You are on page 1of 31

Subject Wise Test – 10 (Solutions) 2022

1. Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Pradhan Mantri Khanij Kshetra Kalyan Yojana
In 2015, the Union government announced the launch of the Pradhan Mantri Khanij Kshetra Kalyan Yojana
(PMKKKY).
Objectives of the scheme:
Most productive mining areas in the country are largely areas inhabited by scheduled tribes hence the scheme is
focused on:
 To implement various developmental and welfare projects/programs in mining affected areas that
complement the existing ongoing schemes/projects of State and Central Government.
 To minimize/mitigate the adverse impacts, during and after mining, on the environment, health and socio-
economics of people in mining districts.
 To ensure long-term sustainable livelihoods for the affected people in mining areas.
The scheme is implemented by the District Mineral Foundations (DMFs) of the respective districts using the
funds accruing to the DMF.

2. Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
PAT is a regulatory instrument to reduce specific energy consumption in energy intensive industries, with an
associated market based mechanism to enhance the cost effectiveness through certification of excess energy
saving which can be traded.
The energy intensive industries including the thermal power plants are the major players in this entire
scheme of PAT. It refers to the calculation of Specific Energy Consumption (SEC) in the baseline year and
projected SEC in the target year covering different forms of net energy going into the boundary of the designated
consumers’ plant and the products leaving it over a particular cycle.

3. Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN)
 It is a Central Sector Scheme with 100% funding from the Government of India.
 It is being implemented by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
 It was launched in February 2019.
 Under the scheme, the Centre transfers an amount of Rs 6,000 per year, in three equal instalments,
directly into the bank accounts of all landholding farmers irrespective of the size of their land holdings.
 The entire responsibility of identification of beneficiary farmer families rests with the State / UT
Governments.
Objective:
 To supplement the financial needs of the Small and Marginal Farmers in procuring various inputs to
ensure proper crop health and appropriate yields, commensurate with the anticipated farm income at the
end of each crop cycle.
 To protect them from falling in the clutches of moneylenders for meeting such expenses and ensure their
continuance in the farming activities.

4. Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
‘Jal Hi Jeevan Hai’ scheme
The farmers of northern districts of Haryana have shown a keen interest in crop diversification scheme called ‘Jal
Hi Jeevan Hai’ of the Haryana government which promotes to diversify paddy area into maize, arhar dal (pigeon
pea) and soybean.
Incentives provided by the Government: Rs 2000/- per acre for the farmer. High quality and high yield hybrid
seed will be provided to these selected farmers on HSDC counters free of cost. The selected farmers will be
covered by State Government by paying the farmer’s premium share also for Maize Crop under PMFBY.
Free of cost hybrid seeds would also be provided under the scheme.

5. Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
e-SANTA
 It is an electronic marketplace providing a platform to connect aqua farmers and the buyers.
 Launched by Union Commerce Ministry.
 It will enable the farmers to get a better price and the exporters to directly purchase quality products from
the farmers enhancing traceability, a key factor in international trade.
 The term e-SANTA was coined for the web portal, meaning Electronic Solution for Augmenting NaCSA
farmers' Trade in Aquaculture.
 e-SANTA will ‘RAISE’ the lives & income of farmers by: Reducing Risk, Awareness of Products &
Markets, Increase in Income, Shielding Against Wrong Practice and Ease of Processes.

6. Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
About the Stand-Up India Scheme:
 Stand Up India Scheme was launched on 5 April 2016 to promote entrepreneurship at the grass-root
level of economic empowerment and job creation.
 This scheme seeks to leverage the institutional credit structure to reach out to the underserved sector of
people such as SCs, STs and Women Entrepreneurs.
 The objective of this scheme is to facilitate bank loans between Rs.10 lakh and Rs.1 crore to at least one
SC or ST borrower and at least one woman borrower per bank branch for setting up a Greenfield
enterprise.
 The offices of SIDBI and NABARD shall be designated Stand-Up Connect Centres (SUCC).
Eligibility under Stand-Up India Scheme:
 SC/ST and/or women entrepreneurs; above 18 years of age.
 Loans under the scheme are available for only Greenfield project.
 Borrower should not be in default to any bank or financial institution.
 In case of non-individual enterprises at least 51% of the shareholding and controlling stake should be
held by either an SC/ST or Woman entrepreneur.

7. Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
SWAMITVA scheme
 Launched on Panchayati Raj Diwas (April 24th, 2020).
 The scheme seeks to map residential land ownership in the rural sector using modern technology like the
use of drones.
 The scheme aims to revolutionise property record maintenance in India.
 The scheme is piloted by the Panchayati Raj ministry.
 Under the scheme, residential land in villages will be measured using drones to create a
nondisputable record.
 Property card for every property in the village will be prepared by states using accurate measurements
delivered by drone-mapping. These cards will be given to property owners and will be recognised by the
land revenue records department.
 Aim: To provide an integrated property validation solution for rural India
Benefits of the scheme:
 The delivery of property rights through an official document will enable villagers to access bank finance
using their property as collateral.
 The property records for a village will also be maintained at the Panchayat level, allowing for the
collection of associated taxes from the owners. The money generated from these local taxes will be used
to build rural infrastructure and facilities.
 Freeing the residential properties including land of title disputes and the creation of an official record is
likely to result in appreciation in the market value of the properties.
 The accurate property records can be used for facilitating tax collection, new building and structure plan,
issuing of permits and for thwarting attempts at property grabbing.

8. Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
About FAME-India scheme
 It is a scheme to incentivize the production and promotion of eco-friendly vehicles including
electric vehicles and hybrid vehicles.
 It was launched by the Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises in 2015.
 FAME-India is part of the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP) 2020 launched in 2013.
About FAME II scheme
 It is proposed the second phase of Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Hybrid and Electric Vehicles in
India (FAME-India) scheme which entailed providing incentives for strong hybrid and electric vehicles.
 It proposes to give a push to electric vehicles (EVs) in public transport and seeks to encourage adoption
of EVs by way of market creation and demand aggregation.

9. Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Atal Bhujal Yojana
 It is a Central Sector Scheme aims to improve ground water management through community
participation in identified priority areas in seven States.
 It will be implemented over a period of 5 years (2020-21 to 2024-25).
 The states are Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and Uttar
Pradesh.
 It will promote panchayat led ground water management and behavioural changes with primary focus on
demand side management.
It has two major components such as,
 Institutional Strengthening and Capacity Building Component
 Incentive Component for the States

10. Correct Answer : A


Answer Justification :
Digital India
 It is a programme to transform India into digital empowered society and knowledge economy.
 The scheme is coordinated by the department of Electronics and IT and implemented by all government
departments.
 The scheme is to be monitored by a Digital India committee comprised of several ministers.
 It is an umbrella programme which includes the hitherto National Optical Fiber Network (NOFN) to
connect 2, 50,000gram Panchayats by providing internet connectivity to all citizens.
 Digital India includes development of an electronic development fund and envisages Net- Zero
Electronics Import Target by 2020
Digital India has three core components. These includes
 The creation of digital infrastructure,
 Delivering services digitally,
 Digital literacy
9 Key points of Digital India Programme are
 Universal Access to Phones
 Broadband Highways
 Public Internet Access Programme
 e-Governance – Reforming government through Technology
 e-Kranti – Electronic delivery of services
 Information for All
 Electronics Manufacturing – Target NET ZERO Imports
 IT for Jobs
 Early Harvest Programmes

11. Correct Answer : D


Answer Justification :
National Pension Scheme
 It is a pension cum investment scheme launched to provide old age security to citizens.
 Any individual citizen of India (both resident and Non-resident) in the age group of 18-65 years can join
NPS.
 The scheme is regulated by Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).
 The different sectors covered under the scheme are classified in to 2 categories.
 The employee of the various sectors contributes towards pension from monthly salary along with
matching contribution from the employer (central government/state govt/corporate).
 After retirement or exit from the scheme, the corpus is made available with the mandate that some
portion of the corpus must be invested into annuity to provide a monthly pension post retirement or exit
from the scheme.
 Recent Developments–PFRDA has now permitted Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) to enroll in NPS at par
with Non-Resident Indians.
 Now, any Indian citizen, resident or non-resident and OCIs are eligible to join NPS till the age of
65 years.

12. Correct Answer : A


Answer Justification :
PM-CARES:
The Prime Minister’s Citizen Assistance and Relief in Emergency Situations (PM-CARES) Fund was set up to
accept donations and provide relief during the Covid-19 pandemic, and other similar emergencies.
PM-CARES Fund:
 PM-CARES was set up as a public charitable trust with the trust deed registered on March 27, 2020.
 It can avail donations from the foreign contribution and donations to fund can also avail 100% tax
exemption.
 PM-CARES is different from the Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund (PMNRF).
Features:
 No budgetary support
 No Parliamentary oversight
 No CAG audit / Audit by independent auditors
 Not under RTI Act
 Individual beneficiaries not disclosed
 Individual donors not disclosed
 Donations are tax exempt
 Can be adjusted against CSR
 Foreign Government donations accepted

13. Correct Answer : A


Answer Justification :
Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan
It is a centrally sponsored scheme with the objective to enhance access to secondary education. Initiatives under
RMSA
 Shaala Siddhi - It is a web portal developed by the National University of Educational Planning and
Administration (NUEPA) to enable schools to evaluate their performance in 7 key domains under the
prescribed framework.
 ShaalaDarpan - It is an e-Governance platform that covers all the KendriyaVidyalayas, to improve quality
of learning, efficiency of school administration, governance of schools & service delivery.
 e-PATHSHALA - It is a joint initiative of HRD, National Council of Educational Research and Training
(NCERT) to disseminate all educational e-resources including textbooks, audio, video and non-print
materials.
 Kala utsav - To promote Arts (Music, Theatre, Dance, Visual Arts and Crafts) in education in secondary
stage of the education to bring art in an inclusive environment.
 SeemaDarshan -It is an intiative by HRD in collaboration with Ministry of Defence and Ministry of Home
Affairs for the students of KendriyaVidyalayas and NavodayaVidyalayas to provide an opportunity for the
children to experience the border environment and to foster patriotism among the students.

14. Correct Answer : A


Answer Justification :
Solar Charakha Mission
 It is the employment generating venture to train rural people in weaving.
 The looms and spindles will be completely powered by Solar energy.
 It is being implemented by Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC).
 The geographical distribution of the clusters covers throughout the country.
 At least 10% clusters located in the North Eastern Region (NER), J&K and hilly states.
Objectives of the mission
 To ensure inclusive growth by generation of employment, especially for women and youth.
 Sustainable development through solar charkha clusters in rural areas.
 To leverage low-cost, innovative technologies, boost rural economy etc
15. Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs launched a scheme PM Street Vendor's AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM
SVANidhi) to empower Street Vendors by not only extending loans to them, but also for their holistic
development and economic upliftment. The scheme intends to facilitate collateral free working capital loans of up
to INR10,000/- of one-year tenure, to approximately 50 lakh street vendors, to help resume their businesses in
the urban areas, including surrounding peri-urban/rural areas. PM-SAVNidhi Portal - The portal developed by
SIDBI will provide an integrated end to end IT interface to users for availing benefits under the scheme.
Shagun portal:
 It is an initiative to improve school education system by creating a junction for all online portals and
websites relating to various activities of the Department of School Education and Literacy in the
Government of India and all States and Union Territories.
 The term ‘Shagun’ is coined from two different words- ‘Shala’ meaning Schools and ‘Gunvatta’
meaning Quality.
 The portal seeks to provide a very robust feedback mechanism which will increase public participation
and will ensure accountability and transparency.
 It also provides vital information relating to the availability of nearby schools, navigable distance vis-a-vis
aerial distance between schools.
 By ministry of Education
PENCIL stands for Platform for Effective Enforcement for No Child Labour. It is an efficient enforcement
mechanism contributing towards the ultimate goal of a “child labour free society”. It facilitates the uploading and
sharing of awareness generation activities.
Launched by Ministry of Labour and Employment

16. Correct Answer : B


Answer Justification :
Electoral bonds:
 Electoral bonds will allow donors to pay political parties using banks as an intermediary.
 Key features: Although called a bond, the banking instrument resembling promissory notes will not carry
any interest. The electoral bond, which will be a bearer instrument, will not carry the name of the payee
and can be bought for any value, in multiples of Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 1 lakh, Rs 10 lakh or Rs 1
crore.
 Eligibility: As per provisions of the Scheme, electoral bonds may be purchased by a citizen of India, or
entities incorporated or established in India. A person being an individual can buy electoral bonds, either
singly or jointly with other individuals. Only the registered Political Parties which have secured not
less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last Lok Sabha elections or the State Legislative
Assembly are eligible to receive the Electoral Bonds.
 Need: The electoral bonds are aimed at rooting out the current system of largely anonymous cash
donations made to political parties which lead to the generation of black money in the economy.
 It is not available for trading on stock exchanges and cannot be used as collateral for loans. It is
available only in physical form

17. Correct Answer : A


Answer Justification :
National Population Register (NPR):
 It is a Register of usual residents of the country.
 It will be conducted by the Office of the Registrar General of India (RGI) under the Home Ministry
 It is being prepared at the local (Village/sub-Town), sub-District, District, State and National level
under provisions of the Citizenship Act 1955 and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and
issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003.
 It is mandatory for every usual resident of India to register in the NPR.
 Objectives: To create a comprehensive identity database of every usual resident in the country.
Who is a usual resident?
A usual resident is defined for the purposes of NPR as a person who has resided in a local area for the past
6 months or more or a person who intends to reside in that area for the next 6 months or more.
Components:
 The NPR database would contain demographic as well as biometric details.
 As per the provisions of the NPR, a resident identity card (RIC) will be issued to individuals over the
age of 18.
 This will be a chip-embedded smart card containing the demographic and biometric attributes of each
individual.
 The UID number will also be printed on the card.

18. Correct Answer : D


Answer Justification :
Mission 175:
 Mission 175 is a global platform to explore strategies for development and deployment of
renewables.
 It is hosted by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), the event showcases India’s
renewable energy potential and the Government’s efforts to scale up capacity to meet the national
energy requirement in a socially, economically and ecologically sustainable manner.
 In the year 2015, the Government of India announced a target for 175 GW cumulative renewable power
installed capacity by the year 2022.
 Ahead of COP 21, India submitted its Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC) to the
UNFCCC, outlining the country’s post-2020 climate actions.
 India’s INDC builds on its goal of installing 175 Gigawatts (GW) of renewable power capacity by 2022 by
setting a new target to increase the country’s share of non-fossil based installed electric capacity to 40
percent by 2030.

19. Correct Answer : C


Answer Justification :
PAHAL
 Direct Benefit Transfer for LPG consumer scheme called, `PAHAL‘ aims to reduce leakage of subsidy,
reduce intermediaries and eliminate duplicate LPG connections by introducing direct cash transfer of
subsidies.
 LPG consumers, who join the scheme, will get the LPG cylinders at market price and receive the
subsidy directly into their bank accounts.
 The scheme required the consumer to mandatorily have a bank account linked with Aadhaar
number for availing LPG Subsidy.
 If they do not possess Aadhaar number, they will have to link their bank account directly with their LPG
ID.

20. Correct Answer : B


Answer Justification :
Kisan Suryodaya Yojana:
 Kisan Suryodaya is scheme of Gujarat state government.
 It is aimed at providing day-time electricity to farmers in Gujarat for irrigation and farming purposes.
 Under the scheme Rs. 3,500 crore will be spent over the next three years for providing solar power to
farmers for irrigation during daytime (5 AM to 9 PM).
 10 districts including Dahod, Gir-Somnath and Tapi have been selected under the Scheme for 2020-21.
 The remaining districts will be covered in a phase-wise manner by 2022-23.
 About 3,500 circuit kilometers (CKM) of new transmission lines will be laid for this project.
 The scheme would help in the expansion of micro irrigation in the state.

21. Correct Answer : B


Answer Justification :
The Court is composed of 15 judges, who are elected for terms of office of nine years by the United
Nations General Assembly and the Security Council. These organs vote simultaneously but separately.Hence
Statement 1 is incorrect.
In order to be elected, a candidate must receive an absolute majority of the votes in both bodies.
In order to ensure a measure of continuity, one third of the Court is elected every three years and Judges are
eligible for re-election.
ICJ is assisted by a Registry, its administrative organ. Its official languages are English and French.The 15
judges of the Court are distributed in following regions:
 Three from Africa.
 Two from Latin America and Caribbean.
 Three from Asia.
 Five from Western Europe and other states.
 Two from Eastern Europe.
Unlike other organs of international organizations, the Court is not composed of representatives of
governments. Members of the Court are independent judges whose first task, before taking up their duties, is to
make a solemn declaration in open court that they will exercise their powers impartially and
conscientiously.Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Indian Judges at the ICJ
Judge Dalveer Bhandari: Member of the Court since 27 April 2012
Raghunandan Swarup Pathak: 1989-1991
Nagendra Singh: 1973-1988
Sir Benegal Rau: 1952-1953

22. Correct Answer : D


Answer Justification :
The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is a multilateral development bank that aims to improve
economic and social outcomes in Asia. The bank currently has 103 members, including 16 prospective members
from around the world. The bank started operation after the agreement entered into force on 25 December 2015,
after ratifications were received from 10 member states holding a total number of 50% of the initial subscriptions
of the Authorized Capital Stock.
https://www.aiib.org/en/about-aiib/governance/members-of-bank/index.html

23. Correct Answer : D


Answer Justification :
Both the statements are incorrect.
Fourteen of the G-20 nations are AIIB members including France, Germany, Italy and the United
Kingdom.
Bhutan is not a member of AIIB
https://www.aiib.org/en/about-aiib/governance/members-of-bank/index.html

24. Correct Answer : A


Answer Justification :
Ministerial Conference
The topmost decision-making body of the WTO is the Ministerial Conference, which usually meets every
two years.It brings together all members of the WTO, all of which are countries or customs unions.
The Ministerial Conference can take decisions on all matters under any of the multilateral trade agreements.

25. Correct Answer : B


Answer Justification :
The United States of America (USA) had terminated India’s designation as a beneficiarydeveloping nation under
the GSP (Generalized System of Preference) trade program witheffect from 5th June 2019.
Implications:
With this, India could lose a vital U.S. trade concession, under which it enjoys zerotariffs on $5.6 billion of
exports to the United States.
Generalised System of Preferences (GSP):
It is a U.S. trade program designed to promote economic growth in the developingworld by providing preferential
duty-free entry for up to 4,800 products from around129 designated beneficiary countries and territories.

26. Correct Answer : A


Answer Justification :
Annual Special 301 report
It is prepared annually by the Office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR) thatidentifies trade
barriers to United States companies and products due to the intellectualproperty laws, such as copyright, patents
and trademarks, in other countries.
• It is published pursuant to Section 301 of the Trade Act of 1974.
• The Report includes a list of "Priority Foreign Countries", that are judged to have inadequateintellectual
property laws; these countries may be subject to sanctions.
• In addition, the report contains a "Priority Watch List" and a "Watch List", containingcountries whose intellectual
property regimes are deemed of concern.

27. Correct Answer : D


Answer Justification :
In the conflict between Israel and Palestine, both sides have taken to air strikes and rocket attacks. On Tuesday
evening, videos on social media showed rockets fired from Gaza being intercepted by the Israeli Iron Dome air
defence system. It appeared that the rockets were hitting an invisible shield.
What is the Iron Dome?
It is a short-range, ground-to-air, air defence system that includes a radar and Tamir interceptor missiles that
track and neutralise any rockets or missiles aimed at Israeli targets.
It is used for countering rockets, artillery & mortars (C-RAM) as well as aircraft, helicopters and unmanned aerial
vehicles.
The genesis of the Iron Dome goes back to the 2006 Israeli-Lebanon war, when the Hezbollah fired thousands
of rockets into Israel. The following year, Israel announced that its state-run Rafael Advance Systems would
come up with a new air defence system to protect its cities and people. It was developed with Israel Aerospace
Industries.
The Iron Dome was deployed in 2011. While Rafael claims a success rate of over 90%, with more than 2,000
interceptions, experts agree the success rate is over 80%. Rafael says on its website that it can “protect
deployed and manoeuvring forces, as well as the Forward Operating Base (FOB) and urban areas, against a
wide range of indirect and aerial threats”.
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-how-israels-iron-dome-intercepts-rockets-7312743/

28. Correct Answer : C


Answer Justification :
Both the statements are correct.
What is the Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA)?
BECA will help India get real-time access to American geospatial intelligence that willenhance the
accuracy of automated systems and weapons like missiles and armed drones. Through the sharing of
information on maps and satellite images, it will help India access topographical and aeronautical data,
and advanced products that will aid in navigation and targeting.
This could be key to Air Force-to-Air Force cooperation between India and the US. Just as your radio cab (or the
GPS in your smartphone) helps you zero in on the path to your destination and helps you reach it quickly and
efficiently, BECA will provide Indian military systems with a high-quality GPS to navigate missiles with real-time
intelligence to precisely target the adversary.Besides the sailing of ships, flying of aircraft, fighting of wars, and
location of targets, geospatial intelligence is also critical to the response to natural disasters.
Solution: C
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/beca-india-us-trade-agreements-rajnath-singh-mike-pompeo-
6906637

29. Correct Answer : D


Answer Justification :
Both the statements are incorrect.
The European Union is a group of 28 countries that operate as a cohesive economic and political block.
19 of these countries use EURO as their official currency. 9 EU members (Bulgaria, Croatia, Czech
Republic, Denmark, Hungary, Poland, Romania, Sweden, and the United Kingdom) do not use the euro.
The EU grew out of a desire to form a single European political entity to end centuries of warfare among
European countries that culminated with World War II and decimated much of the continent.
In 2012, the EU received the Nobel Peace Prize for having "contributed to the advancement of peace and
reconciliation, democracy, and human rights in Europe.

30. Correct Answer : A


Answer Justification :
Chabahar Port is a seaport in Chabahar located in southeastern Iran, on the Gulf of Oman. It serves as
Iran's only oceanic port, and consists of two separate ports named Shahid Kalantari and Shahid Beheshti, each
of which has five berths.
Al Duqm Port & Drydock is a seaport located in Oman. The port is equipped with a Ship Repair Yard &
Drydock facility, which is the first of its kind in Oman.
Port Said is an Egyptian city at the northern end of the Suez Canal, on the Mediterranean Sea. A concrete
lighthouse dates from the canal’s opening in 1869. On the waterfront is the former department store Simon Arzt.
Now disused, the art deco building offers a glimpse into the past, to when Port Said was a cosmopolitan trading
hub. Nearby is the Islamic-style Suez Canal Authority Building, with its green domes.

31. Correct Answer : B


Answer Justification :
Bhasan Char is anisland specificallydeveloped toaccommodate1,00,000 of the 1million Rohingya whohave fled
fromneighbouringMyanmar.
While human rightsgroups have criticisedthe move and someare being forced to goagainst their will,
thegovernment hasinsisted that refugeesmoving to the island have done so voluntarily.
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/where-rohingya-are-being-sent-a-newly-surfaced-island-in-bay-of-
bengal-7094452/

32. Correct Answer : D


Answer Justification :
Quetta, formerly known as Shalkot, is the provincial capital and largest city of the Pakistani province of
Balochistan. It is also the 10th largest city in Pakistan. It was largely destroyed in the 1935 Quetta earthquake,
but was rebuilt and has a population of 1,001,205 according to the census of 2017.
Jalalabad is the fifth-largest city of Afghanistan. It has a population of about 356,274, and serves as the
capital of Nangarhar Province in the eastern part of the country, about 130 kilometres from the capital Kabul.
Aleppo is a city in Syria, which serves as the capital of the Aleppo Governorate, the most populous
Syrian governorate. With an official population of 4.6 million in 2010, Aleppo was the largest Syrian city before
the Syrian Civil War; however, it is now the secondlargest city in Syria, after the capital Damascus.

33. Correct Answer : C


Answer Justification :

34. Correct Answer : C


Answer Justification :
Both the statements are correct.
India-Bangladesh Border Haat is a border trade market between Bangladesh and India.
• Currently, four border haats are operational along the India-Bangladesh border. Two borderhaats are located in
Meghalaya at Kalaichar and Balat and two are located in Tripura atSrinagar and Kamalasagar.
• There are no border haats in operation along the Bhutan and Myanmar borders.
• In addition to the four functional haats, the government of India and the government of thePeople's Republic of
Bangladesh have approved six more border haats: two in Tripura at Palbasti and Kamalpur and four in
Meghalaya at Bholaganj, Nalikata, Shibbari and Ryngku.
• The government of India has also executed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with thegovernment of the
Republic of Union of Myanmar on the establishment of border haats alongtheir border.
The Following commodities are traded in the Border Haats:
• Vegetables, food items, fruits, spices.
• Minor Forest produce eg bamboo, bamboo grass and broom sticks, excluding timber.
• Products of Cottage Industries like Gamcha, Lungi etc
35. Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

36. Correct Answer : B


Answer Justification :
A disputed reef in the South China sea - Reed Bank.
About the dispute:
It is a dispute over territory and sovereignty over ocean areas, and the Paracels and the Spratlys– two
island chains claimed in whole or in part by a number of countries.
Alongside the fully fledged islands, there are dozens of rocky outcrops, atolls, sandbanks and reefs, such as the
Scarborough Shoal.Beijing often invokes the so-called nine-dash line to justify its apparent historic rights over
most of the South China Sea, parts of which are also claimed by Taiwan, Malaysia, the Philippines and
Brunei.
China has ignored a 2016 international tribunal decision that declared its assertion as without basis.

37. Correct Answer : B


Answer Justification :
Where is West Bank?
It is a landlocked territory near the Mediterranean coast of Western Asia, bordered by Jordan tothe east
and by the Green Line separating it and Israel on the south, west and north.
The WestBank also contains a significant section of the western Dead Sea shore.

38. Correct Answer : C


Answer Justification :
Both the statements are correct.
The IAEA was created in 1957 in response to the deep fears and expectations generated by the
discoveries and diverse uses of nuclear technology. The Agency’s genesis was U.S. President
Eisenhower’s “Atoms for Peace” address to the General Assembly of the United Nations on 8 December 1953.
In October 1957, the delegates to the First General Conference decided to establish the IAEA’s headquarters in
Vienna, Austria. Until the opening of the Vienna International Centre in August 1979, the old Grand Hotel next to
the Vienna Opera House served as the Agency’s temporary headquarters.
The IAEA has also two regional offices located in Toronto, Canada (since 1979) and Tokyo, Japan (since
1984), as well as two liaison offices in New York City, United States of America (since 1957) and Geneva,
Switzerland (since 1965). The Agency runs laboratories specialized in nuclear technology in Vienna and
Seibersdorf, Austria, opened in 1961, and, since 1961, in Monaco.
https://www.iaea.org/about/overview/history
39. Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :

40. Correct Answer : A


Answer Justification :
What is Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC)?
It is a multilateral treaty that bans chemical weapons and requires their destruction within aspecified
period of time.The CWC is implemented by the Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons
(OPCW),which is headquartered in The Hague (OPCW won the 2013 Nobel peace prize).
The CWC is open to all nations and currently has 193 states-parties. Israel has signed but has yetto ratify the
convention.Three states have neither signed nor ratified the convention- Egypt, North Korea and
SouthSudan.Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
The Chemical Weapons Convention prohibits:
1. Developing, producing, acquiring, stockpiling, or retaining chemical weapons.
2. The direct or indirect transfer of chemical weapons.
3. Chemical weapons use or military preparation for use.
4. Assisting, encouraging, or inducing other states to engage in CWC-prohibited activity.

41. Correct Answer : C


Answer Justification :
The NSG was founded in response to the Indian nuclear test in May 1974 and first met in November 1975.
The test demonstrated that certain non-weapons specific nuclear technology could be readily turned to weapons
development. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
The NSG looks after critical issues relating to nuclear sector and its members are allowed to trade in and export
nuclear technology. The group works under the principle of unanimity and even one country's vote against
India will scuttle its bid. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
As of August 2016, 191 states have adhered to the treaty, though North Korea, which acceded in 1985 but
never came into compliance, announced its withdrawal from the NPT in 2003, following detonation of nuclear
devices in violation of core obligations. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

42. Correct Answer : D


Answer Justification :
All the statements given above are correct.
The Group of 7 (G7) is a group consisting of Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, and
the United States. The European Union is alsorepresented within the G7.
As of 2018, the seven countries involved represent 58% of the global net wealth ($317 trillion) and more
than 46% of the global gross domestic product (GDP) based on nominal values, and more than 32% of the
global GDP based on purchasing power parity.
Canada has least population amongst G7 countries (35,467,000).

43. Correct Answer : B


Answer Justification :
The Global Infrastructure Facility (GIF) is a partnership among governments, multilateral development
banks, private sector investors, and financiers. It is designed to provide a new way to collaborate on
preparing, structuring, and implementing complex projects that no single institution could handle on its own.
The World Bank (WB) has launched the Global Infrastructure Facility.

44. Correct Answer : D


Answer Justification :
Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) is a regional organization but not within European Union. Hence
Statement 1 is incorrect.
Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) is the collective voice of the Muslim world and works to safeguard and
protect the interests of the Muslim world in the spirit of promoting international peace and harmony. Hence
Statement 2 is incorrect.
https://www.oic-oci.org/page/?p_id=52&p_ref=26&lan=en
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Organisation_of_Islamic_Cooperation

45. Correct Answer : C


Answer Justification :
India, Australia, Iran IR, Indonesia Thailand, Malaysia, South Africa, Mozambique, Kenya, Sri Lanka, Tanzania,
Bangladesh, Singapore, Mauritius, Madagascar, UAE, Yemen, Seychelles, Somalia, Comoros and Oman are
members of IORA

46. Correct Answer : A


Answer Justification :
The Travel and Tourism Competitiveness Report was first published in 2007 by the World Economic Forum.
The report ranks selected nations according to the Travel and Tourism Competitiveness Index (TTCI), which
scores from 1 to 6 the performance of a given country in each specific sub-index.

47. Correct Answer : C


Answer Justification :
The Nuclear Energy Agency (NEA) is an intergovernmental agency that facilitates co-operation among countries
with advanced nuclear technology infrastructures to seek excellence in nuclear safety, technology, science,
environment and law. The NEA, which is under the framework of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation
and Development, is headquartered in Paris, France. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
A country need not to sign or ratify Non-Proliferation Treaty before joining Nuclear Energy agency. Hence
Statement 2 is incorrect.
 NEA membership represents much of the world's best nuclear expertise and it maintains strategic
partnerships with key non-member countries involved in nuclear technology.
 By pooling this expertise, the NEA provides each member country access to the substantial experience of
others and an opportunity to substantially leverage its resources.
 The NEA establishes a climate of mutual trust and collaboration, enabling the full exchange of experience
and a frank assessment of issues.
 NEA scientific and technical work is in the forefront of knowledge and is known for its depth and quality.
 The NEA publishes consensus positions on key issues, providing member countries with credible
references.
 The NEA is cost-effective, relying on member country experts to carry out much of its technical
work. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
 The NEA's system of standing technical committees enables the Agency to be flexible and responsive.
https://www.oecd-nea.org/general/about/

48. Correct Answer : D


Answer Justification :
Gulf Cooperation Council (is a regional intergovernmental political and economic union consisting of all
Arab states of the Persian Gulf except Iraq, namely: Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the
United Arab Emirates.
All current member states are monarchies, including three constitutional monarchies (Qatar, Kuwait, and
Bahrain), two absolute monarchies (Saudi Arabia and Oman), and one federal monarchy (the United Arab
Emirates, which is composed of seven member states, each of which is an absolute monarchy with its own
emir). There have been discussions regarding the future membership of Jordan, Morocco, and Yemen.

49. Correct Answer : C


Answer Justification :
The G20 comprises 19 countries and the European Union. The 19 countries are Argentina, Australia, Brazil,
Canada, China, Germany, France, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa,
South Korea, Turkey, the United Kingdom and the United States

ttps://g20.org/en/summit/about/
50. Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Both the statements are incorrect.
The European Parliament (EP) is the legislative branch of the European Union and one of its seven
institutions. Together with the Council of the European Union, it adopts European legislation, normally
on a proposal from the European Commission.
The Parliament is composed of 751 members (MEPs), intended to become 705 starting from the 2019–2024
legislature because of specific provisions adopted about Brexit, who represent the second-largest democratic
electorate in the world (after the Parliament of India) and the largest trans-national democratic electorate in the
world (375 million eligible voters in 2009).
The European Commission (EC) is the executive branch of the European Union, responsible for
proposing legislation, implementing decisions, upholding the EU treaties and managing the day-to-day
business of the EU.

51. Correct Answer : A


Answer Justification :
Budapest Convention
Also known as the Convention on Cybercrime, it is the first international treaty seeking toaddress
Internet and computer crime by harmonizing national laws, improving investigativetechniques, and
increasing cooperation among nations.
It was drawn up by the Council of Europe in Strasbourg, France, with the active participationof the Council of
Europe’s observer states Canada, Japan, South Africa and the United States.It is open for ratification even to
states that are not members of the Council of Europe.As of September 2019, 64 states have ratified the
convention.

52. Correct Answer : C


Answer Justification :
Both the statements are correct.
International Maritime Organization
It is the global standard-setting authority for the safety, security and environmental performance of international
shipping.Its main role is to create a regulatory framework for the shipping industry that is fair and effective,
universally adopted and universally implemented.
It is the only UN special agency to have its headquarters in the United Kingdom. It is the first ever
international organization devoted exclusively to maritime matters.
The objective of IMO is the improvement of Maritime safety and the prevention of marine pollution.IMO
measures cover all aspects of international shipping including ship design, construction,
equipment,manning, operation and disposal.
It covers accidental and operational oil pollution along with different types of pollution by chemicals, goods
inpackaged form, sewage, garbage and air pollution.One of the important committees under IMO is The Maritime
Environment Protection Committee which is responsible for coordinating the organization ‘s activities in
prevention and control of pollution of the marine environment from ships.

53. Correct Answer : A


Answer Justification :
BRICS is the acronym coined for an association of five major emerging national economies: Brazil, Russia,
India, China and South Africa. Originally the first four were grouped as "BRIC" (or "the BRICs"), before the
induction of South Africa in 2010. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
The proposal for the creation of an "Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank" was first made by the Vice
Chairman of the China Center for International Economic Exchanges, a Chinese thinktank, at the Bo'ao Forum in
April 2009. The initiative was officially launched by Chinese President Xi Jinping on a state visit to
Indonesia in October 2013. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

54. Correct Answer : B


Answer Justification :
Financial Action Task Force was set up in 1989 by the G7 countries with headquarters in Paris. Hence
Statement 1 is incorrect.
FATF acts as an “international watchdog‟ on issues of money-laundering and financing of terrorism. It
has 37 members, which include all 5 permanent members of the Security Council and other countries with
economic influence. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
Two regional organisations, the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) and the European Commission (EC) are
also its members. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
https://www.fatf-gafi.org/about/

55. Correct Answer : C


Answer Justification :
International Monetary Fund (IMF)
It provides financial assistance to member countries with balance of payments problems, the IMF lends
money to replenish international reserves, stabilize currencies and strengthen conditions for economic
growth. Countries must embark on structural adjustment policies monitored by the IMF.
Executive Board is 24-member elected by the Board of Governors.
It conducts the daily business of the IMF and exercises the powers delegated to it by the Board of Governors &
powers conferred on it by the Articles of Agreement.It discusses all aspects of the Fund’s work, from the IMF
staff's annual health checks of member countries' economies to policy issues relevant to the global economy.
https://www.imf.org/en/About

56. Correct Answer : B


Answer Justification :
What is Quad grouping?
The quadrilateral security dialogue includes Japan, India, United States and Australia.All four nations find a
common ground of being the democratic nations and common interests of unhindered maritime trade and
security.
Genesis:
The grouping traces its genesis to 2004 when the four countries came together to co- ordinate relief operations
in the aftermath of the tsunami.
● It then met for the first time in 2007 on the sidelines of the Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN)
summit.
● The intention was to enhance maritime cooperation between the four nations.

57. Correct Answer : D


Answer Justification :
The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) was founded in Baghdad,Iraq, with the signing
of an agreement in September 1960 by five countries namely Islamic Republic of Iran, Iraq,Kuwait, Saudi Arabia
and Venezuela. They were to become the Founder Members of the Organization.
OPEC is a permanent,intergovernmentalorganization.
International Energy Agency (IEA) is established in 1974 as per framework of the OECD, IEA is an
autonomous inter governmental organisation.
Its mission is guided by four main areas of focus: energy security, economic development,environmental
awareness and engagement worldwide.

58. Correct Answer : B


Answer Justification :
International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA)
The World Energy Transitions Outlook report is brought out by the International Renewable Energy
Agency (IRENA).The latest report says, the COVID-19 crisis offers an unexpected opportunity for countries to
decouple their economies from fossil fuels and accelerate the shift to renewable energy sources.

59. Correct Answer : C


Answer Justification :
Both the statements are correct.
The World Gold Council is the market development organisation for the gold industry. It works across all
parts of the industry, from gold mining to investment, and their aim is to stimulate and sustain demand for gold.
They frequently publish research that demonstrates gold’s strength as a preserver of wealth – both for investors
and countries. They also provide analysis of the industry, offering insights into the drivers of gold demand. They
have also launched various products such as SPDR GLD and gold accumulation plans in India and China.
The World Gold Councilis an association whose members comprise the world’s leading gold mining companies.
It helps to support its members to mine in a responsible way and developed the Conflict Free Gold
Standard.
60. Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

61. Correct Answer : D


Answer Justification :
Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA)
1. The Indian Ocean Rim Association was set up with the objective of strengthening regional cooperation and
sustainable development within the Indian Ocean Region.
2. Setup in 1997, it Consists of 22 coastal states bordering the Indian Ocean.The IORA is a regional forum,
tripartite in nature, bringing together representatives of Government, Business and Academia, for
promoting co-operation and closer interaction among them.
4. It is based on the principles of Open Regionalism for strengthening EconomicCooperation particularly
on Trade Facilitation and Investment, Promotion as well as Social Development of the region.The
Coordinating Secretariat of IORA is located at Ebene, Mauritius

62. Correct Answer : C


Answer Justification :
Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) is based on the principles of Open Regionalism for strengthening
Economic Cooperation particularly on Trade Facilitation and Investment, Promotion as well as Social
Development of the region.
The Coordinating Secretariat of IORA is located at Ebene, MauritiusIndian Ocean Rim Association (IORA)
has identified six priority areas, namely:
1. maritime security,
2. trade and investment facilitation,
3. fisheries management,
4. disaster risk reduction,
5. academic and scientific cooperation and
6. tourism promotion and cultural exchanges

63. Correct Answer : B


Answer Justification :
The ASEAN Way is defined a shared of norms, principles, and values governing the interactions of
ASEAN member states. Keeping ASEAN together despite these deep cultural, economic and political
differences - along with mistrust between different members - has always been an immense challenge.
Unlike other regional or international organizations, ASEAN possesses its own model of diplomatic engagement:
the ASEAN Way.

64. Correct Answer : D


Answer Justification :
ASEAN Regional Forum was launched in 1993. It is twenty-seven-member multilateral grouping developed to
facilitate cooperation on political and security issues to contribute to regional confidence-building and preventive
diplomacy.
India is a member country of ASEAN Regional Forum
India has been participating in the East Asia Summit (EAS) since its very inception in 2005. The EAS consists of
10 ASEAN nations (Indonesia,Thailand, Singapore, Malaysia, the Philippines, Vietnam, Myanmar,
Cambodia,Brunei and Laos), Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand, South Korea, Russia and the U.S
Mekong Ganga Cooperation (MGC) was established in 2000.It comprises sixmember countries namely India,
Thailand, Myanmar, Cambodia, Laos and Vietnam.

65. Correct Answer : D


Answer Justification :
Intermediate range Nuclear forces (INF) is a cold war era treaty between Russia and USA to end arms race. US
has recently announced that it will withdraw from the Intermediate-Range Nuclear Forces (INF) Treaty.

66. Correct Answer : B


Answer Justification :
They are artificially crafted materials with unique internal microstructures that give them properties not
found in nature. The constituent artificial units of the meta material can be tailored in shape, size, and
interatomic interaction, to exhibit unusual properties.

Meta material, an artificially structured material that exhibits extraordinary electromagnetic properties not
available or not easily obtainable in nature. Since the early 2000s, metamaterials have emerged as a rapidly
growing interdisciplinary area, involving physics, electrical engineering, materials science, optics, and nano
science. The properties of meta materials are tailored by manipulating their internal physical structure. This
makes them remarkably different from natural materials, whose properties are mainly determined by their
chemical constituents and bonds. The primary reason for the intensive interest in meta materials is their unusual
effect on light propagating through them.

67. Correct Answer : D


Answer Justification :
Scientists have developed light-activated nanoparticles — each roughly 20,000 times smaller than the
thickness of a single human hair and have shown in lab tests that these “quantum dots” are more than 90%
effective at wiping out antibiotic-resistant germs like Salmonella, E. coli and Staphylococcus.
What are Quantum dots?
A quantum dot is a nanoparticle made of any semiconductor material such as silicon, cadmium selenide,
cadmium sulfide, or indium arsenide. They are essentially small crystals of nanometer-size dimensions –
they’re about 20,000 times smaller than the width of a human hair. They are each one million times smaller than
a millimeter. They have distinctive electrical conduction properties that are determined by the incredibly small
size and structure.
 When these QDs are hit with a specific frequency of radiation, their changeable structure, tailored by
scientists, means that they can be finely tuned to emit a specific frequency of radiation; changing the
wavelength of the light source can achieve the same effect.
 In the dark, the QDs remain inactive. When bombarded by visible light, they become energetically
“excited.”
Why we need them?
Super-bacteria resistant to the latest antibiotics, the last line of medical defence against various infections,
cancer and HIV, is on the rise. These superbugs use evolutionary abilities to overwhelm medical advances. And
to contain these bugs has been a challenging task for the scientists across the world.
What led to their rise?
The rampant, indiscriminate administration of common antibiotics has allowed these bacteria the ability to
shuffle their genes and defeat these drugs. Such bacteria include Salmonella, Staphylococcus and E. coli.

68. Correct Answer : B


Answer Justification :
Non-Proliferation Treaty or NPT
What is NPT?
 The NPT is a multilateral treaty aimed at limiting the spread of nuclear weapons including three elements:
(1) non-proliferation, (2) disarmament, and (3) peaceful use of nuclear energy. These elements constitute
a “grand bargain” between the five nuclear weapon states and the non-nuclear weapon states.
 The treaty was signed in 1968 and entered into force in 1970. Presently, it has 190 member states.
Implications:
1. States without nuclear weapons will not acquire them.
2. States with nuclear weapons will pursue disarmament.
3. All states can access nuclear technology for peaceful purposes, under safeguards.
Key provisions:
1. The Treaty defines nuclear weapon states (NWS) as those that had manufactured and detonated a nuclear
explosive device prior to 1 January 1967. All the other states are therefore considered non-nuclear weapon
states (NNWS).
2. The five nuclear weapon states are China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
3. The Treaty does not affect the right of state parties to develop, produce, and use nuclear energy for
peaceful purposes.
Role of states:
1. Nuclear weapon states are not to transfer to any recipient whatsoever nuclear weapons and not to assist,
encourage, or induce any NNWS to manufacture or otherwise acquire them.
2. Non-nuclear weapons states are not to receive nuclear weapons from any transferor, and are not to
manufacture or acquire them.
3. NNWS must accept the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards on all nuclear materials on
their territories or under their control

69. Correct Answer : D


Answer Justification :
The total tribal population in Ladakh region is more than 97%. The region is inhabited by following Scheduled
Tribes, namely:
 Balti
 Beda
 Bot, Boto
 Brokpa, Drokpa, Dard, Shin
 Changpa
 Garra
 Mon
 Purigpa

70. Correct Answer : D


Answer Justification :
Capital Reserve:
The main purpose of the capital reserve is to enable the RBI to meet any financial emergency situation out of
liquidity crisis etc., – on its own. Capital actually indicate the ready funds available with the RBI to manage own
business. The RBI can consider this as a financial capacity while delivering some action like liquidity injection.
When your purse is big or assets are strong, your readiness to provide funds during a crisis also will be big.
Liquidity emergencies like the Global Financial Crisis, IL&FS liquidity situation etc. points towards the
strengthening of such a reserve to manage contingencies.
Components of the capital reserve:
There are five components in the RBI’s capital reserve. The first two (CF and ADF) are Funds created to meet
specific purposes and provisions are made yearly to add money to these funds.
The other three (CGRA, IRA and FCVA) are valuation accounts just shows the gain or losses in foreign
exchange, government securities or foreign currency contracts handled by the RBI.
Following are the five components of the RBI’s capital reserve.
1. Contingency Fund (CF)
2. Asset Development Fund (ADF)
3. Currency and Gold Revaluation Account (CGRA)
4. Investment Revaluation Account (IRA) and
5. Foreign Exchange Forward Contracts Valuation Account (FCVA).
All these five components are recorded in the liability side of the RBI’s balance sheet.

71. Correct Answer : C


Answer Justification :
National Productivity Council (NPC):
NPC is national level organization to promote productivity culture in India.
 Established by the Ministry of Industry, Government of India in 1958.
 It is an autonomous, multipartite, non-profit organizationwith equal representation from
employers’ & workers’ organizations and Government, apart from technical & professional institutions
and other interests.
 NPC is a constituent of the Tokyo-based Asian Productivity Organisation (APO),an Inter-
Governmental Body, of which the Government of India is a founder member.
 Functions: NPC teams up with its clients to work out solutions towards accelerating productivity,
enhancing competitiveness, increasing profits, augmenting safety and reliability and ensuring better
quality. It provides reliable database for decision-making, improved systems and procedures, work
culture as well as customer satisfaction both internal & external.

72. Correct Answer : D


Answer Justification :
DNA Profiling:
DNA profiling (also called DNA fingerprinting, DNA testing, or DNA typing) is a forensic technique used to
identify individuals by characteristics of their DNA. A DNA profile is a small set of DNA variations that is very
likely to be different in all unrelated individuals.
Benefits:
 Help to convict serious criminals and possibly even preventing crime.
 Useful in the aftermath of a natural disaster for disaster victim identification.
 Identification of missing persons and human remains
 Medical research purposes
 Establishing parentage or blood relations between individuals.
 DNA fingerprinting is used in the study of animal and floral populations
 To address the issue of thousands of unclaimed dead bodies that are reported annually
 This can also be used in the area of wild life crimes

73. Correct Answer : B


Answer Justification :
Namdapha National Park is a 1,985 km2 (766 sq mi) large protected area in Arunachal Pradesh of
Northeast India. With more than 1,000 floral and about 1,400 faunal species, it is a biodiversity hotspot in
the Eastern Himalayas. It is the fourth largest national park in India.
Because of the elevation range from 300 to 4,500 m and vegetation zones from evergreen, moist deciduous to
temperate broadleaved and coniferous forest types to alpine vegetation, the park is home to a great diversity of
mammal species. Four pantherine species occur in the park: leopard, snow leopard, tiger and clouded leopard.

74. Correct Answer : C


Answer Justification :
Index of Eight Core Industries:
 The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is an index which details out the growth of various sectors in an
economy such as mining, electricity and manufacturing.
 The all India IIP is a composite indicator that measures the short-term changes in the volume of
production of a basket of industrial products during a given period with respect to that in a chosen base
period.
 It is compiled and published monthly by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) six weeks after the
reference month ends.
 The eight core industries are: Coal, Crude oil, Natural Gas, Refinery products, fertilizers, steel, cement
and electricity.

75. Correct Answer : C


Answer Justification :
Reserved & Protected Forests
As of present, reserved forests and protected forests differ in one important way:
Rights to all activities like hunting, grazing, etc. in reserved forests are banned unless specific orders are issued
otherwise.
In protected areas, rights to activities like hunting and grazing are sometimes given to communities living on the
fringes of the forest, who sustain their livelihood from forest resources or products.
The first reserve forest in India was Satpura National Park in Madhya Pradesh.Typically, reserved forests are
often upgraded to the status of wildlife sanctuaries, which in turn may be upgraded to the status of national
parks, with each category receiving a higher degree of protection and government funding.

76. Correct Answer : C


Answer Justification :
Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act:
 UAPA was passed in 1967. It aims at effective prevention of unlawful activities associations in
India.
o Unlawful activity refers to any action taken by an individual or association intended to disrupt the
territorial integrity and sovereignty of India.
 The Act assigns absolute power to the central government, by way of which if the Centre deems an
activity as unlawful then it may, by way of an Official Gazette, declare it so.
 It has death penalty and life imprisonment as highest punishments.
 Under UAPA, both Indian and foreign nationals can be charged. It will be applicable to the offenders in
the same manner, even if crime is committed on a foreign land, outside India.
 Under the UAPA, the investigating agency can file a charge sheet in maximum 180 days after the
arrests and the duration can be extended further after intimating the court.
Under the Act, Central government can declare a person or an organization as a terrorist/ terrorist organisation,
if it/ he:
 commits or participates in acts of terrorism,
 prepares for terrorism,
 promotes terrorism, or
 is otherwise involved in terrorism.

77. Correct Answer : C


Answer Justification :
OCI cardholders:
 Government of India launched the ‘Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) Scheme’ by making
amendments to Citizenship Act, 1955 in 2005.
 On 09 January 2015, the Government of India discontinued the PIO card and merged it with OCI card.
Eligibility:
Government of India allows the following categories of foreign nationals to apply for OCI Card.

Benefits to OCI Cardholders


 OCI cardholders can enter India multiple times, get a multipurpose lifelong visa to visit India, and are
exempt from registering with Foreigners Regional Registration Office (FRRO).
 If an individual is registered as an OCI for a period of five years, he/she is eligible to apply for Indian
citizenship.
 At all Indian international airports, OCI cardholders are provided with special immigration counters.
 OCI cardholders can open special bank accounts in India, buy the non-farm property and exercise
ownership rights and can also apply for a Permanent Account Number (PAN) card.
Limitations
 OCI cardholders do not get voting rights, cannot hold a government job and purchase agricultural or
farmland.
 They cannot travel to restricted areas without government permission.

78. Correct Answer : C


Answer Justification :
Attorney General of India:
 The Attorney General for India is the central government’s chief legal advisor, and its primary
lawyer in the Supreme Court of India.
 He is a part of the Union Executive.
 He is not considered as a government servant and he can practise privately too as he is not
debarred from private legal practice.
Appointment and eligibility:
He is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the Constitution and holds office during the
pleasure of the President.
 He must be a person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
 He should be an Indian Citizen.
 He must have either completed 5 years in High Court of any Indian state as a judge or 10 years in High
Court as an advocate.
 He may be an eminent jurist too, in the eye of the President.
Powers and Functions:
 The Attorney General is necessary for giving advice to the Government of India in legal matters referred
to him. He also performs other legal duties assigned to him by the President.
 The Attorney General has the right of audience in all Courts in India as well as the right to
participate in the proceedings of the Parliament, though not to vote.
 The Attorney General appears on behalf of Government of India in all cases (including suits, appeals
and other proceedings) in the Supreme Court in which Government of India is concerned.
 He also represents the Government of India in any reference made by the President to the
Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution.
 The Attorney General can accept briefs but cannot appear against the Government.
 He cannot defend an accused in the criminal proceedings and accept the directorship of a
company without the permission of the Government.
 The Attorney General is assisted by two Solicitor General and four Additional Solicitor Generals.
 He enjoys all immunities and privileges available to the Member of Parliament

79. Correct Answer : B


Answer Justification :
Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC):
 A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956
engaged in the business of loans and advances, acquisition of
shares/stocks/bonds/debentures/securities issued by Government or local authority or other marketable
securities of a like nature.
 NBFC does not include any institution whose principal business is that of agriculture activity,
industrial activity, purchase or sale of any goods (other than securities) or providing any services and
sale/purchase/construction of immovable property.
 A non-banking institution which is a company and has principal business of receiving deposits under any
scheme or arrangement in one lump sum or in installments by way of contributions or in any other
manner, is also a non-banking financial company (Residuary non-banking company).
Difference between banks & NBFCs:
NBFCs lend and make investments and hence their activities are akin to that of banks; however, there are a few
differences as given below:
 NBFC cannot accept demand deposits;
 NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system and cannot issue cheques drawn on
itself;
 Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation is not available
to depositors of NBFCs, unlike in case of banks.

80. Correct Answer : D


Answer Justification :
Water Risk Filter Report:
This is an online tool, co-developed by the Worldwide Fund for Nature that helps evaluate the severity of
risk places faced by graphically illustrating various factors that can contribute to water risk. It reported 30 Indian
cities that would face a ‘grave water risk’ by 2050 due to a dramatic increase in their population percentage to 51
per cent by 2050, from 17 per cent in 2020.

81. Correct Answer : A


Answer Justification :
Biodiversity Heritage Sites:
“Biodiversity Heritage Sites” (BHS) are well defined areas that are unique, ecologically fragile
ecosystems - terrestrial, coastal and inland waters and, marine having rich biodiversity comprising of any
one or more of the following components: richness of wild as well as domesticated species or intra-specific
categories, high endemism, presence of rare and threatened species, keystone species, species of evolutionary
significance, wild ancestors of domestic/ cultivated species or their varieties, past pre-eminence of biological
components represented by fossil beds and having significant cultural, ethical or aesthetic values and are
important for the maintenance of cultural diversity, with or without a long history of human association with them.
Under Section 37 of Biological Diversity Act, 2002 (BDA) the State Government in consultation with local
bodies may notify in the official gazette, areas of biodiversity importance as Biodiversity Heritage Sites
(BHS).
“The creation of BHS may not put any restriction on the prevailing practices and usages of the local
communities, other than those voluntarily decided by them. The purpose of declaring BHS is to enhance the
quality of life of the local communities through conservation of such sites.”

82. Correct Answer : A


Answer Justification :
Inner Line Permit (ILP)
 It is a document required by non- natives to visit or stay in a state that is protected under the ILP system.
 It is a special permit obligatorily required by “outsiders” from other regions of the country to
enter the notified states.
 At present, four Northeastern states are covered, namely, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur and
Nagaland.
 Both the duration of stay and the areas allowed to be accessed for any non native are determined by
the ILP.
 The ILP is issued by the concerned state government and can be availed both by applying online or in
person.

83. Correct Answer : B


Answer Justification :
Delimitation Commission
 The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration
with the Election Commission of India. (not after every five years)
 Delimitation Act, 2002 was enacted to set up a Delimitation Commission for the purpose of effecting
delimitation on the basis of the 2001 census.
 The Act sought to lay down certain guidelines as to the manner in which such delimitation would be
undertaken.
 The Delimitation Commission would re-fix the number of seats for the Scheduled Castes and the
Scheduled Tribes based on the 2001 census, without affecting total number of seats based on the 1971
census.
 It was given the task of carrying out delimitation of Parliamentary and Assembly constituencies.
 This delimitation would apply to every general election and to every by-election to the House of the
People or a State Legislative Assembly held after the final orders of the Commission are published.
 The Delimitation Commission in India is a high-power body whose orders have the force of law and
cannot be called in question before any court.
Functions:
 To determine the number and boundaries of constituencies to make population of all
constituencies nearly equal.
 To identify seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, wherever their population is
relatively large.

84. Correct Answer : D


Answer Justification :
Priority sector lending:
Under Priority Sector Lending (PSL) guidelines, banks have to set aside a specific portion of bank lending to
sectors deemed important by the central bank.
The following are the categories listed by RBI under PSL
1. Agriculture
2. Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
3. Export Credit
4. Education
5. Housing
6. Social Infrastructure
7. Renewable Energy
 All scheduled commercial banks and foreign banks with a sizeable presence in India are mandated to set
aside 40% of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANDC) for lending to these sectors.
 Recent Developments - RBI has recently assigned PSL status to India ‘s startup sector.

85. Correct Answer : A


Answer Justification :
VanchitIkaiSamooh aur Vargon ki AarthikSahayta scheme (VISVAS scheme):
 The ministry of social justice and empowerment will introduce VISVAS for selfhelp groups or SC
and OBC households with an annual income of up to ₹3 lakh.
 The scheme aims to ensure more credit in the hands of the most-deprived households for productive and
economic activities.
 Under this scheme, interest subvention will be provided to Self Help Groups with 100% OBC members
and OBC individuals who have taken loan for various income generating activities from those Lending
Institutions who have signed MoA with NBCFDC.
 Under the scheme, SC and OBC Self Help Groups (SHGs) and Individuals would be able to avail
an interest subvention of 5% per annum on bank loans of up to ₹4 lakh per SHG and ₹2 lakh per
individual.
 The scheme would help in immediate liquidity as it would entail direct beneficiary transfer mode of
crediting the operational accounts of individuals and SHGs.

86. Correct Answer : D


Answer Justification :
Foreign Exchange Reserves:
 Foreign exchange reserves are assets held on reserve by a central bank in foreign currencies, which can
include bonds, treasury bills and other government securities.
 It needs to be noted that most foreign exchange reserves are held in US dollars.
India’s Forex Reserve include:
 Foreign Currency Assets
 Gold reserves
 Special Drawing Rights
 Reserve position with the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
Objectives of Holding Forex Reserves:
 Supporting and maintaining confidence in the policies for monetary and exchange rate management.
 Provides the capacity to intervene in support of the national or union currency.
 Limits external vulnerability by maintaining foreign currency liquidity to absorb shocks during times of
crisis or when access to borrowing is curtailed.
87. Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
PARTICULARLY VULNERABLE TRIBAL GROUPS (PTGs):
 PVTGs are more vulnerable among the tribal groups. Due to this factor, more developed and assertive
tribal groups take a major chunk of the tribal development funds, because of which PVTGs need more
funds directed for their development.
 In this context, in 1975, the Government of India initiated to identify the most vulnerable tribal groups as a
separate category called PVTGs and declared 52 such groups, while in 1993 an additional 23 groups
were added to the category, making it a total of 75 PVTGs out of 705 Scheduled Tribes, spread over 17
states and one Union Territory (UT), in the country (2011 census).
 PVTGs are more vulnerable among the tribal groups. 75 tribal groups have been categorized
categorized by Ministry of Home Affairs as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTG)s
 Among the75 listed PVTG's the highest number are found in Odisha.

88. Correct Answer : C


Answer Justification :
Blue Bond:
 It is a debt instrument issued by governments, development banks etc to raise capital from
investors to finance marine and ocean-based projects.
 It will help in expansion of marine protected areas, improved governance of priority fisheries and the
development of the Seychelles’ blue economy.
 The blue bond is inspired by the green bond concept.
 All blue bonds are green bonds, but not all green bonds are blue bonds.
Green Bond:
 A green bond is a type of fixed-income instrument that is specifically earmarked to raise money for
climate and environmental projects.
 These bonds are typically asset-linked and backed by the issuing entity’s balance sheet, so they usually
carry the same credit rating as their issuers’ other debt obligations.

89. Correct Answer : D


Answer Justification :
Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary
 Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the flood plains of River Brahmaputra in the Morigaon
district of Assam.
 It has the highest concentration of endangered one-horned rhinos (Rhinoceros unicornis) in the world.
 It is called ‗Mini Kaziranga‘ due to similar landscape and vegetation.
 Boundary - GarangaBeel on the south and River Brahmaputra on the North, rest of the boundary are
artificial and surrounded by 27 villages.
 Fauna - One-horned rhinoceros, Chinese pangolins, Leopard cat, Fishing cat, Jungle cat, etc.

90. Correct Answer : A


Answer Justification :
Earlier this month, the United Nations Secretariat held a meeting of what it calls the “6+2+1” group on
regional efforts to support peace in Afghanistan, a group that includes six neighbouring countries: China,
Iran, Pakistan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan; global players the United States and Russia, and
Afghanistan itself. India was conspicuous by its absence from the meeting on April 16, given its historical and
strategic ties with Afghanistan, but not for the first time.

91. Correct Answer : A


Answer Justification :
Advantage of aeroponics over hydroponics
 Aeroponics can limit disease transmission since plant-to-plant contact is reduced.
 The enhanced oxygen availability at the root zone leaves disease-causing pathogens dormant.
 Improves uptake of minerals by plants and development of healthy root systems.
 Helps in faster and better growth of plants with a plentiful supply of oxygen, water and nutrients.
 Plants in a true aeroponic conditions have 100% access to the CO2 concentrations for photosynthesis.
 This leads to a multi-fold increase in plant metabolism, which in turn results in a vast increase in
production.
 Any species of plants can be grown in a true aeroponic system because the microenvironment of an
aeroponic can be finely controlled.
 Aeroponically grown plants have high dry weight biomass (essential minerals).
 According to NASA, aeroponically grown plants require ¼ the nutrient input compared to
hydroponics.
 Unlike hydroponically grown plants, aeroponically grown plants will not suffer transplant shock when
transplanted to soil.

92. Correct Answer : D


Answer Justification :
The System of Rice Intensification involves cultivating rice with as much organic manure as possible, starting
with young seedlings planted singly at wider spacing in a square pattern; and with intermittent irrigation that
keeps the soil moist but not inundated, and frequent inter cultivation with weeder that actively aerates the soil.
SRI is not a standardized, fixed technological method. It is rather a set of ideas, a methodology for
comprehensively managing and conserving resources by changing the way that land, seeds, water, nutrients,
and human labour are used to increase productivity from a small but well-tended number of seeds. As Father de
Laulanié observed, SRI is an amalgamation of multiple beneficial practices.
Paddy Cultivation: Some Myths
Everybody believes that rice is an aquatic plant and grows best in standing water. Rice is not an aquatic plant; it
can survive in water but does not thrive under reduced oxygen (hypoxic) levels. Rice plants spend lot of its
energy to develop air pockets (aerenchyma tissue) in its roots under continuous inundation. Nearly 70% of rice
root tips get degenerated by flowering period.
SRI: Debunking myths
Under SRI paddy fields are not flooded but kept moist during vegetative phase. Later only one inch water
is maintained. SRI requires only about half as much water as normally applied in irrigated rice. Over 1,00,000
farmers are experimenting with this system worldwide at present.
SRI Paddy Cultivation requires less water, involves less expenditure and gives more yields.
Thus it is beneficial for small and marginal farmers.SRI was first developed in Madagascar during 1980's. Its
potential is under testing in China, Indonesia, Cambodia, Thailand, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka and India. In Andhra
Pradesh. SRI was experimented in all the 22 districts during 2003 Kharif with encouraging results.
SRI Technology Uses Less External Inputs
In SRI paddy cultivation, less quantity of seeds - 2 kg / acre is required. Hence fewer plants per unit area (25 x
25 cm) whereas in mainstream chemical intensive paddy cultivation requires 20 kg seed per acre. (1 acre= apprx
0.4 ha).
SRI is initially labour intensive
 Needs 50% more man-days for transplanting and weeding.
 Mobilises labour to work for profit.
 It offers an alternative to the resource poor, who put in their family labour.
 Once the right skills are learnt and implemented, the labour costs will be lesser.
SRI encourages rice plant to grow healthy with
 Large root volume
 Profuse and strong tillers - Maximum tillering (30 tillers/plant can be easily achieved; 50 tillers per plant
are quite attainable) occurs concurrently with panicle initiation. Under excellent management even 100
fertile tillers per plant or even more can be achieved due to early transplanting and absence of die back
of roots.
 Non lodging
 Big panicles
 More and well filled grain panicles and higher grain weight
 Resists insects because it allows rice to absorb soil nutrients natural

93. Correct Answer : A


Answer Justification :
Economic Censuses:
 The 7th Economic Census -2019 is being conducted by MoSPI to provide disaggregated information on
various operational and structural aspects of all establishments in the country.
 Implementing agency:MoSPI has partnered with Common Service Centres, CSC e- Governance
Services India Limited, a Special Purpose Vehicle under the MEITY as the implementing agency.
 Launched in 1976 as a plan scheme.
 Coverage: All entrepreneurial units in the country which are involved in any economic activities of either
agricultural or non-agricultural sector which are engaged in production and/or distribution of goods and/or
services not for the sole purpose of own consumption.
 It is conducted every five years and very crucial for framing of policies and planning for the government
and other organisations.
 Objective: It provides detailed information on operational and other characteristics such as
number of establishments, number of persons employed, source of finance, type of ownership
etc.
 Significance: This information used for micro level/ decentralized planning and to assess contribution of
various sectors of the economy in the gross domestic product (GDP).
 Total Six Economic Censuses (EC) have been conducted till date. First one was conducted in 1977
by CSO.

94. Correct Answer : A


Answer Justification :
Indigenous technologies practiced by farmers
Application of buttermilk @ 5 lit./40 Kg seed of pulses viz. lentil, arhar, chickpea to protect the crop
from wilt disease in district Chitrakoot.
Farmers of district Shahjahanpur, broadcast 8 kg common salt to protect the paddy crop from blight
disease.
In districts Allahabad, Saharnapur, Siddharthnagar and Gonda, dry neem leaves and kanja leaves are used
by the farmers to store the grain like wheat, rice etc.
Mixed cropping of arhar& jowar to protect the arhar from wilt disease in district Gonda.
Planting of marigold after 8-10 lines of tomato or chilli to protect the crop from mosaic and nematode in Gonda
The farmers practice putting of twigs in field crops for sitting of owl to control the rats in Sultanpur district.
Mixed cropping like arhar + urd + til + bajra is practiced in Varanasi and Mirzapur district to protect the crop
from wilt.
Spreading of cooked rice in field crop attract the birds who eat hairy catter pillar also. (Varanasi).
The farmers of Ghaziabad to control the aphids spray water in mustard crop.
Ash dusting is practiced in Zaid vegetables to control the red beetle in most districts of UP.
Cutting of upper portion of leaves before transplanting of paddy to prevent the attack of stem borer in district
Bijnour and Ghaziabad.

95. Correct Answer : D


Answer Justification :
Goods and Services Tax (GST) is an indirect tax (or consumption tax) used in India on the supply of goods and
services. It is a comprehensive, multistage, destination-based tax: comprehensive because it has subsumed
almost all the indirect taxes except a few state taxes.
Multi-staged as it is, the GST is imposed at every step in the production process, but is meant to be refunded to
all parties in the various stages of production other than the final consumer and as a destination-based tax, it is
collected from point of consumption and not point of origin like previous taxes.
Goods and services are divided into five different tax slabs for collection of tax - 0%, 5%, 12%, 18% and 28%.
However, petroleum products, alcoholic drinks, and electricity are not taxed under GST and instead are
taxed separately by the individual state governments, as per the previous tax system.

96. Correct Answer : C


Answer Justification :
Livestock plays an important role in Indian economy. About 20.5 million people depend upon livestock for their
livelihood. Livestock contributed 16% to the income of small farm households as against an average of 14% for
all rural households. Livestock provides livelihood to two-third of rural community. It also provides employment to
about 8.8 % of the population in India. India has vast livestock resources. Livestock sector contributes 4.11%
GDP and 25.6% of total Agriculture GDP.
Livestock resources
India is
 World’s highest livestock owner at about 535.78 million
 First in the total buffalo population in the world - 109.85 million buffaloes
 Second in the population of goats - 148.88 million goats
 Second largest poultry market in the world
 Second largest producer of fish and also second largest aquaculture nation in the world
 Third in the population of sheep (74.26 millions)
 Fifth in in the population of ducks and chicken (851.81 million)
 Tenth in camel population in the world - 2.5 lakhs

97. Correct Answer : B


Answer Justification :
Government has launched One Nation-One Ration Card scheme on pilot basis in Telangana, Andhra Pradesh,
Maharastra and Gujarat.
Families who have food security cards can buy subsidized rice and wheat from any ration shop in these states
but their ration cards should be linked with Aadhar Number to avail this service.
About the scheme:
One Nation One Ration Card (RC) will ensure all beneficiaries especially migrants can access PDS across the
nation from any PDS shop of their own choice.
Benefits: no poor person is deprived of getting subsidised foodgrains under the food security scheme when they
shift from one place to another. It also aims to remove the chance of anyone holding more than one ration card
to avail benefits from different states.
Significance: This will provide freedom to the beneficiaries as they will not be tied to any one PDS shop and
reduce their dependence on shop owners and curtail instances of corruption.
Standard format of ‘one nation, one ration card’:
A standard format for ration card has been prepared after taking into account the format used by different states.
 For national portability, the state governments have been asked to issue the ration card in bi-lingual
format,wherein besides the local language, the other language could be Hindi or English.
 The states have also been told to have a 10-digit standard ration card number, wherein first two digits
will be state code and the next two digits will be running ration card numbers.
 Besides this, a set of another two digits will be appended with ration card number to create unique
member IDs for each member of the household in a ration card.

98. Correct Answer : B


Answer Justification :
Following are the components of the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package: —
PRADHAN MANTRI GARIB KALYAN PACKAGE
I. Insurance scheme for health workers fighting COVID-19 in Government Hospitals and Health Care
Centres
 Safaikaramcharis, ward-boys, nurses, ASHA workers, paramedics, technicians, doctors and specialists
and other health workers would be covered by a Special insurance Scheme.
 Any health professional, who while treating Covid-19 patients, meet with some accident, then he/she
would be compensated with an amount of Rs 50 lakh under the scheme.
 All government health centres, wellness centres and hospitals of Centre as well as States would be
covered under this scheme approximately 22 lakh health workers would be provided insurance
cover to fight this pandemic.
II. PM Garib Kalyan Ann (अ न) Yojana
 Government of India would not allow anybody, especially any poor family, to suffer on account of non-
availability of food grains due to disruption in the next three months.
 80 crore individuals, i.e, roughly two-thirds of India’s population would be covered under this
scheme.
 Each one of them would be provided double of their current entitlement over next three months.
 This additionality would be free of cost.
Pulses:
 To ensure adequate availability of protein to all the above-mentioned individuals, 1 kg per family,
would be provided pulses according to regional preferences for next three months.
 These pulses would be provided free of cost by the Government of India.
III. Under Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana,
Benefit to farmers:
 The first instalment of Rs 2,000 due in 2020-21 will be front-loaded and paid in April 2020 itself
under the PM KISAN Yojana.
 It would cover 8.7 crore farmers
IV. Cash transfers Under PM Garib Kalyan Yojana:
Help to Poor:
 A total of 20.40 crores PMJDY women account-holders would be given ex-gratia of Rs 500 per month
for next three months.
Gas cylinders:
 Under PM Garib Kalyan Yojana, gas cylinders, free of cost, would be provided to 8 crore poor families
for the next three months.
Help to low wage earners in organised sectors:
 Wage-earners below Rs 15,000 per month in businesses having less than 100 workers are at risk of
losing their employment.
 Under this package, government proposes to pay 24 percent of their monthly wages into their PF
accounts for next three months.
 This would prevent disruption in their employment.
Support for senior citizens (above 60 years), widows and Divyang:
 There are around 3 crore aged widows and people in Divyang category who are vulnerable due to
economic disruption caused by COVID-19.
 Government will give them Rs 1,000 to tide over difficulties during next three months.
MNREGA
 Under PM Garib Kalyan Yojana, MNREGA wages would be increased by Rs 20 with effect from 1
April, 2020. Wage increase under MNREGA will provide an additional Rs 2,000 benefit annually to a
worker.
 This will benefit approximately 13.62 crore families.
V. Self-Help groups:
 Women organised through 63 lakhs Self Help Groups (SHGs) support 6.85 crore households.
1. Limit of collateral free lending would be increased from Rs 10 to Rs 20 lakhs.
VI. Other components of PM Garib Kalyan package
Organised sector:
 Employees’ Provident Fund Regulations will be amended to include Pandemic as the reason to allow
non-refundable advance of 75 percent of the amount or three months of the wages, whichever is
lower, from their accounts.
 Families of four crore workers registered under EPF can take benefit of this window.
Building and Other Construction Workers Welfare Fund:
 Welfare Fund for Building and Other Constructions Workers has been created under a Central
Government Act.
 There are around 3.5 Crore registered workers in the Fund.
 State Governments will be given directions to utilise this fund to provide assistance and support
to these workers to protect them against economic disruptions.
District Mineral Fund
 The State Government will be asked to utilise the funds available under District Mineral Fund
(DMF) for supplementing and augmenting facilities of medical testing, screening and other
requirements in connection with preventing the spread of CVID-19 pandemic as well as treating
the patients affected with this pandemic.

99. Correct Answer : B


Answer Justification :
Private Member:
Any MP who is not a Minister is referred to as a private member.
What are Government Bills?
 Bills introduced by Ministers are referred to as government bills.
 They are backed by the government, and reflect its legislative agenda. Private member’s bills purpose is
to draw the government’s attention to what individual MPs see as issues and gaps in the existing legal
framework, which require legislative intervention.
Introduction in the House:
 The admissibility of a private member’s Bill is decided by the Rajya Sabha Chairman. In the case of
Lok Sabha, it is the Speaker; the procedure is roughly the same for both Houses.
 The Member must give at least a month’s notice before the Bill can be listed for introduction; the
House secretariat examines it for compliance with constitutional provisions and rules on legislation before
listing.
 Up to 1997, private members could introduce up to three Bills in a week. This led to a piling up of Bills
that were introduced but never discussed; Chairman K R Narayanan, therefore, capped the number of
private member’s Bills to three per session.
 While government Bills can be introduced and discussed on any day, private member’s Bills can be
introduced and discussed only on Fridays.
 Fourteen private member’s Bills — five of which were introduced in Rajya Sabha — have become law so
far.
 They can bring in constitutional amendment bills but not money bills.

100. Correct Answer : C


Answer Justification :
The Kharif crops include rice, maize, sorghum, pearl millet/bajra, finger millet/ragi (cereals), arhar (pulses),
soyabean, groundnut (oilseeds), cotton etc.
The Rabi crops include wheat, barley, oats (cereals), chickpea/gram (pulses), linseed, mustard (oilseeds) etc.

You might also like