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Physics Model Question Paper 1

PART – 1
Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer.
[15 × 1 = 15]
Question 1.
An electric dipole is placed at an alignment angle of 30° with an
electric field of 2 × 105 NC-1. It experiences a torque equal to 8
N m. The charge on the dipole if the dipole length is 1 cm is
……………….
(a) 4 mC
(b) 8 mC
(c) 5 mC
(d) 7 mC
Answer:
(b) 8 mC
Question 2.
Dielectric constant of metals is
(a) 1
(b) greater then 1
(c) zero
(d) infinite
Answer:
(d) infinite

Question 3.
Two wires of A and B with circular cross section made up of the
same material with equal lengths. Suppose RA = 3 RB, then what
is the ratio of radius of wire A to that of B?
(a) 3
(b) √3
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(c) 13√
(d) 13
Answer:
(c) 13√
Question 4.
A circular coil of radius 5 cm and 50 turns carries a current of 3
ampere. The magnetic dipole moment of the coil is
(a) 1.0 amp – m2
(b) 1.2 amp – m2
(c) 0.5 amp – m2
(d) 0.8 amp – m2
Answer:
(b) 1.2 amp – m2
Question 5.
A straight conductor carrying a current I, is split into a circular
loop of radius r as shown in the figure. The magnetic field at the
centre O of the circle, in tesla is …………..

(a) ∝0I2r
(b) μ0I2πr
(c) μ0Iπr
(d) zero
Hint Field due to the upper and lower semicircles will cancel
out.
Answer:
(d) zero
Question 6.
The flux linked with a coil at any instant t is given by ΦB = 10t2 –
50t + 250. The induced emf at t = 3s is ………………. .
(a) -190 V
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(b) -10 V
(c) 10 V
(d) 190 V
Answer:
(b) -10 V
Question 7.
Quantity that remains unchanged in a transformer is
(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) frequency
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) frequency

Question 8.
The electric and the magnetic field, associated with an
electromagnetic wave, propagating along X axis can be
represented by
(a) E→ = E0ĵ and B→ = B0K̂
(b) E→ = E0K̂ and B→ = B0ĵ
(c) E→ = E0î and B→ = B0ĵ
(d) E→ = E0ĵ and B→ = B0ĵ
Answer:
(b) E→ = E0K̂ and B→ = B0ĵ
Question 9.
A ray of light strikes a glass plate at an angle 60°. If the
reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other, the
refractive index of the glass is
(a) √3
(b) 32
(c) 32−−√
(d) 2
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Hint. Angle of refraction r = 60° ;


Angle of incident i = 30°
sin i = n × sin r
n = sin30∘sin60∘ = √3
Answer:
(a) √3
Question 10.
For light incident from air onto a slab of refractive index 2.
Maximum possible angle of refraction is
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°
Hint. From Snell’s law, µ = sinisinr
Now consider an angle of incident is 90°
sinr = sin90∘2
r = sin-1 (0.5)
r = 30°
Answer:
(a) 30°
Question 11.
A light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on a sensitive plate of
photoelectric work function 1.235 eV. The kinetic energy of the
photo electrons emitted is be (Take h = 6.6 × 10-34 Js)
(a) 0.58 eV
(b) 2.48 eV
(c) 1.24 eV
(d) 1.16 eV
Hint.
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= (2.48 – 1.235) eV= 1.245 eV


Answer:
(c) 1.24 eV
Question 12.
In a hydrogen atom, the electron revolving in the fourth orbit,
has angular momentum equal to ………….. .
(a) h
(b) hπ
(c) 4hπ
(d) 2hπ
Hint Angular momentum of an electron is an integral multiple
of h2π
According to Bohr atom model,
Angular momentum of an electron mvr = nh2π
n = 4th orbit = 4h2π
mvr = 2hπ
Answer:
(d) 2hπ
Question 13.
The barrier potential of a silicon diode is approximately
(a) 0.7 V
(b) 0.3V
(c) 2.0 V
(d) 2.2V
Answer:
(a) 0.7 V
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Question 14.
The signal is affected by noise in a communication system
(a) At the transmitter
(b) At the modulator
(c) In the channel
(d) At the receiver
Answer:
(c) In the channel

Question 15.
The particle which gives mass to protons and neutrons are
(a) Higgs particle
(b) Einstein particle
(c) Nanoparticle
(d) Bulk particle
Answer:
(a) Higgs particle

PART – II
Answer any six questions. Question No. 21 is compulsory. [6 × 2
= 12]
Question 16.
Define ‘electrostatic potential”.
Answer:
The electric potential at a point P is equal to the work done by
an external force to bring a unit positive charge with constant
velocity from infinity to the point P in the region of the external
electric field E→⋅
Question 17.
Define temperature coefficient of resistance.
Answer:
It is defined as the ratio of increase in resistivity per degree rise
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in temperature to its resistivity at T0


∴ α=ρT−ρoρo(T−To)=ΔρρoΔT
Question 18.
The self-inductance of an air-core solenoid is 4.8 mH. If its core
is replaced by iron core, then its self-inductance becomes 1.8 H.
Find out the relative permeability of iron.
Answer:
Lair = 4.8 × 10-3
Liron = 1.8 H
Lair = μ0n2Al = 4.8 × 10″3H
Liron = μn2Al = μ0μr n2Al= 1.8 H
∴ μr=Lipon Lair =1.84.8×10−3=375
Question 19.
What is meant by Fraunhofer lines?
Answer:
When the spectrum obtained from the Sun is examined, it
consists of large number of dark lines (line absorption
spectrum). These dark lines in the solar spectrum are known as
Fraunhofer lines.

Question 20.
What is power of a lens?
Answer:
The power of a lens P is defined as the reciprocal of its focal
length. P = 1f
The unit of power is diopter D.
Question 21.
Calculate the cut-off wavelength and cutoff frequency of x-rays
from an x-ray tube of accelerating potential 20,000 V.
Answer:
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The cut-off wavelength of the characteristic x-rays is

Question 22.
What is mass defect?
Answer:
The mass of any nucleus is always less than the sum of the mass
of its individual constituents. The difference in mass Am is
called mass defect.
Δm = (Zmp + Nmn) – M
Question 23.
Simplify the Boolean identity AC + ABC = AC
Answer:
Step 1: AC (1 + B) = AC.1 [OR law-2]
Step 2: AC . 1 = AC [AND law 2]
Therefore, AC + ABC = AC
Circuit Description
Thus the given statement is proved.

Question 24.
What do you mean by Internet of Things?
Answer:
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Internet of Things (IoT), it is made possible to control various


devices from a single device. Example: home automation using
a mobile phone.

PART-III
Answer any six questions. Question No. 26 is compulsory. [6 × 3
= 18]
Question 25.
Give the relation between electric field and electric potential.
Answer:
Consider a positive charge q kept fixed at the origin. To move a
unit positive charge by a small ‘ distance dx in the electric field
E, the work done is given by dW = -E dx. The minus sign implies
that work is done against the electric field. This work done is
equal to electric potential difference. Therefore,
dW = dV. (or) dV = -E dx
Hence E = −dVdx
The electric field is the negative gradient of the electric
potential.
Question 26.
A cicopper wire of 10”6 m2 area of cross section, carries a
current of 2 A. If the number of electrons per cubic meter is 8 ×
1028, calculate the current density and average drift velocity
Answer:
Cross-sections area of copper wire, A = 10-6 m2
I = 2A
Number of electron, n = 8 × 1028
Current density, J = IA=210−6
J = 2 × 106Am-2
Average drift velocity, Vd = IneA
e is the charge of electron = 1.6 × 10-9 C
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Vd = 0.15625 × 10-3 ; Vd = 15.6 × 10-5 ms-1


Question 27.
compare dia, para and ferromagnetism.
Answer:

Question 28.
State Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction.
Answer:
First law: Whenever magnetic flux linked with a closed circuit
changes, an emf is induced in the circuit.
Second law: The magnitude of induced emf in a closed circuit is
equal to the time rate of change of magnetic flux linked with
the circuit.

Question 29.
Why does sky appear blue?
Answer:
Blue colour of the sky is due to scattering of sunlight by air
molecules. According to Rayleigh’s law, intensity of scattered
light, I ∝ 1λ4. So blue light of shorter wavelength is scattered
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much more than red light of larger wavelength. The blue


component is proportionally more in light coming from
different parts of the sky. That is why the sky appears blue.
Question 30.
Write down the postulates of Bohr atom model.
Answer:
Postulates of Bohr atom model:
The electron in an atom moves around nucleus in circular orbits
under the influence of Coulomb electrostatic force of attraction.
This Coulomb force gives necessary centripetal force for the
electron to undergo circular motion.

Electrons in an atom revolve around the nucleus only in certain


discrete orbits called stationary orbits where it does not radiate
electromagnetic energy. Only those discrete orbits allowed are
stable orbits.

Question 31.
State De Morgan’s first and second theorems.
Answer:
De Morgan’s First Theorem:
The first theorem states that the complement of the sum of two
logical inputs is equal to the product of its complements.
A+B¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯=A¯¯¯¯⋅B¯¯¯¯
De Morgan’s Second Theorem:
The second theorem states that the complement of the product
of two inputs is equal to the sum of its complements.
A⋅B¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯=A¯¯¯¯+B¯¯¯¯
Question 32.
Write down the advantages and limitations of amplitude
modulation (AM).
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Answer:
Advantages of AM

• Easy transmission and reception


• Lesser bandwidth requirements
• Low cost
Limitations of AM

• Noise level is high


• Low efficiency
• Small operating range
Question 33.
What are black holes?
Answer:
Black holes are end stage of stars which are highly dense
massive object. Its mass ranges from 20 times mass of the sun
to 1 million times mass of the sun. It has very strong
gravitational force such that no particle or even light can
escape from it. The existence of black holes is studied when the
stars orbiting the black hole behave differently from the other
starts. Every galaxy has black hole at its center. Sagittarius A* is
the black hole at the center of the Milky Way galaxy.

PART – IV
Answer all the questions. [5 × 5 = 25]
Question 34.
(a) Derive an expression for the torque experienced by a dipole
due to a uniform electric field.
Answer:
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Torque experienced by an electric dipole in the uniform electric


field: Consider an electric dipole of dipole moment P→ placed
in a uniform electric field E→ whose field lines are equally
spaced and point in the same direction. The charge +q will
experience a force q E→ in the direction of the field and charge
-q will experience a force -q E→ in a direction opposite to the
field. Since the external field
E→ is uniform, the total force acting on the dipole is zero.
These two forces acting at different points will constitute a
couple and the dipole experience a torque. This torque tends to
rotate the dipole. (Note that electric field lines of a uniform field
are equally spaced and point in the same direction). The total
torque on the dipole about the point O
τ⃗ =OA−→−×(−qE⃗ )+OB−→−×qE⃗
Using right-hand corkscrew rule, it is found that total torque is
perpendicular to the plane of the paper and is directed into it.
The magnitude of the total torque
τ⃗ =|OA−→−|(−qE→)sinθ+|OB−→−∥qE→|sinθ
τ⃗ = qE 2a sin θ
where θ is the angle made by p⃗ with E⃗ . Since p = 2aq, the
torque is written in terms of the vector product as
τ⃗ =p⃗ ×E⃗
The magnitude of this torque is τ =pE sin θ and is maximum
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when θ = 90°.
This torque tends to rotate the dipole and align it with the
electric field E⃗ . Once p⃗ is aligned with E⃗ , the total torque
on the dipole becomes zero.
OR

Question 34.
(b) Explain the determination of the internal resistance of a cell
using voltmeter.
Answer:

Determination of internal resistance : The emf of cell ξ is


measured by connecting a high resistance voltmeter across it
without connecting the external resistance R. Since the
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voltmeter draws very little current for deflection, the circuit may
be considered as open. Hence, the voltmeter reading gives the
emf of the cell. Then, external resistance R is included in the
circuit and current I is established in the circuit. The potential
difference across R is equal to the potential difference across
the cell (V).
The potential drop across the resistor R is
V = IR …………. (1)
Due to internal resistance r of the cell, the voltmeter reads a
value V, which is less than the emf of cell . It is because, certain
amount of voltage (Ir) has dropped across the internal
resistance r.
Then V = ξ – Ir
Ir = ξ – V
Dividing equation (2) by equation (1). we get
IrIRr=ξ−VV=∣∣∣ξ−VV∣∣∣R
Since ξ, V and R are known, internal resistance r can be
determined.
Question 35.
(a) Obtain the magnetic induction at a point on the equatorial
line of a bar magnet.
Answer:
Magnetic field at a point along the equatorial line due to a
magnetic dipole (bar magnet) Consider a bar magnet NS. Let N
be the north pole and S be the south pole of the bar magnet,
each with pole strength qm and separated by a distance of 2l.
The magnetic field at a point C (lies along the equatorial line) at
a distance r from the geometrical center O of the bar magnet
can be computed by keeping unit north pole (qm C = 1 A m) at
C. The force experienced by the unit north pole at C due to pole
strength N – S can be computed using Coulomb’s law of
magnetism as follows:
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The force of repulsion between North Pole of the bar magnet


and unit north pole at point C
(in free space) is
F→N=−FNcosθi^+FNsinθj^ ……….. (2)
Where FN = μ04πqmr′2

From equation (1) and equation (2). the net force at point C
is F→=F→N+FS This net force is equal to the magnetic field at
the point C.
B→ =—(FN+Fs)cosOi
Since, FN = Fs

In a right angle triangle NOC as shown in the Figure 1


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Substituting equation 4 in equation 3 we get

Since, magnitude of magnetic dipole moment is |p⃗ m| = Pm =


qm.2l and substituting in equation (5), the magnetic field at a
point C

If the distance between two poles in a bar magnet are small


(looks like short magnet) when compared to the distance
between geometrical center O of bar magnet and the location
of point
C i.e., r >>l, then,
(r2 + l2)3/2 ≈ r3 …….. (7)
Therefore, using equation (7) in equation (6), we get
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Since Pmî = p⃗ m in general, the magnetic field al equatorial


point is given by

Note that magnitude of Baxial is twice that of magnitude of


Bequatorial and the direction of Baxial and Bequatorial are opposite.
[OR]

Question 35.
(b) How will you induce an emf by changing the area enclosed
by the coil?
Answer:
Induction of emf by changing the area of the coil: Consider a
conducting rod of length 1 moving with a velocity v towards
left on a rectangular metallic framework. The whole
arrangement is placed in a uniform magnetic field B whose
magnetic lines are perpendicularly directed into the plane of
the paper. As the rod moves from AB to DC in a time dt , the
area enclosed by the loop and hence the magnetic flux through
the loop decreases.
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The change in magnetic flux in time dr is


dΦB = B × change in area
= B × AreaABCD
= Blvdt
since Area ABCD l(vdt)
or = dΦBdt=Blv
As a result of change in flux, an emf is generated in the loop.
The magnitude of the induced emf is
ε=dΦBdt=B/v
This emf is called motional emf. The direction of induced
current is found to be clockwise from Fleming’s right hand rule.
Question 36.
(a) Write down Maxwell equations in integral form.
Answer:
Maxwell’s equations in integral form: Electrodynamics can be
summarized into four basic equations, known as Maxwell’s
equations. These equations are analogous to Newton’s
equations in mechanics. Maxwell’s equations completely explain
the behaviour of charges, currents and prop

1. First equation is nothing but the Gauss’s law. It relates the net
electric flux to net electric charge enclosed in a surface.
Mathematically, it is expressed as
∮E→⋅dA→=Qenclosed ε0
Where E→ is the electric field and Qenclosed is the charge
enclosed. This equation is true for both discrete or continuous
distribution of charges. It also indicates that the electric field
lines start from positive charge and terminate at negative
charge. This implies that the electric field lines do not form a
continuous closed path. In other words, it means that isolated
positive charge or negative charge can exist.
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2. Second equation has no name. But this law is similar to


Gauss’s law in electrostatics. So this law can also be called as
Gauss’s law in magnetism. The surface integral of ‘ magnetic
field over a closed surface is zero. Mathematically,
∮B→⋅dA→=0
where B→ is the magnetic field. This equation implies that the
magnetic lines of force form a continuous closed path. In other
words, it means that no isolated magnetic monopole exists.
3. Third equation is Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction.
This law relates electric field with the changing magnetic flux
which is mathematically written as
∮E→⋅dl⃗ =ddtΦB
where E→ is the electric field. This equation implies that the
line integral of the electric field around any closed path is equal
to the rate of change of magnetic flux through the closed path
bounded by the surface.
4. Fourth equation is modified Ampere’s circuital law. This is
also known as ampere Maxwell’s law. This law relates the
magnetic field around any closed path to the conduction
current and displacement current through that path.
∮B→⋅dl⃗ =μ0Ienclosed +μ0ε0∫E→⋅dA−→
Where B→ is the magnetic field. This equation shows that both
conduction and also displacement current produces magnetic
field. These four equations are known as Maxwell’s equations in
electrodynamics.
[OR]

Question 36.
(b) Obtain lens maker’s formula and mention its significance.
Answer:
Lens maker’s formula and lens equation: Let us consider a thin
lens made up of a medium of refractive index n2 is placed in a
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medium of refractive index n1 . Let R1 and R2 be the radii of


curvature of two spherical surfaces (1) and (2) respectively and
P be the pole. Consider a point object O on the principal axis.
The ray which falls very close to P, after refraction at the surface
(1) forms image at I’. Before it does so, it is again refracted by
the surface (2). Therefore the final image is formed at I. The
general equation for the refraction at a spherical surface is
given by

For the refracting surface (1), the light goes from to n1 to n2

If the object is at infinity, the image is formed at the focus of


the lens. Thus, for u = oo, v =/ Then the equation becomes.

If the refractive index of the lens is n2 and it is placed in air, then


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n2 = n and n1 = 1. So the equation (4) becomes,


1f=(n−1)(1R1−1R2)
The above equation is called the lens maker’s formula, because
it tells the lens manufactures what curvature is needed to make
a lens of desired focal length with a material of particular
refractive index. This formula holds good also for a concave
lens. By comparing the equations (3) and (4) we can write,
1v−1u=1f ……… (6)
This equation is known as lens equation which relates the
object distance it and image distance v with the focal length /
of the lens. This formula holds good for a any type of lens.
Question 37.
(a) Briefly discuss the observations of Hertz, Hallwachs and
Lenard.
Answer:
Hertz observation:

• In 1887, Heinrich Hertz first became successful in


generating and detecting electromagnetic wave with his
high voltage induction coil to cause a spark discharge
between two metallic spheres.
• When a spark is formed, the charges will oscillate back and
forth rapidly and the electromagnetic waves are produced.
• The electromagnetic waves thus produced were detected
by a detector that has a copper wire bent in the shape of a
circle. Although the detection of waves is successful, there
is a problem in observing the tiny spark produced in the
detector.
• In order to improve the visibility of the spark, Hertz made
many attempts and finally noticed an important thing that
small detector spark became more vigorous when it was
exposed to ultraviolet light.
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• The reason for this behaviour of the spark was not known
at that time. Later it was found that it is due to the
photoelectric emission.
• Whenever ultraviolet light is incident on the metallic
sphere, the electrons on the outer surface are emitted
which caused the spark to be more vigorous.
Hallwachs’ observation:

• In 1888, Wilhelm Hallwachs, a German physicist, confirmed


that the strange behaviour of the spark is due to the
action of ultraviolet light with his simple experiment.
• A clean circular plate of zinc is mounted on an insulating
stand and is attached to a gold leaf electroscope by a wire.
When the uncharged zinc plate is irradiated by ultraviolet
light from an arc lamp, it becomes positively charged and
the leaves will open.
• Further, if the negatively charged zinc plate is exposed to
ultraviolet light, the leaves will close as the charges leaked
away quickly. If the plate is positively charged, it becomes
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more positive upon UV rays irradiation and the leaves will


open further.
• From these observations, it was concluded that negatively
charged electrons were emitted from the zinc plate under
the action of ultraviolet light.
Lenard,s observation:
1. In 1902, Lenard studied this electron emission phenomenon
in detail. The apparatus consists of two metallic plates A and C
placed in an evacuated quartz bulb. The galvanometer G and
battery B are connected in the circuit.

2. When ultraviolet light is incident on the negative plate C, an


electric current flows in the circuit that is indicated by the
deflection in the galvanorneter. On other hand, if the positive
plate is irradiated by
the ultraviolet light, no current is observed in the circuit.

3. From these observations, it is concluded that when ultraviolet


light falls on the negative plate. electrons are ejected from it
which are attracted by the positive plate A. On reaching the
positive plate through the evacuated bulb, the circuit is
completed and the current flows in it.

4. Thus, the ultraviolet light falling on the negative plate causes


the electron emission from
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the surface of the plate.

[OR]

Question 37.
(b) Obtain the law of radioactivity.
Law of radioactive decay:
At any instant t, the number of decays per unit time, called rate
of decay (dNdt) is proportional to the number of nuclei (N ) at
the same instant.
dNdt∝N
By introducing a proportionality constant, the relation can be
written as dN
dNdt=−λN ……… (1)
Here proportionality constant X is called decay constant which
is different for different radioactive sample and the negative
sign in the equation implies that the N is decreasing with time.
By rewriting the equation (1), we get
dN = -λ Ndt …………(2)

Here dN represents the number of nuclei decaying in the time


interval dt. Let us assume that at time t = 0 s, the number of
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nuclei present in the radioactive sample is N0 . By integrating


the equation (2), we can calculate the number of undecayed
nuclei N at any time t.
From equation (2), we get

Taking exponentials on both sides, we get


N = N0e-λt …… (4)
[Note: elnx = ey ⇒ x = ey]

Equation (4) is called the law of radioactive decay. Here N


denotes the number of undecayed nuclei present at any time t
and N0 denotes the number of nuclei at initial time I = O. Note
that the number of atoms is decreasing exponentially over the
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time. This implies that the time taken for all the radioactive
nuclei to decay will be infinite. Equation (4) is plotted.
We can also define another useful quantity called activity (R) or
decay rate which is the number of nuclei decayed per second
and it is denoted as R = ∣∣dNdt∣∣
Note: that activity R is a positive quantity. From equation (4), we
get
R = ∣∣dNdt∣∣=λN0e−λt …… (5)
R = R0e-λt …………..(6)
where R0 = λN0
The equation (6) is also equivalent to radioactive law of decay.
Here RQ is the activity of the sample at t = 0 and R is the
activity of the sample at any time t. From equation (6), activity
also shows exponential decay behavior. The activity R also can
be expressed in terms of number of undecayed atoms present
at any time t. From equation (6), since N = N0 e-λt we write
R = λN …………..(7)
Equation (4) implies that the activity at any time t is equal to the
product of decay constant and number of undecayed nuclei at
the same time t. Since N decreases over time, R also decreases.
Question 38.
(a) Describe the function of a transistor as an amplifier with the
neat circuit diagram. Sketch the input and output wave form.
Answer:
Transistor as an amplifier:
A transistor operating in the active region has the capability to
amplify weak signals. Amplification is the process of increasing
the signal strength (increase in the amplitude). If a large
amplification is required, the transistors are cascaded with
coupling elements like resistors, capacitors, and transformers
which is called as multistage amplifiers.
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Here, the amplification of an electrical signal is explained with a


single stage transistor amplifier as shown in figure (a). Single
stage indicates that the circuit consists of one transistor with
the allied components. An NPN transistor is connected in the
common emitter configuration.

To start with, the Q point or the operating point of the


transistor is fixed so as to get the maximum signal swing at the
output (neither towards saturation point nor towards cut-off). A
load resistance, Rc is connected in series with the collector
circuit to measure the output voltage. The capacitor C1 allows
only the ac signal to pass through. The emitter bypass capacitor
CE provides a low reactance path to the amplified ac signal. The
coupling capacitor Cc is used to couple one stage of the
amplifier with the next stage while constructing multistage
amplifiers. Vs is the sinusoidal input signal source applied across
the base-emitter. The output is taken across the collector-
emitter.

Applying Kirchhoff ’s voltage law in the output loop, the


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collector-emitter voltage is given by


VCE = VCC – IC RC
Working of the amplifier:
During the positive half cycle
Input signal (Vs) increases the forward voltage across the
emitter-base. As a result, the base current (IB) increases.
Consequently, the collector current (IC) increases p times. This
increases the voltage drop across RC which in mm decreases the
collector-emitter voltage (VCE). Therefore, the input signal in the
positive direction produces an amplified signal in the negative
direction at the output. Hence, the output signal is reversed by
180° as shown in figure (b).
During the negative half cycle
Input signal (Vs) decreases the forward voltage across the
emitter-base. As a result, base current (IB) decreases and in turn
increases the collector current (IC). The increase in collector
current (IC) decreases the potential drop across Rc and increases
the collector-emitter voltage ( VCE). Thus, the input signal in the
negative direction produces an amplified signal in the positive
direction at the output. Therefore, 180° phase reversal is
observed during the negative half cycle of the input signal.
[OR]

Question 38.
(b) Explain the three modes of propagation of electromagnetic
waves through space.
Answer:
Propagation of electromagnetic waves:
The electromagnetic wave transmitted by the transmitter travels
in three different modes to reach the receiver according to its
frequency range:
1. Ground wave propagation (or) surface wave propagation
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(nearly 2 kHz to 2 MHz)


2. Sky wave propagation (or) ionospheric propagation (nearly 3
MHz to 30 MHz)
3. Space wave propagation (nearly 30 MHz to 400 GHz)

1. Ground wave propagation:


If the electromagnetic waves transmitted by the transmitter
glide over the surface of the earth to reach the receiver, then
the propagation is called ground wave propagation. The
corresponding waves are called ground waves or surface waves.

Both transmitting and receiving antennas must be close to the


earth. The size of the antenna plays a major role in deciding the
efficiency of the radiation of signals. During transmission, the
electrical signals are attenuated over a distance. Some reasons
for attenuation are as follows:

Increasing distance: The attenuation of the signal depends on

• power of the transmitter


• frequency of the transmitter, and
• condition of the earth surface.
Absorption of energy by the Earth: When the transmitted signal
in the form of EM wave is in contact with the Earth, it induces
charges in the Earth and constitutes a current. Due to this, the
earth behaves like a leaky capacitor which leads to the
attenuation of the wave.
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Tilting of the wave: As the wave progresses, the wavefront starts


gradually tilting according to the curvature of the Earth. This
increase in the ti It decreases the electric field strength of the
wave. Finally, at some distance, the surface wave dies out due
to energy loss.

The frequency of the ground waves is mostly less than 2 MHz


as high frequency waves undergo more absorption of energy at
the earth’s atmosphere. The medium wave signals received
during the day time use surface wave propagation.

It is mainly used in local broadcasting, radio navigation, for


ship-to-ship, ship-to-shore communication and mobile
communication.

2. Sky Wave Propagation:


The mode of propagation in which the electromagnetic waves
radiated from an antenna, directed upwards at large angles
gets reflected by the ionosphere back to earth is called sky
wave propagation or ionospheric propagation. The
corresponding waves are called sky waves.

The frequency range of EM waves in this mode of propagation


is 3 to 30 MHz. EM waves of frequency more than 30 MHz can
easily penetrate through the ionosphere and does not undergo
reflection. It is used for short wave broadcast services. Medium
and high frequencies are for long-distance radio
communication. Extremely long distance communication is also
possible as the radio waves can undergo multiple reflections
between the earth and the ionosphere. A single reflection helps
the radio waves to travel a distance of approximately 4000 km.
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Ionosphere acts as a reflecting surface. It is at a distance of


approximately 50 km and spreads up to 400 km above the
Earth surface. Due to the absorption of ultraviolet rays, cosmic
ray, and other high energy radiations like a, p rays from sun, the
air molecules in the ionosphere get ionized. This produces
charged ions and these ions provide a reflecting medium for
the reflection of radio waves or communication waves back to
earth within the permitted frequency range. The phenomenon
of bending the radio waves back to earth is nothing but the
total internal reflection.

3. Space wave propagation:


The process of sending and receiving information signal
through space is called space wave communication. The
electromagnetic waves of very high frequencies above 30 MHz
are called as space waves. These waves travel in a straight line
from the transmitter to the receiver. Hence, it is used for a line
of sight communication (LOS).
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For high frequencies, the transmission towers must be high


enough so that the transmitted and received signals (direct
waves) will not encounter the curvature of the earth and hence
travel with less attenuation and loss of signal strength. Certain
waves reach the receiver after getting reflected from the
ground.
Physics Model Question Paper 2

PART -1
Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer.
[15 × 1 = 15]
Question 1.
A parallel plate capacitor stores a charge Q at a voltage V.
Suppose the area of the parallel plate capacitor and the
distance between the plates are each doubled then which is the
quantity that will change?
(a) Capacitance
(b) Charge
(c) Voltage
(d) Energy density
Answer:
(d) Energy density

Question 2.
A carbon resistance has colour bands in order yellow, brown,
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red. Its resistance is


(a) 41 Ω
(b) 41 × 102 Ω
(c) 4 × 103 Ω
(d) 4.2 Ω
Answer:
(b) 41 × 102 Ω
Question 3.
The magnetic field at the center O of the following
(a) μ0I4r⊗
(b) μ0I4r⊙
(c) μ0I2r⊗
(d) μ0I2r⊙

Answer:
(a) μ0I4r⊗
Question 4.
The horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field at a place is
3.6 × 10-5T. If the angle of dip at this place is 60°, the vertical
components of earth’s field at this place is
(a) 1.2 × 10-5T
(b) 2.4 × 10-5T
(c) 4 × 10-5T
(d) 6.2 × 10-5T
Hint: Bv = BH tan δ = 3.6 × 10-5 × tan 60°
Bv = 6.2 × 10-5 T
Answer:
(d) 6.2 × 10-5T
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Question 5.
In a series RL circuit, the resistance and inductive reactance are
the same. Then the phase difference between the voltage and
current in the circuit is
(a) π4
(b) π2
(c) π6
(d) zero
Answer:
(a) π4
Question 6.
Alternating current can be measured by
(a) moving coil galvanometer
(b) hot wire ammeter
(c) tangent galvanometer
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) hot wire ammeter

Question 7.
Let E = E0 sin[106 × -ωt] be the electric field of plane
electromagnetic wave, the value of ω is
(a) 0.3 × 10-14 rad s-1
(b) 3 × 10-14 rad s-1
(c) 0.3 × 1014 rad s-1
(d) 3 × 1014 rad s-1
Answer:
(d) 3 × 1014 rad s-1
Question 8.
Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities I and
41 are superposed. The maximum and minimum possible
intensities in the resulting beam are
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(A) 51 and I
(b) 51 and 31
(c) 91 and I
(d) 91 and 31
Answer:
(c) 91 and I

Question 9.
The transverse nature of light is shown in,
(a) interference
(b) diffraction
(c) scattering
(d) polarisation
Answer:
(d) polarisation

Question 10.
Emission of electrons by the absorption of heat energy is called
emission.
(a) photoelectric
(b) field
(c) thermionic
(d) secondary
Answer:
(c) thermionic

Question 11.
Proton and α – particle have the same de-Broglie wavelength.
What is same for both of them?
(a) Time period
(b) Energy
(c) Frequency
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(d) Momentum
Hint: λ = h/p, when wavelength λ is same, momentum p is also
same.
Answer:
(d) Momentum

Question 12.
The ratio of the wavelengths for the transition from n = 2 to n =
1 in Li++, He+ and H is
(a) 1:2: 3
(b) 1:4: 9
(c) 3:2:1
(d) 4: 9: 36
Answer:
(d) 4: 9: 36
Question 13.
The principle in which a solar cell operates
(a) Diffusion
(b) Recombination
(c) Photovoltaic action
(d) Carrier flow
Answer:
(c) Photovoltaic action

Question 14.
The output transducer of the communication system converts
the radio signal into
(a) Sound
(b) Mechanical energy
(c) Kinetic energy
(d) None of the above
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Answer:
(a) Sound

Question 15.
The alloys used for muscle wires in Robots are
(a) Shape memory alloys
(b) Gold copper alloys
(c) Gold silver alloys
(d) Two dimensional alloys
Answer:
(a) Shape memory alloys

PART – II
Answer any six questions in which Q. No 22 is compulsory. [6 ×
2 = 12]
Question 16.
What is Polarisation?
Answer:
Polarisation P→ is defined as the total dipole moment per unit
volume of the dielectric.
P→ = χe P→ext
Question 17.
Why current is a scalar?
Answer:
The current I is defined as the scalar product of current density
and area vector in which the charges cross.
I = j→ . A→
The dot product of two vector quantity is a scalar form. Hence,
current is called as a scalar quantity.
Question 18.
The horizontal component and vertical components of Earth’s
magnetic field at a place are 0.15 G and 0.26 G respectively.
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Calculate the angle of dip and resultant magnetic field.


Answer:
BH = 0.15 G and Bv = 0.26 G
tan I = 0.260.15 ⇒ I = tan-1 (1.732) = 60°
The resultant magnetic field of the Earth is
B=B2H+B2H−−−−−−−√=0.3G
Question 19.
State Fleming’s right hand rule.
Answer:
The thumb, index finger and middle finger of right hand are
stretched out in mutually perpendicular directions. If the index
finger points the direction of the magnetic field and the thumb
indicates the direction of motion of the conductor, then the
middle finger will indicate the direction of the induced current.

Question 20.
The wavelength of a light is 450 nm. How much phase it will
differ for a path of 3 mm?
Answer:
The wavelength is, λ = 450 nm = 450 × 10-9 m
Path difference is, δ = 3 mm = 3 × 10-3 m
Relation between phase difference and path difference is, Φ
= 2πλ×δ
Substituting, Φ = 2π450×10−9×3×10−3=π75×106
Φ = π75×106rad
Question 21.
How will you define threshold frequency?
Answer:
For a given surface, the emission of photoelectrons takes place
only if the frequency of incident light is greater than a certain
minimum frequency called the threshold frequency.
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Question 22.
Calculate the number of nuclei of carbon-14 undecayed after
22,920 years if the initial number of carbon-14 atoms is 10,000.
The half-life of carbon-14 is 5730 years.
Answer:
To get the time interval in terms of half-life, n
= tT1/2=22,920yr5730yr=4
The number of nuclei remaining undecayed after 22,920 years
N=(12)nN0=(12)4×10,000⇒N=625
Question 23.
A diode is called as a unidirectional device. Explain
Answer:
Diode is called as a unidirectional device, i.e., current flows in
only one direction (anode to cathode internally) when a forward
voltage is applied, the diode conducts and when reverse
voltage is applied, there is no conduction. A mechanical
analogy is a rat chat, which allows motion in one direction only.

Question 24.
Give the factors that are responsible for transmission
impairments.
Answer:

• Attenuation
• Distortion (Harmonic)
• Noise
PART-III
Answer any six questions ¡n which Q.No. 26 ¡s compulsory. (6 ×
3 = 18)
Question 25.
A sample of HO gas ¡s placed in a uniform electric field of
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magnitude 3 × 104 N C-1. The dipole moment of each HCI


molecule is 3.4 × 10-30 Cm. Calculate the maximum torque
experienced by each HCl molecule.
Answer:
The maximum torque experienced by the dipole is when it is
aligned perpendicular to the applied field.
τmax = pE sin90° = 3.4 × 10-30 × 3 × 104Nm
τmax =10.2 × 10-26Nm
Question 26.
The resistance ola wire is 20 Ω . What will be new resistance, ¡fit
is stretched uniformly 8 times its original length?
Answer:
R1 = 20 Ω, R2 = ?
Let the original length (l1) be 1.
The new length, l2 = 8l1 (i.,e) l2 =8l
The original resistance,

Though the wire is stretched, its volume is unchanged.


Initial volume = Final volume
A1l1 = A2l2 , A1l =A28l
A1A2=8ll=8
By dividing equation R2 by equation R1, we get

Substituting the value of A1A2 we get


R1R2 = 8 × 8 = 64 ⇒ R2 = 64 × 20 = 1280 Ω
Hence, strecthing the length of the wire has increased its
resistance.
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Question 27.
State Biot-Savart’s law.
The magnitude of magnetic field dB⃗ at a point P at a distance
r from the small elemental length taken on a conductor carrying
current varies
• directly as the strength of the current I
• directly as the magnitude of the length element dl⃗

• directly as the sine of the angle (say,0) between ddl⃗ and r̂

.
• inversely as the square of the distance between the point

P and length element dl⃗ .


This is expressed as
dB∝Idlr2sinθ
Question 28.
Give the principle of AC generator.
Answer:
Alternators work on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
The relative motion between a conductor and a magnetic field
changes the magnetic flux linked with the conductor which in
turn, induces an emf. The magnitude of the induced emf is
given by Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction and its
direction by Fleming’s right hand rule.

Question 29.
A transformer is used to light a 140 W, 24 V bulb from a 240 V
AC mains. The current in the main cable is 0.7 A. Find the
efficiency of the transformer.
Answer:
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Question 30.
What are the Cartesian sign conventions for a spherical mirror?
Answer:

• The Incident light is taken from left to right (i.e. object on


the left of mirror).
• All the distances are measured from the pole of the mirror
(pole is taken as origin).
• The distances measured to the right of pole along the
principal axis are taken as positive.
• The distances measured to the left of pole along the
principal axis are taken as negative,
• Heights measured in the upward perpendicular direction
to the principal axis are taken as positive.
• Heights measured in the downward perpendicular
direction to the principal axis, are taken as negative.
Question 31.
Write the relationship of de Broglie wavelength k associated
with a particle of mass m in terms of its kinetic energy K.
Answer:
Kinetic energy of the particle, K = 12 mv2 = p22m
p = 2mK−−−−√
de-Broglie wavelength of the particle λ = hp=h2mK√
Question 32.
What is binding energy of a nucleus? Give its expression.
Answer:
when Z protons and N neutrons combine to form a nucleus,
mass equal to mass defect disappears and the corresponding
energy is released. This is called the binding energy of the
nucleus (BE) and is equal to (Δm)c2 .
BE = (Zmp + Nmn – M ) c2
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Question 33.
Distinguish between avalanche and zener breakdown.
Answer:

Avalanche Breakdown Zener Breakdown

It occurs injunctions which are It occurs injunctions which are


lightly and have wide heavily doped and have
depletion widths. narrow depletion widths.

It occurs at higher reverse


voltages when thermally It occurs due to rupture of
generated electrons get covalent bonds by strong
enough kinetic energy to electric fields set up in
produce more electrons by depletion region by the
collision. reverse voltage.

At reverse voltage above 6V At reverse voltage below 6V


breakdown is due to breakdown is due to zener
avalanche effect. effect.

Electric field produced is weak A strong electric field is


in nature. produced

Charge carriers obtain energy Zener current is independent


from the applied potential. of applied voltage.

PART – IV
Answer all the questions. [5 × 5 = 25]
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Question 34.
(a) Calculate the electric field due to a dipole on its axial line
and equatorial plane.
Answer:
Case (i) Electric field due to an electric dipole at points on the
axial line. Consider an electric dipole placed on the x-ax is as
shown in figure. A point C is located at a distance of r from the
midpoint O of the dipole along the axial line. line
The electric field at a point C due to +q is

Since the electric dipole moment vector p⃗ is from -q to +q and


is directed along BC, the above equation is rewritten as

where P̂ is the electric dipole moment unit vector from -q to


+q.
The electric field at a point C due to -q is

Since +q is located closer to the point C than -q, E⃗ – E⃗ + us


stronger than E⃗ –. Therefore, the length of the E⃗ + vector is
drawn large than that of E⃗ – vector.
The total electric field at point C is calculated using the
superposition principle of the electric field.
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Note that the total electric field is along E⃗ + since +q is closer


to C than -q.

The direction of E⃗ tot is shown in Figure


If the point C is very far away from the dipole then (r >> a).
Under this limit the term(r2 – a2) ≈ r4 Substituting this into
equation, we get

If the point C is chosen on the left side of the dipole, the total
electric field is still in the direction of p⃗ .
Case (ii) Electric field due to an electric dipole at a point on the
equatorial plane

Consider a point C at a distance r from the midpoint O of the


dipole on the equatorial plane as shown in Figure. Since the
point C is quite-distant from +q and -q, the magnitude of the
electric fields of +q and -q are the same. The direction of E is
along BC and the direction of E⃗ + is along and the direction
of E⃗ – CA. E⃗ + and E⃗ – are resolved into two components; one
component parallel to the dipole axis and the other
perpendicular to it. The perpendicular components ∣∣∣E→+∣∣∣ sin
θ and ∣∣∣E→−∣∣∣sinθ are oppositely directed and cancel each
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other. The magnitude of the total electric field at point C is the


sum of the parallel components of E⃗ + and E⃗ – and its
direction is along -P̂

The magnitudes E⃗ + and E⃗ – are the same and are given by

By substituting equation (1) into equation (2), we get

Question 34.
(b) Obtain the condition for bridge balance in Wheatstone’s
bridge.
Answer:
An important application of Kirchhoff’s rules is the
Wheatstone’s bridge. It is used to compare resistances and also
helps in determining the unknown resistance in electrical
network. The bridge consists of four resistances P, Q, R and S
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connected, A galvanometer G is connected between the points


B and D. The battery is connected between the points A and C.
The current through the galvanometer is IG and its resistance is
G.

Applying Kirchhoff’s current rule to junction B,


I1 – IG – I3 = 0 ……. (1)
Applying Kirchhoff’s current rule to junction D,
I2 + IG – I4 = 0 ……. (2)
Applying Kirchhoff’s voltage rule to loop ABDA,
I1p + IGG – I2R = 0 ……. (3)
Applying Kirchhoff’s voltage rule to loop ABCDA,
I1p – I3Q – I4S – I2R = 0 ……. (4)
When the points B and D are at the same potential, the bridge
is said to be balanced. As there is no potential difference
between B and D, no current flows through galvanometer (IG =
0).
Substituting IG = O in equation, (I), (2) and (3), we get
I1 = I3 …… (5)
I2 = I4 ……… (6)
I1p = I2R ………. (7)
Substituting the equation (5) and (6) in equation (4)
I1P + I1Q – I2S – I2R= 0
I1(P + Q) = I2(R+S) …… (8)
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Dividing equation (8) By equation (7), we get

This is the bridge balance condition. Only under this condition,


galvanometer shows null deflection. Suppose we know the
values of two adjacent resistances, the other two resistances
can be compared. If three of the resistances are known, the
value of unknown resistance (fourth one) can be determined.
Question 35.
(a) Show the time period of oscillation when a bar magnet is
kept in a uniform magnetic field is T = 2π1pmB−−−√. in second,
where I represents moment of interia of the bar magnet,
p<sub<m is the magnetic moment and is the magnetic field.
Answer:
The magnitude of deflecting torque (the torque which makes
the object rotate) acting on the bar magnet which will tend to
align the bar magnet parallel to the direction of the uniform
magnetic field B→ is
τ⃗ = pm B sin θ
The magnitude of restoring torque acting on the bar magnet
can be written as
|τ⃗ |=Id2θdt2
Under equilibrium conditions, both magnitude of deflecting
torque and restoring torque will be equal but act in the
opposite directions, which means
Id2θdt2=−pmBsinθ
The negative sign implies that both are in opposite directions.
The above equation can be written as
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d2θdt2=−pmBIsinθ
This is non-linear second order homogeneous differential
equation. In order to make it linear, we use small angle
approximation, i.e., sin θ ≈ θ, we get
d2θdt2=−pmBIθ
This linear second order homogeneous differential equation is a
Simple Harmonic differential equation. Therefore,
Comparing with Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM) differential
equation d2xdt2=−ω2x
where ω is the angular frequency of the oscillation.

where, BH is the horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field.


[OR]

Question 35.
(b) An inductor of inductance L carries an electric current i. How
much energy is stored while establishing the current in it?
Answer:
Energy stored in an inductor: Whenever a current is established
in the circuit, the inductance opposes the growth of the current.
In order to establish a current in the circuit, work is done
against this opposition by some external agency. This work
done is stored as magnetic potential energy. Let us assume that
electrical resistance of the inductor is negligible and inductor
effect alone is considered. The induced emf eat any instant t is
ℰ = −Ldidt …(1)
Let dW be work done in moving a charge dq in a time dt
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against the opposition, then


dW = -edq = -ℰdq = -ℰidi [ ∵ dq = idt]
Substituting for e value from equation (1)
= −(−Ldidt)idt
dW = Lidt ……. (2)
Total work done in establishing the current i is
This work done is stored as magnetic potential energy.

W = 12 Li2 ………. (3)


This work done is stored as magnetic potential energy.
∴ UB = 12 Li2
Question 36.
(a) Using Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction, derive an
equation for motional emf.
Answer:
Motional emf from Faraday’s law: Let us consider a rectangular
conducting loop of width l in a uniform magnetic
field B→ which is perpendicular to the plane of the loop and is
directed inwards. A part of the loop is in the magnetic field
while the remaining part is outside the field.
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When the loop is pulled with a constant velocity v→ to the


right, the area of the portion of the loop within the magnetic
field will decrease. Thus, the flux linked with the loop will also
decrease. According to Faraday’s law, an electric current is
induced in the loop which flows in a direction so as to oppose
the pull of the loop.
Let x be the length of the loop which is still within the magnetic
field, then its area is lx. The magnetic flux linked with the loop is
ΦB = ∫AB⃗ ⋅dA⃗ =BAcosθ
Here θ = 0° and cos 0° = 1
= BA
ΦB = Blx ……… (1)
As this magnetic flux decreases due to the movement of the
loop, the magnitude of the induced emf is given by
ε=dΦBdt=ddt(Blx)
Here, both B and l are constants. Therefore,
ε=Bldxdt=Blv …… (2)
where v = dxdt is the velocity of the loop. This emf is known as
motional emf since it is produced due to the movement of the
loop in the magnetic field.
[OR]

Question 36.
(b) Derive the mirror equation and the equation for lateral
magnification. The mirror equation:
Answer:
The mirror equation establishes a relation among object
distance u, image distance v and focal length/for a spherical
mirror. An object AB is considered on the principal axis of a
concave mirror beyond the center of curvature C.
Let us consider three paraxial rays from point B on the object.
The first paraxial ray BD travelling parallel to principal axis is
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incident on the concave mirror at D, close to the pole P. After


reflection the ray passes through the focus F. The second
paraxial ray BP incident at the pole P is reflected along PB’. The
third paraxial ray BC passing through centre of curvature C, falls
normally on the mirror at E is reflected back along the same
path.
The three reflected rays intersect at the point B’. A
perpendicular drawn as A’ B’ to the principal axis is the real,
inverted image of the object AB.

As per law of reflection, the angle of incidence ∠BPA is equal to


the angle of reflection ∠B’PA’ . The triangles ∆BPA and ∆B’PA’
are similar. Thus, from the rule of similar triangles,
A′B′AB=PA′PA …… (1)
The other set of similar triangles are, ∆DPF and ∆ BA.’ F. (PD is
almost a straight vertical line)
A′B′PD=A′FPF
As, the distances PD = AB the above equation becomes,
A′B′AB=A′FPF …….. (2)
From equations (1) and (2) we can write,
PA′PA=A′FPF

As, A’ F PA’ – PF, the above equation becomes,


PA′PA=PA′−PFPF
We can apply the sign conventions for the various distances in
the above equation.
PA= -u. PA’= -v, PF = -f
All the three distances are negative as per sign convention,
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because they are measured to the left of the pole. Now, the
equation (3) becomes.

The above equation (4) is called mirror equation


Lateral magnification in spherical mirrors:
The lateral or transverse magnification is defined as the ratio of
the height of the image to the height of the object. The height
of the object and image are measured perpendicular to the
principal axis.

m = h′h …… (5)
Applying proper sign conventions for equation (1), A’B’ PA’
A′B′AB=PA′PA
A’B’ = -h, AB = h, PA’ = -v, PA = -u
−h′h=−v−u
On simplifying we get,
m=h′h=−vu …….(6)
Using mirror equation, we can further write the magnification
as,
m=h′h−f−vf=ff−u ……… (7)
Question 37.
(a) Obtain Einstein’s photoelectric equation with necessary
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explanation.
Answer:
Einstein’s explanation of photoelectric equation:
When a photon of energy hv is incident on a metal surface, it is
completely absorbed by a single electron and the electron is
ejected.

In this process, a part of the photon energy is used for the


ejection of the electrons from the metal surface (photoelectric
work function Φ0) and the remaining energy as the kinetic
energy of the ejected electron. From the law of conservation of
energy,
hυ = Φ0 + 12 mv2 …… (1)
where m is the mass of the electron and u its velocity

If we reduce the frequency of the incident light, the speed or


kinetic energy of photo electrons is also reduced. At some
frequency v0 of incident radiation, the photo electrons are
ejected with almost zero kinetic energy. Then the equation (1)
becomes
hυ0 = Φ0
where v0 is the threshold frequency. By rewriting the equation
(1), we get
hυ = hυ0 + 12 mv2 …….(2)
The equation (2) is known as Einstein’s Photoelectric equation.
If the electron does not lose energy by internal collisions, then
it is emitted with maximum kinetic energy Kmax. Then
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Kmax = 12 mv2max
where υmax is the maximum velocity of the electron ejected. The
equation (1) is rearranged as follows:
Kmax = hυ – Φ0
[OR]

Question 37.
(b) Derive the energy expression for hydrogen atom using Bohr
atom model.
Answer:
The energy of an electron in the nth orbit
Since the electrostatic force is a conservative force, the
potential energy for the orbit is

This implies that Un = -2 KEn. Total energy in the «th orbit is


En = KEn + Un = KEn – 2KEn = -KEn
En = −me48ε20h2Z2n2
For hydrogen atom (Z = 1),
En = me48ε20h21n2 joule ……. (1)
where n stands for principal quantum number. The negative
sign in equation (1) indicates that the electron is bound to the
nucleus.
Substituting the values of mass and charge of an electron (m
and e), permittivity of free space s0 and Planck’s constant h and
expressing in terms of eW. we get
En = -13.61n2eV
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For the first orbit (ground state), the total energy of electron is
E1 = – 13.6 eV. For the second orbit (first excited state), the total
energy of electron is E2 = -3.4 eV. For the third orbit (second
excited state), the total energy of electron is E3 =1.51 eV and so
on.
Notice that the energy of the first excited state is greater than
the ground state, second excited state is greater than the first
excited state and so on. Thus, the orbit which is closest to the
nucleus (r1) has lowest energy (minimum energy compared with
other orbits). So, it is often called ground state energy (lowest
energy state). The ground state energy of hydrogen (-13.6 eV )
is used as a unit of energy called Rydberg (1 Rydberg = -13.6
eV ).
The negative value of this energy is because of the way the zero
of the potential energy is defined. When the electron is taken
away to an infinite distance (very far distance) from nucleus,
both the potential energy and kinetic energy terms vanish and
hence the total energy also vanishes.

Question 38.
(a) Explain the construction and working of a full wave rectifier.
Full wave rectifier:
The positive and negative half cycles of the AC input signal pass
through the full wave rectifier circuit and hence it is called the
full wave rectifier. It consists of two p-n junction diodes, a
center tapped transfonner, and a load resistor (RL). The centre is
usually taken as the ground or zero voltage reference point.
Due to the centre tap transformer, the output voltage rectified
by each diode is only one half of the total secondary voltage.
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During positive half cycle:


When the positive half cycle of the ac input signal passes
through the circuit, terminal M is positive, G’ is at zero potential
and N is at negative potential. This forward biases diode D1 and
reverse biases diode D2 Hence, being forward biased, diode
D1 conducts and current flows along the path MD1 AGC . As a
result, positive half cycle of the voltage appears across RL in the
direction G to C.
During negative half cycle:
When the negative half cycle of the ac input signal passes
through the circuit, terminal N is positive, G is at zero potential
and M is at negative potential. This forward biases diode D2 and
reverse biases diode D1. Hence, being forward biased, diode
D2 conducts and current flows along the path ND2 BGC . As a
result, negative half cycle of the voltage appears across RL in
the same direction from G to C
Hence in a full wave rectifier both positive and negative half
cycles of the input signal pass through the circuit in the same
direction as shown in figure (b). Though both positive and
negative half cycles of ac input are rectified, the output is still
pulsating in nature.

The efficiency ( η) of full wave rectifier is twice that of a half


wave rectifier and is found to be 81.2 %. It is because both the
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positive and negative half cycles of the ac input source are


rectified.

[OR]

Question 38.
(b) Give the applications of ICT in mining and agriculture
sectors.
Answer:
(i) Agriculture
The implementation of information and communication
technology (ICT) in agriculture sector enhances the productivity,
improves the living standards of farmers and overcomes the
challenges and risk factors.
(a) ICT is widely used in increasing food productivity and farm
management.
(b) It helps to optimize the use of water, seeds and fertilizers
etc.
(c) Sophisticated technologies that include robots, temperature
and moisture sensors, aerial images, and GPS technology can
be used.
(d) Geographic information systems are extensively used in
farming to decide the suitable place for the species to be
planted.

(ii) Mining
(a) ICT in mining improves operational efficiency, remote
monitoring and disaster locating system.
(b) Information and communication technology provides audio-
visual warning to the trapped underground miners.
(c) It helps to connect remote sites.
Physics Model Question Paper 3
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PART -1
Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer.
[15 × 1 = 15]
Question 1.
Two metallic spheres of radii 1 cm and 3 cm are given charges
of -1 × 10-2 C and 5 × 10-2 C respectively. If these are
connected by a conducting wire, the final charge on the bigger
sphere is
(a) 3 × 10-2 C
(b) 4 × 10-2 C
(c) 1 × 10-2 C
(d) 2 × 10-2 C
Answer:
(a) 3 × 10-2 C
Question 2.
What is the value of resistance of the following resistor?

(a) 100 k Ω
(b) 10 kΩ
(c) 1 k Ω
(d) 1000 k Ω
Answer:
(a) 100 k Ω

Question 3.
A flow of 107 electrons per second in a conduction wire
constitutes a
(a) 1.6 × 10-26A
(b) 1.6 × 1012A
(c) 1.6 × 10-12A
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(d) 1.6 × 1026A


Hint:

Answer:
(c) 1.6 x 10-12A
Question 4.
The force experienced by a particle having mass m and charge
q accelerated through a potential difference V when it is kept
under perpendicular magnetic field B is ……………….. .
(a) 2q3BVm−−−−−√
(b) q3B2V2m−−−−−√
(c) 2q3B2Vm−−−−−−√
(d) 2q3BVm3−−−−−√
Answer:
(c) 2q3B2Vm−−−−−−√
Question 5.
A magnetic needle is kept in a non-uniform magnetic field. It
experiences
(a) a force and a torque
(b) a force but not a torque
(c) a torque but not a force
(d) neither a force nor a torque
Answer:
(a) a force and a torque

Question 6.
The instantaneous values of alternating current and voltage in a
circuit are i = 12√ sin( 100πt) A and v = 12√sin(100πt+π3)V The
average power in watts consumed in the circuit is
(a) 14
(b) 3√4
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(c) 12
(d) 18
Answer:
(d) 18
Question 7.
Which of the following is an electromagnetic wave’?
(a) α – rays
(b) β – rays
(c) γ – rays
(d) all of them
Answer:
(c) γ – rays

Question 8.
When light is incident on a soap film of thickness 5 × 10-5 cm,
the wavelength of light reflected maximum in the visible region
is 5320 Å. Refractive index of the film will be.
(a) 1.22
(b) 1.33
(c) 1.51
(d) 1.83
Hint. The condition for constructive interference, (for reflection)

Answer:
(b) 1.33
Question 9.
A plane glass is placed over a various coloured letters (violet,
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green, yellow, red) The letter which appears to be raised more


is,
(a) red
(b) yellow
(c) green
(d) violet
Hint. Letters appear to be raised depending upon the refractive
index of the material. Since violet has a higher refractive index
than red (the index increases with frequency), red will be the
lowermost.
Answer:
(d) violet

Question 10.
In photoelectric emission, a radiation whose frequency is 4
times threshold frequency of a certain metal is incident on the
metal. Then the maximum possible velocity of the emitted
electron will be
(a) hv0m−−−√
(b) 6hu0m−−−−√
(c) 2hv0m−−−√
(d) hv02m−−−√
Hint: From Einstein’s photoelectric equation
Kmax = hυ – hυ0 [υ = 4υ0]
12 mV2max = 4hυ0 – hυ0
V2max = 6hv0m
Vmax = 6hv0m−−−−√
Answer:
(b) 6hu0m−−−−√
Question 11.
The number of photo-electrons emitted for light of a frequency
u (higher than the threshold frequency υ0) is proportional to
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(a) Threshold frequency (υ0)


(b) Intensity of light
(c) Frequency of light (υ)
(d) υ – υ0
Hint: Photoelectric current of Intensity of incident light
Answer:
(b) Intensity of light
Question 12.
Atomic number of H-like atom with ionization potential 122.4 V
for n = 1 is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Hint: The ionisation energy of a hydrogen atom is, IE = 13.6z2n2

Answer:
(c) 3
Question 13.
The given electrical network is equivalent to ………….. .
(а) AND gate
(b) OR gate
(c) NOR gate
(d) NOT gate

Answer:
(c) NOR gate
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Question 14.
The frequency range of 3 MHz to 30 MHz is used for
(a) Ground wave propagation
(b) Space wave propagation
(c) Sky wave propagation
(d) Satellite communication
Answer:
(c) Sky wave propagation

Question 15.
Which one of the following is the natural nanomaterial?
(a) Peacock feather
(b) peacock beak
(c) Grain of sand
(d) Skin of the wale
Answer:
(a) Peacock feather

PART – II
Answer any six questions in which Q. No 21 is compulsory. [6 ×
2 = 12]
Question 16.
When two objects are rubbed with each other, approximately a
charge of 50 nC can be produced in each object. Calculate the
number of electrons that must be transferred to produce this
charge.
Answer:
Charge produced in each object q = 50 nC
q = 50 × 10-9C
Charge of electron (e) = 1.6 × 10-19C
Number of electron transferred, n = qe=50×10−91.6×10−19 = ,n
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=31.25 × 10-9 × 1019


n = 31.25 × 1o10 electrons
Question 17.
State Kirchhoff’s voltage rule.
Answer:
It states that in a closed circuit the algebraic sum of the
products of the current and resistance of each part of the circuit
is equal to the total emf included in the circuit. This rule follows
from the law of conservation of energy for an isolated system.

Question 18.
Define magnetic dipole moment.
Answer:
The magnetic dipole moment is defined as the product of its
pole strength and magnetic length.
P→ = qmd→
Question 19.
What is meant by ‘Wattful current’?
Answer:
The component of current (IRMS cos Φ) which is in phase with
the voltage is called active component. The power consumed
by this current = VRMSIRMS cos Φ . So that it is also known as
‘WattfuT current.
Question 20.
What are electromagnetic waves?
Answer:
Electromagnetic waves are non-mechanical waves which move
with speed equals to the speed of light (in vacuum).

Question 21.
Two light sources have intensity of light as 10. What is the
resultant intensity at a point where the two light waves have a
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phase difference of π/3?


Answer:
Let the intensities be I0.
The resultant intensity is, I = 4 I0 cos2 (φ/2)
Resultant intensity when, Φ = π / 3, is I = 4I0 cos2 (π / 6)
I = 4I0(√3/2)2 = 3I0
Question 22.
State de Broglie hypothesis.
Answer:
De Broglie hypothesis, all matter particles like electrons,
protons, neutrons in motion are associated with waves.

Question 23.
Calculate the energy equivalent of 1 atomic mass unit.
Answer:
We take, m = 1 amu = 1.66 × 1027 kg
c = 3 × 108 ms-1
Then, E = mc2 = 1.66 × 1027 × (3 × 1o8)27 J

E ≈ 981 MeV
∴ 1 amu = 931 MeV
Question 24.
hat do you mean by doping?
Answer:
The process of adding impurities to the intrinsic semiconductor
is called doping.

PART III
Answer any six questions in which Q.No. 32 is compulsory. [6 ×
3 = 18]
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Question 25.
What are the differences between Coulomb force and
gravitational force?
Answer:

• The gravitational force between two masses is always


attractive but Coulomb force between two charges can be
attractive or repulsive, depending on the nature of
charges.
• The value of the gravitational constant G = 6.626 × 1011 N
m2 kg-2. The value of the constant k in Coulomb law is k =
9 × 109 N m2 C-2.
• The gravitational force between two masses is
independent of the medium. The electrostatic force
between the two charges depends on nature of the
medium in which the two charges are kept at rest.
• The gravitational force between two point masses is the
same whether two masses are at rest or in motion. If the
charges are in motion, yet another force (Lorentz force)
comes into play in addition to coulomb force.
Question 26.
The resistance of a nichrome wire at 0 °C is 10 Ω. If its
temperature coefficient of resistance is 0.004/°C, find its
resistance at boiling point of water. Comment on the result.
Answer:
Resistance of a nichrome wire at 0°C, R0 = 10 Ω
Temperature co-efficient of resistance, α = 0.004/°C
Resistance at boiling point of water, RT = ?
Temperature of boiling point of water, T = 100 °C
RT = R0 ( 1 + α T) = 10[1 + (0.004 × 100)]
RT = 10(1 + 0.4) = 10 × 1.4
RT = 14Ω
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As the temperature increases the resistance of the wire also


increases.
Question 27.
What is meant by magnetic induction?
Answer:
The magnetic induction (total magnetic held) inside the
specimen B→ is equal to the sum of the magnetic
field B→0 produced in vacuum due to the magnetising field
and the magnetic field B→m due to the induced magnetisation
of the substance.

Question 28.
An inductor blocks AC but it allows DC. Why? and How?
Answer:
An inductor L is a closely wound helical coil. The steady DC
current flowing through L produces uniform magnetic field
around it and the magnetic flux linked remains constant.
Therefore there is no self-induction and self-induced emf (back
emf). Since inductor behaves like a resistor, DC flows through
an inductor.

The AC flowing through L produces time-varying magnetic field


which in turn induces self- induced emf (back emf)- This back
emf, according to Lenz’s law, opposes any change in the
current. Since AC varies both in magnitude and direction, its
flow is opposed in L. For an ideal inductor of zero ohmic
resistance, the back emf is equal and opposite to the applied
emf. Therefore L blocks AC.

Question 29.
Derive the relation between/and R for a spherical mirror.
Answer:
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Let C be the centre of curvature of the mirror. Consider a light


ray parallel to the principal axis is incident on the mirror at M
and passes through the principal focus F after reflection. The
geometry of reflection of the incident ray is shown in figure.
The line CM is the normal to the mirror at M. Let i be the angle
of incidence and the same will be the angle of reflection.
If MP is the perpendicular from M on the principal axis, then
from the geometry, The angles

∠MCP = i and ∠MFP = 2i From right angle triangles ∆MCP and


∆MFP,
tan i = PMPC and tan 2i = PMPF
As the angles are small, tan i ≈ i, i = PMPC and 2i = PMPF
Simplifying further, 2 PMPC=PMPF ; 2PF = PC
PF is focal length f and PC is the radius of curvature R.
2f = R (or) f = R2
f = R2 is the relation between/and R.
Question 30.
What is a photo cell? Mention the different types of photocells.
Answer:
photocells: Photo electric cell or photo cell is a device which
converts light energy into electrical energy. It works on the
principle of photo electric effect.
Types:
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• Photo emissive cell


• Photo voltaic cell
• Photo conductive cell
Question 31.
Show that nuclear density is almost constant for nuclei with Z >
10.
Answer:

The expression shows that the nuclear density is independent


of the mass number A. In other words, all the nuclei (Z >10)
have the same density and it is an important characteristics of
the nuclei.

Question 32.
Calculate the range of the variable capacitor that is to be used
in a tuned-collector oscillator which has a fixed inductance of
150 pH. The frequency band is from 500 kHz to 1500 kHz.
Answer:
Resonant frequency f0 = 12πLC√
On simplifying we get C = 14π2f20L
When frequency is equal to 500 kHz

When frequency is equal to 1500 kHz

There fore, the capacitor range is 75 – 676 pF


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Question 33.
Distinguish between wireline and wireless communication.
Answer:

Wireline communication Wireless communication

It is a point-to-point It is a broadcast mode


communication. communication.

It uses mediums like wires, It uses free space as a


cable and optical fibres. communication medium.

These systems cannot be used


for long distance transmission These systems can be used for
as they are connected. long distance transmission.

Ex. mobile, radio or TV


Ex. telephone, intercom and broadcasting and satellite
cable TV. communication.

PART – IV
Answer all the questions. [5 × 5 = 25]
Question 34.
(a) Explain in detail the construction and working of a Van de
Graaff generator.
Answer:
Principle: Electrostatic induction and action at points.
Construction: A large hollow spherical conductor is fixed on the
insulating stand. A pulley B is mounted at the center of the
hollow sphere and another pulley C is fixed at the bottom. A
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belt made up of insulating materials like silk or rubber runs over


both pulleys. The pulley C is driven continuously by the electric
motor. Two comb shaped metallic conductors E and D are ‘
fixed near the pulleys.
The comb D is maintained at a positive potential of 104 V by a
power supply. The upper comb E is connected to the inner side
of the hollow metal sphere.
Working: Due to the high electric field near comb D, air
between the belt and comb D gets ionized. The positive
charges are pushed towards the belt and negative charges are
attracted towards the comb D. The positive charges stick to the
belt and move up. When the positive charges reach the comb E,
a large amount of negative and positive charges are induced on
either side of comb E due to electrostatic induction. As a result,
the positive charges are pushed away from the comb E and
they reach the outer surface of the sphere. Since the sphere is a
conductor, the positive charges are distributed uniformly on the
outer surface of the hollow sphere. At the same time, the
negative charges nullify the positive charges in the belt due to
corona discharge before it passes over the pulley.

When the belt descends, it has almost no net charge. At the


bottom, it again gains a large positive charge. The belt goes up
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and delivers the positive charges to the outer surface of the


sphere. This process continues until the outer surface produces
the potential difference of the order of 107 V which is the
limiting value. We cannot store charges beyond this limit since
the extra charge starts leaking to the surroundings due to
ionization of air. The leakage of charges can be reduced by
enclosing the machine in a gas filled steel chamber at very high
pressure. Uses: The high voltage produced in this Van de Graaff
generator is used to accelerate positive ions (protons and
deuterons) for nuclear disintegrations and other applications.

[OR]

Question 34.
(b) Explain the equivalent resistance of a series resistor network.
Answer:
Resistors in series: When two or more resistors are connected
end to end, they are said to be in series. The resistors could be
simple resistors or bulbs or heating elements or other devices.
Fig. (a) shows three resistors R1, R2 and R3 connected in series.
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The amount of charge passing through resistor R1 must also


pass through resistors R2 and R3 since the charges cannot
accumulate anywhere in the circuit. Due to this reason, the
current I passing through all the three resistors is the same.
According to Ohm’s law, if same current pass through different
resistors of different values, then the potential difference across
each resistor must be different. Let V1, V2 and V3 be the
potential difference (voltage) across each of the resistors R1,
R2 and R3 respectively, then we can write V1 = IR1 V2 = IR2 and
V3 = IR3. But the total voltage V is equal to the sum of voltages
across each resistor.
V = V1 + V2 + V3
= IR1 + IR2 + IR3 ….. (1)
V = I(R1 + R2 + R3)
V = I.Rs ….. (2)
where Rs is the equivalent resistance,
Rs = R1 + R2 + R3 ….. (3)
When several resistances are connected in series, the total or
equivalent resistance is the sum of the individual resistances as
shown in fig. (b).
Note: The value of equivalent resistance in series connection
will be greater than each individual resistance.
Question 35.
(a) Deduce the relation for the magnetic induction at a point
due to an infinitely long straight conductor carrying current.
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Answer:
Magnetic field due to long straight conductor carrying current:
Consider a long straight wire NM with current I flowing from N
to M. Let P be the point at a distance a from point O. Consider
an element of length dl of the wire at a distance l from point O
and r⃗ be the vector joining the element dl with the point P. Let
θ be the angle between dl and r⃗ Then, the magnetic field at P
due to the element is
dB→=μ0Idl⃗ 4πr2sinθ (unit vector perpendicular to dl⃗ and r⃗ )-
(1)
The direction of the field is perpendicular to the plane of the
paper and going into it. This can be determined by taking the
cross product between two vectors dl⃗ and r⃗ (let it be n̂). The
net magnetic field can be determined by integrating equation
with proper limits.
B⃗ = ∫dB⃗
From the figure, in a right angle triangle PAO,

tan (π – θ) = al
l = −atanθ (since tan (π – θ) = – tan θ) ⇒ 1tanθ = cot θ
l = -a cot θ and r = a cosecθ
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Differentiating,
dl = a cosec2θ dθ

This is the magnetic field at a point P due to the current in small


elemental length. Note that we have expressed the magnetic
field OP in terms of angular coordinate i.e. θ. Therefore, the net
magnetic field at the point P which can be obtained by
integrating dB⃗ by varying the angle from θ = φ1 to θ = φ2 is

For a an infinitely long straight wire, l = 0 and 2 = , the


magnetic field is
B→=μ0I2πan^ …… (3)
Note that here n̂ represents the unit vector from the point O to
P.
[OR]

Question 35.
(b) Show that the mutual inductance between a pair of coils is
same (M12 = M21).
Answer:
Mutual induction: When an electric current passing through a
coil changes with time, an emf is induced in the neighbouring
coil. This phenomenon is known as mutual induction and the
emf is called mutually induced emf.
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Consider two coils which are placed close to each other. If an


electric current q is sent through coil i1 the magnetic field
produced by it is also linked with coil 2.
Let Φ21 be the magnetic flux linked with each turn of the coil 2
of N2 turns due to coil 1, then the total flux linked with coil 2
(N2Φ21) is proportional to the current i1 in the coil 1.
N2Φ21 ∝ i1
N2Φ21 = M21i1 or M21 = N2Φ21i1
The constant of proportionality M21 is the mutual inductance of
the coil 2 with respect to coil 1. It is also called as coefficient of
mutual induction. If i1 = 1 A, then M21 = N2Φ21.
Therefore, the mutual inductance M21 is defined as the flux
linkage of the coil 2 when 1A current flows through coil 1.
When the current i1 changes with time, an emf ξ2 is induced in
coil 2. From Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction, this
mutually induced emf ξ21 is given by
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The negative sign in the above equation shows that the


mutually induced emf always opposes the change in current
with respect to time. If di1dt = 1 As-1, then M21 = -ξ2.
Mutual inductance M21 is also defined as the opposing emf
induced in the coil 2 when the rate of change of current
through the coil I is l As-1.
Similarly, if an electric current i2 through coil 2 changes with
time, then emf ξ1 is induced in coil 1. Therefore, N

where M12 is the mutual inductance of the coil I with respect to


coil 2. It can be shown that for a given pair of coils, the mutual
inductance is same. i.e., M21 = M12 = M.
In general, the mutual induction between two coils depends on
size, shape, the number of turns of the coils, their relative
orientation and permeability of the medium.
Question 36.
(a) Derive the equation for refraction at single spherical surface.
Equation for refraction at single spherical surface:
Answer:
Let us consider two transparent media having refractive indices
n1 and n2 are separated by a spherical surface. Let C be the
centre of curvature of the spherical surface. Let a point object O
be in the medium n1. The line OC cuts the spherical surface at
the pole P of the surface. As the rays considered are paraxial
rays, the perpendicular dropped for the point of incidence to
the principal axis is very close to the pole or passes through the
pole itself.
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Light from O falls on the refracting surface at N. The normal


drawn at the point of incidence passes through the centre of
curvature C. As n2 > n1, light in the denser medium deviates
towards the normal and meets the principal axis at I where the
image is formed. Snell’s law in product form for the refraction
at the point N could be written as,
n1 sin i = n2 sin r …… (1)
As the angles are small, sin of the angle could be approximated
to the angle itself.
n1i = n2r ……… (2)
Let the angles
∠NOP = α ∠NCP = β ∠NIP = γ
tan α = PNPO tan β = PNPC tan γ = PNPI
As these angles are small, tan of the angle could be
approximated to the angle itself.
α = PNPO ; β = PNPC ; γ = PNPI …… (3)
For the triangle, ∆ONC,
i = α + β ….. (4)
For the triangle, ∆INC,
β = r + γ (or) r = β – γ …… (5)
Substituting for i and r from equations (4) and (5) in the
equation (2).
n1 (α + β) = n2 (β – γ)
Rearranging,
n1α + n2γ = (n2 – n1)β
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Substituting for α, β and γ from equation (3)


n1(PNPO)+n2(PNPI)=(n2−n1)(PNPC)
Further simplifying by cancelling method
n1PO+n2PI=n2−n1PC ….. (6)
Following sign conventions, PO = -υ , PI = +ν and PC = +R in
equation (6),
n1−u+n2v=(n2−n1)R
After rearranging, finally we get,
n2v−n1u=(n2−n1)R ……… (7)
Equation (7) gives the relation among the object distance υ,
image distance ν , refractive indices of the two media (nl and
n2) and the radius of curvature R of the spherical surface. It
holds for any spherical surface.
If the first medium is air then, n1 = 1 and the second medium is
taken just as n2 = n, then the equation is reduced to,
nv−1u=(n−1)R ……… (8)
[OR]

Question 36.
(b) What do you mean by electron emission? Explain briefly
various methods of electron emission.
Answer:
Electron emission:

• Free electrons possess some kinetic energy and this


energy is different for different electrons. The kinetic
energy of the free electrons is not sufficient to overcome
the surface barrier.
• Whenever an additional energy is given to the free
electrons, they will have sufficient energy to cross the
surface barrier. And they escape from the metallic surface.
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• The liberation of electrons from any surface of a substance


is called electron emission. There are mainly four types of
electron emission which are given below.
(i) Thermionic emission:
When a metal is heated to a high temperature, the free
electrons on the surface of the metal get sufficient energy in
the form of thermal energy so that they are emitted from the
metallic surface. This type of emission is known as thermionic
emission.

The intensity of the thermionic emission (the number of


electrons emitted) depends on the metal used and its
temperature.

Examples: cathode ray tubes, electron microscopes, X-ray tubes


etc.

(ii) Field emission:


Electric field emission occurs when a very strong electric field is
applied across the metal. This strong field pulls the free
electrons and helps them to overcome the surface barrier of the
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metal.

Field emission
Examples: Field emission scanning electron microscopes, Field-
emission display etc.

(iii) Photo electric emission:


When an electromagnetic radiation of suitable frequency is
incident on the surface of the metal, the energy is transferred
from the radiation to the.free electrons. Hence, the free
electrons get sufficient energy to cross the surface barrier and
the photo electric emission takes place. The number of
electrons emitted depends on the intensity of the incident
radiation.

Examples: Photo diodes, photo electric cells etc.

(iv) Secondary emission:


When a beam of fast moving electrons strikes the surface of the
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metal, the kinetic energy of the striking electrons is transferred


to the free electrons on the metal surface. Thus the free
electrons get sufficient kinetic energy so that the secondary
emission of electron occurs.

Examples: Image intensifires, photo multiplier tubes etc.

Question 37.
(a) Discuss the spectral series of hydrogen atom.
Answer:
The spectral lines of hydrogen are grouped in separate series. In
each series, the distance of separation between the consecutive
wavelengths decreases from higher wavelength to the lower
wavelength, and also wavelength in each series approach a
limiting value known as the series limit. These series are named
as Lyman series. Balmer series, Paschen series, Brackett series,
Pfund series, etc. The wavelengths of these spectral lines
perfectly agree with the equation derived from Bohr atom
model.
1λ=R(1n2−1m2)=v¯ …… (1)
where ν̂ is known as wave number which is inverse of
wavelength, R is known as Rydberg constant whose value is
1.09737 × 107 m-1 and m and n are positive integers such that
m > n. The various spectral series are discussed below:
(a) Lyman series:
Put n = 1 and m = 2,3,4 in equation (I). The wave number or
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wavelength of spectral lines of Lyman series which lies in ultra-


violet region is
v¯=1λ=R(112−1m2)
(b) Balmer series:
Put n = 2 and m = 3,4,5 in equation (I). The wave number or
wavelength of spectral lines of Balmer series which lies in visible
region is
v¯=1λ=R(122−1m2)
(c) Paschen series:
Put n = 3 and m = 4,5,6 in equation (I). The wave number or
wavelength of spectral lines of Paschen series which lies in
infra-red region (near IR) is
v¯=1λ=R(132−1m2)
(d) Brackett series:
Put n = 4 and m = 5,6,7 in equation (I). The wave number or
wavelength of spectral lines of Brackett series which lies in
infra-red region (middle IR) is
v¯=1λ=R(142−1m2)
(e) Pfund series:
Put n = 5 and m = 6,7,8 in equation (I). The wave number or
wavelength of spectral lines of Pfund series which lies in infra-
red region (far IR) is
v¯=1λ=R(152−1m2)
[OR]

Question 37.
(b) State and prove De Morgan’s First and Second theorems.
Answer:
De Morgan’s First Theorem:
The first theorem states that the complement of the sum of two
logical inputs is equal to the product of its complements.
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Proof:
The Boolean equation for NOR gate is Y
= A+B¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ . The Boolean equation for a bubbled
AND gate is Y = A¯¯¯¯⋅B¯¯¯¯ Both cases generate same
outputs for same inputs. It can be verified using the following
truth table.

From the above truth table, we can


conclude A+B¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯=A¯¯¯¯⋅B¯¯¯¯. Thus De Morgan’s
First Theorem is proved. It also says that a NOR gate is equal to
a bubbled AND gate. The corresponding logic circuit diagram is
shown in figure.

De Morgan’s Second Theorem:


The second theorem states that the complement of the product
of two inputs is equal to the sum of its complements.

Proof
The Boolean equation for NAND gate is Y = AB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
The Boolean equation for bubbled OR gate is Y
= A¯¯¯¯+B¯¯¯¯ . A and B are the inputs and Y is the output.
The above two equations produces the same output for the
same inputs. It can be verified by using the truth table.
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From the above truth table we can


conclude A.B¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯=A¯¯¯¯+B¯¯¯¯. Thus De Morgan’s
Second Theorem is proved. It also says, a NAND gate is equal
to a bubbled OR gate. The corresponding logic circuit diagram
is shown in figure.

Question 38.
(a) What is modulation? Explain the types of modulation with
necessary diagrams.
Answer:
Modulation: For long distance transmission, the low frequency
baseband signal (input signal) is superimposed onto a high
frequency radio signal by a process called modulation.
There are 3 types of modulation based on which parameter is
modified. They are
(i) Amplitude modulation,
(ii) Frequency modulation, and
(iii) Phase modulation.

(i) Amplitude Modulation (AM):


If the amplitude of the carrier signal is modified according to
the instantaneous amplitude of the baseband signal, then it is
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called amplitude modulation. Here the frequency and the phase


of the carrier signal remain constant. Amplitude modulation is
used in radio and TV broadcasting.

The signal shown in figure (a) is the message signal or


baseband signal that carries information, figure (b) shows the
high frequency carrier signal and figure (c) gives the amplitude
modulated signal. We can see clearly that the carrier wave is
modified in proportion to the amplitude of the baseband
signal.
Amplitude Modulation

(ii) Frequency Modulation (FM):


The frequency of the camer signal is modified according to the
instantaneous amplitude of the baseband signal in frequency
modulation. Here the amplitude and the phase of the carrier
signal remain constant. Increase in the amplitude of the
baseband signal increases the frequency of the carrier signal
and vice versa. This leads to compressions and rarefactions in
the frequency spectrum of the modulated wave. Louder signal
leads to compressions and relatively weaker signals to
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rarefactions. When the amplitude of the baseband signal is zero


in Figure (a), the frequency of the modulated signal is the same
as the carrier signal. The frequency of the modulated wave
increases when the amplitude of the baseband signal increases
in the positive direction
(A, C). The increase in amplitude in the negative half cycle (B,D)
reduces the frequency of the modulated wave (figure (c)).

(iii) Phase Modulation (PM):


The instantaneous amplitude of the baseband signal modifies
the phase of the camer signal keeping the amplitude and
frequency constant is called phase modulation. This modulation
is used to generate frequency modulated signals. It is similar to
frequency modulation except that the phase of the carrier is
varied instead of varying frequency. The carrier phase changes
according to increase or decrease in the amplitude of the
baseband signal. When the modulating signal goes positive, the
amount of phase
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lead increases with the amplitude of the modulating signal. Due


to this, the carrier signal is compressed or its frequency is
increased.

On the other hand, the negative half cycle of the baseband


signal produces a phase lag in the carrier signal. This appears to
have stretched the frequency of the carrier wave. Hence similar
to frequency modulated wave, phase modulated wave also
comprises of
compressions and rarefactions. When the signal voltage is zero
(A, C and E) the carrier frequency is unchanged.

[OR]

Question 38.
(b) Elaborate any two types of Robots with relevant examples.
Answer:
(i) Human Robot:
Certain robots are made to resemble humans in appearance
and replicate the human activities like walking, lifting, and
sensing, etc.
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• Power conversion unit: Robots are powered by batteries,


solar power, and hydraulics.
• Actuators: Converts energy into movement. The majority
of the actuators produce rotational or linear motion.
• Electric motors: They are used to actuate the parts of the
robots like wheels, arms, fingers, legs, sensors, camera,
weapon systems etc. Different types of electric motors are
used. The most often used ones are AC motor, Brushed DC
motor, Brushless DC motor, Geared DC motor, etc.
• Pneumatic Air Muscles: They are devices that can contract
and expand when air is pumped inside. It can replicate the
function of a human muscle. They contract almost 40%
when the air is sucked inside them.
• Muscle wires: They are thin strands of wire made of shape
memory alloys. They can contract by 5% when electric
current is passed through them.
• Piezo Motors and Ultrasonic Motors: Basically, we use it
for industrial robots.
• Sensors: Generally used in task environments as it provides
information of real-time knowledge.
• Robot locomotion: Provides the types of movements to a
robot. The different types are (a) Legged (b) Wheeled (c)
Combination of Legged and Wheeled Locomotion (d)
Tracked slip/skid
(ii) Industrial Robots:
Six main types of industrial robots:

1. Cartesian
2. SCARA (Selective Compliance Assembly Robot Arm)
3. Cylindrical
4. Delta
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5. Polar
6. Vertically articulated
Six-axis robots are ideal for:

• Arc Welding
• Spot Welding
• Material Handling
• Machine Tending
• Other Applications
Physics Model Question Paper 4

PART -1
Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer.
[15 × 1 = 15]
Question 1.
Two identical conducting balls having positive charges q1 and
q2 are separated by a center to center distance r. If they are
made to touch each other and then separated to the same
distance, the force between them will be …………………… .
(a) less than before
(b) same as before
(c) more than before
(d) zero
Answer:
(c) more than before
Question 2.
Two plates are 1 cm apart and the potential difference between
them is 10 V. The electric field between the plates is
…………………. .
(a) 10 NC-1
(b) 250 NC-1
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(c) 500 NC-1


(d) 1000 NC-1
Hint: E = Vd=101×10−2 = 1000 NC-1
Answer:
(d) 1000 NC-1
Question 3.
A toaster operating at 240 V has a resistance of 120 Ω. The
power is ………………… .
(a) 400 W
(b) 2 W
(c) 480 W
(d) 240 W
Answer:
(c) 480 W

Question 4.
Three wires of equal lengths are bent in the form of loops. One
of the loops is circle, another is a semi-circle and the third one
is a square. They are placed in a uniform magnetic field and
same electric current is passed through them. Which of the
following loop configuration will experience greater torque ?
(a) circle
(b) semi-circle
(c) square
(d) all of them
Answer:
(a) circle

Question 5.
A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is cut into two parts of
equal length. The magnetic moment of either part is
………………….. .
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(a) M
(b) 2M
(c) M2
(d) Zero
Answer:
(c) M2
Question 6.
The current flowing in a coil varies with time as shown in ® the
figure. The variation of induced emf with time would be
…………….. .

Answer:

Question 7.
Which of the following electromagnetic radiation is used for
viewing objects through fog?
(a) microwave
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(b) gamma rays


(c) X- rays
(d) infrared
Answer:
(d) infrared

Question 8.
Stars twinkle due to …………………. .
(a) reflection
(b) total internal reflection
(c) refraction
(d) polarisation
Answer:
(c) refraction

Question 9.
When a plane electromagnetic wave enters a glass slab, then
which of the following will not change?
(a) Wavelength
(b) Frequency
(c) Speed
(d) Amplitude
Hint: Only the frequency of the electromagnetic wave remains
unchanged.
Answer:
(b) Frequency

Question 10.
In an electron microscope, the electrons are accelerated by a
voltage of 14 kV. If the voltage is changed to 224 kV, then the
de Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons would
…………………… .
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(a) increase by 2 times


(b) decrease by 2 times
(c) decrease by 4 times
(d) increase by 4 times
Hint: At Voltage, V = 14 kV
de-Broglie wavelength of electron, λ = 12.314000√ Å = 0.104 Å
At voltage, V = 224 kV
λ’ = 12.3224000√ Å = 0.026 Å
λλ′=0.1040.0260 = 4 ⇒ λ = 4λ’ ⇒ λ’ = λ4
Answer:
(c) decrease by 4 times
Question 11.
The charge of cathode rays is …………………. .
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) neutral
(d) not defined
Answer:
(a) positive
(b) negative

Question 12.
The primary use of a zener diode is …………………… .
(a) Rectifier
(b) Amplifier
(c) Oscillator
(d) Voltage regulator
Answer:
(d) Voltage regulator

Question 13.
For a common base circuit if ICIE = 0.98, then current gain for
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common emitter circuit will be ………………. .


(a) 49
(b) 98
(c) 4.9
(d) 25.5
Ir a 0 98

Answer:
(a) 49
Question 14.
The internationally accepted frequency deviation for the
purpose of FM broadcasts.
(a) 75 kHz
(b) 68 kHz
(c) 80 kHz
(d) 70 kHz
Answer:
(a) 75 kHz

Question 15.
“Sky wax” is an application of nano product in the field of
…………………….. .
(a) Medicine
(b) Textile
(c) Sports
(d) Automotive industry
Answer:
(c) Sports

PART – II
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Answer any six questions. Question No. 23 is compulsory. [6 × 2


= 12]
Question 16.
The electric field lines never intersect. Justify.
Answer:
As a consequence, if some charge is placed in the intersection
point, then it has to move in two different directions at the
same time, which is physically impossible. Hence, electric field
lines do not intersect.

Question 17.
A potential difference across 24 ft resistor is 12 V. What is the
current through the resistor?
Answer:
V = 12 V
and R = 24 Ω
Current, I = ?
From Ohm’s law, I=VR=1224=0.5A

Question 18.
State Coulomb’s inverse law.
Answer:
The force of attraction or repulsion between two magnetic
poles is directly proportional to the product of their pole
strengths and inversely proportional to the square of the
distance between ‘ them.
F→∝qmAqmbr2r^
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Question 19.
State Lenz’s law.
Answer:
Lenz’s law states that the direction of the induced current is
such that it always opposes the cause responsible for its
production.

Question 20.
What is angle of deviation due to reflection?
Answer:
The angle between the incident and deviated light ray is called
angle of deviation of the light ray. It is written as, d = 180 – (i +
r). As, i = r in reflection, we can write angle of deviation in
reflection at plane surface as. d = 180 – 2i

Question 21.
What is photoelectric effect?
Answer:
The ejection of electrons from a metal plate when illuminated
by light or any other electromagnetic radiation of suitable
wavelength (or frequency) is called photoelectric effect.

Question 22.
Define impact parameter.
Answer:
The impact parameter is defined as the perpendicular distance
between the centre of the gold nucleus and the direction of
velocity vector of alpha particle when it is at a large distance.

Question 23.
In a transistor connected in the common base configuration, α
= 0.95, IE = mA. Calculate the values of Ic and IB
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Answer:
α = ICIE
Ic = αIE = 0.95 × 1 = 0.95 mA
IE = IB + Ic
∴ IB = Ic – IE = 1 – 0.95 = 0.05 mA
Question 24.
What do you mean by Internet of Things?
Answer:
Internet of Things (IoT), it is made possible to control various
devices from a single device. Example: home automation using
a mobile phone.

PART-III
Answer any six questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [6 × 3
= 18]
Question 25.
Write down Coulomb’s law in vector form and mention what
each term represents.
Answer:
The force on a charge q1 exerted by a point charge q2 is given
by
F→12=14πε0q1q2r2r^21
Here r̂21 is the unit vector from charge q2 to q1
But r̂21 = -r̂21

Therefore, the electrostatic force obeys Newton’s third law.


Question 26.
Write down the various forms of expression for power in
electrical circuit.
Answer:
The electric power P is the rate at which the electrical potential
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energy is delivered,
P=dUdt=1dt(V⋅dQ)=V⋅dQdt
[dU = V.dQ]
The electric power delivered by the battery to any electrical
system.
P = VI
The electric power delivered to the resistance R is expressed in
other forms.
P = VI = I(IR) = I2R
P = IV = (VR)V=V2R
Question 27.
The repulsive force between two magnetic poles in air is 9 × 10-
3
N. If the two poles are equal in strength and are separated by
a distance of 10 cm, calculate the pole strength of each pole.
Answer:
The force between two poles are given by F→=kqmAqmBr2
The magnitude of the force is F = F=kqmAqmBr2
Given : F = 9 × 10-3 N, r = 10 cm = 10 × 10-2 m
Therefore 9 × 10-3 = 10-7 × q2m(10×10−2)2 ⇒ qm = 30NT-1
Question 28.
A 200 turn coil of radius 2 cm is placed co-axially within a long
solenoid of 3 cm radius. If the turn density of the solenoid is 90
turns per cm, then calculate mutual inductance of the coil.
Answer:
Numbef of turns of the solenoid, N2 = 200
Radius of the solenoid, r cm = 2 × 10-2 m
Area of the solenoid, A = πr2 = 3.14 × (2 × 10-2)-2 = 1.256 × 10-
3
m2
Turn density of long solenoid per cm, N1 = 90 × 102
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= 283956.48 × 10-8 ⇒ M = 2.84 mH


Question 29.
Compute the speed of the electromagnetic wave in a medium if
the amplitude of electric and magnetic fields are 3 × 104 N C-
1
and 2 × 10-4 T, respectively.
Answer:
The amplitude of the electric field, E0 = 3 × 104 N C-1.
The amplitude of the magnetic field, Bo = 2 × 10-4 T. Therefore,
speed of the electromagnetic wave in a medium is
v=3×1042×10−4=1.5×108ms−1
Question 30.
State the laws of refraction.
Answer:
Law of refraction is called Snell’s law.
Snell’s law states that,
(a) The incident ray, refracted ray and normal to the refracting
surface are all coplanar (i.e. lie in the same plane).
(b) The ratio of angle of incident i in the first medium to the
angle of reflection r in the second medium is equal to the ratio
of refractive index of the second medium n2 to that of the
refractive index of the first medium n1.
sinisinr=n2n1
Question 31.
A proton and an electron have same de Broglie wavelength.
Which of them moves faster and which possesses more kinetic
energy?
Answer:
We know that λ = h2mK√
Since proton and electron have same de Broglie wavelength, we
get
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Since me < mp , Kp < Ke, the electron has more kinetic energy
than the proton.

Since me < mp νp < νe , the electron moves faster than the


proton.
Question 32.
In alpha decay, why the unstable nucleus emits 42He nucleus?
Why it does not emit four separate nucleons?
Answer:
After all 42He consists of two protons and two neutrons. For
example, if 23892U nucleus decays into 23490Th by emitting four
separate nucleons (two protons and two neutrons), then the
disintegration energy Q for this process turns out to be
negative. It implies that the total mass of products is greater
than that of parent (23892U) nucleus. This kind of process cannot
occur in nature because it would violate conservation of energy.
In any decay process, the conservation of energy, conservation
of linear momentum and conservation of angular momentum
must be obeyed.
Question 33.
Distinguish between intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors.
Answer:
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Extrinsic semiconductors
Intrinsic semiconductors

These are pure These are semiconducting


semiconducting tetravalent tetravalent crystals doped with
crystals. impurity atoms group III (or) V

Their electrical conductivity Their electrical conductivity is


is low. high.

There is no permitted There is no permitted energy


energy state between state of the impurity atom
valence and conduction between valence and
band. conduction band.

Their electrical conductivity


Their electrical conductivity depends on temperature as
depends on temperature. well as dopant concentration.

PART – IV
Answer all the questions. [5 × 1 = 5]
Question 34.
(a) Derive an expression for electrostatic potential due to an
electric dipole.
Answer:
Electrostatic potential at a point due to an electric dipole:
Consider two equal and opposite charges separated by a small
distance 2a. The point P is located at a distance r from the
midpoint of the dipole. Let θ be the angle between the line OP
and dipole axis AB.
Let r1 be the distance of point P from +q and r2 be the distance
of point P from -q.
Potential at P due to charge +q = 14πε0qr1
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Potential at P due to charge -q = −14πε0qr2


Total potential at the point P,
V = 14πε0q(1r1−1r2) ……… (1)
Suppose if the point P is far away from the dipole, such that
r>>a, then equation can be expressed in terms of r. By the
cosine law for triangle BOP,

r21 = r2 + a2 – 2ra cos θ = r2(1+a2r2−2arcosθ)


Since the point P is very far from dipole, then r >> a. As a result
the term a2r2 is very small and can be neglected. Therefore

since ar<< 1, we can use binominal theorem and retain the


terms up to first order r
1r1=1r(1+arcosθ) …… (2)
Similarly applying the cosine law for triangle AOP,
r22 = r2 + a2 – 2ra cos(180 – θ) since cos (180 – θ) = -cos θ we
get
r22 = r2 + a2 + 2ra cos θ
Neglecting the term a2r2 (because r >> a)
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Using Binomial theorem, we get


1r2=1r(1−acosθr) ………. (3)
Substituting equations (3) and (2) in equation (1)

But the electric dipole moment p = 2qa and we get,


V=14πε0(pcosθr2)
Now we can write p cos θ = r⃗ . r̂ where r̂ is the unit vector from
the point O to point P.
Hence the electric potential at a point P due to an electric
dipole is given by
V = 14πε0p⃗ ⋅r^r2 (r >> a) …(4)
Equation (4) is valid for distances very large compared to the
size of the dipole. But for a point dipole, the equation (4) is
valid for any distance.
Special cases:
Case (1) If the point P lies on the axial line of the dipole on the
side of +q, then θ = 0. Then the electric potential becomes
V=14πε0pr2
Case (ii) If the point Plies on the axial line of the dipole on the
side of -q. then θ = 180°, then
V=−14πε0pr2
Case (iii) If the point P lies on the equatorial line of the dipole,
then θ = 90°. Hence, V = 0.

Question 34.
(b) Explain the determination of the internal resistance of a cell
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using voltmeter.
Answer:
Determination of internal resistance: The emf of cell ξ is
measured by connecting a high resistance voltmeter across it
without connecting the external resistance R. Since the
voltmeter draws very little current for deflection, the circuit may
be considered as open. Hence, the voltmeter reading gives the
emf of the ceíl. Then, external resistance R is included in the
circuit and current I is established in the circuit. The potential
difference across R is equal to the potential difference across
the cell (V).

The potential drop across the resistor R is


V = IR …….. (1)

Due to internal resistance r of the cell, the voltmeter reads a


value V, which is less than the emf of cell ξ. It is because, certain
amount of voltage (Ir) has dropped across the internal
resistance r.
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Then V = ξ – Ir
Ir = ξ – V ……… (2)
Dividing equation (2) by equation (1), we get
IrIR=ξ−VV
r=∣∣ξ−VV∣∣R ……… (3)
since ξ, V and R are known, internal resistance r can be
determined
Question 35.
(a) Calculate the magnetic induction at a point on the axial line
of a bar magnet.
Answer:
Magnetic field at a point along the axial line of the magnetic
dipole (bar magnet): Consider a bar magnet NS. Let N be the
North Pole and S be the south pole of the bar magnet, each of
pole strength q, and separated by a distance of 2l. The
magnetic field at a point C (lies along the axis of the magnet) at
a distance from the geometrical center O of the bar magnet
can be computed by keeping unit north pole (qMC = 1 A m) at
C. The force experienced by the unit north pole at C due to pole
strength can be computed using Coulomb’s law of magnetism
as follows:
The force of repulsion between north pole of the bar magnet
and unit north pole at point C (in free space) is
F→N=μ04πqm(r−l)2l^ …. (1)
where r – l is the distance between north pole of the bar
magnet and unit north pole at C.
The force of attraction between South Pole of the bar magnet
and unit North Pole at point C (in free space) is
F→S=−μ04πqm(r+l)2l^ ……. (2)
where r + l is the distance between South pole of the bar
magnet and unit north pole at C.
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From equation (1) and (2), the net force at point C


is F⃗ = F⃗ N + F⃗ s . From definition, this net force is the
magnetic field due to magnetic dipole at a point C (F⃗ = B⃗ )

Since, magnitude of magnetic dipole moment is |P⃗ m| = Pm =


qm .2l the magnetic field point C equation (3) can be written as
B⃗ axial = μ04π(2rpm(r2−l2)2)i^ …… (4)
If the distance between two poles in a bar magnet are small
(looks like short magnet) compared to the distance between
geometrical centre O of bar magnet and the location of point C
i.e.,
r >> l then (r2 – l2)2 ≈ r4 ……. (5)
Therefore, using equation (5) in equation (4), we get

[OR]

Question 35.
(b) Show mathematically that the rotation of a coil in a
magnetic field over one rotation induces an alternating emf of
one cycle.
Answer:
Induction of emf by changing relative orientation of the coil
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with the magnetic field:


Consider a rectangular coil of N turns kept in a uniform
magnetic field B⃗ figure (a). The coil rotates in anti-clockwise
direction with an angular velocity co about an axis,
perpendicular to the field.
At time = 0, the plane of the coil is perpendicular to the field
and the flux linked with the coil has its maximum value Φm = BA
(where A is the area of the coil).

In a time t seconds, the coil is rotated through an angle θ (=


ωt) in anti-clockwise direction. In this position, the flux linked is
Φm cos ωt., a component of Φm normal to the plane of the coil
(figure (b)). The component parallel to the plane (Φm sinωt) has
no role in electromagnetic induction. Therefore, the flux linkage
at this deflected position is NΦB = NΦm cos ωt. According to
Faraday’s law, the emf induced at that instant is
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ε = −ddt (NΦB) = −ddt (NΦm cos ωt)


= -NΦm (-sin ωt)ω = NΦm ω sin ωt
When the coil is rotated through 90° from initial position, sin ωt
= 1. Then the maximum value of induced emf is
εm = NΦm ω = NBAω since Φm = BA
Therefore, the value of induced emf at that instant is then given
by
ε = εm sin ωt
It is seen that the induced emf varies as sin ωt function of the
time angle ωt. The graph between induced emf and time angle
for one rotation of coil will be a sine curve and the emf varying
in this manner is called sinusoidal emf or alternating emf.
Question 36.
(a) Write down the properties of electromagnetic waves.
Answer:
Properties of electromagnetic waves:
1. Electromagnetic waves are produced by any accelerated
charge.

2. Electromagnetic waves do not require any medium for


propagation. So electromagnetic wave is a non-mechanical
wave.
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3. Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature. This means


that the oscillating electric field vector, oscillating magnetic
field vector and propagation vector (gives direction of
propagation) are mutually perpendicular to each other.

4. Electromagnetic waves travel with speed which is equal to


the speed of light in vacuum or free space, c = 1ε0μ0√ = 3 ×
108 ms-1
5. The speed of electromagnetic wave is less than speed in free
space or vacuum, that is, v < c. In a medium of refractive index,

Question 36.
(b) Derive the equation for acceptance angle and numerical
aperture, of optical fiber.
Answer:
Acceptance angle in optical fibre:
To ensure the critical angle incidence in the core-cladding
boundary inside the optical fibre, the light should be incident at
a certain angle at the end of the optical fiber while entering in
to it. This angle is called acceptance angle. It depends on the
refractive indices of the core n1 cladding n2 and the outer
medium n3. Assume the light is incident at an angle ia called
acceptance angle i at the outer medium and core boundary at
A.
The Snell’s law in the product form, equation for this refraction
at the point A.
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n3 sin ia = n1 sin ra …(1)


To have the total internal reflection inside optical fibre, the
angle of incidence at the core-cladding interface at B should be
atleast critical angle ic . Snell’s law in the product form, equation
for the refraction at point B is,
n1 sin ic = n2 sin 90° …(2)
n1 sin ic = n2 ∵ sin 90° = 1
∴ sin ic = n2n1 …(3)
From the right angle triangle ∆ABC,
ic = 90° – ra
Now, equation (3) becomes, sin (90° – ra) = n2n1
Using trigonometry, cos ra = n2n1 …(4)
sin ra = 1−cos2ra−−−−−−−−−√
Substituting for cos ra
sin ra = 1−(n2n1)2−−−−−−−−√=n21−n22n21−−−−−√ …… (5)
Substituting this in equation (1)
n3 sin ia = n1n21−n22n21−−−−−√=n21−n22−−−−−−√ ….. (6)
On further simplification,

If outer medium is air, then n3 = 1. The acceptance angle


ia becomes,
ia = sin-1(n21−n22−−−−−−√) …… (9)
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Light can have any angle of incidence from 0 to ia with the


normal at the end of the optical fibre forming a conical shape
called acceptance cone. In the equation (6), the term (n3 sin ia) is
called numerical aperture NA of the optical fibre.
NA = n3 sin ia (n21−n22−−−−−−√) ….. (10)
If outer medium is air, then n3 = 1. The numerical aperture NA
becomes,
NA = sin ia n21−n22−−−−−−√ ….. (11)
Question 37.
(a) Explain the effect of potential difference on photoelectric
current.
Answer:
Effect of potential difference on photoelectric current:
To study the effect of potential difference V between the
electrodes on photoelectric current, the frequency and intensity
of the incident light are kept constant. Initially the potential of
A is kept positive with respect to C and the cathode is irradiated
with the given light.

Now, the potential of A is increased and the corresponding


photocurrent is noted. As the potential of A is increased,
photocurrent is also increased. However a stage is reached
where photocurrent reaches a saturation value (saturation
current) at which all the photoelectrons from C are collected by
A. This is represented by the flat portion of the graph between
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potential of A and photocurrent.

When a negative (retarding) potential is applied to A with


respect to C, the current does not immediately drop to zero
because the photoelectrons are emitted with some definite and
different kinetic energies. .

The kinetic energy of some of the photoelectrons is such that


they could overcome the retarding electric field and reach the
electrode A.

When the negative (retarding) potential of A is gradually


increased, the photocurrent starts to decrease because more
and more photoelectrons are being repelled away from
reaching the electrode A. The photocurrent becomes zero at a
particular negative potential V0 , called stopping or cut-off
potential.
Stopping potential is that the value of the negative (retarding)
potential given to the collecting electrode A which is just
sufficient to stop the most energetic photoelectrons emitted
and make the photocurrent zero.
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At the stopping potential, even the most energetic electron is


brought to rest. Therefore, the initial kinetic energy of the
fastest electron (Kmax) is equal to the work done by the stopping
potential to stop it (eV0).
Kmax = 12 mv2maxK = eV0 ……… (1)
where vmax is the maximum speed of the emitted photoelectron.

From equation (1),


Kmax = eV0 (in joule) (or) Kmax – V0 (in eV)
From the graph, when the intensity of the incident light alone is
increased, the saturation current also increases but the value of
V0 remains constant.
Thus, for a given frequency of the incident light, the stopping
potential is independent of intensity of the incident light. This
also implies that the maximum kinetic energy of the
photoelectrons is independent of intensity of the incident light.

[OR]

Question 37.
(b) Explain the J.J. Thomson experiment to determine the
specific charge of electron.
Answer:
In 1887, J. J. Thomson made remarkable improvement in the
scope of study of gases in discharge tubes. In the presence of
electric and magnetic fields, the cathode rays are deflected. By
the variation of electric and magnetic fields, mass normalized
charge or the specific charge (charge per unit mass) of the
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cathode rays is measured.

A highly evacuated discharge tube is used and cathode rays


(electron beam) produced at cathode are attracted towards
anode disc A. Anode disc is made with pin hole in order to
allow only a narrow beam of cathode rays. These cathode rays
are now allowed to pass through the parallel metal plates,
maintained at high voltage. Further, this gas discharge tube is
kept in between pole pieces of magnet such that both electric
and magnetic fields are perpendicular to each other. When the
cathode rays strike the screen, they produce scintillation and
hence bright spot is observed. This is achieved by coating the
screen with zinc sulphide.

(i) Determination of velocity of cathode rays


For a fixed electric field between the plates, the magnetic field
is adjusted such that the cathode rays (electron beam) strike at
the original position O. This means that the magnitude of
electric force is balanced by the magnitude of force due to
magnetic field. Let e be the charge of the cathode rays, then
eE eBv
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⇒ ν = EB …… (1)

(ii) Determination of specific charge:


Since the cathode rays (electron beam) are accelerated from
cathode to anode, the potential energy of the electron beam at
the cathode is converted into kinetic energy of the electron
beam at the anode. Let V be the potential difference between
anode and cathode, then the potential energy is eV. Then from
law of conservation of energy,
eV = 12mV2 ⇒ em=v22V
Substituting the value of velocity from equation (1), we get
em=12VE2B2 ….. (2)
Substituting the values of E, B and V, the specific charge can be
determined as
em = 1.7 × 1011 C kg-1
(iii) Deflection of charge only due to uniform electric field:
When the magnetic field is turned off, the deflection is only due
to electric field. The deflection in vertical direction is due to the
electric force.
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Fe = eE …(3)
Let m be the mass of the electron and by applying Newton’s
second law of motion, acceleration of the electron is
ae = 1m Fe ……. (4)
Substituting equation (4) in equation (3),
ae = 1meE=emE
Let y be the deviation produced from Deviation of path by
applying uniform electric field original position on the screen.
Let the initial upward velocity of cathode ray be u = 0 before
entering the parallel electric plates. Let t be the time taken by
the cathode rays to travel in electric field. Let l be the length of
one of the plates, then the time taken is
t = 1v …(5)
Hence, the deflection y’ of cathode rays is (note: u = 0 and
ae = emE)

Therefore, the deflection y on the screen is


y ∝ y’ ⇒ y = Cy’
where C is proportionality constant which depends on the
geometry of the discharge tube and substituting y’ value in
equation (6), we get y = C 12eml2B2E ……. (7)
Rearranging equation (7) as en=2yECl2B2 …… (8)
Substituting the values on RHS, the value of specific charge is
calculated as
em = 1.7 × 1011Ckg-1m
(iv) Deflection of charge only due to uniform magnetic field
Suppose that the electric field is switched off and only the
magnetic field is switched on. Now the deflection occurs only
due to magnetic field. The force experienced by the electron in
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uniform magnetic field applied perpendicular to its path is


Fm = evB (in magnitude)
Since this force provides the centripetal force, the electron
beam undergoes a semicircular path. Therefore, we can equate
Fm to centripetal force mv2R
Fm = evB = mv2R
where v is the velocity of electron beam at the point where it
enters the magnetic field and R is the radius of the circular path
traversed by the electron beam.
eB = mvR⇒em=vBR ……. (9)
Further, substituting equation (1) in equation (9), we get
em=EB2R …….. (10)
By knowing the values of electric field, magnetic field and the
radius of circular path, the value of specific charge (em) can be
calculated
Question 38.
(a) Draw the circuit diagram of a half wave rectifier and explain
its working
Answer:
Half wave rectifier circuit:
The half wave rectifier circuit. The circuit consists of a
transformer, a p-n junction diode and a resistor. In a half wave
rectifier circuit, either a positive half or the negative half of the
AC input is passed through while the other half is blocked. Only
one half of the input wave reaches the output. Therefore, it is
called halfwave rectifier. Here, a p-n junction diode acts as a
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rectifying diode.

During the positive half cycle:


When the positive half cycle of the ac input signal passes
through the circuit, terminal A becomes positive with respect to
terminal B. The diode is forward biased and hence it conducts.
The current flows through the load resistor RL and the AC
voltage developed across RL constitutes the output voltage
V0 and the waveform of the diode current.
During the negative half cycle:
When the negative half cycle of the ac input signal passes
through the circuit, terminal A is negative with respect to
terminal B. Now the diode is reverse biased and does not
conduct and hence no current passes through RL. The reverse
saturation current in a diode is negligible. Since there is no
voltage drop across RL, the negative half cycle of ac supply is
suppressed at the output.
The output of the half wave rectifier is not a steady dc voltage
but a pulsating wave. This pulsating voltage is not sufficient for
electronic equipments. A constant or a steady voltage is
required which can be obtained with the help of filter circuits
and voltage regulator circuits. Efficiency (η) is the ratio of the
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output dc power to the ac input power supplied to the circuit.


Its value for half wave rectifier is 40.6 %

[OR]

Question 38.
(b) Fiber optic communication is gaining popularity among the
various transmission media – justify.
Answer:
The method of transmitting information from one place to
another in terms of light pulses through an optical fiber is
called fiber optic communication. It is in the process of
replacing wire transmission in communication systems.
Light has very high frequency (400 THz – 790 THz) than
microwave radio systems. The fibers are made up of silica glass
or silicon dioxide which is highly abundant on Earth.
Now it has been replaced with materials such as chalcogenide
glasses, fluoroaluminate crystalline materials because they
provide larger infrared wavelength and better transmission
capability.
As fibers are not electrically conductive, it is preferred in places
where multiple channels are to be laid and isolation is required
from electrical and electromagnetic interference.

Applications
Optical fiber system has a number of applications namely,
international communication, inter¬city communication, data
links, plant and traffic control and defense applications.

Merits
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• Fiber cables are very thin and weight lesser than copper
cables.
• This system has much larger bandwidth. This means that
its information carrying capacity is larger.
• Fiber optic system is immune to electrical interferences.
• Fiber optic cables are cheaper than copper cables.
Demerits

• Fiber optic cables are more fragile when compared to


copper wires.
• It is an expensive technology.
Physics Model Question Paper 5

PART – 1
Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer.
[15 × 1 = 15]
Question 1.
When the current changes from +2A to -2A in 0.05 s, an emf of
8 V is induced in a coil. The co-efficient of self-induction of the
coil is
(a) 0.2 H
(b) 0.4 H
(c) 0.8 H
(d) 0.1 H
Answer:
(d) 0.1 H

Question 2.
If λv , λx, λm, represent the wavelength of visible light, X-rays and
microwaves, respectively, then
(a) λm > λv > λx
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(b) λm > λx > λv


(c) λv > λm > λx
(d) λv > λx > λm
Answer:
(a) λm > λv > λx
Question 3.
The materials used in Robotics are:
(a) Aluminium and silver
(b) silver and gold
(c) Copper and gold
(d) Steel and aluminium
Answer:
(d) Steel and aluminium

Question 4.
Two wires of A and B with circular cross-section are made up of
the same material with equal lengths. If RA = 3RB, then what is
the ratio of radius of wire A to that of B?
(a) 3
(b) √3
(c) 13√
(d) 13
Answer:
(c) 13√
Question 5.
The frequency range of 3 MHz to 30 MHz is used for
(a) Ground wave propagation
(b) Space wave propagation
(c) Sky wave propagation
(d) Satellite communication
Answer:
(c) Sky wave propagation
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Question 6.
A ray of light strikes a glass plate at an angle 60°. If the
reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other, the
refractive index of the glass is,
(a) √3
(b) 32
(c) 32−−√
(d) 2
Hint. Angle of refraction r = 60° ; Angle of incident i = 30°
sin i = n × sin r
n = sin30∘sin60∘=3–√
Answer:
(a) √3
Question 7.
If voltage applied on a capacitor is increased from V to 2V
choose the correct conclusion
(a) Q remains the same, C is doubled
(b) Q is doubled, C doubled
(c) C remains same, Q doubled
(d) Both Q and C remain same
Answer:
(c) C remains same, Q doubled

Question 8.
The nucleus is approximately spherical in shape. Then the
surface area of the nucleus having mass number A varies as
(a) A2/3
(b) A4/3
(c) A1/3
(d) A5/3
Hint. Volume of nucleus is proportional to mass number 4
43 π R3 ∝ A : R = R0 A1/3
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So, 4 π R2 = R0 A2/3 ⇒ 4 π R2 ∝ A2/3


Surface area is proportional to (mass number)23
Answer:
(a) A2/3
Question 9.
The given electrical network is equivalent to

(a) AND gate


(b) OR gate
(c) NOR gate
(d) NOT gate
Answer:
(c) NOR gate

Question 10.
A wire of length / carries a current I along the Y direction and
magnetic field is given by B⃗ = β3√(i +j +k)T- The magnitude of
Lorentz force acting on the wire is
(a) 23√−−−√βIl
(b) 13√−−−√βIl
(c) 2–√βIl
(d) 12−−√βIl
Answer:
(a) 23√−−−√βIl
Question 11.
When a point charge of 6 pC is moved between two points in
an electric field, the work done is 1.8 × 10-5 J. This potential
difference between the two points is :
(a) 1.08 V
(b) 1.08 μV
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(c) 3 V
(d) 30 V

=1.8×10−56×10−6=186
V = 3V
Answer:
(c) 3 V
Question 12.
The wavelength λe of an electron and λp of a photon of same
energy E are related by
(a) λp ∝ λe
(b) λp ∝ λe−−√
(c) λp ∝ 1λe√
(d) λp ∝ λe2
Hint:
de-Breglie wavelength of proton λe = h2mE√
∴ ie λe ∝ 1E√ ⇒ λe2 ∝ 1E …….. (1)
de-Breglie wave length of proton
λp = hcE
λp ∝ 1E …….. (2)
From (1) and (2)
λe2 ∝ λp i.e., λp ∝ λe2
Answer:
(d) λp ∝ λe2
Question 13.
For a myopic eye, the defect is cured by using a:
(a) convex lens
(b) concave lens
(c) cylindrical lens
(d) plane glass
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Answer:
(b) concave lens

Question 14.
In a tangent galvanometer experiment, for two different values
of current if the deflection are 45° and 30° respectively, then the
ratio of the current is:
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 2
(c) √3 : 1
(d) 1 : √3
Hint: I1 = tan θ1
I2 = tan θ2
I1I2=tan45∘tan30∘=1(13√)=3√1
Answer:
(c) √3 : 1
Question 15.
If the current gain a of a transistor is 0.98, what is the value of p
of the transistor?
(a) 0.49
(b) 49
(c) 4.9
(d) 5
Hint: β=α1−α=0.981−0.98=49
Answer:
(b) 49
PART – II
Answer any six questions in which Q. No 24 is compulsory. [6 ×
2 = 12]
Question 16.
What is meant by Fraunhofer lines?
Answer:
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When the spectrum obtained from the Sun is examined, it


consists of large number of dark lines (line absorption
spectrum). These dark lines in the solar spectrum are known as
Fraunhofer lines.

Question 17.
Why steel is preferred in making Robots?
Answer:
Steel is several time stronger. In any case, because of the
inherent strength of metal, robot bodies are made using sheet,
bar, rod, channel, and other shapes.

Question 18.
State Lenz’s law.
Answer:
Lenz’s law states that the direction of the induced current is
such that it always opposes the cause responsible for its
production.

Question 19.
Why do clouds appear white?
Answer:
Clouds have large particles like dust and water droplets which
scatter light of all colours almost equally. Hence clouds
generally appear white.

Question 20.
Calculate the radius of 19779Au nucleus.
Answer:
According to the equation R = R0A1/3
R = 1.2 × 10-15 × (197)1/3 = 6.97 × 10-15 m (or) R = 6.97 F
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Question 21.
What is the need for a feedback circuit in a transistor oscillator?
Answer:
The circuit used to feedback a portion of the output to the
input is called the feedback network. If the portion of the
output fed to the input is in phase with the input, then the
magnitude of the input signal increases. It is necessary for
sustained oscillations.

Question 22.
Show graphically the variation of electric held £ (y-axis) due to a
charged infinite plane sheet with distance r (x-axis) from the
plate.
Answer:
It independent of the distance. It straight line parallel to x-axis.

Question 23.
Give any two applications of internet.
(i) Search engine: The search engine is basically a web-based
service tool used to search for information on World Wide Web.

(ii) Communication: It helps millions of people to connect with


the use of social networking: emails, instant messaging services
and social networking tools.

(iii) E-Commerce: Buying and selling of goods and services,


transfer of funds are done over an electronic network.
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Question 24.
Calculate the magnetic field inside a solenoid when the number
of turns is halved and the length of the solenoid and the area
remain the same.
Answer:
Magnetic field inside a solenoid is B = μ0NIL
If the number of turns is havled B’ = B′=μ0(N2)IL⇒B′=12(μ0NIL)
PART – III
Answer any six questions in which Q.No. 33 is compulsory. [6 ×
3 = 18]
Question 25.
Two cells each of 5V are connected in series across a 8 12
resistor and three parallel resistors of 4 12, 6 12 and 12 12.
Draw a circuit diagram for the above arrangement calculate
(i) the current drawn from the cell
(ii) current through each resistor.
Answer:
V1 = 5 V; V2 = 5 v
R1 = 8 Ω; R2 = 4Ω; R3 = 6Ω; R4 = 12Ω
Three resistors R2, R3 and R4 are connected parallel combination

1Rp=1R2+1R3+1R4
=14+16+112=312+212+112=612
Rp = 2Ω
Resistors R1 and Rp are connected in series combination
Rs = R1 + Rp = 8 + 2 = 10
R2 = 10Ω
Total voltage connected series to the circuit
V = V1 + V2
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= 5 + 5 =10
V = 10V
(i) Current through the circuit, I = VRs=1010
I = IA
Potential drop across the parallel combination,
V’ = I Rp = 1 × 2 .
V’ = 2 V
(ii) Current in 4Ω resistor, I = V′R2=24 = 0.5 A
Current in 6Ω resistor, I = V′R3=26 = 0.33 A.
Current in 12Ω resistor, I = V′R4=212 = 0.17 A
Question 26.
Explain the various energy losses in a transformer.
Answer:
Energy losses in a’ transformer: Transformers do not have any
moving parts so that its efficiency is much higher than that of
rotating machines like generators and motors. But there are
many factors which lead to energy loss in a transformer.

1. Core loss or Iron loss: This loss takes place in transformer


core. Hysteresis loss and eddy current loss are known as core
loss or Iron loss. When transformer core is magnetized and
demagnetized repeatedly by the alternating voltage applied
across primary coil, hysteresis takes place due to which some
energy is lost in the form of heat. Hysteresis loss is minimized
by using steel of high silicon content in making transformer
core. Alternating magnetic flux in the core induces eddy
currents in it. Therefore there is energy loss due to the flow of
eddy current, called eddy current loss which is minimized by
using very thin laminations of transformer core.

2. Copper loss: Transformer windings have electrical resistance.


When an electric current flows through them, some amount of
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energy is dissipated due to Joule heating. This energy loss is


called copper loss which is minimized by using wires of larger
diameter.

3. Flux leakage: Flux leakage happens when the magnetic lines


of primary coil are not completely linked with secondary coil.
Energy loss due to this flux leakage is minimized by winding
coils one over the other.

Question 27.
Discuss the alpha – decay process with example.
Answer:
When unstable nuclei decay by emitting an α-particle (42He
nucleus), it loses two protons and two neutrons. As a result, its
atomic number Z decreases by 2, the mass number decreases
by 4. We write the alpha decay process symbolically in the
following way

Here X is called the parent nucleus and Y is called the daughter


nucleus.
Example: Decay of Uranium 23892U to thorium 23490Th with the
emission of 42He nucleus (α-particle)
92U → 90Th + 2He
238 234 4

As already mentioned, the total mass of the daughter nucleus


and 2 He nucleus is always less than that of the parent nucleus.
The difference in mass ( Δm = mx – my mα) is released as energy
called disintegration energy Q and is given by
Q = (mx – my – mα) c2
Note that for spontaneous decay (natural radioactivity) Q > 0.
In alpha decay process, the disintegration energy is certainly
positive (Q > 0). In fact, the disintegration energy Q is also the
net kinetic energy gained in the decay process or if the parent
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nucleus is at rest, Q is the total kinetic energy of daughter


nucleus and the 42He nucleus. Suppose Q < 0, then the decay
process cannot occur spontaneously and energy must be
supplied to induce the decay.
Question 28.
Obtain the expression for energy stored in the parallel plate
capacitor.
Answer:
Energy stored in the capacitor: Capacitor not only stores the
charge but also it stores energy. When a battery is connected to
the capacitor, electrons of total charge -Q are transferred from
one plate to the other plate. To transfer the charge, work is
done by the battery. This work done is stored as electrostatic
potential energy in the capacitor.
To transfer an infinitesimal charge dQ for a potential difference
V, the work done is given by
dW = VdQ ….(1)
Where V = QC
The total work done to charge a capacitor is
W = ∫00QCdQ=Q22C ….. (2)
This work done is stored as electrostatic potential energy (UE) in
the capacitor.
UE = Q22C=12CV2 (∴Q = CV) …… (3)
where Q = CV is used. This stored energy is thus directly
proportional to the capacitance of the capacitor and the square
of the voltage between the plates of the capacitor. But where is
this energy stored in the capacitor? To understand this
question, the equation (3) is rewritten as follows using the
results
C = ε0Ad and V = Ed
UE = 12(ε0Ad)(Ed)2=12ε0(Ad)E2 …… (4)
where Ad = volume of the space between the capacitor plates.
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The energy stored per unit Volume of space is defined as


energy density uE = U Volume From equation (4) we get
UE = 12ε0E2 ……. (5)
From equation (5), we infer that the energy is stored in the
electric field existing between the plates of the capacitor. Once
the capacitor is allowed to discharge, the energy is retrieved.
Question 29.
Explain any three recent advancements in medical technology.
Answer:
1. Virtual reality:
Medical virtual reality is effectively used to stop the brain from
processing pain and cure soreness in the hospitalized patients.
Virtual reality has enhanced surgeries by the use of 3D models
by surgeons to plan operations. It helps in the treatment of
Autism, Memory loss, and Mental illness.

2. Precision medicine:
Precision medicine is an emerging approach for disease
treatment and prevention that takes into account individual
variability in genes, environment, and lifestyle for each person.
In this medical model it is possible to customise healthcare,
with medical decisions, treatments, practices, or products which
are tailored to the individual patient.

3. Health wearables:
A health wearable is a device used for tracking a wearer’s vital
signs or health and fitness related data, location, etc. Medical
wearables with artificial intelligence and big data provide an
added value to healthcare with a focus on diagnosis, treatment,
patient monitoring and prevention.
Note: Big Data: Extremely large data sets that may be analysed
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computationally to reveal patterns, trends, and associations,


especially relating to human behaviour and interactions.

Question 30.
Two light sources with amplitudes 5 units and 3 units
respectively interfere with each other. Calculate the ratio of
maximum and minimum intensities.
Answer:
Amplitudes, a1 = 5, a2 = 3
Resultant amplitude, A
= a21+a22+2a1a2cosϕ−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−√
Resultant amplitude is maximum when,
Φ = 0, cos 0 = 1, Amax = a21+a22+2a1a2−−−−−−−−−−−−−√
Amax = (a1+a2)2−−−−−−−−√=(5+3)2−−−−−−−√=(8)2−−−√ = 8 units
Resultant amplitude is minimum when, Φ = π, cos π = -1,
Amax = a21+a22−2a1a2−−−−−−−−−−−−−√
Amin = (a1−a2)2−−−−−−−−√=(5−3)2−−−−−−−√=(2)2−−−√ = 2 units
I ∝ A2
ImaxImin=(Amax)2(Amin)2
Substituting, ImaxImin=(8)2(2)2=644=16 (or) Imax : Imin = 16 : 1
Question 31.
An electron moves in a circular orbit with a uniform speed v it
produces a magnetic field B at the centre of the circle. Prove
that the radius of the circle is proportional to vB−−√
Answer:
The magnetic field produce by moving electron in circular path.
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Question 32.
Give the construction and working of photo emissive cell.
Answer:

Photo emissive cell:


Its working depends on the electron emission from a metal
cathode due to irradiation of light or other radiations.
Construction:

• It consists of an evacuated glass or quartz bulb in which


two metallic electrodes – that is, a cathode and an anode
are fixed.
• The cathode C is semi-cylindrical in shape and is coated
with a photo sensitive material. The anode A is a thin rod
or wire kept along the axis of the semi-cylindrical cathode.
• A potential difference is applied between the anode and
the cathode through a galvanometer G.
Working:
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• When cathode is illuminated, electrons are emitted from it.


These electrons are attracted by anode and hence a
current is produced which is measured by the
galvanometer.
• For a given cathode, the magnitude of the current
depends on
• the intensity to incident radiation and
• the potential difference between anode and cathode.
Question 33.
In the circuit shown in the figure the input voltage V1 = +5 V,
VBE = + 0.8 V and VCE = + 0.12 VCE. Find the values of IB, IC and
β.
Answer:
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PART – IV
Answer all the questions. [5 × 5 = 25]
Question 34.
(a) Obtain the expression for electric field due to an uniformly
charged spherical shell at a distance its centre.
Answer:
Electric field due to a uniformly charged spherical shell:
Consider a uniformly charged spherical shell of radius R and
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total charge Q. The electric field at points outside and inside the
sphere is found using Gauss law.

Case (a) At a point outside the shell (r > R): Let us choose a
point P outside the shell at a distance r from the center as
shown in figure (a). The charge is uniformly distributed on the
surface of the sphere (spherical symmetry). Hence the electric
field must point radially outward if Q > 0 and point radially
inward if Q < 0. So we choose a spherical Gaussian surface of
radius r and the total charge enclosed by this Gaussian surface
is Q. Applying Gauss law,
∮E→⋅dA→=Qε0 …(1)

The electric field E⃗ and dA⃗ point in the same direction


(outward normal) at all the points on the Gaussian surface. The
magnitude of E⃗ is also the same at all points due to the
spherical symmetry of the charge distribution.
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Substituting this value in equation (2).


E.4πr2 = Qε0
E.4πr2 = Qε0 (or) E = 14πε0Qr2
In vector form E→=14πε0Qr2r^
The electric field is radially outward if Q > 0 and radially inward
if Q < 0. From equation (3), we infer that the electric field at a
point outside the shell will be same as if the entire charge Q is
concentrated at the center of the spherical shell. (A similar
result is observed in gravitation, for gravitational force due to a
spherical shell with mass M)

Case (b): At a point on the surface of the spherical shell (r = R):


The electrical field at points on the spherical shell (r = R) is
given by
E→=Q4πε0R2r^ …… (4)
Case (c) At a point inside the spherical shell (r < R): Consider a
point P inside the shell at a distance r from the center. A
Gaussian sphere of radius r is constructed as shown in the
figure (b). Applying Gauss law

E.4πr2 = Qε0 ….. (5)


Since Gaussian surface encloses no charge, So Q = 0. The
equation (5) becomes
E = 0 (r < R) …….. (6)
The electric field due to the uniformly charged spherical shell is
zero at all points inside the shell.
[OR]

Question 34.
(b) Write any five properties of electromagnetic waves.
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Answer
Properties of electromagnetic waves:

1. Electromagnetic waves are produced by any accelerated


charge.
2. Electromagnetic waves do not require any medium for
propagation. So electromagnetic wave is a non-
mechanical wave.
3. Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature. This
means that the oscillating electric field vector, oscillating
magnetic field vector and propagation vector (gives
direction of propagation) are mutually perpendicular to
each other.
4. Electromagnetic waves travel with speed which is equal to
the speed of light in vacuum, or freer space, c = 1ε0μ0√ =
3 × 108 ms-1
5. The speed of electromagnetic wave is less than speed in
free space or vacuum, that is, v < c. In a medium of
refractive index,

Question 35.
(a) What is modulation? Explain the types of modulation with
necessary diagrams.
Answer:
Modulation: For long distance transmission, the low frequency
baseband signal (input signal) is superimposed onto a high
frequency radio signal by a process called modulation.
There are 3 types of modulation based on which parameter is
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modified. They are


(i) Amplitude modulation,
(ii) Frequency modulation, and
(iii) Phase modulation.

(i) Amplitude Modulation (AM):


If the amplitude of the carrier signal is modified according to
the instantaneous amplitude of the baseband signal, then it is
called amplitude modulation. Here the frequency and the phase
of the carrier signal remain constant. Amplitude modulation is
used in radio and TV broadcasting.

The signal shown in figure (a) is the message signal or


baseband signal that carries information, figure (b) shows the
high frequency carrier signal and figure (c) gives the amplitude
modulated signal. We can see clearly that the carrier wave is
modified in proportion to the amplitude of the baseband
signal.
Amplitude Modulation

(ii) Frequency Modulation (FM):


The frequency of the camer signal is modified according to the
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instantaneous amplitude of the baseband signal in frequency


modulation. Here the amplitude and the phase of the carrier
signal remain constant. Increase in the amplitude of the
baseband signal increases the frequency of the carrier signal
and vice versa. This leads to compressions and rarefactions in
the frequency spectrum of the modulated wave. Louder signal
leads to compressions and relatively weaker signals to
rarefactions. When the amplitude of the baseband signal is zero
in Figure (a), the frequency of the modulated signal is the same
as the carrier signal. The frequency of the modulated wave
increases when the amplitude of the baseband signal increases
in the positive direction
(A, C). The increase in amplitude in the negative half cycle (B,D)
reduces the frequency of the modulated wave (figure (c)).

(iii) Phase Modulation (PM):


The instantaneous amplitude of the baseband signal modifies
the phase of the camer signal keeping the amplitude and
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frequency constant is called phase modulation. This modulation


is used to generate frequency modulated signals. It is similar to
frequency modulation except that the phase of the carrier is
varied instead of varying frequency. The carrier phase changes
according to increase or decrease in the amplitude of the
baseband signal. When the modulating signal goes positive, the
amount of phase
lead increases with the amplitude of the modulating signal. Due
to this, the carrier signal is compressed or its frequency is
increased.

On the other hand, the negative half cycle of the baseband


signal produces a phase lag in the carrier signal. This appears to
have stretched the frequency of the carrier wave. Hence similar
to frequency modulated wave, phase modulated wave also
comprises of
compressions and rarefactions. When the signal voltage is zero
(A, C and E) the carrier frequency is unchanged.

[OR]
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Question 35.
(b) Find the expression for the mutual inductance between a
pair of coils and show that (M12 = M21).
Answer:
Mutual induction: When an electric current passing through a
coil changes with time, an emf is induced in the neighbouring
coil. This phenomenon is known as mutual induction and the
emf is called mutually induced emf.

Consider two coils which are placed close to each other. If an


electric current q is sent through coil i1 the magnetic field
produced by it is also linked with coil 2.
Let Φ21 be the magnetic flux linked with each turn of the coil 2
of N2 turns due to coil 1, then the total flux linked with coil 2
(N2Φ21) is proportional to the current i1 in the coil 1.
N2Φ21 ∝ i1
N2Φ21 = M21i1 or M21 = N2Φ21i1
The constant of proportionality M21 is the mutual inductance of
the coil 2 with respect to coil 1. It is also called as coefficient of
mutual induction. If i1 = 1 A, then M21 = N2Φ21.
Therefore, the mutual inductance M21 is defined as the flux
linkage of the coil 2 when 1A current flows through coil 1.
When the current i1 changes with time, an emf ξ2 is induced in
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coil 2. From Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction, this


mutually induced emf ξ21 is given by

The negative sign in the above equation shows that the


mutually induced emf always opposes the change in current
with respect to time. If di1dt = 1 As-1, then M21 = -ξ2.
Mutual inductance M21 is also defined as the opposing emf
induced in the coil 2 when the rate of change of current
through the coil I is l As-1.
Similarly, if an electric current i2 through coil 2 changes with
time, then emf ξ1 is induced in coil 1. Therefore, N

where M12 is the mutual inductance of the coil I with respect to


coil 2. It can be shown that for a given pair of coils, the mutual
inductance is same. i.e., M21 = M12 = M.
In general, the mutual induction between two coils depends on
size, shape, the number of turns of the coils, their relative
orientation and permeability of the medium.
Question 36.
(a) Derive the expression for the radius of the orbit of the
electron and its velocity using Bohr atom model.
Answer:
Radius of the orbit of the electron and velocity of the electron:
Consider an atom which contains the nucleus at rest and an
electron revolving around the nucleus in a circular orbit of
radius rn as shown in figure. Nucleus is made up of protons and
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neutrons. Since proton is positively charged and neutron is


electrically neutral, the charge of a nucleus is purely the total
charge of protons.

Let Z be the atomic number of the atom, then +Ze is the charge
of the nucleus. Let -e be the charge of the electron. From
Coulomb’s law, the force of attraction between the nucleus and
the electron is

F⃗ coloumb = 14πε0(+Ze)(e)r2nr^
=−14πε0Ze2r2nr^
This force provides necessary centripetal force
F⃗ centripetal = mv2nrnr^
where m be the mass of the electron that moves with a velocity
DW in a circular orbit. Therefore,
|F⃗ coloumb| = |F⃗ centripetal|
14πε0Ze2r2n=mv2nrn
rn = 4πε0(mvnrn)2Zme2 ……. (1)
From Bohr’s assumption, the angular momentum quantization
condition mυnrn = ln = nn
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where n ∈ N . Since, ε0, h, e and n are constants. Therefore, the


radius of the orbit becomes
rn = a0n2Z
Where a0 = ε0h2πme2 = 0.529Å. This is known as Bohr radius
which is the smallest radius of the orbit in an atom. Bohr radius
is also used as unit of length called Bohr. 1 Bohr = 0.53 Å. For
hydrogen atom (Z = 1), the radius of nth orbit is
rn = a0n2
For the first orbit (ground state),
r1 = a0 = 0.529 Å
For the second orbit (first excited state),
r2 = 4a0 = 2.116 Å
For the third orbit (second excited state),
r3 = 9a0 = 4.761 Å and so on.
Thus the radius of the orbit from centre increases with n, that is,
rn ∝ c n2 as shown in figure. Further, Bohr’s angular momentum
quantization condition leads to
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mυnrn = mυna0n2 = nh2π


υn = h2πma0Zn
υn ∝ 1n
Note that the velocity of electron decreases as the principal
quantum number increases as shown in figure. This curve is the
rectangular hyperbola. This implies that the velocity of electron
in ground state is maximum when compared to excited states.
[OR]

Question 36.
(b) Discuss the working and theory of cyclotron in detail.
Answer:

Cyclotron: Cyclotron is a device used to accelerate the charged


particles to gain large kinetic energy. It is also called as high
energy accelerator. It was invented by Lawrence and Livingston
in 1934.

Principle: When a charged particle moves normal to the


magnetic field, it experiences magnetic Lorentz force.

Construction:The particles are allowed to move in between two


semicircular metal containers called Dees (hollow D – shaped
objects). Dees are enclosed in an evacuated chamber and it is
kept in a region with uniform magnetic field controlled by an
electromagnet. The direction of magnetic field is normal to the
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plane of the Dees. The two Dees are kept separated with a gap
and the source S (which ejects the particle to be accelerated) is
placed at the center in the gap between the Dees. Dees are
connected to high frequency alternating potential difference.

Working: Let us assume that the ion ejected from source S is


positively charged. As soon as ion is ejected, it is accelerated
towards a Dee (say, Dee – 1) which has negative potential at
that time. Since the magnetic field is normal to the plane of the
Dees, the ion undergoes circular path. After one semi-circular
path in Dee-1, the ion reaches the gap between Dees. At this
time, the polarities of the Dees are reversed so that the ion is
now accelerated towards Dee-2 with a greater velocity. For this
circular motion, the centripetal force of the charged particle q is
provided by Lorentz force.
mv2r = qv B ⇒ r = mqBv ⇒ r ∝ v
From the equation, the increase in velocity increases the radius
of circular path. This process continues and hence the particle
undergoes spiral path of increasing radius. Once it reaches near
the edge, it is taken out with the help of deflector plate and
allowed to hit the target T. Very important condition in
cyclotron operation is the resonance condition. It happens
when the frequency f at which the positive ion circulates in the
magnetic field must be equal to the constant frequency of the
electrical oscillator fosc From equation
fosc = qB2πm⇒T=1fosc
The time period of oscillation is T = 2πmqB
The kinetic energy of the charged particle is K E
= 12mv2=q2B2r22m
Limitations of cyclotron
(a) the speed of the ion is limited
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(b) electron cannot be accelerated


(c) uncharged particles cannot be accelerated
Question 37.
(a) Obtain lens maker’s formula and mention its significance.
Answer:
Lens maker’s formula and lens equation: Let us consider a thin
lens made up of a medium of refractive index n2 is placed in a
medium of refractive index n1 . Let R1 and R2 be the radii of
curvature of two spherical surfaces (1) and (2) respectively and
P be the pole. Consider a point object O on the principal axis.
The ray which falls very close to P, after refraction at the surface
(1) forms image at I’. Before it does so, it is again refracted by
the surface (2). Therefore the final image is formed at I. The
general equation for the refraction at a spherical surface is
given by

For the refracting surface (1), the light goes from to n1 to n2

If the object is at infinity, the image is formed at the focus of


the lens. Thus, for u = oo, v =/ Then the equation becomes.
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If the refractive index of the lens is n2 and it is placed in air, then


n2 = n and n1 = 1. So the equation (4) becomes,
1f=(n−1)(1R1−1R2)
The above equation is called the lens maker’s formula, because
it tells the lens manufactures what curvature is needed to make
a lens of desired focal length with a material of particular
refractive index. This formula holds good also for a concave
lens. By comparing the equations (3) and (4) we can write,
1v−1u=1f ……… (6)
This equation is known as lens equation which relates the
object distance it and image distance v with the focal length /
of the lens. This formula holds good for a any type of lens.
Question 37.
(b) Explain the construction and working of a full wave rectifier.
Answer:
Full wave rectifier:
The positive and negative half cycles of the AC input signal pass
through the full wave rectifier circuit and hence it is called the
full wave rectifier. It consists of two p-n junction diodes, a
center tapped transfonner, and a load resistor (RL). The centre is
usually taken as the ground or zero voltage reference point.
Due to the centre tap transformer, the output voltage rectified
by each diode is only one half of the total secondary voltage.
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During positive half cycle:


When the positive half cycle of the ac input signal passes
through the circuit, terminal M is positive, G’ is at zero potential
and N is at negative potential. This forward biases diode D1 and
reverse biases diode D2 Hence, being forward biased, diode
D1 conducts and current flows along the path MD1 AGC . As a
result, positive half cycle of the voltage appears across RL in the
direction G to C.
During negative half cycle:
When the negative half cycle of the ac input signal passes
through the circuit, terminal N is positive, G is at zero potential
and M is at negative potential. This forward biases diode D2 and
reverse biases diode D1. Hence, being forward biased, diode
D2 conducts and current flows along the path ND2 BGC . As a
result, negative half cycle of the voltage appears across RL in
the same direction from G to C
Hence in a full wave rectifier both positive and negative half
cycles of the input signal pass through the circuit in the same
direction as shown in figure (b). Though both positive and
negative half cycles of ac input are rectified, the output is still
pulsating in nature.

The efficiency ( η) of full wave rectifier is twice that of a half


wave rectifier and is found to be 81.2 %. It is because both the
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positive and negative half cycles of the ac input source are


rectified.

Question 38.
(a) (i) Derive the expression for the de Broglie wavelength of an
electron.
Answer:
An electron of mass m is accelerated through a potential
difference of V volt. The kinetic energy acquired by the electron
is given by
12mv2 = eV
Therefore, the speed v of the electron is v = 2eVm−−−√
Hence, the de Broglie wavelength of the electron is λ
= hmv=h2emV√
Substituting the known values in the above equation, we get

For example, if an electron is accelerated through a potential


difference of 100V, then its de Broglie wavelength is 1.227 Å .
Since the kinetic energy of the electron, K = eV, then the de
Broglie wavelength associated with electron can be also written
as
λ = h2mK√
(ii) An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of
81V. What is the de Broglie wavelength associated with it? To
which part of the electromagnetic spectrum does this
wavelength correspond?
de-Broglie wavelength of an electron beam accelerated
through a potential difference of V volts is
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X-ray is the part of electromagnetic spectrum does this


wavelength corresponds. X-ray has the wavelengths ranging
from about 10-8 to 10-12 m.
[OR]

Question 38.
(b) (i) How will you measure the internal resistance of a cell by
potentiometer?
Answer:
Measurement of internal resistance of a cell by potentiometer:
To measure the internal resistance of a cell, the circuit
connections are made as shown in figure. The end C of the
potentiometer wire is connected to the positive terminal of the
battery Bt and the negative terminal of the battery is connected
to the end D through a key K1 This forms the primary circuit.

The positive terminal of the cell ξ whose internal resistance is to


be determined is also connected to the end C of the wire. The
negative terminal of the cell ξ is connected to a jockey through
a galvanometer and a high resistance. A resistance box R and
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key K2 are connected across the cell ξ. With K2 open, the


balancing point J is obtained and the balancing length CJ = l1 is
measured. Since the cell is in open circuit, its emf is
ξ ∝ l1 ….. (1)
A suitable resistance (say, 10 H) is included in the resistance box
and key K2 is closed.
Let r be the internal resistance of the cell. The current passing
through the cell and the resistance R is given by
I = ξR+r
The potential difference across R is
V = ξRR+r
When this potential difference is balanced on the
potentiometer wire, let /2 be the balancing length.
Then ξRR+r∝l2 ….. (2)
From equations (1) and (2)

Substituting the values of the R, l1 and l2, the internal resistance


of the cell is determined. The experiment can be repeated for
different values of R. It is found that the internal resistance of
the cell is not constant but increases with increase of external
resistance connected across its terminals.
(ii) A cell supplies a current of 0.9 A through a 1Ω resistor and a
current of 0.3 A through a 2 Ω resistor. Calculate the internal
resistance of the cell.
Current from the cell 1,I1, = 0.9 A and Resistor, R1 = 1Ω
Current from the cell 2,I2 = 0.3 A and Resistor, R2 = 2Ω
Current in the circuit, I1 = ξr+R1
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ξ = I1r + I1R1 ….. (1)


Current in the circuit, I2 = ξr+R2
ξ = I2r + I2R2 ….. (2)
From equation (1) and (2),

|r| = |-0.5| Ω
Magnitude of internal resistance r = 0.5 Ω

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