Fort Collins: A City With Active Residents and Top Schools

Thư viện Đề thi - Trắc nghiệm - Tài liệu học tập Miễn phí
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG MÔN TIẾNG ANH
NĂM 2021 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN
ĐỀ 1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word

whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each
of the following questions.
Question 1. A. worked B. stopped C. forced D. wanted
Question 2. A. hand B. bad C. hat D. age
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that
differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the
following questions.
Question 3. A. confide B. gather C. divide D. reply
Question 4. A. stimulate B. sacrifice C. devastate D. determine
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct

answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. The children were very tiresome, ______ ?
A. weren't they B. wasn't they C. didn't they D. don't they
Question 6. The 26th Annual Meeting of the Asia-Pacific Parliamentary Forum

(APPF)______in Hanoi from January 18th to 21st, 2018.
Trang chủ: ht t p s : / / v n d o c . c o m / | Email hỗ trợ: hotro@vndoc.com | Hotline: 02 4 22 42 61 8 8

A. was held B. held C. being held D. will hold
Question 7. Most of Vietnamese people are satisfied ______ their government’s response to
combat Covid-19 pandemic.
A. above B. with C. to D. of
Question 8. The more electricity you use, ______ your bill will be.
A. higher B. the higher C. highest D. the highest
Question 9. Alan often drives a _____ car.
A. blue small Japanese B. small Japanese blue C. Japanese small blue D. small blue Japanese
Question 10. When I got home I found that water ______ down the kitchen walls.
A. ran B. was running C. has run D. had been running
Question 11. ______ Blackpink’s members were very different, they did seem to get on well
when they met.
A. In spite of B. Though C. Because of D. Because
Question 12. They will have suffered from coldness and hunger for 6 hours ______ them on the
mountain.
A. by the time we find B. when we found
C. as soon as we had found D. after we had found
Question 13. ______ under normal clothes, a thermal layer keeps you warm in minus
temperatures.

A. Wearing B. Having been worn C. To wear D. Worn
Question 14. We haven’t reached the final ______ on the funding for scientific research yet.
A. decides B. decision C. decisively D. decisive
Question 15. The child really ______ his father even the smallest actions.
A. takes after B. looks after C. goes off D. sits for
Question 16. She _______ a really good impression of the president in order to make everybody
laugh.
A. did B. made C. built D. caused
Question 17. A football player was suspended for four matches after arguing with the ______.
A. audience B. spectator C. umpire D. referee
Question 18. Rowena ______ for joy when she heard that she’d won the first prize.
A. jumped B. cried C. screamed D. clapped
Question 19. The improvement has been across the ______, with all divisions either increasing
profits or reducing losses.
A. bulletin B. board C. company D. newspaper
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)

CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions.

Question 20. Many people are failing to save enough to provide them with a decent standard
of living in retirement.
A. satisfactory B. courteous C. honest D. polite
Question 21. The Ministry of Health has officially announced a message featuring 5K to
contain the spread of COVID-19 infections.
A. include B. cover C. control D. maintain

OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions.
Question 22. Most of the students in our country are interested in pursuing higher education
to get bachelor's degrees.
A. following B. giving up C. trying D. interrupting
Question 23. We think they will be at the party in two shakes because they are so excited
A. very soon B. very late C. very boringly D. very happily
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option

that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 24. Two friends are talking in the classroom.
- Jack: “How long does it take you to go to school?”
- John: “______. I walk every day.”
A. My father drives me to school B. About 20 kilometres

C. About 5 minutes D. Let me see
Question 25. Two students are talking about their assignment.
- Tim: “We should give more photos to a slideshow in our history presentation next week.”
- Laura: “_______. They will make our presentation more interesting”
A. Sorry, I have to check my diary.
B. That’s exactly what I was going to say.
C. I’d love to but I just can’t now.
D. That’s true. I understand how you feel
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct word that best fits each of the numbered blanks
from 26 to 30.
Wave power
Engineers are building machinery to harness the power of ocean waves. As an abundant source
of clean energy, wave power can be categorised along with (26) ______ sustainable energy
sources, such as wind and solar power.
Wave power is extracted by wave energy converters, or WECs, which are placed along the
ocean (27) ______ that produce strong waves. The first wave farm, (28) ______ comprises
three WECs, was built off the coast of Portugal in 2008. It was set to produce over two
megawatts of energy – enough to power 2,000 homes.

Sadly the project hit a (29) ______ block two months into operation and has remained offline
ever since, demonstrating the high probability of technical difficulties that can still arise.
Engineers are continuing to build wave farms worldwide, (30) ______ it is worth cultivating the
extraction of wave power. The amount of power that could potentially be extracted is three
terawatts – enough for billions of homes and businesses.
(Adapted from “Use of English for advanced” by Malcomn Mann and Steve Taylor-Knowles)
Question 26. A. other B. another C. every D. one
Question 27. A. floods B. streams C. currents D. brooks
Question 28. A. whom B. which C. why D. who
Question 29. A. stumbling B. stepping C. tripping D. rolling
Question 30. A. despite B. so C. as D. but
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Fort Collins certainly does its part to uphold Colorado’s reputation as one of the country’s most
physically active states. Recreational activities in Fort Collins range from biking and hiking to
snowboarding and kayaking. Thanks to its location at the foothills of the Rocky Mountains and
the banks of the Poudre River, and a robust lineup of city-run indoor exercise facilities, Fort
Collins residents have plenty of opportunities to get their hearts pumping. The city’s vibrant
craft brewing scene serves as a hard-earned reward for Fort Collins’ active locals.
Fort Collins has long prioritized the performance of its public school system, with efforts that
have paid off in spades and made the city one of the country's best places to live. Fort Collins'
41,680 students perform 3 to 19 percent higher than the statewide average in all subjects; and

on a national scale, Fort Collins pupils consistently are ahead of the game when it comes to
ACT and SAT college entrance exam averages.
Fort Collins has invested extensively in its local library system, cultural offerings, and public
learning opportunities. The city’s Fort Collins Museum of Discovery is a gorgeous hands-on
learning space featuring an array of traditional and pop-science exhibits that fascinate the young
and old. The museum’s marquee attraction, the OtterBox Digital Dome Theatre, screens a
variety of nationally and internationally release science and nature films on a 35-foot dome
screen.
Rounding out the city’s cultural, academic, and natural attractions is Fort Collins’ notable slate
of industry because it’s regarded as an engine of economic growth and stability for northern
Colorado. Fort Collins enjoys the presence and job provision of Fortune 500 luminaries.
Businesses in Fort Collins find strong support from local residents and city leaders.
(Adapted from https://livability.com)
Question 31. Which could be the best title of the passage?
A. Fort Collins: Home Base for Outdoor Enthusiasts
B. Fort Collins: The Worth-living City
C. Proud of Education in Fort Collins
D. Fort Collins and Its Economic Policies
Question 32. The word "their" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. foothills’ B. banks’ C. facilities’ D. residents’
Question 33. The word " release " in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. broadcast B. absorb C. give freedom D. transmit
Question 34. According to the passage, why is Fort Collins a significant industry?
A. Residents and city officials are supportive of businesses
B. It’s famous for its agriculture.
C. It’s known as the driver of economic development in northern Colorado.
D. It lacks companies that provide employment.
Question 35. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Fort Collins’ education as stated in
the passage?
A. It has placed a premium on its state school system for a long time.
B. In all subjects, students surpass the state record average by 3 to 19 %
C. Students always outperform at entrance exam averages.
D. Students don’t have any place to study outside the school.
Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Photographic evidence suggests that liquid water once existed in great quantity on the surface of
Mars. Two types of flow features are seen: runoff channels and outflow channels. Runoff
channels are found in the southern highlands. These flow features are extensive systems of
interconnecting, twisting channels that seem to merge into larger, wider channels. They bear a
strong resemblance to river systems on Earth, and geologists think that they are dried-up beds
of long-gone rivers that once carried rainfall on Mars from the mountains down into the valleys.

Runoff channels on Mars speak of a time 4 billion years ago, when the atmosphere was thicker,
the surface warmer, and liquid water widespread.
Outflow channels are probably relics of catastrophic flooding on Mars long ago. They appear
only in equatorial regions and generally do not form extensive interconnected networks. Instead,
they are probably the paths taken by huge volumes of water draining from the southern
highlands into the northern plains. The onrushing water arising from these flash floods likely
also formed the odd teardrop-shaped "islands" that have been found on the plains close to the
ends of the outflow channels. Judging from the width and depth of the channels, the flow rates
must have been truly enormous – perhaps as much as a hundred times greater than the 105 tons
per second carried by the great Amazon River. Flooding shaped the outflow channels
approximately 3 billion years ago, about the same time as the northern volcanic plains formed.
Some scientists speculate that Mars may have enjoyed an extended early period during which
rivers, lakes, and perhaps even oceans adorned its surface. A 2003 Mars Global Surveyor
image shows what mission specialists think may be a delta – a fan-shaped network of channels
and sediments where a river once flowed into a larger body of water, in this case a lake filling a
crater in the southern highlands. Other researchers go even further, suggesting that the data
provide evidence for large open expanses of water on the early Martian surface. A computer-
generated view of the Martian north polar region shows the extent of what may have been an
ancient ocean covering much of the northern lowlands. The Hellas Basin, which measures some
3,000 kilometers across and has a floor that lies nearly 9 kilometers below the basin's rim, is
another candidate for an ancient Martian sea.
(Source: https://www.ets.org/toefl/rpdt/prepare/reading)
Question 36. Which of the following could be the title of the passage?
A. Running Water on Mars?

B. Photographic Evidence of a Martian sea
C. Saving Martian Surface Water
D. A Mars Global Surveyor
Question 37. The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to ______ .
A. channels B. geologists C. systems D. Mars
Question 38. In paragraph 2, why does the author include the information that 105 tons of
water flow through the Amazon River per second?
A. To emphasize the great size of the volume of water that seems to have flowed through Mars’
outflow channels
B. To indicate data used by scientists to estimate how long ago Mars’ outflow channels were
formed
C. To argue that flash floods on Mars may have been powerful enough to cause tear-shaped
"islands" to form
D. To argue that the force of flood waters on Mars was powerful enough to shape the northern
volcanic plains
Question 39. The word "relics" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. remains B. sites C. requirements D. sources
Question 40. The word "adorned" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ______
A. attached B. ornament C. embellished D. bedecked

Question 41. Which of the following questions about geological features on Mars is NOT
answered in paragraph 3?
A. What are some regions of Mars that may have once been covered with an ocean?
B. Where do mission scientists believe that the river forming the delta emptied?
C. Approximately how many craters on Mars do mission scientists believe may once have been
lakes filled with water?
D. During what period of Mars' history do some scientists think it may have had large bodies of
water?
Question 42. What can be inferred from paragraph 3 about liquid water on Mars?
A. If ancient oceans ever existed on Mars' surface, it is likely that the water in them has
evaporated by now.
B. If there is any liquid water at all on Mars' surface today, its quantity is much smaller than the
amount that likely existed there in the past.
C. Small-scale gullies on Mars provide convincing evidence that liquid water existed on Mars
in the recent past.
D. The small amount of water vapor in the Martian atmosphere suggests that there has never
been liquid water on Mars.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined

part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Last month, my mother makes more than 20 dresses and sold all of them.

Question 44. Many living organisms depend largely on the environment for the satisfaction
of its needs.
Question 45. Government should see WHO’s Disease Outbreak News to get up-to-date
information on the impact of COVID-19 virus variety on the effectiveness of the different
vaccines.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence

that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. The last time I went to the museum was a year ago.
A. I have not been to the museum for a year.
B. A year ago, I often went to the museum.
C. My going to the museum lasted a year.
D. At last I went to the museum after a year.
Question 47. "Don’t forget to submit your project next Saturday, Jane" Mr. John said.
A. Mr. John denied submitting Jane’s project the following Saturday.
B. Mr. John reminded Jane to submit her project the following Saturday.
C. Mr. John blamed Jane for not submitting her project the following Saturday.
D. Mr. John encouraged Jane to submit her project on time.
Question 48. It isn’t necessary for you to finish the project today.
A. You needn’t finish the project today.

B. You may not finish the project today.
C. You had better not finish the project today.
D. You can’t finish the project today.

that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. The examiner doesn’t accept my answer. My handwriting is not legible.
A. If only the examiner will accept my answer and can read my handwriting.
B. The examiner wouldn’t accept my answer if my handwriting were legible.
C. I wish my handwriting were legible enough for the examiner to accept my answer.
D. Providing my handwriting is legible, the examiner will accept my answer.
Question 50. The COVID-19 has resulted in schools shut all across the world. People are more
concerned about online learning platforms only then.
A. Not until people are more concerned about online learning platforms has the COVID-19
resulted in schools shut all across the world.
B. Hardly had the Covid-19 result in schools shut all across the world when people are more
concerned about online learning platforms.
C. Only after the COVID-19 has resulted in schools shut all across the world are people more
concerned about online learning platforms.
D. Without people’s concern about online learning platforms, schools all across the world
wouldn’t have been shut down.
ĐÁP ÁN
ĐỀ 2

Question 1. A. kissed B. helped C. washed D. rained
Question 2. A. can B. hate C. ate D. take
Question 3. A. confide B. divide C. answer D. appeal
Question 4. A. develop B. reunite C. understand D. recommend

Question 5. The journey soon became tedious, ______ ?
A. doesn't it B. wasn't it C. didn't it D. won't it
Question 6. From August 21 to 25, over 2,198 foreigners in Son Tra district ______ for Covid-
19.

A. tested B. were tested C. were testing D. test
Question 7. Affected by the Western cultures, Vietnamese people’s attitude _____ love and
marriage have dramatically changed.
A. for B. with C. through D. towards
Question 8. The more tired you are, ______ it is to concentrate.
A. the harder B. harder C. hardest D. the hardest
Question 9. We rent a(n) _____ house in Hoi An Ancient Town.
A. old large furnished B. furnished old large C. large old furnished D. old furnished large
Question 10. Sam ______ to change a light bulb when he slipped and fell.
A. was trying B. tried C. had been trying D. has tried
Question 11. I show the greatest respect for his brilliant ideas ______ I don't agree with them.
A. in spite of B. despite C. because of D. even though
Question 12. ______, he will have worked there for 10 years.
A. While his contract with the company is expiring
B. By the time his contract with the company expires
C. As soon as his contract with the company had expired
D. Before his contract with the company will expire
Question 13. ______ by the boys' behaviour, she complained to the head teacher.
A. She annoyed B. Annoyed C. She was annoyed D. Annoying
Question 14. I think mobile phones are ______ for people of all ages.
A. usage B. usefully C. useful D. use
Question 15. Our teacher told us that if we don't ______ the environment, our grandchildren
may not even be able to carry on living.
A. take after B. hold on C. look after D. count on
Question 16. The group’s legal advisers said they were _______ the initiative to tackle online
privacy issues.
A. doing B. taking C. making D. leading
Question 17. All the dancers come on stage during the grand ______.
A. final B. finale C. end D. ending
Question 18. Little Johnnie’s parents were worried that he was very big, but the doctor told
them not to worry as it was only ______ fat.
A. kitten B. puppy C. piglet D. duckling
Question 19. Vietnam makes many key containment decisions in a ______ of days, which may
take weeks for governments in other countries to make.
A. matter B. trouble C. situation D. amount

questions.
Question 20. In spite of the medical advances of recent years, AIDS is basically as fatal as
ever before.
A. curable
B. painful
C. deadly
D. disabling
Question 21. Many scientists believe that the functions of self-driving cars will change the
nature of traffic.
A. services
B. influences
C. roles
D. popularity

questions.
Question 22. In some countries, guests tend to feel they are not highly regarded if the
invitation to a dinner party is extended only three or four days before the party date.
A. admired
B. disrespected

C. worshipped
D. expected
Question 23. We racked our brains but we couldn’t come up with a solution.
A. thought quickly
B. considered carefully
C. thought very hard
D. positively changed

Question 24. A father and a son are talking on the phone.
- The son: “Dad, I’ve won a scholarship to study in the USA.”
- The father: “______.”
A. Congratulations! I’m proud of you B. Good luck
C. Come on. You can do it D. Let it be
Question 25. Alice and Mary have just finished watching a movie.
- Alice: “Endgame is such a wonderful movie”
- Mary: “______. It has many beautiful scenes and two main actors are really involved in their
roles.

A. I couldn’t agree more B. I don’t like your saying
C. I didn’t say anything D. I’m a huge fan of Marvel
from 26 to 30.
Teen spending
A large-scale study has been done by advertisers on the spending habits of today’s teenagers. It
has come up with some fascinating results. Girls across Europe ranging in age from 15 to 18
were interviewed. The researchers discovered that these girls want to be successful and
sophisticated and are willing to spend to (26) ______ the look they want — when they have the
money, that is!
Feeling confident is the most important factor when it comes to buying clothes. (27) ______
interesting piece of information coming out of the study is that German teenagers go for clothes
that are practical and comfortable, while British and French teenagers are more concerned about
appearance, (28) ______ they all agreed that the clothes should fit them properly. All the girls
(29) _______ were interviewed shop for clothes regularly, half of them buying something from
a department store or a large clothes shop at least once a month.
They also see it as a social (30) ______ and going round the shops with their friends is the main
way they learn what the latest trends are.
(Adapted from “Laser B2” by Malcomn Mann and Steve Taylor-Knowles)
Question 26. A. reach B. manage C. succeed D. achieve
Question 27. A. Many B. Another C. Few D. Other

Question 28. A. although B. so C. but D. for
Question 29. A. who B. whom C. which D. whose
Question 30. A. circumstance B. aspiration C. activity D. commitment
When we accept the evidence of our unaided eyes and describe the Sun as a yellow star, we
have summed up the most important single fact about it-at this moment in time.
It appears probably, however, that sunlight will be the color we know for only a negligibly
small part of the Sun's history. Stars, like individuals, age and change. As we look out into
space, we see around us stars at all stages of evolution. There are faint blood-red dwarfs so cool
that their surface temperature is a mere 4,000 degrees Fahrenheit, there are searing ghosts
blazing at 100,000 degrees Fahrenheit and almost too hot to be seen, for the great part of their
radiation is in the invisible ultraviolet range. Obviously, the "daylight" produced by any star
depends on its temperature; today(and for ages to come) our Sun is at about 10,000 degrees
Fahrenheit, and this means that most of the Sun's light is concentrated in the yellow band of the
spectrum, falling slowly in intensity toward both the longer and shorter light waves.
That yellow "hump" will shift as the Sun evolves, and the light of day will change accordingly.
It is natural to assume that as the Sun grows older, and uses up its hydrogen fuel-which it is now
doing at the spanking rate of half a billion tons a second- it will become steadily colder and
redder.
(Adapted from A collection of TOEFL Reading comprehension 4)
Question 31. What is the passage mainly about?

A. Faint dwarf stars B. The evolutionary cycle of the Sun
C. The Sun's fuel problem D. The dangers of invisible radiation
Question 32. The word “searing” in the 2nd paragraph is CLOSEST in meaning to_____
A. so strong B. far C. negligible D. unaided
Question 33. What does the word "it" in the last paragraph refer to_____ ?
A. yellow "hump" B. day C. Sun D. hydrogen fuel
Question 34. Why are very hot stars referred to as "ghosts"?
A. They are short- lived. B. They are mysterious.
C. They are frightening. D. They are nearly invisible
Question 35. Which of the following sentences is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The Sun’s history is still mysterious.
B. All the stars depend on the Sun for light.
C. The Sun is too hot to be seen by naked eyes.
D. The sun never uses up its hydrogen fuel.
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42
Modern civilization is heavily dependent on energy. Without reliable power sources, we

couldn’t operate machines, use transportation, communicate via the Internet, or do many other
things. Although everyone recognizes the importance of energy, deciding what kind of energy
the world should use in the future is not a simple task. The two leading candidates for this role
are green energy and nuclear energy.
Currently, most of the energy we use is derived from fossil fuels. Although this energy source
has got us this far, there are several problems with it. For starters, it is a finite resource which
is quickly running out. Some analysts have even estimated that the Earth could run out of coal
and oil within the next 50 years. Burning fossil fuels also creates large amount of pollution,
which is harmful to the environment. Although fossil fuels still provide the majority of our
power, governments are seeking better energy sources to use going forward.
Green energy is one option that is becoming increasingly attractive. It includes technologies
such as solar, wind, and hydro power. These are seen as clean sources of energy because they
cause very little pollution. In addition, they are completely renewable, so there is no danger that
it will run out. The major disadvantage with green energy sources is that they are not cheap.
The other alternative is nuclear power. Like green energy, it is also a renewable source of
power that will not run out, and it also doesn’t produce air pollution. In addition, nuclear power
is more reliable than green energy, as it doesn’t depend on sunshine, rain, or wind to operate.
The major issues with nuclear power are safety concerns and nuclear waste. Nuclear power
plants create a considerable amount of nuclear waste which is extremely hazardous to people’s
health. If they happen to have a meltdown, this could destroy the surrounding area for years to
come.
The recent nuclear disaster in Fukushima, Japan brought this reality into the spotlight once
again. In response, Germany announced it would close down eight of its nuclear plants
immediately, and close the rest by 2022. Meanwhile, other nations refuse to give up on nuclear
power, stating that these disasters are rare. The debate of whether to use green or nuclear power
will likely continue for some time. In the end, it is quite possible that both energy sources will
be used to fuel our planet.

(Adapted from Intensive Reading Comprehension Skills)
Question 36. What is the main focus of the passage?
A. Why energy is important
B. The energy sources used in the past
C. Comparing future energy solutions
D. Discussing how disasters affect power sources
Question 37. The word “finite” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. abundant B. limited C. insufficient D. replaceable
Question 38. According to the passage, what is the main problem with green energy?
A. It creates lots of pollution.
B. It costs more money than other solutions.
C. No one is interested in using it.
D. It won’t work at all in many nations.
Question 39. The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. source of power B. alternative power
C. green energy D. nuclear power
Question 40. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

A. Fossil fuels will continue to be the best choice for the future.
B. Nuclear energy will outweigh green energy in the near future.
C. It is easy to decide on the energy solution for the future.
D. A mix of different energy sources will be used in the future.
Question 41. The word “spotlight” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. concern B. attention C. danger D. area of light
Question 42. It can be inferred from the passage that ______.
A. nuclear power is more expensive than other sources
B. nuclear energy is renewable because it can be replenished
C. nations have different viewpoints about the utility of nuclear power
D. the nuclear disaster in Fukushima made other countries give up on nuclear power
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the

underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Did you invited them to your wedding party last week?
Question 44. All the teachers paid the student compliments on their performance in the English-
speaking contest.
Question 45. Nutritious disorders can affect any system in the body and the senses of sight, taste,
and smell.


Question 46. The last time Susan met me was 2 weeks ago.
A. Susan met me for 2 weeks.
B. Susan has met me for 2 weeks.
C. Susan hasn’t met me for 2 weeks.
D. Susan didn’t meet me 2 weeks ago.
Question 47. "You mustn't go out with bad friends," he said to his son.
A. He accused his son of going out with bad friends.
B. He warned his son about going out with bad friends.
C. He stopped his son from going out with bad friends.
D. He apologized to his son for going out with bad friends.
Question 48. You are obliged to show your ID card when you enter this place.
A. You may show your ID card when you enter this place.
B. You must show your ID card when you enter this place.
C. You had better show your ID card when you enter this place.
D. You can show your ID card when you enter this place.


Question 49. I don’t have enough money. I want to buy that house.
A. If only I had enough money and could buy that house.
B. I wish I have enough money to buy that house.
C. Unless I had enough money, I would buy that house.
D. As long as I have enough money, I won’t buy that house.
Question 50. I got myself comfortable and closed my eyes. Shortly after that, I heard the sound
of the alarm.
A. Scarcely had I got myself comfortable and closed my eyes, I heard the sound of the alarm.
B. Not until I hardly heard the sound of the alarm did I get myself comfortable and close my
eyes.
C. Hardly had I got myself comfortable and closed my eyes when I heard the sound of the alarm.
D. Only when I heard the sound of the alarm did I get myself comfortable and closed my eyes.
ĐÁP ÁN
ĐỀ 3
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined

part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. tells B. talks C. stays D. steals
Question 2: A. final B. survival C. reliable D. liberty
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. parent B. attempt C. women D. campus
Question 4: A. vacancy B. delicious C. calculate D. furniture
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5: Working hours will fall to under 35 hours a week, ____________ ?
A. will they B. won't they C. won't it D. will it
Question 6: Ann offered_____________ after our children while we were out.
A. look B. to look C. looking D. look to
Question 7: They____________very sad if they heard that news from you.
A. would be B. were C. would have been D. has been
Question 8: Mr. Green____________ English in this school since he graduated from university
in 1986.
A. teaches B. taught C. has taught D. had taught
Question 9: ___________ the storm, the ship couldn't reach its destination on time.
A. Because of B. Incase of C. In spite of D. But for
Question 10: By the time you come here tomorrow, the work ___ _______.
A. will have been finishing B. will be finishing
C. will have been finished D. will be finished
Question 11: Instead ____________ petrol, cars will only run _____________ solar energy and
electricity.
A. of – on B. of - by C. in - over D. from – upon
Question 12: The device was the most important navigation instrument____________ in the
last millennium.
A. to be invented B . inventing C. being invented D. to invent

Question 13: WHO's main activities are carrying out research on medical _____________ and
improving international health care.
A. develop B. developing C. development D. develops
Question 14: Everybody in the house woke up when the burglar alarm ____.
A. went out B. went off C. came about D. rang off
Question 15: The players’ protestsn ___________ no difference to the referee’s decision at
all.
A. did B. made C. caused D. created
Question 16: The ____________ disagreed with the referee's decision and interrupted the
football match.
A. viewers B. audience C. spectators D. onlookers
Question 17: Please send a reply to the wedding invitation in order to____________ your
attendance.
A. guarantee B. assure C. confirm D. reassure
Question 18: Someone stopped me on the street and offered to sell me a gold watch for five
dollars. I could ____________ a rat.
A. taste B. see C. think D. smell
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: His new work has enjoyed a very good review from critics and readers.
A. opinion B. viewing C. look D. regard
Question 20: We have lived there for years and grown fond of the surroundings. That is
why we don’t want to leave.
A. loved the surroundings B. possessed by the surroundings
C. haunted by the surroundings D. planted many trees in the surroundings
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
Question 21: With the advent of the Vietnam War, the Air Force wanted a system to help it
navigate over the jungles of Southeast Asia.
A. disappearance B. arrival C. development D. emergence
Question 22: Some bacteria are beneficial since they stimulate plant life through food
decomposition.
A. helpful B. harmful C. valuable D. healthy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 23: - John: "You have a good voice! You sang so beautifully!"
- Linda: “_____________”
A. Don't joke me B. Your compliment isn't correct
C. Your compliment is encouraging D. Better than you are thinking
Question 24: - Andy: “I think it is a good idea to have three or four generations living under
one roof.” - Bob: “ ____________. Family members can help each other a lot.”
A. It's not true B. That's wrong C. I couldn't agree more D. I don't agree
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word for each of the blanks from 25 to 29.
Most adults struggle to recall events from their first few years of life and now scientists have
identified exactly when these childhood memories are lost forever. A new study into childhood
amnesia has found that it tends to take (25)___________around the age of seven.
The rapid decline of memories persisting while children are five and six is owing to the change
in the way memories are formed.
Before the age of seven, children tend to have an (26) ___________form of recall with no sense
of time and place in their memories. In older children, however, the early recollected events
tend to be more adult like in their content and the way they are formed. Faster rate of forgetting
in children and higher turnover of memories means early memories are less likely to survive.
(27) ___________ , memories of younger children tend to lack autobiographical
narrative leading to a process known as “retrieval induced forgetting” (28) ___________the
action of remembering causes other information to be forgotten. Consequently, if childhood

memories can survive into the ninth or tenth year of life, they may stay a chance of (29)
___________it into adulthood.
Question 25: A. affect B. effective C. effect D. effectively
Question 26: A. unbalanced B. immature C. insufficient D. irrational
Question 27: A. Besides B. However C. Therefore D. Otherwise
Question 28: A. whom B. which C. when D. where
Question 29: A. turning B. making C. transferring D. getting
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
Although most universities in the United States are on a semester system, which offers classes
in the fall and spring, some schools observe a quarter system comprised of fall, winter, spring,
and summer quarters. The academic year, September to June, is divided into three quarters of
eleven weeks each beginning in September, January, and March; the summer quarter, June to
August, is composed of shorter sessions of vary length.
There are several advantages and disadvantages to the quarter system. On the plus side,
students who wish to complete their degrees in less than the customary four years may take
advantage of the opportunity to study year round by enrolling in all four quarters. In addition,
although most students begin their programs in the fall quarter, they may enter at the beginning
of any other quarters. Finally, since the physical facilities are kept in operation year round, the
resources are used effectively to serve the greatest number of students. But there are several
disadvantages as well. Many faculty complain that eleven-week term is simply not enough for
them to cover the material required by most college courses. Students also find it difficult to
complete the assignments in such a short period of time.
In order to combine the advantages of the quarter system with those of the semester system
some colleges and universities have instituted a three-term trimester system. In fourteen weeks,
faculty and students have more time to cover material and finish course requirements, but the
additional term provides options for admission during the year and accelerates the degree
programs for those students who wish to graduate early.

Question 30: Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
A. The Semester System B. The Academic Year
C. Universities in the United States D. The Quarter System
Question 31: The word "customary" in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by_____________
A. traditional B. agreeable C. limited D. length
Question 32: When may students begin studying in a school that uses a quarter system?
A. Summer semester only B. At the beginning of the academic year
C. At the beginning of any quarter D. September
Question 33: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to_____________
A. material B. faculty C. courses D. weeks
Question 34: Which of the following characteristics does NOT apply to trimesters?
A. They provide more options for admission.
B. They allow students to graduate early.
C. They last eleven weeks.
D. They are long enough to cover the course material
In the history of technology, computers and calculators were innovative developments. They
are essentially different from all other machines because they have a memory. This memory
stores instructions and information. In a calculator, the instructions are the various functions of
arithmetic, which are permanently remembered by the machine and cannot be altered or added
to. The information consists of the numbers which are keyed in.
An electronic pocket calculator can perform almost instant arithmetic. A calculator requires an
input unit to feed in numbers, a processing unit to make the calculation, a memory unit, and an
output unit to display the result. The calculator is powered by a small battery or by a panel of
solar cells. Inside is a microchip that contains the memory and processing units and also
controls the input unit, which is the keyboard, and the output unit, which is the display.
The input unit has keys for numbers and operations. Beneath the key is a printed circuit board
containing a set of contacts for each key. Pressing a key closes the contacts and sends a signal
along a pair of lines in the circuit board to the processing unit, in which the binary code for that
key is stored in the memory. The processing unit also sends the code to the display. Each key is
connected by a different pair of lines to the processing unit, which repeatedly checks the lines to
find out when a pair is linked by a key.
The memory unit stores the arithmetic instructions for the processing unit and holds the
temporary results that occur during calculation. Storage cells in the memory unit hold the binary
codes for the keys that have been pressed. The number codes, together with the operation code
for the plus key, are held in temporary cells until the processing unit requires them.
When the equal key is pressed, it sends a signal to the processing unit. This takes the
operation code - for example, addition - and the two numbers being held in the memory unit and
performs the operation on the two numbers. After the addition is done, the result goes to the
decoder in the calculator's microchip. This code is then sent to the liquid crystal display unit,
which shows the result, or output, of the calculation.
Question 35: What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To summarize the history of technology
B. To explain how a calculator works
C. To discuss innovative developments in technology
D. To compare computers and calculators with other machines
Question 36: The word “innovative” in paragraph 1 could best replaced by____________
A. revolutionary B. complicated C. important D. recent
Question 37: What can be inferred about machines that are not calculators or computers?
A. They are older than computers.
B. They are less expensive than computers.
C. They cannot store information in a memory.
D. They have simple memory and processing units.
Question 38: In what part of the calculator are the processing and memory units?
A. The output unit B. The solar cells C. The battery D. The microchip
Question 39: The word “contacts” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to____________
A. connections B. commands C. locations D. codes
Question 40: According to the passage, one function of the memory unit is____________
A. to control the keyboard
B. to send codes to the display unit
C. to alter basic arithmetic instructions
D. to store temporary results during calculation
Question 41: The word “This” in paragraph 5 refers to____________
A. the equal key B. the plus key
C. the memory unit D. the processing unit
Question 42: Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE about calculators?
A. Sending codes takes place only in the memory unit of a calculator.
B. Calculators and computers have a memory.
C. Calculators require a lot of instructions to operate quickly.
D. Pressing a key activates a calculator.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: A number of wild horses on Assateague is increasing, resulting in overgrazed
marsh and dune grasses.
A. A B. is C. resulting D. grasses
Question 44: The basic elements of public-opinion research are interviewers, questionnaires,
tabulating equipment, and to sample population.
A. basic elements B. are C. tabulating D. and to sample
Question 45: A professor of economy and history at our university has developed a new theory
of the relationship between historical events and financial crises.
A. financial crises B. relationship C. historical D. economy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: More petrol is consumed nowadays than ten years ago.
A. Not so much petrol was consumed ten years ago as nowadays.
B. Petrol consumption is going down nowadays.
C. We had more petrol ten years ago than we do nowadays.
D. We should consume as much petrol as possible.
Question 47: “Stop smoking or you’ll be ill,” the doctor told me.
A. I was ordered not to smoke to recover from illness.
B. The doctor advised me to give up smoking to avoid illness.
C. The doctor suggested smoking to treat illness.
D. I was warned against smoking a lot of cigarettes.
Question 48: You can take some photos at the park.
A. You are allowed to take some photos at the park.
B. You musn’t take some photos at the park.
C. You may have taken some photos at the park.
D. You need to take some photos at the park.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: My father gave us his money. We could manage our business successfully.
A. If we couldn’t have managed our business successfully, we would have had my father’s.
B. Without my father’s money, we could have managed our business successfully.
C. We could have managed our business successfully with my father’s money.
D. Had it not been for my father’s money, we couldn’t have managed our business
successfully.
Question 50: Mike became a father. He felt a strong sense of responsibility towards his
parents.
A. Were Mike to become a father himself, he would feel a strong sense of responsibility
towards his parents.
B. Only after Mike had become a father himself did he feel a strong sense of responsibility
C. Had Mike become a father himself, he would have felt a strong sense of responsibility
D. Not until he felt a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents did Mike become a
father himself.
ĐÁP ÁN
1-B 2-D 3-B 4-B 5-B 6-B 7-A 8-C 9-A 10-C
11-A 12-A 13-C 14-B 15-B 16-C 17-C 18-D 19-A 20-A
21-A 22-B 23-C 24-C 25-C 26-B 27-A 28-D 29-B 30-D
31-A 32-C 33-B 34-C 35-B 36-A 37-C 38-D 39-A 40-D
41-D 42-D 43-A 44-D 45-D 46-A 47-B 48-A 49-D 50-B
ĐỀ 4
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 1: A. circles B. symptoms C. areas D. complaints
Question 2: A. major B. native C. sailor D. applicant
Question 3: A. diverse B. desert C. sector D. willing
Question 4: A. conical B. sacrifice C. approval D. counterpart
Question 5: Michael rarely returns to his hometown, ______?
A. doesn't he B. hasn't he C. does he D. has he
Question 6: Tom denied_____________part in the fighting at school.
A. to take B. take C. to taking D. taking
Question 7: If Paul _______ a job now, he wouldn’t be so unhappy.
A. has B. has had C. had D. would have

Question 8: You should know that everyone in this office____________busy planning the
dance for a week.
A. is B. has been C. are D. have been
Question 9: ________ his poor English, he managed to communicate his problem very clearly.
A. Because B. Even though C. Because of D. In spite of
Question 10: _______ _______________, we had already put out the fire.
A. Until the firemen arrived to help B. No sooner the firemen arrived to help
C. By the time the firemen arrived to help D. After the firemen arrived to help
Question 11: I assume that you are acquainted ________this subject since you are responsible
________writing the accompanying materials.
A. to/for B. with/for C. to/to D. with/with
Question 12: The energy _______ from the sun is renewable and environmentally-friendly.
A. harnessing B. is harnessed C. which harnessed D. harnessed
Question 13: He has been very interested in doing research on___________since he was at
high school.
A. biology B. biological C. biologist D. biologically
Question 14: I applied for the job but was___________.
A. taken away B. got over C. turned down D. turned off
Question 15: Could you me a lift into town?
A. give B. get C. do D. make

Question 16: I think we’ve come in for a lot of about the
impatience of some shop assistants.
A. compliments B. problems C. complaints D. criticism
Question 17: I used to be nervous when my father asked me to give him my school _________.
A. diploma B. certificate C. report D. background
Question 18: The opposition will be elected into government at the next election, without
a____________ of a doubt.
A. shadow B. benefit C. shade D. hue

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaaningto the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 19: That is the instance where big, obvious non-verbal signals are appropriate
A. matter B. place C. attention D. situation
Question 20: I just want to stay at home and watch TV and take it easy.
A. relax B. sit down C. sleep D. eat
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 21: In a study, more Asian students than American students hold a belief that a
husband is obliged to tell his wife his whereabouts if he comes home late.
A. urged B. free C. required D. suggested
Question 22: The nominating committee always meet behind closed doors, lest its
deliberations become known prematurely.
A. dangerously B. safely C. privately D. publicly
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 23: Jenny: “Wow! What a nice coat you are wearing!”
Peter: “___________”
A. Thanks. My mother bought it for me. B. Certainly. Do you like it, too?
C. I like you to say that. D. Yes, of course. It’s expensive.
Question 24: Linda and Janet are talking about family living under one roof.
Linda: “I think it’s a good idea to have three or four generations living under one roof. They
can help one another.”
Janet: “___________. Many old-aged parents like to lead independent life in a nursing home.”
A. It’s nice to hear that B. Me, too.
C. I agree with you completely D. That’s not true
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 25 to 29.
Culture has a strong influence on non-verbal communication. Even the simple act of looking
someone in the eye is not at all that simple. In the USA, Americans are (25) ____________to
look directly at people when speaking to them. It shows interest in what they are saying and is
thought to carry a (26) ____________of honesty. Meanwhile, in Japan and Korea, people
avoid long periods of eye contact. It is considered more polite to look to the side during a
conversation. The Lebanese, (27) ____________, stand close together and look intensely into
each other's eyes. The action shows sincerity and gives people a better sense of what their
counterparts want. Given such differences with even the most common expressions, people
(28) ____________ travel or work abroad have a real need to learn the other culture's
body language. People tend to be unaware of the messages they are sending to others. So, it is
(29) ____________to consider your own body language before dealing with people from
other cultures. Knowing about the body language of friends, clients, and colleagues can be
very helpful in improving understanding and avoiding miscommunication.
Question 25: A. encouraged B. assisted C. forbidden D. opposed
Question 26: A. sense B. taste C. sound D. touch
Question 27: A. therefore B. in addition C. in contrast D. moreover
Question 28: A. who B. where C. which D. whose
Question 29: A. usefulness B. useful C. useless D. used
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
THE MAN BOOKER PRIZE
The Man Booker Prize for Fiction is awarded annually for full-length novels of writers from
the Commonwealth or the Republic of Ireland with a view to representing the very best in
contemporary fiction. The prestigious prize was originally called the Booker-McConnell Prize,
the name of the sponsor company; however, it was better-known as the 'Booker Prize. In 2002,
the name was modified when Man Group became the sponsor and they keep the word 'Booker?
Books from publishers can be submitted for consideration for the prize. In addition, the
judges can sometimes send inviations to authors if they think the books should be included.
Initially, the Advisory Committee give advice if there are any changes to the rules for the prize.
Then, the people who will judge the books will be selected. There is an annual change in the
judging panel and usually an individual is only a judge once.
The organizers also made great efforts to ensure that the judging panel is balanced in terms
of gender and professions. Normally, a writer, a critic, an editor and an academic are chosen
along with a celebrity from wider society. Nevertheless, when the panel of judges has been
confirmed, they are left to make their own decisions without any further involvement or
intervention from the sponsor.
The Booker Prize is highly appreciated because it rewards the finest in fiction, features great
books to readers and transforms authors' careers. The influence of the prize is so huge that the
winner will almost certainly see the sales increase considerably, along with the £50,000 that
comes with the prize.
Question 30: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. the most well-known contemporary books B. a prestigious award in literature
C. the sponsor of the Man Booker prize D. the judging panel of a book prize
Question 31: The word “modified" in paragraph 1, is CLOSEST in meaning to____________
A. changed B. grasp C. allocate D. allowed
Question 32: All of the followings are true about the judges of Man Booker Prize EXCEPT
that____________
A. they may invite authors of the books which are appropriate for the prize
B. judges are selected every year
C. judges do different jobs in the society
D. their deicisons are affected by the sponsors
Question 33: What will happen to the writer after they win the prize?
A. They will become a member of the judging board next year.
B. There will be an upsurge in the sales of their books.
C. They will have huge influence in the publishing world.
D. All of their book will be highly appreciated.

Question 34: What does the word "it" in the first paragraph refer to?
A. The Booker-McConnell Prize B. The sponsor company
C. The best contemporary fiction D. The Man group
Read the following passage and Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 35 to 42.
While watching sports on TV, the chances are children will see professional players
cheating, having tantrums, fighting, or abusing officials. In addition, it’s highly likely that
children will be aware of well-known cases of sportspeople being caught using drugs to
improve their performance. The danger of all this is that it could give children the idea that
winning is all that counts and you should win at all costs. Good behavior and fair play aren’t the
message that comes across. Instead, it looks as if cheating and bad behavior are reasonable
ways of getting what you want. This message is further bolstered by the fact that some of these
sportspeople acquire enormous fame and wealth, making it seem they are being handsomely
rewarded either despite or because of their bad behavior.
What can parents do about this? They can regard sport on television as an opportunity to
discuss attitudes and behavior with their children. When watching sports together, if parents see
a player swearing at the referee, they can get the child’s opinion on that behavior and discuss
whether a player’s skill is more important than their behavior. Ask what the child thinks the
player’s contribution to the team is. Point out that no player can win a team game on their own,
so it’s important for members to work well together.
Another thing to focus on is what the commentators say. Do they frown on bad behavior
from players, think it’s amusing or even consider it’s a good thing? What about the officials? If
they let players get away with a clear foul, parents can discuss with children whether this is
right and what effect it has on the game. Look too at the reactions of coaches and managers. Do
they accept losing with good grace or scowl and show a bad attitude? Parents can use this to
talk about attitudes to winning and losing and to remind children that both are part of sport.
However, what children learn from watching sports is by no means all negative and
parents should make sure they accentuate the positives too. They should emphasise to children
the high reputation that well-behaved players have, not just with their teammates but also with
spectators and the media. They can focus on the contribution made by such players during a
game, discussing how valuable they are in the team. In the interviews after a game, point out to
a child that the well-behaved sportspeople don’t gloat when they win or sulk when they lose.
And parents can stress how well these people conduct themselves in their personal lives and the
good work they do for others when not playing. In other words, parents should get their children
to focus on the positive role models, rather than the antics of the badly behaved but often more
publicized players.
(Adapter from “New English File – Advanced” by Will Maddox)
Question 35: Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The importance of team spirit in sport
B. The influence of model sportspeople on children
C. Moral lessons for children from watching sports
D. Different attitudes toward bad behavior in sport
Question 36: The word “bolstered” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. inspired. B. represented. C. energized. D. reinforced.
Question 37: According to paragraph 1, misconduct exhibited by players may lead children to
think that _______.
A. it is an acceptable way to win the game. B. it is necessary in almost any game.
C. it brings about undesirable results. D. it is disadvantageous to all concerned.
Question 38: According to paragraph 2, what should parents teach their children through
watching sports?
A. Cheating is frowned upon by the majority of players.
B. A team with badly-behaved players will not win a game.
C. A player’s performance is of greater value than his behavior.
D. Collaboration is fundamental to any team’s success.

Question 39: The word “accentuate” in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by _______.
A. highlight. B. embolden. C. consolidate. D. actualize.
Question 40: The word “They” in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. children. B. spectators. C. teammates. D. parents.
Question 41: Which of the following about sport is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Misconduct from sportspeople may go unpunished despite the presence of officials.
B. A well-behaved player enjoys a good reputation among his teammates, spectators and the
media.
C. Reactions of coaches and managers when their teams lose a game may be of educational
value.
D. Many sportspeople help others so as to project good images of themselves.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The media tend to turn the spotlight more on sportspeople’s wrongdoings than on their
good deeds.
B. The well-behaved players in a game invariably display desirable conducts when not
playing.
C. Players with good attitudes make a greater contribution to their teams’ budgets than others.
D. Well-mannered players sometimes display strong emotions after winning or losing a game.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Air pollution, together with littering, are causing many problems in our large,
industrial world.
A. with B. are C. many D. in our large

Question 44: Below are some pieces of advice that can help you reduce the feeling of pressure
and creating a good impression on your interviewer.
A. are B. you reduce C. creating D. on
Question 45: Many successful film directions are former actors who desire to expand their
experience in the film industry.

A. successful B. film directions C. former D. expand
Question 46: In Vietnam, football is more popular than basketball.
A. In Vietnam, basketball is not as popular as football.
B. In Vietnam, basketball is more popular than football.
C. In Vietnam, football is not as popular as basketball.
D. In Vietnam, football is as popular as basketball
Question 47: “Would you like to come out to dinner with me tonight, Jenny?” Paul said.
A. Paul suggested that Jenny go out to dinner with him that night.
B. Paul insisted on Jenny going out to dinner with him that night.
C. Paul invited Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night.
D. Pau offered Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night
Question 48: I'm sure Luisa was very disappointed when she failed the exam.
A. Luisa must be very disappointed when she failed the exam.
B. Luisa must have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.
C. Luisa may be very disappointed when she failed the exam.
D. Luisa could have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: Dan is able to make English instruction videos for Vietnamese people. It is
because his Vietnamese wife helps him.
A. If only Dan were able to make English instruction videos for Vietnamese people.
B. If it weren’t for his Vietnamese wife’s help, Dan couldn’t make English instruction
videos for Vietnamese people.
C. Without his Vietnamese wife’s help, Dan couldn’t have made English instruction videos
for Vietnamese people.
D. But for his Vietnamese wife’s help, Dan couldn’t have made English instruction videos
for Vietnamese people.
Question 50: Seth informed us of his retirement from the company. He did it when arriving at
the meeting.
A. Only after his retiring from the company did Seth tell us about his arrival at the meeting.
B. Not until Seth said to us that he would leave the company did he turn up at the meeting
C. Hardly had Seth notified us of his retiring from the company when he arrived at the
meeting.
D. No sooner had Seth arrived at the meeting than we were told about his leaving the
company.
Đáp án
1-D 2-D 3-A 4-C 5-C 6-D 7-C 8-B 9-D 10-C
11-B 12-D 13-A 14-C 15-A 16-D 17-C 18-A 19-D 20-A
21-B 22-D 23-A 24-D 25-A 26-A 27-C 28-A 29-B 30-B
31-A 32-D 33-B 34-A 35-C 36-D 37-A 38-D 39-A 40-D
41-D 42-A 43-B 44-C 45-B 46-A 47-C 48-B 49-B 50-D
ĐỀ 5

Question 1. A. repaired B. faced C. cried D. defined
Question 2. A. map B. face C. table D. cake

Question 3. A. parent B. police C. women D. dinner
Question 4. A. contrary B. graduate C. document D. attendance

Question 5. Your younger brother is determined to succeed, ______ ?
A. doesn't he B. wasn't he C. didn't he D. isn't he
Question 6. More than ten missing people ______ yet.
A. haven’t been found B. found C. isn’t found D. had found
Question 7. The basic design of the car is very similar ______ that of earlier models.
A. in B. with C. to D. of
Question 8. The older the man gets, ______ he becomes.
A. the weakest B. weakest C. the weaker D. weaker
Question 9. Have you seen that ______ invention?
A. fantastic new Italian B. new fantastic Italian
C. new Italian fantastic D. Italian new fantastic
Question 10. He fell down when he ______ towards the church.
A. ran B. runs C. was running D. is running

Question 11. ______ she was no more than twenty-two, she was already a highly successful
businesswoman.
A. Because B. Despite C. Because of D. Though
Question 12. All the preparations for the party will have been made ______.
A. before the guests will come B. as soon as the guests had come
C. once the guests came D. by the time the guests come
Question 13. ______ in hospital for several weeks, she was delighted to be home.
A. Being B. Been C. To be D. Having been
Question 14. I______ think that we should do something immediately to change the situation
we are in.
A. person B. personal C. personally D. personality
Question 15. He is disappointed at not being offered the job, but I think he will ______ it.
A. turn off B. get over C. fill in D. take after
Question 16. He was forced to _______ his pride and asked if he could have his old job back.
A. vomit B. digest C. swallow D. chew
Question 17. The photographer took a picture of the deer the moment it came into ________.
A. place B. sight C. light D. scene
Question 18. My neighbors’ loud music every night is driving me up the ______.

A. ground B. wall C. stair D. roof
Question 19. The growth in employment and wages gives consumers some spending ______ to
absorb the higher cost of energy.
A. energy B. force C. ability D. power

questions.
Question 20. That matter is so confidential that it must not be discussed outside the office of
chief inspector.
A. secret B. intricate C. important D. alarming
Question 21. It is believed that they have kept the traditional family values for years.
A. favorite B. national C. conventional D. important

questions.
Question 22. I think it's impossible to abolish school examinations. They are necessary to
evaluate students’ progress.
A. stop B. extinguish C. continue D. organize
Question 23. William, the last of the Herondale children, had finally gone around the bend
and burned the house down

A. insane B. mad C. calm D. lunatic

Question 24. John is talking to Peter about the household chores in his family.
- John: “How often does your father do the washing up?”
- Peter: “______.”
A. Not too expensive B. Not so often C. By hand D. About 4 kilometers
Question 25. Jennifer and Katherine are talking about markets.
- Jennifer: “I believe that supermarkets are much better than traditional markets.”
- Katherine: “______. Each has its own features.”
A. I couldn’t agree with you more. B. That’s completely true.
C. I disagree with you. D. I can’t help thinking the same.
from 26 to 30.
National parks
You realise how truly incredible the natural environment is when you take a trip to one of the
world’s national parks. To be eligible for national park (26) ______, a place must possess a
unique natural, cultural or recreational resource and be considered in need of protection.

Fortunately, a considerable number of natural gems have been designated (27) ______ national
parks and some are also World Heritage sites.
From hot springs to snowy peaks, these postcard-worthy destinations could definitely be
on your list of places to visit. Many are also home to (28) ______ pretty amazing flora and
fauna. The parks are extremely popular with outdoor enthusiasts, who can indulge in their
favourite activities like hiking or rafting, surrounded by nature. The largest national park in the
world isn’t easily (29) ______, being in a remote area of Greenland and boasting a permanent
population of zero. It’s also not used to receiving visitors (around 500 a year). This is a long
way from the estimated 11 million tourists (30) ______ flock to the Great Smoky Mountains of
North Carolina and Tennessee in the United States
(Adapted from “Cambridge English Exam Booster for Advanced” by Carole Allsop, Mark
Little and Anne Robinson)
Question 26. A. status B. position C. station D. state
Question 27. A. although B. but C. as D. despite
Question 28. A. one B. some C. another D. much
Question 29. A. accessible B. obtainable C. available D. attainable
Question 30. A. whose B. which C. who D. whom
The modern age is an age of electricity. People are so used to electric lights, radio, televisions,
and telephones that it is hard to imagine what life would be like without them. When there is a

power failure, people grope about in flickering candlelight. Cars hesitate in the streets because
there are no traffic lights to guide them, and food spoils in silent refrigerators.
Yet, people began to understand how electricity works only a little more than two centuries ago.
Nature has apparently been experimenting in this field for millions of years. Scientists are
discovering more and more that the living world may hold many interesting secrets of
electricity that could benefit humanity.
All living cells sent out tiny pulses of electricity. As the heart beats, it sends out pulses of
recorded electricity; they form an electrocardiogram, which a doctor can study to determine
how well the heart is working. The brain, too, sends out brain waves of electricity, which can be
recorded in an electroencephalogram. The electric currents generated by most living cells are
extremely small-of-ten so small that sensitive instruments are needed to record them. But in
some animals, certain muscle cells have become so specialized as electrical generators that
they do not work as muscle cells at all. When large numbers of these cells are linked together,
the effects can be astonishing.
The electric eel is an amazing storage battery. It can send a jolt of as much as eight hundred
volts of electricity through the water in which it lives. An electric house current is only one
hundred twenty volts.) As many as four fifths of all the cells in the electric eel’s body are
specialized for generating electricity, and the strength of the shock it can deliver corresponds
roughly to the length of its body.
(Adapted from A collection of TOEFL Reading comprehension 4)
Question 31. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Electric eels are potentially dangerous
B. Biology and electricity appear to be closely related

C. People would be at a loss without electricity
D. Scientists still have much to discover about electricity
Question 32. It can be inferred from the passage that the longer an eel is the________.
A. more beneficial it will be to science B. more powerful will be its electrical charge
C. easier it will be to find D. tougher it will be to eat
Question 33. The word “tiny” in the 3rd paragraph is Closest in meaning to _____
A. big B. close C. small D. amazing
Question 34. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ________
A. muscle cells B. animals C. generators D. numbers
Question 35. The author mentions all of the following as results of a blackout EXCEPT____
A. refrigerated food items may go bad B. traffic lights do not work
C. people must rely on candlelight D. elevators and escalators do not function
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42
Throughout history, various people have demonstrated a high degree of confidence in the ability
of certain animals to predict the weather. It may seem surprising today in view of the complex
equipment now involved in weather forecasting to understand that in certain cases, the behavior
of animals does indeed provide an indication of inclement weather. Sensitivity of certain
animals to falling air pressure or to low-frequency sound waves that humans cannot hear, which

are indicators of approaching storms, causes behaviors in animals that certain societies have
come to recognize as predictors of storms.
A number of animals are remarkably sensitive to variations in air pressure, and some of these
animals show consistent, noticeable, and predictable behaviors as air pressure drops before a
storm hits. When the air pressure drops before a storm, some animals move closer to the ground
to equalize the pressure in their ears: some birds such as swallows tend to stay on the ground or
roost in trees instead of soaring in the skies when a storm is imminent because of the
decreasing air pressure. Other animals make more noise than usual as air pressure drops: an
unusual amount of quacking by ducks and a high volume of croaking by frogs are both
indicators that are believed to occur because of the high degree of sensitivity of ducks and
frogs to the change in pressure. Finally, still other animals become more active before storms as
a reaction to the falling air pressure: dolphins and porpoises seem to be taking part in a frenzied
sort of play, and bees and ants become more active prior to storms, most likely because of their
sensitivity to lower pressure.
There is good reason to believe that the fact that these animal behaviors seem to occur regularly
prior to storms may have a scientific basis and that the animals demonstrating these behaviors
may actually be good short-range weather forecasters. However, their ability to predict long-
range weather patterns is rather suspect. Certain proverbs, for example, are based on what is
most likely the idea that squirrels are good indicators of long-range weather patterns. One
proverb indicates that, if a squirrel seems busier than usual in gathering nuts, then a long and
cold winter is on its way; however, this behavior in squirrels is more likely due to a large supply
of nuts available for gathering, which occurs because of earlier good weather, and is not an
indicator of cold weather to come. Another proverb about squirrels indicates that if a squirrel
grows a long and bushy tail in the fall, then a particularly harsh winter is on its way; in this case
too, the squirrel develops a long and bushy tail because of earlier good weather and not as a
warning of bad weather to come.

(Adapted from TOEFL Reading Practice by Deborah Philips)
Question 36. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Animals as weather forecasters. B. Signs of a weather condition.
C. Proverbs of weather. D. Study of animal behaviors.
Question 37. The word “inclement” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _____
A. local B. stormy C. favored D. stable
Question 38. Which of the following happens when air pressure drops before a storm?
A. Swallows soar in the sky.
B. Ducks suddenly fall silent.
C. Frogs gather together in large groups.
D. Ants move around more frantically than usual.
Question 39. The word “roost” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____
A. feed B. communicate C. grow D. settle
Question 40. The word “that” in paragraph 2 refers to ____
A. a high volume B. croaking frogs C. indicators D. other animals
Question 41. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Some animals can predict weather for a season.

B. Squirrels are not good weather predictors.
C. Many animals change their behaviors shortly before a storm.
D. Many animals change their behaviors shortly before a storm.
Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from passage?
A. There is a scientific basis for the belief that certain behaviors in animals influence the paths
taken by thunderstorms.
B. Short-range weather forecasts have become increasingly more successful in predicting

thunderstorms.
C. Scientists are studying the possibility that certain animal behaviors may occur during storms.
D. Quite possibly there are scientific reasons why animals act in certain ways before storms.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the

underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Voters nationwide go (A) to the polls on (B) May 23, 2021 to elect (C) deputies to
the new National Assembly and People's Council members of all levels (D).
Question 44. Gamification has been shown to be tremendously (A) effective, both in (B)
educational settings, e-learning settings and even for (C) corporate companies using them (D)
to train employees.
Question 45. A new educational (A) programme has been established for economically (B)
disadvantageous (C) children in remote (D) areas.


Question 46. The last time Susan went to school by bike was one year ago.
A. Susan went to school by bike for one year.
B. Susan didn’t go to school by bike one year ago.
C. Susan hasn’t gone to school by bike for one year.
D. Susan has gone to school by bike for one year.
Question 47. "It's me. I broke your vase." Jane said to Ann.
A. Jane accused Ann of breaking her vase. B. Ann prevented Jane from breaking her vase.
C. Jane denied breaking Ann's vase. D. Jane admitted breaking Ann’s vase.
Question 48. It’s possible for us to borrow books from the school library.
A. We must borrow books from the school library.
B. We can borrow books in the school library.
C. We have to borrow books from the school library.
D. We should borrow books from the school library.

Question 49. He isn’t qualified. He is not given important tasks.

A. He wished he hadn’t been qualified and wouldn’t have been given important tasks.
B. If he were qualified, he would never be given important tasks.
C. If only he were qualified and wouldn’t be given important tasks.
D. He wishes he were qualified and would be given important tasks.
Question 50. The first-time voters casted a ballot for their preferred candidates. They were
aware of the citizen rights and responsibilities then.
A. Without an election to vote for their preferred candidates, the first-time voters couldn't be
aware of the citizen rights and responsibilities.
B. Until they were aware of the citizen rights and responsibilities did the first-time voters cast a
ballot for their preferred candidate.
C. Only when the first-time voters casted a ballot for their preferred candidate were they aware
of the citizen rights and responsibilities.
D. No sooner had they been aware of the citizen rights and responsibilities than the first-time
voters cast a ballot for their preferred candidate.
ĐÁP ÁN
ĐỀ 6
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. believes B. dreams C. girls D. parents

Question 2: A. nature B. manage C. balance D. campfire

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. suggest B. involve C. travel D. sustain
Question 4: A. disappear B. arrangement C. opponent D. contractual
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: Nobody phoned while I was out, _________ ?
A. wasn’t I B. was I C. did they D. didn’t they
Question 6: She made as if ____________ but then stopped.
A. to speak B. speaking C. spoken D. speak
Question 7: If we _____ the local people to hunt endangered species for our consumption, they
would become extinct sooner.
A. allow B. would allow C. were to allow D. were allowed
Question 8: We are very happy as we ___________ for this opportunity for more than three
years.
A. were waiting B. have been waiting C. waited D. are waiting
Question 9: ________ Jack has a new car, he no longer takes the commuter train to work every
day.
A. Because B. Because of C. As a result D. Although
Question 10: ____ his homework, he started to surf the social networks.
A. At the time he finished B. After he has finished
C. After he had finished D. By the time he finishes
Question 11: A generation gap or generational gap, is a difference ____ opinions between one
generation and another regarding beliefs, politics, or values.
A. in B. between C. of D. among
Question 12: Scientists ____ on the site found many ancient tools, tombs and pottery, and
made some important archaeological discoveries.
A. worked B. working C. to work D. to be working
Question 13: We will create a stable, prosperous and highly ____ ASEAN Economic
community.
A. compete B. competition C. competitor D. competitive
Question 14: The United States, China and India are now competing for political influence in
ASEAN, and France, a leading European country, does not want to be ___________.
A. left out B. put off C. thought of D. led on
Question 15: Ian has no difficulty in ____ into use the perfect plans his friends have prepared
for him.
A. lending B. taking C. putting D. heading
Question 16: Action movies may have a negative _________ on children.
A. opinion B. influence C. dependence D. decision
Question 17: All the applicants for the post are thoroughly ________ for their suitability.
A. searched B. vetted C. investigated D. scrutinized
Question 18: Parents are always willing to lend a sympathetic ________ to their children when
they have problems.
A. hand B. ear C. eye D. paw
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: Ha Long Bay has attracted millions of visitors who come to enjoy its
breathtaking views and experience other activities.
A. unbreathable B. heartbreaking C. awe-inspiring D. unforgettable
Question 20: In spite of poverty and dreadful conditions, they still manage to keep their self-
respect.
A. self-reliant B. self-restraint C. self-esteem D. self-assured
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
Question 21: Her graceful performance of this traditional art form in the evening session was a
real source of pleasure.
A. attractive B. effortless C. inelegant D. sophisticated

Question 22: Nam is considered to be the best student in our class because he's not only good at
learning but also well-informed about everything around the world.
A. perfectly-informed B. badly-informed
C. bad-informed D. ill-informed
completes each of the following exchanges
Question 23: A custom officer is talking to a client at the airport.
- Officer: “Welcome. Can I see your ticket, please? “
- Client: “___________________”
A. Yes, here you are. B. Can you tell me how to get to gate A22?
C. Thank you for all your help. D. Can I have a seat near the emergency exit?
Question 24: Two friends are talking with each other about a musical concert.
- A: “Hey, there is a musical concert in the park. Do you want to go seeing the band
play?”
- B: “___________________.”
A. How long ago did the band start playing at our park?
B. I am done with my homework; I can go.
C. Oh, I like all kinds of music as long as it is not Hard Rock.
D. My favorite is Rock and Roll music.
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Despite the wealth of information campaigns telling people about global warming and its causes,
(25) _______ people have yet to realize how severe the problem is. Coming climate changes
could alter as much as one third of plant and animal habitats by the end of the 22nd century.
These changes could in turn cause widespread extinctions among plant and animal species
around the globe.
Coastal and island habitats are perhaps in the greatest danger (26) _______ they face the
combined threats of warming oceans and rising sea levels. As habitats change, many animals
will come under intense pressure to find more suitable homes for themselves. Mass
(27)_______ of at least some animals are certainly to be expected, but the fact remains that
many animals will simply not be able to move fast enough.
Such dire predictions may sound alarmist, but they are based on the rather moderate estimate
that the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere will double by 2100. Many scientists
believe, however, (28)_______ this figure is actually very conservative, and they claim that a
tripling is far more realistic. If they are (29) ____, the effects on nature will be even more
dramatic.
(Source: https://www.nytimes.com/interactive/2017/climate)
Câu 25: A. almost B. most C. most of D. many of
Câu 26. A. although B. providing C. since D. therefore
Câu 27. A. migrations B. onslaught C. emigration D. extinctions
Câu 28: A. that B. which C. when D. whether
Câu 29. A. precise B. true C. exact D. correct
the correct answer to each of the questions.
In “How many hours does it take to make a friend?” (2018), Jeffrey A. Hall describes the
types of encounters that build a friendship.
His study found that hours of time spent together was linked with closer friendships, as was
time spent enjoying leisure activities together. Specifically, he found that the chance of making
a “casual friend,” as opposed to a mere acquaintance, was greater than 50 percent when people
spent approximately 43 hours together within three weeks of meeting. He further found that
casual friends evolve into friends at some point between 57 hours after three weeks, and 164
hours over three months. Hall's research also demonstrated, however, that when it comes to
time spent developing friendships, quality is more important than quantity. And when it comes
to conversation, topics matter. When it comes to building quality relationships, the duration of
conversation is not as important as the content. Meaningful conversation is the key to bonding
with others.
Hall found that when it comes to developing friendships, sharing daily life through catching
up and joking around promotes closeness; small talk does not. Consider the inane topics that
often come up when you are trapped in an elevator with an acquaintance. Discussing the
weather or speculating on how many stops you will make before finally reaching the lobby does
not facilitate bonding. Nor does mere proximity. Hall found that obligatory time spent together,
such as in a classroom or workplace, does not promote closeness. Friendships require an
efficient use of time together. Someone who remembers the details of your life and asks
questions about your family, your job, your latest vacation, etc., is much more likely on his or
her way to becoming someone you consider a friend, as opposed to an acquaintance.
(source: https://www.psychologytoday.com/)
Question 30. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The priceless gift of time B. The cluttered social life
C. A world of online acquaintances. D. From best friends to acquaintances.
Question 31. The word “he” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. classmate B. friend C. acquaintance D. Jeffrey
Question 32. According to paragraph 2, what conclusion can be drawn from the finding of
Jeffrey A. Hall?
A. Constant contact exhausting, the pressure to be positive all day long is draining.
B. Even in our fast-paced world, you can create friendships that truly last a lifetime.
C. Both quantity and quality of time spent together contribute to spark true friendships.
D. Individuals are motivated to engage in conversations that form and strengthen
relationships. Question 33. The word “inane” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. silly B. small C. regular D. normal
Question 34. According to paragraph 3, what kind of setting can foster real amity?
A. High-fiving with a stranger on the street. B. Travelling with your friend on
holiday.
C. Boarding the same lift as your neighbor. D. Discussing with classmate for the
class project.
For hundreds of years, giving flowers have been a social means of communication. In the
United States, flowers are often given during rites of passage, for commemorating special
occasions or as a heartfelt gift between loved ones and friends. Flower gifting also occurs in
most countries around the world. However, the meanings and traditions often vary.
While students traditionally gave their favorite teacher an apple in past years, in China, teachers
are given flowers. Peonies are by far the flower most often given in China. They are also quite
popularly used for weddings. Strangely, potted plants are not considered a pleasant gift among
Asian cultures. The people believe that like a plant confined by a pot, the gift symbolizes a
binding or restriction.
In Russia, in lieu of giving birthday presents, the guest of honor receives a single flower or an
unwrapped bouquet. Floral arrangements or baskets are not given. Russians celebrate a holiday
known as Woman’s Day. Traditional gifts include red roses, hyacinths or tulips. When there is a
funeral or other occasion where someone wishes to express sympathy, carnations, lilies or roses
are given in circular configurations, which signify the transition of birth, life and death to
rebirth. In this instance, the color of choice is commonly yellow. For joyous occasions,
arrangements and bouquets generally contain an odd number of flowers.
In the times of ancient Rome, brides carried flowers to scare away evil spirits and encourage
fertility. The Dutch believed that flowers were food for the soul. When invited to someone’s
home in Great Britain, it is tradition to bring a gift of flowers. All types are acceptable except
white lilies, which are usually seen at funerals. Not unlike the United States, red roses are a
symbol of love. Flowers are generally gifted in odd numbered increments regardless of the
occasion. However, the Brits also have superstitions regarding the number 13, so the number is
avoided.
In the southern region of the continent, flowers are traditionally given during Christmas.
Egyptians are much more conservative and restrict flower gifting to funerals and weddings.
While certain flowers may have significant meanings for some, flowers in Las Vegas and across
the United States flowers are an accepted gift for any reason desired.
(Source: http://www.flowersofthefieldlv.com/ )
Question 35. What does the topic mainly discuss?
A. The fascinating tradition of giving flowers.
B. The different meaning of flowers in different cultures.
C. The comparison of giving flowers between Asian and European cultures.
D. The kinds of flowers people often give others in different cultures.
Question 36. What does the word “They” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. Students B. Teachers C. Flowers D. Peonies
Question 37. Why should not you give a potted plant to an Asian?
A. Because the Asian prefer to be given flowers.
B. As this gift is often given at weddings in Asia.
C. Since this gift is believed to symbolize a binding and limitation in Asia.
D. Because the Asian students like to give an apple or flowers to others.
Question 38. According to the passage, the following flowers are given at Woman’s Day in
Russia, EXCEPT ___________.
A. red roses B. hyacinths C. tulips D. yellow roses
Question 39. What could the word “fertility” in paragraph 4 best be replaced by?
A. fecundity B. good spirit C. happiness D. loyalty
Question 40. The word “superstitions” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. deep-seated belief B. unfounded belief C. religious belief D. traditional belief
Question 41. In which country should not people bring white lilies to other houses?
A. China B. Russia C. Great Britain D. United States
Question 42. It can be inferred from the passage that ____________.
A. People can give flowers to the American in any occasion.
B. Egyptians are rather comfortable when receiving flowers at funerals and weddings.
C. Flowers given in Britain are in even numbers in any case.

D. At the funerals in any cultures, flowers are gifted in circular configurations.
Question 43: The introduction of the new species of plants into PhuQuoc island offer an
opportunity to study the response of a natural system to stress.
A. new species B. plants C. offer D. response
Question 44: A big wedding requires a lot of preparation, such as sending invitations, hiring
costumes and choose dishes.
A. requires B. preparation C. sending invitations D. choose
Question 45: Thanks to artificial intelligence, the phone's voice-recognition system converts
the sound into numerous data.
A. Thanks to B. voice-recognition C. converts D. numerous
meaning to each of the following questions
Question 46: The kitchen is bigger than the living room.
A. The living room is bigger than the kitchen
B. The kitchen is smaller than the living room.
C. The living room isn't as big as the kitchen.
D. The kitchen is not bigger than the living room.
Question 47: "Do homework now or I'll cut your pocket money!" shouted the mum to her son.
A. The mum threatened to cut his pocket money if her son didn't do homework.
B. The mum said that she would cut his pocket money if her son didn't do homework.
C. The mum told her son that she would cut his pocket money if he didn't do homework.
D. The mum informed her son that she would cut his pocket money if he didn't do
homework.
Question 48: You are advised to choose your travel provider on the basis of their eco principles
and practices before your departure.
A. You should choose your travel provider on the basis of their eco principles and
practices before you go.
B. You are obliged to choose your travel provider on the basis of their eco principles and
practices before your departure.
C. You are required to choose your travel provider on the basis of their eco principles
and practices before your departure.
D. You have to choose your travel provider on the basis of their eco principles and
practices before your departure.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: Susan is tired now because she got caught in the rain last night.
A. If Susan got caught in the rain last night, she would be tired.
B. If Susan hadn’t got caught in the rain last night, she wouldn’t be tired now.
C. If Susan hadn’t got caught in the rain last night, she wouldn’t have been tired.
D. Susan got caught in the rain last night and she still felt tired.
Question 50: We almost gave up hope. At that time, the rescue party arrived.
A. Only after the rescue party arrived did we give up hope.
B. It was not until the rescue party arrived that we gave up hope.
C. We were on the verge of giving up hope when the rescue party arrived.
D. Had the rescue party not arrived, we wouldn't have given up hope.
ĐÁP ÁN
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D A C A C A C B A C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C B D A C B B B C C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C D A B B C A A D A

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D C A B A D C D A B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
C A C D D C A A B C
ĐỀ 7
Question 1: A. apologises B. invites C. roofs D. certificates
Question 2: A. dinner B. distribute C. mine D. begin
Question 3: A. sleepy B. trophy C. facial D. exact
Question 4: A. economic B. solution C. convention D. specific
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: The poor don't have many things to eat, _________?
A. do we B. do they C. do you D. do I
Question 6: Sally hoped___________ to join the private club. She could make important
business
contacts there.
A. inviting B. being invited C. to invite D. to be invited
Question 7: If she had experience in medical research, she_____________ for one of the
positions
at the hospital.
A. apply B. could apply C. could have apply D. can apply
Question 8: I __________ one item early last week, but I am certain that I did not get the
receipt at that time
A. purchase B. purchases C. purchased D. have purchased
Question 9: _____________ to the airline strikes, Mr. Jones had to postpone his business trip
to Rome.
A. Owed B. Because C. Due D. As
Question 10: I have earned my own living _______ .
A. since I was seven B. when I was seven
C. while I was seven D. as soon as I was seven
Question 11: Those Americans are looking for a place where they can exchange their
dollars__________pounds.
A. into B. to C. for D. with
Question 12: Peter was the last applicant ___________by that interviewer.
A. to interview B. interviewing
C. to be interviewing D. to be interviewed
Question 13: The language centre offers courses of various levels, such as elementary,
intermediate and___________.
A. advance B. advancement C. advanced D. advancing
Question 14: This band normally_________ their album with an instrumental track.
A. closes off B. closes up C. closes down D. closes out
Question 15: The arrested man is suspected of____________government funds for himself.
A.robbing B. appropriating C. appreciating D. confiscating
Question 16: After the power failure last night, the washing machine started to ____, so I had
to wash the clothes by hands.
A. make noise B. break down C. operate D. work
Question 17: Anna often dresses _________ when going to the parties in order to attract her
friends' attention.
A. plainly B. properly C. flashily D. soberly
Question 18: Jack is very independent, he always paddle his own_____________
A. boat B. canoe C. ship D. yatch

Question 19: There're many problems which are unavoidable when living in an extended
family.
A. profits B. issues C. views D. merits
Question 20: Since the death of Laura's father, her mother has become a breadwinner to
support the family.
A. a person who bakes bread every morning
B. a bakery-owner
C. a person who delivers bread to make money
D. a person who goes out to work to earn money
Question 21: He fell foul of me when I asked him to apologize to his teacher.
A. quarrelled with me B. made friends with me
C. attacked me D. showed appreciation for me
Question 22: Domestic violence is strictly forbidden all over the world.
A. permitted B. limited C. restricted D. prohibited
Question 23: Laura is warning Bob about the house.
-Laura: “Mind your head. The ceiling is low”.
-Bob: “_____________”
A. Don’t mention it. B. Thanks, I’ll remember it.
C. I couldn’t agree more with you. D. I don’t think you’re right.
Question 24: David is talking to Linda after a party.
-David: “Would you like me to give you a ride home?”
-Linda: “_____________”
A. That’s be great, thanks. B. Sorry, you’re not my type.
C. Yes, I’m riding home now D. No, thanks. I don’t like riding.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B, C,or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 29- 34
Not everybody recognises the benefits of new developments in communications
technology. Indeed, some people fear that text messaging may actually be having a negative
(25) _____________on young people’s communication and language skills, especially when
we hear that primary school children may be at risk of becoming addicted to the habit. So
widespread has texting become, however, that even pigeons have started doing it. (26)
_____________, in this case, it’s difficult to view the results as anything but positive. Twenty
of the birds are about to take to the skies with the task of measuring air pollution, each (27)
_____________with sensor equipment and a mobile phone. The readings made by the sensors
will be automatically converted into text messages and beamed to the Internet where they will
appear on a dedicated ‘pigeon blog’. The birds will also each have a GPS receiver and a
camera to capture aerial photos, and researchers are building a tiny ‘pigeon kit’ containing all
these gadgets (28) __________bird will carry these in a miniature backpack, apart , that is,
from the camera, which will hang around its neck. The data the pigeons text will be displayed
in the form of an interactive map, (29) _________ will provide local residents with up-to-the-
minute information on their local air quality.
Question 25: A. result B. outcome C. effect D. conclusion
Question 26: A. Therefore B. What’s more C. whereas D. That is
Question 27: A. armed B. loaded C. granted D. stocked
Question 28: A. each B. some C. few D. little
Question 29 : A. who B. which C. that D. where
By adopting a few simple techniques, parents who read to their children can considerably
increase their children’s language development. It is surprising, but true. How parents talk to
their children makes a big difference in the children’s language development. If a parent
encourages the child to actively respond to what the parent is reading, the child’s language
skills increase. A study was done with two or three-year-old children and their parents. Half of
the thirty children participants were in the experimental study; the other half acted as the
control group.
In the experimental group, the parents were given a two-hour training session in which
they were taught to ask open-ended questions rather than yes-no questions. For example, the
parent should ask, “What is the doggy doing?” rather than, “Is the doggy running away?”
Experimental parents were also instructed how to expand on their children’s answer, how to
suggest alternative possibilities, and how to praise correct answers.
At the beginning of the study, the children did not differ on levels of language
development, but at the end of one month, the children in the experimental group were 5.5
months ahead of the control group on a test of verbal expression and vocabulary . Nine months
later, the children in the experimental group still showed an advance of 6 months over the
children in the control group.
Question 30. What is the word “encourages” in paragraph 1 closest in meaning to?
A.stimulates B. conduct C. prevent D. ignore
Question 31. What does the word “they” in the second paragraph refer to?
A. Participants B. Parents C. Children. D. Questions
Question 32. During the training session, experimental parents were taught to .
A. study many experiments B. use yes-no questions
C. give correct answers D. ask open-ended questions
Question 33. What was the major difference between the control group and the experimental
one in the study?
A. The training that parents received B. The books that were read
C. The number of participants D. The age of the children
Question 34. What conclusion can be drawn from this passage?
A. Children’s language skills increase when they are required to respond actively .
B. The more children read, the more intelligent they become.
C. Two or three-year-old children can be taught to read actively .

D. Children who read actively always act six months earlier than those who don’t.
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions front 35 to 42.
ARE TRADITIONAL WAYS OF LEARNING THE BEST?
Read about some alternative schools of thought…
One school in Hampshire, UK, offers 24-hour teaching. The children can decide when or
if they come to school. The school is open from 7 a.m. to 10 p.m., for 364 days a year and
provides online teaching throughout the night. The idea is that pupils don't have to come to
school and they can decide when they want to study. Cheryl Heron, the head teacher, said
“Some students learn better at night. Some students learn better in the morning.” Cheryl
believes that if children are bored, they will not come to school. “Why must teaching only be
conducted in a classroom? You can teach a child without him ever coming to school.”
Steiner schools encourage creativity and free thinking so children can study art, music and
gardening as well as science and history. They don’t have to learn to read and write at an early
age. At some Steiner schools the teachers can’t use textbooks. They talk to the children, who
learn by listening. Every morning the children have to go to special music and movement
classes called “eurhythmy”, which help them learn to concentrate. Very young children learn
foreign languages through music and song. Another difference from traditional schools is that
at Steiner schools you don't have to do any tests or exams.
A child learning music with the Suzuki method has to start as young as possible. Even
two-year-old children can learn to play difficult pieces of classical music, often on the violin.
They do this by watching and listening. They learn by copying, just like they learn their
mother tongue. The child has to join in, but doesn't have to get it right. “They soon learn that
they mustn't stop every time they make a mistake. They just carry on,” said one Suzuki trainer.
The children have to practise for hours every day and they give performances once a week, so
they learn quickly. “The parents must be involved too,” said the trainer, “or it just doesn't
work.”
Question 35. Which of the following is NOT true about 24-hour teaching?
A. Students can come to school from 7 a.m. to 10 p.m.
B. Students can study online at night.
C. Students can choose the time to study.
D. Some students need to study in the morning and some need to study at night.
Question 36. According to Cheryl Heron, teaching ______________.
A. should happen throughout the night
B. is not necessarily carried out in class
C. is for children who will not come to school
D. must be around the year
Question 37: The word “conducted” is closest in meaning to .
A. carried out B. destroyed A. built D.decorated .
Question 38: Which of the following is TRUE about Steiner schools?
A. They are different from traditional schools.
B. Young children are not taught foreign languages.
C. Students must concentrate on music.
D. Students have to do exams and tests.
Question 39. Which of the following is the most suitable title for the third paragraph?
A. Traditional ways of teaching B. 24-hour teaching
C. Learn by listening D. Starting young
Question 40: Students learning music with Suzuki method ____.
A. must learn difficult music . B. like to learn their mother tongue
C. stop when they make mistakes D. start at an early age
Question 41:The word “It” in paragraph 3 refers to ____.
A. starting as young as possible B. the violin
C. playing difficult pieces of music D. learning their mother tongue
Question 42: The word “involved” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. engaged B. encouraging C. accepting D. rejecting
Question 43: Neither Peter or David are playing the piano in the living room
A B C D
Question 44: Children love playing in the mud, to run through the paddles, and getting very
dirty
A B C D
Question 45: In Italy public opinion as a whole was favourite to the visit, especially as it was
not
A B C
considered an obstacle to the protected increase of the army and navy
D
Question 46: In Vietnam, football is more popular than basketball.
A. In Vietnam, basketball is not as popular as football.
B. In Vietnam, basketball is more popular than football.
C. In Vietnam, football is not as popular as basketball.
D. In Vietnam, football is as popular as basketball.
Question 47: “Would you like to come out to dinner with me tonight, Jenny?” Paul said.
A. Paul suggested that Jenny go out to dinner with him that night.
B. Paul insisted on Jenny going out to dinner with him that night.
C. Paul invited Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night.
D. Pau offered Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night
Question 48: You are required to clean the house instead of your brother
A. you needn’t clean the house instead of your brother
B. You must clean the house instead of your brother
C. You don’t have to clean the house instead of your brother

D. You might clean the hosue instead of your brother
Question 49: John is fat because he eats so many chips.
A. If John didn’t eat so many chips, he would not be fat.
B. John is fat though he eats so many chips.
C. Being fat, John eats so many chips.
D. If John doesn’t eat so many chips, he will not be fat.
Question 50: I only recognized him when he came into light.
A. Not until he came into light did I recognize him
B. Only after I recognized him that he came into light
C. Having come into light, I only recognized him
D. Had I recognized him when he came into light
Đáp án
1-A 2-C 3-D 4-A 5-B 6-D 7-B 8-C 9-C 10-A
11-C 12-D 13-C 14-D 15-B 16-B 17-C 18-B 19-B 20-D
21-D 22-A 23-B 24-A 25-C 26-B 27-A 28-A 29-B 30-A
31-B 32-D 33-A 34-A 35-D 36-B 37-A 38-A 39-D 40-D
41-C 42-A 43-B 44-B 45-B 46-A 47-C 48-B 49-A 50-A
ĐỀ 8
Question 1: A. theaters B. authors C. attends D. shifts
Question 2: A. evolve B. protection C. robot D. operate
Question 3: A. global B. compare C. native D. casual
Question 4: A. upmarket B. relative C. cultural D. rational

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: What she has just said is unreasonable, _________?
A. hasn’t she B. is it C. isn’t it D. is not it
Question 6: When Tommy started to learn French, he had a difficult time ______ the words
correctly A. pronounce B. pronounced C. pronouncing D. to pronounce
Question 7: If Tom ______ a bit more ambitious, he would have found himself a better job
years ago.
A. had been B. is C. were D. was
Question 8: Jane's eyes burned and her shoulders ached. She _______ at the computer for five
straight hours. Finally, she took a break.
A. had sat B. has been sitting C. had been sitting D. has sat
Question 9: She had butterflies in her stomach______ having prepared carefully for the
interview.
A. although B. due to C. despite D. because
Question 10: He'll give you a call as soon as he ______.
A. will arrive B. arrives C. is arriving D. is going to arrive
Question 11: Although she had never met him before, she could fall _____ a conversation with
him easily.
A. into B. down C. on D. up
Question 12: The existence of such a centre is expected to help ASEAN members facilitate
assistance to any country ______ by a disaster.
A. hit B. to hit C. hits D. hitting
Question 13: People didn't believe his ________ that he had stolen the money in order to give
it to charity.
A. explanatory B. explanation C. explain D. explainable
Question 14: She _______ her hands in horror at his suggestion that she should marry him.
A. broke up B. threw up C. brought up D. woke up
Question 15: Winning the cup in 1998 was just a ________ in the pan – they haven’t won the
match since then.
A. blaze B. flame C. light D. flash
Question 16: We regret that it is impossible to meet the ______date for the goods you recently
ordered from us.
A. arrival B. delivery C. carriage D. transport
Question 17: People also need to _______the same warnings in mind if they use mobile phones
and email.
A. take B. put C. bear D. have
Question 18: Many others certainly don't see it that way and are adamant that the late politician
was largely to blame for having a(n) ______for the vision but scant regard for the detail.
A. eye B. ear C. nose D. tongue
Question 19: Ray Kurzweil suggests that exponential technological development will lead to
the inevitable rise of artificial intelligence.
A. inapplicable B. unavoidable C. unrecognizable D. invisible
Question 20: We'll have to use the restrooms on the third floor because the ones on this floor
are not in working condition.
A. out of order B. out of work C. run out of D. torn down
Question 21: There was a long period without rain in the countryside last year so the harvest
was poor.
A. famine B. flood C. drought D. epidemic
Question 22: Some animals make identical sounds when they sense danger. Thus, they appear
to be communicating with each other.
A. loud B. similar C. different D. frightening
Question 23: Two friends meet on the first day at school. Complete the conversation.
- A: "Hey John. I didn't know you were coming to this school."
- B: “____. It's good to see you."
A. Oh, nice to meet you B. Yeah, what a coincidence
C. That's life D. Every now and then
Question 24: Joanna is inviting Sally to go out with her.
- Joanna: "Well, would you like to come out for dinner? Let's go somewhere this
evening."
- Sally: “____”
A. Really? I'd love to. B. How do you feel about it?
C. Shall we go out tonight? D. I love going out.
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
An A level is an Advanced level GCE qualification. This exam is (25) ____ taken after two
years of A level study, following the O level/IGCSE exams. Students can take any number of A
level exams; in the UK, most college students take three or four A level exams for their final
two years of study. The (26) ____ of A levels to be taken will often depend on the qualifications
that the university chosen requires. A level results can open doors to undergraduate studies at
some of the best higher educational institutions in the world, and to a wide range of professional
and vocational courses (27) _______ can help build skills for an exciting and rewarding career.
In many countries round the world, some schools follow the GCE syllabus to prepare their
pupils for taking A level exams. Students at these schools should enquire at their school about
how they can register and sit (28) ____ the exams. Students who do not attend a school that
follows the GCE syllabus can still take A level exams and can register as a private individual
with the British Council.
In order to register for an A level exam one will need to complete an entry form which will
become available at the British Council offices. Forms usually become (29) ____ for January
examinations in early August of the preceding year. For May/June examinations, they are
available in early December of the preceding year.
(Source: https://qualifications.pearson.com)
Question 25: A. normally B. popularly C. largely D. noticeably
Question 26: A. sum B. number C. amount D. quantity
Question 27: A. what B. that C. when D. who
Question 28: A. at B. in C. for D. into
Question 29: A. availability B. avail C. availably D. available
The generation gap that was so in evidence during the 60s has resurfaced, but it is not the
disruptive force that it was during the Vietnam era, a 2009 study suggests. The Pew Research
Center study found that 79% of Americans see major differences between younger and older
adults in the way they look at the world. In 1969, a Gallup Poll found that a smaller percentage,
74%, perceived major differences.
Today, however, although more Americans see generational differences, most do not see
them as divisive. That is partly because of the areas of difference. The top areas of
disagreement between young and old, according to the Pew Research Study, are the use of
technology and taste in music. Grandparents are likely to have observed these differences in
their grandchildren who are tweens, teens, and young adults.
If large differences between the generations exist, why don't they spawn conflict? The
answer is twofold.
First, the two largest areas of difference—technology and music—are less emotionally
charged than political issues. The older generation is likely to be proud of the younger
generation's prowess in technology rather than to view it as a problem. As for the musical
differences, each generation wants its own style of music, and the older generation generally
can relate to that desire.
Second, in the other areas of difference, the younger generation tends to regard the older
generation as superior to their own generation—clearly a difference from the 1960s with its
rallying cry of "Don't trust anyone over thirty." According to the Pew study, all generations
regard older Americans as superior in moral values, work ethic and respect for others.
(Adapted from www.verywellfamily.com)
Question 30: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Generation gap doesn’t cause a big problem in American families.
B. Different points of view are the main problem between generations in America.
C. The generation gap in the past was different from that in modern time.
D. The areas of differences in generation gap have changed over the years.
Question 31: The word “divisive” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. agreeing B. positive C. serious D. discordant
Question 32: What are the two reasons why large differences between generations don’t cause
disagreement?
A. The generosity of the elder generation and the attitude of the younger generation.
B. The different styles of music and the knowledge of the elder generation.
C. The major aspects of differences between generations and the respect to the elder
generation.
D. The pride of the elder generation and the obedience of the younger one
Question 33: The word “their” in the last paragraph refers to __________.
A. the older generation’s B. the younger generation’s
C. supervisor’s D. over-thirty people’s
Question 34: According to the passage, which is NOT true?
A. The majority of Americans agree generations’ viewpoint to be the major differences.
B. Technology is one of the two biggest areas creating the gap between the old and the
young.
C. Grandparents feel uncomfortable with their grandchildren because of their better
technology skills.
D. The elderly in America are admired in moral values, work ethic and respect for others.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions.
People are living longer and, in some parts of the world, healthier lives. This represents
one of the crowning achievements of the last century, but also a significant challenge. Longer
lives must be planned for. Societal aging may affect economic growth and lead to many other
issues, including the sustainability of families, the ability of states and communities to provide
resources for older citizens, and international relations. The Global Burden of Disease, a study
conducted by the World Health Organization, predicts a very large increase in age-related
chronic disease in all regions of the world. Dealing with this will be a significant challenge for
all countries’ health services.
Population aging is driven by declines in fertility and improvements in health and longevity.
In more developed countries, falling fertility beginning in the early 1900’s has resulted in
current levels being below the population replacement rate of two live births per woman.
Perhaps the most surprising demographic development of the past 20 years has been the pace of
fertility decline in many less developed countries. In 2006, for example, the total fertility rate
was at or below the replacement rate in 44 less developed countries.
One central issue for policymakers in regard to pension funds is the relationship between
the official retirement age and actual retirement age. Over several decades in the latter part of
the 20th century, many of the more developed nations lowered the official age at which people
become fully entitled to public pension benefits. This was propelled by general economic
conditions, changes in welfare philosophy, and private pension trends. Despite the recent trend
toward increased workforce participation at older ages, a significant gap between official and
actual ages of retirement persists. This trend is emerging in rapidly aging developing countries
as well. Many countries already have taken steps towards much-needed reform of their old-age
social insurance programs. One common reform has been to raise the age at which workers are
eligible for full public pension benefits. Another strategy for bolstering economic security for
older people has been to increase the contributions by workers. Other measures to enhance
income for older people include new financial instruments for private savings, tax incentives for
individual retirement savings, and supplemental occupational pension plans.
As life expectancy increases in most nations, so do the odds of different generations within
a family coexisting. In more developed countries, this has manifested itself as the ‘beanpole
family,’ a vertical extension of family structure characterized by an increase in the number of
living generations within a lineage and a decrease in the number of people within each
generation. As mortality rates continue to improve, more people in their 50’s and 60’s will have
surviving parents, aunts, and uncles. Consequently, more children will know their grandparents
and even their great-grandparents, especially their great-grandmothers. There is no historical
precedent for a majority of middle-aged and older adults having living parents.
(Adapted from https://www.ielts-mentor.com)
Question 35. Which of the following best describes the main purpose of the author in the
passage?
A. To present a synopsis of the causes and effects of the aging population.
B. To provide an overview of the drawbacks of the world’s aging population.
C. To suggest some effective solutions to deal with the rapid increase of the aging
population.
D. To prove the significant contribution of the aging population to the world economy.
Question 36: As mentioned in the first paragraph, the following aspects will be influenced by
the aging in the society, EXCEPT ___________.
A. the stable progress of families B. social welfare
C. medical care D. technology achievements
Question 37: What can be inferred from the second paragraph?
A. The birthrate in developed countries is less than that in developing nations.
B. The increase in death rate led to the shortage of laborers in developed countries.
C. The fertility of the world population is not enough to substitute the elderly.
D. The improvement in medical care is one of the reasons for falling fertility.
Question 38: What does the word “this” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. public pension benefits

B. the reduction of the official age entirely pensioned
C. the relationship between the official retirement age and actual retirement age
D. central issue
Question 39: The word “eligible” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. entitled B. unqualified C. mature D. devoted
Question 40: According to paragraph 3, which of the following is the measure of old-age social
insurance programs?
A. The decrease in the age the elderly can receive pension.
B. The encouragement the elderly to contribute more in economy.
C. Enacting many policies to increase their income before retirement.
D. Widening the gap between official and actual ages of retirement.
Question 41: The word “manifested” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by ________.
A. illustrated B. demonstrated C. proved D. recognized
Question 42: What is the benefit of aging mentioned in the last paragraph?
A. The mortality rates are decreasing.
B. People will have the chance to live with their parents longer.
C. Children are likely to live in an extended family with more brothers and sisters.
D. The life expectancy is being improved.
Question 43: Charities such as Oxfam is always trying to recruit volunteers to help in their
work.
A. such as B. is always C. to recruit D. in their work
Question 44: Many young people lack skills, good education, and financial to settle in the
urban areas where many jobs are found.
A. lack B. financial C. urban areas D. are found.
Question 45: My mother couldn't bare waste - she always made us eat everything on our plates
A. couldn't bare B. made C. eat everything D. our plates

Question 46: Jupiter is bigger than all the other planets in the solar system.
A. No other planets in the solar system is as big as Jupiter.
B. Jupiter is the biggest planet in the solar system.
C. All other planets in the solar system are not so big that Jupiter.
D. Among the planets in the solar system, Jupiter is the biggest of all.
Question 47: My friend told me, "If I were you, I would not ask him for help."
A. My friend advised me not to ask him for help.
B. My friend told me to ask him for help.
C. My friend prohibited me from asking him for help.
D. My friend suggested not asking him for help.
Question 48: There is no need for you to redecorate your room.
A. You needn’t redecorate your room
B. You didn’t have to redecorate your room.
C. You didn’t need to redecorate your room.
D. You mustn’t redecorate your room.
Question 49: There are more superstitious beliefs in Eastern countries than in Western ones.
A. Western countries don't have fewer superstitious beliefs than Eastern ones.
B. Eastern countries have more superstitious beliefs than Western ones.
C. Eastern and Western countries have many more superstitious beliefs.
D. More superstitious beliefs exist in Western countries than in Eastern ones.
Question 50: Hans told us about his investing in the company. He did it on his arrival at the
meeting.
A. Only after investing in the company did Hans inform us of his arrival at the meeting.
B. Not until Hans told us that he would invest in the company did he arrive at the
meeting.
C. Hardly had he informed us about his investing in the company when Hans arrived at
the meeting.
D. No sooner had Hans arrived at the meeting than he told us about his investing in the
company.
ĐÁP ÁN
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D B B A C C C C C B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A A B B C B C A B A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B C B A A B B C D A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D C B C A D C B A B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B B B B A B A A B D
ĐỀ 9
part differs from that of the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. laughed B. sacrificed C. cooked D. explained
Question 2. A. meat B. bean C. sweat D. meaning
Question 3. A. support B. slogan C. icon D. motto
Question 4. A. dominate B. disagree C. disrespect D. interfere

Question 5. Nobody called me yesterday, ……………….?
A. didn't it B. do they C. didn't they D. did they
Question 6.This house ———————- in 1970 by my grandfather.
A. built B. was built C. was build D. has built
Question 7. What do you know .......... him?
A. on B. about C. with D. for
Question 8. The more I tried my best to help her, ……….she became.
A. less lazy B. the lazier C. the more lazy D. lazier
Question 9. She has just bought .
A. an interesting French old painting B. an old interesting French painting
C. a French interesting old painting D. an interesting old French painting
Question 10. When the boss walked into the office, his secretary ________.
A.has been typing B.was typing C. is typing D. had typed
Question 11. She got the job the fact that she had very little experience.
A. although B. because of C. despite D. because
Question 12. ________ to help, we will have finished the work.
A. By the time John comes B. Since John comes
C. When John comes D. Until John comes
Question 13: the distance was too far and the time was short, we decided to fly there
instead of going there by train.
A. To discover B. Discovered C. To have discovered D. Discovering
Question 14: She was pleased that things were going on _______.
A. satisfied B. satisfactorily C. satisfying D. satisfaction
Question 15. I was late for work because my alarm clock did not _______ .
A. turn off B. put off C. send off D. go off
Question 16: Peter______ a better understanding of Algebra than we do.
A. makes B. has C. takes D. gives
Question 17: The sight of his pale face brought ________ to me how ill he really was.
A. place B. house C. life D. home
Question 18. Ihe children had to___________in the principal’s office after they took part in a
fight.
A. hit the right notes B. beat around the bush
C. play second fiddle D. face the music
Question 19: In the formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye with the
interviewers.
A. contact B. touch C. link D. connection
Question 20: The factory is fined for discharging dangerous chemicals into the river.
A. releasing B. increasing C. decreasing D. keeping
Question 21: The new college is intended to improve the life chances of children in the inner
city.
A. productions B. communities C. opportunities D. questions
Question 22: Children brought up in a caring environment tend to grow more sympathetic
towards others.
A. loving B. dishonest C. healthy D. hateful
Question 23: It’s quite disappointing that some people still turn a blind eye to acts of injustice
they witness in the street.
A. take no notice of B. have no feeling for
C. show respect for D. pay attention to
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes
each of the following exchanges. Giaoandethitienganh.info
Question 24: Janet wants to invite Susan to go to the cinema.

- Janet: “Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?” - Susan: “______.”
A. I don’t agree, I’m afraid B. You’re welcome
C. That would be great D. I feel very bored
Question 25: - Baker: “In my opinion, women often drive more carefully than men.”
- Barbara: “______.”
A. Never mind B. What nonsense C. Absolutely D. Yes, please
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Urban development is having a direct impact on the weather in (26) ______ cities
worldwide. It has been noticed that the difference in temperature is usually greater at night and
the phenomenon occurs in both winter and summer. Experts agree that this is due to urban
development, when open green spaces are replaced with asphalt roads and tall brick or concrete
buildings. These materials retain heat generated by the Sun and release it through the night. In
Atlanta, in the US, this has even led to thunderstorms (27) ______ occur in the morning rather
than, as is more common, in the afternoon.
Large cities around the world are adopting strategies to combat this issue, (28) ______ it is
not uncommon to find plants growing on top of roofs or down the walls of large buildings. In
Singapore, the government has (29) ______ to transform it into a "city within a garden" and, in
2006, they held an international competition calling for entries to develop a master plan to help
bring this about. One outcome was the creation of 18 "Supertrees" – metal constructions
resembling very tall trees. Each one is a vertical freestanding garden and is (30) ______ to
exotic plants and ferns. They also contain solar panels used to light the trees at night and also
containers to collect rainwater, making them truly self-sufficient.
Question 26: A. one B. many C. each D. much
Question 27: A. which B. where C. what D. when
Question 28: A. however B. for C. otherwise D. and
Question 29: A. committed B. pledged C. confessed D. required
Question 30: A. land B. house C. place D. home
Edward Patrick Eagan was born on April 26th 1897 in Denver, Colorado, and his father
died in a railroad accident when Eagan was only one year old. He and his four brothers were
raised by his mother, who earned a small income from teaching foreign languages.
Inspired by Frank Marriwell, the hero of a series of popular novels for boys, Eagan
pursued an education for himself and an interest in boxing. He attended the University of
Denver for a year before serving in the U.S. army as an artillery lieutenant during World War I.
After the war, he entered Yale University and while studying there, won the US national
amateur heavyweight boxing title. He graduated from Yale in 1921, attended Harvard Law
School, and received a Rhodes scholarship to the University of Oxford where he received his
A.M. in 1928.
While studying at Oxford, Eagan became the first American to win the British amateur
boxing championship. Eagan won his first gold medal as a light heavyweight boxer at the 1920
Olympic Games in Antwerp, Belgium. Eagan also fought at the 1924 Olympics in Paris as a
heavyweight but failed to get a medal. Though he had taken up the sport just three weeks before
the competition, he managed to win a second gold medal as a member of four-man bobsled
team at the 1932 Olympics in Lake Placid, New York. Thus, he became the only athlete to win
gold medals at both the Summer and Winter Olympics.
(Adapted from "Peteson's Master TOEFL Reading Skills)
Question 31:What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Eagan's life shows that a man can be an athlete and a well-educated person.
B. Eagan's life shows that military experiences make athletes great.
C. Eagan's life shows how a wealthy student can achieve as much as a poor one.
D. Eagan's life shows how easy it is to win two gold medals in different Olympic sports.
Question 32: According to the passage, who was Frank Merriwell?
A. A teacher at Yale B. A student at Oxford
C. A fictional character D. A bobsledder at the Olympics
Question 33: The word "Inspired" in paragraph 2 in CLOSEST in meaning to ______.

A. stopped B. challenged C. calmed D. stimulated
Question 34: According to the passage, Eagan won all of the following EXCEPT ______.
A. British amateur boxing championship
B. U.S. national amateur heavyweight boxing title
C. Heavyweight boxing, Olympic gold medal
D. Light heavyweight boxing, Olympic gold medal
Question 35: The word "the competition" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. sport B. 1932 Olympics
C. gold medals D. Summer Olympics
It is estimated that by 2050 more than two-thirds of the world's population will live in
cities, up from about 54 percent today. While the many benefits of organized and efficient cities
are well understood, we need to recognize that this rapid, often unplanned urbanization brings
risks of profound social instability, risks to critical infrastructure, potential water crises and the
potential for devastating spread of disease. These risks can only be further exacerbated as this
unprecedented transition from rural to urban areas continues.
How effectively these risks can be addressed will increasingly be determined by how
well cities are governed. The increased concentration of people, physical assets, infrastructure
and economic activities mean that the risks materializing at the city level will have far greater
potential to disrupt society than ever before.
Urbanization is by no means bad by itself. It brings important benefits for economic, cultural
and societal development. Well managed cities are both efficient and effective, enabling
economies of scale and network effects while reducing the impact on the climate of
transportation. As such, an urban model can make economic activity more environmentally-
friendly. Further, the proximity and diversity of people can spark innovation and create
employment as exchanging ideas breeds new ideas.
But these utopian concepts are threatened by some of the factors driving rapid
urbanization. For example, one of the main factors is rural-urban migration, driven by the
prospect of greater employment opportunities and the hope of a better life in cities. But rapidly
increasing population density can create severe problems, especially if planning efforts are not
sufficient to cope with the influx of new inhabitants. The result may, in extreme cases, be
widespread poverty. Estimates suggest that 40% of the world's urban expansion is taking place
in slums, exacerbating socio-economic disparities and creating unsanitary conditions that
facilitate the spread of disease.
The Global Risks 2015 Report looks at four areas that face particularly daunting
challenges in the face of rapid and unplanned urbanization: infrastructure, health, climate
change, and social instability. In each of these areas we find new risks that can best be managed
or, in some cases, transferred through the mechanism of insurance.
Question 36: The word “that" in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. urban expansion B. socio-economic disparities
C. disease D. unsanitary conditions
Question 37:According to paragraph 3, what is one of the advantages of urbanization?
A. It minimizes risks for economic, cultural and societal development.
B. It makes water supply system both efficient and effective.
C. Weather and climate in the city will be much improved.
D. People may come up with new ideas for innovation.
Question 38:Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage? Giaoandethitienganh.info
A. Urbanization brings important benefits for development as well.

B. 54% of the world's population will live in cities by 2050.
C. Risks cannot be addressed effectively no matter how well cities are governed.
D. Rapidly increasing population density can help solve poverty.
Question 39: The word "addressed" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. aimed at B. dealt with C. added to D. agreed on
Question 40: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Poverty may be a foregone conclusion of unplanned urbanization.

B. Diseases are caused by people migrating to cities.
C. Urbanization can solve the problem of environmental pollution in cities.
D. The increasing number of people in cities can create more employment.
Question 41: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. The Risks of Rapid Urbanization in Developing Countries
B. Infrastructure and Economic Activities in Cities
C. The Global Risks 2015 Report on Developing Urban Areas
D. Rapid Urbanization Put Cities in Jeopardy
Question 42: The word “spark” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. need B. start C. encourage D. design
Question 43: The passengers, tired after a very long trip, was relaxing in every available seat in
the airport
A B C D
lobby.
Question 44: He didn’t meet her even one time since they said good bye together .
A B C D
Question 45: He was so exhausted that he felt asleep at his desk.
A B C D
Question 46: She began to play the piano three years ago.
A. She has played the piano since three years.
B. She has played the piano for three years
C. She doesn’t play the piano now.
D. She stops playing the piano now.
Question 47: "Don't forget to submit your assignments by Thursday," said the teacher to the
students.
A. The teacher reminded the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
B. The teacher allowed the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
C. The teacher ordered the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
D. The teacher encouraged the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
Question 48: It’s very likely that the company will accept his application.
A. The company needs accept his application.
B. The company might accept his application.
C. The company must accept his application.
D. The company should accept his application.
Question 49: Marie didn’t turn up at John’s birthday party. I feel so sorry for that.
A. If only Marie turn up at John’s birthday party.
B. I wish Marie had turned up at Johns birthday party.
C. I wished Marie wouldn’t turn up at John’s birthday party.
D. It’s a shame Marie had turned up at John’s birthday party.
Question 50: The government does not know what to do with household rubbish in large
cities.
A. Little does the government know what to do with household rubbish in large cities.
B. It is unknown what to do with household rubbish in large cities by the government.
C. Rarely the government knows what to do with household rubbish in large cities.
D. Hardly any government knows what to do with household rubbish in large cities.
ĐÁP ÁN
1-D 2-C 3-A 4-A 5-D 6-B 7-B 8-B 9-D 10-B
11-C 12-A 13-D 14-B 15-D 16-B 17-D 18-D 19-A 20-A
21-C 22-D 23-D 24-C 25-C 26-B 27-A 28-D 29-B 30-D
31-A 32-C 33-D 34-C 35-B 36-D 37-D 38-B 39-B 40-A
41-A 42-B 43-C 44-A 45-C 46-B 47-A 48-B 49-B 50-A
ĐỀ 10
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. booked B. worked C. decided D. hoped
Question 2. A. kind B.milk C. time D. mile
other three in the position ofprimary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3.A. correct B. provide C. produce D. offer
Question 4.A.miserable B. decisive C. Beautiful D. national
Question 5. You didn't go to school yesterday, ________?
A. don’t you B. were you C. did you D. are you
Question 6: Fiona ________ to John’s birthday party last month.
A. invited B. is inviting C. was invited D. invite
Question 7: There is a map_____________ the wall just above the teacher’s desk.
A. from B. on C. before D. in front of
Question 8. The faster the time passes, ______I feel.
A.the nervous B. the most nervousC. the more nervous D. more nervous
Question 9. Jack’s father bought him a(n)______ bike as a birthday gift.
A. blue Japanese expensive B. expensive Japanese blue
C. Japanese expensive blue D. expensive blue Japanese
Question 10. Micheal _______ in the queue to buy a ticket for the train when he heard a
strange voice.
A. waited B. was waiting C. had waited D. is waiting

Question 11. _____rain or snow, there are always more than fifty thousand fans at
the football games.
A. Even though B. Because C. Despite D. Because of
Question 12. He will take the children for a work to a nearby playground__________ .
A. before he finished dinner B. as soon as he finishes dinner
C. while he was having dinner D. after he had eaten dinner
Question 13. ___________ the responsibility for the environment it caused, the factory was
forced to closed down.
A. Having denied B. Denied C. To deny D. Being denied
Question 14. Everyone can help the needy by making a ______ to a charity organisation.
A. donate B. donation C. donative D. donating
Question 15. They ______ a big fortune when they were young, so they didn’t have to work
hard.
A. came into B. took up C. looked for D. took after
Question 16.I think that _______ responsibility for human life shouldn’t only be doctors’duty.
A. doing B. rushing C. Joining D. taking
Question 17. My uncle left his job because he did not have _____ of promotion.
A. visions B. prospects C. scenarios D. posts
Question 18.English is an obligatory subject from sixth grade across Vietnam, but in large
cities, many primary schools demand high _________.
A. capacity B. experience C. competency D. ability
Question 19.I can say in all _______that I knew nothing of these plans.
A. trust B. sincerity C. loyalty D. faith
Question 20.This organization was formed to do the mission of the preservation of biological
diversity, sustainable use of natural resources, and the reduction of pollution and
wastefulconsumption.
A. contamination B. energy C. extinction D. development

Question 21. School uniform is mandatory in most of Vietnamese schools.
A. divided B. depended C. compulsory D. paid
Question 22.In Western culture, it is polite to maintain eye contact during conversation.
A. discourteous B. insecure C. informal D. irresponsible
Question 23. : She grabbed it firmly, got to her feet and walked past him with her nose in the
air.
A. proudly B. hastily C. arrogantly D. modestly
completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 24. Jane is talking to Mary to her hair .
- Jane: “ What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!”
- Mary : “__________________ “
A.You are telling a lie. B. I don’t like your saying
C. Thank you very much. I’m afraid D. Thank you for your compliment.
Question 25. Maria and Alex are talking about the environment.
- Maria: “Our environment is getting more and more polluted. Do you think so?”
- Alex: “_________ It’s really worrying.”
A. I’ll think about that. C. I can’t agree with you more
B. I don’t agree D. I don’t think so.
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
ROBOTS
Ever since it was first possible to make a real robot, people have been hoping for the
invention of a machine (26) _______ would do all the necessary jobs around the house. If
boring and repetitive factory work could be managed by robots, why not boring and(27)
_______ household chores too?
For a long time the only people who really gave the problem their attention were amateur
inventors. And they came up against a major (28) _______. That is, housework is actually very
complex. It has never been one job, it has always been many. A factory robot carries out one
task endlessly until it is reprogrammed to do something else. It doesn’t run the whole factory. A
housework robot, on the (29) _______hand, has to do several different types of cleaning and
carrying jobs and also has to cope with all the different shapes and positions of rooms,
furniture, ornaments, cats and dogs. (30) _______, there have been some developments recently.
Sensors are available to help the robot locate objects and avoid obstacles. We have the
technology to produce the hardware. All that is missing the software- the programs that will
operate the machine.
Question 26:A. that B. what C. when D. where
Question 27:A. interactive B. repetitive C. sensitive D. widespread
Question 28:A. support B. benefit C. difficulty D. advantage
Question 29:A. another B. others C. every D. other
Question 30:A. However B. Therefore C. Besides D. Moreover
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
When we meet people for the first time, we often make decisions about them based
entirely on how they look. And of course, we too are being judged on our appearance.
Undoubtedly, it’s what’s inside that’s important but sometimes we can send out the wrong
signals and so get a negative reaction, simply by wearing inappropriate clothing.
When selecting your clothes each day, it is therefore important to think about who you’re
likely to meet, where you are going to be spending most of your time and what tasks you are
likely to perform. Clearly, on a practical level, some outfits will be more appropriate to different
sorts of activity and this will dictate your choice to an extent. However, there’s no need to
abandon your individual taste completely. After all, if you dress to please somebody else’s idea
of what looks good, you may end up feeling uncomfortable and not quite yourself.
Some colours bring your natural colouring to life and others can give you a washed-out
appearance. Try out new ones by all means, but remember that dressing in bright colours when
you really like subtle neutral tones or vice versa will make you feel self-conscious and
uncomfortable. You know deep down where your own taste boundaries lie. It may be fun to
cross these sometimes, but do take care not to go too far all at once.
Reappraising your image isn’t selfish because everyone who comes into contact with you
will benefit. You’ll look better and you’ll feel a better person all round. And if in doubt, you
only need to read Professor Albert Mehrabian’s book Silent Messages, which showed that the
impact we make on each other depends 55 percent on how we look and behave, 38 percent on
how we speak, and only seven percent on what we actually say.
Question 31: Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. Choosing Appropriate Business Suits
B. Making Judgements about People’s Appearance
C. Making Your Image Work for You
D. Creating a Professional Image
Question 32: The word “undoubtedly” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. doubtfully. B. unquestionably C. uncertainly. D. deniably.
Question 33: According to paragraph 1, people can get a negative reaction from others by
_______.
A. talking about other people’s behaviours. B. sending out right signals.
C. wearing inappropriate clothes. D. expressing too strong emotions.
Question 34: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 as a factor to be
considered when choosing clothes?
A. Places you spend time in. B. Other people’s views on beauty.
C. Kinds of tasks you perform. D. People you meet.
Question 35: The word “others” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. neutral tones. B. taste boundaries. C. colours. D. means.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to
We are descendents of the ice age. Periods of glaciations have spanned the whole of
human existence for the past 2 million years. The rapid melting of the continental glaciers at the
end of the last ice age spurred one of the most dramatic climate changes in the history of the
planet. During this interglacial time, people were caught up in a cataclysm of human
accomplishment, including the development of agriculture and animal husbandry. Over the past
few thousand years, the Earth’s climate has been extraordinarily beneficial, and humans have
prospered exceedingly well under a benign atmosphere.
Ice ages have dramatically affected life on Earth almost from the very beginning. It is
even possible that life itself significantly changed the climate. All living organisms pull carbon
dioxide out of the atmosphere and eventually store it in sedimentary rocks within the Earth’s
crust. If too much carbon dioxide is lost, too much heat escapes out into the atmosphere. This
can cause the Earth to cool enough for glacial ice to spread across the land.
In general the reduction of the level of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere has been
equalized by the input of carbon dioxide from such events as volcanic eruptions. Man, however,
is upsetting the equation by burning fossil fuels and destroying tropical rain forests, both of
which release stored carbon dioxide. Thisenergizes the greenhouse effect and causes the Earth
to warm. If the warming is significant enough, the polar ice caps eventually melt.
The polar ice caps drive the atmospheric and oceanic circulation systems. Should the ice
caps melt, warm tropical waters could circle the globe and make this a very warm, inhospitable
planet.
Over the past century, the global sea level has apparently risen upwards of 6 inches,
mainly because of the melting of glacial ice. If present warming trends continue, the seas could
rise as much as 6 feet by the next century. This could flood coastal cities and fertile river deltas,
where half the human population lives. Delicate wetlands, where many marine species breed,
also would be reclaimed by the sea. In addition, more frequent and severe storms would batter
coastal areas, adding to the disaster of the higher seas.
The continued melting of the great ice sheets in polar regions could cause
massiveamounts of ice to crash into the ocean. This would further raise the sea level and release
more ice, which could more than double the area of sea ice and increase correspondingly the
amount of sunlight reflected back into space. The cycle would then be complete as this could
cause global temperatures to drop enough to initiate another ice age.
Question 36. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The possibility that the popular ice caps will melt.
B. Man’s effect on the carbon dioxide level in the atmosphere.
C. The climate of the Earth over the years.
D. The coming of another ice age.
Question 37. According to the passage, carbon dioxide is stored in each of the following
EXCEPT______.
A. sedimentary rocks B. polar ice caps C. rain forests D. fossil fuel
Question 38.According to the passage, what is the relationship between carbon dioxide and the
Earth’s climate?
A. Carbon dioxide, which is trapped in glacial ice, is released when warm temperatures cause the
ice melt.
B. An increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide results in the warming of the climate.
C. The greenhouse effect, which leads to the warming of the climate, is result of too much
carbon stored in the Earth’s crust.
D. Rain causes carbon dioxide to be washed out of the atmosphere and into the ocean.
Question 39.The word "beneficial" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to______.
A. calm B. inviting C. thoughtful D. favorable
Question 40.It can be inferred from the passage that the development of agriculture______.
A. preceded the development of animal husbandry.
B. withstood vast changes in the Earth’s climate.
C. did not take place during an ice age.
D. was unaffected by the greenhouse effect.
Question 41.The word “this” in the third paragraph refers to______.

A. man’s upsetting the equation B. the melting of the polar ice caps
C. a volcanic eruption D. the reduction of the level of carbon dioxide.
Question 42.The word “inhospitable” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to______.
A. imperfect B. uninhabitable C. unlikable D. cruel
Question 43. My mother is watching a game show on TV at 9 p.m yesterday.
A B C D
Question 44. Mr Peterson has work for the same school all her life, is retiring next month.
A B C D
Question 45. Our principal is that everyone has to join hands to do the housework.
A B C D
Question 46. : The last time I saw her was three years ago.
A. I have not seen her for three years.
B. About three years ago, I used to meet her.
C. I have often seen her for the last three years.
D. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her
Question 47. “Remember to pick me up at 6 o'clock tomorrow afternoon” she said.
A. She told me to remember to pick her up at 6 o'clock tomorrow afternoon.
B. She reminded me to pick her up at 6 o'clock the following afternoon.
C. She encouraged me to remember to pick her up at 6 o'clock the next afternoon.
D. She suggested picking her up at 6 o'clock the next day afternoon.
Question 48:Children are not allowed to play football in the streets.
A. Children may play football in the streets.
B. Children mustn’t play football in the streets.

C. Children should play football in the streets.
D. Children needn’t play football in the streets.
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Peter moved abroad for a fresh start. He regrets it now.
A. If only Peter had moved abroad for a fresh start.
B. Peter wishes he hadn't moved abroad for a fresh start.
C. If Peter moved abroad for a fresh start, he would regret it.
D. Peter regrets not having moved abroad for a fresh start.
Question 50. He had just finished eating his breakfast. Then he fell down.
A. Hardly had he finished eating his breakfast when he fell down.
B. No sooner hadhe fallendown than he finished eating his breakfast.
C. Not only had he finished eating his breakfast but he felldown as well.
D. Not until he had finished eating his breakfast did he falldown.
ĐÁP ÁN
1C 2B 3D 4B 5C 6C 7B 8C 9D 10 B
11 C 12 B 13 A 14 B 15 A 16 D 17 B 18 C 19 A 20 A
21 C 22 A 23 D 24 D 25 C 26 A 27 B 28 C 29 D 30 A
31 C 32 B 33 C 34 B 35 C 36 A 37 B 38 B 39 D 40 A
41 B 42 D 43 A 44 C 45 A 46 A 47 B 48 B 49 B 50 C
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Thư viện Đề thi - Trắc nghiệm - Tài liệu học tập Miễn phí

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG MÔN TIẾNG ANH

NĂM 2021 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word

Question 1. A. worked B. stopped C. forced D. wanted

Question 2. A. hand B. bad C. hat D. age

Question 3. A. confide B. gather C. divide D. reply

Question 4. A. stimulate B. sacrifice C. devastate D. determine

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct

Question 5. The children were very tiresome, ______ ?

A. weren't they B. wasn't they C. didn't they D. don't they

Question 6. The 26th Annual Meeting of the Asia-Pacific Parliamentary Forum

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A. was held B. held C. being held D. will hold

A. higher B. the higher C. highest D. the highest

Question 9. Alan often drives a _____ car.

A. ran B. was running C. has run D. had been running

A. In spite of B. Though C. Because of D. Because

A. by the time we find B. when we found

C. as soon as we had found D. after we had found

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A. Wearing B. Having been worn C. To wear D. Worn

A. decides B. decision C. decisively D. decisive

A. takes after B. looks after C. goes off D. sits for

A. did B. made C. built D. caused

A. audience B. spectator C. umpire D. referee

A. jumped B. cried C. screamed D. clapped

A. bulletin B. board C. company D. newspaper

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)

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A. satisfactory B. courteous C. honest D. polite

A. include B. cover C. control D. maintain

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)

A. following B. giving up C. trying D. interrupting

A. very soon B. very late C. very boringly D. very happily

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option

Question 24. Two friends are talking in the classroom.

- Jack: “How long does it take you to go to school?”

- John: “______. I walk every day.”

A. My father drives me to school B. About 20 kilometres

C. About 5 minutes D. Let me see

Question 25. Two students are talking about their assignment.

- Laura: “_______. They will make our presentation more interesting”

A. Sorry, I have to check my diary.

B. That’s exactly what I was going to say.

C. I’d love to but I just can’t now.

D. That’s true. I understand how you feel

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Question 26. A. other B. another C. every D. one

Question 27. A. floods B. streams C. currents D. brooks

Question 28. A. whom B. which C. why D. who

Question 29. A. stumbling B. stepping C. tripping D. rolling

Question 30. A. despite B. so C. as D. but

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(Adapted from https://livability.com)

Question 31. Which could be the best title of the passage?

A. Fort Collins: Home Base for Outdoor Enthusiasts

B. Fort Collins: The Worth-living City

C. Proud of Education in Fort Collins

D. Fort Collins and Its Economic Policies

Question 32. The word "their" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.

A. foothills’ B. banks’ C. facilities’ D. residents’

A. broadcast B. absorb C. give freedom D. transmit