation of
4. Heart wood does not conduct water but gives oxyhaemoglobin.
mechanical support.
4. Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly related
52. to partial pressure of O2.
Bt cotton variety that was developed by the introduction 57.

E
of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis (BT) is resistant to
Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene 'I'
1. Fungal diseases
2. Plant nematodes
3. Insect predators
LIV that controls ABO blood groups.
1. A person will have only two of the 3 alleles.
AV
2. When IA and IB are present together, they express
4. Insect pests same type of sugar.
53. 3. Allele 'i' does not produce any sugar.
AN

The number of substrate level of phosphorylations in one 4. The gene (I) has three alleles.
turn of citric acid cycle is
58.
1. One
PR

Identify the basic amino acid from the following.

2. Two
1. Glutamic Acid
3. Three
2. Lysine
4. Four
3. Valine
54.
4. Tyrosine
Identify the wrong statement with regards to restriction
enzyme 59.

1. They cut the strength at palindromic sites. Name the plant growth regulator which upon spraying on
sugarcane crop, increases the length of stem, thus
2. They are useful in genetic engineering. increasing the yield of sugarcane crop.
3. Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligases. 1. Gibberellin
4. Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the 2. Ethylene
length of a DNA sequence.
3. Abscisic acid
55.
4. Cytokinin
Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of:
1. Convergent evolution
2. Industrial melanism
3. Natural selection
4. Adaptive radiation

Page: 7
 NEET 2020 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
60. 63.
Match the organism with its use in biotechnology. Which of the following would help in prevention of
diuresis?
(a) Bacillus thuringiensis (i) Cloning vector
(b) Thermus aquaticus (ii) Construction of 1. Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubules to
first rDNA molecule aldosterone

(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (iii) DNA polymerase 2. Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction

(d) Salmonella typhimurium (iv) Cry proteins 3. Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells

Select the correct option from the following: 4. More water reabsorption due to under secretion of
ADH
(a) (b) (c) (d)
64.
1. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Choose the correct pair from the following :
2. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

E
Break the DNA
3. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) 1. Polymerases -
into fragments
4. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
61.
LIV 2. Nucleases -
Separate the two
strands of DNA
Make cuts at
AV
Which of the following statements is correct? specific
3. Exonucleases -
positions within
1. Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-bond DNA
AN

2. Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds Join the two
4. Ligases -
DNA molecules
3. Adenine does not pair with thymine
4. Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds
PR

62. 65.

Match the following diseases with the causative organism Identify the correct statement with reference to human
and select the correct option. digestive system
1. Serosa is the innermost layer of the alimentary canal.
Column -I Column- II
2. Ileum is a highly coiled part
Gregarious, polyphagous 3. Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum
Asterias
pest
4. Ileum opens into small intestine
Adult with radial
66.
symmetry and larva with Scorpion
bilateral symmetry Embryological support for evolution was disapproved by:

Book lungs Ctenoplana 1. Alfred Wallace

2. Charles Darwin
Bioluminescence Locusta
3. Oparin
4. Karl Ernst von Baer
(a) (b) (c) 67. (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) Which(iii)
of the following hormone levels will cause release
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) of ovum
(iv)(ovulation) from the graffian follicle?
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) 1. High
(iv)concentration of Progesterone
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) 2. Low
(iv)
concentration of LH
3. Low concentration of FSH
Page: 8
 NEET 2020 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
68. 73.
The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized Snow-blindness in Antarctic regions is due to:
by EcoRI is :
1. Inflammation of cornea due to high doses of UV-B
1. 5' -GGAACC-3' radiation
3'-CCTTGG-5' 2. High reflection of light from snow
2. 5'-CTTAAG-3' 3. Damage to the retina caused by infra-red rays
3'-GAATTC-5' 4. Freezing of fluids in the eye by low temperature
3. 5'-GGATCC-3' 74.
3'-CCTAGG-5' The enzyme enterokinase helps in the conversion of
4. 5'-GAATTC-3' 1. trypsinogen into trypsin
3'-CTTAAG-5' 2. caseinogen into casein

E
69. 3. pepsinogen into pepsin
The first phase of translation is:
1. Recognition of DNA molecule
LIV 4. protein into polypeptides
75.
AV
2. Aminoacylation of tRNA Match the following with respect to meiosis:
3. Recognition of an anti-codon a. Zygotene i. Terminalization
AN

4. Binding of mRNA to ribosome b. Pachytene ii. Chiasmata

70. c. Diplotene iii. Crossing over
Floridian starch has structure similiar to : d. Diakinesis iv. Synapsis
PR

1. Amylopectin and glycogen Select the correct option from the following:
2. Mannitol and algin (a) (b) (c) (d)
3. Laminarin and cellulose 1. iv iii ii i
4. Starch and cellulose 2. i ii iv iii
71. 3. ii iv iii i
Strobili or cones are found in: 4. iii iv i ii
1. Pteris 76.
2. Marchantia Which of the following statement about inclusion bodies
incorrect ?
3. Equisetum
(1) These are involved in ingestion of food particles.
4. Salvinia
(2) They lie free in the cytoplasm.
72.
(3) These represent reserve material in cytoplasm.
How many true-breeding pea plant varieties did Mendel
select as pairs, which were similar except in one (4) They are not bound by any memberane.
character with contrasting traits?
1. 2
2. 14
3. 6
4. 4
Page: 9
 NEET 2020 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
77. 80.
Match the following columns and select the correct Match the follwing columns and select the correct option
option . .
Column-I Column-II Column-l Column-ll
(1) Eosinophils (i) lmmune response (a) Placenta (i) Androgens
(2) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis (b) Zona pellucida (ii) Human
chroinic Gonadotropin
(3) Neutrophils (iii)
Release histaminase, destructive enzymes (c) Bulbo-urethral glands (iii) Layer of the ovum
(4) Lymphocytes (iv) Release (d) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the Penis
granules containing histamine
a b c d
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

E
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
78.
LIV (3) (ii)
(4) (iv)
81.
(iii)
(iii)
(iv) (i)
(i) (ii)
AV
The transverse section of a plant shows following
anatomical features : In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place
by:
(a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles
AN

surrounded by bundle sheath. 1. Water currents only

(b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue. 2. Wind and water

PR

(c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed. 3. Insects and water

(d) Phloem parenchyma absent. 4. Insects or wind

ldentify the category of plant and its part : 82.

(1) Monocotyledonous root According to Robert May, the global species diversity is
about:
(2) Dicotyledonous stem
1. 20 Million
(3) Dicotyledonous root
2. 50 Million
(4) Monocotyledonous stem
3. 7 Million
79.
4. 1.5 Million
Match the follwing columns and select the correct option.
(a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave's disease
(b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus
(c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus
(d) Pancreas (iv) Addison's diseae
a b c d
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Page: 10
 NEET 2020 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
83. 86.
Match the following columns and select the correct Match the following columns and select the correct
option. option
Column - I Column - II Column - I Column - II
a. 6 - 15 pairs of gill slits (i) Trygono (a) The organ of Corti (i) Connects the middle ear and
pharynx
b. Heterocercal caudal fin (ii) Cyclostomes
(b) Cochlea (ii) Coiled part of the labyrinth
c. Air Bladder (iii) Chondrichthyes
(c) Eustachian tube (iii) Attached to the oval window
d. Poison sting (iv) Osteichthyes
(d) Stapes (iv)Located on the
(a) (b) (c) (d) basilar membrane
1. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (a) (b) (c) (d)
2. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

E
1. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
3. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
4. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
84.
LIV
2. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
3. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
4. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
AV
The process of growth is maximum during: 87.
1. Lag phase Which one of the following is the most abundant protein
in the animals?
AN

2. Senescence
3. Dormancy (1) Collagen

4. Log phase (2) Lectin

PR

85. (3) Insulin

Match the following columns and select the correct (4) Hemoglobin
option. 88.
Column - I Column - II Identify the wrong statement with a reference to
a. Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy immunity.

b. Adenosine (ii) Cellular defence (1) When ready-made antibodies are directly given, it is
deaminase called “Passive immunity".
deficiency (2) Active immunity is quick and gives a full response.
c. RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV infection (3) Foetus receives some antibodies from the mother, it is
d. PCR (iv) Bacillus thuringiensis an example of passive immunity

(a) (b) (c) (d) (4) When exposed to antigen(living or dead) antibodies
are produced in the host's body. It is called "Active
1. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) immunity
2. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) 89.
3. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Montreal Protocol was signed if 1987 for control of:
4. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (1) Emission of ozone-depleting substances
(2) Release of Green House Gases
(3) Disposal of e-waste
(4) Transport of Genetically modified organisms from
one country to another
Page: 11
 NEET 2020 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
90. 94.
Match the trophic levels with their correct species Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following reaction
examples in the green land ecosystem
Sucrose + H2O ⇌ Glucose + Fructose
1. Fourth trophic level (i) Cow
If the equilibrium constant (Kc) is 2×1013 at 300 K, the
2. Second trophic level (ii) Vulture
value of Δ G at the same temperature will be:
r
⊝

3. First trophic level (iii) Rabbit

(1) 8.314 J mol-1 K-1×300 K×ln (2×1013)
4. Third trophic level (iv) Grass
Select the correct option: (2) 8.314 J mol-1 K-1×300 K×ln (3×1013)

(a) (b) (c) (d) (3) -8.314 J mol-1 K-1×300 K×ln (4×1013)

1. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (4) -8.314 J mol-1 K-1×300 K×ln (2×1013)
2. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 95.

E
3. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) For the reaction, 2Cl(g) → Cl2(g), the correct option is:
4. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
91.
LIV 1. Δ
2. Δ
rH

rH
> 0 and  Δr S < 0

< 0 and  Δr S > 0

AV
The mixture which shows positive deviation from 3. Δ rH < 0 and  Δr S < 0
Raoult's law is:
4. Δ rH > 0 and  Δr S > 0
(1) Benzene + Toluene
AN

96.
(2) Acetone + Chloroform
Paper chromatography is an example of
(3) Chloroethane + Bromoethane
1. Partition chromatography
PR

(4) Ethanol + Acetone

2. Thin layer chromatography
92.
3. Column chromatography
Which of the following is not correct about carbon
monoxide? 4. Adsorption chromatography
(1) It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood 97.
(2) The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin bound to The rate constant for a first order reaction is
CO) is less stable than oxyhaemoglobin 4. 606 × 10  s . The time required to reduce 2.0 g of
−3 −1

the reactant to 0.2 g is:

(3) It is produced due to incomplete combustion
1. 200 s
(4) It forms carboxyhaemoglobin
2. 500 s
93.
3. 1000 s
The number of Faraday's (F) required to produce 20 g of
calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass of Ca=40 g 4. 100 s
mol-1) is: 98.
(1) 2 Which of the following state of sulphur has −O − O−

linkage?
(2) 3
1. H SO4 ,   sulphuric   acid
(3) 4 2

2. H 2 S2 O 8 ,   peroxodisulphuric   acid
(4) 1
3. H 2
S2 O7 ,   pyrosulphuric   acid

4. H 2 SO3 ,   sulphurous   acid

Page: 12
 NEET 2020 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
99. 104.
Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone in Match the following and identify the correct option
presence of dilute NaOH is known as
(a) CO(g)+H2(g) (i)
1. Cannizzaro's reaction Mg(HCO3)2+Ca(HCO3)2
2. Cross Cannizzaro's reaction
(b) Temporary hardness of water (ii) An electron
3. Cross aldol condensation deficient hydride
4. Aldol condensation (c) B2H6 (iii) Synthesis gas
100. (d) H2O2 (iv) Non-planar
An element has a body-centered cubic (bcc) structure structure
with a cell edge of 288 pm. The atomic radius is: (a) (b) (c) (d)
√2
1. × 288 pm 1. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

E
4

2.
4
pm 2. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

3.
√3

√2
× 288

× 288 pm
LIV 3. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
4. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
AV
4.
√3
× 288 pm 105.
4

101. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form pent-2-

ene is :
AN

Which of the following is a cationic detergent?

(a) β-Elimination reaction
1. Sodium stearate
(b) Follows Zaitsev rule
2. Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
PR

(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction

3. Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
(d) Dehydration reaction
4. Sodium lauryl sulphate
1. (a), (c), (d)
102.
2. (b), (c), (d)
The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr2+ ion is 3. (a), (b), (d)
:
4. (a), (b), (c)
1. 4.90 BM
106.
2. 5.92 BM
Which of the following is the correct order of increasing
3. 2.84 BM field strength of ligands to form coordination
4. 3.87 BM compounds?

103. 1. SCN −
< F
−
< CN
−
< C2 O
2−

HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2, MgCl2 and 2. F −

< SCN
−
< C2 O
2−

4
< CN
−

NaCl which of the following compound(s) crystallise(s)?

3. CN −
< C2 O
2−

4
< SCN
−
< F
−

1. Only NaCl
4. SCN −
< F
−
< C2 O
2−
< CN
−

2. Only MgCl2
4

3. Nacl, MgCl2 and CaCl2

4. Both MgCl2 and CaCl2

Page: 13
 NEET 2020 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
107. 112.
Identify the correct statement from the following : Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining which
property of colloidal solution?
1. Blister copper has blistered appearance due to
evolution of CO 2 1. Solubility
2. Vapour phase refining is carried out for Nickel by Van 2. Stability of the colloidal particles
Arkel method
3. Size of the colloidal particles
3. Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of shapes
4. Viscosity
4. Wrought iron is impure iron with 4% carbon
113.
108.
The freezing point of depression constant (K ) off

Sucrose on hydrolysis gives: benzene is 5.12 K kg mol . The freezing point

−1

1. α-D-Glucose + β-D-Glucose depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m

containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is

E
2. α -D-Glucose + β-D-Fructose (rounded off upto two decimal places) :
3.
4.
α

β
-D-Fructose + β-D-Fructose
-D-Glucose + α-D-Fructose
LIV
1. 0.80 K
2. 0.40 K
3. 0.60 K
109.
AV
What is the change in oxidation number of carbon in the 4. 0.20 K
following reaction?
114.
AN

CH4 + 4Cl2 → CCl4 + 4 HCl ( g )

(g) (g) (l)
Which of the following amine will give the carbylamine
1. 0 to +4 test?
PR

2. -4 to +4
3. 0 to -4
4. +4 to +4
110.
1. 2.
The following metal ions activates many enzymes
participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP
and with Na is responsible for the transmission of nerve
signals
1. Copper
2. Calcium
3. Potassium 3. 4.
4. Iron 115.
111. Which of the following is a natural polymer?
Which of the following alkane cannot be made in good 1. poly(Butadiene-styrene)
yield by Wurtz reaction ?
2. polybutadiene
1. 2,3-Dimethylbutane
3. poly(Butadiene-acrylonitrile)
2. n-Heptane
4. cis-1,4-polyisoprene
3. n-Butane
4. n-Hexane

Page: 14
 NEET 2020 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
116. 119.
Identify the incorrect statement. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives:
1. The transition metals and their compounds are known
for their catalytic activity due to their ability to adopt
multiple oxidation states and to form complexes.
2. Interstitial compounds are those that are formed when
small atoms like H, C or N are trapped inside the crystal
lattices of metals.
1. 2.
3. The oxidation states of chromium in CrO
2−

4
and
Cr O 2
are not the same.
2−

4. Cr (d 2+ 4
) is a stronger reducing agent than F e 2+ 6
(d )

in water.

E
117.
Which of the following set of molecules will have zero
dipole moment?
1. Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride carbon dioxide, 1 120.
LIV
3. 4.
AV
3-dichlorobenzene The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in 175
Lu ,
71

2. Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride water, 1 3 - respectively, are:

dichlorobenzene 1. 104, 71 and 71
AN

3. Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride carbon dioxide, 2. 71, 71 and 104

1 4-dichlorobenzene
3. 175, 104 and 71
4. Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water 1, 4-
PR

dichlorobenzene 4. 71, 104 and 71

118. 121.
On electrolysis of dil. sulphuric acid using Platinum (Pt) Match the following :
electrode, the product obtained at the anode will be:
Oxide Nature
1. Oxygen gas
(a) CO (i) Basic
2. H2 S gas
(b) BaO (ii) Neutral
3. SO2 gas
(c) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic
4. Hydrogen gas
(d) Cl2O7 (iv) Amphoteric

Which of the follwing is correct option ?

a b c d
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Page: 15
 NEET 2020 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
122. 126.
A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a Identify the incorrect match.
secondary butyl carbocation of which of the following ?
Name IUPAC Official Name
(1) + R effect of CH groups
a. Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium
3

(2) −R effect of − CH groups

b. Unniltrium (ii) Lawrecium
3

(3) Hyperconjugation
c. Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium
(4) −l effect of −CH groups
d. Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium
3

123.
1. (b), (ii)
Which one of the followings has maximum number of
atoms ? 2. (c), (iii)

(1) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg= 24] 3. (d), (iv)

E
4. (a), (i)
(2) 1 g of O2 (g) [Atomic mass of 0=16]

(3) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li =7]

(4) 1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag=108]

LIV 127.
Identify a molecule which does not exist.
1. Li
AV
2

124. 2. C 2

Which of the following is a basic amino acid? 3. O 2

AN

1. Alanine 4. He 2

2. Tyrosine 128.
3. Lysine
PR

Identify the correct statements from the following:

4. Serine a. CO 2 (g) is used as a refrigerant ice-cream and frozen
125. food.

The correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas b. The structure of C customs twelve 6 carbon rings
60

under adiabatic condition is: and twenty-five 5 carbon rings

1. q = 0,   Δ T < 0 and w > 0

c. ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convent alcohol
into gasoline.
2. q < 0,   Δ T = 0 and w = 0
d. CO is a colorless and odorless gas
3. q > 0,   Δ T > 0 and w > 0
1. (a) and (c) only
4. q = 0,   Δ T = 0 and w = 0
2. (b) and (c) only
3. (c) and (d) only
4. (a), (c) and (c) only

Page: 16
 NEET 2020 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
129. 133.
An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one of the Find out the solubility of Ni (OH) in 0.1 M NaOH.
2

products. Its structure is: Given that the ionic product of Ni (OH) is 2x 10
−15

(1) 2 x 10 −8
M.
(2) 1 x 10 −13
M
(3) 1 x 10 M 8

1. 2. (4) 2 x 10 −13

134.
Identify compound X in the following sequence of
reaction:

E
3.
130.
4.

The reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium

LIV
AV
chloride followed by hydrolysis will give:
1. Sec. butyl alcohol
2. Tert. butyl alcohol
AN

3. Isobutyl alcohol
4. Isopropyl alcohol
PR

131. 1.

A mixture of N and Ar gases in a cylinder contains 7 g

2

of N and 8 g of Ar. If the total pressure of the mixture of

2

the gases in the cylinder is 27 bar, the partial pressure of

N is:2

[Use atomic masses (in g mol ): N=14, Ar=40]

−1

(1) 12 bar 2.

(2) 15 bar
(3) 18 bar
(4) 9 bar
132.
3.
An increase in the concentration of the reactants of a
reaction leads to change in:
(1) heat of reaction
(2) threshold energy
(3) collision frequency
(4) activation energy 4.

Page: 17
 NEET 2020 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
135. 139.
Urea reacts with water to form A which will decompose In a certain region of space with volume 0.2 m3, the
to form B. B when passed through Cu (aq), deep blue
2+
electric potential is found to be 5 V throughout. The
color solution C is formed. What is the formula of C magnitude of electric field in this region is:
from the following?
(1) 0.5 N/C
2+
1. [Cu (NH 3) ]
4
(2) 1 N/C
2. Cu (OH)
2 (3) 5 N/C
3. CuCO3 . Cu (OH)
2 (4) zero
4. CuSO4 140.
136. Which of the following graph represents the variation of
resistivity (ρ) with temperature (T) for copper?
A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and there are

E
50 divisions in its circular scale.
The pitch of the screw gauge is:
(1) 0.25 mm
(2) 0.5 mm
LIV
AV
(3) 1.0 mm (1)
(4) 0.01 mm
AN

137.
The mean free path for gas, with molecular diameter d
and number density n, can be expressed as:
PR

(1) 1

√2nπd
2
(2)
(2) 1

2
√2n2 πd

(3) 1

√2n2 π 2 d 2

(4) 1

√2nπd

138. (3)
Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is
incident on a photosensitive material. What will be the
photoelectric current if the frequency is halved and
intensity is doubled?
(1) four times
(2) one-fourth (4)
(3) zero
(4) doubled

Page: 18
 NEET 2020 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
141. 145.
A wire of length L, area of cross section A is hanging An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential
from a fixed support. The length of the wire changes to difference of V volt. If the de Broglie wavelength of
L 1when mass M is suspended from its free end. The electron is 1. 227 × 10 nm, the potential difference is:
−2

expression for Young's modulus is:

1. 10 2
 V
Mg(L1 −L)
1. AL 2. 10 3
 V

MgL
2. AL1
3. 10 4
 V

MgL 4. 10 5
 V
3. A(L1 −L)

146.
MgL
4. AL
1

For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is:

142.

E
In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same material

Hz. When tension in B is slightly decreased, the beat LIV

are slightly out of tune and produce beats of frequency 6

frequency increases to 7 Hz. If the frequency of A is 530

Hz, the original frequency of B will be
AV
1. 524 Hz
1. А B Y
2. 536 Hz
000
AN

3. 537 Hz 011
101
4.523 Hz 111
143.
PR

2. A B Y
A 40 μF capacitor is connected to a 200V ,50 Hz ac 001
supply. The rms value of the current in the circuit is, 011
nearly: 101
110
1. 2.05 A
3. А B Ү
2. 2.5 A 001
010
3. 25.1 A
100
4. 1.7 A 110
144. 4. А B Y
000
A ball is thrown vertically downward with a velocity of 010
20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits the ground after 100
some time with the velocity of 80 m/s . The height of the 111
tower is: (g = 10 m/s )
2

1. 340 m
2. 320 m
3. 300 m
4. 360 m

Page: 19
 NEET 2020 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
147. 151.
A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance is :
 C m. The electric potential due to the dipole
−9
16 × 10

at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from the centre of the 1. 4. 5 × 10 13

 J

dipole situated on a line making an angle of 60° with the 2. 1. 5 × 10 13

 J
dipole axis is :
3. 0. 5 × 10 13
 J
1 9 2 2
( = 9 × 10  N m /C )
4πε0
4. 4. 5 × 10 16
 J

1. 200 V 152.
2. 400 V The solids which have the negative temperature
3. zero coefficient of resistance are :

4. 50 V 1. insulators only

E
148. 2. semiconductors only
3. insulators and semiconductors
An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a
magnetising field of 1200 A m-1. The permeability of the
material of the rod is :
LIV 4. metals
153.
AV
−7 −1
(μ0 = 4π × 10  T m A )
A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one surface
1. 8. 0 × 10 −5 
T m A
−1 of a small angle prism ( with angle of prism A) and
emerges normally from the opposite surface. If the
AN

2. 2. 4π × 10 −5 
T m A
−1
refractive index of the material of the prism is μ, then the
angle of incidence is nearly equal to :
3. 2. 4π × 10 −7 
T m A
−1

1. 2A

4. 2. 4π × 10 −4  −1
PR

μ
T m A

149. 2. μA

The increase in the width of the depletion region in a p-n 3.

μA

2
junction diode is due to :
4. A

1. reverse bias only 2μ

2. both forward bias and reverse bias 154.

3. increase in forward current For which one of the following Bohr model is not valid?

4. forward bias only 1. Singly ionised helium atom (H e +

)

150. 2. Deuteron atom

A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water and 3. Singly ionised neon atom (N e ) +

water rises in it to a height h. The mass of the water in

the capillary is 5g. Another capillary tube of radius 2r is 4. Hydrogen atom
immersed in water. The mass of water that will rise in 155.
this tube is :
Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is coming from
1. 5.0 g a star. The limit of resolution of telescope whose
2. 10.0 g objective has a diameter of 2m is :

3. 20.0 g 1. 1. 83 × 10 −7
 rad

4. 2.5 g 2. 7. 32 × 10 −7
 rad

3. 6. 00 × 10 −7
 rad

4. 3. 66 × 10 −7
 rad

Page: 20
 NEET 2020 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
156. 160.
A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth. What is Taking into account the significant figures, what is the
the gravitational force on it at a height equal to half the value of (9.99m - 0.0099m)?
radius of the earth?
1. 9.98 m
1. 32 N
2. 9.980 m
2. 30 N
3. 9.9 m
3. 24 N
4. 9.9801 m
4. 48 N
161.
157.
Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to the ends of
A charged particle having drift velocity of a massless string. The string passes over a pulley which
7. 5 × 10
−4
 msin an electric field of 3 × 10  V m
−1 −10 −1
is frictionless (see figure). The acceleration of the system
, has a mobility in m V s of : 2 −1 −1
in terms of acceleration due to gravity (g) is:

E
1. 2. 5 × 10 6

2. 2. 5 × 10
3. 2. 25 × 10
−6

−15
LIV
AV
4. 2. 25 × 10 15

158.
AN

For transistor action, which of the following statements is

correct?
1. Base, emitter, and collector regions should have the
PR

same size 1. g/2

2. Both emitter junction, as well as the collector junction, 2. g/5
are forward biased
3. g/10
3. The base region must be very thin and lightly doped
4. g
4. Base, emitter, and collector regions should have the
same doping concentrations 162.

159. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at a pressure of 249

kPa and temperature 27°C
The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with air as Its density is: (R = 8.3 J mol  K )
−1 −1

medium is 6μF. With the introduction of a dielectric

medium, the capacitance becomes 30 μF. The 1. 0.2 kg/m 3

permittivity of the medium is: 2. 0.1 kg/m 3

−12 2 −1 −2
εo   =  8. 85 × 10  C  N  m

3. 0.02 kg/m 3

1. 1. 77 × 10 −12
 C  N
2 −1
 m
−2

4. 0.5 kg/m 3

2. 0. 44 × 10 −10
 C  N
2 −1
 m
−2

3. 5. 00 C 2
 N
−1
 m
−2

4. 0. 44 × 10 −13
 C  N
2 −1
 m
−2

Page: 21
 NEET 2020 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
163. 167.
The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and The energy required to break one bond in DNA is 10 −20

magnetic field components to the intensity of an J. This value in eV is nearly :

electromagnetic wave is : (c = speed of electromagnetic
waves) (1) 0.6

1. 1 : 1 (2) 0.06

2. 1 : c (3) 0.006

3. 1 : c 2 (4) 6

4. c : 1 168.

164. When a uranium isotope U

235
92
is bombarded with a
neutron , it generates Kr, three neutrons and :
89

A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns carries

36

a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic field at the centre of the (1) 91

E
Zr
40

solenoid is:
(2) 101

(μ0 = 4π × 10

1. 3. 4 × 10
−4
−7

T
T  m A
−1
)
LIV (3)

(4)
36

103

36

144
Kr

Kr

Ba
AV
56
2. 6. 28 × 10
−5
T

169.
3. 3. 14 × 10
−5
T

Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are connected

4. −4
AN

6. 28 × 10 T
to each other via a stop cock. A
165. contains an ideal gas at standard temperature and
In Young's double-slit experiment, if the separation pressure. B is completely evacuated.The entire system is
thermally insulated.The stop cock is suddenly opened.
PR

between coherent sources is halved and the distance of

the screen from the coherent sources is doubled, then the The process is :
fringe width becomes: (1) adiabatic
1. half (2) isochoric
2. four times (3) isobaric
3. one-fourth (4) isothermal
4. double 170.
166.
Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on a non-
A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a metre reflecting surface at normal incidence having surface area
bridge balances a 10 Ω resistance in the right gap at a 20 cm2 . The energy received by the surface during time
point which divides the bridge wire in the ratio 3 : 2. lf span of 1 minute is :
the length of the resistance wire is 1.5 m, then the length
of 1 Ω of the resistance wire : (1) 12 × 10 3
 J

(1) 1. 0  ×  10 −1
 m   
(2) 24 × 10 3
 J

(2) 1. 5  ×  10 −1
 m    
(3) 48 × 10 3
 J

(3) 1. 5  ×  10 −2
 m     
(4) 10 × 10 3
 J

(4) 1. 0  ×  10 −2
 m

Page: 22
 NEET 2020 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
171. 175.
The quantities of heat required to raise the temperature of The phase difference between displacement and
two solid copper spheres of radii r and r (r = 1. 5 r )
1 2 1 2 acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic motion is:
through 1 K are in the ratio:
1. 3π

2
rad

1. 9

4
2. π

2
rad

2. 3

2
3. Zero
3.
5

3 4. π  rad

4.
27
176.
8

172. The Brewster's angle for an interface should be:

The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic gas is: ( (1) 30° < i <45° b

E
kB
is Boltzmann constant and T absolute temperature) (2) 45° < i < 90° b

1.

2.
3

2
kB T

kB T
LIV (3) i = 90°
b

(4) 0° < i < 30°

177.
b
AV
3. 7

2
kB T

Dimensions of stress are:

4. 1

2
kB T

(1) [ML 2
T
−2
]
AN

173.
A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage (2) [ML 0
T
−2
]

source. When L is removed from the circuit, the phase

PR

difference between current and voltage is . If instead C

π

3 (3) [ML −1
T
−2
]

is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again

π

3
between current and voltage. The power factor of the (4) [MLT −2
]

circuit is:
1. 0.5 178.

2. 1.0 The color code of resistance is given below:

3. −1. 0
4. Zero
174.
Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively are
attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 1m with
negligible mass. The centre of mass of the system from The values of resistance and tolerance, respectively are :
the 5 kg particle is nearly at a distance of :
1. 47 kΩ, 10%
1. 50 cm
2. 4.7 kΩ, 5%
2. 67 cm
3. 470 Ω, 5%
3. 80 cm
4. 470 kΩ, 5%
4. 33 cm

Page: 23
 NEET 2020 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
179.
A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a charge of 3.2
x 10 C distributed uniformly. What is the magnitude of
−7

the electric field at a point 15 cm from the center of the

sphere?
1 9 2 2
(   =  9  ×  10  N m /C )
4π∈0

1. 1.28 x 10 N/C5

2. 1.28 x 10 N/C6

3. 1.28 x 10 N/C7

4. 1.28 x 10 N/C4

180.

E
Find the torque about the origin when a force 3 ĵ N acts
on a particle whose position vector 2ˆ
1. 6 ĵ N m
k m.
LIV
AV
2. -6 î N m

3. 6ˆ
k N m
AN

4. 6 î N m

Fill OMR Sheet*

PR

*If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from

where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there

Page: 24