Food and Dairy Microbiology Answers

1. Cite the difference between yoghurt & buttermilk.

Buttermilk is the residue leftover after churning process to obtain butter
and yoghurt is obtatined by fermentation of milk using various lactic acid
bacteria.
2. What is water activity?
Also known as available water, The water activity (a w) of a food is the
ratio between the vapor pressure of the food itself, when in a
completely undisturbed balance with the surrounding air media, and the
vapor pressure of distilled water under identical conditions.

3. What are asexual spores of fungi?

Most common examples are Sporangiospores and basidiospores. They are
produced in sac like structure called sporangia, and are formed by mitosis
4. Which bacteria is useful to check the efficiency of autoclave?
Bacillus stearothermophilus
5. Which bacteria cause discoloration of food?
Clostridium perfringens and Bacillus cereus
6. What is ropiness? Describe process of ropiness.
Ropiness is bacterial spoilage of bread that initially occurs as an unpleasant
fruity odor, followed by enzymatic degradation of the crumb that becomes soft
and sticky because of the production of extracellular slimy polysaccharides
7. Which is the natural antibiotic present in the milk?
Penicillin
8. List the changes caused by microorganisms in eggs.
Rots- black, green, colorless, muddy brown; offensive odor, putrid odor
9. What are the different types of temperature-based preservation
techniques?
Use of high temperature, use of cold temp.- freezing and chilling
10. What is temperature of liquid nitrogen?
inert cryogenic fluid with a temperature of − 196 °C [− 320 °F].
11. Which mold causes spoilage of bread?
Penicillium, Aspergillus, Cladosporium, Mucorales and Neurospora

12. What is the concentration sugar present in honey?

70 to 80 percent, mostly glucose and levulose,
13. Which bacteria cause soft rot on vegetables?
Erwinina, Pseudomonas, Rhizopus stolonifer
14. Which organism causes surface slime of meat
species of Pseudomonas, Acinetobacter, Moraxella, Alcaligenes, Streptococcus,
Leuconostoc, Bacillus, and Micrococcus.
15. Which bacterium is responsible for brown milk?
Pseudomonas putrefaciens, fluroscencs
16. Which leavening agent commonly used in bread?
S. cerevisiae the baker’s yeast
17. Write any example of neurotoxin which is produced during food spoilage.
Botulin formed by Cl. Botulinum
18. What is food intoxication
Food borne illness caused by presence of bacterial toxin in milk
19. Which organism produces patulin toxin?
P. expansum and Aspergillus
20. Which organism plays important role in idli fermentation?
Leuconostoc mesenteroides
21. What is vinegar?
In simple terms Vinegar is 4% acetic acid.
22. Which type of organism generally causes spoilage of canned foods?
Thermophilic spore formers
23. Which organism can be transmitted through milk, if it is not pasteurized?
Brucella
24. Which bacterium is responsible for green rot in eggs?
P. fluroscence
25. The anaerobic degradation of protein is known as………………………..
putrefaction
26. What is brine?
it is saline water solution that is used for preservation
27. Which gases are commonly used in controlled atmosphere?
Carbon-di-oxide and nitrogen
28. Which bacteria cause ropiness in bread?
rhizopus
29. What is osmophilic bacteria
The organsism that can survive at high sugar concentration
30. Which trees are commonly used to obtain smoke?
apple, oak, maple, beech, birch, walnut
31. Which foods are mostly dried by using solar or sun drying?
Fish and fruits like apricots, dates, figs, pears.
32. What are the sexual spores of fungi?
sexual spores known as ascospores, which are formed after the union of two
cells from the same mycelium or from two separate mycelia.
33. What is red bread?
also called bloody bread, it is rare and is observed due to growth of red
pigment producers like serretia marcesens and Monilia sitophila
34. What is the basis of chief aroma generation in yoghurt?
Lactobacillus delburckii subsp. Bulgaricus and sstreptococcus thermophilus
35. How can the rubber-like consistency in cheese be generated?
Addition of Rennet

36. Cite 2 properties of L. delbruckii bulgaricus in yoghurt fermentation

They produce lactate from whey and they can produce lactic acid from
glucose, maltose or sucrose
37. State two examples of non-nutritive sweeteners used in yoghurt.
dulan, neohesperidin dihydrochalcone, ultrasuss, alitame
38. What are the types of soy sauce based on physical properties?
Light, dark and thick
39. Why cereal is considered as good microbial substrate?
Because they have ample carbon source in the form of starch and nitrogen
source which are the macromolecules required for their growth
40. State at least 3 advantages of sourdough.
Easy to digest, high nutrient content as vitamins and minerals, has lower
glycemic index
41. Describe rope spoilage in sourdough.
It is caused by spore-forming bacilli, Rhizopus, due to this strings are observed
on the interior of loaf.
42. Classify the cheese on the basis of curdling.
Fresh, soft, semi-soft, hard
43. What is mold-ripened cheese? Give two examples.
Ripened cheeses have an initial acid fermentation by lactic acid bacteria
followed by action of their enzymes and those of other microorganisms these
other organisms are molds. Example, blue and brie
44. Briefly discuss the role of rennet in separation of curd & whey.
Rennet is an enzyme when added to milk increases acidity, and coagulates the
milk protein which is the curd that remains suspended or sinks and the whey
protein is the thin liquid that is observed at the top.
45. Cite the action of lipases in cheese formation.
 function of lipase is to degrade the triglyceride of the milkfat and thus liberate
free fatty acids.
46. What is the principal LAB of acidophilus milk preparation? What demerit
is associated to it?
Lactobacillus acidophilus it causes digestive complaints like gas, bloating,
47. State the microbial composition of bio-yoghurt.
Lactobacillus bulgaricus and streptococcus thermohilus
48. Give two examples each of bacterial & yeast component of kefir
fermentation.
Saccharomyces cerevisiae, Candida inconspicua, Candida maris and
lactobacillus kefiri, Lactococcus lactis and leuconostoc mesenteroides

49. How kefir is different from yoghurt?

Yoghurt is made exclusively from bacteria that increase the acidity of milk that
leads to curdleation or coagulation of milk whilst kefir is made from mixture of
bacteria and yeast, and it contains more probiotic properties than yoghurt.
50. How was the name ‘Salmonella’ coined?
It was named after the American veterinarian Daniel salmon.
51. Cite three identifying properties of salmonellae.
antigenic sites: O (somatic), Vi (capsular), and H (flagellar).
52. What is the most heat-resistant type of salmonellae?
Salmonella Senftenberg 775W

53. Briefly describe the mechanism of action of diarrhoeagenic toxin of

salmonella.
 Invasion of epithelial cells stimulates the release of proinflammatory cytokines
which induce an inflammatory reaction. The acute inflammatory response
causes diarrhea
54. What is the basis of Widal test?
It is based on the agglutination that is a result of antigen-antibody
intereaction. When the antibodies in serum against O and H antigens
of Salmonella Typhi and Paratyphi react with insoluble O and H antigens
present in the test reagent, then a visible clumping reaction (agglutination)
occurs.
55. Write the names of four important species of the genus Shigella.
S. dysenteriae, S. flexneri, S. boydii, and S. sonnei

56. How can shigella & salmonellae be differentiated by culturing on plate?

Salmonella produces H2S gas hence they cause colourless colonies with black
center while shigellal does not ferment lactose or produce h2s and appear
colourless
57. What is the reason for the presence of blood in the stool in case of
shigellosis?
shigella bacteria can enter the bloodstream through the damaged intestinal lining

58. How can Shiga toxin initiate its toxic function?

The Shiga toxin (a non-pore forming toxin) is transferred to the cytosol via
Golgi network and endoplasmic reticulum (ER). From the Golgi toxin is
trafficked to the ER. Shiga toxins act to inhibit protein synthesis within target
cells
59. Give 2 examples of chemicals present in foods to cause diseases in
human.
Cadmium and lead
60. Suggest some examples of food borne pathogens other than bacteria
with causative agents & disease they cause briefly.
Hepatitis A virus causes inflammation of liver and are transferred through food
contaminated by handling of infected person. Norovirus cause stomach flu or
gastroenteritis. Both are caused by faecal oral route or by vomit particles
61. Briefly describe properties of bacteria to become successful pathogens.
Ability to invade host. Production of enzymes like IgA protease, haemolysin,
collagenase etc, evading host defence, presence of adhesins and invasins, and
ability to multiply within the host
62. Define Food poisoning,
An illness caused by the consumption of food or water contaminated with
bacteria and/or their toxins, or with parasites, viruses, or chemicals.
63. Define Food borne intoxication,
Caused by consumption of food that contains toxins that are released by
pathogens.
64. Define Food borne infection.
Foodborne infection is caused by the ingestion of food containing live bacteria
which grow and establish themselves in the human intestinal tract
65. Food borne intoxication usually take lesser time to initiate disease
symptoms than food borne infections- justify with reason.
Because food intoxication involves direct toxin already present in food but
food infections require more time because before formation of toxin the
organism needs to grow within the animal.
66. How does staphylococcal enterotoxin become resistant to heat & low
pH?
The single polypeptide chains are cross-linked by a disulfide bridge to form a
characteristic cystine loop
67. How can mishandling of food lead to staphylococcal intoxication?
No adequate pasterization of milk, infected handlers may have boils, caruncles
and cold that may transfer the bacteria to the food.
68. What is the utility of toluidine blue agar in diagnosis of staphylococcal
contamination?
DNA in the medium enables the detection of DNase activity of staphylococcus
which depolymerizes the DNA resulting in the formation of a clear zone around
the microbial growth. Inclusion of toluidine blue aids in detection of DNase
activity by the production of a visible bright rose-pink coloured reaction due to
its metachromatic properties.

69. How many types of botulinum toxins may be produced by C. botulinum?

Mention the types.
7 types- A, B, C1, C2, D, E, F, G
70. How canned food may be related to food borne botulism?
These can grow in low acid foods and can grow in sealed food with low oxygen
71. Describe the differences between entero-cytotoxin & entero-neurotoxin
with proper examples.
Cytotoxin kill cells by altering the apical membrane permeability of the
mucosal (epithelial) cells of the intestinal wall and enteroneurotoxin, indirectly
acts on the gastro-inestinal manifestations.
72. Diagrammatically represent the MOA if botulinal toxin. How can it be
activated to become effective in the intestine?

73. Enlist the symptoms of food borne botulism.

Involuntary muscles become paralysed, vomitin, nausea, urinary retention
74. How is infant botulism different from food borne botulism?
The disease is different from food-borne botulism in that the toxin appears to
be released in vivo following growth of the organism in the intestine. Many of
the infants involved have had predisposed constipation.
75. Briefly discuss the survival mechanism of Salmonellae in the endocytic
vesicles of the host cells.
Once in the phagosome of the macrophage the bacterium uses its type 3
secretion system to inject proteins that prevent the lysosomes from fusing
with the phagosomes, thus providing a safe haven for Salmonella replication
within the phagosome and protecting the bacteria from antibodies and other
defense elements.
76. What are the additional virulence factors of salmonellae helping in
fighting the hostile environment in the host gut?
Type 1 finbrae, siderophores, antiphagocytic protein induced by oxyR, O
antigen that inhibits phagocytic killing, Vi antigen inhibits complement binding,
inv encoded surface appendages help with adherence, H antigen inhibits
phagocytosis and helps with adherence.
77. How can salmonella systemic infection cause intestinal ulceration?
After colonization Salmonella typhi substantially caused gastric oxidative stress
and disruption of gastric mucosal barriers.
78. What is the basis of mobility of shigella in the host cell cytoplasm?
During intracellular replication, Shigella moves by polymerizing actin at one
bacterial pole, forming actin comet tails, allowing the formation of bacteria-
containing protrusions at the cell plasma membrane that invade adjacent cells.
79. Enlist primary & secondary virulence factors of pathogenic E. coli.
adhesins, toxins (e.g. alpha-hemolysin, cytotoxic necrotizing factor 1,
autotransporter toxins), iron/heme-acquisition systems, and iron ion transport.
80. Comment on the environmental reservoirs of V. parahaemolyticus.
Coastal water, seafood and sediments
81. What is the virulence & attachment factors of V. parahaemolyticus?
V. parahaemolyticus has two hemolysins virulence factors that are
thermostable direct hemolysin (tdh)-a pore-forming protein that contributes to
the invasiveness of the bacterium in humans, and TDH-related hemolysin (trh),
which plays a similar role as tdh in the disease pathogenesis.
82. Mention 3 identifying features of Campylobacter sp.
they are catalase oixdase positive and Hippurate hydrolysis
83. Comment on the symptoms of Campylobacter mediated enterocolitis.
diarrhea (often bloody), fever, and stomach cramps.
84. Describe the MOA of two types of toxins elaborated by C. jejuni briefly.
Campylobacter jejuni produces a genotoxin, cytolethal distending toxin (CDT), which has
DNAse activity and causes DNA double-strand breaks. The enterotoxin produced is AB type
of enterotoxin, they ele ate intracellular cyclic AMP levels and that leads to various
repeucussions and produce symptoms like diarrhoea.

85. Define the terms: a) Hazard analysis; b) Critical Control Point; c) Hazard;
d) Critical Limit.
a) Hazard analysis involves the identification of ingredients and products which
might have a pronounced effect on food safety: might be consumed by special
populations such as infants or the elderly; or might have no history of
implication as the source of pathogens.
b) This involves the identification and control over those processing
parameters whose loss of control would result in an unacceptable risk to
consumers.
c)hazard refers that the food has potential health hazard and adequate
epidemiological information of these is available
d) A critical limit is the maximum or minimum value to which a physical,
biological, or chemical hazard must be controlled at a critical control point to
prevent, eliminate, or reduce the hazard to an acceptable level.
86. Briefly mention the six types of hazards included in Principle 1: Assess
Hazard & Risks.
Biological, chemical, physical, safety, ergonomic and psychosocial
87. State two limitations of HACCP.
Requires technical, human and material resources not always available at the
company; - Requires sincere effort and involvement of all elements of the
organisation; - Demands time availability; - Implicates a change in attitude; -
Requires detailed technical data and constant updating; - Requires conserving
information for a simple way of interpretation; - Requires concentrated actions
of all participants of the food chain.
88. What are the measures of typical CCP?
89. State & explain the differences between Critical limit & Critical point.
A critical control point is a step at which a control measure is applied. A critical
limit is a maximum and/or minimum value for controlling a chemical, biological
or physical parameter.
90. Compare the sanitising actions of Electrolysed oxidising water & activated
lactoferrin.
By chelating iron, lactoferrin removes an important nutrient required for
pathogen growth. It also destabilizes microbial membranes and prevents
microbial adherence to host cells. Electrolyzed water is a safe, broad-spectrum
bactericidal and viricidal agent. E.O is more effective because it is virisidal
91. Discuss the roles of O3 & H2O2 as food sanitisers.
Ozone in concentrations of 2 to 3 ppm in the atmosphere has been reported to
double the storage time of loosely packed small fresh fruits, such as
strawberries, raspberries, currants, and grapes, and of delicate varieties of
apples. It acts as an oxidative biocide to generate free radical species to induce
DNA, protein and membrane lipid damage via oxidation. It is used to sanitize
wheat flour etc.
92. Mention three important purposes of rapid detection of food borne
pathogens.
 to prevent outbreaks of foodborne diseases and the spread of foodborne
pathogens to prescribe proper medication.
93. How can qPCR be considered more advantageous over normal PCR
method in detection of food borne pathogens?
 qPCR is more sensitive than conventional PCR and it minimizes the risk of
cross-contamination
94. Comment on the utility of mPCR in rapid detection procedure.
Multiplex PCR offers a more rapid detection as compared to simple PCR
through the simultaneous amplification of multiple gene targets
95. Briefly discuss the principle of oligonucleotide microarray method in
pathogen detection
A microarray is a miniaturized device containing short (25- to 70-
mer) single-stranded DNA oligonucleotide probes (or ‘oligos’)
attached to a solid substrate. The probes are designed to have
sequences complementary to segments of one or more target
organism genomes.
96. Name an antimicrobial substance present in an egg.
Anti-microbial proteins of egg white are lysozyme, ovotransferrin and protease inhibitors

97. Name a thermophilic spore former bacterium.

Bacillus stearothermophilus
98. Who are Psychrotrophs?
Psychrotrophic microorganisms have a maximum temperature for growth
above 20 degrees C and are widespread in natural environments and in foods.
99. Give the causal organism and symptoms of Black mold rot
Aspergillus niger
100. Give the causal organism and symptoms of Blue mold rot
Penicillium digitatum
101. Give the causal organism and symptoms of Watery soft rot
Sclerotinia sclerotiorum
102. Give the causal organism and symptoms of Grey mold rot
Botrytis, e.g., B. cinerea
103. Give the causal organism and symptoms of Anthracnose.
Anthracnose, usually caused by Colletotrichum lindemuthianum, C. coccodes,
and other species. The defect is a spotting of leaves and fruit or seedpods
104. Define Relative Humidity.
Relative humidity (RH) refers to the moisture content (i.e., water vapor) of the
atmosphere, expressed as a percentage of the amount of moisture that can be
retained by the atmosphere (moisture-holding capacity) at a given
temperature and pressure without condensation.
105. Name a microorganism present in butter.
Geotrichum candidum
106. Define water activity
water activity aw, the vapor pressure of the solution (of solutes in water in
most foods) divided by the vapor presure of solvent (usually water).

107. Milk is an excellent bacteriological culture medium. Explain

Because milk is complete food that contains carbon, nitrogen, fat, protein,
vitamin, water, minerals
108. What are some industrial processes that use bacteria?
Detergent, pharmaceutical, fermentation, tanning, bread, wine, vinegar, dairy
109. What happens to bacteria in a food when the water activity is changed
from 0.998 to 0.945?
The bacteria such as Clostridium perfringens will die because it ranges from 1
to 0.95 so when reduced to the extent it won't survive due to unfavourable
conditions.
110. Mention the intrinsic factors affecting microorganisms present in food.
Composition of food, water activity, pH, H+ ion concentration, redox potential
presence of inhibitory substances
111. What are the intrinsic factors for microbial growth?
pH, water activity, antimicorobial components, O-R poteintial
112. Explain the role of pH on the growth of microorganisms.
Change in ph can affect the integrity of cell membrane and can destroy protein
and change proton motive force
113. What is the effect of gaseous atmosphere on food microorganisms?
 gas atmosphere containing 20% CO2 was found to be effective in inhibiting the growth of
slime-producing bacteria at high storage temperatures and high relative humidity

114. What is the lowest temperature at which food spoiling bacteria will
grow?
5*C
115. What physiological type of bacteria are present in canned food?
Clostridium botulim
116. Name a microorganism present in the refrigerator.
Listeria monocytogenes 

117. Name a radiation resistant bacterial genus.

Deinococcus radiodurans
118. Name a Gram-positive rod which causes foodborne infection.
Clostridium perfringens (welchii), C. botulinum, and Bacillus cereus

119. Name the species responsible for thermophilic flat-sour defects in

canned foods.
B. stearothermophilus
120. What is the Lowest temperature reported for growth of proteolytic
strains of Clostridium botulinum?
12.8 to 16.5 degrees C

121. Name the most heat resistant pathogen found in milk.

Bacillus stearothermophilus
122. Name a gas former involved in food spoilage.
Clostridium and bacillus and heterofermentative lab
123. What kind of bacteria are responsible for spoiling protein rich foods?
Proteolytic bacteria are capable of hydrolyzing proteins, due to producing extracellular
proteinases. Species in the genera Alcaligenes, Bacillus, Micrococcus, Staphylococcus,
Clostridium, Pseudomonas, Flavobacterium, and Brevibacterium

124. Name a bacterium responsible for degrading fat rich foods.

Acinetobacter spp. and/or Pseudomonas spp. 
125. Name the microorganism responsible for chalky bread.
Endomycopsis fibuligera and Trichosporon variable.
126. Name the microorganism responsible for causing soft rot in vegetables.
Erwinia carotovora
127. Name the microorganism responsible for green rot.
Pseudomonas fluorescens
128. Mention the causative agent of sulphide stinker spoilage of canned
food.
caused by Desulfoto-maculum nigrificans
129. What causes ropiness in bread?
Bacillus subtilis
130. Which microorganism causes black rot of egg?
Proteus melanovogenes
131. Write the full form of FSSAI.
Food Safety and Standards Authority of India

132. Mention two types of microbial activity which influences the safety of
foods.
Production of toxin, spoiling food by producing hydrolytic, lipolytic and
proteolytic enzymes
133. Define the term food intoxication.
Food-borne illnesses caused by the entrance of bacteria into the body through
ingestion of contaminated foods and the reaction of the body to their presence
or to their metabolites.
134. What do you mean by food poisoning?
Food poisonings can be the result of either chemical poisoning or the ingestion
of a toxicant (intoxication).
135. What is rancidity? Name a microorganism responsible for rancidity.
rancidity sometimes is used for the result of any change in fats or oils that is
accompanied by undesirable flavors, regardless of the cause. The spoilage due
to oxidation, chemical or microbial Pseudomonas, Micrococcus*, Bacillus,
Serratia, Achromobacter*, and Proteus
136. Mention the 3 types of spoilage seen in canned foods.
Gas swell, sulfur stinker, TA spoilage and flat sour spoilage
137. Write a note on the major sources of microbial contamination of food.
Natural flora, water, air, soil, packaging material, containers, handlers.
138. Explain what is meant by microbial food spoilage.
Microbiological food spoilage is caused by the growth of microorganisms which
produce enzymes that lead to objectionable by-products in the food.
139. What are the effects of food composition on the spoilage process?
It causes food poisoning and gastrointenstinal complications, symptoms like
headache, abdominal cramps, nauseas, vomiting and malaise
140. Why does ground meat provide a better environment for the growth of
food spoilage organisms than solid cuts of meats?
Because the meat is more exposed, fat is not present to protect meat
141. How does food borne intoxication differ from food borne infection?
Foodborne infection is caused by the ingestion of food containing live bacteria
which grow and establish themselves in the human intestinal tract. Foodborne
intoxication is caused by ingesting food containing toxins formed by bacteria
which resulted from the bacterial growth in the food item.
142. What is the critical temperature in thermal processing of animal
products to ensure destruction of viruses?

143. What is blanching? What is its effect on food?

Blanching is immersion of vegetables in hot water and then giving them a
shock by putting them in cold water. It washes the food further, “sets” the
color, softens the tissues to aid-packing, helps form the vacuum, and kills some
microorganisms.
144. Define lyophilization.
Lyophilization or freeze drying is a process in which water is removed from a
product after it is frozen and placed under a vacuum, allowing the ice to
change directly from solid to vapor without passing through a liquid phase.
145. What do you mean by pickling? Mention its uses.
salting or acidification with vinegar, wine, or sour cream. Herring is treated in
various ways; salted, spiced, spiced, and acidified. It keeps out micro-
organisms and enhances flavor
146. Name two antioxidants used in food preservation.
butylated hydroxyanisole (BHA), butylated hydroxytoluene (BHT), propyl
gallate (PG), tertiary butyl hydroquinone (TBHQ)
147. What is curing meat?
Curing is the addition to meats of some combination of salt, sugar, nitrite
and/or nitrate for the purposes of preservation, flavor and color.
148. Name three antibiotics used in food preservation.
Nisin, terramycin, aureomycin and chloromycetin
149. What is Nisin?
It is an antibiotic that apparently interferes with spore germination and with
lysis of the spore coat.
150. Why should all the commercial sterile food be stored in cool and dry
condition?
To increase shelf life of perishable food, if these conditions are not maintained
the available water increases and with it microbial activity.
151. What do you mean by cold sterilization?
Use of chemical steriliant or radiations without use of heat.
152. How does desiccation sterilise food? Name a food preserved by
desiccation.
It reduces the amount of available water due to which the bacteria cannot
grow. Jerky, pasta, powedered milk, dried fruit and vegetable
153. What method of food preservation removes water as a means for
eliminating microbial growth?
Drying or dessication
154. Why should thawed food not be frozen again?
thawed food will have some bacteria that can multiply at room temperature,
meaning that if the food is refrozen, there will be an increase in bacterial count
by the time it is thawed again.

155. Define Rancidity

condition produced by aerial oxidation of unsaturated fat present in foods and
other products, marked by unpleasant odour or flavour.
156. Define Oxidative rancidity
Hydrolytic rancidity is a term that describes off flavors and aromas caused by
release of short chain fatty acids from acylglycerols.
157. Define Hydrolytic rancidity
Hydrolytic rancidity is a term that describes off flavors and aromas caused by
release of short chain fatty acids from acylglycerols.
158. Define Ketonic rancidity
Ketonic rancidity occurs when some moulds (mainly xerophiles) are grown on a
substrate containing short chain fatty acids and leads to the production of
ketones and secondary alcohols containing one carbon atom less than the
parent fatty acid.
159. What is ‘tallowy’?
It is the odor and flavor defect of butter caused due to oxidation of fats
160. What is baker’s yeast?
Strains of Saccharomyeces cerviseae