IDENTIFYING GRAMMATICAL ERRORS

PART I – IDENTIFYING ERRORS
One of the basic type of test found in civil service exams and pre-employment tests is the identification of
errors. This type of examination tests the examinee’s sentence skills particularly his mastery in English grammar. This
covers subject and verb agreement, pronoun-antecedent agreement and appropriate use of verb tenses and verb
forms – all of which follow standard rules.
In addition to errors in agreement rules, other areas that may need correction a sentence include the use of
adjectives and adverbs particularly in comparison sentences, use of prepositions, word choice (especially the use of
homophones or words with the same sound but different meaning) an parallelism in sentence structure. Errors in
mechanics such as capitalization errors and spelling may also appear in this type of test.
EXAMPLES
Direction: Following are sentences with words or phrases marked as A, B, C and D. Choose which of the following
marked word(s) contains an error and needs to be removed or replaced in order to make the sentence correct.
Choose E if there is no error.
1. Each competing team in the sports Olympics were given first-class accommodations by the organizers. No error.
A B C D E
Answer: C
Error: Subject-verb agreement
Explanation: The correct verb should be “was” since the complete subject, each completing team is singular. Each is a
singular indefinite pronoun that always require a singular verb.
2. Since 2015, I enjoyed a retiree’s life in a rustic neighborhood miles away from Baguio City. No error.
A B C D E
Answer: B
Error: Verb tense
Explanation: The correct verb should be “have been enjoying.” The sentence refers to an action that started in the
past (in this case, 205), is still going on at the time of speaking, and may continue in the future. This requires the use
of the present perfect progressive tense (has/have been +ing verb).
3. Most of the female trainees who had joined the parade took her lunch at the school canteen. No error.
A B C D E
Answer: D
Error: Pronoun-antecedent agreement
Explanation: The antecedent, female trainees is plural. Hence, the correct pronoun in the possessive case is “their”.
4. Between speaking in public and taking a written examination, the latter is least intimidating. No error.
A B C D E
Answer: D
Error: Degree in Comparison (Adjectives)
Explanation: The correct word is “less” instead of least as there are only two activities being compared. Least is used
if more than two things, persons or activities are being compared.
5. As soon as we receive word from our contacts, we will appraise you of the situation on the ground. No error.
A B C D E
Answer: B
Error: Word Choice
Explanation: The correct word is “apprise”. To apprise means “to inform”. Appraise is incorrect because it means to
evaluate or assess the value or quality of something. (i.e. appraise the value of a house and lot, or a piece of jewelry)
6. My lovely friend is figure skater, pole dancer, sports commentator and stars in movies. No error.
A B C D E
Answer: D
Error: Parallel Structure
Explanation: The correct phrase is “movie star”, following the same grammatical units used. Figure skater, pole
dancer and sports commentator are all nouns.
Parallelism refers to the use of the same grammatical pattern or units in a sentence. (i.e. series of
ouns or series of adjectives in a sentence create a parallel structure.)
PART I. IDENTIFYING ERROS
PRACTICE TEST 1
Directions. The following sentences may contain an error of some kind. Choose the underlined word or phrase which
must be removed or replaced in order to make the sentence correct. Choose the word or phrase marked E if the
sentence has no error.
1. Since the War on Drugs rolled out early last year, the number of crime incidents in the country have considerably
A B C
declined. No error
D E
2. One of the programs that are being implemented now by local executives require community support. No error.
A B C D E
3. Onlookers were enthralled when they saw the daredevil stunts of the acrobatics team. No error
A B C D E
4. The gun-wielding suspect had mistook the victim for his cousin who owed him a large sum of money. No error.
A B C D E
5. The apathy of the complainant, plus the silence of the witnesses, have weakened the case for the prosecution.
A B C D
No error.
E
6. A number of criminals in Metro Manila remains at large and continue to transgress the law with wanton impunity.
A B C D
No error.
E
7. One of the members of the peace negotiation panel that represented the government were an alumnus of the
A B C D
University of the Philippines. No error.
E
8. Runners are one brand of footwear that started to gain popularity two years ago. No error.
A B C D E
9. Every civil service undergo stringent screening process before being accepted into the service. No error.
A B C D E
10. Had the employee known that his supervisor would evaluate his work, he would have prepare his report earlier.
A B C D
No error.
E
11. The two officers forged a friendship which, throughout the years, have remained strong and steady. No error.
A B C D E
12. At the bottom of the Atlantic Ocean lies buried treasures from the ruins of the doomed Titanic. No error.
A B C D E
13. A new list of students who have hurdled the exam are posted on the bulletin board. No error.
A B C D E
14. Among the nine towns in our province, ours was adjudged the most cleanest during the awarding ceremonies.
A B C D
No error.
E
15. A group of investigators composed mostly of lawyers has been investigating the bombing incident that claimed a
A B C
score of lives. No error.
D E
16. Inside the garage is piles of old and mostly torn newspaper stashed more than five years ago. No error.
A B C D E
17. One of the legislator who proposed an anti-dynasty bill came from the rich-vote province of Ilocos. No error.
A B C D E
18. He was considered the better firefighter among those who were killed in the September 11 attack. No error.
A B C D E
19. Fifty meters of yarn are what the students need to finish a school project due by the end of the month. No error.
A B C D E
20. The judge demanded that the witness takes an oath before him on the first week of March. No error.
A B C D E
ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS
PART I. IDENTIFYING ERRORS

PRACTICE TEST 1
1. C. This is an error on subject-verb agreement. The subject in this sentence is the phrase the number which is
singular. Hence, the verb should be has instead of have. (… the number of crime incidents in the country has
considerably declined.)
2. D. The correct verb should be requires to agree with the subject of the sentence which is one.
3. E. The sentence has no error.
4. B. The correct word is mistaken. It is the past participle form of the verb mistake and is used in perfect tenses (or
actions already completed with respect to the present). In this case, the past perfect tense is used which is formed by
using had + past participle form of the verb. (i.e. had mistaken).
5. C. This is another error on subject-verb agreement. The subject, apathy, is singular and therefore follows a singular
verb which is has weakened. The phrase, plus the silence of the witnesses is called an intervening phrase that does
not affect the subject and verb agreement. Aside from plus, other intervening words include besides, in addition to,
and aside from.
6. B. The phrase a number of when used as a subject of a sentence follows a plural verb. In this sentence, the correct
verb should be remain. Another clue is the verb continue which is plural.
7. C. This is another error on subject-verb agreement. This is similar to item no. 2. The subject is one and agrees with
the verb was instead of were. To test whether the answer is correct, invert the sentence to read like this: An alumnus
of the University of Philippines was (not were) one of the members of the peace negotiation panel represented the
government.
8. A. The correct verb is is. The subject is a singular noun ending in s. It is a name of one footwear brand.
9. B. The subject is singular, hence the verb should be undergoes. Any subject preceded by the indefinite pronoun
every is singular (e.g. every man, every student, etc.)
10. C. The sentence is a conditional statement. Since the perfect tense is used, the correct form of the verb should be
prepared instead of prepare.
11. C. The correct verb is has remained as it refers to friendship which is a singular noun.
12. A. This is an error on subject-verb agreement involving an inverted sentence. (An inverted sentence is one in
which the verb comes first before the subject.) To determine whether the sentence is correct, it has to be reversed to
its natural order where the subject comes first. In this case, it should be read: Buried treasures (lie, lies) … Since the
subject is plural, it should be lie.
13. B. The verb should be is instead of are as it agrees with the subject list which is singular.
14. C. The comparative word most should be removed because the adjective cleanest is already in the superlative
degree.

16. B. The correct verb should be are. When reversed to its natural order, the sentence will read: Piles of old and
mostly torn papers … are inside the garage.
17. A. The correct word is legislators. The noun that follows the phrase one of the… is always in plural form. (When
translated in Filipino, it means, isa sa mga…)
18. B. Instead of better, the correct word is best since more than two persons are involved in the comparison.
19. A. For subjects involving units of measurement, the verb should be singular. Hence, is should be the correct verb.
(It is what the students need.)
20. B. This is a sentence in subjunctive mood and does not follow the standard subject-verb agreement rules. In this
case, the correct verb within the that clause is take instead of takes.
A sentence using the that clause which contains a suggestion, demand, proposal or recommendation (e.g. I proposed
that… He recommends that) is said to be in the subjunctive mood. The verb used following this structure is always in its
base form regardless of the number of the subject.
Example:
The board member proposed that the chairman attend (not attends) the convention.
The proctor suggested that the examinee keep (not keeps) his snacks inside his bag.
PRACTICE TEST 2
1. Because English is the official language used in government, employees should master English grammar so they can
A B C
write clearly and speak confidently. No error.
D E
2. The members of the steering committee proposed that the awarding ceremonies are postponed until electricity is
A B C
restored. No error.
D E
3. Overcame with fear, the young recruit could barely speak when questioned about the anomalous transactions.
A B C D
No error.
E
4. The class officers spent the whole day yesterday preparing for their graduation program. No error.
A B C D E
5. To have a stable job, to fulfill a childhood dream and serving the country are the main reasons fresh graduates
A B C
enter government service. No error.
D E
6. There was no reason for the proctor to get upset against the examinees just because they did not greet her.
A B C D
No error.
E
7. For most commuters in Metro Manila, riding the bus is preferable than riding the train. No error.
A B C D E
8. Our fiscal management for the first quarter of the year have improved, indeed. No error.
A B C D E
9. Some senators voiced descent on the recommendation to hold the witness in contempt. No error.
A B C D E
10. Our national air force flies one of the oldest fleet of aircraft in the world. No error.
A B C D E
11. According to the scriptures, the wicked flee though no one pursue, but the righteous are as bold as a lion.
A B C D
No error.
E
12. Men are free to do anything they see fit, but they have to remembered that God will judge them for the things
A B C
done in the body, whether good or bad. No error.
D E
13. Taking of photographs inside the meeting rooms are strictly prohibited. No error.
A B C D E
14. Neither the members of the audience nor the keytone speaker were aware of the scuffles between the security
A B C D
guards and the demonstrators. No error.
E
15. For most parents, the culmination of responsible parenting is that special day when they get to marched on stage
A B C
and witness their children receive a college diploma. No error.
D E
16. Servant-leadership is a proven, time-tested leadership anchored on the principles of selflessness and sacrifice.
A B C D
No error.
E
17. Unless we allow God to govern us, we will governed ourselves the wrong way. No error.
A B C D E
18. Complaining is an indicator of how poorly we managed stress whether at work or at home. No error.
A B C D E
19. She dreads looking at herself in the mirror because she can’t no longer see the vibrancy of youth and the smile in
A B C D
her eyes. No error.
E
20. We should understand that taxes should be spend wisely and given back to the Filipino people to help improve
A B C
the quality of their life. No error.
D E

PRACTICE TEST 2
2. C. The sentence is in subjunctive mood. The correct form of the verb is be instead of are. See answer key Practice
Test 1, item no. 20 for the explanation.
3. A. The correct word is overcome. It is a participle (one of the three verbals – gerund, infinitive and participle) acting
as an adjective. In this sentence, the participle phrase overcome with fear, describes the subject recruit.
5. B. The correct phrase is to serve the country so as to follow the principle of parallel structure. This means that a
sentence should use the same coordinate grammatical units. In this case, infinitives (to have, to fulfill and to serve)
are used.
6. B. The correct preposition is with (upset with) and not against.
7. D. The correct word is to (preferable to) and not preferable than.
8. C. Following the rule on subject-verb agreement, the verb should be has improved because it refers to a singular
subject which is fiscal management.
9. B. The appropriate word choice is dissent which means opposing view, and not descent which means a downward
movement.
10. C. The correct word is fleets instead of fleet. A plural noun follows the phrase one of the …
11. B. No one is a singular indefinite pronoun that agrees with a singular verb. Hence, the correct verb is pursues
instead of pursue. Both the wicked and the righteous are adjectives used as nouns and requires plural verbs.
12. B. Infinitives take the form of the preposition to + base form of the verb (e.g. to cook, to report, to denounce). In
the given statement, the correct infinitive is to remember, not to remembered.
13. D. The subject in this sentence is the gerund phrase, taking of photographs, which is a single activity. Therefore, it
agrees with the verb is, and not are.
14. B. The verb should be was not were.
When there are two subjects separated by either or or neither nor, the subject that is nearer
the verb determines the agreement. In the given sentence, speaker is nearer the verb; hence, it
should follow a singular verb.
15. C. In the infinitive to + verb, the verb is always in its base form (meaning without s or ed). In the sentence, to
marched is incorrect. The correct infinitive is to march.
16. E. The sentence is correct.

17. C. The use of the future tense of the verb (will/shall + verb) requires the base form of the verb. In the sentence,
governed should be replaced by govern.
18. C. We use the present tense of the verb in statement of facts. Hence, in the sentence, the verb managed should
be changed to manage.
19. C. This is a case of double negatives. The word can’t should be replaced with can.
20. A. The correct form of the verb is spent and not spend.
PRACTICE TEST 3
1. Let us strive to preserved our character because when we have it, we have everything. No error.
A B C D E
2. A study reveals that active individuals are more positive in their outlook and experience greater self-efficacy than
A B C
sedentary or inactive people. No error.
D E
3. If we realize that God values the human body and even intend it to be his dwelling place, then we will not have to
A B C
worry about the human rights violations. No error.
D E
4. Sports provide a venue where teammates and rivals alike can create meaningful bonds and forge enduring
A B C D
friendships. No error.
E
5. Engaging in sports is one of the best avenue to release our stress away. No error.
A B C D E
6. One essential trait that a person must cultivate in order to survive in the game called life is flexibility. No error.
A B C D E
7. A flexible person is one who can adopt well to different situations, whether good or bad. No error.
A B C D E
8. Each of us have a God-given purpose and a race to finish. No error.

A B C D E
9. History is replete with exemplary exploits of Filipino women in various realm of endeavor. No error.
A B C D E
10. The Filipino woman is known not only for her nurturing nature but also for her resilience in times of challenges.
A B C D
No error.
E
11. God in his sovereignty has all ready determined beforehand the number of our days on earth. No error.
A B C D E
12. No wealth and no power in life make a man truly happy. No error.
A B C D E
13. The incessant pouring of rain has drenched the cloth and shrank it to half its original size. No error.
A B C D E
14. His consolation, despite his defeat in the elections, are the respect and loyalty of his followers. No error.
A B C D E
15. A huge number of words and phrases in Visayan dialect was used by the President in his inaugural address.
A B C D
No error.
E
16. Between the two competing basketball teams, the Shooters had fewest turnovers. No error.
A B C D E
17. Engagement in the social media such as Facebook, Twitter and Instagram, are, according to recent studies, highly
A B C D
addictive. No error.
E
18. Millennials find it difficult to cultivate deep and meaningful relationships because oftentimes, they turn to their
A B C
devises for security. No error.
D E
19. The accessibility of the Internet has caused an explosion of knowledge unprecedented in the history of mankind.
A B C D
No error.
E
20. Because we just live on borrowed time, we should strived to live our purpose which is to know and obey God.
A B C D
No error.
E

PRACTICE TEST 3
1. B. An infinitive (to + verb) form always takes on verbs in their base form (meaning, no adding of s or ed). In the
sentence, to preserved is incorrect. It should be to preserve.
An infinitive is a form of verbal (verb forms that do not function as verbs or action
words, but as noun or modifiers). In the given sentence, to preserve functions as an
adverb as it modifies the verb strive
3. B. The correct verb is intends and not intend. It agrees with the noun God.
5. C. The correct word is avenues (plural) and not avenue. The sentence indicates that engaging in sports is one of the
best avenues (but not the only one) to release our stress away.
7. B. The appropriate word is adapt, and not adopt. To adapt means to change or become suitable to a certain
condition or environment. To adopt means to take something legally as your own.
8. B. Each is a singular indefinite pronoun and agrees with a singular verb. In the given sentence, has is the correct
verb.
9. D. Using the preceding word various as a hint, the noun that follows it should be plural. Hence, the correct word is
realms not realm. The modifier various obviously points to more than one reference.
10. E. There is no error in the sentence.
11. B. The correct word choice is already, which is an adverb of time describing something has happened before a
specific time. All ready means that everything has been prepared.
12. C. Compound subjects preceded by no (in this case, no wealth and no power) follows or agrees with a singular
verb. Hence, the correct word should be makes, instead of make.
13. C. The past participle form of the verb shrink is shrunk. The sentence uses the present perfect tense of the verb
(has/have + past participle of the verb) which requires the past participle form (e.g. has taken, have drunk, has
mistaken).
14. D. This is an error on subject-verb agreement. The subject is consolation, which is singular, hence the verb that
agrees with it should be is. The phrase, despite his defeat in the election, is just an interrupting or intervening phrase
that does not affect the subject-verb agreement.
15. C. When the phrase a number is used as a subject of a sentence, it always follows a plural verb. The correct verb
should be were. However, the phrase the number when used as a subject of a sentence follows a singular verb (The
number of students that drop out of schools year after year is staggering.)
16. D. Since only two teams are being compared, the correct term is fewer.
17. B. The subject is engagement which is singular. The correct verb therefore is, is. The prepositional phrase in the
social media, is an intervening phrase that does not determine nor affect the subject and verb agreement.
18. D. This is an error on diction or word usage. The word devises is a verb. Devices in the noun and is the appropriate
word in the sentence given.
19. E. There is no error in the sentence.
20. C. The sentence contains an error on verb form. Instead of strived, the correct form is strive as it is preceded by a
modal should.
Modals such as will, would, can, could, may and might are used with the base form of the
verb (e.g. could understand, not could understood; will consider, not will considered)
PRACTICE TEST 4
1. Have you realize how little control you have over your life? No error.
A B C D E
2. Even the Scriptures says, “We may throw the dice, but the Lord determines how they fall.” No error.
A B C D E
3. Paul, who was a staunch persecutor of Christians prior to his conversion, consider himself the worst among all
A B C D
sinners. No error.
E
4. If only I could turn back the hands of time, I will not squander my youth on meaningless pursuits. No error.
A B C D E
5. Vigilant netizens have already shared the video online before the actress sat for an interview to deny its contents.
A B C D
No error.
E
6. Our savior invites us to lie down our troubles and worries upon his feet and to find rest for our souls in him.
A B C D
No error.
E
7. Peace negotiators refused to divulge information when it was asked to comment on the ongoing peace talks with
A B C
the leftists. No error.
D E
8. The news of the President’s impending visit to the hospital have excited the doctors and patients. No error.
A B C D E
9. Except my mother and I, everyone was present during the 100th birthday celebration of my grandfather in our
A B C D
hometown. No error.
E
10. The fighting senator spoke with thunder to convinced his colleagues of the need to re-impose the death penalty
A B C
for perpetrators of heinous crimes. No error.
D E
11. Last night, I laid the documents on the table so my husbands would see and browse them before meeting his
A B C D
friends. No error.
E
12. Because of the changing weather, small children at a daycare center easily catched a cold. No error.
A B C D E
13. The members of the steering committee for our company’s founding anniversary have not made up its minds yet
A B C D
on the schedule of their meeting. No error.
E
14. According to the kidnapper, the safe release of his victim is a remote impossibility unless random is paid by the
A B C D
relatives. No error.
E
15. Either swimming in the pool or running on a treadmill significantly improve the heart’s performance. No error.
A B C D E
16. Writing, among other activities, challenge me the most because it is mentally exacting. No error.
A B C D E
17. During a board meeting, the president proposed that the present curriculum is revised to address the gaps
A B C
between the academe and the industry. No error.
D E
18. According to a famous Christian evangelist, people who have already decided in their heart what they want to
A B
believe are impervious to reason. No error.
C D E
19. Does the pious, faithful people who never miss church really care for the sick, destitute and homeless? No error.
A B C D E
20. The widower tries with all her might to soothe the children’s sorrows and fears. No error.
A B C D E

PRACTICE TEST 4
1. B. Realized is the correct verb form and not realize. It is preceded by a helping verb have to form the present
perfect tense. The verb in the present perfect tense is in its past participle for. Since realize is a regular verb (meaning
its past and past participle form end in d or ed), the correct verb is realized.
3. B. The sentence contains an error on verb tense consistency. Since the descriptive clause describing the subject
Paul is in the past tense, the verb should also be in the past tense. The correct verb is considered.
4. B. The sentence contains an error on verb consistency. The correct helping verb is would to maintain consistency in
verb tense (i.e. use of could turn in the first clause, and would not squander, in the succeeding clause.)
5. B. The correct verb tense is had already shared. This is known as past perfect tense or an action that occurred
before another action took place.
The past perfect tense involves two past actions and the earlier past action is known as the past
perfect. In the sentence given, there were two action involved – the sharing of the video as well
as the conduct of interview. The past perfect tense follows this structure: had + past participle
form of the verb (e.g. had spoken, had initiated, had discussed)
6. A. This is an error on correct usage. The correct verb is lay instead of lie. To lie means to recline (as in lie in bed),
while to lay is to place or put something down.
7. B. This is an error on pronoun-antecedent agreement. The antecedent or the noun for which the pronoun stands is
peace negotiators. The correct phrase should be they were instead of it was.
8. C. The sentence contains an error on subject-verb agreement. News is a singular noun that ends in s and should
therefore agree with the verb has (excited), and not have (excited).
9. B. The correct pronoun is me. In the sentence, except is used as a preposition followed by a noun (mother) and a
pronoun in the objective case (me instead of I).
10. C. Infinitives (to + verb) take on the base form of the verb. In this sentence, convinced is incorrect. The correct
form is convince.
12. D. This is an error on verb form. The past tense of the verb catch is caught and not catched.
13. D. The correct pronoun is their, referring to the subject – members.
14. C. Remote possibility and not remote impossibility.
15. C. This is another error on subject-verb agreement. The correct verb is improves because grammar rules prscribe
that singular subjects joined by either or or neither nor take on singular verbs.
16. B. The subject, writing, is a singular activity and should take on a singular verb. In this case, the correct verb is
challenges. The phrase, among other activities, does not affect the subject and verb agreement because it is just an
intervening phrase.
17. B. Instead of is, the correct verb is be (i.e. that the present curriculum be revised ..) A sentence that contains a
proposal, suggestion, demand, or recommendation using the that clause (e.g. I proposed that.. She suggested that.. )
is said to be in subjunctive mood.
The sentence characterized by this mood does not follow the normal subject-verb agreement
rule. Instead the verb used is always in its base form regardless of the number of the subject.
Examples:
(a) The instructor demanded that his student be (not is) present during the exhibit.
(b) The director suggested that the clerk attend (not attends) the conference.
18. E. This sentence has no error.
19. A. The correct helping verb is do instead of does. The subject, the pious, faithful people, is plural and thus requires
a plural verb (do care, instead of does care.)
20. A. The widower is a male; hence, the correct pronoun is his.

PART II. GRAMMAR & CORRECT USAGE
PACTICE TEST 5
Direction: Each item in this section consists of four sentences marked A, B, C and D, all of which, EXCEPT ONE contain
errors either in grammar or word usage. Choose only the correct sentence from among the choices given.
1. A. Japanese fighter ships sunk a number of warships during World War II.
B. If I have known this training earlier, I would have been the first to sign up.
C. Employees have been diligently attending review classes since January this year.
D. Just as the judge was ordered, the defense counsel submitted a rejoinder on behalf of his client.
2. A. One half of the fifty examinees has brought packed lunches.

B. Did the senate provide adequate security to the witness during the hearing?
C. The riot had broken out inside the facility yesterday and caught the media’s attention.
D. The victim was rushed to the hospital yesterday where he undergone immediate surgical operation.
3. A. As dusk fall workers gather their tools and prepare for home.
B. Here is the records you requested from the office of the registrar.
C. The sound of grinding metal in several houses under repair annoy our pet.
D. One of the councilors who expressed a dissenting opinion was suspended.
4. A. Mr. Castro’s father gave her a house and lot for inheritance.
B. A number of armed civilians does not follow the rules on gun safety.
C. The most valuable gift I received so far are a pair of Jimmy Choo shoes.
D. M Most of the demonstrators who brought placards were university students.
5. A. The poor is oftentimes the collateral damage on the war against drugs.
B. Amnesty International condemn the spate of unresolved killing in the country.
C. Patronage politics are one area where Filipinos are deeply mired in.
D. National leaders do not seem to meet eye to eye on major issues affecting the country.
6. A. A group of police officers has been investigating the shooting incident.

B. In our town, elected officials adheres to ethical standards when they perform their duties.
C. Employees in private companies who are into business process outsourcing are sufficiently paid.
D. Neither Alexa’s relative nor her best friend are coming to her wedding, much to her disappointment.
7. A. The instructor wearing thick, dark glasses teach quite well.

B. Honest and humble people like Robert is hard to come by these days.
C. He was informed that the billeting facilities was already due for renovation.
D. The cable tower peering above the trees indeed looks smaller from a distance.
8. A. Along the beach walks hand in hand two girls of the same height.
B. Writing short stories and reading them aloud are an activity I truly enjoy.
C. The sight of children chasing butterflies reminds me of my childhood days.
D. The principal, together with the district supervisors, inspect the new room.
9. A. Songwriting and illustrating pushes my imagination to the limits.

B. Fifteen years from now, I shall have released my own animated film.
C. They already knew last month that they will visit their ailing grandmother.
D. According to the new president, somebody have to answer this mess.
10. A. Driving along Park Avenue, the dump truck pass by.
B. The lady looked inside the drawer searching for her wallet.
C. The deranged man, having assaulted his neighbor, was brought to the police station.
D. Wearing a pair of black trousers and Aviator sunglasses, the actor indeed look commanding.
11. A. To be proficient in writing, students should read.

B. To be proficient writers, reading should be done by students.
C. Reading should be done by students to be proficient in writing.
D. To be proficient in writing, reading should be done by students.
12. A. According to my colleague, Dr. Rafael is both an accomplished writer and broadcaster who is well-known.
B. Dr. Rafael, according to my colleague, is accomplished writer and well-known broadcaster.
C. According to my colleague, Dr. Rafael is both an accomplished writer and well-known broadcaster.
D. Dr. Rafael, according to my colleague is both an accomplished writer and well-known in broadcasting.
13. A. The man suspected of robbing a grocery store surrendered to the police.
B. One of the two college professors who are recipients of awards are out of the country.
C. To travel the world and landing a stable job are the main reasons I opted to finish studies.
D. The learners, spent the whole day yesterday, preparing for their group presentation.
14. A. The speaker we invited is an authority with international affairs.

B. The negotiator noted the differences of ideas between the contending parties.
C. There is no reason for the father to get upset at his children just because they did not see him right away.
D. The doctor mentioned that his patient is responding well with the treatment.
15. A. Applicants need to appraise their prospective employers everything about their employment background.
B. The registrar is ready to apprise the personal data sheets and scholastic records of the transferees.
C. He voiced dissent on the controversial decision made by fellow committee members.
D. The decent from our respected position in the business global ranking is truly appalling.
16. A. When responding policemen arrive, the suspects had already fled the crime scene.
B. Who’s medical records have not been submitted yet?
C. Major issues like this one have to be taken up and studied seriously.
D. Instinctively, the lead actor and her ran for cover when violence erupted.
17. A. Their performance during the talent show made the proud of theirselves.
B. Among the attendees in the meeting, Carrie was the most insightful.
C. Less kids wants to enter the police service in the country.
D. His german visitor decided to visit an orphanage in the Metropolis.
18. A. What among these case folders bears the chief’s signature?
B. Hiring companies prefer male applicants than their female counterparts.
C. By riding a boat, the suspect’s hideout was finally reached by their pursuers.
D. The victim could hardly speak when her relatives found her.
19. A. The audio-visual presentation is aimed to illicit support for the government’s anti-piracy program.
B. That fellows belongs to an imminent clan of doctors and lawyers.
C. Vehicle’s negotiated a tortuous road on their way to Ifugao province.
D. A truckload of furnitures and appliances were unloaded at the gymnasium.
20. A. Some of the sizzling steak served in red platter lost their flavor.
B. Home education benefits our son because she learned without being pressured.
C. Either Mark or Aric will bring its camera for its whole-day outing in Laguna.
D. One of the men in the studio was determined to give his time for the medical mission.

PRACTICE TEST 5
1. C. This sentence uses the present perfect progressive tense accurately.
The present perfect progressive tense is used to refer to an action that started in the past, is
continuing up to the time of speaking, and may as well continue in the future.
Choice A contains an error in verb form because it used the past participle which is used only in perfect tenses,
instead of the past form or tense. Instead of sunk, the correct verb is sank.
Choice B is incorrect because the conditional if clause should use the past perfect (had + past participle) that is, had
known instead of have known.
In Choice D, the correct verb in the introductory phrase is, ‘just as the judge had ordered (and not was ordered.)’
Here, the subject (judge) was the doer of the action and not the receiver.
2. B
Choice A is incorrect because the correct verb should be have sine the subject is plural. (one half of 50 is 25).
Choice C should use the past tense of the verb only (broke out, instead of had broken out) because it uses an adverb
of time (yesterday) which is used in simple past tense.
Choice D has erroneous use of past participle of the verb (undergone). The correct verb should be underwent. Take
note that just like choice C, it uses an adverb of time denoting a simple past tense.
3. D. The subject is one and agrees with the verb was suspended.
In choice A, the correct verb is falls (i.e., As dusk falls …) since the subject dusk is singular.
Choice B has an error on subject-verb agreement. Instead of is, the correct verb is are. If we invert the sentence it will
read: It should be—Here are the records…
In Choice C, the correct verb is annoys (The sound…annoys).
4. D
Choice A contains an error in pronoun-antecedent agreement. The pronoun her which is feminine, does not agree
with the noun, Mr. Castro, which is masculine.
In Choice B, the phrase a number should agree with the plural verb (A number… do not…)
In Choice C, the verb that agrees with gift (which is the subject of the sentence) is not are, but is.
5. D
Choice A contains an error on subject-verb agreement. The subject the poor agrees with a plural verb (are).
In Choice B, the correct verb is condemns.
In Choice C, politics is a singular noun and should therefore take on singular verb (is instead of are)
6. A
In Choice B, the correct verb is adhere.
In Choice C, the relative pronoun should be either which or that (companies that are/which are). Who refers to a
person.
In Choice D, the subject which is nearer the verb is singular (best friend), hence the verb must also be singular (is
coming).
7. D
Choice A – The instructor… teaches (not teach)…
Chocie B – The subject is Honest and humble people (which is plural), hence, the correct linking verb must be are.
Choice C – … facilities were (not was).
8. C
Choice A is an inverted sentence in which the verb (walks) comes first before the subject (girls). The error is in the
verb. (It should be walk, not walks)
Choice B has a plural subject (writing and reading). They are two different activities. (… are activities I truly enjoy)
Choice D. The subject is principal (which is singular). The correct verb is inspects.
The intervening phrase (together with…) does not affect the agreement between the subject
and predicate.
9. B. (It refers to an action that is assumed to be completed before a specific time in the future.)
Choice A – Songwriting and illustrating push (not pushes)…
Choice C – Following the principle of verb consistency, the correct verb in the subordinate clause is would visit.
Choice D – Somebody is singular indefinite pronoun which takes on a singular verb (has instead of have)
10. C
Choice A contains a dangling modifier. It does not specifically refer to anyone or anything in the main clause or idea.
Choice B has an error on misplaced modifier. It should be arranged like this: Searching for her wallet, the lady looked
inside the drawer.
Choice D contains an error on subject-verb agreement (actor indeed looks, not look)
11. A
Choice B and D have dangling modifiers.
Choice C is vague.
12. C. It follows the principle of parallel structure or parallelism.
This means that the same grammatical units are used in a list of items. In this sentence,
accomplished (a participle functioning as an adjective) is parallel with well-known (another
adjective, also a participle).
Choice A does not have a parallel structure. used are accomplished (adjective), and who is well-known (noun clause).
Choice B – the correct phrases should be accomplished in writing and well-known in broadcasting (parallel
prepositional phrases).
Choice D has the same structure as choice B.
13. A
In choice B, the error is in subject-verb agreement. One, being the subject, agrees with is (and not are) out of the
country.
Choice C has an error in parallel structure. (It should be, to travel and to land…)
Choice D contains punctuation errors. (commas are unnecessary)
14. B.
(All other choices contain errors in the use of preposition)
Choice A – an authority on (not with)
Choice C – upset with (a person), upset at (a situation)
Choice D – responding well to (not with) the treatment.
15. C.
(All other choices have errors in word choice/usage)
Choice A – Apprise is the correct word; it means to inform.
Choice B – The accurate word is appraise (to evaluate).
Choice D – descent (meaning a downward movement) and not decent.
16. C
Choice A contains an error in verb tense. Instead of arrive (present), the correct verb is arrived.
Choice B contains an error in the use of interrogative pronouns. Who’s is a contraction for who is. The correct
pronoun is whose (possessive)
Choice D – The correct pronoun is she and not her (i.e., the lead actor and she). It is in the subjective case as it acts as
a subject of the sentence.
17. B
Choice A contains an error in word usage. There is no such word as theirselves. It should be themselves.
In Choice C, the correct adjective describing the kids is few (for count nouns) and not less (which is used for non-
count nouns, like sugar)
Choice D contains an error on capitalization. the word “german” should start with a capital letter.
18. D
Choice A – The correct interrogative pronoun is which and not what.
Choice B – Prefer to, instead of prefer than (prefer male applicants to their female counterparts)
Choice C contains a dangling modifier. The correct arrangement is as follows: By riding a boat, pursuers finally
reached the suspect’s hideout.
19. C.
(All other choices contain errors in word choice/usage.)
Choice A – elicit (to draw out) instead of illicit
Choice B – eminent (meaning well-known) instead of imminent
Choice D – No s in furniture (It is a special noun in which the plural form stays the same as its singular form)
20. D
Choice A – The correct pronoun is its instead of their.
Choice B – The personal pronoun she does not agree with the noun it refers to which is masculine in gender (son).
Choice C – its is used for non-living things; the correct pronoun is his.
PACTICE TEST 6
Direction: Each item in this section consists of four sentences marked A, B, C and D, all of which, EXCEPT ONE contain
errors either in grammar or word usage. Choose only the correct sentence from among the choices given.
1. A. Unless one million pesos are paid, the kidnapper will not release the victim.
B. Either blue or purple make an enchanting wedding backdrop.
C. Each town and barangay in our province was destroyed by flood.
D. Just about anyone in the group believe in what the leader says.
2. A. The book of Proverbs are a compilation sayings which we can all benefit from.
B. The dedication of our young soldiers deserves to be recognized by the President.
C. The mother, accompanied by her two children, were hysterical over the incident.
D. One fourth of the scholars comes from public high schools.
3. A. Either jogging or swimming improve the heart’s performance.

B. Watching television and surfing the net makes kids physically inactive.
C. Cramming for examinations do not contribute to all to enhance one’s intellect.
D. The ubiquitous presence of passenger jeepneys contributes to the horrible traffic problem in Mero Manila.
4. A. The police dog playfully wagged it’s tail upon seeing the bone.
B. The two-stories establishment was razed by fire only this year.
C. Kindly please give your immediate superior my message as soon as he arrives.
D. Gasping for breath, the wrestler could no longer fight back as he was pinned against the canvass.
5. A. I have finally come from the conclusion that politics is self-serving.

B. The men in uniform have recently been promised a raise in his salary.
C. Rudy and Lorna divided the winnings among the two of them.
D. Each of the stunning beauties who joined the Miss Universe pageant had winning poise and captivating charm.
6. A. If you were to choose your dream destination, where will you like it to be?
B. The learning mentors taught you how to synergize, didn’t they?
C. If he can only speak French, he would certainly accept the invitation.
D. Reckless drivers disobey traffic rules and regulations with imfunity.
7. A. The limbless guest, as well as his charming wife, have been the focus of local TV programs.
B. One of the most exciting portion in the program was the raffle draw.
C. Criminals, I can say, do not have high regards for human life.
D. Excellence does not imply perfection. It means giving your best and leaving the results to God.
8. A. A failure is one who easily give up and stop trying.

B. Many mother-in-laws have adversarial relations with their daughter-in-law.
C. According to the Psalmist, our life is like a passing shadow, gone too soon without a trace.
D. Our life is also a “mist that appear for a little while and then vanishes.”
9. A. People oftentimes turn to God only when they are at the lowest ebb of their life.
B. During spare time, my friends love to go swimming and to fish in a nearby river.
C. Elijah contented with the prophets of Baal who were idle worshippers.
D. Why did the witness vehemently refused to disclose all that he knew?
10. A. He is a highly-respected leader whose career has span more than four decades.
B. It is important to recognized the role played by sports in our learner’s overall development.
C. Scientific studies show that there is a positive correlation between work productivity and sports participation.
D. These activities has afforded them the opportunity to be refreshed mentally and physically.
11. A. The President have pressing matters to attend to so he cannot make it today.
B. Just as reading increases our brain power, so does exercising improve our physical well-being.
C. For our heroes, there is no love than the love for once native country.
D. We celebrate Independence Day to remember the struggles of the past and appreciate the liberty we presently
enjoyed.
12. A. Have you ever experience the pain and horror of war and invasion?
B. Youngsters today, instead of loving the country, dream of leaving the country.
C. Did you realize that the freedom we now enjoy was dip in the blood of our martyrs?
D. It is disheartening to witness the rise of young Filipinos unconcern and apathetic to our historical roots as a
nation.
13. A. We have a generation that has lost the appetite on reading.

B. Youngsters waste their time on unproductive activity like online games and social networking.
C. They turn to gadgets to tickle their eyes and not to books to tickle their sense of imagination.
D. Reading good books can tempered online addiction and can further enrich our minds.
14. A. Our standoff with another country portends danger to our ow sovereignty.
B. Our women’s resilience is an invaluable sources of strength in times of challenges.
C. The Filipino woman is known for their nurturing and care-giving qualities.
D. The man was overcame with emotions when he met his long-lost children.
15. A. The explosion of technological innovations have practically changed the way people think, study and live.
B. The social media have opened doors for citizens to take part in both national and international issues affected
their lives.
C. Netizens are online citizens who were more informed, perceptive and global-oriented.
D. The world with its opportunities that were once far-removed from us is now accessible in just a click of a
mouse.
16. A. Most overseas Filipino workers take on odd jobs that are way below their educational credentials.
B. They work abroad out of a sense of desperation because of the limitless opportunities in their own country.
C. To be global means that our skills and competence can compete with other nationalities in the international
arena.
D. Skills are developed and hone by practice and maximum engagement.
17. A. The ability to communicate proficiently in English is a must if one wants to work in abroad.
B. A person who can communicate better has the highest chances of succeeding and thriving in work over one
who cannot express himself.
C. Without character, competence may bred arrogance and confidence may bred pride.
D. Learning can take place in any situation whether or not there is a human teacher aided the learner.
18. A. Departures are often mark with a tinge of sadness.

B. You can rest assure that with your legacy, you will leave this institution in good hands.
C. The incoming Director possesses the qualifications to take the reigns of leadership.
D. Indeed, for any organization to succeed, cooperation among members is necessary.
19. A. We have not had a whiff of good news lately to lift our collective spirit from a sense of gloomed to celebration.
B. We have the rights to be indignant over unrighteousness, covetousness and greed.
C. We are bombarded nowadays with news accounts showcasing the erosion of values and moral decadence in
our society.
D. One’s educational attainment do not guarantee a sterling character in an individual.
20. A. We are just clays that can become honorable vessel to be used for noble purposes.
B. If you are surrounded with complainers, it is easy to become one yourself.
C. A happy public means a stabilize, peaceful and orderly society.
D. The only secret to quality life is to turned to the source of life himself.

PRACTICE TEST 6
1. C
Choice A – Singular verbs are used for units of money. (i.e., One million pesos is paid…)
Choice B – Singular subjects joined by either or or neither nor agrees with a singular verb (Either blue or purple
makes…)
Choice D – Anyone is a singular indefinite pronoun, and therefore agrees with singular verb. (Anyone… believes…)
2. B
Choice A – The subject is book which is singular. (The book… is…)
Choice C – The mother… was (not were)
Choice D – For subjects that contain fractions, the verb agrees with the noun referred to by the fraction. In the
sentence, scholars is plural, hence, the verb must be plural (come instead of comes).
3. D
Choice A – Either jogging or swimming improves (not improve)
Choice B – Watching… and surfing… make (not makes)
Choice C – Cramming… does (not do) not…
4. D
Choice A – It’s is a contraction of it is. The correct possessive pronoun is its.
Choice B – two-story establishment and not two-stories establishment
Choice C – Either kindly or please will do. Using both words in a sentence is redundant.
5. D
Choice A - … come to (not from) the conclusion…
Choice B – Error in pronoun – antecedent (a raise in their salary)
Choice C - … between (not among) the two of them
6. B
Choice A – If you were… where would you… (not will you)
Choice C – If he could (not can) only speak… he would certainly accept

Choice D – The correct word is impunity (not imfunity)
7. D
Choice A – The phrase, as well as his charming wife, does not affect the agreement between the subject (guest) and
he verb. Hence, the correct verb is has (and not have).
Choice B – Instead of portion, it should be portions
Choice C – It should be regard (which means respect) and not regards
8. C
Choice A – stops instead of stop. It should be consistent with the verb gives up which is singular.
Choice B – The word mother-in-laws does not exist; mothers-in-law does.
Choice D – Mist is singular hence the verb in the relative clause describing it should be singular as well. (i.e., mist that
appears and not appear)
9. A
Choice B – Error in parallel structure; go swimming and go fishing (or to swim or to fish)
Choice C – The prophets of Baal were idol (not idle) worshippers.
Choice D – Error in verb form; did refuse (and not did refused)
10. C
Choice A - … career has spanned (not has span)
Choice B - …to recognize (not to recognized)
Choice D - … activities have (not has) afforded
11. B
Choice A – The President has (not have)…
Choice C - … love for one’s (not once) native country
Choice D - …presently enjoy (not enjoyed)
12. B
Choice A – Have you experienced (not have experience)…
Choice C - … freedom was dipped (not dip) in the blood …
Choice D – Filipinos unconcerned (not unconcern)…

13. C
Choice A - … appetite for (not on) reading
Choice B - … unproductive activities (not activity) like …
Choice D - …can temper (not tempered) …
14. A
Choice B – an invaluable source (not sources)
Choice C - … woman … for her (not their)
Choice D – was overcome (not overcame)
15. D
Choice A - …explosion … has (not have)…
Choice B – issues affecting (not affected)…
Choice C - …citizens who are (not were) more informed…
16. A
Choice B – because of the limited (not limitless)…
Choice C – competence may breed (not bred)…
Choice D - …teacher aiding (not aided) the learner.
17. A
Choice B - …has the higher (not highest) chances…
Choice C - …compete with those of other nationalities (not with other nationalities)…
Choice D - …are developed and honed (not hone)
18. D
Choice A – …often marked (not mark)
Choice B – …rest assured (not rest assure)
Choice C – …to take the reins (not reigns)
19. C
Choice A - … sense of gloom (not gloomed)…

Choice B - … have the right (not rights)…
Choice D - …attainment does (not do) not…
20. B
Choice A - … becomes honorable vessels (not vessel)
Choice C - … means a stabilized (not stabilize)
Choice D - … is to turn (not to turned) to…

PART III
CONTEXTUAL MEANING
Most vocabulary tests asking you to supply a word of pair of words to complete a given sentence requires a
skill in finding context clues.
A context simply refers to the information surrounding the word which points or leads you
to the meaning of that word. It can be an explanation or description (i.e. details), which,
when read in its entirety, will help you understand what the word means.
Contextual clues can help you determine the meaning of (1) a word that has different meanings and (2) unfamiliar
words
Word with different meanings

The following sentences use different meanings of the word “expire”.
1. My employment contract with an accounting firm expired last month.
2. The wounded soldier expired inside the operating room.
In the first example, expired means “ended”. In the second example, the same word means, “breathed his last” or
“died”. Context, therefore, helps you figure out a word that can take on several meanings.
Unfamiliar Words
Context is especially useful in determining the meaning of unfamiliar words. Shown below are examples of tests
involving this type of words:
Direction: Choose the best meaning of the underlined word in each sentence.
1. Aptly tagged a dissident member, Ben has had a long history of breaking rules and challenging the established
traditions in their family.
A. brusque C. assertive
B. rebellious D. courageous
The answer is (B). The sentence provides a direct context clue or explanation that means the same as the underlined
word.
2. My nephew has a strong aversion to bright lights. He screams, kicks and throws a fit whenever his sister aims the
flashlight at him. He prefers to play in a dimly-lit room.
A. appetite C. dislike
B. attraction D. desire
The answer is (C). While the word “aversion” may be unfamiliar, the way the succeeding sentences are written gives
us a clue what it means. By giving details that show a negative reaction, the sentence (or context) leads you to infer
that the unfamiliar word has a negative meaning attached to it. Moreover, by giving a clue of the opposite of the
word (i.e. prefer), the context helps you to figure out easily the meaning of the word.
3. During Christmas season, the sights and sounds are enchanting. Malls are bedecked with glittering ornaments and
bright, colorful lights which delight both children and adults alike.
A. adorned C. devoid
B. smeared D. coated
The answer is (A). Details like glittering ornaments and bright lights give us the clue that “bedeck” means “adorn”.
4. When I entered the room, I was shocked to see it in total disarray. Broken pieces of liquor bottles were
everywhere. Cabinets were splattered with paint, and crumpled newspapers were scattered on the floor.
A. neatly organized C. visually attractive

B. in complete mess D. in need of repair
The answer is (B). The contextual clues or details in the succeeding sentences reveal that the room is in a complete
mess.
PART III. CONTEXTUAL MEANING
PRACTICE TEST 7
Direction: The following sentences need a word or words to complete their meaning. Choose the word or words that
best fit the meaning of each sentence.
1. Malvar was ______________ after losing his wife and two sons; he felt it was already the end of his rope. He could
not see any reason for living anymore.
A. irked D. dissatisfied
B. anxious E. despondent
C. surprised
2. Despite the
many years she spent studying Calculus, Agnes still found it ________________, so she enrolled in a tutorial center
where she studied three times a week.
A. exciting D. adversarial
B. offensive E. confounding
C. turbulent
3. A/An _________________ person is one who desires excessive wealth and material things, yet never felt satisfied.
A. miserly D. capricious
B. haughty E. benevolent
C. avaricious
4. The animosity between the defense counsel and the prosecutor was so _________________that the judge could
not contain banging his gave loudly to bring the heated proceedings back to order.
A. languid D. inconspicuous
B. palpable E. consequential
C. reasonable
5. The radio announcer’s __________________ remarks against a local politician forced the letter to _____________
to legal means.
A. acrimonious…..allude D. slanderous…..resort
B. satiric…..consult E. acrid…..act
C. profane…..refer
6. Two sports utility vehicles had been involved in a ________________. Upon inspection, however, the damage to
either vehicle was deemed _________________.
A. accident…..costly D. collision…..substantial
B. collusion…..negligible E. collision…..inconsequential
C. road rage…..superficial
7. The city treasurer was charged with ____________; he misappropriated the city funds for ________________ use.
A. grave misconduct….public D. harassment…..personal

B. embezzlement…..personal E. calumny…..government
C. graft…..public
8. When the heavy rain and strong winds finally _______________, the residents went out to _______________ the
damage to their properties.
A. waned…..monitor D. faded…..see
B. abated…..assess E. deteriorated…..approximate
C. decreased…..count
9. The ________________ efforts of medical researchers and scholars have not yet paid off in as much as the dreaded
AIDS disease still remains __________________.
A. perfunctory…..potent D. commendable…..hidden
B. dubious…..powerful E. poignant…..undetected
C. painstaking…..unconquered
10. The last thing a salesman should have is an _________________ personality that sends prospective customers
___________________ away.
A. adroit…..flinching D. abrasive…..scurrying
B. intelligent…..pulling E. appealing…..screaming
C. ebullient…..running
11. An ________________ is a person who thinks God is unknown, probably unknowable; he always ______________
and questions.
A. atheist…..doubt D. anarchist…..distrusts
B. unbeliever…..criticizes E. optimists…..believes
C. agnostic…..doubts
12. From an admired movie idol and role model, Mac Culkin has _________________ into a wasted alcoholic who
seems to ___________________ his repeated brushings with the law.
A. deteriorated…..foster D. degraded…..worry
B. become…..flaunt E. declined…..boast
C. degenerated…..relish
13. University lecturers who ________________ frequently from their topics with monotonous voices soon find a/an
___________________ audience gaping back at them.
A. resort…..lively D. blabber…..irritated
B. speak…..sleepy E. tackle…..exasperated
C. digress…..bored
14. My niece is an interesting ________________. She is definitely shy, yet she possesses an enormously-intuitive
____________________ for understanding people.
A. aberration…..disdain D. phenomenon…..charisma
B. paradox…..gift E. creation…..talent
C. caricature…..personality
15. Michael Phelps is an _______________ swimmer whose years of training and ______________ have earned him
the most number of gold medals in the history of Olympics.
A. enthralling…..losses D. indefatigable…..discipline
B. extraordinary…..expertise E. ebullient…..mistakes
C. exasperating…..dedication
16. The lawyer’s _______________ comments about the failed rescue operation involving trapped victims in a mining
site drew nods of ________________ from the studio audience.
A. incisive…..approval D. cryptic…..delight
B. intelligent…..acquiescence E. judicious…..harmony
C. sarcastic…..disbelief
17. “I will repeat the question and I won’t mind sounding _______________.” It is better to _______________ than to
remain confused.
A. obstinate…..explain D. oblivious…..instruct
B. obscure…..repeat E. objective…..instruct
C. obtuse…..ask
18. It disheartens me to see newspapers ________________ with oftentimes untrue accounts that ______________
the police.
A. filed…..magnify D. saturated…..vilify
B. replete…..please E. run…..malign
C. reporting…..extol
19. It will _______________ the boss if you _______________ the after-seminar report to one-page only. You know
he abhors reports with lots of verbiage.
A. infuriate…..shorten D. gratify…..extend
B. offend…..reduce E. displease…..cut
C. please…..abridge
20. When the investigator reviewed the report, he found it to be ________________ with errors so he ordered his
assistant to _________________ it.
A. heavy…..retype D. replete…..proofread
B. sprinkled…..rewrite E. full…..submit
C. peppered…..encode
PART III. CONTEXTUAL MEANING

PRACTICE TEST 7
1. E. To be despondent means to be in despair, to the point of hopelessness.
2. E. Confounding means confusing.
3. C. An avaricious person is a greedy person and is never satisfied even if he keeps on accumulating things.
4. B. Palpable means obvious or noticeable.
5. D. (slanderous…..resort)
6. E. (collision…..inconsequential) Inconsequential means insignificant.
7. B. (embezzlement…..personal)
8. B. (abated…..assessed) Abate is synonymous to subside.
9. C. (painstaking…..unconquered)
10. D. (abrasive…..scurrying) An abrasive person irritates another.
11. C. (agnostic…..doubts)
12. C. (degenerated…..relish) To relish means to enjoy.
13. C. (digress…..bored) To digress is to deviate or veer away from topic
14. B. (paradox…..gift) A paradox is a contradiction
15. D. (indefatigable…..discipline) Indefatigable is tireless.
16. A. (incisive…..approval) Incisive means sharp, penetrating or insightful
17. C. (obtuse…..ask) Obtuse means stupid
18. D. (saturated…..vilify) To vilify means to malign or slander
19. C. (please…..abridge) To abridge means to shorten
20. D. (replete…..proofread)
PART IV. VOCABULARY
PRACTICE TEST 8
Direction: Choose from among the given answers the word that means nearly the same as the underlined word in
each sentence below:
1. Our entertainment room has an eclectic assortment of furniture, most of which are of similar hues.
A. cluttered D. locally-produced
B. artistically-made E. arranged in a quirky way
C. taken from various sources
2. He is a fastidious supervisor. I am on my toes whenever he is around.
A. vicious D. straightforward
B. very lenient E. extremely hardworking
C. attentive to detail
3. By the end of an hour-long discussion, the different suggestions and viewpoints somehow coalesced into a definite
ordinance that is meant to benefit local residents.
A. collided D. converged
B. slid back E. degenerated
C. appeared
4. The poster showing the mechanics of the competition was placed in an unobtrusive corner. Nobody was able to
meet the deadline of entries.
A. conspicuous D. not easily noticed

B. dark and dingy E. bright and distracting
C. open and accessible
5. The couple wandered around Asia for years, relishing a carefree, itinerant life.
A. worry-free D. extravagant
B. restricted or limited E. inclined to splurge
C. tending to move around
6. The strident sound of honking vehicles startled the baby nestled in her mother’s arms.
A. discordant D. unruly
B. high-pitched E. acoustical
C. unpleasant
7. The movie star’s son was sent to the guidance counselor’s office due to his intractable behavior.
A. unrestricted and wandering D. unpleasant and resistant

B. disobedient and discourteous E. tamed but inflexible
C. stubborn and hard to manage
8. Our home has lost its effervescence when the kids left and started to lead separate lives.
A. joy D. noise
B. inspiration E. value
C. liveliness
9. False teachers impugn the veracity of the Bible with their man-made philosophies.
A. question D. ridicule
B. censure E. oppose or attack
C. deny
10. One quality required of a fashion designer is an unremitting attention to detail.
A. fixed or stationary D. regular or routine

B. relaxed or carefree E. firm or decisive
C. constant or without letting up
11. What should we do to placate those angry demonstrators outside the city hall?
A. to calm D. to provoke
B. to mitigate E. to disperse
C. to mediate
12. The woman’s testimony is replete with outrageous and outlandish stories that all the judge could do was to shake
his head.
A. false or counterfeit D. mixed up or confused

B. filled up or overflowing E. highlighted or emphasized
C. lacking or wanting
13. Despite the heckling from the audience, the speaker answered the question with aplomb.
A. courtesy D. boldness or audacity

B. consternation E. confidence
C. poise or composure
14. Negotiations between the government and the rebel group have reached an impasse with both sides refusing to
give in to each other’s demands.
A. a disagreement D. an amicable statement

B. a dead-end or deadlock E. a conciliatory gesture
C. a period of temporary rest.
15. “Don’t speak pedantically. You are merely a student like me, not he professor.”
A. arrogant in behavior D. gracious in manner

B. showy in one’s learning E. quick in one’s movement
C. sarcastic in tone
16. One of the traits of successful people is assertiveness. In the corporate world, diffident people are rarely
recognized.
A. shy B.cowardly
C. lackadaisical E. self-focused
D. indifferent
17. Some members in the audience do not have a vestige of interest in what the guest of honor is saying.
A. extreme dislike D. a slight aversion

B. barest trace or amount E. minor attraction
C. strong indication
18. We will not allow the machinations of the opposing camp to destroy our efforts to modernize the transportation
sector.
A. a rapid movement D. a conspicuous deception

B. a strong dissension E. schemes or an artful plot toward bad ends
C. a fabrication of story
19. Journalists are not supposed to ask obtuse questions. I am puzzled why one did.
A. stupid D. clandestine
B. leading E. anomalous
C. controversial
20. No amount of explanation could convince the skeptic that the world was created.
A. scholar D. scientist
B. arrogant E. doubter
C. unbeliever
ANSWERS
PART IV. VOCABULARY

PRACTICE TEST 8
1. C. taken from various sources (eclectic)
2. C. attentive to detail (fastidious)
3. D. converged (coalesced)
4. D. not easily noticed (unobtrusive)
5. C. tending to move around (itinerant)
6. B. high-pitched (strident)
7. C. stubborn and hard to manage (intractable)
8. C. liveliness (effervescence)
9. E. oppose or attack (impugn)
10. C. constant or without letting up (unremitting)
11. A. to calm or soothe (placate)
12. B. filled up or overflowing (replete)
13. C. poise or composure (aplomb)
14. B. dead-end or deadlock (impasse)
15. B. showy in one’s learning (pedantic)
16. A. shy (diffident)
17. B. barest trace or amount (vestige)
18. E. schemes or artful plot (machinations)
19. A. stupid (obtuse)
20. E. doubter (skeptic)

PART V
ANALOGY
Analogy tests require the skill in establishing the exact relationship between words. It involves analysis and trial and
error. It may appear intimidating at a glance, but through practice, finding the connection between words become
easier once you know what to look for.
The purpose of an analogy test is to determine which among the choices bears a similar relationship as the stem
words (or the given pair, printed in capital letters).
Here are the steps to tackle this type of test:
FIRST STEP: Make a statement indicating the connection or relationship between words.
Example:
STOVE : KITCHEN (these are the stem words)
A. bed : library D. house : living room

B. pen : garden E. computer : office
C. book : bag
STATEMENT: A stove is used in the kitchen.
SECOND STEP: Determine which among the choices fits in the same relationship with the stem words. (To do so, ask a
question for each choice, using your statement with the stem words.
Is bed used in the library? No
Is a pen used in the garden? No
Is a book used in the bag? No
Is a house used in the living room? No
Is a computer used in the office? Yes
The answer is (E). Just as a stove is used in the kitchen, so is a computer used in the office.
THIRD STEP: If two or more choices have a similar relationship as that of the stem words, read just your statement by
making the connection between the stem words more specific.
EXAMPLE:
EAGLE : FLY (stem words)
A. horse : gallop D. chicken : cackle

B. cat : meow E. tiger: pounce
C. snake : hiss
STATEMENT 1: An eagle flies.
Note, however, that all five choices bear similar relationships as that of the stem words expressed in the initial
statement.
Does a horse gallop? Yes
Does a cat meow? Yes
Does a snake hiss? Yes
Does a chicken cackle? Yes
Does a tiger pounce? Yes
To determine the right answer, consider the following revised statement connecting the stem words.
STATEMENT 2: To get to its destination, AN EAGLE FLIES

With this more specific statement, we can now determine the correct answer from the choices. To get to its
destination, does
(a) a horse gallop? Yes
(b) a cat meow? No
(c) a snake hiss? No
(d) a chicken cackle? No
(e) a tiger pounce? No
Thus, the answer is (A).
TIPS:
(1) Determine the part(s) of speech of the stem words.
(2) Eliminate the choice(s) that do not follow the pattern used in the stem words.
For example, if the stem words are both nouns (noun: noun), it follows that the correct choice has a similar
pattern. Therefore, you can eliminate choices that are not parallel to the pattern in the stem words. (e.g.
noun: verb or noun: adjective, etc.)
(3) If you are not sure of the parts of speech, go to the choices as they provide the hint as to the pattern used in the
stem words.
(4) Determine what particular type of relationship exists between the stem words.
The following are common relationships or connections between words in an analogy test:
1. Traits or Description
person agnostic: doubt
place city: noisy
thing skyscraper: tall
animal tiger: fierce
Least character traits

teacher: ignorant
warrior: coward
pauper: wealthy
2. Person related to tools, objects, skills or interest

painter: brush painter: design
musician: guitar baker: bread
3. Action-Result or Cause and Effect

cut: incision plow: furrow
typhoon: flood death: mourning
4. Problem-Solution
fatigue: sleep poverty: livelihood
thirst: water ignorance: education
5. One-of-a-Kind or Category
peach: fruit stork: bird
narra: tree spoon: utensil
6. Part of a Whole
finger: hand province: region
tree: forest ant: colony
7. Uses/Functions or Action
gun: shoot ball: dribble
pen: write orator: speak
8. Synonyms
yell: shout bright: aglow
baffled: perplexed lean: slender
9. Antonyms
life: death old: young
stupid: wise enormous: tiny
10. Degree or Size

drizzle: downpour like: love
nap: sleep cool: frozen
hot: boiling
11. Place (Where a person or item belongs)

play: theater flower: vase
car: garage beautician: parlor
doctor: hospital
PART IV. VOCABULARY
PRACTICE TEST 9
Direction: Choose from among the given answers the word that means nearly the same as the underlined word in
each sentence below:
1. Your legal department should impose punitive measures to prevent violence from escalating.
A. desiring action D. meant to quell

B. proactive measure E. intended to punish
C. deserving praise
2. His spine shivered as he entered the dingy room. He felt the impulse to get out as fast as he could.
A. drab and gloomy D. hot and claustrophic

B. cluttered or in complete disarray E. expensive-looking
C. dirty and malodorous
3. Marco’s cavalier attitude turned me off. I would rather talk to the janitor than spend a second with him.
A. courageous D. hostile
B. prone to anger E. overly-confident
C. high-handed
4. I could feel that his speech was visceral. The quiver in his voice and the passion in his eyes could not hide what he
was feeling at that time.
A. powerful D. intuitive or proceeding from instinct

B. placid or calm E. proceeding in gradual or subtle way
C. unusual or out of the ordinary
5. The President was indignant when he learned that one of his cabinet members was involved in a corruption
scandal.
A. rash D. rude
B. violent E. stumped
C. angry
6. The bickering and intra-corporate politics within the company have enervated the employees’ desire to work as a
team.
A. weakened D. prevented
B. energized E. quelled
C. exalted
7. Armed rebels employ insidious schemes against government forces to scuttle ongoing peace negotiations.
A. hidden D. treacherous
B. fearless E. subversive
C. clandestine
8. Performers wearing colorful costumes regaled the audience with their soaring voices and quirky dance moves.
A. raised D. stunned
B. surprised E. celebrated
C. entertained
9. Consternation gripped the family members of the fighting soldiers caught in the crossfire.
A. dread or dismay D. prayerful spirit

B. deep anger E. boredom
C. mild shock
10. Before she became an elected official, Jean had been an intrepid crusader who fought hard against illegal loggers.
A. longtime D. fearless
B. persevering E. honorable
C. outrageous
11. Beware of a charlatan who entices you with his sweet tongue.
A. a quack or pretender D. a salesman

B. an incessant talker E. a stage actor
C. one who performs magic
12. Having graduated from the University, Orly, John and Marty celebrated their new-found freedom by carousing all
night long.
A. dancing and singing D. talking loudly

B. getting drunk E. staying awake
C. eating and laughing
13. New cars released in the market are not only expensive but also consume a prodigious amount of fuel, much to
dismay of buyers.
A. exact D. small
B. enormous E. unexpected
C. unexceptional
14. Even if she was a tyro, Isobel proved that she could hold on her own against veteran performers on stage.
A. beginner D. experienced actress

B. young performer E. of minor role
C. foreign artist
15. When the Chairman of the Board entered the room, he sensed the antipathy between the directors and the
invited resource person.
A. harmony D. hostility
B. discord E. liveliness
C. friendly vibe
16. The officious manner in which the security guard deals with the pupils irks them.
A. kind and considerate D. sprightly

B. strict and firm E. arrogant and unyielding
C. unsolicited and overbearing
17. The idea of getting a divorce with all its ramifications, has attracted Western women trapped in unhappy
marriages.
A. traps D. benefits
B. burdens E. financial setback
C. consequences
18. Rabid supporters of the ousted mayor staged massive demonstrations around the city.
A. timid D. extremely loyal

B. ardent E. blind and unthinking
C. responsible
19. He acted impetuously when he married his girlfriend before he could land a job to support a family.
A. with anger D. under pressure

B. on impulse E. with careful thought
C. with fervor
20. For a Filipino to win in an international speech competition participated by native speakers of English is quite
surreal.
A. baffling D. imaginative
B. inspiring E. unbelievable
C. delightful
ANSWERS
PART IV. VOCABULARY

PRACTICE TEST 9
1. E. intended to punish (punitive)
2. A. drab and gloomy (dingy)
3. C. high-handed (cavalier)
4. D. intuitive or proceeding from instinct (visceral)
5. C. angry (indignant)
6. A. weakened (enervated)
7. D. treacherous (insidious)
8. C. entertained (regaled)
9. A. dread or dismay (consternation)
10. D. fearless (intrepid)
11. A. quack or pretender (charlatan)
12. B. getting drunk (carousing)
13. B. enormous (prodigious)
14. A. beginner (tyro)
15. D. hostility (antipathy)
16. C. unsolicited and overbearing (officious)
17. C. consequences (ramifications)
18. B. ardent (rabid)
19. B. on impulse (impetuously)
20. E. unbelievable (surreal)

PART V. ANALOGY: PAIRED APPROACH
PRATICE TEST 10
Direction: Each pair of numbered words signifies a certain relationship with each other. Choose from among the
choices the pair of words that signifies a similar relationship as the numbered pair.
1. JUDGE: COURTROOM
A. teacher: knowledge D. announcer: microphone

B. boxer: ring E. athlete: speed
C. preacher: sermon
2. CLANDESTINE: SECRET
A. colossal: huge D. fashionable: quirky

B. appalling: exciting E. passionate: platonic
C. dense: flat
3. FAWN: DEER
A. colt: horse D. duck: swan

B. mare: stallion E. kid: dog
C. joey: rabbit
4. ISLANDS: ARCHIPELAGO
A. provinces: region D. clusters: unit

B. community: families E. states: continents
C. municipalities: cities
5. GYMANST: AGILITY
A. pessimist: confidence D. doctor: disease

B. soldier: courage E. driver: courtesy
C. student: allowance
6. INTELLECT: STUDY
A. composure: music D. speech: oration

B. poise: catwalk E. flight: airplane
C. physique: work out
7. RIOT: MELEE
A. protest: demonstration D. teamwork: competition

B. symposium: announcement E. harmony: clique
C. activity: participation
8. FERVOR: FANATIC
A. initiative: follower B. courtesy: respect

C. indifference: loyalist E. patriotism: leftist
D. speed: racer
9. HAMMER: CARPENTER
A. surgeon: stethoscope D. car: passenger

B. pen: writer E. rake: leaves
C. teacher: stick
10. WARMTH: FRIENDSHIP
A. fellowship: smile D. hard work: poverty

B. antagonism: hostility E. success: trophy
C. recognition: reward
11. ERADICATE: ELIMINATE
A. propose: suggest D. persevere: desist

B. destabilize: destroy E. revere: alienate
C. examine: pass
12. AMBIGUOUS: MISUNDERSTANDING
A. puzzling: confusion D. inconceivable: understanding

B. clear: success E. intact: division
C. enthralling: laughter
13. HILARIOUS: LAUGHTER
A. sick: health D. attractive: security

B. optimistic: perspective E. inspiring: humor
C. scary: panic
14. WOOL: SWEATER
A. cotton: sheet D. clothes: suit

B. hide: fleece E. quilt: polyester
C. bag: leather
15. EGOTIST: BRAGGART
A. opinionated: objective D. actor: director

B. humorist: comic E. thespian: veteran
C. writer: poet
16. JEWELRY: SAFEBOX
A. money: denomination D. wallet: makeup

B. store: knickknacks E. shears: cabinet
C. groceries: pantry
17. REVELATION: EXPOSED

A. exposition: dictated D. illumination: explanation
B. instruction: knowledge E. mystery: hidden
C. secret: spoken
18. ABRAHAM: FAITH
A. Job: boils D. Jacob: limp

B. David: slingshot E. Peter: fisherman
C. Judas: betrayal
19. BABY: WOMB
A. suggestion: boardroom D. spider: web

B. plane: airport E. carb: carapace
C. idea: mind
20. DR. WATSON: SIR ARTHUR CONAN DOYLE
A. Maria Clara: Dr. Jose Rizal D. Ibarra: Noli Me Tangere

B. Hansel: Gretel E. Shakespeare: Romeo and Juliet
C. Dr. Seuss: Mark Twain
PART V. PAIRED APPROACH

PRACTICE TEST 10
1. B. A judge work in the courtroom, just as a boxer play inside a ring.
2. A. Clandestine means secret, just as colossal means huge.
3. A. A fawn is a young deer, just as a colt is a young horse.
4. A. A group of islands is called archipelago; provinces grouped in a geographical area comprise a region.
5. B. A gymnast is known for his or her agility just as a soldier is known for his or her courage.
6. C. To boost one’s intellect, one should study. To boost one’s physique, one should work out.
7. A. A riot is a melee; a protest is a demonstration.
8. D. A major trait of a fanatic is fervor; a major trait of a racer is speed.
9. B. A hammer is a carpenter’s tool; a pen is a writer’s tool.
10. B. Warmth results in friendship as antagonism results in hostility.
11. A. To eradicate means to eliminate; to propose is to suggest.
12. A. Something ambiguous causes misunderstanding; something puzzling causes confusion.
13. C. Something hilarious causes laughter; something scary causes panic.
14. A. A sweater is typically made of wool; a sheet (i.e., bed sheet) is typically made of cotton.
15. B. An egotist or self-absorbed person is a braggart or one who likes to boast. A humorist is a comic.
16. C. Just as pieces of jewelry are kept in a safe box, so are groceries are stored in a pantry.
17. E. A revelation is something that is exposed, while a mystery is something that is hidden.
18. C. Abraham was known for his faith in God; Judas was also known for his betrayal of the Lord.
19. C. A baby is conceived and nurtured in its mother’s womb; an idea is conceived and nurtured in the mind.
20. A. Dr. Watson is a character in Sir Arthur Conan Doyle’s collection of stories (e.g. Adventures of Sherlock Holmes);
Maria Clara is a character in Dr. Jose Rizal’s novel, Noli Me Tangere.
PART V. SINGLE-WORD APPROACH
PRATICE TEST 11
Direction: Determine the relationship of the FIRST TWO WORDS in the following items and select from the choices
the one that bears a similar relationship with the THIRD WORD in the given item.
1. EAR: COB ; _____________: SONG
A. melody D. verse
B. rhythm E. music
C. choir
2. CHIC: STYLISH ; ___________________: SOLID
A. liquid D. transparent
B. brittle E. hard
C. dense
3. DRIZZL: DOWNPOUR ; ________________: GALE
A. breeze D. wave
B. twister E. rain
C. hurricane
4. AMBIVALENT: DETERMINED ; SHAKY: _________________
A. frail D. shabby
B. fragile E. sturdy
C. proud
5. SUPERSTRUCTURE: SHIP ; _________________: BODY
A. organ D. system
B. skeleton E. limb
C. muscle
6. TETHER: ROPE ; STRIP: ________________
A. book D. band
B. toy E. paper
C. music
7. FAÇADE: BUILDING ; _______________: BOOK
A. preface D. cover
B. bookmark E. page
C. reader
8. CONTEMPLATE: MEDITATE ; ______________: ABSORB
A. digest B. swallow
C. serve E. evaporate
D. gargle
9. FARMER: AGRICULTURE ; ________________: COSMETOLOGY
A. barber D. stylist
B. curler E. beautician
C. manicurist
10. STRIFE: VIOLENCE ; ________________: CELEBRATION
A. birthday D. victory
B. feasting E. warmth
C. altercation
11. VERDANT: GRASS ; _______________: BREEZE
A. cool D. wind
B. mountain E. invisible
C. summer
12. FLOWERS: FALL ; _______________: WITHER
A. clothes D. grass
B. trash E. life
C. trees
13. UPROAR: PANDEMONIUM ; ________________: SILENCE
A. sound D. serenity
B. cacophony E. melody
C. noise
14. RUMINATE: PONDER ; _______________: examine
A. monitor D. read
B. memorize E. scrutinize
C. defend
15. WOLVES: PACK ; ____________: HERD
A. lions D. crowd
B. dogs E. ants
C. bulls
16. SPRING: BROOK ; WHISKY: _____________
A. liquor D. cask
B. water E. bar
C. liquid
17. BOARDING PASS: PLANE ; _________________: CONCERT HALL

A. music D. performer
B. ticket E. flashlight
C. drink
18. HYPOCRISY: TRUTH ; ______________: SUN
A. moon D. rain
B. earth E. thunderstorm
C. clouds
19. AUTHOR: THINK ; ______________: RUN
A. child D. gymnast
B. sprinter E. acrobat
C. wheel
20. URBAN: HELTER-SKELTER ; COUNTRYSIDE: __________________
A. tranquil D. restless
B. fresh E. old
C. friendly
ANSWERS
PART V. ANALOGY – SINGLE-WORD APPROACH

PRACTICE TEST 11
1. D. An ear (of a corn) is a part of a cob just as a verse is a part of a song.
2. C. Chic is the same as stylish just as dense and solid have the same meaning.
3. A. A drizzle is a light rain which is the opposite of downpour; a breeze is a gentle wind – the opposite of gale or
windstorm
4. E. Ambivalent and determined are antonyms, so are shaky and sturdy.
5. B. As a superstructure is to ship; a skeleton is to the body.
6. D. A tether is synonymous to rope; a strip is synonymous to band.
7. D. A façade is the front of a building as the cover is for a book.
8. A. Contemplate and meditate are synonyms; so are digest and absorb.
9. E. A farmer is in agriculture; a beautician, in cosmetology.
10. D. Strife leads to violence; victory leads to celebration.
11. A. A grass is described as verdant (lush or green); a breeze is cool.
12. D. Flowers fall: grass withers
13. D. Uproar means the same as pandemonium; serenity means silence.
14. E. To ruminate is to ponder; to scrutinize is to examine.
15. C. A pack is a group of wolves; a herd is a group of bulls
16. A. Spring and brook are bodies of water; whisky and liquor are hard drinks.
17. B. A boarding pass is used to board a plane; a ticket is used to enter a concert hall.
18. C. Hypocrisy hides truth; clouds hide the sun.
19. B. An author thinks; a sprinter runs.
20. A. There is helter-skelter in an urban area; there is tranquility in the countryside.

PART VI
PARAGRAPH ORGANIZATION
This type of test requires you to arrange in logical sequence a series of jumbled sentences to form a coherent
paragraph. Remember that a paragraph is defined as “a group of sentences that developed a single ide or topic.” On
the other hand, to “cohere” (where the word coherent is derived) means to “stick” together. A coherent paragraph,
therefore, flows smoothly because it consists of properly-sequenced sentences that relate to a single topic.
Here are some tips on paragraph organization:
1. Bearing in mind that a paragraph tackles a single idea, look first for the topic sentence. The topic sentence contains
the main idea and defines the scope of the paragraph. More often than not, this is the first sentence in the paragraph.
2. Skim for the concluding idea. This is the last sentence in the paragraph which encapsulates the previous ideas. It
either summarizes the supporting points emphasizes (or restates) the main idea, or gives the writer’s final statement
about the topic. Look for final connecting words such as finally, in a nutshell, in summary, as a whole, therefore, in
conclusion and the like. Some connecting words used for emphasis are truly, indeed and certainly (though the same
may also be used in the supporting sentences).
3. Once you have determined the first sentence (and the concluding sentence), you are left with three choices which
now compromise the supporting sentences for the main idea expressed in the topic sentence. These sentences
explain, give examples or reasons to back up or support the main idea. Identify first the sentence that connects or
coheres with your introductory sentence, followed by the remaining sentences.
4. Remember that a sentence that begins with a connecting or transition word is a supporting sentence (and
therefore can never be the topic sentence). Words such as first, second, likewise, on the other hand, or however are
used mainly to bridge the gap between ideas.
PART VI. PARAGRAPH ORGANIZATION

PRACTICE TEST 12
Direction: Below are five sentences marked I, II, III, IV and V. Identify the proper sequence of these sentences to form
a well-organized paragraph.
1. I. We have basked in the excellence of the Filipino spirit both in the international and local scenes.
II. Time and again we have borne witness to the qualities that make the Filipino great.
III. Not too long ago, we took pride when Filipino artists and sportsmen who excelled in their fields were
recognized abroad.
IV. Indeed, we rejoice when fellow Filipinos are lauded for their talents, extra-ordinary achievements and
strength of character.
V. We felt proud as well when several Filipino taxi drivers returned wads or bundles of cash left by foreign
passengers in their car seats.
Which is the best arrangement for these sentences to form a logical and coherent paragraph?
A. I, II, IV, III, V D. I, III, IV, V, II

B. II, I, III, V, IV E. II, III, IV, V, I
C. III, IV, I, II, V
2. I. Indeed, we unmindful of the past, have become complacent in the comfort of pleasure.
II. However, we, who have not experienced the pain and horror of slavery, just shrug our shoulders and think
very little of the price for which our freedom was brought.
III. Instead of appreciating the value of hard-fought freedom, we tend to abuse this gift for our own
enjoyment.
IV. Our own Filipino forefathers demanded this freedom, and in so doing cost them their lives.
V. The late American activist, Martin Luther Jr, once said: “Freedom is never voluntarily given by the
oppressor. It must be demanded by the oppressed.”
A. V, II, IV, III, I D. V, IV, II, III, I

B. II, I, III, V, IV E. II, III, IV, V, I
C. V. IV, I, II, III
3. I. Our allegiance to our flag is a reflection of our allegiance to our Great Creator who placed us in a country
specifically made for us – the Philippines.
II. Such is a betrayal of the mandate we have from our Creator to nurture that which was given us.
III. God certainly did not make a mistake in making us Filipinos.
IV. This is because if we Filipinos desert our country, who will take care of it?
V. There is no reason therefore why we should inculcate in our children that the idea of living abroad or
changing one’s citizenship is a laudable ambition.
A. II, IV, V, III, I D. I, III, IV, V, II

B. III, V, IV, II, I E. III, I, II, V, IV
C. I, III, V, II, IV
4. I. We scrimp and even deprive ourselves of simple pleasures.
II. As government workers who have spent decades enduring the daily grind for a meager income, we have
known and experienced what it means to sustain a family and send children to school.
III. We rarely eat in restaurants and by new clothes.
IV. All these we endure so we can provide our children a good education.
V. We take the public transport such as the bus or jeepney to go to work.
A. II, I, III, IV, V D. II, III, I, V, IV
B. II, I, III, V, IV E. IV, I, II, III, V
C. I, III, II, IV, V
5. I. We can no longer find the vibrancy of the smile in our eyes.

II. Daily, we see in our reflections the toll of being family men and women.
III. Sometimes we even dread looking at our faces in the mirror for our reflections tell much.
IV. Instead we see receding hairlines, graying hair, dropping eyelids and tired faces.
V. All these seem to be all that we have universally gained for striving hard to be true public servants.
A. II, I, III, IV, V D. II, I, IV, V, III

B. V, I, II, IV, III E. II, III, I, IV, V
C. I, III, II, IV, V
6. I. According to the Bible, especially the Book of Ecclesiastes, we are here to “obey God and keep his
commands for that is the whole duty of man.”
II. Let us therefore not exclude him in our personal, career and national life.
III. The moment we leave God out of our life, we can be certain trouble and unrighteousness would take over.
IV. At the end of our lives, we will receive our own rewards from God himself.
V. As clays we can be honorable vessel if we submit ourselves to the skillful hands of the Potter.
A. I, III, IV, V, II D. I, III, II, V, IV

B. I, II, IV, III, V E. III, II, I, V, IV
C. II, I, III, V, IV
7. I. If you are surrounded by people who always complain, it is easy to become one yourself.
II. Complaining is an indicator of how poorly you manage stress whether at work or at home.
III. Complaining is a habit that is very contagious.
IV. You begin to dwell on negativity and utter things like, “life is not fair”, “nothing is good enough” or “I will
never get anywhere”.
V. If you go home dead tired every night, it may be because you have been spending your energy whining and
complaining all day.
A. III, I, IV, V, II D. II, III, V, IV, I

B. III, II, I, V, III E. II, I, V, III, IV
C. III, IV, V, II, I
8. I. This is a brain washing technique that terrorists use on hostages.

II. A woman is psychologically abused when her partner constantly tells she is good for nothing and even less
than human.
III. Eventually, the woman begins to believe that she cannot function without her abuser – that he is right and
she is nothing without him.
IV. Because she is often isolated from the outside world, the abused woman has little or no chance to hear
supportive, positive messages.
V. The abuser tells the woman that she is ugly, stupid or generally incapable of having a life of her own.
A. II, III, I, V, IV D. II, I, IV, V, III

B. V, III, II, I, IV E. V, I, IV, III, II
C. II, I, V, III, IV
9. I. According to him, “Education is growth. Education is not a preparation for life, education is life itself.”
II. It is in reality, a lifelong pursuit that never stops even after we think we already have a future or we have
already attained our dreams.
III. Let me begin by sharing with you a quote from John Dewey – a famous American philosopher and
educator.
IV. To put it simply education is not something we pursue simply to prepare for the future.
V. In a nutshell, there is no end to education.
A. I, II, IV, III, V D. III, I, IV, II, V

B. III, II, I, V, IV E. III, IV, V, I, II
C. III, I, II, V, IV
10. I. They are also seen as instigators causing adversarial management-employee relations.
II. Unions are mistakenly stereotyped by some people as composed of workers out to find fault with the
management or extend unreasonable demands.
III. It is because the thrust for unionism is towards empowerment and partnership in the public sector
through employee participation in decision making and policy formulation.
IV. This collaboration aims to create a positive climate that will translate policies into improved and enhanced
public service delivery.
V. Such perception, however, is lamentable and simply untrue.
A. II, I, III, IV, V D. IV, V, III, II, I

B. II, I, V, III, IV E. II, IV, I, III, V
C. II, III, IV, I, II
PART VI. PARAGRAPH ORGANIZATION

PRACTICE TEST 12
1. B
II. Time and again we have borne witness to the qualities that make the Filipino great.
I. We have basked in the excellence of the Filipino spirit both in the international and local scenes.
III. Not too long ago, we took pride when Filipino artists and sportsmen who excelled in their fields were
recognized abroad.
V. We felt proud as well when several Filipino taxi drivers returned wads or bundles of cash left by foreign
passengers in their car seats.
IV. Indeed, we rejoice when fellow Filipinos are lauded for their talents, extra-ordinary achievements and
strength of character.
2. D
V. The late American activist, Martin Luther Jr, once said: “Freedom is never voluntarily given by the
oppressor. It must be demanded by the oppressed.”
IV. Our own Filipino forefathers demanded this freedom, and in so doing cost them their lives.
II. However, we, who have not experienced the pain and horror of slavery, just shrug our shoulders and think
very little of the price for which our freedom was brought.
III. Instead of appreciating the value of hard-fought freedom, we tend to abuse this gift for our own
enjoyment.
I. Indeed, we unmindful of the past, have become complacent in the comfort of pleasure.
3. C
I. Our allegiance to our flag is a reflection of our allegiance to our Great Creator who placed us in a country
specifically made for us – the Philippines.
III. God certainly did not make a mistake in making us Filipinos.
V. There is no reason therefore why we should inculcate in our children that the idea of living abroad or
changing one’s citizenship is a laudable ambition.
II. Such is a betrayal of the mandate we have from our Creator to nurture that which was given us.
IV. This is because if we Filipinos desert our country, who will take care of it?
4. B
II. As government workers who have spent decades enduring the daily grind for a meager income, we have
known and experienced what it means to sustain a family and send children to school.
I. We scrimp and even deprive ourselves of simple pleasures.
III. We rarely eat in restaurants and by new clothes.
V. We take the public transport such as the bus or jeepney to go to work.
IV. All these we endure so we can provide our children a good education.
5. E
II. Daily, we see in our reflections the toll of being family men and women.
III. Sometimes we even dread looking at our faces in the mirror for our reflections tell much.
I. We can no longer find the vibrancy of the smile in our eyes.
IV. Instead we see receding hairlines, graying hair, dropping eyelids and tired faces.
V. All these seem to be all that we have universally gained for striving hard to be true public servants.
6. D
I. According to the Bible, especially the Book of Ecclesiastes, we are here to “obey God and keep his
commands for that is the whole duty of man.”
III. The moment we leave God out of our life, we can be certain trouble and unrighteousness would take over.
II. Let us therefore not exclude him in our personal, career and national life.
V. As clays we can be honorable vessel if we submit ourselves to the skillful hands of the Potter.
IV. At the end of our lives, we will receive our own rewards from God himself.
7. A
III. Complaining is a habit that is very contagious.

I. If you are surrounded by people who always complain, it is easy to become one yourself.
IV. You begin to dwell on negativity and utter things like, “life is not fair”, “nothing is good enough” or “I will
never get anywhere”.
V. If you go home dead tired every night, it may be because you have been spending your energy whining and
complaining all day.
II. Complaining is an indicator of how poorly you manage stress whether at work or at home.
8. C
II. A woman is psychologically abused when her partner constantly tells she is good for nothing and even less
than human.
I. This is a brain washing technique that terrorists use on hostages.
III. Eventually, the woman begins to believe that she cannot function without her abuser – that he is right and
she is nothing without him.
9. D
III. Let me begin by sharing with you a quote from John Dewey – a famous American philosopher and
educator.
I. According to him, “Education is growth. Education is not a preparation for life, education is life itself.”
IV. To put it simply education is not something we pursue simply to prepare for the future.
II. It is in reality, a lifelong pursuit that never stops even after we think we already have a future or we have
already attained our dreams.
V. In a nutshell, there is no end to education.
10. B
II. Unions are mistakenly stereotyped by some people as composed of workers out to find fault with the
management or extend unreasonable demands.
I. They are also seen as instigators causing adversarial management-employee relations.
V. Such perception, however, is lamentable and simply untrue.
III. It is because the thrust for unionism is towards empowerment and partnership in the public sector
through employee participation in decision making and policy formulation.
IV. This collaboration aims to create a positive climate that will translate policies into improved and enhanced
public service delivery.
PART VII. READING COMPREHENSION
PRACTICE TEST 13
Read the following excerpt from an autobiographical account and answer the questions that follow.
I stood in the main tent between the beds, and saw the walls and roof collapse and the air thicken with
swirling dust. Patients and their beds were buried under debris. The doctors and nurses – those who were
able to move – were dragging themselves out of the rubbish heaps on the dirt and staggered about trying to
attend to the wounded while bombs continue to roar and the earth rocked under our feet. Men in splints and
bandages heaved themselves off the beds and tried to roll under them for safety. Wounded men screamed
their agony, and others lay in broken positions without moving.
The scene was all too familiar. I felt too numb to react in the midst of such bedlam.
1. The narrator described in vivid details what he saw around him. In a nutshell, it was a picture of
A. stillness and gloom D. apprehension and uncertainty

B. chaos and death E. solitude and serenity
C. victory and celebration
2. The characters mentioned in the passage were victims of
A. wartime aggression D. pandemic

B. political harassment E. random violence
C. isolated shooting
3. Which particular group of people in the passage displayed unflinching courage in the face of the relentless attacks?
A. wounded men D. men in splints

B. patients E. the narrator
C. doctors and nurses
4. An appropriate title for the passage would be
A. The Collapse D. Dreams and Nightmares

B. A Scene of Terror E. Hidden Courage
C. Men in Splints
5. The attitude of the narrator towards the scene unfolding before his eyes was one of
A. appreciation D. deadness
B. antagonism E. anger
C. grief
Read the following email message and answer questions 6 – 9.

March 30, 2019
Dear Mr. Balkis,
This refers to your application for a credit line with our bank.
We have received copies of the documents you submitted and have forwarded them to our Appraisers’ team
for evaluation. Should we find the documents complete and in order, we will contact you for the next stage of
the application process which is the Appraiser’s visit of the property.
Please allow us a maximum of three days to evaluate the documents. You will hear from us in case we need
further clarifications on your application.
Thank you for trusting in us.
Sincerely,
Mefforah Salmon
Bank Manager
6. The recipient of the email’s message is
A. Mefforah Salmon D. the evaluator

B. Mr. Balkis E. Ms. Salmon’s secretary
C. The Appraisers’ team
7. The purpose of the email is to inform Mr. Balkis of the
A. appraisal of the property D. clarifications from the team

B. approval of the credit line E. impending call from the bank
C. receipt of the documents
8. The bank manager promised Mr. Balkis that he would hear from the bank
A. as soon as possible
B. not later than April 3, 2019.
C. a week after the evaluation of documents
D. within seven days after the receipt of the email
E. when they have clarifications on the application
9. The appraisal of the documents is expected to be completed
A. as soon as possible
B. not later than April 3, 2019.
C. a week after the evaluation of documents
D. within seven days after the receipt of the email
E. once the manager approves the team’s recommendation
Read the following Preamble of the Philippine Constitution and answer questions 10 – 12.
We, the sovereign Filipino people, imploring the aid of Almighty God, in order to build a just and humane society
and establish a Government that shall embody our ideals and aspirations, promote the common good, conserve
and develop our patrimony, and secure to ourselves and our posterity the blessings of independence and
democracy under the rule of law and a regime of truth, justice, freedom, love, equality and peace, do ordain and
promulgate this Constitution.
10. The entire passage primarily refers to the
A. sovereignty of the Filipino people

B. assistance of the Almighty God
C. promulgation of the Constitution
D. independence of the country
E. conservation of our natural resources
11. What kind of society do we hope to achieve, as expressed in the Preamble?
A. just and humane D. law-abiding

B. peaceful and orderly E. all of the above
C. independent and democratic
12. Which among the words below has the SAME meaning as patrimony?
A. heritage D. unity
B. nationalism E. independence
C. sovereignty
Read the following passage and answer the questions 13 – 15.
My horrible experience when I almost got hit by a speeding jeepney while I was crossing the pedestrian lane
could be inconsequential from a passive observer. However, I consider it a microcosm of a larger ill that has
befallen the country which is the nationwide breakdown in discipline. If this one segment of our society – the
passenger utility jeepney drivers – could not be disciplined, if they could not recognize the pedestrian lane as
that – a lane where people and pets could and should pass without fear of being run over, then it bears asking
how many other sectors or segments of our society need to be disciplined? Whose fault is it that the rule of Law
to include as mundane as traffic regulations, is taken lightly?
13. What was the horrible experience described by the narrator?
A. breakdown of passenger utility jeepney

B. almost getting hit by a speeding jeepney
C. violation of traffic rules of jeepney drivers
D. crossing the pedestrian lane
E. being run over by a jeepney while walking her pet
14. The narrator concluded that her experience is a microcosm or minute version of a much larger ill in the country
which is
A. corruption in the transportation sector

B. disobedience to authorities
C. nationwide breakdown in discipline
D. abject poverty of jeepney drivers
E. failure to observe traffic regulations
15. What emotions did the narrator display in the passage?
A. sadness and guilt D. hatred and worry

B. fear and dismay E. remorse and grief
C. joy and love
Read the following passage and answer questions 16 – 18.
No matter how long we hold on to our life, it slips from us as surely as night comes at the end of a day’s toil. One
moment, we savor the freshness of youth and all the hopes and promises it carries, like a bud of rose bathed in
morning dew. One moment, we laugh until our guts ache. We feel invincible, as though anything is possible,
unperturbed by the wilting of flowers and fading of familiar voices. We think the world is ours for keeps, that the
verve and wit will remain, and that we can chase our dreams while basking in the luxury of time. But like bubbles that
puff in the air, the fun and laughter fade, replaced by a pregnant stillness as the dusk of life sets in.
16. What is the passage all about?
A. the brevity of life D. the beauty of dreams

B. the joy of youth E. the length of time
C. the luxury of time
17. To what does the narrator compare fun and laughter in the passage?
A. bubbles D. morning dew

B. bud of rose E. dusk
C. flowers
18. What does “unperturbed by the wilting of flowers and fading of familiar voices” mean?
A. It means being unconcerned when dusk comes.

B. It means being worried about the unpleasant experiences.
C. It means being indifferent to positive milestones in one’s life.
D. It means being undisturbed by the familiar voices of loved ones.
E. It means being unaffected by seemingly unpleasant events such as failures and loss of loved ones.
Read the following lines and answer questions 19-20.
Jesus reminds us again and again; God is disappointed when people sin.
But He’s always glad when we cease to roam, like the Prodigal Son who at last came home.
He had wandered far, but his lesson he learned, and his father forgave him when he returned.
So the angels in heaven rejoice, we are told, whenever a sinner returns to the fold.
19. What is the main idea reflected above?
A. When a sinner repents, God forgives and accepts him.

B. When a sinner sins, he refuses to come to God.
C. God forgives a sinner who never ceases to roam
D. A sinner is like the Prodigal son
E. The angels in heaven rejoice when the prodigal son returned.
20. What does the phrase “cease to roam” means?
A. stop pursuing wealth D. stop enjoying life

B. stop sinning E. stop splurging
C. stop working
PART VII. READING COMPREHENSION

PRACTICE TEST 13
1. B. chaos and death
2. A. wartime aggression
3. C. The doctors and nurses, despite the situation, staggered to attend to the wounded.
4. B. A Scene of Terror
5. D. The narrator, having been used to the same situation, felt numb or deadened.
6. B. Mr. Balkis
7. C. The prupose of the email is to inform Mr. Balkis of the receipt of the documents.
8. E. Mr. Balkis would hear from the bank when the bank personnel have clarifications on the application.
9. B. The appraisal of the documents is expected to be completed two days after the receipt of the email on March
30, 2019 or not later than April 3, 2019.
10. C. The passage is about the promulgation of the Constitution.
11. E. All of the above
12. A. Patrimony is the same as heritage.
13. B. The writer almost got hit by a speeding jeepney while she was crossing a pedestrian lane.
14. C. The narrator concluded that her experience is a microcosm of a much larger ill in the country which is a
nationwide breakdown of discipline.
15. B. The narrator experienced both fear and dismay. She was fearful that she would be harmed and at the same
time dismayed at the utter lack of discipline from the jeepney driver to observe simple traffic rules.
16. A. The passage describes the brevity of one’s life.
17. A. The narrator compares fun and laughter to bubbles.
18. E. It means being unaffected by seemingly unpleasant events such as failures and loss of loved ones.
19. A. When a sinner repents, God forgives and accepts him.
20. A. It means stop sinning

SECTION 2. NUMERICAL, QUANTITATIVE AND ANALYTICAL SKILLS
DIAGNOSTIC TEST
Direction: Choose the correct answer. You have one hour to complete the diagnostic test.
1. Perry worked 5/6 hour on Monday, 1/2 hour on Tuesday, and 9/10 on Wednesday. How many hours did he work
on Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday?
A. 2 hours 30 mins. C. 3 hours 12 mins.

B. 2 hours 14 mins. D. 3 hours 25 mins.
2. Jon gave the cashier a Php 50 bill. The amount of his purchases was Php 17.19. How much change should he
receive?
A. Php 32.81 C. Php 23.81

B. Php. 31.81 D. Php 28.81
3. The car travelled at an average speed of 125 kilometers per hour. At that rate, how far did the car travel in 7.5
hours?
A. 917.5 km C. 857.5 km
B. 938.5 km D. 937.5 km
4. Three boys together weigh 282.6 kilograms. Suppose each boy weigh the same. What does each boy weigh?
A. 92.3 kg C. 94.2 kg
B. 94.3 kg D. 95.2 kg
5. Mr. Moreno paid Php 425 per kilo for 34 kilos of corn seed. How much did the corn seed cost in total?
A. Php 14,450 C. Php 10,745

B. Php 14,375 D. Php 14,440
6. Rovik multiplied 0.012 by some number and got the product of 0.00516. What was the number?
A. 0.47 C. 0.60
B. 0.43 D. 0.53
7. The basketball team has won 14 games. The ratio of games won to games played is 7 to 12. How many games has
the team played?
A. 28 games C. 26 games
B. 24 games D. 22 games
8. The ratio of boys to girls at ABC College of Science and Technology is 11 to 10. There are 330 boys at the college.
How many girls are there?
A. 1100 girls C. 300 girls

B. 600 girls D. 100 girls
9. A photocopying machine can produce 50 copies in 2 minutes. At that rate, how long will it take to produce 150
copies?
A. 6 mins. C. 4 mins.
B. 5 mins. D. 7 mins.
10. Complete the following equations:
5
I. =¿
16 ¿
A. 31% C. 45%
B. 31.25% D. 32.33%
3
II. =¿
16 ¿
A. 13.75% C. 18.75%
B. 17.25% D. 20.5%
11. Change each of the following fraction or mixed numeral in simplest form.
I. 45% = _________
9 3
A. C.
20 16
2 4
B. D.
20 25
II. 62 ½ % = _________
7 2
A. C.
35 3
1 5
B. D.
5 8
12. Complete the following statements:
1
I. __________ is 33 % of 96
3
A. 23 C. 33
B. 36 D. 32
II. _________ is 8.4% of 1800
A. 178.6 C. 120.4
B. 151.2 D. 84.6
13. Complete the following statements:
1
I. 12 is ________% of 75
2
1 2
A. 13 % C. 16 %
5 3
1 2
B. 17 % D. 20 %
2 3
II. 27 is ______% of 180

3 1
A. 13 % C. 17 %
4 2
B. 15% D. 20%
14. Find the diameter of each circle with radius of

I. 16 cm
A. 8 cm B. 9 cm
C. 6 cm D. 9 cm
II. 2.5 m
A. 1.25 m C. 1.27 m
B. 1.3 m D. 1.4 m
15. Express 4.5% as a decimal
A. 0.045 C. 0.45
B. 4.5 D. 4.05
16. At the Shoemart Food Court, Samuel and his classmates bought 5 drinks and 8 orders of Chicken Inasal Unli Rice
for Php 955.00. Lemuel and his classmates bought 2 drinks and 4 orders of Chicken Inasal Unli rice for Php 470.00
from the same court. How much did each order of chicken inasal cost?
A. Php 110.00 C. Php 120.00

B. Php 115.00 D. Php 100.00
17. Men and women watched the circus performance at Ali Mall Plaza. One-third (1/3) of the people who watched
the circus was men. After 25 men left Ali Mall Plaza, the number of men became one-fourth (1/4) of the original
number of people at Ali Mall Plaza. How many women are there at the Ali Mall Plaza?
A. 250 women C. 137 women

B. 220 women D. 200 women
18. There are 30 questions in an examination. For every question that you answer correctly, you will be given 4
points. For every questions that you answer incorrectly, 3 points will be deducted. If you score 57 points for this
exam, how many questions have you answered correctly?
A. 18 questions C. 19 questions
B. 21 questions D. 15 questions
19. Rommel gave 1/7 of his salary to his father and ½ of the remainder to his mother. What fraction of his salary did
he have left?
A. 3/7 C. ½
B. 5/7 D. 6/21
20. A machine can compile 160 books in 1 hour. How many books can it complete in 15 minutes?
A. 60 books C. 40 books
B. 35 books D. 11 books
SOLUTIONS TO DIAGNOSTIC TEST
1. B
To solve the problem, convert the fractions into its equivalent number of hours.
STEP ONE: Draw a model or diagram to visualize the given text.
“Perry worked 5/6 hour on Monday”
1 hour = 60 minutes
6 units = 60 minutes
1 unit = 10 minutes
“1/2 hour on Tuesday”
1 unit = 30 minutes
“9/10 hour on Wednesday”

STEP TWO: Add everything up.
Monday + Tuesday + Wednesday = Total hours of work

50 mins + 30 minutes + 54 minutes = 134 minutes
134 minutes = 120 minutes + 14 minutes
= 2 hours and 14 minutes
Perry worked for 2 hours and 14 minutes on Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday.
2. A
This is a simple subtraction problem.
STEP ONE: Subtract Php 17.19 from Php 50.00.
P 50.00
– 17.19
P 32.81
The difference is Php 32.81.
3. D
This problem wants to find out the distance of the car travelling at 125 KPH in 7.5 hours.
STEP ONE: Use the equation

distance = rate x time
STEP TWO: Substitute and simplify
d = 125 kph x 7.5 hours
125 kilometers
d= x 7.5hours
hour
125 kilometers
d= x 7.5hours
hour
937.5 km=125 kilometers x 7.5
The car would have travelled 937.5 kilometers in 7.5 hours.
4. C
STEP ONE: From the phrase “suppose each boy weighs the same…”, divide:
282.6 / 3 = 94.2 kg
The answer is 94.2 kg for each of the three boys.
5. A
STEP ONE: Multiply Php 425 by 34 kilos of seed.
Php 425 per kilo x 34 kilos = Php 14, 450
The total cost Mr. Moreno paid was Php 14,450.
6. B
To solve this problem, reverse the operation.
STEP ONE: Divide 0.00516 by 0.012.
0.012 0.00516
STEP TWO: Move three decimal places to the right to divide.
0.43
12 5.16
0____
51
48__
36
_36
0
The answer is 0.43.
7. B
This is a ratio and proportion problem.
STEP ONE: To solve the problem, first analyze the statements given.
“The basketball team has won 14 games.”
14
“The ratio of the games won to the games played is 7 to 12.”
14 7
=
x 12
In ratio and proportion, the numbers should be in proportion to each other. In this example, the 14 games won is only
expressed as the number 7. The real number was divided by 2.
Based on that pattern, 12 is already divided by 2.
STEP TWO: Therefore, to find x, reverse the operation by multiplying it by 2.

14 7
=
x 12
The total number of games played is 24 games.
8. C
This is also a ratio and proportion problem.
STEP ONE: Convert the statement into an equation as shown below:

11 330 boys
=
10 x number of girls
STEP TWO: One way of solving ratio and proportion problems with big numbers is to find out the value of 1 (unit).
For example:
11 units = 330 boys
1 unit = 30 boys
STEP THREE: Multiply by 10 to get the proportion of the number of girls,

10 units = 300 girls
The number of girls at ABC College of Science and Technology is 300.
9. A
STEP ONE: To solve this problem, first analyze the given statements.
“A photocopying machine can produce 50 copies in 2 minutes.”
STEP TWO: Convert this statement into an equation.

50 copies = 20 minutes
STEP THREE: From there, compute.

50 copies x 3 = 150 copies
150 copies = 2 minutes x 3
= 6 minutes
The photocopier can copy 150 copies in 6 minutes.
10. I – B. 31.25% ; II – C. 18.75%

I. STEP ONE: Divide the fraction. This will get the decimal.
16 5
0.3125
16 5.0000
48___
20
16__
40
32_
80
80
0
STEP TWO: Convert to a percentage by moving the decimal two places to the right.
0.3125 = 31. 25%
Thus, the answer is 31.25%.
II. STEP ONE: Divide the fraction

0.1875
16 3.0000
16___
140
128__
120
112_
80
80
0
STEP TWO: Convert to a percentage by moving the decimal two places to the right.
0.1875 = 18.75%
Thus, the answer is 18.75%.
11. I – A. 9/20 ; II – D. 5/8

I. STEP ONE: Convert the percentage into a fraction by dividing by 100 as shown below:
45
45 %=
100 The percentage sign (%) means
“divided by 100” or “over 100”.
STEP TWO: Reduce the fraction to its lowest term using the Greatest Common Factor or GCF.
45 9
÷ 5=
100 20
9
The answer is .
20
II. STEP ONE: Convert the mixed percentage into an improper fraction percentage as shown below:
1 125
62 %= %
2 2
STEP TWO: Remember that the percentage sign means “divided by 100”. Thus, the equation
125
125 2
%=
2 100
STEP THREE: Divide. Remember, an integer is always

125 100 100
÷ =¿ “over 1”. For example, 100 = .
2 1 1
STEP FOUR: To divide a fraction, invert the divisor and multiply, as shown below:
125 1 5
× =
2 100 8
5
The answer is .
8
12. I – D. 32 ; II – B. 151.2
I. STEP ONE: Write the statement in equation form.
1
n=33 % × 96
3
STEP TWO: Convert the percentage into a fraction.

1 100
33 %= %
3 3
100 100 100
%= ÷
3 3 1
100 1 1
× =
3 100 3
STEP THREE: Simplify the equation.

1
n= ×96
3
n=32
1
Thus,33 % of 96 is 32.
3
II. STEP ONE: Write the statement in equation form.

n = 8.4% x 1800

8.4
n= ×1800
100
84
n= ×1800
1000
STEP THREE: Simplify the equation.

84
n= ×1800
1000
756
n=
5
n = 151.2
Hence, 8.4% of 1800 is 151.2.
2
13. I – C. 16 % ; II – B. 15%
3
I. STEP ONE: Write the statement in equation form.
12.50 = n% x 75

n
12.50= × 75
100
STEP THREE: Transpose (move) the 100 to the left side by multiplying both sides by 100.
n
12.50 (100) = ×75(100)
100
1250 = n x 75
STEP FOUR: Divide both sides by 75.

1250 n × 75
=
75 75
1250
=n
75
2
¿ 16.6 ∞∨16
3
2
Therefore, 12.50 is 16 % of 75.
3
II. STEP ONE: Write the statement in equation form.

27 = n% x 180
STEP TWO. Divide both sides by 180.

27
=n %
180
= 15%
Therefore, 27 is 15% of 180.
14. I – A. 8cm ; II – A.1.25cm

A radius is half the diameter of the circle,
I. 8cm II. 1.25 m
8 cm 8 cm 1.25 m 1.25 m
16 cm 2.5 m
15. A
To express a percentage to a decimal, move the decimal point TWO PLACES TO THE LEFT.
4.5% = 0.045
Similarly, to make a decimal to a percentage, move the decimal point TWO PLACES TO THE RIGHT.
0.045 = 4.5%
The answer is 0.045.
16. A
To answer this problem, carefully analyze the given “clues” in the statements. Use the model approach to dissect
through the problem, step by step. Problems like these are easier solved when visualized.
STEP ONE: Draw the model according to the statements given.

“Samuel and his classmates bought 5 drinks and 8 orders of chicken inasal for Php 955.”
Chicken Inasal
Php 955
Drinks
“Lemuel and his classmates bought 2 drinks and 4 orders of chicken inasal for Php 470 from the same food court.”
Chicken Inasal
Php 470
Drinks
STEP TWO: Overlap both models, Overlap the second model twice.
Chicken Inasal
Php 955
Drinks
Php 470 Php 470
STEP THREE: From this, the equation for one drink is left.
955 – (470 + 470) =
955 – 940 = Php 15.00
STEP FOUR: Get the cost of the five drinks. Therefore,

1 drink = Php 15.00
5 drinks = Php 15 x 5
5 drinks = Php 75
Chicken Inasal
Php 955
Drinks Php 75
STEP FIVE: Calculate the cost of the chicken inasal by subtracting the cost of the drinks.
8 chicken inasals = Php 955 – Php 75
= Php 880
1 chicken inasal = Php 880 / 8

= Php 110
Each order of Chicken Inasal costs Php 110.00.
17. D
To solve the problem, use the model approach.
“1/3 of the people who watched the circus were men.”
That implies that 2/3 of the people who watched were women, as shown below:
MEN
WOMEN
“After 25 men left Ali Mall Plaza, the number of men became ¼ of the original number of people at Ali Mall Plaza.”
STEP TWO: Find out the number with the closest relation to 2/3 and ¼. Hence, the number 12.
STEP THREE: Divide the model into 12 equal parts.

MEN
WOMEN
One fourth (1/4) of 12 is 3.
MEN
LEFT
WOMEN
STEP FOUR: Compute
1 unit = 25 people
Number of women = 8 units = 25 x 8
= 200 women
The number of women at the Ali Mall Plaza was 200.
18. B
STEP ONE: First calculate the highest possible points for the test.
30 correct questions = 120 points
STEP TWO: Subtract the points scored from the highest possible points.
120 – 57 = 63 points
The difference between the highest possible point (120) and the points scored (57) is 63.
STEP THREE: Divide the number by 3 to get the correctly answered questions as shown below:
63 ÷ 3 = 21 questions
Thus, 21 questions were answered correctly. Nine questions were answered incorrectly.
CHECK:
9 x 3 = 27 points deducted
21 x 4 = 84 points earned
84 – 27 = 57 points scored
19. A
“Rommel gave 1/7 of his salary to his father.”
STEP TWO: Draw 7 bars in the model and mark one as the 1/7 th of his salary given to his father as shown below:
to father
“and ½ of the remainder to his mother.”
to father to mother
From the model, the fraction of the salary Rommel had left was 3/7.
20. C
STEP ONE: To solve this problem, convert the statements given into an equation.
“A machine can compile 160 books in 1 hour”
1 hour = 160 books
STEP TWO: Compute

60 minutes = 160 books
60 minutes 160 books
=
4 4
15 minutes = 40 books
The machine can compile 40 books in 15 minutes.

SECTION 2
PRACTICE TEST 1. FRACTIONS AND MEASUREMENTS
Direction: Choose the correct answer. You have one hour to complete this test.
1. Hannah buys a cake and cuts it into 12 equal pieces. He gives 3 pieces to Orvik and 5 pieces to IC. (a) What fraction
of the cake do the boys get altogether? (b) What fraction of the cake has Hannah left?
A. (a. 2/3); (b. 4/6) C. (a. 8/14); (b. 4/6)

B. (a. 2/3); (b. 1/3) D. (a. 1/3); (b. 2/12)
2. Mommy bought ½ kilo of pork and ¾ kilo of fish and 2 kilos of vegetables for Php 390. How heavy (in kg) is
Mommy’s grocery?
A. 3 ¼ kg C. 2 ¾ kg
B. 3 ½ kg D. 2 ½ kg
3. Rica bought 2 kg of powdered milk at the grocery. She accidentally spilled the 1/8 kg of the powdered milk because
she slipped on the floor. What is now the weight of the milk left?
A. 1 2/3 kg C. 1 7/8 kg
B. 1 5/8 kg D. 1 ¼ kg
4. At MRT, the child pays 1/3 of the adult fare. How much will the child pay if the ticket cost Php 15?
A. Php 3 C. Php 45
B. Php 5 D. Php 60
5. Jennifer gave John and Andrew 1/5 of her cake each. What fraction of her cake was left? What fraction was given
to the two boys?
A. (a. 3/5); (b. 3/5) C. (a. 1/5); (b. 4/5)
B. (a. 2/5); (b. 3/5) D. (a. 3/5); (b. 2/5)
6. Jacob’s daddy weighs 2/3 more than him. If Jacob weighs 51 kilos, what is his daddy’s weight?
A. 87 kg C. 86 kg
B. 88 kg D. 85 kg
7. Walter bought 30 boxes of chocolates for her girlfriend. His mom knew about it and took 1/3 of the chocolate
boxes. How many boxes of chocolates were left to Walter’s girlfriend?
A. 20 boxes C. 25 boxes
B. 15 boxes D. 18 boxes
8. 5/12 of the class are absent. What fraction of the class is present?
A. 5/12 C. 7/12
B. ½ D. ¾
9. Which fraction is smaller, 3/9 or 3/11?
10. 3/8 is (greater than, less than) 4/7. Circle your answer.
11. 2/3 is (greater than, less than) 7/5. Circle your answer.
12. A chocolate bar Roger bought was cut into 6 equal parts. Roger’s Mommy eats 3 parts of the chocolate bar. What
fraction of the chocolate bar is left?
A. ½ C. 1/6
B. 5/6 D. 4/6
13. 3/7 is _________ out of _________ equal parts?
14. 4/5 and __________ make 1 whole part?
15. 1/5 of 100 and 1/3 of 120 equals ___________?
16. 2/3 less ¼ equals ___________?
17. 7/6 plus 2/3 equals __________?
18. 2/4 plus 6/4 equals __________?
19. The least common denominator of 3/8, ½ and 5/6 is _________?
20. Express each sum or difference in simplest form.
3 2
A. + =¿
5 3 ¿
11 3
B. − =¿
15 10 ¿
1 3 1
C. 6 + +2 =¿ ¿
2 8 4
7
D. 7− =¿ ¿
8
4 1
E. 1 × 3 =¿ ¿
5 3
7 3
F. ÷ =¿
8 10 ¿
21. The soup bowl contains 200 ml of hot soup. If Dennis sips 50 ml of the soup, what fraction is consumed by Rovik?
A. ¾ of the soup C. 2/3 of the soup

B. ¼ of the soap D. 1/5 of the soup
22. Complete the following:
1 1 2 2
A. +1 =¿ ¿ B. 1 +1 =¿ ¿
2 4 5 7
23. Express each quotient in simplest form:

1 1
A. 8 ÷ 10=¿ ¿ B. 13 ÷3=¿ ¿
3 2
24. Solve each of the following:
3 6
I. =
8 n
A. n = 15 C. n = 20
B. n = 16 D. n = 12
n 5
II. =
30 6
A. n = 5 C. n = 25
B. n = 20 D. n = 15
25. Find the value of n:
8 n
I. =
11 99
A. n = 77 C. n = 85
B. n = 86 D. n = 72
10 5
II. =
n 8
A. n = 16 C. n = 18
B. n = 26 D. n = 24
26. Gilbert wants to buy 10 kilos of durian fruit. What would be the cost if he buys durian fruit which is Php 490 for 5
kilos?
A. Php 960 C. Php 980

B. Php 880 D. Php 920
27. In 3 hours, the machine can produce 225 cases of candies. At this rate, how much cases of candies can be
produced in 8 hours?
A. 600 cases C. 450 cases

B. 700 cases D. 650 cases
28. On a map each centimeter represents 60 kilometers. What is the distance between 2 municipalities which are
represented 5 centimeters apart on the map?
A. 120 km apart C. 250 km apart

B. 360 km apart d. 300 km apart
29. Change each of the following to a fraction or mixed numeral in simplest form:
1
A. 33 %=¿ ¿
3
1
B. 87 %=¿ ¿
2
1
C. 37 %=¿ ¿
2
2
D. 116 %=¿ ¿
3
1
E. 62 %=¿ ¿
2
30. Herbert’s savings is 4 times as much as Aaron’s savings. If both of them saves a total of Php 1,200, how much does
Herbert save?
A. Php 960 C. Php 980

B. Php 480 D. Php 965
31. Orly spent 2 times as much money as Roberto. If Orly spent Php 240 more than Roberto, how much did each
person spend?
A. Roberto spent Php 260; Orly spent Php 520

B. Roberto spent Php 480; Orly spent Php 240
C. Roberto spent Php 860; Orly spent Php 1,620
D. Roberto spent Php 240; Orly spent Php 480
32. Change each of the following percentage to a decimal:
1
A. 37 %=¿ ¿
2
1
B. 16 %=¿ ¿
4
3
C. 21 %=¿ ¿
4
9
D. 83 %=¿ ¿
10
SOLUTIONS TO PACTICE TEST NO. 1

FRACTIONS AND MEASUREMENTS
1. B
To solve this problem, use the model approach. Questions like these are easier solved when visualized.
STEP ONE: Visualize the problem statement by drawing a pie chart.

“Hannah buys a cake and cuts it into 12 equal parts.”
STEP TWO: Mark the following accordingly.
“3 pieces to Orvik and 5 pieces to IC.
for Orvik
for IC
The boys get 8/12 of the cake. Hannah gets the remaining 4/12.
STEP THREE: Reduce to the lowest term.

To reduce to the lowest term, use the Greatest
Common Factor or GCF. The GCF is the greatest
(a) The boys get 2/3 of the cake. number that can be used to divide both the
numerator and denominator. For 4/12 and 8/12,
(b) Hannah gets 1/3 of the cake. the GCF is 4. Thus, the lowest term:
4 1 8 2
÷ 4= ÷ 4=
12 3 12 3
2. A
STEP ONE: Make all the denominators the same.
1 2 3 3 8
kilo= kilo kilo= kilo 2 kilos= kilos
2 4 4 4 4
STEP TWO: Add the fractions.

2 3 8 13
+ + =
4 4 4 4
STEP THREE: Convert into mixed fraction and reduce to lowest term.
13 1
=3
4 4
3. C
STEP ONE: Convert 2 kg into a fraction with the same denominator as the subtrahend.
16
2 kg =
8
STEP TWO: Subtract.

16 1 15
− =
8 8 8
STEP THREE: Convert into a mixed fraction and reduce to lowest term.
15 7
=1
8 8
7
Rica now had only 1 kg of milk left.
8
4. B
STEP ONE: Simply divide by 3.
15 / 3 = 5
The child must pay Php 5.
5. D
5
1=
5
(a) only 3/5 of the cake was left.
(b) The boys got 2/5 of the cake.

5 1 1
( )
− + =¿ ______
5 5 5
5 2 3
− =
5 5 5
6. D
STEP ONE: Draw the models according to the problem statements.
“Jacob’s Dad weighs 2/3 more than him.”
Jacob 51 kg
Dad
2/3rds more
3 unit = 51 kg
1 unit = 17 kg
Dad = 5 units = 85 kg.
Jacob’s dad weighs 85 kg.
7. A
STEP ONE: Draw he models according to the problem statements.
“His mom took 1/3 of the chocolate boxes.”
2/3 took away (1/3)

STEP TWO: Make the model into equation form and compute for 1 unit.
3 units = 30 boxes
1 unit = 10 boxes
2 units =20 boxes
Only 20 boxes of chocolate were given to Walter’s girlfriend.
8. C
STEP ONE: Visualize the problem statement by drawing a 12-unit model. Mark the model accordingly.
“5/12 of the class are absent.”
Absent Present
7/12 of the class are present.
9. 3/11
There are two ways to solve
this problem. One way is to
convert both fractions into
decimals and then compare.
Another is to visualize it in a chart.
A. Fraction to decimal
0.33 ∞ 0. 263
9 3.00 11 3.0000 The key here is knowing how many
27_ 22__ parts will it be divided to. The more
30 70 people who will share, the lesser the
27_ 66_ amount per share people get.
∞ 40
33_
70..
B. Chart Chart Title Chart Title

3/9 3/11
Chart Title Chart Title

3/11 is smaller than 3/9.
10. Less than

3/8 = 0.375
4/7 = 0.571
3/8 is less than 4/7.

11. Less than
7/5 = 1.40 2/3 = 0.67
2/3 is less than 7/5.
12. A
STEP ONE: Visualize the chocolate bar by drawing a model, as shown below:
“A chocolate bar was cut into 6 equal parts. 3 parts were eaten by Roger’s mom”
Eaten by Mom
STEP TWO: Reduce fraction to lowest term.
3/6 = ½
½ of the chocolate bar is left.
13. 3 out of 7
3/7 is 3 out of 7 equal parts
14. 1/5
4/5 and 1/5 make 1 whole part.
15. 60
STEP ONE: Multiply to get the value.
1
x 100=20
5
1
x 120=40
3
STEP TWO: Add the values.

20 + 40 = 60
1/5 of 100 and 1/3 of 120 is 60.
16. 5/12
STEP ONE: Make all denominators the same
2 8 1 3
= =
3 12 4 12
STEP TWO: Subtract fractions

8 3 5
− =
12 12 12
The answer is 5/12.
5
17. 1
6
STEP ONE: Make the both denominators the same.
2 4
x 2=
3 6
7 4 11
+ =
6 6 6
11 5
=1
6 6
5
The answer is 1 .
6
18. 2
STEP ONE: Add the fractions
2 6 8
+ =
4 4 4
STEP TWO: Reduce to the lowest term.

8
=2
4
The answer is 2.
19. 24
STEP ONE: Compare all numbers.
3 1 5
+ + =¿
8 2 6 ¿
The lowest umber that can be divided by 8, 2, and 6 is 24. This is found by simply multiplying 8 and 6, 2 is already a
factor of both numbers so it can be ignored. Divide the product (48) by 2 to lower the value, but make sure that it is
still divisible by either 8 or 6.
3 1 5 ?
+ + =
8 2 6 24
The Least Common Denominator (LCD) is 24.
20. A. 1 4/15; B. 13/30; C. 9 1/8; D. 6 1/8; E. 6; F. 2 11/12

A. STEP ONE: Find the LCD and add.
3 2 9+10
+ =
5 3 15
19
¿
15

19 4
=1
15 15
4
The sum is 1 .
15
B. STEP ONE: Find the LCD and subtract.

11 3 22−9
− =
15 10 30
13
¿
30
The answer is 13/30.
1 3 1
C. 6 + +2 =¿ ¿
2 8 4
STEP ONE: Convert the fractions into an improper fraction, then add.
13 3 9 52+3+18
+ + =
2 8 4 8
13 3 9 73
+ + =
2 8 4 8
STEP TWO: Simplify by converting the improper fraction into mixed fraction.
73 1
=9
8 8
1
The difference is 9 .
8
D. STEP ONE: Convert the integer into an improper fraction.

56
7=
8
STEP TWO: Subtract and simplify by making it into a mixed fraction.

56 7 49
− =
8 8 8
1
¿6
8
1
The difference is 6 .
8
E. STEP ONE: Convert the mixed fraction into an improper fraction. Then, multiply.
9 10 90
x =
5 3 15
¿6
The answer is 6.
F. STEP ONE: To divide a fraction, first invert the divisor and multiply.
7 3
÷ =¿
8 10 ¿ Check:
7 10 70 2
x =
8 3 24 22 11
24 70 2 ÷ 2=2
11 24 12
¿2
12 48_ reduce to lowest term
22 GCF is 2
11
The answer is 2 .
12
21. A
STEP ONE: Convert the statement into an equation.
50 ml
200 ml

50 ml 1
=
200 ml 4
Dennis consumed ¼ of the soup. Therefore, Rovik consumed ¾ of the soup.
22. A. 1 3/4; B. 2 24/35
A. STEP ONE: Convert the mixed fraction into an improper fraction. Make the denominator the same.
1 5 7
+ =
2 4 4
3
¿1
4
3
The answer is 1 .
4
B. STEP ONE: Convert the mixed fraction into an improper fraction. Find the LCD, then add.
7 9 49+ 45
+ =
5 7 35
7 9 94
+ =
5 7 35
24
¿2
35
24
The answer is 2 .
35
23. A. 5/7; B. 4 ½
A. STEP ONE: First convert the mixed fraction into an improper fraction. Remember that an integer is always “over 1”
as shown by the number 10 below.
25 10
÷ =¿
3 1 ¿
STEP TWO: Invert the divisor then multiply.

25 1 25
× =
3 10 30

25 5
=
30 7
The quotient is 5/7.

B. STEP ONE: Convert into improper fractions and invert the operation.
27 3 27 1
÷ = ×
2 1 2 3
27 1 27
× =
2 3 6
3
¿4
6
1
¿4
2
The answer is 4 ½.
24. I. B; II. C
I. This can be considered a ratio and proportion problem. In this problem, the value of the numerator ws multiplied
by 2. Therefore, multiply the denominator by 2 as well.
3x 2 6
=
8 x 2 16
The answer is n = 16.
II. C
In this problem, the value of the denominator (30) was divided by 5. Reverse the operation by multiplying the given
number by 5.
25 x 5 5
=
30 x 5 6
25. I. D; II. A
I. The denominator (11) is multiplied by 9 to make 99. To keep the fraction equal, also multiply the numerator by 9.
8 x 9 72
=
11 x 9 99
II. In this problem, the values are divided by 2. To find n, reverse the operation by multiplying the given denominator
(8) by 2.
10 5
=
16 8
26. C
STEP ONE: Use the equation for the problem.
Php 490 n
=
5 kilos 10 kilos
STEP TWO: Simply multiply the price by 2 to get the price of 10 kilos.
10 kilos = Php 490 x 2
= Php 980
The cost would be Php 980.
27. A
3 hours = 225 cases
225 cases Always solve for 1 unit. You
1 hour = can be flexible finding any
3
unit number once 1 unit is
= 75 cases
found.
8 hours = 75 x 8
= 600 cases
The machine can produce 600 cases in 8 hours.
28. D
1 cm = 60 km
5 cm = 60 km x 5
= 300 km
The municipalities are 300 km apart.
29.
A. 1/3
STEP ONE: First convert the fraction into an improper fraction.
1 100
33 %= %
3 3
STEP TWO: Remember, the “%” sign means “divided by 100”. Thus, below.
100
3
100
STEP THREE: Divide.

100
÷ 100=¿ ¿
3
STEP FOUR: Invert the divisor and multiply.

100 1 100
x =
3 100 300
STEP FIVE: Reduce to simplest form.

100 1
=
300 3
1
33 % is equal to 1/3.
3
B. 7/8
1 175
87 %= %
2 2
STEP TWO: Divide by 100 because of the sign “%”.

175
÷ 100=¿ ¿
2
STEP THREE: Invert the divisor and multiply.

175 1 175
× =
2 100 200
STEP FOUR: Reduce to simplest form.

175 7
=
200 8
1 7
87 % is equal to .
2 8
C.3/8
1 75
37 %= %
2 2

75
÷ 100=¿ ¿
2

75 1 75
× =
2 100 200

75 3
=
200 8
1 3
37 % is equal to .
2 8
D. 1 1/6
2 350
116 %= %
3 3

350
÷ 100=¿ ¿
3

350 1 350
× =
3 100 300

350 7 1
= =1
300 6 6
2 1
116 % is equal to 1 .
3 6
E. 5/8
1 125
62 %= %
2 2

125
÷ 100=¿ ¿
2

125 1 125
× =
2 100 200

125 5
=
200 8
1 5
62 % is equal to .
2 8
30. A
For this problem, use the model approach.
STEP ONE: Draw the model according to the statements.

“Herbert saves 4 times as much as Aaron.”
Herbert
Aaron
STEP TWO: Write into equation form. solve for 1 unit.

5 units = Php 1,200
1 unit = Php 240
STEP THREE: Multiply to solve for Herbert.
Herbert = 4 units = 240 x 4
= Php 960
Herbert saves Php 960.
31. D
“Orly spends 2 times as much as Roberto.”
Orly
Roberto
STEP TWO: Write into equation form. Solve for 1 unit.

“Orly spent Php 240 more…”
1 unit = Php 240
Orly = 2 units = Php 240 x 2
= Php 480
Roberto spent Php 240; Orly spent Php 480.
32.
A. 0.375
1 75
37 %= %
2 2

75
÷ 100=¿ ¿
2

75 1 75
× =
2 100 200

75 3
=
200 8
STEP FIVE: Divide to get the decimal.

3
=0.375
8
1
37 % is equal to 0.375.
2
B. 0.1625
1 65
16 %= %
4 4

65
÷ 100=¿ ¿
4

65 1 13
× =
4 100 80

13
=0.1625
80
1
16 % is equal to 0.1625.
4
C. 0.2175
3 87
21 %= %
4 4

87
÷ 100=¿ ¿
4

87 1 87
× =
4 100 400
STEP FOUR: Divide to get the decimal

87
=0. 2175
400
3
21 % is equal to 0.2175.
4
D. 0.839
9 839
83 %= %
10 10

839
÷ 100=¿ ¿
10

839 1 839
× =
10 100 1000
STEP FOUR: Divide to get the decimal
839
=0.839
1000
9
83 % is equal to 0.839
10
SECTION 2
PRACTICE TEST 2. WORK PROBLEMS
Direction: Choose the correct answer. You have 30 minutes to complete this test.
1. Roger takes 8 hours to encode in the computer 50 pages of notes, while Florian can encode in the computer the
same number of page in 6 hours. How many words would it take to take both of them to encode 100 pages of notes if
they work together?
A. 2 4/7 hours C. 6 6/7 hours

B. 6 1/7 hours D. 2 ½ hours
2. ABC Company is capable of building 40 houses per year. NYL Construction Company can build 20 houses every
three months. How long does it take the two companies together to build 84 houses?
A. 8 2/5 months C. 5 1/10 months

B. 3 ¼ months D. 8 ½ months
3. Matthew, Mark and John together require 2 hours to complete the task if each of the team work at his respective
rate. If Matthew can complete the task in 4 hours and Mark can complete the task in 8 hours alone, how many hours
would it take John to complete the task by himself?
A. 5 hours C. 4 ½ hours
C. 7 hours D. 8 hours
4. Orvik can solve 20 math problems in 2 hours. Herbert can solve 15 problems in 3 hours. How many math problems
can they solve in half an hour?
A. 8 ½ problems C. 7 problems
B. 10 problems D. 7 ½ problems
5. Marian can file 60 records in 2 hours while Baby Love can file the same number of records in 4 hours. If they work
together, how many hours would it take them to file 150 records?
A. 4 hours C. 3 1/3 minutes

B. 3 1/3 hours D. 4 ½ hours
SOLUTIONS TO PRACTICE TEST NO. 2
WORK PROBLEMS
In work problems, the rate at which people or machines work or perform individually will be given, and you will be
asked to compute the rate at which they work together or vice versa.
Always follow the work formula which states that, the inverse of the time it would take the person or machine to
work together is equal to the sum of the inverse of the times it would take each work individually.
The concept is this: R1 st + R 2nd + R 3 rd =Total Rate (R ¿¿ t) ¿
In a nutshell, the formula is: where;

1 1 1 1
+ + = a = 1st individual
a b c t
b = 2nd individual
c = 3rd individual
t = total
1. C
From the problem statement, Roger can encode 50 pages of notes for 8 hours.
For each hour, Roger types:
50 1
=6 pages of notes
8 4
50 1
Each hour, Florian can encode pages of notes or equal to 8 pages of notes.
6 3
STEP ONE: Use the formula and add.

1 1 7 175
6 +8 =14 =
4 3 12 12
175
STEP TWO: Divide the number of pages (100) by to get the number of hours needed.
12
100 175
÷ =¿
1 12 ¿
100 12 48
× =
1 175 7
6
¿ 6 hours
7
6
Thus, it take 6 hours for Roger and Florian to encode in the computer 100 pages of notes together.
7
2. A
STEP ONE: Similar to above, turn the statements into an equation. Write down their rates.
40 houses 40 10 houses
ABC = = ÷ 4=
12months 12 3 months
10 houses
ABC =
3 months
20 houses
NYK =
3 months
80 houses
= or 80 houses per year
30 months
STEP TWO: Add their rates.

40 80 120
ABC + NYK = + =
12 12 12
= 10 houses per month
STEP THREE: Divide 84 by 10 to get the number of hours needed.

84 4
=8
10 10
2
¿ 8 months
5
2
Company ABC and NYK will take 8 months to complete 84 houses together.
5
3. D
STEP ONE: Follow the work formula.
1 1 1 1
+ + =
Matthew Mark John t
1 1 1 1
+ + =
4 8 John 2
STEP TWO: Make denominators equal.

2 1 1 4
+ + =
8 8 John 8
2 1
STEP THREE: Transpose and to the right side of the equation.
8 8
1 4 2 1
= − −
John 8 8 8
1 1
=
John 8
STEP FOUR: Invert the equation to remove the fraction.

John = 8 hours
It will take 8 hours to complete the task by himself.
4. D
STEP ONE: First find both rates.
Orvik = 20 problems/2hours
= 10 problems/hour
= 10 problems/60 minutes
Herbert = 15 problems/3 hours

= 5 problems/hour
= 5 problems/60 minutes
10 5 15
+ =
60 60 60
1 problem
=
4 minutes
STEP TWO: Divide 30 minutes by ¼ to get the answer.

1 problem x problems
=
4 minutes 30 minutes
30 minutes 1
=7 problems
4 minutes 2
1
They can solve 7 problems in half an hour.
2
5. C
STEP ONE: Convert the statement into an equation defining their work rates.
Marian Baby Love
No. of hours filing 60 records 2 4
60 60
Rate
2 4
60 60
+ =¿
2 4 ¿
60 30 90
+ =
2 2 2
= 45 records filed
STEP TWO: Divide 150 by 45 to get the hours taken.

150 15
=3 hours
45 45
1
= 3 hours
3
1
It would take them 3 hours to file 150 records.
3
SECTION 2
PRACTICE TEST 3: RATE PROBLEMS
1. James and Marie are both employees working as newspaper editors. James can edit 600 words per minute and
Marie can edit 900 words per minute. If they work together, how many pages can they edit in 30 minutes if each page
consists of 1000 words?
A. 45 pages C. 60 pages
B. 40 pages D. 55 pages
2. Two buses leave the Cubao Terminal at the same time bound for the Bicol Region. Bus A travels at the speed of 90
kilometers per hour (kph) while Bus B travels at 110 Kph. How many minutes will the two buses be 10 kilometers
apart?
A. 3 minutes C. 12 minutes
B. 30 minutes D. 25 minutes
3. Rommel drives 450 kilometers going to Naga City in the Bicol Region and arrives in 9 hours from Manila City. If
Rommel had increased his average driving rate at 10 kilometers per hour than his actual rate, how many hours earlier
would he arrived?
A. 2 hours sooner C. 1 ½ hours sooner

B. 30 minutes sooner D. 1 ¾ hours sooner
4. A student regularly leaves at 5 a.m. for school based in Makati City which is 45 kilometers away from his home. He
rides the bus with an average speed of 30 kph. At what time is the student expected to arrive in school?
A. 5:45 PM C. 6:00 AM
B. 6:30 PM D. 6:30 AM
5. What is the average speed of the car, in kilometers per hour that runs ½ kilometers in 30 seconds?
SOLUTIONS TO PRACTICE TEST NO.3

RATE PROBLEMS
1. A
STEP ONE: Identify the “clues” in the statement.
Name Editing Speed
James 600 words/min.
Marie 900 words/min.
Work together = 600 words/min + 900 words/min.

= 1500 words per minute
“If each page consists of 1000 words…”

1 page = 1000 words
STEP TWO: Divide their combined work rate by the work needed to complete 1 page.
1,500 words per minute
=1.5 pages per minute
1000 words per page
STEP THREE: Multiply by 30 to get pages done in 30 minutes.

1.5 pages per minute x 30 minutes = 45 pages
Hence, James and Marie can complete 45 pages in 30 minutes.
2. B
STEP ONE: Find their relative speed. (the speed at which they are moving away from each other)
Relative Speed = Bus B – Bus A
= 110 kph – 90 kph
= 20 kph
STEP TWO: Divide the time elapsed by their rate.

10 kilometers 1
= hour
20 kilometers per hour 2
= 30 minutes
Bus A and Bus B will be 10 kilometers apart in 30 minutes.
3. C
STEP ONE: Find Rommel’s rate Review:
distance = rate x time
450 kilometers distance
=50 kph rate =
9 hours time
distance
time =
rate
STEP TWO: According to the statement, if he were to drive 10 kph faster, his speed would be:
50 kph + 10 kph = 60 kph
STEP THREE: Divide the distance by the “new” rate to get the time.
450 kilometers
=7.5 hours
60 kilometers per hour
STEP FOUR: Simply subtract from the actual time arrived.

9 hours – 7.5 hours = 1.5 hours
Rommel would have arrived 1.5 hours sooner.
4. D
STEP ONE: Divide the distance by the rate.
45 kilometers
=1.5 hours
30 kilometers per hour
STEP TWO: Add the calculated time to get the expected arrival.
5 AM + 1 hour 30 minutes = 6:30 AM
He is expected to arrive at school by 6:30 AM.
5. A
STEP ONE: Find out the rate per minute.
500 m = 30 seconds
1 km = 1 minute
STEP TWO: Multiply by 60 to get the rate per 60 minutes (1 hour)

1 km x 60 = 1 minute x 60
60 km = 60 minutes
= 60 kilometers per hour
Thus, the car travels at 60 km per hour.
SECTION 2
PRATICE TEST 4: COUNTING PROBLEMS
1. In how many ways an you arrange four different books in one shelf?
A. 12 ways C. 24 ways
B. 4 ways D. 16 ways
2. At TSL Academy, 28 Senior High school students are taking either Multimedia Arts or Fashion design or both, and
10 students are taking Multimedia arts and Fashion Design courses. If there are 22 students in the class studying
Fashion Design, how many students are there in the Multimedia class?
A. 16 students C. 7 students
B. 18 students D. 10 students
3. There are 40 Senior High school students studying at the AAA Language Center. Twenty students study Mandarin
Chinese and 27 students study Spanish. If all the students study Mandarin Chinese or Spanish, how many students
study both Mandarin Chinese and Spanish?
4. At Alternative Learning School, there are 12 students who play basketball, 7 students play volleyball and 9 students
who play football. If 4 students play two of the three sports and all the rest of the students play only 1 sport, how
many students are there in the entire class?
5. A popular last food chain offers three different choices of chicken meal preparation, two different side dish add-
ons, and eight different choices of drinks to complete one meal package. How many different meal packages are
there to choose from?
A. 35 meal packages C. 20 meal packages

B. 48 meal packages D. 45 meal packages
SOLUTIONS TO PRACTICE TEST 4

COUNTING PROBLEMS
In solving counting problems, use the Fundamental Counting Principle which says that the number of ways an event
can happen is equal to the product of the choices that must be made to build an event.
1. C
In how many ways can you arrange the 4 books in one shelf?
Answer: 4 x 3 x 2 x 1 = 24 ways
There are 24 ways to arrange four different books.
2. A
To solve this problem, use the Venn diagram to keep track of the sets or things. Some counting problems involve
overlapping sets which also belong in other sets.
STEP ONE: Draw the Venn diagram and label according to the statements given.
“10 students are taking both Multimedia and Fashion Design courses”
10
Multimedia Fashion Design

“there ae 22 students in the class studying fashion design”
Since there are already 10 listed, place only 12 to make it a total of 22.
10 12
“28 senior high school students
6 10 12
STEP TWO: Make sure your values are correct according to the statement, and find the answer as seen in the
diagram.
According to the diagram, 16 students are studying Multimedia Arts.
3. C
STEP ONE: Add the number of students who study mandarin Chinese and Spanish as shown below:
27 + 20 = 47
STEP TWO: Subtract the result from the total number of students.
47 – 40 = 7
This excess (overlapping) number shows the number of students who study both languages. The Venn diagram can
then be illustrated as follows:
13 7 20
Mandarin Spanish
According to the diagram, 7 students are studying both Mandarin and Spanish.
4. D
STEP ONE: Draw the Venn diagram and label according to the statements given:
“12 students play basketball; 7 students play volleyball;
9 play football; 4 play two of these sports. The rest play only 1 sport.”
STEP TWO: Place 4 in any part of the diagram overlapping two sports.
Volleyball
Basketball 4 Place the number 4 in any
of the two-overlapping
parts of the diagram does
not matter since the
condition is not as specific.
Football
STEP THREE: Fill the diagram according to the statements.
Basketball
8 4 3 Volleyball
0
0 0
9
Football
STEP FOUR: Add the numbers to get the total number of students in the entire class.
8 + 4 + 3 + 9 = 24 students
Thus, there are 24 students in the entire class.
Check: Moving the number 4 in a different position, will have the same result asked for. The
change is the number of students ONLY playing that sport. But, that is not what the problem
asks.
Basketball Volleyball
0 3
12
0
0 4
12 + 3 + 4 + 5 = 24 students
5
Football
5. B
STEP ONE: Determine the numbers involved in the counting problem, and use the counting principle.
“3 different choices of chicken meal preparation,
2 different side dish add-ons and
8 different choices of drinks to complete one meal package.”
STEP TWO: Multiply all numbers to determine the number of meal packages.
Answer: 3 x 2 x 8 = 48 different meal packages
Therefore, there are 48 different meal packages to choose from.
SECTION 2
PRACTICE TEST 5. USE OF PARENTHESIS, EXPONENT, MULTIPLICATION, DIVISION, ADDITION, SUBTRACTION AND
PERCENTAGE
Direction: Answer the following questions by showing the solutions to each question.
1. ( 10−5 )2+ (3 × 4 )+ 45−10
A. 147 C. 72
B. 5 D. 55
2. 60+30 ÷ 6 × ( 5−3 ) + ( 6−3 )2
A. 5,625 C. 3.5
B. 79 D. 45
3. 60−10× ( 20−18 )2−5+10
A. 25 C. 6
B. 40 D. 70
4. What is 15% of 200?
A. 30 C. 34
B. 35 D. 45
5. What is 20% of 400?
A. 70 C. 90
B. 80 D. 60
6. 50 is what percent of 5?
A. 2000% C. 1500%
B. 3000% D. 1000%
A. 300% C. 500%
C. 400% D. 600%
8. 30 is 60% of what number?
A. 30 C. 50
B. 40 D. 60
A. 30.25 C. 32.25
B. 31.25 D. 35.25
A. 200% C. 400%
B. 300% D. 500%
11. What is 30% of 900?
A. 270 C. 290
B. 280 D. 260
A. 600 C. 800
B. 700 D. 900
13. The price of diesel oil goes up from Php 25.00 to 29.00 per liter yesterday. What is the percent increase?
A. 15% C. 16%
B. 25% D. 12%
14. Last year, the price of fuel decreased from Php 50.00 to Php 40.00 per liter. What is the percent decrease in the
price of fuel?
A. 30% C. 10%
B. 20% D. 15%
15. The retail price of Pan de Sal increased from Php 2.00 to Php 5.00 per piece this year. What is the percent
increase?
A. 15% C. 140%
B. 100% D. 150%
16. The salary of public school teacher increased from Php 12,000 to Php 15,000 per month. What is the percent
increase in the salary of public school teachers?
A. 25% C. 30%
B. 14% D. 3.0%
17. The price of book titled 1000 Review Questions decrease from Php 500 tp Php 375. What is the percent decrease
in price?
A. 25% C. 63%
B. 37.5% D. 55%
18. 10 is 2.5% of what number?
A. 100 C. 300
B. 200 D. 400
19. What is 35% of 500?
A. 180 C. 170
B. 165 D. 175
A. 21% C. 22%
B. 20% D. 25%
21. The school’s tuition fee goes up from Php 30,000 to 45,000 per year. What is the percent increase?
A. 45% C. 60%
B. 33% D. 50%
A. 145 C. 150
B. 140 D. 50
23. After decreasing by 10 percent, the population of the city is now 63,000. What was the original population?
A. 63, 574 C. 67,000

B. 70,000 D. 72,000
24. The number of teacher in a certain school increased by 5 percent. The current number now is 525. What was the
original number of teachers?
A. 500 C. 515
B. 520 D. 510
25. The number of chicks produced in the farm decreased by 20 percent because of pest outbreak. The population
now is 3,000. What was the population before the pest outbreak?
A. 4,000 C. 3,750
B. 4,500 D. 5,500
26. From 100 million people in 2015, the Philippines is now 103 million people in 2016. What is the percent increase?
A. 3% C. 0.003
B. 2% D. 3.33%

USE OF PARENTHESIS, EXPONENT, MULTIPLICATION, DIVISION, ADDITION, SUBTRACTION AND PERCENTAGE
1. C
The order of operations must be observed to get the correct answer to this problem.
STEP ONE: First do the numbers within the parenthesis.

PEMDAS stands for Parenthesis,
(10 – 5)² + (3 x 4) + 45 – 10 =
Exponents, Multiplication,
(5)² + (12) + 45 -10 =
Division, Addition, Subtraction
STEP TWO: Simplify the exponents.

25 + (12) + 45 – 10 =
The order of the operation starts
STEP THREE: Following the correct order, add. with the parenthesis, followed by
82 – 10 = exponents, so on and so forth. The
last operation should be subtraction.
STEP FOUR: Subtract
82 – 10 = 72
The answer is 72.
2. B
Similar to number 1, this problem tackles the correct order of operations.
60 + 30 ÷ 6 x (5 – 3) + (6 – 3)² =
PEMDAS order of operations:
Following the correct order, the solution is as follows:
1st. Parenthesis
STEP ONE: Parenthesis first.
60 + 30 ÷ 6 x 2 + 3² = 2nd. Exponents
STEP TWO: Exponents. 3rd. Multiplication and/or Division

60 + 30 ÷ 6 x 2 + 9 = - equal priority
- whichever goes first (left to right)
STEP THREE: Divide 4th. Addition and/or Subtraction
60 + 5 x 2 + 9 = - equal priority
- whichever goes first (left to right)
STEP FOUR: Multiply.
60 + 10 + 9 =
STEP FIVE: Addition.

60 + 10 + 9 = 79
The answer is 79.
3. A
Follow the order of operations.
60 – 10 x (20 – 18)² – 5+ 10 =
60 – 10 x (2)² – 5 + 10 =
60 – 10 x 4 – 5 + 10 =
60 – 40 – 5 + 10 =
20 – 5 + 10 =
15 + 10 = 25
The answer is 25.
4. A
15% x 200 = ?
STEP TWO: Compare the equation to 100.

If 15% of 100 = 15
Then 15% of 100 = 15 x 2
= 30
15 percent of 200 is 30.
5. B
STEP ONE: Convert the statement into an equation
20% x 400 = ?
STEP TWO: Get the 1 %.

100% = 400
1% = 4
STEP THREE: Multiply by 20 to get 20%.
20% = 4 x 20
= 80
6. D
50 = ?% x 5
STEP TWO: Determine the 100 %.

100% = 5
STEP THREE: Multiply by 10 to get 50.

100% x 10 = 5 x 10
1000% = 50
50 is 1000% of 5.
7. B
20 = n% x 5
STEP TWO: Determine the 100%.

20
n% =
5
=4
n% x 100 = 4 x 100
n = 400%
Thus, 20 is 400% of 5.
8. C

30 = 60% x ? Alternative method:
60% x n = 30
STEP TWO: Determine the 1 %.
0.6n = 30
30
1% = 30
60 n=
0.6
= 0.5
= 50
1% x 100 = 0.5 x 100
= 50
30 is 60% of 50.
9. B
STEP ONE: Convert the statement into an equation Alternative method:
25 = 80% x ?
0.8% x n = 25
STEP TWO: Determine the 20%. 25
n=
0.8
25
20% =
4
= 6.25
STEP THREE: Multiply by 5 to get 100%

20% x 5 = 6.25 x 5
= 31.25
25 is 80% of 31.25
10. D
STEP ONE: Convert the statement into an equation Alternative method:
10 = ?% x 2
n% x 2 = 10
10
n% =
100% = 2 2
n% = 5
STEP THREE: Multiply by 5 to get 10. n = 5 x 100
2 x 5 = 100% x 5 = 500
10 = 500%
10 is 500% of 2.
11. A
30% x 900 = ? Alternative method:
30% x 900 = n
STEP TWO: Determine the 1%. 0.3 x 900 = 270
100% = 900
900
1% =
100
=9

30% = 9 x 30
= 270
12. D
30% x 900 = n
STEP TWO: Determine the 1%. 0.3 x 900 = 270
100% = 900
900
1% =
100
=9

30% = 9 x 30
= 270
13.C
There are two ways to solve this problem. This is the long method.
First compare the numbers by subtraction. The goal is to get the difference between the two numbers.
Remember: Minuend – Subtrahend = Difference
29 – 25 = 4
The subtrahend, 25 is the base number from which it rose to 29.
STEP ONE: Compare the amount difference with the base number by making it into a fraction.
4
25
STEP TWO: Divide. 0.16
25 4.00 The key here is finding the base
0___ number from which to compare the
40 difference in a fraction. From there,
25__ just divide and convert for the desired
150 answer.
150
0
STEP THREE: Convert the decimal into a percentage.

0.16 = 16%
The price increase is 16%.
This is the short method in solving the problem.

STEP ONE: First compare the numbers by making it into a fraction. Place the original price of the item as the
denominator, while the new price as the numerator. The goal is to make the base number the divisor.
Php 29
Php 25
STEP TWO: Divide. 1.16 .

25 29.00
0___
40
25__
150
150
0
The number “1” in 1.16 is the 100%. The remaining “.16” is its increase from 25 to 29.
STEP THREE. Convert the decimal into a percentage.

0.16 = 16%
The answer is 16%.
14. B
STEP ONE: First compare the numbers by subtraction. The goal is to get the difference between the two numbers.
Php 50 – Php 40 = Php 10
Php 50 is the base number where it decreased to Php 40.
STEP TWO: Compare the amount difference with the base number by making it into a fraction.
Php 10
Php 50
STEP THREE: Divide. 0.20
50 10.00
0___
100
100_
00
STEP FOUR: Convert the decimal into a percentage.

0.20 = 20%
The price decrease is 20%
15. D
STEP ONE: First compare the numbers by making it into a fraction. make the base number the divisor.
Php 5
Php 2
Alternative method:
STEP TWO: Divide. 2.50 . 5–2=3
2 5.00
3
=1.5
4___ 2
10 1.5 x 100 = 150%
10__
0
The number “1” in 2.50 is the 100%. The remaining “1.50” is its increase from Php 2 to Php 5.

1.50 = 150%
The answer is 150%.
16. A
Php 15,000
Php 12,000
STEP TWO: Divide. (remove all zeroes for easier and faster division)
1.25 .
12 15.00
12___
30
24__
60
60_
0
The number “1” in 1.25 is the 100%. The remaining “.25” is its increase from Php 12,000 to Php 15,000.

0.25 = 25%
The salary increase is 25%
17. A
This problem is similar to problem no. 18. This is the shortcut of solving it.
Php 375
Php 500
STEP TWO: Divide.

0.75 Alternative method:
500 375.00 500 – 375 = 125
0___ 125
=0.25
3750 500
3500_ 0.25 x 100 = 25%
2500
2500
0
From there, it shows that 375 is 75% of 500. Therefore, the decrease is 25%
The price decrease is 25%
18. D
10 = 2.5% x ?

10
1% =
2.5
=4

1% x 100 = 4 x 100
= 400
10 is 2.5% of 400.
19. D
35% X 500 = n
STEP TWO: Determine the 1%. 0.35 x 500 = n
100% = 500 = 175
500
1% =
100
=5

35% = 5 x 35
= 175
20. B
25 = ?% x 125 Alternative method:
n x 125 = 25
STEP TWO: Determine the 100%. 25
100% = 125 n=
125
n = 0.2
STEP THREE: Divide by 5 to get 25 % = 0.2 x
125 / 5 = 100% / 5 100
25 = 20% = 20
25 is 20% of 125.
21. D
Php 45,000
Php 30,000
STEP TWO: Divide. (remove all zeroes for easier and faster division
1.5
30 45.00
30__
150
150_
0
“1.00” in 1.5 is the 100%. The remaining “.5” is its increase from Php 30,000 to Php 45,000
STEP THREE: Convert the decimal into percentage.

0.5 = 50%
The tuition fee increase is 50%.
22. C
15 = 10% x ?
STEP TWO: Determine the 1%

15
1% =
10
= 1.5

1% x 100 = 1.5 x 100
= 150
15 is 10% of 150.
23. B
“After deceasing by 10 percent, the population of the city is now 63,000.”
100% - 10% = 90%
90% = 63,000

63,000
1% =
90
= 700

1% x 100 = 700 x 100
= 70,000
The original population was 70,000.
24. A
STEP ONE: Convert the statement into an equation. The original number is represented by 100%.
“The number of teacher in a certain school increased by 5 percent”
100% + 5% = 105%
“The current number now is 525”

105% = 525

525
1% =
105
=5

1% x 100 = 5 x 100
= 500
The original number was 500.
25. C
“The number of chicks produced in the farm decreased by 20%...”
“The population now is 3,000”
80% = 3,000

3000
1% =
80
= 37.5

1% x 100 = 37.5 x 100
= 3,750
The initial population was 3,750.

26. A
2015 = 100 million
2016 = 103 million
STEP TWO: First compare the numbers by making it into a fraction. make the base number the divisor.
103 million
100 milion
STEP THREE: Divide.

1.03
100 103.00
100__
30
_0_
300
300
0
“1.00” in 1.03 is the 100%. The remaining “.03” is its increase from 100 million to 103 million.
STEP FOUR: Convert the decimal into percentage.

0.03 = 3%
The population increase is 3%.
SECTION 2
PRACTICE TEST 6: DATA ANALYSIS
Direction: Choose the correct answer. You have one hour to complete this test.
1. The pie chart shows the percentage of pupils in a school. What percentage of the pupils are girls?
Boys
45%
A. 65% C. 45%
B. 35% D. 55%
2. The pie chart shows a favorite type of soft drinks of a group of employees.
Water
20%
Coke
Pop
?
15%
Apple Juice
25%
I. What percentage of the employees like coke?
A. 35% C. 33%
B. 40% D. 45%
II. If water is the favorited drink of 32 employees, how many employees are there altogether?
A. 160 employees C. 158 employees

B. 170 employees D. 155 employees
3. The pie chart shows a group of 180 people going to the market.
By
walking
By car By jeep
1/3 7/12
I. What percentage of the people go to the market by walking?
A. approximately 8% C. approximately 6%
B. approximately 4% D. approximately 5%
II. How many people go to the market by walking?
A. 15 people C. 20 people
B. 12 people D. 35 people
4. The table below shows the rate of parking a car in Festival Mall.
Hour Cost
First Hour P 15.00
Subsequent ½ hour P 5.00

I. How much must Mr. Roger pay if he
parks his car from 10:15 a.m. to 4:05 p.m.?
A. Php 40 C. Php 65
B. Php 75 D. Php 35
5. The tally sheet shows Janine’s exam results. Unfortunately, the tally sheet accidentally caught fire and was
damaged. What is the highest possible score for Exam 3 if she passed all her exams?
Janice’s Exam Score
Exam 1 60
Exam 2 64
Exam 3 7_
Exam 4 ___
Average 62
Total score per exam: 100

Pass mark per exam: 50
A. 73 marks C. 75 marks
B. 74 marks D. 79 marks
6. The graph shows the number of CDs sold from a shop.
800
700
600
500
400
300
100
0
2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010
I. How many CDs were sold in 2009?
A. 700 CDs C. 300 CDs

B. 100 CDs D. 500 CDs
II. What is the average number of CDs sold over 6 years?
A. 651 CDs C. 381 CDs

B. 411 CDs D. 541 CDs
III. Find the years when more than the average number of CDs were sold.
A. 2005, 2008, 2010 C. 2006, 2007, 2008

B. 2007, 2008, 2009 D. 2006, 2007, 2009
IV. In 2011, there was a 45% increase in the number of CDs than in previous year. How many CDs were sold in 2011?
A. 557 CDs C. 750 CDs

B. 365 CDs D. 725 CDs
7. The pie chart shows the number of dialects spoken by student in a certain school.
Cebuano Tagalog
3/10 3/10
Ilonggo
Ilocano
I. What percentage of the students speak Cebuano?

A. approximately 30% C. approximately 40%
B. approximately 50% D. approximately 20%
II. What percentage of the students speak Ilonggo?
A. 30% C. 43%
B. 25% D. 45%
III. If there are 160 students who speak Ilonggo, how many students are there?

8. The graph below shows the number of people decreasing in a mini mart every hour. How many people have
decreased in the first 2 hours?
Chart Title
40
30
Number of people left
20
10
0
5:00 PM 6:00 PM 7:00 PM 8:00 PM 9:00 PM
A. 10 people C. 25 people
B. 15 people D. 30 people
9. The charges for making an international call on a mobile phone are given in the table below.
1st minute P 30.00
2nd minute P20.00
Subsequent minute or part thereof 90 ₵
How much John pay if he used his mobile phone for 56 minute?
A. Php 98.60 C. Php 68.90

B. Php 89.60 D. Php 86.50
10. The pie chart shows a student, Mr. Ramirez, who spends his weekly pocket money of P150.00
Personal
Needs
1/3 Piggy bank

savings
SM
Shopping
I. What fraction of his pocket money does he put in his piggy bank?
A. ½ C. 2/12
B. 7/12 D. 3/8
II. What fraction of his pocket money does he spend on SM?
A. 3/5 C. 2/7
B. ¼ D. 1/6
III. How much of his pocket money does he spend on his needs?
A. Php 40 C. Php 35
B. Php 50 D. Php 25
11. In a pet grooming club of 40 young students, 15 students keep dogs as pets, 5 students keep rabbits, 4 students
keep cats and the rest don’t keep any pets. The pie chart shows this information.
Rabbits
5
Cats
4 No pets
Dogs
15
I. How many students in the pet grooming club do not keep any pets?
II. What fraction of the students keep dogs?
A. 3/5 C. 1/3
B. 5/8 D. 3/8
III. What fraction of the students keep rabbits?
A. 1/8 C. 3/5
B. 1/3 D. 3/8
IV. What percentage of the students keep cats?
A. 12% C. 10%
B. 15% D. 18%
12. The pie chart shows the number of motorcycles entering a college school early in the morning.
Honda
Rusco
3
10
Yamaha Suzuki
12 35
I. How many motorcycles are there altogether?
A. 59 motorcycles C. 61 motorcycles
B. 60 motorcycles D. 45 motorcycles
II. What fraction of the motorcycles are the Suzuki brand?
A. 3/8 C. 1/3
B. 5/12 D. 7/12
III. What fraction of the motorcycles are the Rusco brand?
A. 1/6 C. 3/5
B. 1/8 D. 1/15
IV. What percentage of the motorcycles are the Yamaha brand?
A. 25% C. 14%
B. 20% D. 18%
V. What percentage of the motorcycles are the Honda brand?
A. 5% C. 6.5%
B. 7% D. 4.8%
13. The pie chart shows how a home-schooled student spends his time during the 24 hours of the day.
rest &play, 3h
study, 3h sleeping, 8h
lessons with parents
sports, 3h
watching tv, 1h
I. How many hours does the student spend lessons with parents?
A. 6 hours C. 3 hours
B. 8 hours D. 5 hours
II. What fraction of the day does the student spend sleeping?
A. 2/8 C. 1/3
B. ½ D. 2/3
III. What percentage of the day does the student do sports?
A. 15.2% C. 6.5%
B. 12.5% D. 4.8%
IV. The following pie chart shows the fruits the seller at Bankerohan market sold one Saturday night.
pomelo, 15
durian, 18
langka
green mago, 12
I. Which type of fruit dis she sell the most?
A. durian C. pomelo
B. green mango D. langka
II. How many Langka did she sell?
A. 12 C. 17
B. 15 D. 20
III. How many more Durian than Lanka did she sell?
A. 3 C. 4
B. 5 D. 2
IV. How many fruits did she sell altogether?
A. 40 fruits C. 65 fruits
B. 45 fruits D. 60 fruits
15. The pie chart shows the attendance at a performance.
women, 45%
children, 35%
men
I. What percentage of the audience were women and children?
A. 65% C. 50%
B. 70% D. 80%
II. What percentage of the audience were men?
A. 45% C. 35%
B. 20% D. 25%
III. If there were 280 children at the performance, how many women were there?
A. 120 women C. 360 women

B. 125 women D. 280 women
16. The pie chart shows the different colors of paper in a plastic.
green, 1/5
yellow
red
white, 1/6
blue
I. What fraction of the papers are yellow?
A. 5/8 C. 3/10
B. 1/3 D. 5/12
II. What fraction of the papers are blue?
A. 1/12 C. 1/11
B. 1/8 D. 5/12
III. What percentage of the papers are NOT red?

A. 75% C. 64%
B. 80% D. 60%
IV. What percentage of the papers are NOT yellow or nor green?
A. 50% C. 65%
B. 70% D. 80%
17. The graph shows the amount of money 5 classes donated to charit
600
500
Amount of money
400
300
200
100
0
A B C D E
Class
I. How much more money did Class C give than Class A?
A. 65 C. 50
B. 70 D. 80
II. What is the average amount of money given by all 5 classes?
A. 430 C. 500
B. 340 D. 450
18. The pie chart shows the number of cars parked at SM Makati at 10 a.m.
Not occupied
Audi cars
Honda cars
Mitsubishi cars, 80
I. How many parking lots are there altogether?
A. 320 parking lots C. 300 parking lots

B. 240 parking lots D. 400 parking lots
II. If 1/10 of the parking lot are not occupied, how many parking lots are not occupied?
A. 32 parking lots C. 24 parking lots
B. 20 parking lots D. 40 parking lots
III. If 20% of the cars are Audi cars, how many Audi cars are there?
A. 43 Audi cars C. 63 Audi cars

B. 54 Audi cars D. 64 Audi cars
IV. What fraction of the parking lots are occupied by Honda cars?
A. ¾ C. 9/20
B. 7/20 D. ¼
V. A few hours later, if ¾ of the vacant parking lots are occupied, what fraction of the parking lots are not occupied?
A. 1/8 C. 4/12
B. ¼ D. 5/16
19. The pie chart shows the different kinds of Compact Discs (CDs) in Samuel’s Video City.
Comedy, 1/4
Family
Action,
I. If 1/3 of the CDs are on family, what fraction of the CDs are on action?
A. 4/7 C. 5/12
B. 3/16 D. 2/3
II. If there are 240 CDs, how many CDs are on comedy?
A. 32 CDs C. 40 CDs
B. 60 CDs D. 63 CDs
20. The pie chart shows the favorite sports of group of children.
Volleyball
15%
Soccer
Basketball
18%
Swimming
12%
Badminton
20%
“If 72 children like basketball,”
I. What percentage of the children like to play soccer?
A. 45% C. 65%
B. 25% D. 35%
II. How many children like to play soccer?

A. 140 children C. 180 children
B. 135 children D. 130 children
SOLUTIONS TO PRACTICE TEST 6

DATA ANALYSIS
1. D
A pie represents 100%. Since 45% of the pupils are boys, the rest should be 55% to make it whole again.
100% - 45% = 55%
Girls Boys
The percentage of the pupils who are girls is 55%.
2. I. B; II. A
I. The clue in solving this problem is with the right angle found within the graph.
Water
20%
Coke
Pop
?
15%
Apple Juice
25%
STEP ONE: A right angle implies that it is one-fourth (1/4) of the pie hart, In other words, it is 25%.
STEP TWO: Add the percentages.

15 + 20 + 25 = 60%
100% - 60% = 40%
40% of the employees like Coke.
II. “If water is the favorite drink of 32 employees…”

20% = 32 employees
STEP TWO: Multiply both sides by 5 to get 100%.

20% x 5 = 32 employees x 5
= 160 employees
There are 160 employees altogether.
3. I. A; II. A
To solve the problem I.
STEP ONE: Make the fractions have the same denominator.
By
walking 1/3 = 4/12
By car
By jeep
4/12
7/12
7/12 + 4/12 = 11/12
STEP THREE: Subtract from 1 to find the fraction of the people walking.
12 11
By walking = +
12 12
1
=
12
STEP FOUR: Convert the fraction into a percentage by dividing.

1
=0.083 or approximately 8%
12
Approximately 8% of the people walk to the market.
II. To solve problem II,
STEP ONE: Give both fractions a similar denominator by multiplying one-third (1/3) by 4.
1 4
x 4=
3 12
STEP TWO: Fill the graph, the remaining 1/12 shows the number of people walking.
By
walking
1/12
By car By jeep
4/12 7/12
“180 people go to the market”
STEP THREE: Write down in equation form and get the 1 unit.
12 units = 180 people
1 unit = 180 people
12
= 15 people
15 people go to the market by walking.
4. C
STEP ONE: Dissect the cost of the first hour and subsequent half hour.
1st hour – 10: 15 – 11:15 a.m. = Php 15
Sub hour – 11:15 a.m. – 4.05 p.m. = Php 5 per minute x 10
= Php 50
STEP TWO: Add the cost

Php 15 + Php 50 = Php 65
Mr. Roger must pay Php 65.
5. B
This is a problem regarding averages.
Janice’s Exam Score
Exam 1 60
Exam 2 64
Exam 3 7_
Exam 4 ___
Average 62
Total score per exam: 100

Pass mark per exam: 50
STEP ONE: Reverse the averaging process by multiplying by 4.

62 x 4 = 248 total score
STEP TWO: Subtract the given scores from the total score.
248 – (60 + 64) =
248 – 124 = 124
“… if she passes all her exams...”
From this phrase, Exam 4 must be marked 50 or above to pass all the tests. But to get the highest possible score for
Exam 3, Exam 4 should have the lowest passing grade which is 50 marks.
The result should be
STEP THREE: Subtract the lowest passing score of exam from the remaining number. as follows:
124 – 50 = 74
Exam 1: 60 marks
Exam 2: 64 marks
The highest possible score for Exam 3 is 74 marks.
Exam 3: 74 marks
Exam 4: 50 marks
6. I. A; II. D; III. B; IV. D

I. There were 700 CDs sold in 2009.
II. 200 + 400 + 800 + 650 + 700 + 500 = 541 CDs

6
The average number of CDs sold was 541.
III. 2007, 2008 and 2009.
IV. 100% (2010) = 500 CDs

1% = 5 CDs
145% (2011) = 5 X 145
= 725 CDs
7. I. A; II. B; III.C
I. STEP ONE: Convert the fraction into a decimal. Then into a percentage by multiplying by 100.
3
=0.333 ∞
10
33.33% or approximately 30%
II. STEP ONE: Notice the right angle on the area representing the students who speak Ilonggo. This means it is one-
fourth (1/4) of the circle. In other words, 25%
Cebuano Tagalog
3/10 3/10
Ilocano Ilonggo
Hence, 25% of the students speak Ilonggo.
III. “If there are 160 students who speak Ilonggo, how many students are there?

25% = 160 students
STEP TWO: Find the 100% by multiplying both sides by 4.

25% x 4 = 160 x 4
100% = 640 students
Thus, there are 640 students altogether.
8. B
STEP ONE: Subtract the number of people from the start (40) to the people left (25) as shown below:
40 – 25 = 15 people
15 people left during the first 2 hours.

9. A
STEP ONE: To solve this problem, calculate the costing of each minute.
1st minute = Php 30
2nd minute = Php 20
STEP TWO: Find the charge for the remaining 54 minutes by multiplying it by its cost.
54 minutes x Php 0.90 = Php 48.60
STEP THREE: Finally, add the f1st and 2nd minutes.

Php 30 + Php 20 + Php 48.60 = Php 98.60
John must pay Php 98.60.
10. I. A; II.D; III. B

I. Ramirez puts ½ of his money in his piggy bank.
Personal
Needs Piggy bank
1/3 savings
1/2
SM
Shopping
II. STEP ONE: Convert both fractions into the same denominator.
Personal
Needs Piggy bank
2/6 savings
3/6
SM
Shopping
From the graph, the remaining 1/6 of the pie chart represent his money spent at SM>
III. STEP ONE: Find for 1 unit. And solve the problem.
6/6 = Php 150
1/6 = Php 25
Needs = 2/6 = Php 50
He spends Php 50 on his needs.

11. I. D; II. D; III. A; IV. C
I. STEP ONE: Subtract the given numbers from the total number.
Rabbits
40 – (15 + 4+ 5) =
Cats 40 – 24 = 16
4 No pets
Dogs
15
There are 16 students who do not keep any pets
II. STEP ONE: Tom make the fraction, compare the part to the whole, as shown below:
15 dog owners
40 total students
STEP TWO: Reduce to the lowest term. Greatest common factor is 5

15 3
÷ 5=
40 8
3/8 of the students keep dogs.
Repeat the process for the other two questions.
1
5 rabbit owners =
8
40 total students
1
4 cat owners = =10 %
10
40 total students
III. 1/8 of the students keep rabbits.
IV. 10% of the students keep cats.
12. I. B; II. D; III. A; IV. B; V. A
I. There are 60 motorcycles altogether.
II. Compare the part to the whole. Reduce to the lowest term if possible.
35 SUZUKI motorcycles 7
÷ 5=
60 total motorcycles 12
7/12 of the motorcycles are Suzuki branded.
III. Compare the part to the whole. Reduce to the lowest term if possible.
10 Rusco motorcycles 1
=
1/6 of the motorcycles are Rusco branded.

IV. STEP ONE: Compare the part to the whole. Reduce to the lowest term if possible.
12YAMAHA motorcycles 1
=
STEP TWO: Divide the fraction to get the decimal.

0.20
5 1.00 0.20 x 100 = 20%
0__
10
10
0
20% of the motorcycles are Yamaha branded.
V. II. Compare the part to the whole. Reduce to the lowest term if possible.
3 honda motorcycles 1
= =5 %
60 totalmotorcycles 20
5% of the motorcycles are Honda branded.
13. I. A; II. C; III. B
I. STEP ONE: The right angle shows it is 25%. From the graph, half of the right angled section above it is 3 hours.
Therefore, a whole right angle is 6 hours.
The student spends 6 hours a day for lessons with parents.
II. STEP ONE: Compare the numbers in fractions. And reduce to the lowest term.
8 hours sleeping 1
=
24 total hours 3
The student spends one-third (1/3) of the day sleeping.
rest &play, 3h
III.
study, 3h sleeping, 8h
lessons with parents, 6h
sports, 3h
watching tv, 1h
3 hours doing sports 1

= =12.5 %
24 total hours 8
The student spends 12.5%of the day doing sports.
14. I. A; II. B; III. A; IV.D

I. She sold Durian the most
II. She sold 15 langka
III. She sold 3 more durians than langka
IV. She sold 60 fruits altogether.
15. B
I. The percentage of the women and children were 80% altogether.
II. 20% were men.
III. 35% = 280 children

1% = 8 people
Number of women = 45% = 360 women
Hence, there were 360 women at the performance.
16. I. C; II. A; III. A; IV. A
I. STEP ONE: Notice that Green and Yellow make up half of the pie chart. Double the value of the green section.
1 2
=
5 10
STEP TWO: Since both sections make up only half of the pie chart, the Yellow section should be 3/10 to make 5/10
(half of the chart).
1 3
green, 1/5 + =¿
5 10
yellow, 3/10
2 3 5
+ =
10 10 10
red 5 1
=
10 10
white, 1/6
blue
3/10 of the papers are yellow.
STEP THREE: Notice also the right angle on sections White and Blue. The other half of it should also be ¼ of the pie
chart.
green, 1/5
STEP FOUR: From the graph, red is ¼ or 25%.
yellow, 3/10
red
white, 1/6
blue
STEP FIVE: To get blue, first add all the given fractions.
3 2 1 1
+ + + =¿
10 10 4 6
STEP SIX: Make all fractions have the same denominator.

18 12 15 10 55
+ + + =
60 60 60 60 60
STEP SEVEN: From there, subtract it from the total.

60 55 5
− =
60 60 60
STEP EIGHT: Reduce to the lowest term.

5 1
=
60 12
II. 1/12 of the papers are blue.
III. 75% of the papers are not red.
IV. 50% of the papers are not yellow nor green.
17. I. C; II. A
I. Class C gave 50 more money than Class A.
II. The charity donation had an average amount of 430.
18. I. A; II. A; III. D; IV. C; V. B
I. STEP ONE: Notice the right angle on the mitsubishi cars section of the pie chart. It represents 25%. Multiply it by 4
to get 100%.
80 cars x 4 = 320 parking lots
There are 320 parking lots altogether.
II. 100% = 320 cars

1
=10 %=32 cars
10
There are 32 unoccupied parking lots.
III. “If 20% were Audi cars, how many cars were there?”
10% = 32 cars
20% = 64 cars
There were 64 audi cars.

IV. STEP ONE: First add the given percentages to calculate the unoccupied parking lots and lots occupied by other
cars.
10% + 20% + 25% = 55%
STEP TWO: Subtract the sum from the whole to get the percentage of the parking lots occupied by honda cars.
100% - 55% = 45%
STEP THRE: Convert the percentage into a fraction. Reduce to the lowest ter.
45 9
÷ 5=
100 20
9/20 of the parking lots are not occupied.
19. I. C; II. B
I. STEP ONE: The Comedy CDs section is a right angle. Add the fractions.
1 1 4+ 3
+ =
3 4 12
7
=
12
STEP TWO: Subtract the sum from the total number to get the faction of Action CDs.
12 7 5
− =
12 12 12
5/12 of the CDs are Action.
II. STEP ONE: Always get the 1 unit.

12 units = 240 CDs
1 unit = 20 CDs
1 3 units
= =60CDs on Comedy
4 12 units
60 CDs are on Comedy.
20. I. D: II. A
I. STEP ONE: To find the percentage of children who play soccer, subtract the whole percentage to the given
percentages as shown below:
% Soccer = 100% - (Volleyball + Basketball + Swimming + Badminton)
15% 18% 12% 20%
= 100% - 65%
= 35%
35% like to play soccer.
II. STEP ONE: To solve the second problem, convert the statements into an equation.
“If 72 children like basketball,”
18% = 72 children
STEP TWO: Get the 1 unit.

72children
1% =
18
= 4 children
STEP THREE: Multiply.

35% = 4 children x 35
= 140 children
140 children like to play soccer.

WHY IS LEARNING THE MODEL APPROACH HIHLY ENCOURAGED?
Solving math problems through model or diagram approach increases speed to answer math questions and enables
you to analyze math problems with precisions or accuracy. As a result, you will not only pass the test but also excel in
it. When taking the test, it is not enough to know the answer to the question, but equally important is the speed
answering the question.
Compared to other methods in solving math problems, the model approach is easy to learn and master through
constant exercise. Even young learners will find the model approach more practical, easy and useful in solving math
problems because the concepts are demonstrated through visual presentation.
Here is an example math problem comparing Algebra and Model approach method:
Bert’s age three years ago was half as old as Arman is today. If Arman is 4 years older than Bert, how old is
Arman now?
SOLUTION BY ALGEBRA:
b = Bert’s age a= Arman’s age
STEP ONE: Make statement 1 to an equation.
1
b – 3 = ( )a
2
STEP TWO: Make statement 2 an equation.
a=b+4
b=1–4
STEP THREE: Substitute:
a–4–3= ( 12 ) a
STEP FOUR: Simplify
a–7= ( 12 ) a
STEP FIVE: Subtract a
(a-7) – a = ( 12 ) a−a
-7 =−( ) a
1
2
LAST STEP: Multiply by (-2)
(-7)(-2) = ( −12 a)(−2)

14 = a
Thus, Arman is 14 years old.
SOLUTION BY MODEL APPROACH:

STEP ONE: Draw the model according to the statements provided.
Bert Bert’s age drawn as half of Arman
Arman 4+3 Bert’s age 3 years ago & “if Arman is 4 years older”
STEP TWO: Write the model in equation from as shown below (always find the 1 unit)
1 unit = 7 years
Arman = 2 units
= 14 years
Arman is 14 years old.
SECTION 2
PRACTICE TEST 7: SOLVING MATH PROBLEMS USING MODEL APPROACH (PART I)
Directions: Choose the correct answer. You have 30 mins. to complete the test.
1. A plate of Adobo rice and a bowl of Chowking noodles cost Php 80. The bowl of chowking noodles cost Php 20
more than the plate of Adobo rice. What is the cost of the bowl of Chowking noodles?
A. Php 50 C. Php 35
B. Php 60 D. Php 45
2. The total cost of an orange, a mango and a banana is Php 22. An orange costs Php 3 more than the mango. The
banana costs Php less tham the mango. Find the costs of each fruit.
A. Orange: Php 15; Mango: Php 14; Banana: Php 11

B. Orange: Php 20; Mango: Php 17; Banana: Php 15
C. Orange: Php 10; Mango: Php 7; Banana: Php 5
D. Orange: Php 20; Mango: Php 14; Banana: Php 10
3. The total cost of a cake and a doughnut is Php 1.20. the doughnut costs 20 cents more than the cake. What is the
cost of the doughnut?
A. 66 cents C. 70 cents
B. 50 cents D. 45 cents
4. The total cost of Science book and an English book is Php 27. The Science book costs 3 more than the English book.
What is the cost of the Science book?
A. Php 12.50 C. Php 15

B. 27 D. Php 10
5. The total costs of a burger, a drink and a salad is Php 6. The burger costs Php 1 more than the salad and the drink
costs Php 1 less than the salad. What is the cost of the burger?
A. Php 3 C. Php 4
B. Php 2 D. Php 5
6. Joshua bought a book, a bag and a pen for her girlfriend. The total cost was Php 32. the book costs Php 4 less than
the bag. The bag costs PHp 12 more than the pen. Find the cost of the book.
A. Php 12 C. Php 19
B. Php 16 D. Php 15
7. Kate is twice as old as Orvik. Orvik is three times as old as Fiona. If their total age is 70 years old, how old is Orvik?
A. 19 years old C. 15 years old

B. 21 years old D. 16 years old
8. KC is three times older than Mickey. Mickey is twice as old as Gelo. If their total age is 90 years old, how old is
Mickey?
A. 20 years old C. 34 years old

B. 21 years old D. 25 years old
9. Adriane sold as twice as many apple as Juliane. Juliane sold three times as many apples as Kate. If they sold 150
apples altogether, how many apples did Adriane sell?
A. 85 apples C. 90 apples
B. 75 apples D. 65 apples
10. Nonie has 3 times the number of marbles as Michi. MIchi has twice as many marbles as Bea. They have 180
marbles in all. How many marbles does Nonie have?
A. 115 marbles C. 135 marbles

B. 120 marbles D. 140 marbles
SOLVING MATH PROBLEMS USING MODEL APPROACH (PART 1)
1. A.
“A plate of Adobo rice and Chowking noodles cost Php 80. The noodles cost Php 20 more than the rice.”
Adobo rice
Php 80
Chowking noodles
Php 20
STEP TWO: Subtract Php 20 from the total to get 2 equal units as shown below:
“A plate of Adobo rice and Chowking noodles cost Php 80. The noodles cost Php 20 more than the rice.”
Adobo rice
Php 80
Chowking noodles - Php 20
Php 60
STEP THREE: Make into equation fom:

2 units = Php 60
1 unit = Php 60/2 = Php 30
STEP FOUR: Calculate for the noodles.

Noodles = 1 unit + Php 20
= Php 30 + Php 20
= Php 50
The cost of the chowking noodles is Php 50.
2. C
“The total cost is Php 22. The orange costs Php 3 more than the mango. The banana costs Php 2 less than the
mango.”
Orange Php 30
Mango Php 22
Banana
Php 2
Always have a “reference point” in which to represent 1 unit – a standard form which to compare other models
(whether less or more).
STEP TWO: Subtract the excess (Php 3) from the total and make the incomplete units whole to make 3 equal units as
shown below.
Orange Php 22
Mango - Php 3
Banana + Php 2
Php 21
STEP THREE: Make into equation form.

3 units = Php 21
1 unit = 21/3
= Php 7
STEP FOUR: Calculate for all fruits.

Orange = 1 unit + Php 3
= Php 7 + Php 3
= Php 10
Mango = 1 unit
= Php 7
Banana = 1 unit – Php 2

= Php 7 – Php 2
= Php 5
Thus, the orange costs Php 10; mango costs Php 7 and the banana costs Php 5.
3. C

“The total cost is Php 1.20. The doughnut costs 20 cents more than the cake.”
20 cents Doughnut
Php 1.20
Cake
STEP TWO: Subtract 20 cents from the total to get 2 equal units
Doughnut
Php 1.20
-Php 0.20
Cake Php 1.00
STEP THREE: Make into equation form and calculate for the doughnut.
2 units = Php 1
1 unit = ½
= Php 0.50
Doughnut = 1 unit + Php 0.20

= Php 0.70 or 0 cents
The doughnut costs 70 cents.
4. C

“The total cost is Php 27. The Science book costs Php 3 more than the English book.”
Science book Php 3

Php 27
English book
STEP TWO: Subtract Php 3 cents from the total to get 2 equal units
Science book Php 27

-Php 3
Php 24
English book
STEP THREE: Make into equation form and calculate for the Science book
2 units = Php 24
1 unit = 24/2
= Php 12
Science book = 1 unit + Php 3

= Php 15
The Science book costs Php 15.

5. A

“The total cost is Php 6. The burger costs Php 1 more than the salad. The drink costs Php 1 less than the
salad.”
Burger Php 1
Salad Php 6
Drink
Php 1
STEP TWO: Subtract the excess (php 1) from the total and make the incomplete units whole (by adding Php 1) to
make 3 units equal as shown below.
Burger Php 6
Salad - Php 1
Drink +Php 1
Php 6
STEP THREE: Make into equation form and calculate for the burger
3 units = Php 6
1 unit = 6/3
= Php 2
Burger = 1 unit + Php 1

= Php 2 + Php 1
= Php 3
The burger costs Php 3.
6. A

“The total cost is Php 32. The book costs Php 4 less than the bag. The bag costs 12 more than the pen.”
book Php 4
bag Php 32
pen
Php 12
STEP TWO: Make the incomplete units whole to make equal 3 units
book Php 32
bag + Php 4
pen + Php 12
Php 48
STEP THREE: Make into equation form and calculate for the book
3 units = Php 48
1 unit = 48/3
= Php 16
Book = 1 unit – Php 4
= Php 16 – Php 4
= Php 12
The book costs Php 12.
7. B

“Kate is twice as old as Orvik. orvik is three times as old as Fiona. Their total age is 70 years old.
Kate
Orvik 70 years old
Fiona
STEP TWO: Make all units equally modeled by dividing Kate’s model into 3 units per part
Kate
Orvik 70 years old
Fiona
STEP THREE: Identify the 1 unit, and calculate for Orvik

10 units = 70 yrs. old
1 unit = 70/10
= 7 years old
Check:
Orvik = 3 units Kate = 42 years old
=7x3 Orvik = 21 years old
= 21 years old Fiona = 7 years old
70 years old
Hence, Orvik is 21 years old.
8. A

“KC is three times older than Mikey. Mikey is twice as old as Gelo. Their total age is 90.”
KC
Mickey 90 years old
Gelo
STEP TWO: Make all units equally modeled by dividing KC’s into 2 units per part.
KC
Mickey 90
years old
Gelo
STEP THREE: Identify the 1 unit, and calculate for Mikey

9 units = 90 years old
1 unit = 90/9
= 10 years ols
Check:
Mikey = 2 units KC = 60 years old
= 10 x 2 Mikey = 20 years old
= 20 years old Gelo = 10years old
90 years old
Hence, Mikey is 20 years old.
9. C

“Adriane sold twice as many apples as Juliane. Juliane sold three times as Kate. They sold a total of 150
apples.”
Adriane
Juliane 150 apples
Kate
STEP TWO: Make all units equally modeled by dividing Adrian’s model into 3 units per part.
Adriane
Juliane 150 apples
Kate
STEP THREE: Identify the 1 unit, and calculate for Adriane.

10 units = 150 apples
1 unit = 150/10
= 15 apples
Check:
Adriane = 6 units Adriane = 90 apples
= 15 x 6 Juliane = 45 apples
= 90 apples Kate = 15 apples
Hence, Adraine sold 90 apples. 150 apples
10. B

“Nonie has three times the number of marbles than Michi. Michi has twice the number of marbles as bea.
They have 180 marbles altogether.”
Nonie
Michi 180 marbles
Bea
STEP TWO: Make all units equally modeled by dividing Nonie’s into 2 units per part.
Nonie
Michi 180
marbles
Bea
STEP THREE: Identify the 1 unit, and calculate forNonie

9 units = 180 marbles
1 unit = 180/9
= 20 marbles
Check:
Nonie = 6 units Nonie = 90
= 20 x 6 Michi = 45
= 120 marbles Bea = 15
180 marbles
Hence, Nonie has 120 marbles.
SECTION 2
PRACTICE TEST 8: SOLVING MATH PROBLEMS USING MODEL APPROACH (PART II)
1. Rovik has four times as much money as Orvik. Rovik has Php 200. How much money do they have altogether?
A. Php 400 C. Php 50

B. Php 250 D. Php 300
2. Angela’s Mommy bought two pieces of banana sticks and two soft drinks for Php 20. The banana sticks costs Php 4
more than the soft drink. How much is the soft drink?
A. Php 3 C. Php 9
B. Php 5 D. Php 10
3. Rona has twice as many dresses as Marie, Isabel has 40 dresses less than Rona. If they have 140 dresses altogether,
how many dresses does each person have?
A. Rona – 72; Marie – 34; Isabel – 40

B. Rona – 72; Marie – 36; Isabel – 32
C. Rona – 74; Marie – 34; Isabel – 32
D. Rona – 62; Marie – 46; Isabel – 36
4. Bobby is twice as sold as Romeo. Romeo is four times as old as Joel. If their total age is 26 years old, how old is
Bobby, Romeo and Joel?
A. Bobby – 16; Romeo – 8; Joel – 2

B. Bobby – 18; Romeo – 9; Joel – 4
C. Bobby – 12; Romeo – 6; Joel – 3
D. Bobby – 13; Romeo – 10; Joel – 3
5. The total cost of a T-shirt, a pair of shoes and a sando is Php 1,250. The pair of shoes costs Php 500 more than the
T-shirt, and the sando cost Php 50 less than the pair of shoes. What is the cost of the pair of shoes?
A. Php 400 C. Php 360

B. Php 600 D. Php 950
6. Victor bought a cellular phone, an iPod, and an MP3. The total cost was Php 8,500. The iPod costs 2,000 less than
the phone. The phone costs Php 1,500 more than the MP3. What is the cost of the iPod, phone and MP3?
A. iPod- Php 2,100; Phone – 4,000; MP3 – 2,000

B. iPod- Php 3,000; Phone – 3,000; MP3 – 3,500
C. iPod- Php 2,000; Phone – 4,000; MP3 – 2,500
D. iPod- Php 2,050; Phone – 4,000; MP3 – 2,500
7. Mark is twice as tall as Jingoy. Jingoy is 75 cm shorter than Allen. Their total height is 275 c. Find the height of
mark, Jingoy and Allen.
A. Mark – 105 cm; Jingoy – 60 cm; Allen – 135 cm

B. Mark – 200 cm; Jingoy – 60 cm; Allen – 112 cm
C. Mark – 100 cm; Jingoy – 45 cm; Allen – 135 cm

D. Mark – 105 cm; Jingoy – 60 cm; Allen – 135 cm
8. Lemuel has four times much money than Samuel. Samuel has Php 60. How much money do they have altogether?
A. Php 240 C. Php 300

B. Php 600 D. Php 360
9. Paul is the Assistant Budget Officer. He has Php 3,000. He needs to pay 10% for the fish, 30% for the grocery and
20% for the diaper. How much money is left?
A. Php 1,250 C. Php 1,300

B. Php 1,200 D. Php 2,250
10. A box containing 50 similar workbooks had a mass of 3 kg 200 g. Find the mass of each workbook.
A. 50 g C. 60 g
B. 45 g D. 64 g

SOLVING MATH PROBLEMS USING MODEL APPROACH (PART II)
1. B
“Rovik has four times as much money as Orvik.”
Rovik Drawing the model accurately

according to the statements is
the most crucial. If it is drawn
Orvik incorrectly, the answer will be
wrong.
STEP TWO: Write down in equation form.

“Rovik has Php 200.”
Rovik Php 200
Orvik
It is always advisable to get the
“1 unit”. It becomes more
flexible because from there,
STEP THREE: Divide by 4 to get the unit. any number of units (2, 3, 100,
Orvik = 1 unit = Php 200 etc.) can be found.
4
= Php 50
STEP FOUR: Add their respective valus. We can even solve this problem
200 + 50 = Php 250 by multiplying Php 5 (1 unit) by
5 (total number of units) to get
Thus, Rovik an Orvik have Php 250 altogether. the total amount of money.
Php 50 x 5 units = Php 250
2. A

“Angela’s mommy bought 2 pieces of banana sticks and two soft drinks for Php 20.”
Banana sticks
Php 20
Softdrinks
“The banana stick cost Php 4 more than the softdrink.”

Banana sticks
Ph Php
p4 4
Php 20
Softdrinks
STEP TWO: Subtract Php 8 (two Php 4’s) from the total amount to get four equal models.
Banana sticks
Php 20
- Php 8
Php 12
Softdrinks
STEP THREE: Write down in equation form. Always get the 1 unit.
4 units = Php 12
1 unit = Php 12
4
= Php 3
STEP FOUR: Solve for the softdrink.

1 softdrink = 1 unit
= Php 3
3. B

“Rona has twice as many dresses as Marie.”
Rona
Marie
“Isabel has 40 dresses less than Rona. They have 140 dresses altogether.”
Rona
Marie 140 dresses
Isabel 40
dresses
STEP TWO: Add 40 to the total to make the incomplete model a whole unit.
“Isabel has 40 dresses less than Rona. They have 140 dresses altogether.”
Rona
Marie 140 dresses

+ 40 dresses
180 dresses
Isabel
STEP THREE: Count the total units and get the 1 unit.
5 units = 180 dresses
1 unit = 180/5
= 36 dresses
STEP FOUR: Calculate their respective values by multiplying them by their number of units. Subtract the number used
to make a whole to revert to the original statement.
Rona has 2 units = 36 x 2
= 72 dresses
Marie has 1 unit = 36
Isabel has 2 units – 40 = 70 – 40 Check it out:

= 32 dresses 72 + 36 + 32 = 140
Thus, Roan has 72 dresses; Marie has 36 dresses; and Isabel has 32 dresses.
4. A

“Bobby is twice as old as Romeo.”
Bobby
Romeo
“Romeo is four times as old as Joel. Their total age is 26 years old.”
Bobby
Romeo 26 years old
Joel
STEP TWO: Make all units modeled by dividing Bobby’s model 4 units per part as shown.
Bobby
Romeo 26 years old
Joel
STEP THREE: Find the 1 unit. Always find the 1 unit to be able to determine any number that is being asked.
Bobby
Romeo 26 years old
Joel
13 units = 26 years old

1 unit = 26/13
= 2 years old
Bobby = 8 units = 2 x 8
= 16 years old
Romeo = 4 units = 2 x 4
= 8 years old
Joel = 1 units = 2 years old
Thus, Bobby is 16 yrs. old; Romeo is 8 yrs. old; and Joel is 2 years old.
5. B

“The pair of shoes costs Php 500 more than the T-shirt. The sando cost Php 50 less than the pair of shoes.”
T-shirt
Pair of Php 500 Shoes Php 1,250
Php
Sando 450
STEP TWO: Remove the excess bars (Php 450; Php 500) by subtracting it from the total.
T-shirt
Php 1,250
-Php 950
Pair of Shoes Php 300
Sando
STEP THREE: Get the 1 unit.

3 units = Php 300
1 unit = 300/3
= Php 100
STEP FOUR: Calculate to determine what is being looked for. To check:

Pair of shoes = 1 unit + Php 500 T-shirt = 100
= Php 100 + Php 500 Pair of shoes = 600
= Php 600 Sando = 550
Php 1,250
Hence, the pair of shoes costs Php 600.
6. C

“The iPod costs Php 2,000 less than the phone. The phone costs Php 1,500 more than the MP3”
iPod Php 2,000

Phone The phone costs more Php 8,500
can also be modeled as
the MP3 costs les.
MP3 Php
1,500
STEP TWO: With the phone model as the reference point, make the incomplete modls whole by adding it to the total
as shown below:
iPod
Php 8,500
Phone +Php 3,500

Php 12,000
MP3
STEP THREE: Get the 1 unit and calculate for the items.
3 units = Php 12,000
1 unit = 12,000/3
= Php 4,000
iPod = 1 unit = Php 2,000

= Php 4,000 – Php 2,000
= Php 2,000
Phone = 1 unit
= Php 4,000
MP3 = 1 unit = Php 1,500

= Php 4,000 – Php 1,500
= Php 2,500
Thus, the iPod costs Php 2,000; phone costs P4,000; and the MP3 costs Php 2,500.
7. D

“Mark is twice as tall as Jinggoy. JIngoy is 75 cm shorter than Allen. Total height is 275 cm.”
Mark
Jingoy 275 cm
75 cm Allen
STEP TWO: Subtract 75 cm from the total (right side of equation) to get 4 equal parts
Mark
Jingoy 275 cm
- 75 cm
200 cm
Allen
STEP THREE: Calculate for 1 unit and solve the problem.

4 units = 200 cm
1 unit = 200/4
= 50 cm
Mark = 2 units
= 100 m
Jingoy = 1 unit
= 50 cm
Allen = 1 unit + 75 cm
= 50 + 75 cm
= 125 cm
Mark is 100 cm tall; Jingoy is 50 cm tall, and Allen is 125 cm tall.
8. C
Lemuel
Samuel Php 60
STEP TWO: Write it in equation form and solve the problem.

1 unit = Php 60
total = 5 units
= Php 60 x 5
= Php 300
Therefore, they have Php 300 in total.

9. B
STEP ONE: Draw the model by dividing it by 10, with each unit representing 10%
Php 3,000
STEP TWO: Mark the model according to the statements provided.

“10% for the fish, 30% for the grocery and 20% for the diaper.”
Php 3,000
fish grocery diaper left
STEP THREE: Make the model into equation form and calculate for what is left.
10 units = Php 3,000
1 unit = 3000/10
= Php 300
money left = 4 units

= Php 300 x 4
= Php 1,200
Hence, only Php 1,200 is left.
10. B
STEP ONE: Make the statement into equation form.

50 workbooks = 3kg 200g
STEP TWO: Convert kilograms into grams

50 workbooks = 3200 grams
STEP THREE: Calculate for 1 workbook by dividing 3200 grams by 50.

1 workbook = 3200 g / 50
= 64 grams
Thus, one book weighs 64 grams.
SECTION 2
PRACTICE TEST 9: SOLVING MATH PROBLEMS USING MODEL APPROACH (PART III)
Direction: Choose the correct answer. You have 1 hour to complete the test.
1. Jonjon had 240 cigarettes. He gave ¾ of them to his friends. Of the remainder, he gave 1/3 to his brothers. How
many cigarettes had he left?
A. 60 cigarettes C. 24 cigarettes
B. 40 cigarettes D. 30 cigarettes
2. Desiree’s weight is ½ the weight of Anna. Boy is 2/3 as heavy as Desiree. If Anna’s weight is 48 kg, find the weight
of Desire and Boy.
A. Desire’s weight is 24; Boy’s is 16 kg

B. Desire’s weight is 35; Boy’s is 12 kg
C. Desire’s weight is 32; Boy’s is 26 kg
D. Desire’s weight is 24; Boy’s is 14 kg
3. Joshua’s Math score is ¾ of Verna’s math score. Val’s math score is 1/3 of Joshua’s Math score. If Verna’s math
score is 84, what does each of the other two get?
A. Joshua – 63 points; Val – 21 points

B. Joshua – 54 points; Val – 24 points
C. Joshua – 12 points; Val – 36 points
D. Joshua – 24 points; Val – 8 points
4. Joseph had 265 stamps. David had twice as many stamps as Joseph. David had 179 more stamps than Paul. How
many stamps did Paul have?
A. 251 stamps C. 351 stamps

B. 400 stamps D. 354 stamps
5. Jimmy has 39 more stickers than Michael. MIchael has 53 fewer stickers than David. If David has 98 stickers, (I) how
many stickers does Michael have? (II) How many stickers does JImmy have?
A. Michael – 52; Jimmy – 78 stickers

B. Michael – 68; Jimmy – 87 stickers
C. Michael – 35; Jimmy – 65 stickers
D. Michael – 45; Jimmy – 84 stickers
6. Paul bought 4 goldfish at 50 cents each and 7 angelfish at 70 cents each. (I) What was the cost of the 4 goldfish? (II)
How many did he spend altogether?
A. Php 4; Php 8.90 C. Php 2 Php 12.50

B. Php 2; Php 6.90 D. Php 2; Php 7.40
7. Two mangoes cost as much as 3 apples. IF the total cost of 2 apples and 5 mangoes is Php 57, find the cost of each
fruit.
A. Apple – Php 9; Mango – Php 6 C. Apple – Php 6; Mango – Php 9

B. Apple – Php 5; Mango – Php 9 D. Apple – Php 12; Mango – Php 18
8. Two books and a filing folder cost Php 160. Two such books and 3 such filing folders cost Php 240. (a) What is the
cost of each file? (b) What is the cost of each book?
A. Folder – Php 40; Book – Php 60 C. Folder – Php 32; Book – Php 80
B. Folder – Php 45; Book – Php 120 D. Folder – Php 40; Book – Php 90
9. Five (5) pens cost as much as 3 notebooks. If each pen costs Php 9, what is the cost of each notebook?
A. Php 13 C. Php 16
B. Php 14 D. Php 15
10. Claudia boughy 2 filinf cabinets and 4 cupboards. A filing cabinet cost 3 times as much as cupboard. She paid Php
8,000 altogether. What was the cost of the cupboard?
A. Php 750 C. Php 700

B. Php 800 D. Php 600
11. Mrs. Bo baked some cakes and put them equaly into 9 boxes. She gave then 2 boxes to her neighbor. Her
neighbor received 32 cakes, how many cakes did Mrs. Bo bake?
A. 144 cakes C. 365 cakes

B. 512 cakes D. 800 cakes
12. Richard and Ben had a total of 144 marbles. If Richard gave Ben 10 marbles, they would have the same number of
marbles. How many marbles did Ben have at first?
A. 64 marbles C. 62 marbles
B. 75 marbles D. 77 marbles
13. A Robotics club has 63 members last year. The ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls in the club was
5:4. This year, 5 new boys and 2 new girls joined the club. What is he ration of the number of boys to the number of
girls this year?
A. 4: 3 C. 12:4
B. 5:4 D. 8:3
14. The ratio of the number of goats in Farm X to the number of goats in Farm Y was 9:4. After 35 goats were
transferred from Farm X to Farm Y, there was an equal number of goats in each farm. How many goats were there in
each farm at first?
A. Farm X – 126 goats; Farm Y – 56 goats

B. Farm X – 224 goats; Farm Y – 57 goats
C. Farm X – 132 goats; Farm Y – 56 goats
D. Farm X – 124 goats; Farm Y – 57 goats
15. Mr. Ronnel sold three shirts a t P720 altogether. He sold the first T-shirt at 25% more than cost price. He sold the
second shirt at 45% more than the cost price. He sold the other shirt at 10% less than the cost price. If the cost price
of all the shirts were the same, what was the cost price of each shirt and how much money did he make by selling all
the shirts?
A. Php 125 C. Php 90

B. Php 140 D. Php 100
SOLVING MATH PROBLEMS USING MODEL APPROACH (PART III)
1. B
Use the model approach to solve this problem.
“He gave ¾ of them to his friends”
STEP ONE: Draw 4 bars or parts in the model and mark three parts as the 3/4 th of the total cigarette.
240 cigarettes
STEP TWO: Divide the remaining parts into three units as the 1/3 rd given to his brothers.
240 cigarettes
STEP THREE: Subdivide the parts into equal units. To do this, make every part contain three units as shown below.
240 cigarettes
STEP FOUR: Calculate for the 1 unit.

12 units = 240 cigarettes
1 unit = 240/12
= 20 cigarettes
STEP FIVE: He had only 2 units left. Calculate for the 2 units.
2 units = 1 units x 2
= 20 x 2
= 40
Thus, Jonjon had 40 cigarettes left.
2. A

“Desiree is ½ the weight of Anna”
Anna
Desiree
“Ben is 2/3 as heavy as Desiree. Anna’s weight is 48 kg.
Kate 48 kg
Orvik
Fiona
STEP TWO: Make all units equally modeled by dividing Anna’s model into 3 units per part.
Kate 48 kg
Orvik
Fiona
STEP THREE: Identify the 1 unit, and calculate for Desiree and Boy’s weight
6 units = 48 kg
1 unit = 48/6
= 8 kg
Desiree = 3 units = 24 kg
Boy = 2 units = 16 kg
Desiree’s weight is 24kg; Boy weighs 16 kg.
3. A
Again use the model approach to solve this problem.
“Joshua’s math score is ¾ of Verna’s math score”
Verna
Joshua
“Val’s math score is 1/3 of Joshua’s. Verma’s score is 84.
Verna 84
Joshua
Val
STEP TWO: Calculate for 1 unit and solve for Joshua and Val’s score.
4 units = 84 points
1unit = 84/4
= 21 points
Joshua = 3 units = 63 points
Val = 1 unit = 21 points
Joshua scored 63 points; Val scored 21 points
4. C
To solve this problem, use the model approach.
STEP ONE: Draw the models according to the statements given.

“David has twice as Joseph. Joseph has 265 stamps. David has 179 more than Paul.”
David
Joseph 265 stamps
Paul 179
STEP TWO: Write down in equation and compute for Paul

1 unit = 265 stamps
Paul = David – 179 stamps
= 2 stamps -179
= 530 stamps – 179 stamps
= 351 stamps
Hence, Paul has 351 stamps.
5. D

“Jimmy has 39 more than Michael. Michael has 53 fewer than David. David has 98.”
Jimmy 39
Michael
David 53 98 stickers
STEP TWO: Compute for 1 unit and find the number of stickers Jimmy has.
1 unit = 98 – 53
= 45 stickers
Jimmy = 1 unit + 39 = 84 stickers

Michael = 1 unit = 45 stickers
Michael has 45 stickers; Jimmy has 84 stickers.

6. B
STEP ONE: Convert the statements into an equation

1 goldfish = 50 cents
1 angelfish = 70 cents
STEP TWO: Simplify multiply and add to get the answer.

I. 4 goldfish = 50 cents x 4
= 200 cents
= Php 2.00
II. 7 angelfish = 70 cents x 7

= 490 cents
= Php 4.90
Php 2.00 + Php 4.90 = Php 6.90
(I) 4 goldfish cost Php 2

(II) Paul spent Php 6.90 in total
7. C

“2 mangoes cost as much as 3 apples
Mango
Apple
STEP TWO: It is impossible to calculate the model if the units are not equal. Divide both bars into 6 each. The
mangoes containing 3 per part, and the apple contain 2 per parts, as shown below.
It is divided into 6 because the
Mango least common multiple of 3 and 2
is 6. Always get the least for an
easier computation.
Apple
Notice that 1 apple is still
modeled, but with a different
look, containing 2 units. Hence, 1
apple = 2 units, 1 mango = 3 units.
STEP THREE: Now apply the model above to the second statement.
“The total cost of 2 apples and 5 mangoes is Php 57.00”
Apple
Php
Mango
STEP FOUR: Compute:

19 units = Php 57.00
1 unit = 57/19 Check 1:
= Php 3.00 2 mangoes = 3 apples
9 x2 = 6 x3
1 apple = 2 units Php 18 = Php 18
=Php 3.00 x 2
=Php 6
Check 2:
1 mango = 3 units 2 apples + 5 mangoes =
= Php 9.00 (2)(6) + (5)(9) =
12 + 45 = Php 57
1 apple costs Php 6; 1 mango cost Php 9.
8. A
STEP ONE: Draw the models according to the statements.

“2 books and a file cost Php 160.”
Book
Php 160
Filing folder
“2 such books and 3 such filing folders cost Php 240.
Book
Php 240
Filing folder
STEP TWO: Overlap the first model to the second, as shown below.
Book
Php 240
Filing folder
Php 160
STEP THREE: Subtract Php 160 from the total (Php 240) to get the price of the two remaining folders.
Php 240 – Php 160 = Php 80
2 files = Php 80
1 file = Php 40
STEP FOUR: Solve for the cost of book
Book
Php
160
Filing folder Php 40 Php 40 Php 40
2 Books = Php 240 – Php 120

= Php 120
1 book = Php 60
Hence, a filing folder costs Php 40; a book costs Php 60.
9. D

“5 pens cost as much as 3 notebooks.”
Pens The model must be

accurately drawn. Here, it is
shown that 5 pens are equal
to 3 notebooks.
Notebook
STEP TWO: Make both models equal by dividing them into 15 each as shown.
Pens Notice that 1 notebook is still

modeled but with different look,
containing 5 units. Thus, 1 notebook
Notebook = 5 units; 1 pen = 3 units.
STEP THREE: Move forward to the second statement. Write down in equation form Find the 1 unit.
“If each pen costs Php 9…”
1 pen = Php 9
3 units = Php 9
1 unit = Php 3
STEP FOUR: Solve for the cost of the notebook by multiplying.

1 notebook = 5 units
= Php 3 x 5
= Php 15
The notebook costs Php 15.
10. B
STEP ONE: Draw the models according to the statements. The second statement is a condition comparing the cost of
the cupboard to the filing cabinet. Do that first.
“A filing cabinet costs 3 times more than a cupboard.”
Filing Cabinet
Cupboard
STEP TWO: Apply the model above to the first statement.

“Claudia bought 2 filing cabinets and 4 cupboards for Php 800.”
Filing Cabinet
Php 8000
Cupboard
STEP THREE: Write down in equation form and compute for 1 unit.
10 units = Php 8000
1 unit = 8000/10
= 800
STEP FIVE: Solve for the cupboard.

Cupboard = 1 unit
= Php 800
The cupboard costs Php 800.
11. A
STEP ONE: Convert the statements into an equation. Always find the 1 unit.
2 boxes = 32 cakes
1 box = 16 cakes
STEP TWO: Multiply by 9 (number of boxes) to get the total number of cakes.
9 boxes = 16 cakes x 9
= 144 cakes
12. C

“If Richard gave Ben 10 marbles, they would have the same number.”
BEFORE/AFTER
Richard
10
144 marbles
Ben 10
STEP TWO: Write the model equation form and solve for Ben.
2 units = 144 marbles
1 unit = 72 marbles
Ben (at first) = 1 unit – 10 marbles

= 72 – 10
= 62 marbles
Ben had 62 marbles at first.

13. A

“The ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls is 5: 4”
BEFORE
boys
63 marbles
girls
STEP TWO: Compute for 1 unit and the actual number of members.
9 units = 63
1 unit = 7 members
Boys = 5 units = 35 members 35/8 = 7 =5/4

Girls = 4 units = 28 members
STEP THREE: Add it to the tally of members.

“5 new boys and 2 new girls joined the club”
Boys = 35 + 5 = 40 members
Girls = 28 + 2 = 30 members
STEP FOUR: Convert into ratio.

40 boys
÷ 10=4 :3
30 girls
The new ratio of the number of boys to girls is 4 boys : 3 girls.
14. A

“The ratio of the number of goats in Farm X to Farm Y is 9:4”
BEFORE
Farm X
Notice that the difference between the model of

Farm Y Farm X and Farm Y is 5 units.
STEP TWO: Double the units into 2 units per part as shown below.
Farm X
Farm Y
“After 35 goats were transferred from Farm X to Farm Y, there was an equal number of goats in each farm.
STEP THREE: Now that the unit difference is 10 units, make the models equal by moving 5 units from Farm X to Farm
Y.
Farm X
Farm Y
STEP FOUR: Compute for 1 unit.

5 units = 35 goats
1 unit = 35 / 5
= 7 goats
STEP FIVE: Multiply to find he number of goats in each farm.

Farm X = 18 units
= 7 goats x 18
= 126 goats
Farm Y = 8 units
= 7 goats x 8
= 56 goats
There were 126 goats in Fam X and 56 goats in Farm Y.
15. B
STEP ONE: Draw the models according to the statements.

“If the cost price of all shirts were the same… Mr. Ronnel sold three shirts at Php 720 altogether.”
1st shirt
2nd shirt Each bar represents 100% Php 720
3rd shirt
“He sold the first shirt at 25% more. He sold the second shirt at 45% more. He sold the other shirt at 10% less than the
cost price.”
1st shirt 25%
2nd shirt Php 720

45%
3rd shirt 10%
STEP TWO: Add all the percentages and make it into equation form.
125% + 145% + 90% = Php 720
360% = Php 720
STEP THREE: Find the 1 percent.

1% = 720/360
= Php 2
STEP FOUR: Compute for the cost price of each shirt.

1st shirt = 100% x 2
= Php 200
2nd shirt = 100% x 2

= Php 200
3rd shirt = 90% x 2

= Php 180
STEP FIVE: Add to find the total cost price

Total cost price = Php 200 + Php 200 + Php 180
= Php 580
STEP SIX: Subtract the cost prize from the selling price to find Ronnel’s profit.
Profit = Selling Price – Cost Prize
= Php 720 – Php 580
= Php 140
Hence, Mr. Ronnel earned Php 140 by selling all the shirts.
SECTION 2
PRACTICE TEST 10: ABSTRACT REASONING
Directions: From among the 5 drawings given, choose the one that is different from the rest.
EXAMPLE:
Answer: E
1.
A B C D E
Answer: ____________
2.
A B C D E
Answer: _____________
3.
A B C D E
Answer: ____________
4.
A B C D E
Answer: ____________
5.
A B C D E
Answer: ___________
6.
A B C D E
Answer: __________
7.
A B C D E
Answer: ___________
8.
A B C D E
Answer: __________
9.
A B C D E
Answer: ____________
10.
A B C
D E
Answer: ____________
PART II
1. What figure should come next in the following series?
____
A. C.
B. D.
2. Which figure best completes the following series?
_____________
A. C.
B. D.
_____________
A. B.
C. D.
4. Which figure completes the following series?

______________
A. C.
B. D.
______________
A. C.
B. D.

PRACTICE TEST 10: ABSTRACT REASONING
PART I
1. C. All other drawings have four sides. Only the triangle has three sides.
2. B. The dash on the figure skipped two sides while others only skipped one.
3. C. The circle is not touching the shaded part compared to the other four.
4. D. All other shapes have a gap in the figure. The circle does not.
5. A. The protruding lines are one side apart while the protruding lines in other figures are just adjacent to each
other.
6. D. It is the only drawing that touched the corner of the square three times.
7. A. It had an inner right triangle, which the others do not have.
8. B. The shaded part never crossed the halfway mark compared to the other four.
9. B. There is an extra space above the “ceiling” of the “roof”.
10. C. The circle does not touch any corner of the star The circles in the figure are placed on the corners.
PART II
1. A. The first shape (square) rotated 45⁰. The next shapes should also rotate by 45⁰.
2. A. Only the colors are inverted.
3. C. The squares light up by two’s. Only the last set left are the remaining corners.
4. A. The first two shows a circle and its elongated version. The square is stretched as well.
5. D. The figures were rotated by 90 ⁰. The numbers of holes is still 4.
SECTION 2
PRACTICE TEST 11: NUMBER SEQUENCE
Direction: Fill the missing terms in the sequence.
1. 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, ____________
1 3 6 9
2. , , , , ___________
2 6 12 18
3. 81, 27, 9, 3, ____________
4. 70, _________, 60, 55, 50
5. 8, __________, 16, __________, 24, 28, 32
6. 16, 21, __________, 31, 36
5 15 135 405
7. , , ________, ,
8 24 216 648
8. 0.5, 15, ________, 13,500, 405,000
3 3 3 3
9. , , ____, ,
7 14 56 112
4 16 32 64
10. , ______, , ,
5 45 135 405
11. 3:5, 6:10, 18:15, ________, 360:75
12. 4%, 9%, ________, 19%, 24%
13. 1:2, 4:8, _______, 16:32, ________, 64:128
9 7 3 1
14. , , _______, ,
5 5 5 5
15. 5:3, ________, 1:1, 2:3, 1:3

NUMBER SEQUENCE
1. 13
The common difference between the terms is 2.
1. 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13
12
2.
24
The terms are in multiple of 3 (3, 6, 9, 12, 15, …). The denominators are twice the numerators.
1 3 6 9 12
2. , , , ,
2 6 12 18 24
3. 1
The terms are commonly divided by 3.
81, 27, 9, 3, 1
4. 65
70, 65, 60, 55, 50
5. 12, 20
8, 12, 16, 20, 24, 28, 32
6. 26
16, 21, 26, 31, 36
45
7.
72
The terms are multiplied by 3.
5 15 45 135 405
7. , , , ,
8 24 72 216 648
8. 450
0.5, 15, 450, 13,500, 405,000
3
9.
28
The denominators are twice the denominators.
3 3 3 3 3
, , ,
7 14 28 56 112
8
10.
15
2
The terms are multiplied by .
3
4 8 16 32 64
, , , ,
5 15 45 135 405
11. 72:60
The terms are multiplied sequentially by 2, 3, 4, 5 and so on.
3:5,6:10, 18:15, 72:60, 360:75
12. 14%
4%, 9%, 14%, 19%, 24%
13. 8:16, 32:64

:2, 4:8, 8:16, 16:32, 32:64, 64:128
5
14. ∨1
5
2
The terms are subtracted by .
5
9 7 5 3 1
, , , ,
5 5 5 5 5
15. 4:3
The terms are subtracted by 1.
5:3, 4:3, 3:3, 2:3, 1:3
SECTION 3
PRACTICE TEST 1: PHILIPPINE CONSTITUTION
Directions: Select from among the lettered choices the sentence or phrase which fits or answer the questions posed
for each item.
1. Which one among the following statements pertaining to the Preamble of the Philippine Constitution is
INCORRECT?
A. The preamble is an introductory statement about the Constitution.

B. It reveals the authors of the Constitution and for whom it is promulgated.
C. It states the purposes which are intended to be achieved by the Constitution.
D. It is an indispensable and integral part of the Constitution as it provides a clear picture of who are we as
people.
E. It is in the form of collective prayer as it entreats the aid of the Almighty God.
2. How are we as Filipino people described in the preamble?
A. tenacious D. freedom-loving
B. resilient E. just and humane
C. sovereign
3. Which of the following statements does NOT reflect the kind of government envisioned by the Constitution?
A. a government that promotes the common good

B. a government that conserves and developed our patrimony
C. a government amenable to external controls and subjugation
D. a government that embodies the Filipino people’s ideals and aspirations
E. a government that secures the blessings of independence and democracy under the rule of law.
4. Why is the Constitution considered as the supreme law of the land?
A. because it was made by illustrious nationalists whose patriotism cannot be underestimated

B. because it was made by representatives of the Filipino people voted into power through election
C. because its authority emanates from the Filipino people themselves, not just their representatives
D. because it contains basic principles and guidelines we need in order to live peacefully.
E. because it was ratified by Congress as the final authority that will unite Filipinos as one nation.
5. What specific concern does Article 1 of the Constitution address?
A. Bill of Rights D. National Territory

B. Citizenship E. Declaration of Principles an State Policies
C. The Family
6. As provided under Article 1, the following comprise the national territory of the Philippines EXCEPT
A. internal waters D. territorial sea

B. the Philippine Archipelago E. terrestrial, fluvial or aerial domain
C. high or open seas
7. The Philippine is considered as an archipelago BECAUSE
A. it is a state composed of many islands

B. it has three islands known as Luzon, Visayas and Mindanao
C. it is surrounded by extensive body of water
D. the waters around it form part of its internal waters.
E. its island groups are regarded as separate units with their own territorial seas.
8. The following are the principles declared under Article II of the Philippine Constitution EXCEPT one. Identify this
exception.
A. The Philippines renounces war as an instrument of national policy.

B. Civilian authority is, at all times, supreme over military.
C. The Philippines is a democratic and republican state.
D. The separation of church and state shall be inviolable.
E. The prime duty of the government is to defend the state
9. Identify from the list below some state policies adopted in the Constitution.
A. Recognition of the role of the youth in nation-building

B. Recognition of the role of women in nation-building and the equality before the law of women and men.
C. Freedom from nuclear weapons policy
D. All of the above
E. A and B only
10. _____________ refers to the basic guidelines or direction followed by a government of a country to promote its
national interest with respect to its affairs with other countries.
A. Internal policy D. Domestic policy

B. Foreign policy E. Independent policy
C. State policy
PHILIPPINE CONSTITUTION
PRACTICE TEST II
Direction: Select from among the lettered choices the sentence or phrase which fits or answers the questions posed
for each item.
1. Which of the following is NOT included in the list of the individual’s basic rights that are embodied in the
constitution?
A. the right of privacy of communication

B. the right to information on matters of private concern
C. the right to be secure against unreasonable searches and seizures
D. the right to life, liberty of property and equal protection of the laws
E. the right of freedom of speech, of expression, or of the press, or the right to a peaceful assembly to
petition the government for redress and grievances
2. ____________ is the right of a person to have his dwelling or home in whatever place he chooses and to change it
at will without interference from others.
A. the right of liberty of abode

B. the right of freedom of speech and expression
C. the right to form unions, associations and societies
D. the right to life, liberty or property and equal protection of the laws
E. the right of free exercise and enjoyment of religious expression and worship
3. There are four types of rights secured by the Constitution. Determine which of the following does NOT fall under
Constitutional rights.
A. civil rights D. rights of the accused

B. political rights E. social and economic rights
C. rights of the plaintiff
4. __________________ are the rights of the citizen which give them the power to participate in the establishment or
administration of the government.
A. civil rights D. rights of the accused

B. political rights E. social and economic rights
C. rights of the plaintiff
5. Enumerate at least five (5) rights of the accused under the Constitution.
A. ____________________________
B. ____________________________
C. ____________________________
D. ____________________________
E. _____________________________
6. What is the minimum age requirement for a citizen of the Philippines to enable him/her exercise his/her right to
vote?
A. 21 yrs. old D. 16 yrs. old

B. 25 yrs. old E. 20 yrs. old
C. 18 yrs. old
7. The minimum residency requirement in the Philippines of a qualified voter is __________________________,
while in the place where he/she intends to vote, he/she shall have resided at least __________________ immediately
preceding the election.
A. two years; one year D. two years; six months

B. one year; six months E. six months; one year
C. one year; six months
8. What branch of the government has the vested power to make, alter and repeal laws?
A. Supreme Court D. Constitutional Commission

B. Office of the President E. Local Government
C. Congress
9. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The Congress of the Philippines has a bicameral setup consisting of the Senate and the House of
Representatives.
B. The Senate consists of 12 senators elected a large by qualified voters.
C. A senator’s term of office is six years.
D. No person shall be a senator in the Philippines unless he is a natural born citizen of the Philippines.
E. A senator is disqualified to serve for more than two (2) consecutive terms.
10. The minimum age of qualification for a member of the House of Representative is ____________ years old.
He/She shall serve for no more than _____________ consecutive terms.
A. 35; two (2) D. 40; three (3)

B. 25; three (3) E. 32; two (2)
C. 30; two (2)
PRACTICE TEST 3
Direction: Select from among the lettered choices the sentence or phrase which fits or answers the questions posed
for each item.
1. Aside from the legislative function, Congress has specific powers which the Constitution expressly directs or
authorizes. the following are some of these specific powers EXCEPT the power to
A. declare the existence of a state of war

B. declare executive acts unconstitutional
C. confirm appointments by the President
D. impeach members of the Supreme Court or the President
E. choose who shall become the President in case of tie (or two or more candidates have an equal and
highest number of votes)
2. Unless otherwise provided by law, the regular election of the Senators and the members of the House of
Representatives shall be held on the ___________________.
A. third Monday of May D. any day on the second week of May

B. second Monday of May E. any day on the third week of May
C. second Tuesday of May
3. The Presidential system of governance follows this particular principle in which the powers of government are
divided into and distributed among three (3) distinct classes: the legislative, the executive and judiciary.
A. Principle of Checks and Balances

B. Principle of Separation of Powers
C. Principle of Delegation of Powers
D. Principle of inequality of powers
E. None of the above
4. Following the principle of checks and balances, in what way does the executive department through the President
“check” the affairs of other departments (i.e. judiciary and legislative?
A. He may veto or disapprove bills enacted by Congress.

B. Through this pardoning power, he may set aside the judgments of the courts.
C. He may proclaim martial law or suspend the privilege of writ of habeas corpus
D. A and B only
E. B and C only
5. To make the presidential system workable, this principle, which allows a department a considerable amount of
encroachment in the affairs of another, is embodied in the constitution. This principle is known as ______________.
A. principle of separation of powers

B. principle of coordinate and co-equal powers
C. principle of checks and balances
D. principle of delegation of powers
E. principle of inequality of powers
6. The power to administer the laws, carry them out into operation and enforce its observance is called ___________.
A. legislative power D. the power to veto

B. executive power E. emergency power
C. judicial power
7. The Constitution does not prescribe any educational, academic and literacy qualification for President and Vice-
President EXCEPT
A. the ability to execute the provisions of the Constitution and the statutes by Congress
B. the ability to read and write
C. the completion of a college degree
D. the possession of a high school diploma
E. the possession of civil service eligibility
8. Determine which of the statements is INCORRECT.
A. A person who has held the Office of the President is absolutely disqualified for any reelection.
B. The Vice-President cannot serve for more than two consecutive terms
C. The term of office of the President and Vice-President is six years (6)
D. The President is chosen by direct voting or popular election and he may be removed office by the same
people who voted for him.
E. The President must be at least 40 years old on the day of the election and a resident of the Philippines for
at least 10 years.
9. Under Article XII, the principle of all professions in the Philippines shall be ___________________.
A. open to both Filipino and foreign citizens.

B. exclusive to natural-born Filipinos only.
C. limited to Filipino citizens, except in cases provided by law.
D. a privilege to qualified individuals whether Filipino citizens or foreigners
E. limited to Filipino citizens with at least 10 years of residence in the country.
10. The adoption of the “Filipino first” policy is clearly embodied in the Constitution. The following are the ways in
which the state shall promote this policy EXCEPT
A. adoption of measures to help Filipino products become more competitive

B. preferential use of Filipino labor
C. Filipinization of certain areas of investment
D. use of locally-produced goods
E. protection from foreign competitions
SECTION 3
GENERAL INFORMATION
PRATICE TEST I
1. All statements except D correctly describes the preamble of the Philippine Constitution. As a preamble, it is NOT an
integral part of the Constitution. It is merely an introductory statement which embodies our collective hope, aims,
and purposes as a people in the preparation and promulgation of the Constitution.
2. C. The preamble state, ”We, the sovereign Filipino people…”
3. C. A government amenable to external control and subjugation is NOT the kind of government envisioned by the
Constitution.
4. C. The Constitution is considered as the supreme law of the land because its authority emanates from the Filipino
people.
5. D. A total of 18 articles are nshrined in the Constitutin and theses are follows:
a. Article I – National Territory
b. Article II – Declaration of Principles and State Policies
c. Article III – Bill of Rights
d. Article IV – Citizenship
e. Article V – Suffrage
f. Article VI – The Legislative Department
g. Article VII – The Executive Department
h. Article VIII – Judicial Department
i. Article IX – Constitutional Commissions
j. Article X – Local Government
k. Article XI – Accountability of Public Officers
l. Article XII – National Economy and Patrimony
m. Article XIII – Social Justice and Human Rights
n. Article XIV – Education, Science & Technology, Arts, Culture and Sports
o. Article XV – The Family
p. Article XVI – General Provisions
q. Article XVII – Amendments or Provisions
r. Article XVIII – Transitory Provisions
6. C. High or open seas are international waters that are not subject to the sovereignty of any state.
7. A. An archipelago is a group of islands in an extensive body of water (i.e. sea). It is regarded as a single unit. Thus,
the Philippines, with all its more than 7,000 islands is considered as an archipelago.
8. E. The prime duty of the government is not to defend the state but to serve and protect the people. The
constitution, however, provides that the government may call upon the people to defend the state against foreign
aggression.
9. D. All of the above (Recognition of the role of the youth in nation-building, recognition of the role of women in
nation-building and the equality before the law of women and men, and freedom from nuclear weapons policy are
ALL state policies adopted in the Constitution.
10. B. Foreign policy is the basis by which a government conduct its affairs vis-à-vis with those of other countries.
PRACTICE TEST 2
1. B. There is no such thing as a right to information of private concern. What is embodied in the constitution is the
right of the people to information on matters of public concern. (Article III, Section 7)
2. A. The right of liberty of abode is the right of a person to have his home in whatever place he desires or chooses
and thereafter, to change it at will without interfere from any source. (Article III, Section 6)
3. C. There is no such thing as rights of the plaintiff as embodied in the Constitution – only rights of accused (Article
III, Section 11-22)
4. B. Political Rights give people the power to participate in the establishment or administration of the government.
5. B. The rights of the accused under the constitution are as follows:

a. The right of adequate legal assistance (section 11)
b. The right to be informed of his right to remain silent and to have counsel (Section 12 (1))
c. The right against the use of torture or any violence which vitiates the free will (Section 12 (2))
d. The right against being held in secret, incommunicado or other similar forms of detention (Section 12 (2))
e. The right to bail and against excessive bail (Section 13)
f. The right to due process of law (Section 14)
g. The right to presumption of innocence (Section 14 (2))
h. The right to be head by himself and counsel (Section 14 (2))
i. The right to be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation against him. (section 14 (2))
j. The right to have a speedy, impartial and public trial (Sec. 14 (2))
k. The right to meet the witnesses face to face. (Sec. 14 (2)
l. The right to have compulsory process to secure the attendance of witnesses and the production of evidence
in his behalf (Sec. 14 (2)
m. The right to a speedy disposition of cases before judicial, quasi-judicial or administrative bodies. (Section
16)
n. The right against self-incrimination (Section 17)
o. The right against detention by reason of political beliefs and aspirations (Sec. 18 (1))
p. The right against excessive fines. (Section 19)
q. The right against infliction of the death penalty except for heinous crimes (Sec. 19 (1))
r. The right against degrading, cruel or inhumane punishment. (Sec. 19 (2))
s. The right against double jeopardy (Sec. 21)
t. The right to be held in solitary confinement is contrary to the right of the accused being held in secret,
incommunicado or other similar forms of detention as embodied in Article III Section 12 (2).
6. C. 18 years old
7. B. Article V of the Constitution states, thus: “Suffrage may be exercised by all citizens not otherwise disqualified by
law, who are at least eighteen years of age, and who shall have resided in the Philippines for at least one year and in
the place wherein they propose to vote for at least six months immediately preceding the election…”
8. C. The Congress, composed of the Senate and House of Representatives, has the vested power to legislate or make
laws, alter and repeal them.
9. B. The senate consists of 24 senators elected at large by qualified voters.
10. B. A member of the House of Representatives must be at least 25 years of age (Article 6, Section 6). No member
of the House of Representatives shall serve more than three consecutive terms (Article 6, Section 7)
PRACTICE TEST 3
1. B. The power to declare executive acts as unconstitutional lies in the Judiciary particularly the Supreme Court as
the final arbiter. (Article VIII, Section 5 (2(a)).
2. B. The regular election of the senators and members of the House of Representatives shall be held on the second
Monday of May. (article VI, Sec. 8)
3. B. Principle of Separation of Powers
4. D. While the proclamation of martial law or suspension of the writ of habeas corpus is a function of the President,
they do not in any way follow the principle of checks and balances. The legislative, however, or the Congress,
following this principle, may revoke the President’s proclamation of martial law or suspension of the privilege of writ
of habeas corpus. (Article VII, Sec. 18)
5. C. The principle of checks and balances allows a department or one branch of government a considerable amount
of encroachment or checking in the affairs of another, the purpose of which is to ensure that no one department goes
beyond the limits set by the Constitution.
6. B. Executive power is the power to administer the laws, carry them into operation, and enforce its observance.
7. B. The ability to read and write is the only literacy qualification required of a candidate for Presidency as embodied
in Article VII, Sec. 2 of the Constitution.
8. D. The President may be removed from office on impeachment by the Congress (Article XI, Sec. 2)
9. C. The practice of all professions in the Philippines shall be limited to Filipino citizens, except in case provided by
law. (Article XII, Sec. 14)
10. E. Protection guaranteed to Filipinos by the Constitution is not against foreign competitions but against foreign
trade practices and competitions. (Article 12, Section 1)
REPUBLIC ACT 6713
PRACTICE TEST 1
Directions: Select from among the lettered choices the sentence or phrase which fits or answer the question posed
for each item.
1. Under Republic Act. No. 6713 or otherwise known as the Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for Public Officials
and Employees, the State expressed the following policies as regards the standard conduct of public officials and
employees EXCEPT:
A. To promote a high standard of ethics in the public service.

B. To act with patriotism and justice.
C. To lead modest lives and uphold public interest over personal interest.
D. To be accountable to the people at all times.
E. To love your neighbor as yourself.
2. Republic Act 6713 directs every Public Official and employee to observe the following norms as standards of
personal conduct in the discharge and execution of official duties EXCEPT:
A. Professionalism and commitment to public interest.

B. Nationalism and Patriotism
C. Love of country and the Filipino people
D. Commitment to democracy and political neutrality
E. Justness and sincerity, responsiveness to the public and simple living.
3. In the performance of their duties, all public officials and employees are under obligation under the Code of
Conduct and Ethical Standards for Public Officials and Employees to act promptly on letters and request within:
A. Five working days D. Twenty working days

B. Ten working days E. Reasonable working days
C. Fifteen working days
4. Under R.A 6713, it is illegal for public officials and employees to solicit or accept, directly or indirectly, any gift,
gratuity, favor, entertainment, loan or anything of monetary value from any person in the course of their duties or
any transactions which may be affected by the functions of their office. The law however, allows the receiving of gifts
or grants from foreign governments EXCEPT in the form of:
A. a gift nominal value tendered or receive as a souvenir or mark of courtesy

B. a gift in the nature of a scholarship or fellowship grant or medical treatment.
C. Travel grants or expenses for travel taking place entirely outside the Philippines of more than nominal
value.
D. A gift rendering a superior service or the gifts is given in anticipation of or in exchange for, a favor.
E. None of the above
5. All public officials and employees are required by law to file under oath their Statements of Assets and Liabilities
and Net Worth (SALN) and a Disclosure or Business Interests and Financial Connection and those their spouses and
unmarried children under eighteen years of age living in their households EXCEPT the following employees:
A. officials serving in honorary positions D. B & C only

B. Laborers E. All of the above
C. Casuals and temporary workers
6. Under the Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for Public Officials and Employees or Republic Act no. 6713,
public officials and employees shall not use, disclose or divulge confidential or classified information, officially known
to them by reason of their office and not made available to the public that will:
A. further their private interests or give undue advantage to anyone

B. prejudice the public interests
C. compromise the individual concerned without his/her consent
D. A & B only
E. C only
7. R.A 6713 mandates all public officials and employees to avoid conflict of interests at all times. When a conflict of
interest arises, he shall resign from his position in any business enterprise within thirty days from assumption of
office, or within sixty days from such assumption, he shall undergo a legal act known as:
A. Divestment D. Abandonment
B. Retirement E. Investment
C. Ejectment
8. The government agency that has primary responsibility for the administration and enforcement of Republic Act
6713 is the:
A. Office of the Ombudsman D. Department of Justice

B. Office of the President E. Civil Service Commission
C. House of Representatives
9. The Statements of Assets and Liabilities and Net Worth and a Disclosure of Business Interests and Financial
Connection of any public official or employees MUST be filed:
A. within 30 days after assumption of office

B. on or before April 30, of every year thereafter
C. on or before December 30 of every year thereafter
D. within 30 days after separation from the service
E. A, B and D
10. Republic Act 6713 prohibits public officials and employees during incumbency to:
A. own, control, manage or accept employment as officer, employee, consultant, counsel, broker, agent,
trustee or nominee in any private enterprise regulated, supervised or licensed by their office unless expressly
allowed by law.
B. Engage in the private practice of their profession unless authorized by the Constitution or law, provided
that such practice will not conflict or tend to conflict with their official business.
C. Recommend any person to any position in a private enterprise which has a regular or pending official
transaction with their office.
D. A & B only
E. A, B and C
11. Republic Act 6713 provides for a system of annual incentives and rewards in order to motivate and inspire public
servants to uphold the highest standard of ethics. This award conferred to Outstanding Public Officials and Employees
is also known as the:
A. Lingkod Bayan Award B. Parangal ng Bayan Award
C. Dangal ng Bayan Award E. Bayani ng Bayan Award

D. Tanghal ng Bayan Award
12. Which of the following statements is NOT true as far as the Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for Public
Officials and Employees is concerned?
A. Public officials and employees are allowed, directly or indirectly, to have any financial or material interest
in any transaction requiring the approval of their office.
B. Public officials and employees are allowed to engage in private practice of their profession provided it is
approved by the head of office and that such private practice of profession is done outside the office hours.
C. Public officials and employees are not allowed to own, manage or accept employment as officer,
employee, consultant, counsel, broker, agent, trustee or nominee in any private-enterprise regulated,
supervised or licensed by their office unless expressly allowed by law.
D. Public officials and employees are allowed to accept gifts for as long as it is of nominal value tendered and
received as souvenir or mark of courtesy.
D. Public officials and employees are allowed to recommend any person to any position in a private
enterprise which has no regular or pending transaction with their office.
13. The Committee on Awards of Outstanding Public Officials and Employees created under Republic Act 6713 is
composed of the following members EXCEPT:
A. The Ombudsman
B. Chairman of the Civil Service Commission
C. The Chairman of the Commission on Audit
D. two government employees who are appointed by the President of the Philippines.
E. two private individuals who are appointed by the President of the Philippines
14. In the performance of their duties, all public officials and employees are under obligation under the Code of
Conduct and Ethical Standards for Public Officials and Employees to do the following duties EXCEPT:
A. To act promptly on letters and request sent by the public containing the action taken within fifteen
working days.
B. To submit annual performance reports and make it accessible to the public within reasonable working
hours.
C. To process documents and papers expeditiously within a reasonable time with not more than three
signatories.
D. To act immediately on the public’s personal transactions at all times.
E. To respond to letters and other means of communications sent by the public to be signed by the Head of
Office at all times.
15. Which norm of conduct is observed in the conduct of public official or employee where the public official or
employee refuses to dispense or extend undue favors on account of his or her office to his or her relatives whether by
consanguinity or affinity?
A. simple living D. commitment to public interest

B. professionalism E. justness and sincerity
C. political neutrality
16. Which of the following behaviors is NOT considered as a norm of conduct defined as responsiveness to the public
based on RA 6713?
A. Prompt, courteous and adequate service to the public.

B. Encourage suggestions, simplify and systematize policy rules and regulations
C. Avoid red tape, and develop understanding and appreciation of the socio-economic conditions in the
country especially in the depressed rural and urban areas.
D. Indulge in extravagant or ostentatious display of wealth in any form.
E. Provide information on policies and procedures in clear and understandable manner.
17. Which norm of public officials and employees is violated when public officials and employees openly campaign for
elective positions and allow the use of government resources under their authority during the campaign period?
A. commitment to public interest D. justness and sincerity

B. political neutrality E. professionalism
C. commitment to democracy
18. Professionalism in public service means all of the following behaviors stated below except the:
A. leading modest lives appropriate to positions and income

B. discharging duties with the highest degree of excellence, intelligence and skill
C. entering public service with utmost devotion and dedication to duty
D. discouraging wrong perceptions against the role of public servants as dispensers or peddlers or undue
patronage
E. A and D
19. Divestment, as defined under RA 6713 means all of the following except:
A. the transfer of title in favor or a person or persons other than his spouse or relatives
B. the disposal of interest in property by voluntarily, completely and actually depriving oneself of all rights
and privileges.
C. Dispossessing oneself of his right or title in favor of another person other than his immediate relatives.
D. the temporary and incomplete disposal of interest in property in favor of one’s spouse or relatives.
E. C and D
20. RA 6713 directs all public officials and employees to show their commitment democracy. Which of the following
behaviors is NOT considered as an example of behavior where public officials and employees are shown to be
committed to democracy?
A. maintaining the principle of public accountability

B. manifesting the deeds on the supremacy of civilian authority over the military
C. upholding the constitution, being the fundamental law of the land, at all times.
D. putting loyalty to country above loyalty to persons or party
E. defending Philippines sovereignty against foreign intrusion
21. Under RA 6713, divestment is NOT required to government officials and employees who serve the government as:
A. officials serving in honorary positions

B. Laborers
C. casual and temporary workers
D. B & C only
E. All of the above
22. The Dangal ng Bayan Award will be given to Outstanding Public Officials and Employees in the form of awards and
incentives EXCEPT:
A. citations, bonuses and paid vacations

B. directorships in government-owned or controlled corporations
C. local and foreign scholarship grants
D. automatic promotion to next higher rank
E. House and lot package
23. All constitutional and national elective officials shall file their Statements of Assets and Liabilities and Net Worth
and a Disclosure of Business Interests and Financial Connection to:
A. Office of the President D. Supreme Court

B. National Office of the Ombudsman E. House of the Representatives
C. Civil Service Commission
24. Conflict of interest does NOT occur in public service when
A. the official or employee is a substantial stockholder of a private corporation.

B. the official or employee is a member of the Board of Directors, or an officer of the corporation
C. the official or employee is an owner or has substantial interest in a business
D. the official or employee is a partner in a partnership
E. the official or employee is a director in a cooperative
25. Receiving of gifts by public officials and employees is NOT prohibited when:
A. Unsolicited gift of nominal o insignificant value or not given in anticipation of, or in exchange for, a favor
from a public official or employee or given after the transaction is completed, or service is rendered.
B. Given by a member of his family or relative on the occasion of a family celebration, and without any
expectation or pecuniary gain or benefit.
C. Nominals donations from persons with no regular, pending or expected transactions with the department,
office, or agency with which the official or employee is connected, and without any expectation of pecuniary
gain or benefit.
D. Donations coming from private organizations whether local or foreign, which are considered and accepted
as humanitarian and altruistic in purpose as well as mission and donations from government to government
entities.
E. All of the above.
REPUBLIC ACT 6713
CODE OF CONDUCT AND ETHICAL STANDARDS FOR PUBLIC OFFICIALS AND EMPLOYEES
PRACTICE TEST 1
1. E. To love your neighbor as yourself is the commandment of God from the Holy Scriptures and not a state
policy defined in RA 6713.
2. C. Love of the country and the Filipino is not among the eight norms outlines under RA 6713. Although to
love one’s country and our countrymen are outstanding behaviors, it is not stated as one of the norms.
3. C. The law states that all public officials and employees must act on letters and requests within fifteen
working days. The reply must contain the action taken on the request.
4. D. RA 6713 defined receiving any gifts includes the act of accepting directly or indirectly, a gift from a
person other than a member of his family or relative, even on the occasion of a family celebration or national
festivity like Christmas, if the value of the gift is neither nominal or insignificant or the gift is given in
anticipation of, or in exchange for, a favor.
5. E. Section 8(a) states that all public official and employees, except those who serve in an honorary capacity,
laborers and casual or temporary workers, shall file under oath their Statements of Assets and Liabilities and
Net Worth and a Disclosure or Business Interests and Financial Connection.
6. D. Section 7 (c) states that “public officials and employees shall not use, disclose or divulge confidential or
classified information, officially known to them by reason of their office and not made available to the public
that will (a) further their private interests or give undue advantage to anyone and (b) prejudice the public
interest.
7. A. Divestment
8. C. The Civil Service Commission has the primary responsibility for the administration and enforcement of
RA 6713 under Section 12 of RA 6713.
9. E. Section 8 (a) states that the SALN must be filed within thirty days after assumption of office, on or before
April 30, of every year thereafter and within thirty days after separation form the service.
10. E. Section 7 (b) states that public officials and employees during incumbency to (a) own, control, manage or
accept employment as officer, employee, consultant, counsel, broker, agent, trustee or nominee in any private
enterprise regulated, supervised or licensed by their office unless expressly allowed by law, (b) Engage in the private
practice of their profession unless authorized by the Constitution or law, provided that such practice will not conflict
or tend to conflict with their official business, and (c) Recommend any person to any position in a private enterprise
which has a regular or pending official transaction with their office.
11. C. The Award is called Dangal ng Bayan Award. This award is conferred during Civil Service Anniversary every
September of the year.
12. A. Public officials and employees are not allowed, directly or indirectly, to have any financial or material interest
in any transaction requiring the approval of their office.
13. E. The Committee is composed of the Ombudsman and Chairman of the Civil Service Commission as Co-
Chairman., the Chairman of the Commission on Audit, and two government employees to be appointed by the
President of the Philippines.
14. E. In the absence of duly authorize signatories, the official next-in-rank or officer-in-charge shall sign for and in
behalf of the government agency and need not wait for the head of office to sign the document.
15. E. RA 6713 defines justness and sincerity in Section 4 (c).
16. D. Indulging in extravagant or ostentatious display of wealth in any form is defined as part of simple living under
Section 4 (h)
17. B. Political neutrality means that public officials and employees shall provide service to everyone without unfair
discrimination and regardless of party affiliation or preference.
18. A. Professionalism in the public service is defined under Section 4 (b) of RA 6713.
19. D. Divestment is the transfer of title or rights completely and voluntarily to other person or persons other than
the immediate family members.
20. E. Defending the Philippine sovereignty against foreign intrusion is a behavior expected of public officials and
employees under the norm of Nationalism and Patriotism. Section 4(f).
21. D. Section 9 of RA 6713 exempts these personnel from the requirement of divestment.
22. E. House and lot package is excluded as part of an award and incentive for Dangal ng Bayan awardee.
23. B. National Office of the Ombudsman
24. E. Republic Act 6838 as amended by RA 9520 of 2008 allows public officials and employees to become officers and
members of a cooperative.
25. E. All of the above statements are excluded int eh prohibition of gift giving to public officials and employees.

IDENTIFYING GRAMMATICAL ERRORS

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IDENTIFYING GRAMMATICAL ERRORS

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PART I – IDENTIFYING ERRORS

PART I. IDENTIFYING ERRORS

3. E. The sentence has no error.

15. E. The sentence has no error.

PART I. IDENTIFYING ERRORS

1. E. The sentence has no error.

4. E. The sentence has no error.

6. B. The correct preposition is with (upset with) and not against.

7. D. The correct word is to (preferable to) and not preferable than.

14. B. The verb should be was not were.

16. E. The sentence is correct.

8. Each of us have a God-given purpose and a race to finish. No error.

PART I. IDENTIFYING ERRORS

2. E. The sentence has no error.

4. E. The sentence has no error.

6. E. The sentence has no error.

10. E. There is no error in the sentence.

19. E. There is no error in the sentence.

PART I. IDENTIFYING ERRORS

2. E. The sentence has no error.

11. E. The sentence has no error.

13. D. The correct pronoun is their, referring to the subject – members.

14. C. Remote possibility and not remote impossibility.

18. E. This sentence has no error.

20. A. The widower is a male; hence, the correct pronoun is his.

2. A. One half of the fifty examinees has brought packed lunches.

6. A. A group of police officers has been investigating the shooting incident.

7. A. The instructor wearing thick, dark glasses teach quite well.

9. A. Songwriting and illustrating pushes my imagination to the limits.

11. A. To be proficient in writing, students should read.

14. A. The speaker we invited is an authority with international affairs.

PART II. GRAMMAR & CORRECT USAGE

1. C. This sentence uses the present perfect progressive tense accurately.

In Choice C, the correct verb is annoys (The sound…annoys).

In Choice B, the correct verb is adhere.

Choice A – The instructor… teaches (not teach)…

Choice C – … facilities were (not was).

Choice A – Songwriting and illustrating push (not pushes)…

Choice B and D have dangling modifiers.

12. C. It follows the principle of parallel structure or parallelism.

Choice D has the same structure as choice B.

Choice D contains punctuation errors. (commas are unnecessary)

(All other choices contain errors in the use of preposition)

Choice A – an authority on (not with)

Choice C – upset with (a person), upset at (a situation)

Choice D – responding well to (not with) the treatment.

(All other choices have errors in word choice/usage)

Choice A – Apprise is the correct word; it means to inform.

Choice B – The accurate word is appraise (to evaluate).

Choice D – descent (meaning a downward movement) and not decent.

Choice A – The correct interrogative pronoun is which and not what.

(All other choices contain errors in word choice/usage.)

Choice A – elicit (to draw out) instead of illicit

Choice B – eminent (meaning well-known) instead of imminent

Choice A – The correct pronoun is its instead of their.

3. A. Either jogging or swimming improve the heart’s performance.

5. A. I have finally come from the conclusion that politics is self-serving.

8. A. A failure is one who easily give up and stop trying.

13. A. We have a generation that has lost the appetite on reading.

18. A. Departures are often mark with a tinge of sadness.

PART II. GRAMMAR & CORRECT USAGE

Choice A – The subject is book which is singular. (The book… is…)

Choice C – The mother… was (not were)