IIT-JEE Main & Advanced | NEET | AIIMS | JIPMER | CET | VIT | BHU | BITSAT | MAHE | COMED-K

#326, 3rd ‘A’ Cross, Opp. – People Tree Hospital, Sheshadripuram College Road, Yelahanka New Town, Bangalore-560064, KARNATAKA

NEET (UG) – 2020

E5 – Question Paper with Key, Hints and Solutions
1. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are 5. Match the following columns and select the
examples of correct option
1) Adaptive radiation Column I Column II
2) Convergent evolution
a) Clostridium (i) Cyclosporin –
3) Industrial melanism
butylicum A
4) Natural selection
Ans. (2) b) Trichoderma (ii) Butyric acid
polysporum
Sol: Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are evolved
from different ancestors, which has different c) Monascus (iii) Gitric acid
anatomy but same function is called analogy purpureus
and belongs to Convergent evolution d) Aspergillus (iv) Blood
2. Name the plant growth regulator which niger cholesterol
upon spraying on sugarcane crop, lowering agent
increases the length of stem, thus
increasing the yield of sugarcane crop 1) a–iii,b–iv,c–ii,d–i
1) Cytokinin 2) a–ii,b–i,c–iv,d–iii
2) Gibberellin 3) a–i,b–ii,c–iv,d–iii
3) Ethylene 4) a–iv,b–iii,c–ii,d–i
4) Abscisic acid Ans. (2)
Ans.(2) Sol: Matching
Sol: Gibberlins are spraying on sugar cane crop, 6. The process responsible for facilitating loss
increases the length of stem, thus increasing of water in liquid form the tip of grass
the yield of sugar cane. blades at night and in early morning is
3. Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, 1) Transpiration
strychnine and caffeine are produced by 2) Root pressure
plants for their 3) Imbibition
1) Nutritive value 4) Plasmolysis
2) Growth response Ans. (2)
3) Defence action
Sol: The process responsible for facilitating loss of
4) Effect on reproduction H2O in liquid form from the tip of grass blades
Ans.(3) at night and in early morning is due to Root
Sol: Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, pressure
strychnine and caffeine are not involved in 7. Which of the following is not an inhibitory
growth and development, but plays an substance governing seed dormancy?
important role in defence, competition etc. 1) Gibberellic acid
4. The body of the ovule is fused within the 2) Abscisic acid
funicle at
3) Phenolic acid
1) Hilum
4) Para–ascorbic acid
2) Micropyle
Ans. (1)
3) Nucellus
4) Chalaza Sol: Effect of inhibitory substances can be removed
by subjecting the seeds to chilling
Ans. (1) conditions(or) by application of certain
Sol: The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle chemicals like Gibberellic acid and Nitrales
at Hilum

Registration started for CET/NEET/IIT–JEE Repeaters Course. Contact : 7676917777, 9513657041

NEET (UG) 2020 2 EXCEL ACADAMICS - Bangalore
8. Identify the incorrect statement 13. According to Robert May, the global
1) Heart wood does not conduct water but species diversity is about
gives mechanical support 1) 1.5 million 2) 20 million
2) Sapwood is involved in conduction of 3) 50 million 4) 7 million
water and minerals from root to leaf Ans. (4)
3) Sapwood is the innermost secondary Sol: According to Robert May, the global species
xylem and is lighter in colour diversity is about 7 million
4) Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils 14. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates
etc., heart wood is dark in colour the transfer of electrons from
Ans. (3) 1) PS–II to Cytb6f complex
Sol: The peripheral region of the secondary xylem is 2) Cytb6f complex to PS–I
lighter in colour and is known as the sap wood 3) PS–I to NADP+
9. Choose the correct pair from the following 4) PS–I to ATP synthase
1) Ligases – Join the two DNA Ans. (1)
molecules Sol: PS II to Cytb6f complex
2) Polymerases – Break the DNA 15. Match the following columns and select the
into fragments correct option
Column I Column II
3) Nulceases – Separate the two
strands of DNA a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave’s disease
4) Exonucleases – Make cuts at b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus
specific positions c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes
within DNA insipidus
Ans. (1) d) Pancreas (iv) Addision’s
Sol: Ligases– Joins the two DNA molecules disease
10. By which method was a new breed 1) a–iv,b–iii,c–i,d–ii 2) a–iii,b–ii,c–i,d–iv
‘Hisardale’ of sheep formed by using 3) a–iii,b–i,c–iv,d–ii 4) a–ii,b–i,c–iv,d–iii
Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams? Ans. (3)
1) Out crossing Sol: Matching
2) Mutational breeding 16. Which of the following statements are true
3) Cross breeding for the phylum–chordate?
4) Inbreeding a) In Urochordata notochord extends from
Ans. (3) head to tail and it is present throughout
their life
Sol: A new breed ‘Hisardale’ of sheep formed by
using Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams b) In Vertebrata notochord is present
developed by Cross breeding in Punjab. during the embryonic period only
11. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex c) Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow
occurs during d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla:
Hemichordata, Tunicata and Cephalo
1) Pachyten 2) Zygotene
chordata.
3) Diplotene 4) Leptotene
1) d and c 2) c and a
Ans. (3)
3) a and b 4) b and c
Sol: Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex Ans. (4)
occurs during Diplotene.
Sol: In Urochordata notochord present in tail of
12. Match the following diseases with the larva only.
causative organism and select the correct
Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla:
option
Tunicata,Cephalochordata and vertebrata
Column I Column II 17. Select the option including all secually
a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria transmitted diseases.
b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium 1) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
2) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella
3) AIDA, Malaria, Filaria
d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus 4) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
1) a–i,b–iii,c–ii,d–iv 2) a–iii,b–iv,c–i,d–ii Ans. (1)
3) a–ii,b–i,c–iii,d–iv 4) a–iv,b–i,c–ii,d–iii Sol: Gonorrhoea–Neisseria gonorrhea
Ans. (2) Syphilis – Treponema Palladium
Sol: Matching Gential herpes – Herpes simplex virus.

Registration started for CET/NEET/IIT–JEE Repeaters Course. Contact : 7676917777, 9513657041

NEET (UG) 2020 3 EXCEL ACADAMICS - Bangalore
18. Match the following columns and select the Sol: Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA
correct option ligases, Ligases is not related to restriction
Column I Column II enzymes.
a) Organ of (i) Connects middle 23. Experimental verification of the
Corti ear and pharynx chromosomal theory of inheritance was
b) Cochlea (ii) Coiled part of the done by
labyrinth 1) Mendel 2) Sutton
c) Eustachia (iii) Attached to the 3) Boveri 3) Morgan
n tube oval window Ans. (4)
d) Stapes (iv) Located on the Sol: Experimental verification of the chromosomal
basilar membrane theory of inheritance is given by Morgan.
1) a–ii,b–iii,c–i,d–iv 2) a–iii,b–i,c–iv,d–ii 24. Identify the correct statement with reference
3) a–iv,b–ii,c–i,d–iii 4) a–i,b–ii,c–iv,d–iii to human digestive system
Ans. (3) 1) Ileum opens into small intestine
Sol: Matching
2) Serosa is the innermost layer of the
19. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of alimentary canal
microvilli is found in
3) Ileum is a highly coiled part
1) Lining of intestine
2) Ducts of salivary glands 4) Vermiform appendix arises from
3) Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron duodenum
4) Eustachain tube Ans. (3)
Ans. (3) Sol: Ileum is the part of small intestine which is
Sol: Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli highly coiled.
is found in PCT involves in reabsorption. 25. Identify the wrong statement with referenve
20. Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood
to transport of oxygen groups
1) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is 1) The gene (I) has three alleles
mainly related to partial pressure of O2
2) A person will have only two of the
2) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere
three alleles.
with O2 binding with haemoglobin.
3) Higher H+ conc. In alveoli favours the 3) When IA and IB are present together,
formation of oxyhaemoglobin they express same type of sugar
4) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the 4) Allele ‘I’ does not produce any sugar
formation of oxyhaemoglobin Ans. (3)
Ans. (3)
Sol: When IA and IB are present together, they
Sol: The factors responsible for formation of oxy Hb express different type of sugar.
in alveoli are
26. Match the following columns and select the
High pO2, Low pCO2, Low H+, Low Temperature.
correct option
21. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from
1) Squamous epithelial cells Column I Column II
2) Columnar epithelial cells a) Floating (i) Locates
3) Chondrocytes Ribs between second
4) Compound epithelial cells and seventh ribs
Ans. (2)
b) Acromion (ii) Head of the
Sol: Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified
Humerus
columnar epithelium which secretes Mucus
22. Identify the wrong statement with regard to c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle
Restriction Enzymes
d) Glenoid (iv) Do not connect
1) Each restriction enzyme functions by cavity with the sternum
inspecting the length of a DNA
sequence 1) a–ii,b–iv,c–i,d–iii
2) They cut the strand of DNA at 2) a–i,b–iii,c–ii,d–iv
Palindromic sites 3) a–iii,b–ii,c–iv,d–i
3) They are useful in genetic engineering
4) a–iv,b–iii,c–i,d–ii
4) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA
ligases. Ans. (4)
Ans. (4) Sol: Matching

Registration started for CET/NEET/IIT–JEE Repeaters Course. Contact : 7676917777, 9513657041

NEET (UG) 2020 4 EXCEL ACADAMICS - Bangalore
27. The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by Groos primary productivity of an ecosystem is
nitrogenase in root nodules of leguminous the rate of production of organic matter during
plants is/are: photosystnesis.
1) Ammonia alone A considerable amount of GPP is utilized by
2) Nitrate alone plants in respiration.
3) Ammonia and oxygen GPP–R=NPP
4) Ammonia and hydrogen 31. Select the correct statement.
Ans. (4) 1) Glucocorticoids stimulate
Sol: Ammonia and hydrogen gluconeogenesis.
2) Glucagon is associated with
N2  8e  8H  16ATP  2NH3  H2  16ADP  Pi
hypogl;ycemia
28. Match the following columns and select the 3) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and
correct option adipocytes
Column I Column II 4) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia
a) Gregarious, (i) Asterias Ans.(1)
polyphagous pest Sol: Glucogon is hyperglycemic & Insulin is
b) Adult with radial (ii) Scorpion hypoglycemic hormone. Insulun acts on
symmetry and hepatocytes & adipocytes
larve with bilateral 32. Select the correct events that occur during
symmetry inspiration
c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana a) Contraction of diaphragm
b) Contraction of external inter–costal
d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta
muscles
1) a–i,b–iii,c–ii,d–iv 2) a–iv,b–i,c–ii,d–iii c) Pulmonary volume decreases
3) a–iii,b–ii,c–i,d–iv 4) a–ii,b–i,c–iii,d–iv d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases
Ans. (2) 1) a and b 2) c and d
Sol: Matching 3) a, b and d 4) Only d
29. Snow – blindness in Antartic region is due Ans. (1)
to
Sol: Pulmonary volume increases and intra
1) freezing of fluids in the eye by low pulmonary pressure decreases
temperature 33. Match the following columns and select the
2) Inflammation of cornea due to high dose correct option
of UV–B–radiation
Column I Column II
3) High reflection of light from snow
4) Damage to retina caused by infra–red a) Iron (i) Photolysis of water
rays b) Zinc (ii) Pollen germination
Ans. (2) c) Boron (iii) Required for
Sol: Snow blindness is due to absorption of UVB chlorophyll
radiation in high doses causes inflammation of biosynthesis
cornea, cataract and permanent damage to d) Manganese (iv) IAA biosynthesis
cornea.
30. In relation to Gross primary productivity 1) a–ii,b–i,c–iv,d–iii
and Net primary productivity of an 2) a–iv,b–iii,c–ii,d–i
ecosystem, which one of the following 3) a–iii,b–iv,c–ii,d–i
statements is correct? 4) a–iv,b–i,c–ii,d–iii
1) Gross primary productivity is always Ans.(3)
less than net primary productivity Sol: Matching
2) Gross primary productivity is always 34. In which of the following techniques, the
more than net primary productivity embryos are transferred to assist those
3) Gross primary productivity and Net females who cannot conceive?
primary productivity are one and same. 1) ZIFT and IUT 2) GIFT and ZIFT
4) There is no relationship between 3) ICSI and ZIFT 4) GIFT and ICSI
Gross primary productivity and Net Ans.(1)
primary productivity Sol: The transfer of embryos upto 8 blastomeres
Ans. (2) into fallopian tube is ZIFT and Embryos ,more
Sol: Gross primary productivity is always less than than 8 blastomeres into the uterus is IUT.
net primary productivity.

Registration started for CET/NEET/IIT–JEE Repeaters Course. Contact : 7676917777, 9513657041

NEET (UG) 2020 5 EXCEL ACADAMICS - Bangalore
35. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that 40. Match the following
enters the human body is Column I Column II
1) Trophozoites a) Inhibitor of catalytic (i) Ricin
2) Sporozoites activity
3) Female gametocytes b) Possess peptide bonds (ii) Malonate
4) Male gametocytes c) Cell wall material in fungi (iii) Chitin
Ans. (2) d) Secondary metabolite (iv) Collagen
Sol: Sporozoites are the infective stage of Choose the correct option from the following
plasmodium that enters the human body 1) a–ii,b–iv,c–iii,d–i 2) a–iii,b–i,c–iv,d–ii
through the mosquito bite. 3) a–iii,b–iv,c–i,d–ii 4) a–ii,b–iii,c–i,d–iv
36. Which of the following hormone levels will Ans.(1)
cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the Sol: Mathcing
graffian follicle? 41. The first phase of translation is
1) High concentration of Estrogen 1) Binding of mRNA to ribosome
2) High concentration of Progesterone 2) Reconginition of DNA molecule
3) Low concentration of LH 3) Aminoacylation of tRNA
4) Low concentration of FSH 4) Recognition of anti–codon
Ans. (1) Ans.(3)
Sol: In translation, The first phase itself amino acids
Sol: During ovulation the FSH, LH and Estrogens
are activated in the presence of ATP and linked
are in Maximum amount
to their congnate t–RNA a process commonly
37. Presence of which of the following called charging of t–RNA (or) amino acylation
conditions in urine are indicative of of t–RNA.
Diabetes Mellitus? 42. Identify the substances having glycosidic
1) Uremia and Ketonuria bond and peptide bond, respectively in their
2) Uremia and Renal Calculi structure
3) Ketonuria and Glycosuria 1) Chitin, cholesterol 2) Glycerol, trypsin
4) Renal Calculi and Hyperglycaemia 3) Cellulose, lecithin 4) Inulin, insulin
Ans.(4)
Ans. (3)
Sol: Inulin is a polysaccharide made up of fructose
Sol: Presence of ketone bodies in urine is ketonuria possess glycosidic bond where as insulin is a
and presence of glucose in urine is glycosuria.
proteinaceous hormone possess peptide bond
38. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of 43. Which of the following statements about
DNA helix during transcription inclusion bodies is incorrect?
1) DNA ligase 2) DNA helicase 1) They are not bound by any membrane
3) DNA polymerase 4) RNA polymerase 2) These are involves in ingestion of food
Ans.(4) particles
Sol: RNA polymerase facilitates opening of DNA 3) They lie free in the cytoplasm
helix during transcription. 4) These represent reserve material in cytoplasm
39. Match the trophic levels with their correct Ans.(2)
species examples in grassland ecosystem Sol: Inclusion bodies are not involved in ingestion of
food particles. Lysosomes involved in ingestion
Column I Column II of food particles.
a) Fourth trophic (i) Crow 44. Match the following columns and select the
level correct option
b) Second trophic (ii) Volture Column I Column II
level a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy
c) First trophic (iii) Rabbit b) Adenosine (ii) Cellular
level deaminase deficiency defence
d) Third trophic (iv) Grass c) RNAi (iii) Detection of
level HIV infection
d) PCR (iv) Bacillus
1) a–ii,b–iii,c–iv,d–i thuringiensis
2) a–iii,b–ii,c–i,d–iv 1) a–iv,b–i,c–ii,d–iii 2) a–iii,b–ii,c–i,d–iv
3) a–iv,b–iii,c–ii,d–i 3) a–ii,b–iii,c–iv,d–i 4) a–i,b–ii,c–iii,d–iv
4) a–i,b–ii,c–iii,d–iv Ans. (1)
Ans.(1) Sol: Matching
Sol: Matching

Registration started for CET/NEET/IIT–JEE Repeaters Course. Contact : 7676917777, 9513657041

NEET (UG) 2020 6 EXCEL ACADAMICS - Bangalore
45. Identify the correct statement with regard to 51. Strobili or cones are found in:
G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase 1) Salvinia 2) Pteris
1) DNA synthesis or replication takes place 3) Marchantia 4) Equisetum
2) Recorganisation of all cell components Ans. (4)
takes place. Sol: Equisetum (horse tail) has sporophylls which form
distinct compact structures called strobili or
3) Cell is metabolically active, grows but
cones.
does not replicate its DNA.
52. Which is the important site of formation of
4) Nuclear Division takes place glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic
Ans.(3) cells?
Sol: During G1 phase the cell is metabolically active 1) Endoplasmic reticulum
and continuously grows but does not replicate its 2) Peroxisomes
DNA. 3) Golgi bodies
46. Which of the following is put into anaerobic 4) Polysomes
sludge digester for further sewage treatment? Ans. (3)
1) Primary sludge Sol: Golgi apparatus is the important site of formation
2) Floating debris of glycoproteins and glycolipids.
3) Effluents of primary treatment 53. Which of the following is correct about
4) Activated sludge viroids?
Ans. (4) 1) They have RNA with protein coat.
2) They have free RNA without protein coat.
Sol: Activated sludge is taken to anaerobic sludge
digester here anaerobes act upon organic matter 3) They have DNA with protein coat
and produce biogas. 4) They have free DNA without protein coat.
47. Which of the following statements is correct? Ans. (2)
Sol: They have free RNA with low molecular weight
1) Adenine pairs with thymine through without protein coat.
two H – bonds. 54. The process of growth is maximum during:
2) Adenine pairs with thymine through 1) Log phase 2) Lag phase
one H – bonds. 3) Senescence 4) Dormancy
3) Adenine pairs with thymine through Ans. (1)
three H – bonds. Sol: Log phase/Exponential phase exhibits maximum
4) Adenine does not pair with thymine growth
Ans. (1) 55. Which of the following regions of the globe
Sol: A pairs with T through 2 hydrogen bonds exhibits highest species diversity?
48. The sequence that controls the copy number 1) Western Ghats of India
of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed: 2) Madagascar
1) Selectable marker 3) Himalayas
4) Amazon forests
2) Ori site
Ans. (4)
3) Palindromic sequence
Sol: Tropical rain forest and Amazon in south America
4) Recognition site possess maximum biodiversity with 40,000
Ans. (2) species of plants 3,000 species of fishes, 1,300
Sol: Ori site is the sequence specialized to initiate species of birds etc…
replication which determines high copy number 56. The number of substrate level
49. Select the correct match: phosphorylations in our turn of citric acid
cycle is:
1) Haemophilia - Y linked
1) Zero 2) One
2) Phenylketonuria - Autosomal dominant 3) Two 4) Three
trait Ans. (2)
3) Sickle cell - Autosomal recessive Sol: During conversion of succinyl – CoA to succinic
anaemia trait, chromosome–11 acid a molecule of GTP is synthesized.
4) Thalassemia - X linked 57. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is
Ans. (3) completed:
Sol: Sickle cell anaemia is autosomal recessive trait 1) Prior to ovulation
on chromosome - 11 2) At the time of copulation
50. Which of the following is not an attribute of a 3) After zygote formation
population? 4) At the time of fusion of a sperm with a ovum
1) Sex ratio 2) Natality Ans. (4)
3) Mortality 4) Species interaction Sol: Second Meiotic division by releasing secondary
Ans. (4) polar body is completed only during sperm
Sol: Species interaction is not an attribute of a penetration.
population.

Registration started for CET/NEET/IIT–JEE Repeaters Course. Contact : 7676917777, 9513657041

NEET (UG) 2020 7 EXCEL ACADAMICS - Bangalore
58. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular 64. Ray florets have:
algae? 1) Inferior ovary 2) Superior ovary
1) Laminaria and Sargassum 3) Hypogynous ovary4) Half inferior ovary
2) Gelidium and Gracilaria Ans. (1)
3) Anabaena and Volvox Sol: Ray florets of sunflower shows Epigynous
4) Chlorella and Spirulina condition / inferior ovary where other floral parts
Ans. (4) arise above the ovary.
Sol: Chlorella and spirulina (unicellular) are rich in 65. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme
proteins and as used as food supplements. in photorespiration leads to the formation of:
59. The QRS complex in a standard ECG 1) 2 molecules of 3 – C compound
represents: 2) 1 molecules of 3 – C compound
1) Repolarisation of auricles 3) 1 molecules of 6 – C compound
2) Depolarisation of auricles 4) 1 molecule of 4 – C compound and 1
3) Depolarisation of ventricles molecule of 2 – C compound
4) Repolarisation of ventricles Ans.(2)
Ans. (3) Sol: When RuBisCo acts as oxygenase in
Sol: QRS complex represents the depolarization of photorespiration the products formed are one
ventricles which initiates ventricular contraction. 2 C compound called phosphoglycolate and
60. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and one 3 C compound called phosphoglycerate.
enter vegetative inactive stage. This is called 66. The plant parts which consist of two
quiescent stage (G0). This process occurs at
generations-one within the other:
the end of:
(a) Pollen grains inside the anther
1) M phase 2) G1 phase
3) S phase 4) G2 phase (b) Germinated pollen grain with two male
Ans. (2) gametes
Sol: The quiescent stage (G0) occurs at the end of ‘G1’ (c) Seed inside the fruit
phase. (d) Embryo sac inside the ovule
61. Match the following with respect to meiosis: 1) (a) only
(a) Zygotene (i) Terminalization 2) (a), (b) and (c)
(b) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata 3) (c) and (d)
4) (a) and (d)
(c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over
Ans. (4)
(d) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis Sol: Statement (a) and (d) are correct.
Select the correct option from the following: 67. Match the following columns and select the
(a) (b) (c) (d) correct option
1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) Column – I Column - II
2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (a) Eosinophils (i) Immune response
3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (b) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis
4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (c) Neutrophils (iii) Release
Ans. (2) histaminases,
Sol: Zygotene – Synapsis destructive
enzymes
Pachytene – Crossing over
Diplotene – Chiasmata (d) Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules
Diakinesis - Terminalization containing
histamine
62. Which one of the following is the most
abundant protein in the animals? (a) (b) (c) (d)
1) Haemoglobin
1) (iii) (iv) (i) (i)
2) Collagen
2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
3) Lectin
4) Insulin 3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Ans. (2) 4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Sol: Collagen is the most abundant protein in animal Ans. (1)
world Sol: Eosinophils → Release histaminases, destructive
63. The ovary is half inferior in: enzymes
1) Brinjal 2) Mustard Basophils → Release granules containing
3) Sunflower 4) Plum histamine
Ans. (4) Neutrophils → Phagocytosis
Sol: The ovary is half inferior in plum, rose, peach Lymphocytes → Immune response
condition is Perigynous.

Registration started for CET/NEET/IIT–JEE Repeaters Course. Contact : 7676917777, 9513657041

NEET (UG) 2020 8 EXCEL ACADAMICS - Bangalore
68. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate Sol: 6-15 pairs of gill slits – Cyclostomes
animals are exemplified by: Heterocercal caudal fin – Chondrichthyes
1) Ctenophora 2) Platyhelminthes Air bladders – Osteichthyes
3) Aschelminthes 4) Annelida Poison sting – Trygon
Ans. (2) 73. Floridean starch has structure similar to:
Sol: Flatworms exhibits bilateral symmetry with 1) Starch and cellulose
acoelomate condition. 2) Amylopectin and glycogen
69. Identify the basic amino acid from the 3) Manittol and algin
following. 4) Laminarin and cellulose
1) Tyrosine 2) Glutamic acid Ans. (2)
3) Lysine 4) Valine Sol: Floridean starch the stored food of red algae is
Ans. (3) structurally similar to Amylopectin and glycogen
Sol: Lysine is the basic amino acid. 74. Which of the following statement is not correct?
70. Match the following columns and select the 1) In man insulin is synthesised as a proinsulin
correct option. 2) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called
C- peptide.
Column – I Column - II
3) The functional insulin has A and B chains
(a) Placenta (i) Androgens linked together by hydrogen bonds.
(b) Zona pellucida (ii) Human Chorionic 4) Genetically engineered insulin is product
Gonadotropin in E-coli
(hCG) Ans. (3)
(c) Bulbo – urethral (iii) Layer of the ovum Sol: It has disulphide bonds
glands 75. If head of cockroach is removed, it may live
(d) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the for few days because:
penis 1) the supra- oesophageal ganglia of the
cockroach are situated in ventral part of
(a) (b) (c) (d) abdomen.
1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) 2) the cockroach does a small not have
nervous system.
2) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
3) the head holds small proportion of a
3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) nervous system while the rest is situated
4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) along the ventral part of its body.
Ans. (4) 4) the head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system
Sol: Placenta → Human chorionic Gonadotropin while the rest is situated along the dorsal
(hCG) part of its body.
Zona pellucida → Layer of the ovum Ans. (3)
Bulbo – urethral glands → Lubrication of the Sol: Head has a bit proportion of a nervous system
penis while the rest is situated along ventral part of its
Leydig cells → Androgens body.
71. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the 76. The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion
introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus of:
thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to: 1) Protein into polypeptides
1) Insect pests 2) Fungal diseases 2) trypsinogen into trypsin
3) Plant nematodes 4) Insect predators 3) caseinogen into casein
Ans. (1) 4) pepsinogen into papsin
Sol: Bt cotton is resistant to insect pests Ans. (2)
72. Match the following columns and select the Sol: Enterokinase acts as an activator.
correct option. 77. The transverse section of a plant shows
Column –I Column – II following anatomical features:
a) Large number of scattered vascular
a 6-15 pairs of gill i Trygon
slits bundles surrounded by bundle sheath.
b) large conspicuous parenchymatous
b Heterocercal ii Cyclostomes
ground tissue.
caudal fin
c) Vascular bundle conjoint and closed
c Air bladders iii Chondrichthyes
d) Phloem parenchyma absent.
d Poison sting iv Osteichthyes
Identify the category of plant and its part:
a b c d 1) Monocotyledonous stem
1) ii iii iv i 2) Monocotyledonous root
2) iii iv i ii 3) Dicotyledonous stem
3) iv ii iii i 4) Dicotyledonous root
4) i iv iii ii Ans. (1)
Ans. (1) Sol: The given characters are of monocot stem.

Registration started for CET/NEET/IIT–JEE Repeaters Course. Contact : 7676917777, 9513657041

NEET (UG) 2020 9 EXCEL ACADAMICS - Bangalore
78. In water hyacinth and water lily pollination 83. From his experiments, S.L miller produced
takes place by: amino acids by mixing the following a closed
1) insects or wind 2) water currents only flask:
3) wind and water 4) insects and water 1) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 8000C
Ans. (1) 2) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 8000C
Sol: In water hyacinth and water lily pollination takes
place by insects or wind (Anemophily). 3) CH4, H2, NH3 and water at 6000 C
79. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA 0
fragments can visualized with the help of: 4) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600 C
1) Acetocarmine in bright blue light. Ans. (1)
2) Ethidium bromine in UV radiation Sol: CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapour at 800ºC in spark
3) Acetocarmine in UV radiation discharged apparatus.
4) Ethidium bromine in infrared radiation 84. Embryological support for evolution was
Ans. (2) disapproved by:
Sol: In gel electrophoresis separated DNA fragments 1) Karl Ernst von baer 2) Alfred Wallace
can be visualized with the help of Ethidium 3) Charles Darwin 4) Oparin
bromide in UV radiation.
Ans. (1)
80. How many true breeding pea plant varieties did
mendel select as pairs, which similar except in Sol: Embryological support for evolution was
one character with contrasting traits? disapproved by Karl Ernst Von Baer.
1) 4 2) 2 3) 14 4) 8 85. If the distance between two consecutive base
Ans. (3) pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base
Sol: Mendel selected 14 true breeding pea plant pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical
varieties as pairs which were similar except in mammalian cell is 6.6×109 bp, them the length
one character with contrasting traits. of the DNA is approximately:
81. Which of the following refer to correct 1) 2.0 meters 2) 2.5 meters
example(s) of organisms which have evolved 3) 2.2 meters 4) 2.7 meters
due changes in environment brought about by Ans. (3)
anthropogenic action?
Sol: 6.6 × 109 bp × 0.34 × 10–9 = 2.2 mts of DNA
a) Darwin’s fiches of Galapagos islands
length.
b) Herbicide resistant weeds.
c) Drug resistant eukaryotes. 86. Identify the wrong statement with reference to
d) Man-crated breed of domesticated animals immunity.
like dogs. 1) When exposed to antigen (living or dead)
1) only (a) 2) (a) and (c) antibodies are produces are produced in
3) (b), (c) and (d) 4) only (d) the host’s body, is called “ Active
Ans. (3) immunity”.
Sol: Anthropogenic action refers to human activities 2) When readymade antibodies are directly
which leads to evolution. given. It is called “passive immunity”.
82. Which the organism with use ion 3) Active immunity is quick and give full
biotechnology response.
a Bacillus i Cloning vectors 4) Foetus receives some antibodies from
thuringiensis mother, it is an example for passive
b Thermus aquaticus ii Construction of immunity.
first rDNA Ans. (3)
molecule Sol: Active immunity is slow and time lapse occurs for
c Agrobacterium iii DNA polymers its development.
d Salmonella iv cry proteins 87. The specific palindromic sequence which is
Select the correct option from the following: recognized by EcoRI is:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1) 5’ – GAATTC – 3’
1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) 3’ –GTTAAG – 5’
3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) 2) 5’ – GGAACC – 3’
4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) 3’ –CCTTGG – 5’
Ans. (2) 3) 5’ – CTTAAG – 3’
Sol: 3’ –GAARRC – 5’
a Bacillus i cry proteins 4) 5’ – GGATCC – 3’
thuringiensis
3’ –CCTAGG– 5’
b Thermus ii DNA polymers
aquaticus Ans. (1)
c Agrobacterium iii Cloning vectors Sol: ECORI recognizes palindromic sequence is
d Salmonella iv Construction of 5 ' GAATTC 3 '
first rDNA 3 ' CTTAAG 5'
molecule

Registration started for CET/NEET/IIT–JEE Repeaters Course. Contact : 7676917777, 9513657041

NEET (UG) 2020 10 EXCEL ACADAMICS - Bangalore
88. Which of the following would help in 94. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same
prevention of diuresis? material are slightly out of tune and produce
1) More water reabsorption due to under beats of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is
secretion of ADH slightly decreased, the beat frequency
+ increases to 7 Hz. If the frequency of A is 530
2) Reabsorption of Na and water from renal
tubules due to aldosterone Hz, the original frequency of B will be
3) Atrial natriuretic factor causes 1) 523 Hz 2) 524 Hz
vasoconstriction 3) 536 Hz 4) 537 Hz
4) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells Ans. (2)
Ans. (2) Sol: Initial no. of beats = 6
+
Sol: Reabsorption of Na and water from renal tubules  nB = 530 – 6 = 524 HZ
due to aldosterone decreases urine output. (or)
89. Montreal protocol was signed in1987 for
530 + 6 = 536 HZ
control of:
1) Transport of genetically modified When tension in ‘B’ is decreased, n  T
organisms from one country to another  Frequency of B–decreases
2) Emission of ozone depleting substances Since, new beat frequency in creased
3) Release of Green house gases  nB = 524 HZ
4) Disposal of e- wastes 95. A wire of length L, area of cross section A is
Ans. (2) hanging from a fixed support. The length of
Sol: Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control the wire changes to L1 when mass M is
of emission of ozone depleting substance. suspended from its free end. The expression
90. The roots that originate from the base of the for Young’s modulus is
stem are: MgL1 Mg(L1  L)
1) Fibrous roots 2) Primary roots 1) 2)
AL AL
3) Prop roots 4) Lateral roots
Ans. (1) MgL MgL
3) 4)
Sol: The roots originate from the base of the main AL1 A(L1  L)
stem is fibrous roots in monocots. Ans. (4)
91. The solids which have the negative Fl MgL
temperature coefficient of resistance are Sol: Young’s moduls Y  
Al A(L1  L)
1) Metals
96. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on
2) Insulators only
a non–reflecting surface at normal incidence
3) Semiconductors only having surface area 20 cm2. The energy
4) Insulators and semiconductor received by the surface during time span of 1
Ans. (4) minute is
Sol: Insulators and semiconductors having negative 1) 10 × 103 J
temperature co-efficient of resistance. 2) 12 × 103 J
92. A charged particle having drift velocity of 3
3) 24 × 10 J
7.5 × 10–4 m s–1 in an electric field of 3 × 10–10 4) 48 × 103 J
–1 2 –1 –1
Vm , has a mobility in m V s of
15 Ans. (3)
1) 2.25 × 10 2) 2.5 × 106
–6 Energy
3) 2.5 × 10 4) 2.25 × 10–15 Sol: Intensity =
Area  time
Ans. (2)
Energy = I At
Vd 7.5  10 4 4 –4 3
Sol: Mobility µ    2.5  106 m2 v 1s1 = 20 × 10 × 20 × 10 × 60 = 24 × 10 J
E 3  1010 97. The phase difference between displacement
93. For transistor action, which of the following and acceleration of a particle in a simple
statements is correct? harmonic motion is
1) Base, emitter and collector regions should 3
have same doping concentrations 1)  rad 2) rad
2
2) Base, emitter and collector regions should
have same size 
3) rad 4) Zero
3) Both emitter junction as well as the 2
collector junction are forward biased Ans. (1)
4) The base region must be very thin and Sol: Displacement y = A sin t …(i)
lightly doped Acceleration a = – A sin t
Ans. (4) a = A sin ( t –  ) ….(2)
Sol: The base region must be very thin and lightly
From (1) and (2) phase difference between
doped.
Displacement and acceleration is  radian

Registration started for CET/NEET/IIT–JEE Repeaters Course. Contact : 7676917777, 9513657041

NEET (UG) 2020 11 EXCEL ACADAMICS - Bangalore
98. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in D
water and water rises in it to a height h. The Sol: Fringe width  
d
mass of the water in the capillary is 5g.
Another capillary tube of radius 2r is D

immersed in water. The mass of water that d
will rise in this tube is 2 D2 d1
1) 2.5 g 2) 5.0 g  .
1 D1 d2
3) 10.0 g 4) 20.0 g
2 2D d
Ans. (3)  4
1 D d
hrdg 2
Sol: Surface tension S   
2
Ahrdg 2  4
S
2A  Fringe width come 4 times
mrg 101. Dimensions of stress are
S 1) [MLT –2] 2) [ML2T –2]
2r 2 0 –2
3) [ML T ] 4) [ML–1T –2]
mg
S Ans.(4)
2r
Force MLT 2
mr Sol: Stress =   ML1T 2
Area L2
m2 r2
  102. Find the torque about the origin when a force
m1 r1
of 3ˆjN acts on a particle whose position
m2 2r ˆ
 vector is 2km.
5 r
1) 6iˆ Nm 2) 6ˆj Nm
m2 = 10 g
99. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac 3) 6iˆ Nm 4) 6kˆ Nm
voltage source. When L is removed from the
Ans. (3)
circuit, the phase difference between current   
 Sol: Torque =   r  F
and voltage is . If instead C is removed 
3   2kˆ  3ˆj
from the circuit, the phase difference is again  ˆ m
  6iN

between current and voltage. The power 103. Which of the following graph represents the
3
variation of resistivity (  ) with temperature (T)
factor of the circuit is
1) Zero 2) 0.5 3) 1.0 4) – 1.0 for copper?
Ans. (3)
Sol: When ‘L’ removed
x 1)  2) 
tan   C
R
 X T T
tan  C …(1)
3 R
When ‘C’ removed
X 3)  4) 
tan   L
R
 X T T
tan  L …(2) Ans. (3)
3 R
Sol: The resistivity of copper wire varies with
from (1) and (2) XC = XL
temperature is parabolic in nature.
 Circuit is in resonance    0 
Power factor cos  = 1
100. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the
separation between coherent sources is
halved and the distance of the screen from the T
coherent sources is doubled, then the fringe 104. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure
width becomes of 249 kPa and temperature 27ºC
1) Double 2) Half Its density is : (R = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1)
3) Four times 4) One–fourth 1) 0.5 kg/m3 2) 0.2 kg/m3
3
Ans.(3) 3) 0.1 kg/m 4) 0.02 kg/m3

Registration started for CET/NEET/IIT–JEE Repeaters Course. Contact : 7676917777, 9513657041

NEET (UG) 2020 12 EXCEL ACADAMICS - Bangalore
Ans.(2) Ans. (2)
Sol: PV = nRT w´ mg´ ___
m R
PV = RT Sol: h
2
M w  mg  72N
m PM

V RT
PM R2 R2 gR2 4
d g´ = g  g   (g)
RT (R  h)2  R
2
9R2 9
105. The ratio of contributions made by the electric R  2  4
 
field and magnetic field components to the
intensity of an electromagnetic wave is : (c = 4  4 4
w´ = mg´ = m  g   (mg)  (72)  32N
speed of electromagnetic waves) 9  9 9
1) c : 1 2) 1 : 1 3) 1 : c 4) 1 : c2 110. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm
Ans.(2) and there are 50 divisions in its circular scale.
Sol: The ratio of contributions made by the electric The pitch of the screw gauge is
field and magnetic filed components to the 1) 0.01 mm 2) 0.25 mm
intensity of E.M wave is 1 : 1 3) 0.5 mm 4) 1.0 mm
106. For which one of the following, Bohr model is Ans.(3)
not valid?
pitch of screw gauge
1) Hydrogen atom Sol: L.C.=
no. of parts on circular scale
2) Singly ionised helium atom (He+)
3) Deuteron atom  Pitch of screw gauge = Least count × no. of
4) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+) parts on circular scale
Ans.(4) = (0.01 mm) (50) = 0.5 mm
111. The mean free path for a gas, with molecular
Sol: Bohr model of atom is applicable only for single
diameter d and number density n can be
electron atoms or ions
expressed as
hence it is not valid for singley ionized neon atom
(Ne+) 1 1
1) 2)
107. A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 2 nd 2 nd2
turns carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic
1 1
field at the centre of the solenoid is 3) 2 2
4)
2 n d 2 n2 2 d2
( 0  4 × 10–7 T m A–1)
Ans. (2)
1) 6.28 × 10–4 T 2) 3.14 × 10–4 T
–5 Sol: The mean free path
3) 6.28 × 10 T 4) 3.14 × 10–5 T
Ans. (1) 1

Sol: L = 50 cm = 50 × 10–2 m 2nd2
N = 100 turns n = number of molecules per unit volume
i  2.5 A d = diameter of the molecule
112. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a
Bcentre = ___
velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It
For long solenoid hits the ground after some time with a velocity
N –4 of 80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g = 10
Bcentre = µ0ni = µ0 i = 6.28 × 10 T
L m/s2)
108. The Brewsters angle ib for an interface should 1) 360 m 2) 340 m
be 3) 320 m 4) 300 m
1) 0º < ib < 30º 2) 30º < ib < 45º Ans.(4)
3) 45º < ib < 90º 4) ib = 90º u  20 m / s
Ans.(3) h
Sol: The brewsters angle îb for an interface should be
v  80 m / s
tan ib = µ Sol:
2
Since µ > 1 g = 10 m/s
 tan ib > 1 v2 – u2 = 2as
2 2
 45 < ib < 90°  (80) – (20) = 2(10) h
109. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the  6400 – 400 = 20 h
earth. What is the gravitational force on it, at  20 h = 6000
a height equal to half the radius of the earth? 6000
1) 48 N 2) 32 N h=  300 m
20
3) 30 N 4) 24 N

Registration started for CET/NEET/IIT–JEE Repeaters Course. Contact : 7676917777, 9513657041

NEET (UG) 2020 13 EXCEL ACADAMICS - Bangalore
3
113. In a certain region of space with volume 0.2 m ,
the electric potential is found to be 5 V 
Y  A B 
throughout. The magnitude of electric field in
this region is  A B
1) Zero 2) 0.5 N/C Y = A.B
3) 1 N/C 4) 5 N/C AND gate
Ans. (1)  Truth Table
A B Y
E 0 0 0
potential V  5V
Sol: 0 1 0
Volume = 0.2 m 3 1 0 0
potential in a volume constant 1 1 1
 it is hollow sphere 116. The energy required to break one bond in DNA
 inside hollow sphere is 10–20 J. This value in eV is nearly
intensity E = 0 1) 6 2) 0.6
114. The average thermal energy for a mono– 3) 0.06 4) 0.006
atomic gas is : (kB is Boltzmann constant and Ans. (3)
T, absolute temperature) –20
Sol: E = 10 J
1 3 5 7  1eV 
1) k B T 2) k B T 3) k B T 4) kBT E  10 20  (1 eV =1.6 × 10–19 J)
2 2 2 2 19 
 1.6  10 
Ans. (2)
 1 
Sol: The average thermal energy E  101  
 1.6 
1 
For a mono atomic gas = f  KB T  1
2  E (0.625)
10
1 
 3  KBT  E = 0.0625 eV
2  117. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg
3 respectively are attached to the two ends of a
KB T
2 rigid rod of length 1 m with negligible mass
(Since number of degrees of freedom for The centre of mass of the system from the 5
monatomic gas = f = 3) kg particle is nearly at a distance of
115. For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is 1) 33 cm 2) 50 cm
3) 67 cm 4) 80 cm
A
Ans. (3)
Y 5kg 10kg
B
Sol: (0,0) 1m
(1,0)
1) A B Y 2) A B Y
x1  0 x2  1
0 0 0 0 0 0
m1x1  m 2 x 2 5(0)  10(1)
0 1 0 0 1 1 Xcm  
m1  m2 5  10
1 0 0 1 0 1
10
1 1 1 1 1 1 =
15
= 0.67 m
3) A B Y 4) A B Y
Xcm  67cm
0 0 1 0 0 1
118. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a
0 1 1 0 1 0 charge of 3.2 × 10–7 C distributed uniformly.
1 0 1 1 0 0 What is the magnitude of electric field at a
point 15 cm from the centre of the sphere?
1 1 0 1 1 0
 1 
Ans. (1)   9  109 Nm2 / C2 
 4  0 
A 4
A 1) 1.28 × 10 N/C
Sol: 2) 1.28 × 10 N/C
5
Y
6
3) 1.28 × 10 N/C
B
B 4) 1.28 × 107 N/C
Ans. (2)

Registration started for CET/NEET/IIT–JEE Repeaters Course. Contact : 7676917777, 9513657041

NEET (UG) 2020 14 EXCEL ACADAMICS - Bangalore

   121. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are

  connected to each other via a stop cock. A
 R 10cm  E  ___ contains an ideal gas at standard temperature
Sol:
   and pressure. B is completely evacuated. The
  r  15 cm  15  10 2 m entire system is thermally insulated. The stop
  cock is suddenly opened. The process is
  
1) Isothermal 2) Adiabatic
q = 3.2 × 10–7 C 3) Isochoric 4) Isobaric
1 q Ans. (2)
E
4 0 r 2 Sol: The entire system thermally insulated and
3.2  10 7 process is quick process. So, it is adiabatic.
= 9  109  122. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to
(15  102 )2
the ends of a massless string. The string
9  3.2 6 passes over a pulley which is frictionless (see
=  106 = 0.128 × 10 figure). The acceleration of the system in
225
terms of acceleration due to gravity (g) is
= 1.28 × 105 N/C
119. Taking into account of the significant figures,
what is the value of 9.99 m – 0.0099 m?
1) 9.9801 m
2) 9.98 m 4kg
3) 9.980 m 6kg
4) 9.9 m 1) g 2) g/2 3) g/5 4) g/10
Ans. (2) Ans. (3)
Sol:  m  m2  64
Sol: a  g  1  = g 
9.99  m1  m2  64
0.0099
2 g
9.9801 = g=
10 5
= 9.980 123. An electron is accelerated from rest through a
= 9.98 potential difference of V volt. If the de Broglie
Out of given numbers the least number of wavelength of the electron is 1.227 × 10–2 nm,
decimals is 2. the potential difference is
Hence, the result should have two decimals. 1) 10 V 2) 102 V 3) 103 V 4) 104 V
120. A 40 F capacitor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Ans. (4)
Hz ac supply. The rms value of the current in 12.27Å
the circuit is, nearly Sol:  
V
1) 1.7 A 2) 2.05 A 235
124. When a uranium isotope 92 U is bombarded with
3) 2.5 A 4) 25.1 A
89
Ans. (3) a neutron, it generates 36 Kr, three neutrons and
144 91
C  40µF 1) 56 Ba 2) 40 Zr
101 103
3) 36 Kr 4) 36 Kr
Ans. (1)
Sol: 235 1 144 89 1
~
200V, 50Hz Sol: U  n  Ba Kr  3n
92 0 56 36 0

irms = __________ 125. The capacitance of a parallel palate capacitor

with air as medium is 6 F, with the
Vrms Vrms = 200 V introduction of a dielectric medium, the
irms = capacitance becomes 30 F. The permittivity
Xc 1
Xc  of the medium is ( 0 = 8.85 × 10–12 C2 N–1 m–2)
200 c
–13 2 –1 –2
= 1) 0.44 × 10 C N m
79.6 1
= 2) 1.77 × 10–12 C2 N–1 m–2
= 2.5 A 2nc –10 2 –1 –2
3) 0.44 × 10 C N m
1
= 4) 5.00 C2 N–1 m–2
2(3.14)(50)(40  106 ) Ans. (3)
103 Sol: C'  KC
=
12.56 
C´ C
Xc = 79.6  0

Registration started for CET/NEET/IIT–JEE Repeaters Course. Contact : 7676917777, 9513657041

NEET (UG) 2020 15 EXCEL ACADAMICS - Bangalore
126. The color code of a resistance is given below Ans. (2)
1 pcos 
Sol: V 
Yellow Violet Brown Gold
4 0 r 2
The values of resistance and tolerance, 131. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on
respectively are one surface of a small angle prism (with angle
of prism A) and emerges normally from the
1) 470 k , 5% 2) 47 k , 10%
opposite surface. If the refractive index of the
3) 4.7 k , 5% 4) 470  , 5% material of the prism is , then the angle of
Ans. (4) incidence is nearly equal to
Sol: 47 × 101 = (470 ± 5%)  A 2A A
1) 2) 3) A 4)
4 = yellow 2  2
7 = violet Ans. (3)
1
10 = brown sini1
5% = gold Sol:  
sinr1
127. A resistance wire connected in the left gap of
a metre bridge balances a 10  resistance in   A  r1  r2 
i  A r 0 
the right gap at a point which divides the  1
r1  1 
bridge wire in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of  A  r1 
the resistnace wire is 1.5 m, then the length of
1  of the resistance wire is i1

1) 1.0 × 10-2 m 2) 1.0 × 10-1 m A
3) 1.5 × 10-1 m 4) 1.5 × 10-2 m ∴ i1  A
Ans. (2) 132. The quantities of heat required to raise the
x 3 temperature of two solid copper spheres of
Sol: 
10 2 radii r1 and r2 (r1 = 1.5 r2) through 1 K are in the
ratio
X  15
L = 1.5 m 27 9 3 5
1) 2) 3) 4)
15  1.5m 8 4 2 3
Ans. (1)
1
1  1.5  = 1 × 10–1 m dQ1  r1 
3
15 27
Sol:   
128. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold dQ2  r2  8
frequency is incident on a photosensitive 133. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected
material. What will be the photoelectric current if to a magnetizing field of 1200 Am–1. The
the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled? permeability of the material of the rod is
1) Doubled 2) Four times ( 0  4 × 10–7 T mA–1)
3) One – fourth 4) Zero
1) 2.4  × 10–4 T mA–1
Ans. (4)
2) 8.0 × 10–5 T mA–1
Sol: After reducing the frequency to half, the new
frequency is less than threshold frequency. 3) 2.4  × 10–5 T mA–1
So no photoelectric effect. 4) 2.4  × 10–7 T mA–1
129. The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance Ans. (1)
is Sol: r  1  
16 13
1) 4.5 × 10 J 2) 4.5 × 10 J 
13
3) 1.5 × 10 J 4) 0.5 × 1013 J  (1  )
0
Ans. (2)
  0 (1   )
1
Sol: E = mc2 =  10 3  (3  108 )2
2   2.4  104 T mA–1
E = 4.5 × 1013 J 134. Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is
130. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of coming from a star. The limit of resolution of
16 × 10–9 Cm. The electric potential due to the telescope whose objective has a diameter is
dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from 2m is
the centre of the dipole, situated on a line 1) 3.66 × 10–7 rad 2) 1.83 × 10–7 rad
making an angle of 60º with the dipole axis is –7
3) 7.32 × 10 rad
–7
4) 6.00 × 10 rad
 1  Ans. (1)
  9  109 Nm2 / C2 
 40  Sol: d 
1.22
1) 50 V 2) 200 V a
–7
3) 400 V 4) Zero = 3.66 × 10 rad

Registration started for CET/NEET/IIT–JEE Repeaters Course. Contact : 7676917777, 9513657041

NEET (UG) 2020 16 EXCEL ACADAMICS - Bangalore
135. The increase in the width of the depletion 140. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives:
region in a p–n junction diode is due to 1) β – D – Glucose + α – D – Fructose
1) Forward bias only 2) α – D – Glucose + β – D – Glucose
2) Reverse bias only 3) α – D – Glucose + β – D – Fructose
3) Both forward bias and reverse bias 4) α – D – Fructose + β – D – Fructose
4) Increase in forward current Ans: (3)
Ans. (2) Sol: Sucrose is made up of
Sol: In “reverse bias” width of depletion layer   D  Glucos e and  D  Fructose
increases. 141. A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable
136. What is the change in oxidation number of than a secondary butyl carbocation because
carbon in the following reaction? of which of the following?
CH4 (g)  4Cl2 (g)  CCl4 (l)  4HCI(g) 1) – I effect of –CH3 group
1) +4 to +4 2) + R effect of –CH3 group
2) 0 to + 4 3) – R effect of –CH3 groups
4) Hyperconjugation
3) –4 to +4
Ans: (4)
4) 0 to –4
Sol. Tertiary butyl carbocation has more number of
Ans: (3) hyperconjugation structures than secondary butyl
Sol. CH4  4Cl2  CCl4  4HCl carbocation.
4 4
142. Identify the correct statement from the
137. Which of the following amine will give the following:
carbylamines test? 1) Wrought iron is impure iron with 4%
NH2 carbon.
2) Blister copper has blistered appearance
1) due to evolution of CO2
3) Vapour phase refining is carried out for
NHCH3 Nickel by Van Arkel method.
4) Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of
shapes.
2) Ans: (4)
Sol. Pig iron can be moulded into variety of shapes.
N(CH3 )2 143. Identify the incorrect match:
Name IUPAC Official Name
3) (a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium
(b) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium
NHC2H5 (c) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium
(d) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium
4) 1) (a), (i) 2) (b), (ii)
3) (c), (iii) 4) (d), (iv)
Ans: (1) Ans: (4)
Sol. Aromatic and Aliphatic 1º amines can give carbyl Sol. Darmstadtium – 110 (Ununnilium)
amine test 144. The number of Faradays (F) required to
138. The mixture which shows positive deviation produce 20g of calcium from molten CaCl2
-1
from Raoult’s law is (Atomic mass of Ca=40 g mol ) is:
1) Ethanol + Acetone 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
2) Benzene + Toluene Ans: (1)
3) Acetone + Chloroform Sol: Ca+2 + 2e–  Ca
4) Chloroethane + Bromoethane 2F  40 g
Ans: (1) 1F  20 g
Sol. Ethanol + Acetone shows the deviation from 145. An element has a body centered cubic (bcc)
Raoult’s law. structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The
139. An increase in the concentration of the atomic radius is:
reactants of a reaction leads to change in 3 2
1) activation energy 1)  288 pm 2)  288 pm
4 4
2) heat of reaction 4 4
3) threshold energy 3)  288 pm 4)  288 pm
3 2
4) collision frequency
Ans: (1)
Ans: (4)
Sol. Increase in concentration increases no. of 3
Sol. For B.C.C, r  a
molecules, so collision frequency increases. 4

Registration started for CET/NEET/IIT–JEE Repeaters Course. Contact : 7676917777, 9513657041

NEET (UG) 2020 17 EXCEL ACADAMICS - Bangalore
146. Reaction between benzalehyde and Ans: (1)
acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH is 0
Sol: G  RTlnK c
known as
1) Aldol condensation 
 8.314  300  ln 2  1013) 
2) Cannizzaro’s reaction 151. An alkene on ozonolysis give methanol as one
3) Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction of the product. Its structure is:
4) Cross Aldol condensation
CH  CH  CH3
Ans: (4)
Sol.
1)
O

CHO C  CH3 CH2  CH2  CH3
dil.NaOH
Cross aldol
  
condensation
having 2)
  hydrogen CH2  CH  CH2
147. Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.1 M
NaOH. Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH)2 3)
is 2 x 10–15.
1) 2 x 10–13M 2) 2 x 10–8 M C H2C H2C H 3
–13
3) 1 x 10 M 4) 1 x 108 M
Ans: (1)
Sol. Ni(OH)2    +2 4)
 Ni + 2OH
QSP = [Ni+2] [OH–]2 = 2 × 1015 Ans: (3)
[OH–] = 0.1 M Sol:
2 × 10–15 = [Ni+2] [OH–]2 CH2  CH  CH2 CH2  CHO
2 × 10–15 = [Ni+2] [10–1]2
2  1015 O3
   HCHO
[Ni2 ]   2  1013 M Zn / H2O
10 2 Methanol

148. For the reaction 2Cl(g)  Cl2 (g) , the correct 152. A mixture of N2 and Ar gases in a cylinder
contains 7g of N2 and 8g of Ar. If the total
option is pressure of the mixture of the gases in the
1) rH  0 and r S  0 cylinder is 27 bar, the partial pressure of N2 is:
2) rH  0 and r S  0 (Use atomic masses (in g mol-1): N =14,
Ar = 40)
3) rH  0 and r S  0 1) 9 bar 2) 12 bar
4) rH  0 and r S  0 3) 15 bar 4) 18 bar
Ans: (3)
Ans: (4)
Sol. No. of moles of N2
Sol. 2Cl(g)  Cl2 H  ve, S  ve 7 1
  mole = 0.25 mole
rH  0, r S  0 28 4
149. Which of the following is a basic amino acid? 8 1
No. of mole of Ar   mole = 0.2 mole
1) Serine 2) Alanine 40 5
3) Tyrosine 4) Lysine Partial pressure of N2 
Ans: (4)
Mole fraction of N2  P
Sol. Lysine is an example of basic amino acid. Total

150. Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the 0.25 0.25

following reaction.  x27  x27
0.25  0.2 0.45 =15 atm
Sucrose + H2 O  Glucose + Fructose 153. Match the following and identify the correct
If the equilibrium constant (Kc) is 2  1013 at option:
0 (a) CO(g)  H2 (g)
300K, the value of r G at the same
(b) Temporary hardness of water
temperature will be:
(c) B2H6
1) 8.314Jmol1K 1  300K  ln  2  1013 
(d) H2 O2
2)  
8.314Jmol1K 1  300K  ln 2  1013
(i) Mg HCO3 2  Ca HCO 3 2
3) 8.314Jmol K  300K  ln  3  10 
1 1 13
(ii) An electron deficient hydride
4) 8.314Jmol K  300K  ln  4  10 
1 1 13 (iii) Synthesis gas
(iv) Non-planar structure

Registration started for CET/NEET/IIT–JEE Repeaters Course. Contact : 7676917777, 9513657041

NEET (UG) 2020 18 EXCEL ACADAMICS - Bangalore
(a) (b) (c) (d) Sol.
alc.KOH
1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) CH3  C H  CH2  CH2  CH3   HBr

|
2) (iiii) (ii) (i) (iv) Br 2 Bromo pen tan e
3) (iiii) (iv) (ii) (i) CH3  CH  CH  CH2  CH3
4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) Pen  2  ene(major )
(saytzeff ' s rule)
Ans: (1)
Sol. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), c-(ii), d-(iv) It is a  – elimination reaction
(a) CO(g)  H2 (g) If follow saytzeff (zaitsev’s rule)
(b) Temporary hardness of water It is a dehydrohyalogenation reaction.
(c) B2H6 157. Paper chromatography is an example of:
1) Adsorption chromatography
(d) H2 O2
2) Partition chromatography
(iii) Synthesis gas 3) Thin layer chromatography
(i) Mg HCO3 2  Ca HCO 3 2 4) Column chromatography
(ii) An electron deficient hydride Ans: (2)
(iv) Non-planar structure Sol. Paper chromatograph is an example of partition
154. The following metal ion activates many chromatography.
enzymes, participates in oxidation of glucose 158. The correct option for free expansion of an
to produce ATP and with Na, is responsible ideal gas under adiabatic condition is:
for the transmission of nerve signals. 1) q  0, T  0 and w  0
1) Iron
2) Copper 2) q  0, T  0 and w  0
3) Calcium 3) q  0, T  0 and w  0
4) Potassium
Ans: (4) 4) q  0, T  0 and w  0
Sol. Potassium activates many enzymes and Ans: (1)
participates in oxidation of glucose to produce
Sol. q = 0 ∆ T = 0 and w = 0
ATP.
159. Which of the following set of molecules will
155. Match the following:
have zero dipole moment?
Oxide Nature
1) Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,4-
(a) CO (i) Basic
dichlorobenzene
(b) BaO (ii) Neutral
2) Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride,
(c) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic carbon dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
(d) Cl2 O7 (iv) Amphoteric 3) Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
Which of the following is correct option? water, 1,3-drichlorobenzene
(a) (b) (c) (d) 4) Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) Ans: (4)
3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) Sol. BF3, BeF2, CO2 1, 4 dichlorobenzene are
4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) symmetrical. Hence they have zero
Ans: (2) dipolemoment.
Sol. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) 160. The number of protons, neurons and
175
a) CO (ii) Neutral electrons in 71 Lu , respectively, are:
b) BaO (i) Basic 1) 71, 104 and 71
c) Al2O3 (iv) Amphoteric 2) 104, 71 and 71
3) 71, 71 and 104
d) Cl2O7 (iii) Acidic
4) 175, 104 and 71
156. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to
Ans: (1)
form pent-2-ene is
175
(a)  -Elimination reaction Sol. 71 Lu
Atomic No. (Z) = 71
(b) Follows Zaitsev rule
(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction Mass No. (A) = 175
Number of electrons = Number of protons =
(d) Dehydration reaction
Atomic number
1) (a), (b), (c)
Number of neutrons = Mass number – Atomic
2) (a), (c), (d) number
3) (b), (c), (d)
∴ 175
71 Lu Has 71 protons, 104 neutrons and 71
4) (a), (b), (d)
electrons.
Ans: (1)

Registration started for CET/NEET/IIT–JEE Repeaters Course. Contact : 7676917777, 9513657041

NEET (UG) 2020 19 EXCEL ACADAMICS - Bangalore
161. On electrolysis of dil. sulphuric acid using Cl
Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained CH
CH3 CHO
at anode will be: Cl
1) Hydrogen gas 2) Oxygen gas
3) H2 S gas 4) SO2 gas Sol. Cl2 / hv
 
H2O

373K

Ans: (2)
Sol. Dissociation of sulphuric acid 165. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives:

H2SO 4  2H(aq)  SO24(aq)

OH I
Dissociation of water
 
H2O  H(aq)  OH(aq) 1) CH3I 2) CH3 OH
 
At anode : 4OH (aq)  2H2O(  )  O2(g)  4e OH I
162. Identify the correct statements form the
following:
3) C2H5I 4) C2H5 OH
(a) CO2 (g) is used as refrigerant for ice-
cream and frozen food. Ans: (1)
(b) The structure of C 60 contains twelve six OCH3 OH
carbon rings and twenty-five carbon gas.
(c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert HI CH3I
alcoholis into gasoline. Sol.
(d) CO is colorless and odourless gas. Anisole Phenol. Methyl iodide
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only 166. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of
(2) (a) and (c) only benzene is 5.12 K kg mol–1. The freezing
point depression for the solution of molality
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (c) and (d) only
0.078 m containing a non – electrolyte in
Ans: (4)
benzene is (rounded off upto two decimal
Sol. ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert places):
alcoholis into gasoline.
1) 0.20 K 2) 0.80 K
CO is colorless and odourless gas
3) 0.40 K 4) 0.60 K
163. Urea reacts with water to form A which will
Ans: (3)
decompose to form B. B when passed
through Cu2+(aq), deep blue colour solution C Sol. Kf = 5.12 k Kg /mol, m = 0.078
is formed. What is the formula of C from the ∆Tf = Kf ×m
following? = 5.12 × 0.078
1) CuSO4 2) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ = 0.39936
3) Cu(OH)2 4) CuCO3 . Cu(OH)2  0.40K
Ans: (2) (Rounded of upto two decimal places)
NH2 CONH2  2H2O (NH4 )2 CO3 167. Reaction between acetone and
Ammonium corbonate methylmagnesium chloride followed by
(A )
Sol. hydrolysis will give:
1) Isopropyl alcohol
2NH3  H2 O CO 2
Ammonia water 2) See, butyl alcohol
(B)
Cu2   4NH3  [Cu(NH3 )4 ]2  3) Tert, butyl alcohol
deep blue 4) Isobutyl alcohol
164. Identify compound X in the following Ans: (3)
sequence of reactions: CH CH3 OMgCl
3
CH3 CHO
C  O CH3MgCl  CH3 C
CH3
CH3
Cl2 / hv
  H2O
 X   H2 O
373K
Sol. CH3
Cl CH2 Cl
CH3 C  OH
CH3
1) 2)
168. The rate constant for a first order reaction is
–1
CHCl2 CCl3 4.606 × 10–3 s . The time required to reduce
2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is
1) 100s 2) 200s
3) 4) 3) 500s 4) 1000s
Ans: (3)
Ans: (3)

Registration started for CET/NEET/IIT–JEE Repeaters Course. Contact : 7676917777, 9513657041

NEET (UG) 2020 20 EXCEL ACADAMICS - Bangalore

2.303  a  Sol.   n(n  2) BM

Sol. K  log10  
t ax Cr 2   [Ar]4s0 3d4
2.303  2.0  n =4
4.606  103  log10  
t  0.2    4(4  2)  24  4.90 BM
3 1  20 
2  10  log10   175. Which of the following alkane cannot be made
t  2  in good yield by Wurtz reaction?
1 1000 1) n – Hexane
t   500 sec
2  10 3 2 2) 2, 3, – Dimethylbutane
169. HCI was passed through a solution of CaCl2, 3) n– Heptane
MgCl2 and NaCl. Which of the following 4) n – Butane
compound (s) crystallize? Ans: (3)
1) Both MgCl2 and CaCl2 Sol. Un symmetrical alkane give less yield.
2) Only NaCl 176. Which one of the following has maximum
3) Only MgCl2 number of atoms?
4) NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2 1) 1g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108]
Ans: (2) 2) 1g of Mg(s)[Atomic mass of Mg = 24]
Sol. Only NaCl, due to common ion effect. 3) 1g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O = 16]
170. Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has 4) 1g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7]
–O–O– linkage?
Ans: (4)
1) H2SO3, sulphurous acid
1
2) H2SO4, sulphuric acid Sol. No of atoms   NA = 0.142 NA
3) H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid 7
4) H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid 1
1.  NA = 0.009 NA
Ans: (3) 108
Sol. – O – O linkage H2S2O8 1
2.  NA = 0.041 NA
O O 24
|| ||
HO  S  O  O  S  OH 1 1
|| || 3.  2  NA  NA  0.0625NA
O O 32 10
171. Which of the following is a natural polymer? 177. Identify the incorrect statement.
1) cis – 1, 4 – polyisoprene 1) Cr2+(d4) is a stronger reducing agent than
2) poly (Butadiene – styrene) Fe2+(d6) in water
3) polybutadiene 2) The transition metals and their compounds
4) poly(Butadiene – acrylonitrile) are known for their catalytic activity due to
their ability to adopt multiple oxidation
Ans: (1)
states and to form complexes.
Sol. Natural rubber– cis –1, 4, – poly isoprene
3) Interstitial compounds are those that are
172. Identify a molecule which does not exist formed when small atoms like H, C or N
1) He2 2) Li2 are trapped inside the crystal lattices of
3) C2 4) O2 metals.
Ans: (1) 4) The oxidation states of chromium CrO24 
Sol. He2 molecule does not exist. Bond order is zero.
and Cr2 O72  are not the same
BMO  ABMO
He2 = 4 1s2  * 1s2 B.O  Ans: (4)
2
Sol. CrO42 oxidation state = 6
22
 0
2 Cr2 O72 oxidation state = 6
173. Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining 178. Which of the following is the correct order of
which property of colloidal solution? increasing field strength of ligands to form
1) Viscosity coordination compounds?
2) Solubility 1) SCN– < F– < C2 O42  < CN–
3) Stability of the colloidal particles – – –
2) SCN < F < CN < C2 O42 
4) Size of the colloidal particles
Ans: (3) 3) F– < SCN– < C2 O42  < CN–
Sol. Stability of colloidal particle. 4) CN–< C2 O42  SCN– < F–
174. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Ans: (1)
Cr2+ ion is: Sol. As per spectro chemical series
1) 3.87 BM 2) 4.90 BM SCN– < F– < C2 O42  < CN–
3) 5.92 BM 4) 2.84 BM
Ans: (2)

Registration started for CET/NEET/IIT–JEE Repeaters Course. Contact : 7676917777, 9513657041

NEET (UG) 2020
179. Which of the following is a cationic detergent?
1) Sodium lauryl sulphate
2) Sodium stearate
3) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
4) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
Ans: (3)
Sol. Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
180. Which of the following is not correct about
carbon monoxide?
1) It forms carboxyhaemoglobin
Registration started for CET/NEET/IIT–JEE Repeaters Course. Contact : 7676917777, 9513657041
21 EXCEL ACADAMICS - Bangalore
2) It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood
3) The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin
bound to CO) is less stable than
oxyhaemoglobin
4) It is produced due to incomplete
combustion
Ans: (3)
Sol. The carboxyhaemoglobin forms stable complex
than oxyhaemoglobin