CSE 2022 toughest Preliminary Examination in 21 years – expert’s opinion.

CSE 2022 toughest Preliminary Examination in 21 Years – Expert’s Opinion.

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 UPSC Prelims 2022 Questions covered in La Excellence Test Series
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PRELIMS 2022 Question La Excellence Test Series Question La Excellence Test
No.
MIYAWAKI method, recently seen in the news, is related to
(a) Growing high yielding rice on small landholdings
(b) Afforestation on degraded lands using native seeds
The “Miyawaki method” is well known (c) Safe disposal of radioactive waste material
for the: (d) Producing high utility and low carbon-intensive products
(a) Promotion of commercial farming
in arid and semi-arid areas Answer: B
(b) Development of Explanation: Why in news?
1. All India Mock Test-
gardens using Kerala has started using Miyawaki Method to promote urban forestry. The
2_2022 21-05-2022
genetically modified flora Mansa unit of Punjab state Police is developing Miyawaki forests. Also, the
(c) Creation of mini forests in urban Bengaluru Hennagara Lake is to get a new life with Miyawaki Forests.
areas "Miyawaki method" is a method of ecological engineering, to restore and
(d) Harvesting wind energy on build dense native forests from seeds of native trees on very degraded
coastal areas and on sea surfaces soils which were deforested and without humus.
It is a unique methodology proven to work worldwide, irrespective of soil
and climate conditions. Hence, option B is correct
Bio-Rock technology, recently seen in the news is associated with
(a) Restoration of coral reefs
(b) Reduction of groundwater pollution
(c) Cleaning of oil spills
(d) Carbon sequestration

Answer: A
“Biorock technology” is talked about
Explanation: Bio-Rock Technology
in which one of the following
The Zoological Survey of India is trying to restore coral reefs in the Gulf
situations?
of Kutch by using the Bio-rock process, to grow solid limestone rock
(a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs
structures in the sea. Their composition is like that of natural coral reefs
(b) Development of building All India Mock Test-2022
2. and tropical sand beaches. The strength of bio-rock is like concrete. It is a
materials using plant residues (14-05-2022)
marine construction that grows and gets stronger with age and is self-
(c) Identification of
repairing.
areas for
How does bio rock help in coral reef restoration?
exploration/extraction of shale gas
Corals adhere to lime (CaCO3) structures and grow at a rapid pace as they
(d) Providing salt licks for wild
need not spend their energy on building their calcium carbonate skeletons.
animals in forests/protected areas
The technology also helps corals to counter the threats posed by global
warming. Hence, statement A is correct
Other Applications of Biorock Technology
Marine Construction; Protection against Beach Erosion; Adaptation to sea-
level rise; Oyster Reef restoration; Sea Grass Restoration; Salt Marsh
Restoration; Fisheries Restoration; Sustainable Aquaculture
 The term "Green Washing" is sometimes found in news, it refers to
(a) New coal washing technique to reduce pollution
Which one of the following best
(b) Regular cleaning of batteries in electrical vehicles
describes the term “greenwashing”?
(c) Organizations claiming their product is sustainable but it is not
(a) Conveying a false impression that
(d) To promote organic farming in arid and semi-arid conditions
a company's products are eco-
friendly and environmentally
Answer: C
sound
Explanation: Why in News?
(b) Non-inclusion of La Ex-PRO UPSC
Greta Thunberg, the young climate activist, in her famous speech made at
ecological/ environmental costs in Prelims Test Series 2022
3. the COP26 conference spoke about how climate summits are becoming
the Annual Financial Statements | Level-1; Test-16 on 1
‘green washing’ festivals. She attacked CO2 offset commitments by
of a country st March, 2022
corporates as just a greenwash.
(c) Ignoring the disastrous ecological
What is greenwash?
consequences while undertaking
When companies and organizations mislead their consumers by claiming
infrastructure development
that a product or service they provide, or that their organization itself is
(d) Making mandatory provisions for
environmentally friendly or sustainable when it actually is not, it is called
environmental costs in a
greenwashing. Greenwashing is not a new concept. The term was originally
government project/programme.
coined by environmental activist Jay Westerveld in the mid-1980s. Hence,
Option C is correct.
With reference to WHO Global Air Quality Guidelines -2021, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. Lead and ammonia are not included in its list of pollutants
In the context of WHO Air Quality 2. The list of pollutants in the guidelines are revised biannually
Guidelines, consider the following Select the correct answer by using the codes given below
statements: (a) 1 only
1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 (b) 2 only
should not exceed 15 µ/m3 (c) Both 1 and 2
2. In a year, the highest levels of (d) Neither 1 nor
ozone pollution occur during the
periods of inclement weather. Answer: A
3. PM10 can penetrate the lung Explanation: Why in News Recently, the World Health Organisation (WHO)
4. barrier and enter the bloodstream has released new Global Air Quality Guidelines (AQGs). Under these All India Mock Test-
4. Excessive ozone in the air can guidelines, the WHO has further lowered the recommended levels of 2_2022 21-05-2022
trigger asthma pollutants that can be considered safe for human health. This is the first-
Which of the statements given above ever update of WHO since 2005 and the list of pollutants are same of 2005.
are correct? Hence, statement 2 is incorrect
(a) 1, 3 and 4 The goal of the guideline is for all countries to achieve recommended air
(b) 1 and 4 only quality levels. WHOs new guidelines recommend air quality levels for 6
(c) 2, 3 and 4 pollutants, where evidence has advanced the most on health effects from
(d) 1 and 2 only exposure. 6 classical pollutants include particulate matter (PM 2.5 and 10),
ozone (O3), nitrogen dioxide (NO2) sulfur dioxide (SO2), and carbon
monoxide (CO).Hence, statement 1 is correct
In addition to these 6 pollutants, the National Air quality Index includes
Lead and ammonia. New WHO Global AQGs vs India‟s NAAQS:
 As we can see from the above figure our National Ambient Air Quality
Standards are nowhere closer to WHOs 2021 recommended standards.
Impact of New Guidelines on India
The new air quality guidelines mean that nearly entire India would be
considered a polluted zone for most of the year. The new WHO norms
should push India to work harder to make its air cleaner and safer.
Further, the feasibility of implementing the new guidelines is questionable,
especially in challenging geo-climatic zones like south Asia, including
India.
Which of the following statement is incorrect about Quantum Computing?
a. A quantum computer uses qubits, which can be both 0 and 1 at
the same time.
b. Quantum supremacy is a problem-solving process that cannot be
Which one of the following is the solved by a classical computer in its normal lifetime.
context in which the term “qubit” is c. China’s “QUESS” is the world’s first quantum satellite.
mentioned? d. None of the above
(a) Cloud Services
(Daily Practice Primes
(b) Quantum Computing Answer: D
5. OCT 10/05/2022 S&T)
(c) Visible Light Communication Explanation: A classical computer performs operations using classical bits,
Technologies which can be either 0 or 1. In contrast, a quantum computer uses
(d) Wireless Communication quantum bits or qubits, which can be both 0 and 1 at the same time.
Technologies The phrase ‘quantum supremacy’ was coined in the year 2011 by John
Preskill, Professor of Theoretical Physics at the California Institute of
Technology. Quantum supremacy refers to a problem-solving process by
the quantum computer that cannot be solved by a classical computer in its
normal lifetime.
China had laid the foundation for large-scale quantum networking and
 quantum communication through its “QUESS” – world’s first quantum
satellite.
With reference to The Blue-Finned Mahseer, consider the following
statements:
1. It is an indicator species of freshwater ecosystems.
2. It is an omnivorous species.
3. It was listed as ‘critically endangered on the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the following is not a bird? La Ex-PRO UPSC
(a) Golden Mahseer Answer: B Prelims Test Series 2022
6.
(b) Indian Nightjar Explanation: Why in News? The Blue-Finned Mahseer, which was on the | Level-2; Test-19 on
(c) Spoonbill International Union for Conservation of Nature’s (IUCN) red list as 23rd March, 2022
(d) White Ibis ‘critically endangered’, has now moved to the ‘least concern’ status. Hence,
statement 3 is incorrect.
The Mahseer (roughly translates as mahi – fish and sher – tiger, is also
referred as “tiger among fish”). It is an important indicator of
freshwater ecosystems. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Mahseer prefers clean, fast-flowing and well-oxygenated waters for
breeding and migration. They are omnivorous. Hence, statement 2 is
correct. Hence, Option B is correct. Educational Objective: It was listed as
‘Least Concern on the IUCN Red list. It is an indicator species of freshwater
ecosystems. It is an omnivorous species
Which of the following are naturally occurring nano materials?
Consider the following statements:
1. Particles that makeup volcanic ash
1. Other than those made by
2. Hemoglobin in our blood
humans, nanoparticles do not
3. Materials that give colors to peacock feathers
exist in nature
4. PM 2.5
2. Nanoparticles of some metallic
Select the answer from the codes given below
oxides are used in the
(a) 1,2 and 3
manufacture of some cosmetics
(b) 2,3 and 4
3. Nanoparticles of some commercial La Ex PRO 2.0 Prelims
(c) 1,3 and 4
7. products which enter the Test Series-2022 CSAT
(d) All the above
environment are unsafe for Test-11A (20-01-2022)
humans
Answer: A
Which of the statements given above
Explanation: When the particle size is near to a nanometer then that
is/are correct?
material is considered as a nanomaterial.
(a) 1 Only
 The smallest size of the materials in volcanic ash may be as small as
(b) 3 Only
100-200 nanometers, so the volcanic ash contains the naturally
(c) 1 and 2
occurring nanomaterials
(d) 2 and 3
 Hemoglobin, the oxygen-transporting protein found in red blood cells,
 is 5.5 nanometers in diameter.
 The vivid colors of the peacock feathers are due optical characteristics
of the nanostructures present in the feather.
 The size of PM 2.5 is about 2.5 microns. The particles with a size below
0.1 microns are regarded as the Nanomaterials, so PM 2.5 is not a
nanomaterial.
 Hence statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements about the IMF (International Monetary
Fund) lending mechanism:
1. Rapid Financing Instrument is a fund with almost no conditions set
and which is immediately given to countries which are in BOP crises.
2. Pakistan recently received funds through RFI Mechanism as a part of
IMF Bail-out package.
3. As a part of Financial support to, IMF finances core infrastructural
packages in Pakistan.
Select the correct statement(s) using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Rapid Financing Instrument” and
Answer: A
“Rapid Credit Facility” are related to
Explanation: IMF protects any country in severe financial trouble, unable
the provisions of lending by which one
to pay its international bills, poses potential problems for the stability of
of the following?
the international financial system. Any member country, whether rich, La Ex Grand Test-10 on
(a) Asian Development Bank
8. middle-income, or poor, can turn to the IMF for financing if it has a 29-05-2022
(b) International Monetary Fund
balance of payments need—that is, if it cannot find sufficient financing on
(c) United Nations
affordable terms in the capital markets to make its international payments
Environment Programme Finance
and maintain a safe level of reserves.
initiative
IMF loans are meant to help member countries tackle balance of payments
(d) World Bank
problems, stabilize their economies, and restore sustainable economic
growth. The IMF is not a development bank and, unlike the World Bank
and other development agencies, it does not finance projects. Hence,
Statement 3 is incorrect.
Pakistan, because of its listing in FATF grey list, didn’t yet receive any bail-
out package under the IMF Lending Mechanism. Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect.
Lending Mechanisms of IMF:
Stand-By Arrangement (SBA) : It is the IMF’s workhorse lending
instrument for emerging market countries. Rates are non-concessional,
although they are almost always lower than what countries would pay to
raise financing from private markets.
Flexible Credit Line (FCL) : It is for countries with very strong
fundamentals, policies, and track records of policy implementation.

Consider the following statements
1. A bill amending the Constitution
requires a prior recommendation
of the President of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment
Bill is presented to the President
of India, it is obligatory for the
President of India to give his/her
assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill
9.
must be passed by both the Lok
Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a
special majority and there is no
provision for joint sitting.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
With reference to the Deputy speaker
of Lok Sabha, Consider the following
statements:
10. 1. As per the rules of procedure and
Conduct of Business in Lok
Sabha, the election of Deputy
Speaker shall be held on such date
Precautionary and Liquidity Line (PLL) : The PLL provides financing to meet
actual or potential balance of payments needs of countries with sound
policies, and is intended to serve as insurance and help resolve crises. It
combines a qualification process with focused ex-post conditionality aimed
at addressing vulnerabilities identified during qualification.
Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI):It provides rapid and low-access
financial assistance to member countries facing an urgent balance of
payments need, without the need for a full-fledged program. It can provide
support to meet a broad range of urgent needs, including those arising
from commodity price shocks, natural disasters, post-conflict situations
and emergencies resulting from fragility. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
With reference to the constitutional amendment under the article 368,
consider the following statements
1) Parliament alone has the power to amend the constitution.
2) Only the minister can introduce the bill to amend the constitution.
3) The constitutional amendment bill has to be passed by the
special majority of the house.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
Super 50, day 7 question
Answer: B
number 9
Explanation: Article 368 provides for two types of amendments, that is, by
a special majority of Parliament and also through the ratification of half of
the states by a simple majority.
An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the
introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament
and not in the state legislatures. So, the statement (1) is correct.
The majority of the provisions in the Constitution need to be amended by a
special majority of the Parliament, that is, a majority of the total
membership of each House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of
each House present and voting. So, the statement (3) is correct.
The amendment bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a
private member and does not require prior permission of the
president. So, statement (2) is not correct.
With reference to the post of Deputy Speaker in Lok Sabha, consider the
following statements:
1. She is nominated by the Speaker of the house
Daily Prelims Practise
2. She would be the chairman of a Parliamentary committee, had been
Test
she appointed to it.
3. She resigns by writing to the President of India.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
 as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision
that the election of a candidate
as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
shall be from either the principal
opposition party or ethe ruling
party
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same
power as of the Speaker when
presiding over the sitting of the
House and no appeal lies against
his rulings.
4. The well-established parliamentary
practice regarding the
appointment of Deputy speaker is
that the motion is moved by the
speaker- and duly seconded by the
Prime Minister.
Which of the above statements are
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1,2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
With reference to the United Nations
Convention on the Law of Sea,
consider the following statements:
1. A coastal state has the right to
establish the breadth of its
territorial sea up to a limit not
exceeding 12 nautical miles,
measured from baseline
determined in accordance with the
11. convention.
2. Ships of all states, whether coastal
or land-locked, enjoy the right of
innocent passage through the
territorial sea
3. The Exclusive Economic Zone
shall not extend beyond 200
nautical miles from the baseline
from which the breadth of the
territorial sea is measured.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: C
Explanation: Why in News?
In the Winter session of Parliament which held between Nov 29th 2021 to
Dec 23rd 2021, the opposition raised the issue of vacancy of Deputy
Speaker.
Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker is also elected by the Lok Sabha
itself from amongst its members. She is elected from amongst its members.
She is elected after the election of the Speaker has take place. The date of
election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the speaker. Hence, Statement 1
is incorrect.
The Deputy Speaker has one special privilege, that is, whenever he is
appointed as a member of a Parliamentary committee, he automatically
becomes its chairman. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. She resigns by
writing to the Speaker. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect
Which of the following statements is incorrect with reference to United
Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)?
(a) It allows for a foreign state to carry out military exercises in territorial
waters of a coastal state.
(b) It is a legal framework for all marine and maritime activities at
international level.
(c) Under this convention there is no right of innocent passage in
internal waters
(d) Contiguous zone in a sea extends up to 24 nautical miles.
Daily Handout 14th
Answer: A December 2021
Explanation: United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)
is a legal framework for all marine and maritime activities at international
level and it provides the rules for using world’s oceans and their resources.
It does not authorise other states to carry out military exercises in internal
waters , territorial sea, EEZ and continental shelf of any coastal country
without the consent of the concerned state. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
There is no right of innocent passage (Passing through water that are not
prejudicial to peace and security) through internal waters. According to
 Which of the statements given above are UNCLOS contiguous zone extends seaward up to 24 nm from its baselines.
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Under the provisions of which of the following legislations Reserve Bank of
India (RBI) is mandated to manage the inflation in the economy?
(a) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
(b) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
(c) SARFAESI Act, 2002
In India, which one of the following is
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
responsible for maintaining price
stability by controlling inflation?
Answer: B
12. (a) Department of Consumer Affairs Daily prelims practice
Explanation: Monetary policy is the macroeconomic policy laid down by the
(b) Expenditure Management test
central bank. It involves management of money supply and interest rate
Commission
and is the demand side economic policy used by the government of a
(c) Financial Stability and
country to achieve macroeconomic objectives like inflation, consumption,
Development Council
growth and liquidity.
(d) Reserve Bank of India
 RBI Act of 1934 empowers the RBI to change the interest rate and
take necessary measures to achieve the target of macro-economic
stability.
Consider the following cases involving a member of parliament.
1. Nominated member joining a political party on the very first day
With reference to anti-defection law in of becoming a member.
India, consider the following statement: 2. An independent member joining a political party after six months.
1. The law specifies that a 3. Member of a political party voluntarily giving up the party
nominated legislator cannot join membership.
any political party within six In which of the above cases the member attracts disqualification on the
months of being appointed to grounds of defection?
the House. (a) 1 and 2 only
La Ex-PRO UPSC
2. The law does not provide any time- (b) 1 and 3 only
Prelims Test Series 2022
frame within which the presiding (c) 2 and 3 only
13. | Level-1; Test-2 on 21st
officer has to decide a defection (d) 1, 2 and 3
November 2021
case.
Which of the statements given above Answer: C
is/are correct? Explanation: As per the provisions of the Tenth Schedule, a member of
(a) 1 only parliament attracts disqualification on defection grounds in the following
(b) 2 only cases:
(c) Both 1 and 2 If they voluntary give up the membership of the political party on whose
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 ticket they got elected to the House; (Hence case 3 is defection)
If they vote or abstain from voting in the House contrary to any direction
given by their political party;
If any independently elected member joins any political party; (Hence case
 2 is defection)
If any nominated member joins any political party after the expiry of six
months. (Hence case 1 is not defection) Hence C is the correct answer.
With reference to immune system of the human body, consider the
following statements:
1. B cells and T cells are the types of platelets.
2. B cells are produced in bone marrow while T cells are made in
thymus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Which one of the following statements
(c) Both 1 and 2
best describes the role of B cells and T
14. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
cells in the human body?
(a) They protect the
Answer: D
body from environmental
Explanation: B cells and T cells are the white blood cells of the
allergens
immune system that are responsible for adaptive immune response in
(b) They alleviate the body’s pain and La Ex Grand Test-9 on
an organism. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
inflammation 25-05-2022
Both the cells are made in the bone marrow. Hence statement 2 is
(c) They act as immune suppressants
incorrect. B cells mature in the bone marrow while the T cells travel to the
in the body
thymus and mature there. The thymus gland is a small organ that lies in
(d) They protect the body from the
the upper chest under the breastbone. It makes white blood cells, called
disease caused by pathogens
lymphocytes, which protect the body against infections. These cells are
structurally similar and are involved in adaptive immune response in an
organism.
B cells produce antibodies that are used to attack invading bacteria,
viruses and toxins.
T cells are direct fighters of foreign invaders and also produce cytokines,
which are biological substances that help to activate other parts of the
immune system.
Hence D is the correct answer.
With reference to the writ’s issues by the The writ of Mandamus cannot be issued against which of the following?
courts in India, Consider the following 1. President of India
statements: 2. State Governors
1. Mandamus will not lie against a 3. A private individual
private organisation unless it is 4. An Inferior court
entrusted with public duty. 5. A tribunal
La Ex Grand Test-10
15. 2. Mandamus will not lie against a Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(29-05-2022)
company even though it may be (a) 1 and 2 only
a Government Company. (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
3. Any public minded person can be (c) 1, 2 3 and 5 only
a petitioned to remove the Court to (d) All of the above
obtain the writ of Quo Warrant.
Which of the statements given above Answer: B
 is/are correct? Explanation: Mandamus literally means ‘we command’. It is a command
(a) 1 and 2 only issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official
(b) 2 and 3 only duties that he has failed or refused to perform.
(c) 1 and 3 only It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an
(d) 1,2 and 3 inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose.
The writ of mandamus cannot be issued-
 Against a private individual or body
 To enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory
force
 When the duty is discretionary and not mandatory
 To enforce a contractual obligation
 Against the president of India or the state governors
 Against the chief justice of a high court acting in judicial capacity.
Hence Option B is correct.
In the context of vaccines manufactured Which of the following are mRNA vaccines developed to fight Covid-19
to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider pandemic?
the following statements: 1. Covishield
2. Covaxin
1. The Serum Institute of India 3. Pfizer
produced COVID-19 vaccine 4. Moderna
named Covishield using mRNA Select correct option from below
platform (a) 1 and 2 only
2. Sputnik V vaccine is (b) 3 and 4 only
16. manufactured using vector based (c) 1, 2 and 3 only DCAP-28th December
platform (d) 2, 3 and 4 only 2021
3. COVAXIN is an inactivated
pathogen based vaccine Answer: B
Which of the statements given above Explanation: At present only two mRNA vaccines (Moderna and Pfizer
are correct? developed by U.S.) are in use across the world to tackle the COVID
(a) 1 and 2 only pandemic. Now, Indian scientists are planning to develop an mRNA vaccine
(b) 2 and 3 only within India. Hence 3 and 4 statements are correct.
(c) 1 and 3 only Covaxin is an inactivated vaccine, which do not replicate or cause any
(d) 1, 2 and 3 harm at large
Consider the following statements: Consider the following statements:
1. Attorney General of India and 1. In the performance of her duties, the Attorney General has a right of
Solicitor General of India are the audience in all courts in the territory of India.
only officers of the Government 2. She has a right to speak, vote, and participate in either house's Polity RRP Post exam
who are allowed to participate in proceedings. question number
17.
the meetings of the Parliament of Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 29
India. (a) 1 only
2. According to the Constitution of (b) 2 only
India, the attorney General of (c) Both 1 and 2
India submits his resignation (d) Neither 1 nor 2
 when the Government which Answer: B
appointed him resigns. Explanation: Attorney General: She is the highest law officer of the
Which of the statements given above Government of India and has a right to speak and take part in the
is/are correct? proceedings of the Parliament. She does not have a Right to vote in the
(a) 1 only house as it is only the elected members who can vote in the Parliament.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
India is a member of which of the following
1. Nuclear supply group
2. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
3. G20
4. Shanghai cooperation organization
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below
Consider the following: (a) 1, 2, and 3 only
1. Asian Infrastructure Investment (b) 2 and 4 only
Bank (c) 2, 3, and 4 only
2. Missile Technology Control Regime (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. Shanghai Cooperation
Organization Answer: C
Daily Prelims Practise
18. India is a member of which of the Explanation: India is not a member of the Nuclear Supply Group, if India
test
above? Wants to be a member of NSG it has to obtain support from all 48
(a) 1 and 2 only members of NSG. China Is opposing India’s membership in NSG.
(b) 3 only The SCO currently comprises eight Member States (China, India,
(c) 2 and 3 only Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Pakistan, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan),
(d) 1, 2 and 3 four Observer States interested in acceding to full membership
(Afghanistan, Belarus, Iran, and Mongolia)
The members of the G20 are Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China,
France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea,
Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, the United Kingdom,
the United States, and the European Union.
India is a member of the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank. Hence,
option C is correct
With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens With reference to Non-Fungible Token (NFT), consider the following
(NFTs) consider the following statement: statements.
1. They enable the digital 1. NFTs cannot be exchanged with any other form of asset.
representation of physical assets 2. They use Block Chain technology.
2. They are unique cryptographic Which of the above given statements is/are incorrect?
19. tokens that exist on a (a) 1 only Daily Handout 19th
blockchain (b) 2 only January 2022
3. They can be traded or (c) Both 1 and 2
exchanged at equivalency and (d) Neither 1 nor 2
therefore can be used as a
medium of commercial Answer: D
 transactions Explanation: Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs) are digital tokens that can be
Which of the statements given above used as ownership certificate of virtual or intangible assets. They cannot be
are correct? exchanged with anything.
(a) 1 and 2 only They are cryptographic tokens that exist on a block chain, a record of who
(b) 2 and 3 only own what will be stored on a shared ledger and cannot be replicated.
(c) 1 and 3 only Hence both the statements are correct.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
With reference to Solar power production in India, consider the following
statements:
1. World's largest solar power park located in India.
2. India has an ambitious target of grid-connected installation of 100GW
by end of 2022
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
Consider the following Statements: (a) 1 only
1. Gujarat has the largest solar (b) 2 only
park in India (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Kerala has a fully solar powered
(d) Neither
International
1 nor 2 Airport
3. Goa has the largest
La Ex-PRO UPSC
floating solar photovoltaic project Answer: C Explanation: Why in News?
Prelims Test Series 2022
20. in India By embracing advances in solar technologies, Tamil Nadu can continue to
| Level-1; Test-16 on 1
Which of the statements given above lead in this sector. Largescale solar projects in Tamil Nadu have seen rapid
st March, 2022
is/are correct? growth in recent years.
(a) 1 and 2 Bhadla Solar Park: Bhadla Solar Park is the world’s largest solar park
(b) 2 only located in India which is spread over a total area of 14,000 acres in
(c) 1 and 3 Bhadla, Phalodi tehsil, Jodhpur district, Rajasthan, India. Hence,
(d) 3 only Statement 1 is correct.
The region has been described as “almost unlivable” due to its climate.
Average temperatures in Bhadla hover between 46 and 48 degrees Celsius.
Hot winds and sand storms occur frequently. Bhadla is a sandy, dry and
arid region with an area of about 45 km2. The Government of India has set
a national target of installing 1,00,000 MW grid-connected solar power
capacity in the country by December, 2022. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
“Statue of Equality”, recently seen in news, is of which of the following
The world's second tallest statue in saints?
sitting pose of Ramanuja was (a) Adi Shankaracharya
inaugurated by the Prime Minister of (b) Madhavacharya
India at Hyderabad recently. Which one (c) Sri Ramanujacharya
of the following statements correctly (d) Sant Tukaram Daily Prelims Practise
21.
represents the teachings of Ramanuja? test
(a) The best means of salvation was Answer: C
devotion. Explanation: ‘Statue of Equality’ is 216 feet tall statue of the 11th century
(b) Vedas are eternal, self- reformer and Vaishnavite saint ‘Sri Ramanuja and is located in Muchintal,
existent and wholly Hyderabad. Marking the 1,000th birth anniversary of Sri Ramanuja, his
authoritative. statue is being unveiled by the government.
 (c) Logical arguments were essential Sri Ramanujacharya represents vishishtadvaita school of thought of
means for the highest bliss. Vedanta, it lays emphasis on devotion to god for salvation.
(d) Salvation was to be obtained
through meditation.
Which of the following are the effects of Nitrogen Dioxide (NO 2) exposure?
1. NO2 interacts with water, oxygen, and other chemicals in the
atmosphere and forms acid rain.
2. The nitrate particles make the air hazy and create visibility
challenges.
Consider the following:
3. NO2 in the atmosphere contributes to nutrient pollution in coastal
1. Carbon monoxide
waters.
2. Nitrogen oxide
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
3. Ozone
(a) 1 and 2 only
4. Sulphur dioxide La Ex-PRO UPSC
(b) 2 and 3 only
Excess of which of the above in the Prelims Test Series 2022
22. (c) 1 and 3 only
environment is/are cause (s) of acid | Level-1; Test-18 on
(d) 1, 2 and 3
rain? 16th March, 2022
(a) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
(b) 2 and 4 only
Explanation: Environmental effects: NO2 and other NOx interact with
(c) 4 only
water, oxygen and other chemicals in the atmosphere and form acid rain.
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Acid rain harms sensitive ecosystems such as lakes and forests. Hence
statement 1 is correct The nitrate particles make the air hazy and create
visibility challenges. Hence statement 2 is correct NOx in the atmosphere
contributes to nutrient pollution in coastal waters. Hence statement 3 is
correct
During Summer Solstice
(a) Sun shines vertically overhead on the Tropic of Capricorn
In the northern hemisphere, the (b) Countries lying on the equator experience 24 hours of daylight
longest day of the year normally (c) Arctic circle experiences zero hours of daylight
occurs in the: (d) Sun shines directly overhead at noon
(a) First half of the month of June UPSC PRO-Prelims 2022
23.
(b) Second half of the month of June Answer: D Test Series | Test-03 on
(c) First half of the month of July Explanation: Context: June 21st is known as Summer Solstice Summer 28 th November 2021
(d) Second half of the month of July Solstice indicates the longest day of the year in northern hemisphere,
which occurs when the sun is directly over the Tropic of Cancer. On this
day sun shines directly overhead at noon as the Earth‟s tilt on its axis and
its motion in orbit around the sun.
 Consider the following statements about ‘contempt of court’ in India.
1. The term ‘contempt of court’ is well-defined in the constitution
2. Legislators are exempted from initiating contempt of court
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Consider the following statements: (a) 1 only
1. Pursuant to the report of (b) 2 only
H.N.Sanyal Committee, the (c) Both 1 and 2
contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was (d) Neither 1 nor 2
passed.
Answer: D
2. The constitution of India
Explanation: Context for giving the question: Supreme Court criticized
empowers the Supreme Court and
government over vacancies in tribunals Recently the parliament has
the High Courts to punish for
passed the Tribunal Reforms Bill, 2021 replacing the Tribunals Reforms
contempt of themselves. La Ex PRO UPSC Prelims
(Rationalisation and Conditions of Service) Ordinance, 2021. Supreme
3. The constitution of India Court has asked the government to give reasons for introducing the bill
Test Series 2022 | Level-
24. defines Civil Contempt and 1; Test-9 on 9 th
and criticised the government for not filling vacancies in tribunals. The
Criminal Contempt. January 2022
apex court warned the government to make appointments to tribunals or
4. In India, the parliament is vested else it will initiate contempt of court against government (this itself says,
with the powers to make laws on the second statement is incorrect) Though the expression ‘contempt of
Contempt of Court. court’ is not defined by the Constitution, the Article 129 of the Constitution
Which of the above statements is/are (in case of Supreme Court) and Article 215 (in case of High Courts) gave
correct? them the power to punish in case of contempt. According to the Contempt
(a) 1 and 2 only of Courts Act, 1971, contempt refers to the offence of showing disrespect to
(b) 1, 2 and 4 the dignity or authority of a court. The act divides contempt into civil
(c) 3 and 4 only contempt & criminal contempt. Civil contempt means willful disobedience
(d) 3 only to any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ or other process of a court.
Criminal contempt means disrespecting the court/obstructing the
administration of justice through the publication (whether by words,
spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representations like
caricatures) Therefore, both the statements are incorrect
25. With reference to the proposals of What were the common recommendations made by the Cripps mission and La Excellence UPSC
 Cripps Mission, consider the following
statements:
1. The Constituent Assembly would
have members nominated by the
Provincial Assemblies as well as
the Princely States.
2. Any Province, which is not
prepared to accept the new
Constitution would have the right
to sign a separate agreement with
Britain regarding its future status
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
With reference to Indian history,
consider the following statements
1. The Dutch established their
26. factories/warehouses on the east
coast on lands granted to them by
Gajapati rulers.
2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured
august offer? Prelims 2022 Test Series
1. Dominion status | Test-10 on 16th
2. Constituent assembly January, 2022
3. Protection of minority rights.
Which of the above-given statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation: Proposals of Cripps Mission
Setting up of an Indian dominion. This dominion would have the freedom
to remain with the British Commonwealth or to secede from it. It would
also be at liberty to take part in international organisations.
A Constituent Assembly would be formed to frame a new constitution for
the country. This Assembly would have members elected by the
provincial assemblies and also nominated by the princes.
Any province unwilling to join the Indian dominion could form a separate
union and have a separate constitution.
The transfer of power and the rights of minorities would be safeguarded by
negotiations between the Constituent Assembly and the British
government.
In the meantime, until this new constitution came into force, India’s
defence would be controlled by the British and the powers of the Governor-
General would remain unaltered.
The terms of the August Offer
A representative Indian body would be formed after the war to frame a
constitution for India. Dominion status was the objective for India.
The Viceroy’s Executive Council would be expanded right away to include
for the first time more Indians than whites. However, defence, finance and
home portfolios were to remain with the British.
An advisory war council was to be established.
An assurance was given to the minorities that no transfer of power
would take place “to any system of government whose authority is
directly denied by large and powerful elements in Indian national
life.” Hence option D is correct
Consider the following statements about Afonso de Albuquerque:
1. He introduced the policy of imperialism. La Ex PRO UPSC Prelims
2. He captured Goa from the ruler of Bijapur. Test Series 2022 | Level-
3. He was also known to have abolished the practice of Sati in Goa. 1; Test-9 on 9 th
Which of the above-given statements is/are correct? January 2022
(a) 1 and 3only
(b) 3 only
 Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate. (c) 1, 2 and 3
3. The English East India. Company (d) 2 and 3only
established a factory at Madras on
a plot of land leased from a Answer: C
representative of the Vijayanagara Explanation: Alfonso de Albuquerque was the second governor of
empire. Portuguese India, who introduced the ‘Policy of Imperialism’ and is known
Which of the statements given above are as the founder of the Portuguese colonial empire in India. He was also
correct? known to have abolished the practice of Sati in Goa. He captured Goa from
(a) 1 and 2 only the Bijapur sultan with the help if Vijayanagar Empire. Hence option C is
(b) 2 and 3 only the correct answer.
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the “Central
Ground Water Authority”?
1. It works under the administrative control of the “Union Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate Change”.
2. It develops technologies for sustainable exploration of groundwater in
the nation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Which one of the following has been
(a) 1 only
constituted under the Environment
(b) 2 only
(Protection) Act, 1986?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Central Water Commission
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Daily Prelims Practise
27. (b) Central Ground Water Board
Test
(c) Central Ground Water Authority
Answer: B
(d) National Water Development
Explanation: Central Ground Water Authority has been constituted
Agency
under Section 3 (3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to
regulate and control development and management of ground water
resources in the country.
It works under the control of the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of
Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation.
Its mandate is to develop and disseminate technologies, and monitor and
implement national policies for the Scientific and Sustainable development
and management of India's Ground Water Resources.
Which of the following is/are the In which of the following instances do Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? have equal powers?
1. To ratify the declaration of 1. Amendment of the constitution
Emergency 2. No-confidence motion
Daily Prelims Practise
28. 2. To pass a motion of no- 3. Money Bill Test
confidence against the Council Select the correct answer using the code given below
of Ministers (a) 1 only
3. To impeach the President of (b) 1 and 2 only
India (c) 2 and 3 only
 Select the correct answer using the (d) 1, 2 and 3
code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 Answer: A
(b) 2 only Explanation: Rajya Sabha has equal power with Lok Sabha under
(c) 1 and 3 article 368 of the Constitution providing for the Power of Parliament
(d) 3 only to amend the Constitution.
The Council of Ministers is not responsible to the Rajya Sabha.
Therefore, a no-confidence motion cannot be introduced in the Rajya
Sabha. The Council of Ministers is in fact, responsible to the Lok
Sabha. It can remove a government from office by passing a
resolution of no-confidence.
The Money Bills cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha. The
Money Bills can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. With respect
to Money Bills, the Rajya Sabha can make only recommendations
that may or may not be accepted by the Lok Sabha. The Rajya
Sabha is given 14 days’ time to consider the Money Bills and if it
fails to do anything within that period, the Bill is deemed to have
been passed in the manner it was passed by the Lok Sabha. The Lok
Sabha is not bound to accept the recommendations of the Rajya
Sabha with respect to Money Bills. The Lok Sabha has the real and
final authority in respect of Money Bills.
Hence, option A is correct
Consider the following statements regarding The Ghadr party:
1. Its headquarters are at San Francisco.
Consider the following freedom 2. Revolutionaries of party included mainly ex-soldiers and
fighters: peasants.
1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh 3. They had set up a ‘Swadesh Sevak Home’
2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3. Rash Behari Bose (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
29.
Who of the above was/were (c) 2 and 3 only Daily Prelims Practise
actively associated with the Ghadar (d) 1, 2 and 3 Test
Party?
(a) 1 and 2 Answer: D
(b) 2 only Explanation: All the statements given above are correct.
(c) 1 and 3 The Ghadr Party was a revolutionary group organized around a
(d) 3 only weekly newspaper The Ghadr with its headquarters at San
Francisco and branches along the US coast and in the Far East.
These revolutionaries included mainly ex-soldiers and peasants who
had migrated from the Punjab to the USA and Canada
 The party was established as the Hindi Association of Pacific
Coast under the leadership of Lala Har Dayal with Baba Sohan
Singh Bhakna as its president.
To carry out revolutionary activities, the earlier activists had set up
a ‘Swadesh Sevak Home’ at Vancouver and ‘United India House’ at
Seattle. Finally, in 1913, the Ghadr was established. Komagata
Maru Incident and the Ghadr. The importance of this event lies in
the fact that it created an explosive situation in the Punjab.
Komagata Maru was the name of a ship which was carrying 370
passengers, mainly
Sikh and Punjabi Muslim would-be immigrants, from Singapore to
Vancouver.
Educational Objective: The Ghadr Party was a revolutionary group
with its headquarters at San Francisco revolutionaries included
mainly ex-soldiers and peasants
Which of the following Services are Provide through Cloud
Computing?
1. Infrastructure-as-a-Service
2. Platform-as-a-Service
With reference to “Software as a
3. Software-as-a-Service
Service (Saas)”, consider the
4. Database-as-a-Service
following statements:
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below
1. SaaS buyers can customize
(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
the user interface and can
(b) 2, 3, and 4 only
change data fields
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
2. SaaS users can access their
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
data through their mobile
devices. Daily Prelims Practise
30. Answer: A
3. Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo Test
Explanation: Anything that includes delivering hosted services over
Mail are form of SaaS
the internet comes under the broad umbrella of Cloud Computing.
Which of the statements given above
The services so provided are:
are correct?
1. Infrastructure-as-a-Service: Infrastructure as a service (IaaS)
(a) 1 and 2 only
is a type of cloud computing service that offers essential
(b) 2 and 3 only
compute, storage, and networking resources on-demand, on a
(c) 1 and 3 only
pay-as-you-go basis. IaaS is one of the four types of cloud
(d) 1, 2 and 3
services, along with software as a service (SaaS), platform as a
service (PaaS), and serverless.
2. Platform-as-a-Service: Platform as a service (PaaS) is a cloud
computing model where a third-party provider delivers
hardware and software tools to users over the internet.
 Usually, these tools are needed for application development. A
PaaS provider hosts the hardware and software on its own
infrastructure. As a result, PaaS frees developers from having
to install in-house hardware and software to develop or run a
new application.
3. Software-as-a-Service: Software as a service (SaaS) allows
users to connect to and use cloud-based apps over the
Internet. Common examples are email, calendaring and office
tools (such as Microsoft Office 365). SaaS provides a complete
software solution that you purchase on a pay-as-you-go basis
from a cloud service provider.
Consider the following pairs
Technique/Technology Application - Use
1. Somatic Cell – Reproductive Nuclear
Transfer Cloning
2. DNA sequencing – Forensic tests
3. Polymerase Chain Manufacture - Biodegradable Plastics
Consider the following statements of Reaction
DNA Barcoding can be a tool to: Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
1. Assess the age of a plant or a. 1 only
animal b. 1 and 2 only
2. Distinguish among species c. 2 and 3 only
that look alike d. 1, 2 and 3
3. Identify undesirable animal
Answer: B Daily Prelims Practise
31. or plant materials in
Test
processed foods Explanation: Somatic cell nuclear transfer is a technique for
Which of the statements given cloning in which the nucleus of a somatic cell is transferred to
above is/are correct? the cytoplasm of an enucleated egg. After the somatic cell
(a) 1 only transfers, the cytoplasmic factors affect the nucleus to become
(b) 3 only a zygote.
(c) 1 and 2 DNA profiling (also called DNA fingerprinting) is the process of
(d) 2 and 3 determining an individual's DNA characteristics. DNA analysis
intended to identify a species, rather than an individual, is
called DNA barcoding
The polymerase chain reaction is a chemical reaction that molecular
biologists use to amplify pieces of DNA. This reaction allows a single
or a few copies of DNA to be replicated into millions or billions of
copies. Hence, 3 is incorrect.