SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR ELITE (AP & TS) DATE: 14-03-2022
Sub: BOTANY NEET GRAND TEST - 2 Max.Marks: 720
Guidelines:
In every subject:
a) In Section-A, 35 Questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from Section-A
b) In Section-B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which answer 10 questions

BOTANY 3. Identify the correct statement from the

SECTION – A following
1. Which one among the following is a (1) Spliceosomes are present in
modified leaf ? primitive nucleus of prokaryotes
(1) Thorn in Bougainvillea (2) Poly – A is added to 5' end of
(2) Spine in Opuntia primary RNA transcript
(3) Phylloclade in Euphorbia (3) Ochoa’s enzyme is used to
(4) Bulbil in Agave polymerise nucleotides of DNA
2. Read the following represenation (4) Three types of RNA polymerase in
nucleus and one more type in
Apical meristem
mitochondria exist in eukaryotes
A
4. Members of a family are characterized by
Cortex vexillary aestivation in petals. Choose the
B character NOT associated with that

Cork cambium family

C (1) Nodular roots
(2) Epipetalous stamens
Cork
(3) Legume fruit
A, B and C refers to
(4) Diadelphous stamens
(1) Differentiation, dedifferentiation and
redifferentiation 5. Which one among the following is a
(2) Dedifferentiation, redifferentiation parasite with ‘spore like stage’ in its life
and differentiation cycle ?
(3) Redifferentiation, differentiation and (1) Plasmodium
redifferentiation (2) Slime mould
(4) Differentiation, redifferentiation and (3) Diatoms
dedifferentiation (4) Dinoflagellates
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6. Enzyme isolated from Thermus aquaticus (1) Metabolism
bacterium is used in (2) Growth
(1) Gene mutation (3) Irritability
(2) Gene amplification (4) Cellular nature
(3) Gene isolation
11. Match the following in relation to usage
(4) Gene expression
of process in Column I with the
7. Which of the following statement is
field/branch in Column II
incorrect?
Column I Column II
(1) Viruses are obligate parasites
I Electrophorosis A Genetically
(2) Infective constituent of virus is
modified crops
protein II Emasculation B Conventional
(3) Prions contain abnormally folded plant breeding
protein III Agar-agar C rDNA
(4) Viroids possess low molecular technology
weight RNA IV Biopatency D Tissue culture
8. Human skin colour is an example of (1) I - C, II - B, III - D, IV - A
(1) Pleiotropy (2) I - A, II - B, III - C, IV – D
(2) Polygenic inheritance (3) I - C, II - B, III - A, IV – D
(3) Co-dominance (4) I - B, II - A, III - D, IV – C
(4) Multiple allelism 12. Which ecosystem service would carry
9. RNA interference method involves heaviest price tag ?
silencing of a specific _A_ due to _B_ (1) Soil formation
that binds and prevents _C_. The correct
(2) Nutrient cycling
options for A, B, C respectively are
(3) Climate regulation
A B C
(4) Recreational activities
(1) mRNA dsRNA Transcription
13. Site of active ribosomal RNA synthesis is
(2) dsRNA mRNA Translation
(1) RER
(3) mRNA dsRNA Translation
(2) Nuclear membrane
(4) mRNA ssRNA Transcription
(3) Nucleolus

10. Which is NOT exclusive of living (4) Cytoplasm

beings?

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14. ATP is needed in all the following steps Datura, Long seed
III C
except Coconut viability period

(1) Reduction phase in calvin cycle Lupinus, Many ovules in

IV D
(2) Activation of amino acid during Date palm ovary

translation (1) I - C, II - B, III - D, IV - A

(3) Biological nitrogen fixation (2) I - D, II - A, III - B, IV – C

(4) Facilitated diffusion (3) I - C, II - B, III - A, IV – D

15. Which biochemical is commonly (4) I - B, II - A, III - D, IV – C

synthesized during glycolysis, link 19. Which is NOT true regarding hormones ?

reaction and kreb’s cycle ? (1) Thinning of cotton : Ethylene

(1) CO 2 (2) Bolting in cabbage : Gibberellins

(3) Flowering in pine apple : Auxin
(2) ATP
(4) Seed germination in Barley : ABA
(3) NADH + H +
20. Which among the following is under the
(4) FADH 2
influence of both pressure and
16. Pick the wrong match from the following
concentration?
(1) Potassium – Osmoticum
(1) Ascent of sap due to transpiration
(2) Magnesium – Spindle formation
pull
(3) Calcium – Mobile element
(2) Translocation of organic solutes
(4) Iron – Chlorophyll synthesis
(3) Absorption of water by root hairs
17. Densely stained reticular cell organelle
(4) Ascent of sap due to root pressure
helpful in packaging material to deliver
21. Which is NOT a wheat variety ?
into intercellular targets is
(1) Ratna
(1) RER
(2) Sonalika
(2) SER
(3) Himgiri
(3) Golgi complex
(4) Atlas 66
(4) Lysosomes
22. Microbe used in preparation of bread,
18. Match the following
beer and wine is
Column I Column II
(1) Lactobacillus
Papaya, Cleistogamous
I A (2) Propionibacterium sharmanii
watermelon flowers
Commelina, Endospermic
(3) Leuconostoc faecalis
II B (4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Pansy seeds

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23. Water is NOT required during 28. The basis/root of plant breeding
(1) Gametic transfer during fertilisation programmes related to hybrid plant
in alga production is
(2) Pollination in Vallisnaria (1) Selection of parents
(3) Cell elongation (2) Commercialisation of new cultivars
(4) Fertilisation in flowering plants (3) Testing & evaluation of progeny
24. Clinical trials in downstream processing (4) Collection of variability
is need for 29. ‘Red tides’ are due to
(1) Animal feed (1) Human induced natural calamity
(2) Human drugs (2) Decrease in photosynthetic yield due
(3) Pesticides to non functioning of PS II
(4) Biofertilisation (3) Water bloom caused by blue green
25. In leaves of tea, lignified tissues are seen alga
in all except (4) Population explosion of Gonyaulax
(1) Fibers 30. Monomeric units are NOT the same in
(2) Tracheids (1) Starch
(3) Sieve elements (2) Chitin
(4) Sclereids (3) Insulin
26. Which among the following is a (4) Inulin
biochemical producer and biocontrol 31. Match the following
agent ? List – I List – II
(1) Monascus I) Gemmules A) Planaria
(2) Saccharomyces II) True regeneration B) Dogs
(3) Trichoderma
III) Monocarpic perennial C) Sponges
(4) Penicillium
IV) Oestrous cycle D) Strobilanthus
27. Ground tissue in leaf is
V) Gemmae E) Marchantia
(1) Xylem
(1) I - C, II - A, III - D, IV – B, V - E
(2) Phloem
(2) I - A, II - B, III - C, IV – E, V - D
(3) Mesophyll
(3) I - C, II - B, III - E, IV – D, V - A
(4) Epidermis
(4) I - E, II - A, III - D, IV – B, V – C

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32. In a dihybrid cross AABB × aabb , F2 IV. Palmitic acid contain 20 carbons
progeny of AABB, AABb, AaBB and including carboxyl group
AaBb occurs in the ratio of (1) I & II
(1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (2) II & III
(2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (3) III & IV
(3) 1 : 2 : 2 : 1 (4) I & IV
(4) 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 Sol. Memory based
33. Statement – I : Movement of both the 35. Match the following
sister chromatids of a chromosome to the Test tube fertilisation Scientists

same pole occur during anaphase I of Intraovarian G.N.

I A
pollination Ramachandran
meiosis I
Triple helical
Statement – II : Division of centromere II B C.Esau
structure of collagen
and subsequent movement of sister
Effect of hard
chromatids towards two opposite poles
X-rays on
occur during anaphase of mitosis and III C P Maheswari
Bacteriophage
anaphase II of meiosis II
mutiplication
(1) Statement-I and Statement-II are true Curlytop virus
(2) Statement-I is true but Statement-II IV transfer through food D Watson
is false. conducting tissue
(3) Statement-I is false but Statement-II (1) I - C, II - A, III - D, IV - B
is true. (2) I - A, II - B, III - C, IV – D
(4) Statement-I and Statement-II are (3) I - C, II - B, III - A, IV – D
false (4) I - B, II - A, III - D, IV – C
34. Following are the statements with SECTION – B
reference to lipids. Pick the correct pair 36. A protistan with pellicle, ciliary
I. Lipids having single bonds are movement, transverse binary fission,
unsaturated fatty acids dikaryotic nature with exceptions in
II. Lecithin is phospho lipid present in universality of genetic code is
plasma membrane (1) Euglena
III. Glycerol is chemically (2) Paramecium
trihydroxypropane (3) Gonyaulax
(4) Amoeba

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37. Increase in concentration of _A_ enhance (4) Segregation
the rate of photosynthesis and increase in 42. Secondary cortex is observed in anatomy
concentration of _B_ decrease of
photosynthetic rate in _C_ plant. What is (1) Grass root
A, B and C ? (2) Datura leaf
(1) Oxygen, Carbondioxide, C3 plant (3) Banyan stem
(2) Carbondioxide, Oxygen, C 4 plant (4) Grass stem
43. Which among the following is NOT by
(3) Oxygen, Carbondioxide, C 4 plant
facilitated diffusion ?
(4) Carbondioxide, Oxygen, C3 plant
(1) Water movement through aquaporins
38. Which among the following is NOT a
(2) Proton movement through coupling
representation of a gametophyte/structure
factor
of gametophytic generation ?
(3) Absorption of ions by root hairs
(1) Green prothallus in ferns
along the concentration gradient
(2) Filamentous protonema in moss
(4) Conduction of water, minerals and
(3) Pollen grain in flowering plants
organic solutes in xylem and phloem
(4) Strobilus in gymnosperms
44. Plasmogamy, karyogamy and meiosis
39. Cellular defence mechanism in bacteria
occur in quick succession in the members
against virus is/due to
of
(1) RNAi
(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Lac Operon
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) Restriction endonuclease
(3) Basidiomycetes
(4) Capsule presence
(4) Deuteromycetes
40. In STP, activated sludge is a sediment in
45. Gametophytes that develop from
(1) Primary settling tank
functional megaspore in gymnosperms
(2) Aeration tank
and angiosperms is (respectively)
(3) Secondary settling tank
(1) Embryosac & Endosperm
(4) Anaerobic sludge digester
(2) Endosperm & Embryo
41. Physical association of genes on a
(3) Ovule & Endosperm
chromosome is termed as
(4) Endosperm & Embryosac
(1) Recombination
(2) Mutation
(3) Linkage
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46. When a P BR 322 plasmid is treated with
Bam HI to clone a foreign insert
successfully, then the transformed colony
would be resistant to _‘A’_ and sensitive
to _‘B’_. A and B respectively
(1) Ampicillin and Tetracyclin
(2) Tetracyclin and Ampicillin
(3) Tetracyclin and Kanamycin
(2) Variety of lady’s finger resistant to
shoot and fruit borers
(3) Variety of mungbean resistant to
yellow mosaic virus
(4) Variety of brassica resistant to
aphids
50. The following is NOT an application of
Biotechnology

(4) Kanamycin and Tetracyclin (1) Bioremediation

47. If the sequence of nucleotides on mRNA (2) Production of high yielding varieties
is known, the sequence of amino acids Jaya and Ratna
can be predicted but if the sequence of (3) Energy production
amino acids is known the exact sequence
(4) Genetically modified crops
of nucleotides in mRNA cannot be
ZOOLOGY
predicted. This is because genetic code is
SECTION – A
(1) Ambiguous
51. The sporozoites of Plasmodium are stored
(2) Degenerate
in which part of female Anopheles
(3) Commaless
mosquito ?
(4) Triple code
(1) Gut wall
48. Zoospore producing unicellular (2) Haemolymph
autotroph is
(3) Salivary glands
(1) Albugo
(4) Mouth parts
(2) Chylamdomonas
52. Which episode of mass extinction is
(3) Laminaria
presently in progress?
(4) Porphyra
(1) Fifth Extinction
49. Parbhani kranti is
(2) Seventh Extinction
(1) Variety of lady’s finger resistant to
(3) Fourth Extinction
yellow mosaic virus
(4) Sixth Extinction

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53. Match the following columns and select (3) The transfer of antibodies from
the correct option : mother to the foetus through placenta is
Column-I Column-II an example for passive immunity.
(a) Atlas (i) Articulates with (4) When exposed to antigens,
acromion
antibodies are produced in the host’s
(b) Scapula (ii) Articulates with
body. It is called active immunity.
occipital condyles
56. In the female reproductive system of
(c) Clavicle (iii) Flat bone on the ventral
cockroach a pair of spermatheca is
midline of thorax
present in the (A) segment which opens
(d) Sternum (iv) Triangular bone situated into the (B)
in the dorsal part of the
Fill the blanks with suitable option :
thorax
(1) (A) – 9th ; (B) genital chamber
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) (A) – 6th ; (B) genital chamber
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(3) (A) – 6th ; (B) common oviduct
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (A) – 9th ; (B) vagina
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
57. Organ system level of organisation is
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
exhibited by
54. Which one of the following is the best
(1) Sponges
breeding method for animals that are
(2) Coelenterates
below average in productivity in milk
(3) Ctenophores
production ?
(4) Molluscs
(1) Out-crossing
58. Select the correct events that occur
(2) Cross-breeding
during inspiration
(3) Inbreeding
(a) Contraction of diaphragm
(4) Interspecific hybridisation
(b) Pulmonary volume decreases
55. Identify the wrong statement with
(c) Contraction of external inter-coastal
reference to immunity
muscles
(1) When ready-made antibodies are
(d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases
directly given, it is called passive
(1) (a) and (c)
immunity.
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(2) Active immunity is quick and gives
(3) (b) and (d)
full immunological response.
(4) Only (b)

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59. Match the following diseases with the (1) High concentration of FSH and LH
symptoms and select the correct option : (2) Degeneration of corpus luteum
Column-I Column-II (3) High concentration of GnRH
(a) Ring worms (i) Stools with excess (4) Degeneration of Graafian follicle
mucous and blood 62. Saliva, earwax, oil and milk are secreted
clots
by
(b) Amoebiasis (ii) Internal bleeding,
(1) Endocrine glands
fever and blockage
of intestinal passage (2) Goblet cells of columnar epithelium
(c) Typhoid (iii) Dry, scaly lesions on (3) Cuboidal cells of keratinised
skin, nails and scalp epithelium
(d) Ascariasis (iv) High fever, intestinal (4) Exocrine glands
perforation and death
63. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for
(a) (b) (c) (d)
control of
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(1) Emission of ozone depleting
(2) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
substances
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(2) Reduction of release of green house
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
gases
60. The theory of special creation has three
(3) Soil erosion and depletion
connotations. Out of these three, one is
(4) Disposal of radioactive wastes
given below. Pick it out
64. Radially symmetrical and acoelomate
(1) Embryos never pass through the
animals are exemplified by
adult stages of ancestral animals.
(1) Aschelminthes
(2) Units of life called spores were
(2) Echinodermata
transferred to different planets including
(3) Ctenophora
the Earth.
(4) Platyhelminthes
(3) The diversity of all living organisms
65. Zona pellucida present in the Graafian
was always same since creation and will
follicle is formed by
be same in future also.
(1) Secondary oocyte
(4) Life came out of decaying and
(2) Primary oocyte
rotting matter like straw, mud, etc.
(3) Cumulus oophorus
61. Which of the following causes
(4) Theca interna
disintegration of the endometrium leading
to menstruation ?
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66. Which of the following statements are (1) Reabsorption of Na + and water
true for the phylum – Chordata ? from the distal parts of the renal tubule
(a) In Vertebrata the notochord is caused by aldosterone.
replaced by a cartilaginous or bony (2) Water reabsorption from earlier parts
vertebral column in the adult. of the renal tubule by ADH.
(b) A post anal tail is present in all adult (3) Vasoconstriction by angiotensin I.
urochordates. (4) Vasodilation by Atrial Natriuretic
(c) In Cephalochordata, notochord is Factor.
present only in larval tail. 70. Select the correct match :
(d) Vertebrates have a ventral muscular (1) Thalassemia Qualitative problem
heart with two, three or four chambers. (2) Klinefelter’s Monosomy of 23rd
(1) (b) and (c) Syndrome pair
(2) (a) and (d) (3) Sickle-cell Quantitative
(3) (a) and (c) anaemia problem

(4) (b) and (d) (4) Down’s Trisomy of 21st pair

67. Presence of glycosuria and ketonuria Syndrome

conditions in urine are indicative of 71. Read the following statements about

which disorder ? population attributes

(1) Diabetes insipidus (a) A population has birth rates and death

(2) Renal calculi rates.

(3) Glomerulonephritis (b) Population density need not

(4) Diabetes mellitus necessarily be measured in numbers only.

68. Cattle or goats are not generally browsing (c) The shape of age pyramids reflects the

on Calotropis because it produces growth status of the population.

(1) Opium and quinine (d) The tiger census in national parks is

(2) Thorns and tendrils often based on pug marks and faecal

(3) Distasteful poisonous weed pellets.

(4) Cardiac glycosides Choose the correct answer from the

69. Which of the following leads to increase options given below

in blood pressure and glomerular (1) (a),(b) and (c) are correct

filtration rate? (2) (a),(b),(c) and (d) are correct

(3) (b) and (c) are correct
(4) (c) and (d) are correct
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72. In relation to decomposition, which one
of the following statements is correct?
(1) Water soluble inorganic nutrients go
down into soil horizon and get
precipitated as unavailable salts by the
process called as catabolism.
(2) The decomposition rate is slower, if
detritus is rich in nitrogen and water –
soluble sugars.
(3) Low temperature and anaerobiasis
accelerate the rate of decomposition.
(4) Decomposition is largely an oxygen
– requiring process.
73. The type of muscles present in the wall of
blood vessels, stomach and intestine are
(1) Smooth muscles
(2) Cardiac muscles
(3) Skeletal muscles
(4) Voluntary muscles
74. Select the correct statement :
(1) Aldosterone stimulates the RBC
production.
(2) Glucocorticoids stimulate
gluconeogenesis.
(3) Hypothyroidism during puberty
causes cretinism.
(4) Parathyroid hormone decreases
Ca 2+ levels in blood.
75. In a standard ECG the T-wave represents
(1) Depolarisation of ventricles
(2) The return of the ventricles from
normal to excited state
(3) End of the diastole
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(4) The return of the ventricles from
excited to normal state
76. Arrange the following organisms of an
aquatic ecosystem in correct sequence to
form a grazing food chain
(a) Fishes (b) Zooplankton
(c) Phytoplankton (d) Crane
(1) (c) → (b) → (a) → (d)
(2) (b) → (c) → (a) → (d)
(3) (c) → (b) → (d) → (a)
(4) (b) → (a) → (c) → (d)
77. In which of the following techniques, the
embryos are transferred to assist those
females who cannot conceive ?
(1) GIFT and ZIFT
(2) ICSI and AI
(3) ZIFT and IUT
(4) GIFT and ICSI
78. The enzyme enterokinase helps in
conversion of
(1) Pepsinogen into pepsin
(2) Chymotrypsinogen into chymotrypsin
(3) Trypsinogen into trypsin
(4) Prorennin into rennin
79. Read the following statements :
Statement-I : The space within cochlea
called scala media is filled with
endolymph.
Statement-II : The vestibular apparatus
is composed of three semi-circular canals
and the otolith.
(1) Both Statements I and II are wrong.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II
is wrong.
(3) Statement II is correct but Statement I
is wrong.
(4) Both Statements I and II are correct.
Page 11
80. Identify the wrong statement with 84. Which of the following are marine fishes
reference to ABO system of blood that are eaten ?
groups.
(1) Catla, Common carp and Rohu
(1) Persons with “AB” group can accept
(2) Meckerel, Hilsa and Pomfret
blood from persons with “AB” as
(3) Hilsa, Sardines and Common carp
well as the other groups of blood.
(4) Pomfrets, Catla and Rohu
(2) Antigen “A” is present on the
85. Which of the following refer to correct
surface of RBCs of “A” group
examples of organisms, which have
persons. evolved due to changes in environment
(3) Anti-A antibodies are present in the brought about by anthropogenic action?
plasma of “B” group persons. a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos
islands.
(4) Antigen “O” is present on the
b) Drug resistant eukaryotes.
surface of RBCs of “O” group c) Herbicide resistant weeds.
persons but no antibodies in plasma. d) Adaptive radiation of marsupials in
Australia.
81. Which of the following regions of the
(1) (a) and (d) only
globe exhibits highest species diversity ?
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(1) Western Ghats of India
(3) (b) and (c) only
(2) Amazonian rain forest
(4) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) Medagascar
SECTION-B
(4) Himalayan region of Asia 86. Match the following columns and select
82. Two closely related species competing for
the correct option:
the same resources cannot co-exist
indefinitely and the competitively inferior Column-I Column-II
one will be eliminated eventually. This is (a) Proboscis gland is (i) Sepia
according to excretory organ
(1) Gause’s principle (b) File-like radula (ii) Planaria
(2) Mac Arthur’s principle (c) High regeneration (iii) Saccoglossus
(3) Connel’s resource partitioning capacity
mechanism
(d) Living fossil (iv) Limulus
(4) Paul Ehrlich’s hypothesis
(a) (b) (c) (d)
83. ADA deficiency can be cured by
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(1) Bone marrow transplantation
(2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(2) Antibody replacement therapy
(3) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(3) Monoclonal antibodies
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) Both (1) and (2) are correct
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87. Select the option including all sexually (4) Taylor
transmitted diseases : 91. Match the following columns and select
(1) Chlamydiasis, Malaria, Genital the correct option :
herpes
Column-I Column-II
(2) AIDS, Genital warts, Cholera
(a) Pteropus (i) Cetacea
(3) Gonorrhoea, Filaria, AIDS
(b) Testudo (ii) Amphibia
(4) Genital warts, Chlamydiasis,
Syphilis (c) Ichthyophis (iii) Chiroptera

88. The dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from (d) Balanoptera (iv) Reptilia
the earth about
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 65 mya
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(2) 500 mya

(3) 200 mya (2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(4) 350 mya (3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

89. Which of the following is crucial to
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
disposal of hospital waste ?

(1) Use of eco-friendly packaging
(2) Use of electrostatic precipitator
(3) Use of incinerators
92. Identify the correct statement with
reference to human digestive system
(1) Vermiform appendix arises from
duodenum.

(4) Use of shielded containers buried

(2) All the four layers of gut show

within the rocks, about 500 m deep modifications in different parts of the
alimentary canal.
90. Who is credited for developing method
for determination of amino acid (3) The sigmoid colon opens into
sequences in proteins ? ascending part of colon.
(1) Alec Jeffreys
(4) Gastro-oesophageal sphincter
(2) Frederick Sanger regulates the opening of stomach into the
(3) Francois Jacob duodenum.

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93. Match List-I with List – II : 96. Identify the wrong statement with
List-I List –II reference to transport of oxygen
(a) Neutrophils (i) Involve in (1) Partial pressure of CO 2 can interfere
coagulation of
with O 2 binding.
blood
(2) Binding of O 2 with haemoglobin is
(b) Thrombocytes (ii) Secretion of
mainly related to partial pressure of
histamine , heparin
O2 .
etc.,
(3) Higher H + concentration in alveoli
(c) Eosinophils (iii) Phagocytic cells
favours the formation of
(d) Basophils (iv) Resist infections
oxyhaemoglobin.
and associated with
allergic reactions (4) Low pCO 2 in alveoli favours the

Choose the correct answer from the formation of oxyhaemoglobin.

option given below 97. Read the following statements :
Assertion (A) : Acromegaly may lead to
(a) (b) (c) (d)
serious complications, and premature
(1) i iii iv ii death if unchecked.
(2) iii i ii iv Reason (R) : ACTH stimulates the
(3) iii i iv ii synthesis and secretion of steroid
hormones called glucocorticoids from the
(4) i iii ii iv adrenal cortex.
94. In earthworm the spermathecae are (1) A and R are true and R is the correct
located in which segments ? explanation of A.
th th th th
(1) 6 , 7 , 8 and 9 (2) A and R are true and R is not the
th th th th
(2) 5 , 6 , 7 and 8 correct explanation of A.
(3) 17th, 18th, 19th and 20th (3) A is true, R is false.
(4) 4th, 5th, 6th and 7th (4) Both A and R are false.
95. Which of the following is a classic 98. The second meiotic division in secondary
example of commensalism ? oocyte results in the formation of
(1) Cuscuta growing on hedge plants (1) Second polar body and a haploid
(2) Fungus and photosynthetic algae or ootid
cyanobacteria (2) Second polar body and a diploid
(3) Sparrow eating any seed or worm ovum
(4) Cattle egret and grazing cattle in (3) First polar body and a haploid ovum
close association (4) First polar body and a diploid ovum

Sri Chaitanya Page 14

99. In the process of evolution the rate of 103. The wave number of the transition in H
appearance of new forms is linked to spectrum from n = 2 to n = 1 is
(1) Life cycle only 3R
(1)
(2) Adaptive ability only 4
(2) R
(3) Life span only
R
(4) Life cycle or life span (3)
2
100. The cerebral cortex is referred to as the (4) 3R
grey matter due to its grayish appearance. 104. In which of the molecules, bond angle is
Which of the following are giving the maximum
colour ? (1) H 2O
(1) Myelinated nerve fibres (2) NH 3
(2) Neuron cell bodies (3) CH 4

(3) Oligodendrocytes and lipofusin (4) CO2

105. In vapour state, sulphur (S2) exhibits
(4) Dendrites and myelinated axons
CHEMISTRY paramagnetic behaviour due to

SECTION – A (1) paired electrons in antibonding

101. Lactose involves glycosidic linkage orbitals

between (2) presence of unpaired electrons in
(1) C – 1 of galactose and C – 4 of
antibonding ‘ π ’molecular orbitals
glucose
(2) C – 1 of galactose and C – 2 of (3) presence of unpaired electrons in
glucose antibonding ‘ σ ’ molecular orbitals
(3) C – 2 of galactose and C – 4 of (4) presence of unpaired electrons in
glucose
(4) C – 1 of fructose and C – 4 of bonding ‘ π ’ molecular orbitals
glucose 106. KMnO4 reacts with oxalic acid according
102. In a chemical reaction to the equation
K 2Cr2O7 + x H 2 SO4 + y SO2 → 2 MnO4− + 5C2O42− + 16 H + → 2 Mn 2+ + 10CO2 + 8 H 2O
K 2 SO4 + Cr2 ( SO4 )3 + z H 2O Here 20 ml of 0.1 M KMnO4 will react
The values of x, y and z are respectively with
are (1) 50 ml of 0.1 M H 2C2O4
(1) 1, 3 and 1 (2) 20 ml of 0.5 M H 2C2O4
(2) 4, 1 and 4 (3) 50 ml of 0.5 M H 2C2O4
(3) 3, 2 and 3 (4) 20 ml of 0.1 M H 2C2O4
(4) 2, 1 and 2
Sri Chaitanya Page 15
107. Regarding froth flotation process,
incorrect statement is
(1) Xanthates enhance the non-wettability (1)
of ore particles towards water
(2)
(2) Carbonate ores are concentrated by
this method
(3)
(3) Aniline stabilizes the froth
(4) Principle involved in adsorption
108. The incorrect order of the radii of the (4)
dil.H 2SO4
species is 112. CH ≡ C − CH3 
HgSO
→X .
4
(1) O < O − < O 2−
The major product of the reaction is
(2) N < P < As
(1) CH3 − CH 2 − CHO
(3) Fe > Fe 2+ > Fe3+
(2) CH3 − CO − CH 3
(4) Cl− < K + < Ca 2+
(3) CH3 − CH 2 − CH3
109. The incorrect statement among the
following is (4) CH3 − CH 2 − CH 2 − HSO 4

(1) Bond order of N 2 is greater than that
of N +2
(2) Bond order of O2 is less than that of
+
O 2
(3) Bond order of O2 is greater than that
of N 2
(4) Bond order of He2 is less than that of
He+2
110. Arrange BeSO4, BaSO4, MgSO4, SrSO4,
113. An element (atomic mass 100g / mol)
having bcc structure has unit cell edge of
400 pm. The density of the unit cell is
(1) 10.376 g/ cc
(2) 2.144 g / cc
(3) 7.289 g / cc
(4) 5.188 g/ cc
114. The crystal field splitting energy for

and CaSO4 in the increasing order of their octahedral and tetrahedral complexes is

solubility in water related to

(1) BaSO4 < SrSO4 < CaSO4 < MgSO4 < BeSO4 4
(1) ∆ 0 = ∆ t
9
(2) BeSO4 < MgSO4 < CaSO4 < SrSO4 < BaSO4
1
(2) ∆ t = ∆ 0
(3) MgSO4 > BeSO4 > CaSO4 > SrSO4 > BaSO4 2

(4) CaSO4 > MgSO4 > BeSO4 > SrSO4 > BaSO4 4
(3) ∆ t = ∆ 0
9
111. Which of the following systems is
(4) ∆ 0 = −2∆ t
aromatic?
Sri Chaitanya Page 16
 (2) Both statements are false
CH 2 − O − C6 H5
Conc. HI
115. ∆
→ X+Y. (3) I is true but II is false
X and Y in this reaction are (4) I is false but II is true
119. Which of the following is an interstitial
CH2 OH + I
compound
(1)
(1) NH3
CH2 I + HO (2) PdCl2
(2) (3) CrH
(4) ZnO
CH2 I + I
(3) 120. Which is true about photochemical smog?
(1) It is reducing in nature
CH2 I + I OH
(2) It is formed in winter
(4)
(3) It contains particulate carbon and SO2
116. Base catalysed aldol condensation is
(4) It causes irritation to eyes
possible with
121. The density of a gas (A) at 270C and 1
(1) Formaldehyde
atmosphere is d. Pressure remaining
(2) Benzaldehyde
constant, the temperature at which the
(3) 2,2-dimethyl propanal
density of the gas (A) becomes 0.75d?
(4) 2-methyl propanal
(1) 200C
117. Ammonia when treated with excess
(2) 300C
chlorine forms
(3) 400K
(1) NCl3 + HCl
(4) 300 K
(2) NH 4Cl + N 2
122. Coal gasification reaction from the
(3) NCl3 + N 2
following is
(4) NH 4Cl + NCl3 + N 2
(1) CH 4 ( g ) + H 2O( g ) 
1270 K
Ni
→ CO( g ) + 3H 2 ( g )
118. Statement-I : A solution of soap or
1270 K
(2) C( s ) + H 2O( g )  → CO( g ) + H 2( g )
detergent at low concentration behaves as
673K
an electrolyte (3) CO( g ) + H2O( g )  → CO2 ( g ) + H 2 ( g )
Statement-II : Soap solution or detergent
(4) C2 H 4 ( g ) + H 2 ( g ) 
→ C2H6 (g )
solution at high concentration contains
associated colloidal particles
(1) Both statements are true

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123. For the reaction, 127. Which of the following alcohol gives an
H 2 ( g ) + Br2 ( g ) 
slow
→ 2 HBr ( g ) , the alkyl halide on simply shaking with HCl
at room temperature?
reaction rate = K [ H 2 ][ Br2 ] .
1/ 2

(1) 30 alcohol
Which statement is true about this
(2) 20 alcohol
reaction?
(3) 10 alcohol
(1) The reaction is of second order
(4) vinyl alcohol
(2) Molecularity of the reaction is 3/2
128. Give the structure of the major product
(3) The unit of K is sec-1
expected from dinitration of 3 - methyl
(4) Molecularity of the reaction is 2
phenol.
124. PHBV is a
OH
(1) Addition polymer of butyric acid
(2) Condensation polymer of
O2N CH2NO2
(1)
hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid
ONO2
(3) Copolymer of styrene and methyl
methacrylate CH3
(4) Copolymer of 3 - hydroxy butanoic NO2
(2)
acid and 3 - hydroxy pentanoic acid. OH
O2N
125. Drugs that bind to the receptor site and
inhibit its natural function of messenger O2N CH3
are called (3)
(1) Agonistic drugs OH
O2N
(2) Antagonistic drugs
(3) Antimicrobial drugs CH3
2NO
(4) Allosteric drugs (4)
126. The name of the compound 'X' and the 129. Which of the following amines has the
hybridization of carbons in compound 'X' highest boiling point?
are (1) CH3 − CH 2 − CH 2 − NH 2
FeCl3
+ Cl2 X (2) CH3 − CH 2 − NH − CH3

(1) Chlorobenzene, sp2 CH3 N CH 3

(2) Benzene hexachloride, sp3d CH 3
(3)
(3) Chlorobenzene, sp3 (4) All the amines have same boiling
(4) Benzene hexachloride, sp3 point

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130. In borax the number of B-O –B links and conductance at infinite dilution of
B-OH bonds present are, respectively Al2 (SO 4 )3 in S cm2 eq–1
(1) Five and four
(1) 286
(2) Four and five
(2) 349
(3) Three and four
(3) 858
(4) Five and five
(4) 143
131. Oximes are formed by the reaction of
aldehydes and ketones with 135. 0.1M K 4 [ Fe(CN)6 ] solution is 60%
(1) NH 2 − NH 2 ionized. Its Vant-Hoff factor is
(2) NH 3 (1) 1.4
(3) NH 2 NHC6 H 5 (2) 2.4

(4) NH 2OH (3) 3.4

132. Which of the following is an ambidentate (4) 4.4

ligand ? SECTION – B
(1) hydroxo 136. H + + OH − → H 2O, ∆H = −57.3 KJ. Heat
(2) nitrito liberated is equal to 57.3 KJ when the
(3) chlorido reaction involves
(4) ammine (1) 1 mole each of CH 3COOH and NaOH
133. Statement-I : The K.E of photo electrons
(2) 1 mole each of NH 4OH and HCl
depend on energy and frequency of
(3) 1 mole each of H 2 SO4 and Ba ( OH )2
incident light
Statement-II : The number of photo (4) 1 mole each of HCl and NaOH

electrons emitted depend on intensity of 4

137. Al + O2 → Al2O3 ; ∆G = −827 KJ . The
3
incident light
minimum EMF required to carry out the
(1) Both statements are true
electrolysis of Al2O3 obtained in this
(2) Both statements are false
process is
(3) I is true but II is false
(4) I is false but II is true (1) 2.14 ×10−3V
(2) 1.14 V
134. The equivalent conductivities of
Al3+ ,SO 42- ions at infinite dilution are 189,
(3) 2.64 ×10−4 V
(4) 2.14 V
160S cm2 eq–1. Calculate the equivalent

Sri Chaitanya Page 19

138. The correct order of reactivity of
CO-CH3
following compounds in SN1 reaction is
CH3
(3)
a) C6H5CH2Br
b) C6H5CH (C6H5) Br
(4)
c) C6H5CH (CH3) Br
141. Molar solubility of Zirconium phosphate
d) C6H5 C(CH3) (C6H5) Br
is ‘S’ moles/litre. Solubility product of
(1) d > b > c > a
Zirconium phosphate  Zr3 ( PO 4 )4  is
(2) d > a > b > c
(1) 108S5
(3) a > b > c > d
(2) 256S5
(4) a > c > d > b
(3) 6912S7
139. Consider the equilibrium,
(4) 5832S7
C(s) + H 2 O(g) ⇌ CO(g) + H 2 (g)
142. Regarding liquid mixture of chloroform
Which of the following statements is true
and acetone, correct statement is
at equilibrium?
(1) It shows positive deviations from
(1) If the amount of C(s) is increased,
Raoult’s law
more CO and H2 would be formed
(2) ∆Smixture = −Ve
(2) If the amount of C(s) is increased, less
(3) A hydrogen bond develops between
water vapour would be formed.
carbonyl oxygen of acetone and hydrogen
(3) If the pressure on the system is
atom of chloroform
increased by reducing the volume to half,
(4) It is an ideal solution
more CO and H2 would be formed.
143. For a first order reaction, a graph is
(4) If the pressure on the system is
[ A]0
increased by reducing the volume to half, plotted between log ( y − axis ) vs ‘t’
[ A]t
more water vapour would be formed
in minutes (x-axis). If the slope of the
140. Mesomeric effect is observed in which of
graph is 0.0301 then rate constant of the
the following?
reaction is
Cl (1) 6.93 min-1
(1)
(2) 6.93 ×10−1 min −1
CH3 (3) 6.93 ×10−3 min −1

CH3 (4) 6.93 ×10−2 min −1

(2)

Sri Chaitanya Page 20

144. The 3d element with highest enthalpy of (4) IVA
atomization is 149. Ionization potential of Lanthanoids
(1) Mn resemble I.P1 of
(2) V (1) Calcium
(3) Cr (2) Aluminium
(4) Fe (3) Sodium
145. The oxo acid of phosphorous which (4) Carbon
cannot act as reducing agent is 150. Enthalpy of combustion of Rhombic
(1) H 3 PO4 sulphur and monoclinic sulphur is -297.5
KJ/mole and -300 KJ/mole respectively.
(2) H 3 PO2 Enthalpy of phase transition from
(3) H 3 PO3 monoclinic sulphur to rhombic sulphur
will be
(4) H 4 P2O5 (1) -20 KJ/mole
146. All the following reagents give ortho (or) (2) +20 KJ/mole
para (or) meta substituted products with (3) -2.5 KJ/mole
aniline except
(1) Br2 / H 2O (4) +2.5 KJ/mole

(2) Conc.HNO3 + Conc.H 2 SO4 PHYSICS

(3) Conc.H 2 SO4 453K SECTION – A
(4) CH 3COCl / pyridine 1
151. The dimensions of ε0E2 (ε0 =
147. Which of the following is not a basic 2
amino acid permittivity of free space ; E = electric
(1) Arginine
field ) is
(2) Phenyl alanine
(3) Lysine (1) MLT −1
(4) Histidine
(2) ML2T −2
(3) ML−1T −2
(4) ML2T −1
152. The number of the significant figures in
148. The following graph
correctly represents (first four elements in 1111.8 ×1011 is

a group) (1) 7

(1) IA (2) 5

(2) IIA (3) 9

(3) IIIA (4) 4

Sri Chaitanya Page 21

153. A body A starts from rest with an (2) 3
acceleration a1 . After 2 seconds, another
4
body B starts from rest with an (3)
3
acceleration a2 . If they travel equal
3
distances in the 5th second, after the start (4)
of A, then the ratio a1 : a2 is equal to 4

(1) 5:9 157. A weight lifter lifts 300 kg from the

(2) 5:7 ground to a height of 2 meter in 3 second.

(3) 9:5 The average power generated by him is

(4) 9:7 (1) 5880 watt

154. A particle P is moving in a circle of (2) 4410 watt

radius ‘a’ with a uniform speed v. C is the (3) 2205 watt

centre of the circle and AB is a diameter. (4) 1960 watt

When passing through B, the angular 158. Five particles each of mass 2 kg are

velocity of P about A and about C are in attached to the rim of a circular disc of

the ratio radius 0.1 m and negligible mass.

(1) 1:1 Moment of inertia of the system about the

(2) 1:2 axis passing through the centre of the disc

(3) 2:1 and perpendicular to its plane is

(4) 4:1 (1) 1 Kg − m 2

155. Swimming is possible on account of (2) 0.1 Kg − m 2
(1) Newton’s First law of motion (3) 2 Kg − m 2
(2) Newton’s Second law of motion
(4) 0.2 Kg − m 2
(3) Newton’s Third law of motion
159. Two particles move towards each other
(4) Newton's law of gravitation
from rest under a mutual force of
156. A body takes t1 seconds to slide down a
attraction. At the instant, when the speed
smooth inclined plane of 30o inclination
of A is V, the speed of B is V/2. The
with horizontal. It takes t2 seconds to
speed of centre of mass of the system is
slide down the plane if it is rough. If (1) 3V/4
t2 = 2t1 then find the coefficient of friction (2) V/2
of rough plane (3) 3V/2
3 (4) zero
(1)
4

Sri Chaitanya Page 22

160. The escape velocity from the surface of (2) 2π r 2T
earth is Ve . The escape velocity from the
(3) 12π r 2T
surface of a planet whose mass and radius
are 3 times those of the earth will be (4) 24π r 2T
(1) Ve 164. The apparent coefficient of expansion of
(2) 3 Ve a liquid when heated in a copper vessel is
C and when heated in a silver vessel is S.
(3) 9 Ve If A is the linear coefficient of expansion
(4) 27 Ve of copper, then the linear coefficient of
expansion of silver is
161. Statement (A): For a particle in linear
C + S − 3A
SHM, the average kinetic energy over a (1)
3
period of oscillation equals the average
C + 3A − S
potential energy over the same period. (2)
3
Statement (B): A man with a wristwatch
S + 3A − C
on his hand falls from the top of a tower. (3)
3
The watch looses time during the free C + S + 3A
fall. (4) 3
o o
(1) A is true , B is false 165. Hot water cools from 60 C to 50 C in
o
(2) A is false , B is true the first 10 minutes and to 42 C in the
(3) both A and B are true next 10 minutes. The temperature of the
(4) both A and B are false surrounding is
(1) 5o C
162. A ball falling in a lake of depth 200 m
shows 0.1 0 0 decrease in its volume at the (2) 10o C
bottom. What is the bulk modulus of the (3) 15o C
material of the ball
(4) 20o C
(1) 19.6 × 108 N / m2
166. A vessel contains a mixture of one mole
(2) 19.6 × 10−10 N / m 2 of oxygen and two moles of nitrogen at
300 K. The ratio of the average rotational
(3) 19.6 × 1010 N / m2
kinetic energy per O2 molecule to that
−8
(4) 19.6 × 10 N / m 2
per N 2 molecule is
163. Radius of a soap bubble is 'r', surface (1) 1 : 1
tension of soap solution is T. Then (2) 1 : 2
without increasing the temperature, how
(3) 2 : 1
much energy will be needed to double its
radius (4) Depends on the moments of inertia of
(1) 4π r 2T the two molecules

Sri Chaitanya Page 23

167. When two progressive waves of nearly 170. In Young’s double slit experiment, the
equal frequencies n1 , n2 superimpose then ratio of maximum to minimum intensities
of the fringe system is 4 : 1. The
List I List II amplitudes of the coherent sources are in
a)Resultant amplitude 1 the ratio
e)
n1 − n2 (1) 4 : 1
varies with frequency
(2) 3 : 1
b) Resultant wave n −n
f) 1 2
2 (3) 2 : 1
frequency
(4) 1 : 1
c)Time interval between 1
g) 171. Ultraviolet radiations of 6.2 eV falls on
two successive maximum 2 (n1 − n2 )
an aluminium surface (work function
of resultant wave 4.2 eV ). The kinetic energy in joules of
d)Time interval between n1 + n2 the fastest electron emitted is
h)
2 approximately
maxima and next minima
of the resultant wave (1) 3.2 × 10−21

2 (2) 3.2 × 10−19

i)
n1 − n2 (3) 3.2 × 10−17
(1) a-h,b-f,c-e,d-g (4) 3.2 × 10−15
(2) a-f,b-h,c-g,d-e
172. For the Bohr's first orbit of circumference
(3) a-f,b-h,c-e,d-g
2π r , the de-Broglie wavelength of
(4) a-h,b-e,c-f,d-i
revolving electron will be.
168. The minimum distance between the
(1) 2π r
object and its real image for concave
(2) π r
mirror of focal length f is
1
(1) f (3)
2π r
(2) 2f 1
(4)
(3) 4f 4π r
(4) zero 173. Which of the following transitions in a
169. The focal length of convex lens is 30 cm hydrogen atom emits photon of the
and the size of image is 1/4th of the
highest frequency
object, then the object distance is
(1) 30 cm (1) n = 2 to n = 1

(2) 40cm (2) n = 3 to n = 2

(3) 60 cm (3) n = 6 to n = 5

(4) 150 cm (4) n = 6 to n = 2

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174. The binding energies per nucleon for a
deuteron and an α − particle are x1 and x2
respectively. What will be the energy Q
released in the reaction
1 H 2 +1 H 2 →2 He 4 + Q
(1) C
(1) 4( x1 + x2 )
(2) 3C
(2) 4( x2 − x1 )
(3) C/3
(3) 2( x1 + x2 ) (4) 3C/2
(4) 2( x2 − x1 ) 178. In the figure a carbon resistor has bands
of different colours on its body as
175. In P-N junction, the barrier potential
mentioned in the figure. The value of the
offers resistance to resistance is
(1) Free electrons in N region and holes
in P region
(2) Free electrons in P region and holes in
N region
(3) Only free electrons in N region (1) 2.2 K Ω
(4) Only holes in P region
(2) 3.3K Ω
176. An electron and a proton are at a distance
(3) 5.6 K Ω
0
of 1 A . The moment of this dipole will be
(4) 9.1 K Ω
(in C-m)
179. In an experiment to measure the internal
(1) 1.6 × 10 19
resistance of a cell by potentiometer, it is
found that the balance point is at a length
(2) 1.6 × 10−29
of 2m when the cell is shunted by a 5Ω
(3) 3.2 × 1019 resistance; and is at a length of 3m when
the cell is shunted by a 10Ω resistance.
(4) 3.2 × 10−29
The internal resistance of the cell is, then
177. Three equal capacitors, each with
(1) 1 Ω
capacitance C are connected as shown in
(2) 10 Ω
figure. Then the equivalent capacitance
(3) 1.5 Ω
between A and B is
(4) 15 Ω

Sri Chaitanya Page 25

180. If a long hollow copper pipe carries a (3) π × 10−2V
direct current, the magnetic field (4) 2π × 10−2V
associated with the current will be 184. Statement (A): The alternating current
(1) Only inside the pipe lags behind the e.m.f. by a phase angle of
(2) Only outside the pipe π / 2 , when ac flows through an inductor.
(3) Neither inside nor outside the pipe Statement (B): A bulb connected in series
(4) Both inside and outside the pipe with a solenoid is connected to ac source.
181. A 2 MeV proton is moving perpendicular If a soft iron core is introduced in the
to a uniform magnetic field of 2.5 tesla. solenoid, the bulb will glow brighter.
The force on the proton is. Statement (C):The dc and ac both can be
−10
(1) 2.5 × 10 N measured by a hot wire instrument.
(2) 7.6 × 10−11 N (1) only A and Bare true
(2) only B and C are true
(3) 2.5 × 10−11 N
(3) only A and C are true
(4) 7.6 × 10−12 N
(4) all A ,B and C are true
182. At a certain place, the horizontal
185. The electromagnetic waves generally
component of earth's magnetic field is
used in the purification of water are
3 times the vertical component. The
angle of dip at that place is (1) X – rays
(1) 60° (2) Infrared rays
(2) 45° (3) Ultra violet rays
(3) 90° (4) Microwaves
(4) 30° SECTION - B
183. A copper disc of radius 0.1 m is rotated 186. A boy playing on the roof of a 10m high
about its centre with 10 revolutions per building throws a ball with a speed of 10
second in a uniform magnetic field of 0.1 m/s at an angle of 30o with the
Tesla with its plane perpendicular to the horizontal. How far from the throwing
field. The e.m.f. induced across the radius point will the ball be at the height of 10
of disc is m from the ground (g = 10 m/s2)
π (1) 8.66 m
(1) V
10 (2) 5.20 m
2π (3) 4.33 m
(2) V
10
(4) 2.60 m

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187. A man of mass m stands on a crate of
mass M. He pulls on a light rope passing
over a smooth light pulley. The other end
of the rope is attached to the crate. For the
system to be in equilibrium, the force
exerted by the man on the rope will be
(1) (M + m)g
1 (2) 1.0 0 0
(2) (M + m ) g
2 (3) 1.5 0 0
(3) Mg
(4) mg
188. A free body of mass 8 kg is travelling at 2
meter per second in a straight line. At a
certain instant, the body splits into two
equal parts due to internal explosion
which releases 16 joules of energy.
Neither part leaves the original line of
motion finally, then
(1) Both parts continue to move in the
same direction as that of the original body
(2) One part comes to rest and the other
moves in the same direction as that of the
original body
(3) One part comes to rest and the other
moves in the direction opposite to that of
the original body
(4) One part moves in the same direction
and the other in the direction opposite to
that of the original body
Sri Chaitanya Page 27
189. A horizontal heavy uniform bar of weight
W is supported at its ends by two men. At
the instant, one of the men lets go off his
end of the rod, the other feels the force on
his hand changed to
(1) W
(2) W/2
(3) W/4
(4) 3W/4
190. A satellite is launched into a circular orbit
of radius R around the earth. A second
satellite is launched into an orbit of radius
(1.01)R. The period of the second satellite
is larger than that of the first one by
approximately
(1) 0.5 0 0
(4) 3.0 0 0
191. The pans of a physical balance are in
equilibrium. Air is blown under the right
hand pan; then the right hand pan will
(1) Move up
(2) Move down
(3) Move erratically
(4) Remain at the same level
192. 1cm3 of water at its boiling point absorbs
540 calories of heat to become steam with
a volume of 1671cm3 .If the atmospheric
pressure = 1.013x105 N / m2 and the
mechanical equivalent of heat =
4.19 J / calorie , the energy spent in this
process in overcoming intermolecular
forces is
(1) 5400 cal
(2) 40 cal
(3) 500 cal
(4) zero
193. A whistle revolves in a circle with an (4) A is false but R is true
angular speed of 20 rad/sec using a string 197. Two spheres A and B of radius 4 cm and
of length 50 cm. If the frequency of 6 cm are given charges of 80 µ c and
sound from the whistle is 385 Hz, then
what is the frequency heard by an 40µ c respectively. If they are connected
observer, who is at the centre of the by a fine wire, the amount of charge
circle in the same plane ? (v = 340 m/s) flowing from one to the other is
(1) zero (1) 20 µ C from A to B
(2) 374 Hz (2) 16 µ C from A to B
(3) 385 Hz
(3) 32 µ C from B to A
(4) 394 Hz
(4) 32 µ C from A to B
194. If the focal length of objective and eye
lens are 1.2 cm and 3 cm respectively and 198. Find out the value of current through 2 Ω
the object is put 1.25 cm away from the resistance for the given circuit
objective lens and the final image is
formed at infinity. The magnifying power
of the microscope is
(1) 150
(2) 200
(3) 250 (1) 5A
(4) 400 (2) 4A
195. The half life period of a radioactive (3) 2A
element X is same as the mean life time (4) zero
of another radioactive element Y. Initially 199. A voltmeter has resistance of 2000 Ω and
both of them have the same number of it can measure upto 2V. If we want to
atoms. Then increase its range to 10 V, then the
(1) X and Y have the same decay rate required resistance in series will be
initially (1) 2000 Ω
(2) X and Y decay at the same rate (2) 4000 Ω
always (3) 6000 Ω
(3) Y will decay at a faster rate than X (4) 8000 Ω
initially 200. In the circuit shown in figure (neglecting
(4) X will decay at a faster rate than Y source resistance), the voltmeter and
initially ammeter reading will respectively, will be
196. Assertion: NAND (& NOR) gates are
called digital building blocks.
Reason: The repeated use of NAND (&
NOR) gates can produce all the basic or
complicated gates.
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is
correct explanation of A (1) 0V,3A
(2) Both A and R are true, and R is not (2) 150V,3A
the correct explanation of A (3) 150V,6A
(3) A is true but R is false (4) 0V,8A
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