Name : sakshi Talmale

Subject : Environment Engineering

Roll no :15

Unite : 1

1. The average quantity of water (in lpcd) required for domestic purposes according to IS code is
________

a) 100

b) 120

c) 70

d) 135

View Answer

Answer: d

2. The average consumption of water required in factories in lpcd is ___________

a) 10-15 Ho ,

b) 20-30

c) 30-45

d) 70-80

View Answer

Answer: c

3. In which type of water demand, minimum average consumption of water takes place?

a) Domestic water demand

b) Industrial water demand

c) Institutional and commercial water demand

d) Fire demand

View Answer

Answer: d

4. What is the minimum water pressure available at fire hydrants?

a) 80-100kN/m²

b) 100-150kN/m²

c) 40-60kN/m²

d) 150-200kN/m²

View Answer

Answer: b

5. Match list 1(calculation of fire demand) with list 2 (formulae) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below.

List 1 List 2

A. Kuchling’s Formula 1) Q = 3182√P

B. Freeman’s Formula 2) Q = 1136[P/5 +10]

C. Buston’s Formula 3) Q = 5663√P

D. Central Congested High Value City 4) Q = 4637√P[1-.01√P

Where Q = quantity of water, P = population in thousands

CODE

A B C D

a) 1 2 3 4

b) 2 3 4  1
c) 2 1 4 3

d) 1 2 4 3

View Answer

Answer: a

6. What is the fire demand of the city of 1lakh population by Buston’s formula?

a) 5663

b) 56630

c) 566300

d) 5663000

View Answer

Answer: b

7. Water lost in theft and waste contributes to how much % of total consumption?

a) 5

b) 10

c) 15

d) 20

View Answer

Answer: c

8.Which is the correct statement regarding per capita demand?

a) Daily water required by an individual

b) Water required for various purposes by a person

c) Water required by an individual in a year

d) Annual average amount of daily water required by one person

View Answer
Answer: d

9. What are the factors affecting per capita demand?

a) Size of city

b) Size of city, habit of people

c) Cost of water, quality of water, size of city

d) Cost of water, quality of water, size of city, habit of people

View Answer

Answer: d

10. Which of the following statement is correct?

a) Rich class consumes less water

b) Intermittent water supplies leads to less water consumption

c) Loss of water is more if the pressure in the distribution system is less

d) Water consumption is less in flush system

View Answer

Answer: b

11. If the annual average hourly demand of the city is 10000m3, what is the maximum hourly
consumption?

a) 2700 m3

b) 27000 m3

c) 270000 m3

d) 2700000 m3

View Answer

Answer: a

12. If in a city, the maximum daily draft is 25MLD, fire draft is 35MLD and maximum hourly draft is
40MLD, what is the coincident draft?

a) 60MLD
b) 40MLD

c) 25MLD

d) 35MLD

View Answer

Answer: a

13. What is the design period for the water treatment unit?

a) 10 years

b) 15 years

c) 20 years

d) 30 years

View Answer

Answer: b

14. What is the design discharge for intake structures?

a) Maximum daily demand

b) Maximum hourly demand

c) Maximum weekly demand

d) Average daily demand

View Answer

Answer: a

15. In which of the following units, design period is maximized?

a) Distribution system

b) Demand reservoir

c) Water treatment unit

d) Pipe mains

View Answer
Answer: b

16. In which method of population forecasting, increase in population from decade to decade is
assumed constant?

a) Arithmetical increase method

b) Geometrical increase method

c) Incremental increase method

d) Decreased rate of growth method

View Answer :a

16.What is the expression used for population forecasting by the arithmetical increase method?

a) PO (1 + R/100)n

b) PO + n*x

c) PO + n*x + ( n(n+1)/2 )*y

d) PO – n*x

View Answer : b

17. In which method of population forecast, percentage increase in population from decade to decade is
assumed constant?

a) Arithmetical increase method

b) Geometrical increase method

c) Incremental increase method

d) Decreased rate of growth method

View Answer :b

18. What is the expression used for population forecasting by the geometrical increase method?

a) PO (1 + R/100)n

b) PO + n*x

c) PO + n*x + (n (n+1) /2) *y

d) PO – n*x

View Answer :a

19. Which method of population forecast combines both arithmetical increase and geometrical increase
method?

a) Arithmetical increase method

b) Geometrical increase method

c) Incremental increase method

d) Decreased rate of growth method

View Answer:c

20. What is the expression used for population forecasting by the incremental increase method?

a) PO (1 + R/100)n

b) PO + n*x

c) PO + n*x + (n (n+1) /2) *y

d) PO – n*x

View Answer:c

21. Logistic method is also called as _______

a) Arithmetical increase method

b) Geometrical increase method

c) Incremental increase method

d) Decreased rate of growth method

View Answer:d

22. Consider the following statements.

i. The arithmetical increase method is suitable for new cities

ii. The decreasing growth rate method is used where the rate of growth shows a downward pattern

iii. The geometrical increase method is used for older cities

Which of the following above statements is/are correct?

a) I, ii, iii

b) I and iii

c) Only ii

d) ii and iii

View Answer: c

23. Which method is suitable if the growth rate is decreasing and the population is reaching towards
saturation?

a) Arithmetical increase method

b) Graphical comparison method

c) Zoning method

d) Decreased rate of growth method

View Answer:d

24. Which method of population forecast is suitable when extension is required for small duration and
past record is available for long duration?

a) Graphical comparison method

b) Graphical extension method

c) Logistic curve method

d) Zoning method

View Answer:b

25. The size of suspended solids lies in the range of ________

a) 10-3 – 10-6 mm

b) 103 – 106 mm

c) 10-1 – 10-3 mm

d) 101 – 103 mm

View Answer: c

26. Suspended solids are measured by which of the following?

a) Turbidity rod

b) Gravimetric test

c) Chromatography

d) Jackson’s turbidity meter

View Answer : b

27. The maximum permissible limit for suspended solids is ____________

a) 10 mg/l

b) 20 mg/l

c) 30 mg/l

d) 40 mg/l

View Answer: c
28. Identify the correct relation between the following?

a) Dissolved solid = Total solid + Suspended solid

b) Dissolved solid = Total solid – Suspended solid

c) Total solid = Dissolved solid / Suspended solid

d) Dissolved solid = Suspended solid – Total solid

View Answer : b

29. Which method is used to measure the color of water?

a) Gravimetric analysis

b) Chromatography

c) Tintometer method

d) Hydrometer analysis

View Answer: c

30. 1 TCU (True Color Unit) is equivalent to _____

a) The color produced by 1 g of platinum cobalt

b) The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt

c) The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt in 1L of distilled water

d) The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt in 1mL of distilled water

View Answer:c

31. The range for threshold odour number is __________

a) 0-3

b) 1-5

c) 1-3

d) 0-5

View Answer:c

32. Threshold odour number testing is preferred in hot water.

a) True

b) False

View Answer:b

33. One JTU is equivalent to turbidity produced by __________

a) 1mg of fine silica dissolved in 1L of distilled water

b) 1g of fine silica dissolved in 1L of distilled water

c) 1g of fine silica dissolved in 1ml of distilled water

d) 1mg of fine silica dissolved in 1ml of distilled water

View Answer:a

34. If the PO value is 6, what does it imply?

a) No perceptible odour

b) Very faint odour

c) Very distinct odour

d) Extremely strong odour

View Answer:d

35. The range of temperature of water that is required to do the temperature test is __________

a) 10-250C

b) 0-250C

c) 10-300C

d) 20-300C

View Answer: a

36. What is the full form of NTU in context with turbidity?

a) Number of transfer unit

b) Neurological turbidity unit

c) Nephelometric turbidity unit

d) Network terminal unit

View Answer: c

37. When depth of insertion of turbidity rod increases, the reading in the turbidity rod ___

a) Decreases

b) Increases

c) First decrease, then increase

d) Remains constant

View Answer:a
38. Chlorides are estimated by titration with a standard silver nitrate solution by using _______ as an
indicator.

a) Potassium manganate

b) Potassium chloride

c) Potassium chromate

d) Potassium dichromate

View Answer:c

39. Carbonate hardness can be removed by adding lime to water.

a) True

b) False

View Answer:a

40. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding permanent hardness?

a) It is also called carbonate hardness

b) It is due to the presence of sulfates, chlorides and nitrates of calcium and magnesium

c) It cannot be removed by boiling

d) It requires special methods of water softening to get removed

View Answer:a

41. One degree of hardness is equivalent to ___ ppm.

a) 2

b) 1

c) 10

d) 100

View Answer: b

42. What can be filled in place of the question mark in the following table?

Degree of hardness Nature of water

1 Extremely soft water

2 Very soft water

3 Soft water
9 ?

a) Excessive hard water

b) Reasonably soft water

c) Very hard water

d) Hard water

View Answer:d

43. In which method of determining total hardness of water is based on the premise that hardness
producing substance react with soap and form insoluble compounds before lather is produced?

a) Clark’s method

b) Hehner’s method

c) Versenate method

d) EDTA method

View Answer:a

44. What is the indicator used in EDTA method?

a) Potassium chromate

b) Potassium dichromate

c) Potassium chloride

d) Erio chrome, black T

View Answer:d

45. The permissible limit of pH preferred for potable water is ___ ppm.

a) 6.5-9

b) 7-8.5

c) 10-14

d) 0-7

View Answer:a

46. Given list 1 and list 2, find which of the following pair is correctly matched?

List 1 (Chemical substance) List 2 (Permissible limit in ppm)

A. Lead 1. 0.05
B. Phenol 2. 0.001

C. Zinc 3. 0.01

D. Chromium 4. 5

5. 0.2

a) A-5

b) B-3

c) C-4

d) D-2

View Answer: c

47. What is the concentration of H+ ions in moles/L in water if the pOH value is 6?

a) 10-6

b) 10-7

c) 10-8

d) 10-9

View Answer:c

48. Which type of bacteria has a rod shaped structure?

a) Bacilli

b) Cocci

c) Spirilla

d) Vibrio

View Answer:a

49. ________ represents the bacterial density that is most likely to be present in water.

a) BOD

b) COD

c) MPN

d) Coliform index

View Answer:c

50. Which of the following is a better test to identify Coliforms?

a) Coliform index

b) Multiple tube fermentation

c) MPN test

d) Membrane filter technique

View Answer: d

Unite : 2

1. When impurities are separated by the gravitation of settling particles, the operation is called _____

a) Sedimentation with coagulant

b) Plain sedimentation

c) Secondary sedimentation

d) Disinfection

View Answer :b

2. In which type of settling, sedimentation of discrete particles takes place?

a) Zone settling

b) Compression settling

c) Hindered settling

d) Discrete settling

View Answer: d

3. In which settling type, dilute suspension of particles takes place?

a) Zone settling

b) Compression settling

c) Hindered settling

d) Discrete settling

View Answer: c

4. In which type of sedimentation, flocculent suspension of intermediate concentration takes place?

a) Type I sedimentation
b) Type II sedimentation

c) Type III sedimentation

d) Type IV sedimentation

View Answer: c

5. In which type of sedimentation, flocculent suspension of high concentration takes place?

a) Type I sedimentation

b) Type II sedimentation

c) Type III sedimentation

d) Type IV sedimentation

View Answer: d

6. What is the settling velocity of the particle if its diameter is 2 * 10-3cm. Given G=2.65, viscosity v=8 *
10-3cm2/Sec?

a) 0.01cm/Sec

b) 0.13cm/Sec

c) 0.24cm/Sec

d) 0.36cm/Sec

View Answer: b

7. In a rectangular horizontal flow tank, the maximum permissible velocity is ____ m/Sec.

a) 3

b) 0.3

c) 0.03

d) 0.003

View Answer: b

8. The time period for which the water is stored in a sedimentation tank is called _____

a) Time of flow

b) Frequency of flow

c) Settling time

d) Detention period

View Answer: d
9. Settling velocity of a spherical body in a viscous fluid is given by ___________

a) Reynolds law

b) Newton’s law

c) Stokes law

d) Charles law

View Answer: c

10. In a fill and draw type sedimentation tank, a detention period of ____ hours is provided.

a) 6

b) 12

c) 18

d) 24

View Answer: d

11. Which of the following represents the correct relation between displacement velocity and diameter
of the particle?

a) v1 = (8Bg (G-1) d/f) ½

b) v1 = (8Bg (G-1) d2/f)2

c) v1 = (8Bg (G-1) d/f)

d) v1 = (8Bg (G-1) d/f)2

View Answer: a

12. The detention period of a rectangular tank is given by _______

a) t0 = LBH/Q

b) t0 = LB/HQ

c) t0 = Q/LBH

d) t0 = HQ/LB

View Answer: a

13. The average time required by water to pass through the settling tank is called _______

a) Detention time

b) Flowing through period

c) Time of flow
d) Mean time

View Answer: b

14. Range of Displacement efficiency in the plain sedimentation tank is ___________

a) 0.25-0.5

b) 0.1-0.2

c) 0.5-0.8

d) 0.3-0.6

View Answer: a

15. The quantity of water flowing per hour per unit horizontal area is called ________

a) Detention time

b) Flowing through period

c) Displacement time

d) Overflow rate

View Answer: d

16. Settling tank efficiency is reduced by _______

i. Eddy current

ii. Surface current

iii. Density current

a) I, ii

b) I, ii, iii

c) ii, iii

d) I, iii

View Answer: b

17. 1cm per second settling velocity corresponds to a surface loading of ______ litre per day per m2.

a) 36000

b) 864000

c) 24000

d) 6000

View Answer: b
18. What will be the surface area of the basin for a flow of 2*106 litre per day having a surface loading
rate 10,000 litre/day/m2?

a) 100

b) 200

c) 300

d) 400

View Answer: b

19. The detention period of the vertical flow clarifier is _______

a) 1-1.5

b) 2

c) 3.5

d) 4

View Answer: a

20. The design value of surface loading for horizontal flow circular sedimentation is _______

a) 30-40m3/m2/d

b) 20-30m3/m2/d

c) 10-20m3/m2/d

d) 50-100m3/m2/d

View Answer: a

21. Detention time for a circular tank is given by _______

a) t = D (D + 0.785H) /Q

b) t = D (0.1D + 0.785H) /Q

c) t = D2 (0.01D + 0.785H)

d) t = D2 (0.01D + 0.785H) /Q

View Answer: d

22. The sedimentation basin should be made as deep as possible.

a) True

b) False

View Answer: b
23. What is formed when coagulant is added to water?

a) Scum

b) Soap

c) Bubbles

d) Floc

View Answer : d

24. The chemical composition of Alum is _____________

a) Al2 (SO4)3.18H2O

b) Al2 (SO4)2.18H2O

c) Al3 (SO4)2.18H2O

d) Al4 (SO4)3.18H2O

View Answer :a

25. The chemical compound which is insoluble in water, formed when alum is added to water is
_____________

a) Al (OH)3

b) CaSO4

c) CO2

d) Ca (OH)3

View Answer:a

26. Which gas is released when alum is added to water?

a) Al (OH)3

b) CaSO4

c) CO2

d) Ca (OH)3

View Answer: c

27. What indicates the permanent hardness when alum is added to water?

a) Al (OH)3
b) CaSO4

c) CO2

d) Ca (OH)3

View Answer : b

28. Alum is effective when pH of water is between ____

a) 8-10

b) 6-8

c) 6.5-8.5

d) 7-9

View Answer: c

29. Why Alum is preferred over other coagulants?

a) It is easy to dewater the sludge formed

b) It imparts corrosiveness to water

c) It reduces taste and odor in addition to turbidity

d) The time required for floc formation is less

View Answer :c

30. The chemical composition of Chlorinated Copperas is __________

a) Fe2 (SO4)3 + FeCl3

b) FeSO4.9H2O

c) FeSO4.18H2O

d) Fe2 (SO4)3

View Answer : a

31. Ferric chloride is effective over a pH range of __________

a) 3.5-6

b) 6.5-8

c) 3.5-6.5
d) 2-5

View Answer : c

32. Why Magnesium carbonate is not commonly preferred as coagulant?

a) It is expensive

b) It does not remove color

c) Formation of sludge

d) The time required for floc formation is less

View Answer : c

33. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding Iron salt?

a) Iron salt produces less floc than Alum

b) Detention time for sedimentation by using Iron salt as coagulant is less

c) Handling of Iron salt requires some skills

d) Iron removes H2S, taste and odor

View Answer: a

34. __________ is an operation designed to force agitation in the fluid and induce coagulation.

a) Sedimentation

b) Flocculation

c) Disinfection

d) Aeration

View Answer : b

35. The rate of change of velocity per unit distance normal to a section is called_______

a) Mean velocity

b) Average velocity

c) Mean velocity gradient

d) Velocity gradient

View Answer: c

36. What is the dimension formula of mean velocity gradient?

a) 1/T

b) 1/T2

c) T

d) T2

View Answer: a

37. What is the desirable value of mean velocity gradient in a flocculator?

a) 20-50sec-1

b) 20-75sec-1

c) 50-100sec-1

d) 30-50sec-1

View Answer:b

38. What is the normal value of the detention period adopted in a flocculator for design purpose?

a) 30min

b) 60min

c) 90min

d) 100min

View Answer: a

39. The design value of the velocity of flow in a flocculator is _______

a) 0.2-0.8m/s

b) 0.3-0.5m/s

c) 0.6-0.8m/s

d) 0.1-0.5m/s

View Answer: a

40. What is the detention period of a clarifier used in the treatment of water?

a) 1hour

b) 2hours

c) 3hours
d) 4hours

View Answer: c

41. The pulsator clarifier is a type of __________

a) Horizontal flow sludge tank

b) Vertical flow sludge tank

c) Circular sludge tank

d) Plain sedimentation tank

View Answer: b

42. Which device solved the problem of unstable hydraulic conditions and operation of sludge removal
equipment?

a) Centrifugal pump

b) Pulsator clarifier

c) Tube settler

d) Flocculator

View Answer : c

43. In which device, the primary mixing is followed by a secondary reaction zone resulting in formation
of sludge blanket?

a) Centrifugal pump

b) Flocculator

c) Tube settler

d) Solid contact clarifier

View Answer: d

44. In which type of tube settler, tubes are slightly inclined in the direction of normal flow?

a) Solid contact clarifier

b) Steeply inclined tube settler

c) Vertical tube settler

d) Horizontal tube settler

View Answer: d

45. __________ is an operation designed to force agitation in the fluid and induce coagulation.

a) Sedimentation

b) Flocculation

c) Disinfection

d) Aeration

View Answer: b

46.The rate of change of velocity per unit distance normal to a section is called_______

a) Mean velocity

b) Average velocity

c) Mean velocity gradient

d) Velocity gradient

View Answer: c

47. What is the dimension formula of mean velocity gradient?

a) 1/T

b) 1/T2

c) T

d) T2

View Answer: a

48. What is the desirable value of mean velocity gradient in a flocculator?

a) 20-50sec-1

b) 20-75sec-1

c) 50-100sec-1

d) 30-50sec-1

View Answer: b

49. What is the normal value of the detention period adopted in a flocculator for design purpose?

a) 30min
b) 60min

c) 90min

d) 100min

View Answer: a

50. The design value of the velocity of flow in a flocculator is _______

a) 0.2-0.8m/s

b) 0.3-0.5m/s

c) 0.6-0.8m/s

d) 0.1-0.5m/s ( view Answer : a)

Unite : 3

1. Which system of collection of sewage is a dry system?

a) Conservancy system

b) Biological digestion

c) Incernation

d) Water carriage system

View Answer: a

2. After how many years, night soil gives good quality manure?

a) 1

b) 5

c) 10

d) 14

View Answer : a

3. Hog feeding is a type of ______

a) Campaign
b) Food contest

c) Garbage disposal method

d) Disease

View Answer: c

4. Conservancy system is a highly unhygienic system, causing insanitary conditions.

a) True

b) False

View Answer : a

5. Which of the following is not correct regarding conservancy system?

a) High maintenance cost

b) Highly unhygienic system

c) Independent of labour

d) Chances of epidemic

View Answer: c

6. Which system of collection of sewage is called a dry system?

a) Conservancy system

b) Biological digestion

c) Incernation

d) Water carriage system

View Answer: a

7. ________ is a method where water is used as a medium for the flow of sewage from its production of
the treatment unit.

a) Conservancy system

b) Biological digestion

c) Incernation

d) Water carriage system

View Answer: d
8. Normally, the amount of water required for flushing operation is _____ litres.

a) 10-20

b) 5-10

c) 15-20

d) 20-30

View Answer: b

9. The water carriage system is a hygienic system without any bad smell.

a) True

b) False

View Answer: a

10. Which of the following is correct regarding water carriage system?

a) Chances of the epidemic is there

b) Foul smell is produced

c) Does not cause pollution

d) Highly dependent on labours

View Answer: c

11. In India, the maximum sewage flow occurs normally in which month?

a) July

b) January

c) February

d) December

View Answer : a

12. Which of the following has a maximum peaking factor?

a) Domestic sewer

b) Branch sewer

c) Main sewer

d) Trunk sewer

View Answer: a
13. The Lateral sewer has a peaking factor of ____________

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

View Answer: d

14. The population of the city is 30,000. What is the peaking factor?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 2.25

d) 2.5

View Answer : d

15. The peaking factor is directly proportional to the population of the city.

a) True

b) False

View Answer: b

16. _________ flow persists for various time duration.

a) Minimum sewage

b) Maximum sewage

c) Sustained

d) Average sewage

View Answer: c

17. The wet weather flow is also known by ______

a) Minimum sewage flow

b) Maximum sewage flow

c) Storm water flow

d) Average rate of flow

View Answer : c

18. Consider the following statement.

The storm water flow depends on

i. Catchment area
ii. Ground slope
iii. Quality of water

vi. Rainfall duration

Which of the following is correct?

a) I, ii

b) I, ii, iii

c) I, ii, iv

d) I, iv

View Answer : c

19. _________ is the flow through sewers available during non-rainfall period.

a) Gradually varied flow

b) Rapidly varied flow

c) Dry weather flow

d) Storm water flow

View Answer : c

20. _______ is the additional flow occurring during rainy season.

a) Gradually varied flow

b) Rapidly varied flow

c) Dry weather flow

d) Storm water flow

View Answer : d

21. Which flow is also called as sanitary sewage?

a) Dry weather flow

b) Storm weather flow

c) Uniform flow

d) Non uniform flow

View Answer: a

22. Which of the following factor does not effect the dry weather flow?

a) Rate of water supply

b) Temperature conditions

c) Population growth

d) Infiltration of ground water

View Answer: b

23. The quantity of waste water is assumed to be ___________ % of the quantity of water supply.

a) 40

b) 50

c) 60

d) 80

View Answer: d

24. The sewer should be designed for a minimum of ______ litres of waste water per capita per day.

a) 50

b) 100

c) 150

d) 1000

View Answer : c

25. The size of the town is 15,000. What is the density of population per hectare?
a) 50

b) 75

c) 100

d) 200

View Answer : d

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26. The design period of main and branch sewer is ___________

a) 5years

b) 10years

c) 30years

d) 40years

View Answer : c

27. ___________ is the process in which ground water unfiltrate into the sewers.

a) Exfiltration

b) Infiltration

c) Filtration

d) Osmosis

View Answer : b

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28. ________ is the process which indicates the flow of waste water from the sewer into the ground.

a) Exfiltration

b) Infiltration

c) Filtration

d) Osmosis

View Answer : a
29. Infiltration of water does not depend on ___________

a) Size of sewer

b) Sewer material

c) Quality of water

d) Type of soil

View Answer: c

30. The rate of infiltration lies in the range of ______ m3/hectare/day.

a) 0.20-0.28

b) 0.42-0.63

c) 0.60-0.80

d) 0.70-0.90

View Answer: a

31. The relation between the maximum and average rate of flow is defined by ___________

a) QMAX = (1 + 14/(4 + P0.5)) * QAVG

b) QMAX = (1 + 1/(4 + P0.5)) * QAVG

c) QMAX = (1 + 4 + P0.5) * QAVG

d) QMAX = (1 + P0.5) * QAVG

View Answer : a

32. Which type of sewer serves as an outlet for large territory?

a) Lateral sewer

b) Main sewer

c) Branch sewer

d) Separate sewer

View Answer : b

33. Which sewer collects sewage directly from the house?

a) Main sewer

b) Outfall sewer
c) Lateral sewer

d) Intercepting sewer

View Answer: c

34. _______ sewer collects sewage from collecting system to a disposal plant?

a) House sewer

b) Outfall sewer

c) Lateral sewer

d) Separate sewer

View Answer: b

35. Which sewer carries both sewage and storm water?

a) Outfall sewer

b) Separate sewer

c) Main sewer

d) Combined sewer

View Answer: d

36. Which sewer is also called as submain sewer?

a) Branch sewer

b) Separate sewer

c) Main sewer

d) Lateral sewer

View Answer: a

37. Which sewer is used to carry the excess flow of existing sewer?

a) Branch sewer

b) Relief sewer

c) Main sewer

d) Lateral sewer

View Answer: a
38. Asbestos cement sewers are made from __________

a) Cement, silica

b) Asbestos fibre, copper

c) Asbestos fibre, cement, silica

d) Asbestos fibre, magnesium

View Answer : c

39. Which of the following is a disadvantage of asbestos cement sewer?

a) They are light weight

b) They can be easily jointed

c) They are brittle

d) Inside surface is smooth

View Answer: c

40. Asbestos cement sewer offers resistant to sulfide corrosion.

a) True

b) False

View Answer: b

41. The diameter of plain cement concrete pipes used for sewerage system is __________

a) 20mm

b) 30mm

c) 90mm

d) 63mm

View Answer: c

42. The grade of concrete used in plain cement concrete sewer is __________

a) M5

b) M10

c) M15

d) M20
View Answer: d

43. Which of the following is incorrect regarding Cement concrete sewers?

a) They are economical

b) Can be manufactured at the site

c) They can be made of any desired strength

d) They cannot withstand tensile stress

View Answer: d

44. The crown corrosion takes place due to formation of __________

a) CO2

b) H2O

c) H2S

d) HCl

View Answer: c

45. The cement concrete sewers are lined with vitrified clay lining to prevent __________

a) Dampness of sewer

b) Algae growth in the sewer

c) Crown corrosion

d) Foul smell of sewer

View Answer: c

46. Which of the following method is not used for treating crown corrosion?

a) Full runs of sewer

b) Increasing the sulfate content of sewage

c) Aeration and chlorination of sewage

d) Vitrified clay lining of sewer

View Answer: b

47. Which of the following is incorrect regarding Stoneware sewer?

a) They can withstand tensile stress

b) They are highly resistant to sulfide corrosion

c) They have smooth interior

d) They are high compressive strength

View Answer: a

48.The range of diameter of cast iron sewer is __________

a) 20-100mm

b) 150-750mm

c) 40-250mm

d) 100-250mm

View Answer: b

49. Identify the correct statement from the following regarding Cast iron sewer.

a) They have low internal pressure

b) They are not leakage proof

c) They cannot withstand heavy external loads

d) They are preferred in water supply lines

View Answer:d

50. How many types of joints are present in the sewer?

a) 3

b) 4

c) 5

d) 7

View Answer : d
 Unite : 4

1. How many types of aerators are commonly used in the treatment of wastewater?

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 5

View Answer : c

2. Organic contaminants are removed from the wastewater by ____________

a) Water softening

b) Demineralization

c) Absorption

d) Adsorption

View Answer: d

3. By which process, odor producing substances are oxidized?

a) Chlorination

b) Liming

c) Re-carbonation

d) Super-chlorination

View Answer : d

4. Which of the following process is used to remove the colloidal particles from the effluent?

a) Chemical precipitation

b) Chemical coagulation

c) Ion exchange

d) Adsorption

View Answer: b
5. In which form of solute stabilization, hydrogen sulfide in the effluent is oxidized into sulfate?

a) Chlorination

b) Liming

c) Re-carbonation

d) Super-chlorination

View Answer: a

6. In which unit operation, gases are released or absorbed in the effluent?

a) Gas transfer

b) Ion transfer

c) Solute stabilization

d) Solids Transfer

View Answer : a

7. In which process, excess lime is converted into bicarbonate?

a) Chlorination

b) Liming

c) Re-carbonation

d) Super-chlorination

View Answer : c

8. Flocculation of iron from water by the addition of lime is an example of which of the following
process?

a) Chemical precipitation

b) Chemical coagulation

c) Ion exchange

d) Adsorption

View Answer: a

9. Which form of solute stabilization occurs when effluent passes through limestone?
a) Chlorination

b) Liming

c) Re-carbonation

d) Super-chlorination

View Answer : b

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10. Solids are removed from the wastewater by which of the following unit operation?

a) Inter facial contact

b) Solid stabilization

c) Ion transfer

d) Solids transfer

View Answer: d

11. In which unit operation objectionable solutes are converted into unobjectionable forms without
removal?

a) Gas transfer

b) Ion transfer

c) Solute stabilization

d) Solids Transfer

View Answer: c

12. Dealkalization results in removal of all the ions from the wastewater.

a) True

b) False

View Answer: b

13.The intermittent sand filters have better BOD removal efficiency than trickling filters.

a) True

b) False
View Answer: b

14. filter material used in contact bed is ___________

a) Sand

b) Stone ballast

c) Gravel

d) Fine sand

View Answer: b

15.. Which of the following is called as contact bed?

a) Primary clarifier

b) Secondary clarifier

c) Contact filter

d) High rate digester

View Answer: c

16. How many types of trickling filters are used in sewage treatment?

a) 6

b) 5

c) 3

d) 2

View Answer:d

17. The depth of the filter media of intermittent filter is ___________

a) 45cm

b) 60cm

c) 20cm

d) 25cm

View Answer: b

18. Which of the following filter is used in the anaerobic treatment of sewage?

a) Intermittent sand
b) Trickling filter

c) Contact filter

d) Biological filter

View Answer : d

19. The maximum size of filter media of a percolating filter is ___________

a) 10mm

b) 25mm

c) 60mm

d) 75mm

View Answer: d

20.The recirculation ratio for the low rate trickling filter is ___________

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 0

View Answer: d

21. The maximum removal of suspended and dissolved impurities from the sewage is?

a) 65

b) 70

c) 92

d) 99

View Answer: c

22. The color of the secondary sludge produced from the high rate trickling filter is ___________

a) Gray

b) Black

c) Brown

d) Green

View Answer: c
23. _______ is the ratio of volume of recirculated sewage to the raw sewage.

a) Recirculation factor

b) Recirculation ratio

c) Food to mass ratio

d) BOD

View Answer: b

24. The range of organic loading in kg/hectare metre/ day in a high rate trickling filter is ___________

a) 6000-18000

b) 10000-20000

c) 5000-10000

d) 900-2200

View Answer: a

25. The expression of the recirculation factor F is given by ___________

a) F = 1 / (1+0.1 (R/I))2

b) F = (1+ R) / (1+0.1 (R/I))2

c) F = (1+ I/R) / (1+0.1(R/I))2

d) F = (1+ R/I) / (1+0.1(R/I))2

View Answer: d

26. The size of filter media in a high rate trickling filter is ___________

a) 10-20mm

b) 34-68mm

c) 25-60mm

d) 20-50mm

View Answer: c

27. Recirculation increases the efficiency of high rate trickling filters.

a) True
b) False

View Answer: a

28. The surface loading rate of a secondary clarifier is ______ litres/m2/day.

a) 1000

b) 10000

c) 20000

d) 40000

View Answer: d

29. The detention period of a secondary clarifier is ___________

a) 30 minutes

b) 1 hour

c) 2 hours

d) 4 hours

View Answer: c

30. Which of the following is the cause of rising sludge?

a) Sedimentation

b) Denitrification

c) Chlorination

d) Flocculation

View Answer: b

31. The minimum weir loading rate of primary clarifier is ____m3/m/day.

a) 125000

b) 50000

c) 10000

d) 20000

View Answer: a
32. Hopper bottom vertical flow type tank is _____ in shape.

a) Circular

b) Triangular

c) Rectangular

d) Elliptical

View Answer: a

33. The device used for the aeration in the combined aerator is ___________

a) Header pipe

b) Diffuser plate and paddles

c) Cone with spiral vanes

d) Diffuser plate

View Answer: b

34. In which sludge treatment process, the organic solids are converted into more stable form?

a) Dewatering

b) Thickening

c) Digestion

d) Conditioning

View Answer: c

35. The sludge treatment process to increase the solid content of sludge is ___________

a) Dewatering

b) Thickening

c) Conditioning

d) Drying

View Answer: b

36. The process of removal of water from the sludge is called ______

a) Dewatering

b) Thickening
c) Digestion

d) Drying

View Answer: a

37. In which sludge treatment process, the sludge is treated with chemicals?

a) Dewatering

b) Thickening

c) Conditioning

d) Drying

View Answer: c

38. The speed at which the bubbles are formed in the simplex aerator?

a) 15rpm

b) 20rpm

c) 60rpm

d) 30rpm

View Answer:c

39. Dorroco aerator is a type of ___________

a) Combined aerator

b) Mechanical aerator

c) Ridge and furrow type aerator

d) Spiral flow type aerator

View Answer: a

40. How many stages are there in the sludge digestion process?

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 5

View Answer: b

41. Which of the following is obtained in the secondary tank in two stage sludge digester?
a) Partially digested sludge

b) Partially digested sludge and supernatant liquor

c) Digested sludge and supernatant liquor

d) supernatant liquor

View Answer: c

42. The high rate sludge digestion tanks are used when the capacity of the tank is ____ million liters per
day.

a) 1

b) 3

c) 4

d) 10

View Answer: c

43. In which of the following, both primary and secondary tanks are used?

a) Two stage sludge digesters

b) Single stage sludge digesters

c) Low rate digesters

d) High rate digesters

View Answer: a

44. The minimum size of sludge digestion tank is ___________

a) 0.5m

b) 1m

c) 2m

d) 3m

View Answer: d

45. The range of temperature at which mesophilic microorganism becomes active in sludge digester is
___________
a) 30-40oC

b) 10-40oC

c) 20-50oC

d) 20-40oC

View Answer : d

46. The sludge digestion process is independent of which of the following?

a) Temperature of sludge

b) pH of sludge

c) Shape of tank

d) Mixing of sludge

View Answer : c

47.Which of the following is the correct expression of the aeration period in hours?

a) V/Q

b) 24V/Q

c) V/24Q

d) Q/V

View Answer: b

48.The organic loading in an activated sludge plant is defined as ___________

a) Mass of BOD per day/Volume of the aeration tank

b) Volume of aeration tank/Mass of BOD per day

c) The mass of BOD per day/Volume of secondary clarifier

d) Aeration period * Volume of aeration tank

View Answer: a

49._________ is defined as a volume in ml occupied by 1 gram of solid in the mixed liquor after 30
minutes of settling.

a) BOD loading

b) Suspended solid volume

c) Sludge volume index

d) Organic loading

View Answer: c

50. BOD of sewage is dependent on food to microorganism ratio.

a) True

b) False

View Answer : a
 Unite : 5
1. Which gas is mainly produced due to incomplete burning of wood?

a) CO

b) SO2

c) NO2

d) NO3

View Answer: a

2. Which of the following is involved in production of carboxy haemoglobin?

a) CO

b) SO2

c) NO2

d) NO3

View Answer: a

3. Which of the following is a liquid form of aerosol?

a) Fume

b) Dust

c) Mist

d) Smoke

View Answer: c

4. X ray films are a source of which of the following gas?

a) SO2

b) CO2

c) NO2

d) SO3

View Answer:c

5. The maximum size of fly ash is ___________

a) 1μm
b) 100μm

c) 1000μm

d) 10μm

View Answer: c

6. Which of the following leads to a disease called broncho spasm?

a) SO2

b) SO3

c) SO4

d) CO2

View Answer: b

7. The minimum size of the smoke particle is ___________

a) 0.2μm

b) 1μm

c) 0.8μm

d) 0.5μm

View Answer: d

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Environmental Engineering Questions and Answers – Air Pollutants

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This set of Environmental Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Air
Pollutants”.

1. Which gas is mainly produced due to incomplete burning of wood?

a) CO

b) SO2

c) NO2

d) NO3

View Answer

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2. Which of the following is involved in production of carboxy haemoglobin?

a) CO

b) SO2

c) NO2

d) NO3

View Answer

3. Which of the following is a liquid form of aerosol?

a) Fume

b) Dust

c) Mist

d) Smoke

View Answer

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4. X ray films are a source of which of the following gas?

a) SO2

b) CO2

c) NO2
d) SO3

View Answer

5. The maximum size of fly ash is ___________

a) 1μm

b) 100μm

c) 1000μm

d) 10μm

View Answer

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6. Which of the following leads to a disease called broncho spasm?

a) SO2

b) SO3

c) SO4

d) CO2

View Answer

7. The minimum size of the smoke particle is ___________

a) 0.2μm

b) 1μm

c) 0.8μm

d) 0.5μm

View Answer

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8. Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant?

a) SPM

b) PAN

c) SO2

d) NO2

View Answer: b

9. The permissible concentration of PM 10 in the air is ___________

a) 60μg/m3

b) 40μg/m3

c) 50μg/m3

d) 20μg/m3

View Answer: a

10. Which of the following is not a part of photochemical smog?

a) NO2

b) O3

c) PAN

d) SPM

View Answer: d

11. Which air pollutant cause corrosion of building?

a) SO2

b) SO3

c) CO

d) NO2

View Answer: a

12. Which of the following air pollutant effects plants the most?

a) Fluorine

b) SO2

c) PAN
d) HCl

View Answer: a

13. The size of cigarette particles is ______________

a) 1μm

b) 10μm

c) <1μm d) >10μm

View Answer: c

14. Concentration of fluorine that cause a phototoxicological effect on the plant is ___________

a) 0.1μg/m3

b) 0.3μg/m3

c) 0.5μg/m3

d) 1μg/m3

View Answer: b

15. Which of the following gas is not colorless?

a) NO

b) O3

c) Pb

d) SO3

View Answer: a

16. The effective height of stack is given by ___________

a) Plume height / Actual height of the stack

b) Plume height * Actual height of the stack

c) Plume height – Actual height of the stack

d) Plume height + Actuael height of the stack

View Answer: d

17. Which of the following is used in ceramic industries?

a) Electrostatic precipitator

b) Dynamic precipitator

c) Spray tower

d) Wet cyclonic scrubber

View Answer: b

18. Wet scrubbers are classified into ____ types.

a) 2

b) 3

c) 5

d) 6

View Answer: b

19. The centrifugal collectors are classified into how many types?

a) 3

b) 4

c) 5

d) 2

View Answer: d

20. Which of the following air pollution control device has maximum efficiency?

a) Electrostatic precipitator

b) Dynamic precipitator

c) Spray tower

d) Wet cyclonic scrubber

View Answer: a

21.Which of the following fluid is used in web scrubbers?

a) Lime

b) MgSO4

c) NaCl
d) K2Cr2O7

View Answer: a

22. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the fabric filter?

a) They can remove very small particle

b) They are liable to chemical attack

c) They have low efficiency in comparison to venturi scrubber

d) They can handle large volume of gas at relatively high speed

View Answer: c

23.Which of the following removes both gaseous and particulate contaminants?

a) Venturi scrubber

b) Gravitational settling chamber

c) Dynamic precipitator

d) Wet scrubber

View Answer: a

24. Identify the correct statement regarding the Electrostatic precipitator.

a) Minimum particle size removal is <0.5μm

b) They can be operated at high temperature

c) It has a low maintenance cost

d) It does not cause any freezing problem

View Answer: b

25. When environmental Lapse Rate (ELR) is less is than Adiabatic Lapse Rate (ALR), then which of the
following occurs?

a) Sub adiabatic lapse rate

b) Super adiabatic lapse rate

c) Neutral lapse rate

d) Adiabatic lapse rate

View Answer: a

26. _______ occurs when atmospheric temperature increases with height.

a) Negative lapse rate

b) Super adiabatic lapse rate

c) Neutral lapse rate

d) Positive lapse rate

View Answer: d

27. When environmental Lapse Rate (ELR) is equal to the Adiabatic Lapse Rate (ALR), then which of the
following occurs?

a) Sub adiabatic lapse rate

b) Super adiabatic lapse rate

c) Neutral lapse rate

d) Adiabatic lapse rate

View Answer: c

28. Which of the following is the absorption unit?

a) Cyclone collector

b) Plate tower

c) Gravitation settling chamber

d) Dynamic precipitator

View Answer: b

29. Which of the following catalyst is used for removing hydrocarbon from gaseous pollutant in
combustion unit?

a) Platinum

b) Activated alumina

c) Vanadium

d) Potassium permanganate

View Answer: b

30. Which of the following is not a part of adsorption unit?

a) Packed towers
b) Multiple fixed bed

c) Fluidized bed

d) Moving bed

View Answer: a

31. Which of the following is a bulk phenomena?

a) Physical adsorption

b) Chemical adsorption

c) Absorption

d) Sorption

View Answer: c

32.. Which of the following is not an adsorbent?

a) Molecular sieves

b) Activated carbon

c) Activated alumina

d) Water

View Answer: d

33.. Which plant helps in detection of pollution from automobile exhaust?

a) Neem

b) Tulsi

c) Lichen

d) Lettuce

View Answer: b

34. Which of the following plants aid as an indicator to ozone pollution?

a) Tomato

b) Tobacco

c) Watermelon

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer: d

35. Greater the Air Quality Index of a region, more polluted is the air.

a) True

b) False

View Answer: a

36.How many parameters are taken into consideration when measuring air quality, in India?

a) 4

b) 3

c) 8

d) 9

View Answer: c

37.Which of the following pollutants are considered when measuring air quality?

a) CO, O3, PM2.5

b) NH3, PM10, Pb

c) NO2, SO2

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer: d

38 . What range of air quality index has the most severe impact on human health?

a) 101-200

b) 201-300

c) 301-400

d) 401-500

View Answer: d

39. Hazardous pollutants are those pollutants for which air quality standards have been devised.

a) True

b) False
View Answer: b

40. Which of the following devices is NOT used to control particulate emissions?

a) Electrostatic precipitator

b) Bag filters

c) Catalytic converters

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer: c

41. Which of the mentioned devices are used for removing vapour phase/ gaseous pollutants?

a) Absorption towers

b) Catalytic converters

c) Thermal oxidisers

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer: d

42. NDUV analysis is also known as the differential absorption.

a) True

b) False

View Answer: a

43. Fluorescence analysers are used to analyse which of the following gases?

a) Nitrogen dioxide

b) Sulphur dioxide

c) Sulphur trioxide

d) Nitrous oxide

View Answer: b

44. Electroanalytical monitors rely on which of the following methods?

a) Polarography and amperometric analysis

b) Polarography and electrocatalysis

c) Polarography, electrocatalysis and conductivity

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer: d

45. Which of the following analyser is used for oxygen analysis?

a) Electrocatalytic

b) Polarographic

c) Conductive

d) Amperometric

View Answer: a

46. In-situ in-stack analysers are used for measuring concentrations of which of the following gases?

a) Ammonia

b) Sulphur dioxide

c) Nitrogen monoxide

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer: d

47. What is the disadvantage of using conductometric analysers?

a) Low sensitivity

b) Interfering gases must be removed before monitoring process

c) Medium used to measure change in conductivity is expensive

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer: b

48. Flame photometric analysers are specific to sulphur compounds.

a) True

b) False

View Answer: a
48.. Airshed modelling takes into account the effects of only stationary sources and not the mobile
sources of pollution.

a) True

b) False

View Answer : b

49. What is the primary standard level for carbon monoxide for assuring air quality?

a) 10ppm

b) 90ppm

c) 1ppm

d) 9ppm

View Answer: d

50.The pulmonary section of the respiratory tract consists of ___________

a) Nose and mouth as well as down till epiglottis and larynx

b) Bronchi down till the end of bronchiole

c) Respiratory bronchiole, alveoli and alveoli ducts

d) Alveoli ducts and alveoli

View Answer: c