300+ TOP CASE MANAGER Objective Questions and Answers

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MANAGER Objective Questions and Answers

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Objective Questions and Answers
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CASE MANAGER Multiple Choice Questions :-

1.Which of the following is a responsibility of a case
manager:
A. Avoid subject material in documentation.
B. Making medical decisions if the patient is unable to do so.
C. Obtain medical services for an incapacitated patient.
D. Obtain financial services for an incapacitated patient.

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ANS:- A

2. After obtaining work capacity documentation:
A. The case manager should perform job analysis.
B. The case manager should determine whether an IME is

appropriate.

https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/case-manager-objective-questions-and-answers/ 1/29
C. The case manager should determine appropriateness of work-

hardening process.
D. The case manager should submit documentation to the employer

and insurance company.
ANS:- D
3. What is meant by annulus:
A. It is a sign of a herniated disc.
B. It is the outer portion of an intervertebral disc.
C. It is the inner portion of an intervertebral disc.
Make an Impact
D. It is a medical procedure which is not common due to pain

involved.
ANS:- B
4. A meaning of the root word “myel” is:
A. Spinal cord
B. Muscle
C. Cartilage
D. Largeness
ANS:- A
5. Which of the following are bisphosphonates used to

prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal
women?

Make an Impact
A. Evista and fosamax

B. Alendronate and risedronate
C. Estrogen and raloxifene
D. Estrogen and alendronate
ANS:- B
6. A transfer penalty:
A. Is only incurred if assets are given away to a spouse.
B. Is a period of time during which enrollee is not eligible for

Medicaid.
C. Is incurred when enrollee has given away assets; enrollee is no

longer eligible for Medicaid.
D. Is a penalty fine incurred when the enrollee has given away

assets.
ANS:- B
7. What is the Out of Area (OAC)?
A. Physicians who are located outside a prescribed geographic

radius
B. Treatment that is only available at a facility that does not lie

within the geographic radius included in the subscribed healthcare
plan
C. The treatment received by a member of a health care plan when

he/she is out of the network coverage area
D. Hospitals and facilities that are outside the geographic

boundaries of the available approved providers
ANS:- C

8. In which model is care only reimbursed when paneled

providers are used?
Make an Impact
A. EPO (Exclusive Provider Organization)
B. IPA (Independent Practice Association)
C. Group Model
D. Staff Model
ANS:- A
9. What is meant by Functional impairment:?
A. It is an indicator of crisis likelihood.
B. It is the temporary exchange of roles to cope with a disability.
C. It is the ability of a client’s family to provide for the client’s needs

and still function.
D. It is when overwhelming distress hinders coping ability.
ANS:- A
10. The age group with the highest suicide rate:
A. Are people among the 10-24 year old age group.
B. Are white men over the age of 85.
C. Are people among the 10-14 year old age group.
D. Are people among the 15-24 year old age group.
ANS:- B

CASE MANAGER MCQs
11. Patient participation in pain treatment:
A. Is a maladaptive coping behavior.
B. Is not suggested by JCAHO.
C. Is only necessary if the patient is without an appropriate

provider.
D. Is an adaptive coping mechanism.
ANS:- D
12. In legal terms, define “discovery period.”
A. This is not a legal term
B. The time in which all material evidence has to be produced and

exchanged
C. Time where mediation takes place
D. Time were all parties involved get together to resolve differences
ANS:- B
13. What is a Transcranial Doppler:
A. Assesses extent or location of injured brain tissue.

B. Provides 3-dimensional pictures of tissues.
C. Is a lengthy process assessing cognitive abilities or deficits.
D. Assesses brain’s arterial circulation.
ANS:- D
15. What is a nasal polyps?
A. Inflamed sinus
B. Inflamed rhinitis
C. Inflamed nasal cavity
D. Inflamed nasal mucosa
ANS:- D 
16. What is the fullform of CPT-4?
A. Caseworkers with Professional Training, 4th year
B. Current Procedural Terminology
C. Caregivers Professional Tribute, 4th year
D. Caseworkers with Physical Techniques, 4th year
ANS:- B
17. What does a correlational study determine?
A. The relationship between two occurrences
B. The effects of A on B
C. Cause-effect
D. The effects of B on A
ANS:- A
18. Which of the following is an accurate statement about

prescription drug coverage for seniors:
Write e-Rx In 14 Languages
A. Prescription drug coverage is expected to remain at its current

situation, until reform is implemented.
B. Prescription drug coverage is expected to improve.
C. Prescription drug coverage is expected to decline.
D. Prescription drug coverage is a functioning benefit of Part B

Medicare insurance.
ANS:- C
19. What is DSM-IV?
A. Doctors Synthesis of Manuals- 4th edition

B. Diagnosis of Sexual Manifestations- 4th edition
C. Doctors Standards for Medications, 4th edition
D. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders
ANS:- D
20. Which of the following statements is untrue regarding

crisis?
A. There are two types of crisis; developmental and situational
B. Crises are either resolved positively or negatively in a brief period

of time
C. A crisis is usually preceded by a particular identifiable event
D. There are three type of crisis; developmental, situational, and

individual
ANS:- D
21. The following is a high potency antipsychotic:
A. Clozaril
B. Thorazine
C. Mellaril
D. Haldol
ANS:- D
22. The breathing capacity of the lungs is measured

through:
A. Electromyography
B. Spirometry
C. Clinical observation
D. Fluorescent antinuclear antibody test
ANS:- B

Write e-Rx In 14 Languages
23. Time out of work under worker’s compensation may

be included in the FMLA twelve week period:
A. Only if the employee is offered COBRA by the employer.
B. If the employee is out of work for a period over 18 months.
C. If the employee is notified in writing.
D. If the employer agrees to hold the employees position for more

than the twelve-week period.
ANS:- C
24. If a Medicare recipient does not enroll in Part B

insurance when he enrolls in Part A insurance:
A. The recipient may purchase Part B Medicare afterward, but will

experience a rise in Part B premiums until he enrolls in Part B.
B. The recipient may not purchase Part B Medicare afterward.
C. The recipient may purchase Part B Medicare afterward, and will

not experience a rise in premiums.
D. The recipient may purchase Part B Medicare afterward, but will

experience a rise in Part A premiums until he enrolls in Part B.
ANS:- A
25. Of the following test instruments, which would give

you the most reliable results?
A. MAPI
B. Ruler
C. House-Tree-Person
D. Beck Depression Inventory
ANS:- B

26. Which is not a category of mental disorder contained

in the DSM IV?
A. Anxiety Disorders
B. Diagnostic Disorders
C. Cognitive Disorders
D. Mood disorders
ANS:- B
27. An incomplete injury is one in which:
A. There is no communication between the outside body and the

spinal cord.
B. There is some communication between the outside body and the

spinal cord.
C. There is no signal whatsoever traveling through the site of injury.
D. There are some signals traveling through the site of injury.

ANS:- D
28. Disability coverage programs:
A. May have limits of several years, or last until retirement age.
B. Typically end after a period of several years.
C. Invariably end after a two year duration.
D. Must continue until age of retirement.
ANS:- A
29. The DSM-IV defines Anxiety as:
A. An impoverishment in thinking that is inferred from observing

speech and language behavior
B. An inability to initiate and persist in goal-directed activities.
C. The apprehensive anticipation of future danger or misfortune

accompanied by a feeling of dysphoria or somatic symptoms of
tension
D. Waxy flexibility-rigid maintenance of a body position over an

extended period of time.
ANS:- C
30. Client abandonment is:


A. Termination of case management services.
B. A case manager’s failure to annually renew criteria of consent for

client.
C. Lack of sufficient termination notice resulting in harm to Client.
D. Lack of sufficient understanding of client necessity for additional

services.
ANS:- C
31. What is meant by Bed Days:?
A. The number of days a physician requires a client to remain on

bed rest
B. The number of days a hospital will willingly provide a bed for a

client
C. The number of actual days a client stays in hospital or another

facility
D. The number of beds available in a hospital on any given day
ANS:- C
32. The following statement is not true with regard to

bipolar disorder :
A. Bipolar disorder is looked at as a biological disorder
B. Bipolar disorder runs in families
C. Prophylactic treatment is not typically warranted
D. The primary medication to treat bipolar disorder is lithium
ANS:- C

33. When conflict is _______________, it is emotional

and focused on personal incompatibilities or disputes.
A. High
B. Dysfunctional
C. Emotional
D. Beneficial
ANS:- B
34. The low use of formal power had a strong

_______________ effect on interdisciplinary team
collaboration .
A. Influential
B. Negative
C. Collaborative
D. Positive
ANS:- D
35. Which is not a requirement for states to receive

Federal-matching funds?
A. AIDS screening for high-risk individuals
B. Medical and surgical dental services
C. Early and periodic screening, diagnosis and treatment services

for people under 21 years of age
D. Inpatient hospital services
ANS:- A
36. When a stressful situation is so overwhelming that it

blocks the client’s effective coping ability:
A. It is called disruption of homeostasis.
B. It may be an indicator of a client’s ability to effectively handle

disability.
C. It is called crisis.
D. It is called functional impairment.
ANS:- C
37. According to the DSM IV, a poly substance

dependence is: 
A. A use of at least three substances simultaneously
B. A use of at least three substances in a short period
C. A use of at least three groups of substances in one year
D. A use of at least three substances in any given time frame
ANS:- C
38. Which is true of a EPO?
A. Care is not reimbursed if non-panel/non-network physicians are

used
B. Does not use gatekeeper approach services
C. It combines elements of HMO and Indemnity Plan
D. Subscriber pays little or nothing out-of-pocket
ANS:- A
39. What is AAPCC?
A. Ambulatory Americans Paying Cost of Care
B. Americans for abortion classified committee
C. American Association of Physicians Concerned about Costs
D. Adjusted Area Per Capita Cost
ANS:- D
40. Depression is an example of:
A. A long-term positive coping technique.
B. A short-term positive coping technique.
C. A stressor.
D. A maladaptive coping behavior.
ANS:- D
41. What is Pooling?
A. The act of combing the risk of all the groups in several groups
into one risk pool
B. The act of pooling resources of various individual subscribers so

as to make the cost of healthcare more manageable for all members
of the group
C. The act of pooling resources by a group of hospitals so as to

better manage the cost of healthcare

D. The bundling together of various network providers so as to

compile a more effective and varied list of providers
ANS:- A
42. A concussion is:
A. An open injury
B. A type of skull fracture.
C. A violent shaking of the brain.
D. A bruise on brain tissue.
ANS:- C
43. The AAPPCC is used by CMS
A. As a means of estimating outlier expenses in a hospital setting
B. as a basis of payments to managed care plans
C. To limit healthcare benefits to specific covered conditions
D. As a way to define who qualifies for health care under a

particular managed care plan
ANS:- B
44. Medicare is available to:
A. All US citizens or permanent residents with disabilities.
B. All US citizens or permanent residents over age 65 who have paid

Medicare taxes, have a disability , or are diagnosed with kidney
failure.
C. All US citizens or permanent residents without resources for

medical payment.
D. All US citizens or permanent residents over age 65 who have

paid Medicare taxes.
ANS:- B
45. A quality system only _______________ the

positives on what needs to be worked on.
A. Eliminates
B. Enhances
C. Submits to
D. Completes
ANS:- B 
46. Who most often provides rehabilitation services to

Social Security beneficiaries?
A. County agencies
B. Private sector
C. Federal agencies
D. State rehabilitation agencies
ANS:- D
47. The size of the lump sum payment to a hospital is

based on
A. The relative weight of the particular DRG
B. The DRG
C. Prospective reimbursement payment
D. Omnibus budget reconciliation actions
ANS:- A
48. An individual sustaining a sacral injury:
A. Will become a paraplegic and lose function of the chest,

abdomen, and other areas.
B. May retain function of most areas, depending upon extent of

injury.
C. Will become a quadriplegic and may require a ventilator.
D. May possibly be rendered paraplegic, depending upon extent of

injury.
ANS:- B
49. The reliability of an assessment tool is an indicator of:
A. Faking good or faking bad
B. Whether the assessment tool is measuring what it is supposed to

measure
C. How dependable the assessment tool is
D. How effective the assessment tool is with different cultural

populations
ANS:- C
50. Which of the following statements regarding

antidepressants is true? 
A. When an individual feels better he/she can stop taking

antidepressants
B. Antidepressants can make one feel “normal”
C. Antidepressants are very effective when taken without other

forms of intervention
D. Antidepressants are addictive
ANS:- B
CASE MANAGER Objective type Questions with answers

51. What is meant by ICD-9CM?
A. Internal Causative Dictionary , with clinically modified

explanations
B. Internal Classification of Disease the Clinical Modification
C. International Classified Dictionary of the 9 clinical moods
D. International Committee of Doctors, 9th clinical module
ANS:- B
52. Due to its short half-life, which of the following

requires a divided dosing?
A. Paxil
B. Prozac
C. Elavil
D. Wellbutrin
ANS:- D
53. Individual Identifiable Health Information refers to:
A. It also includes the provision of healthcare and payment for the

provision of the insurance carrier
B. Health records from the time of birth
C. Any information related to a past, present or future physical or

mental health condition
D. All vaccination records
ANS:- B
54. _______________ or formal power is control of

something or someone.
A. Dominance

B. Equal power
C. Conflict resolution
D. Unequal power
ANS:- A
55. Which is NOT a requirement to be met for the Social

Security Administration to consider a person “disabled”?
A. Physical or mental impairment
B. Cannot do substantial gainful work
C. Inability to get work
D. Unable to do previous work
ANS:- C
56. The elements of consent criteria:
A. Must be initiated once, and renewed annually.
B. Must be initiated once, and renewed on a monthly basis.
C. Must be initiated once upon beginning case management.
D. Must be initiated once, and renewed at each subsequent meeting

with case manager and client.
ANS:- A
57. What is meant by Disability?
A. Refers to people who have a work history
B. Means that an individual cannot work
C. Refers to physical impairment only
D. Refers to physical or mental impairment that substantially limits

one or more of the major life activities of the individual.
ANS:- D
58. If an employer wants to discontinue health benefits

for an employee who has taken leave for more than
twelve weeks:
A. He may; according to FMLA the employer may discontinue

health benefits at that point.
B. He may not; according to COBRA, the employer must provide

healthcare benefits for terminated employees for up to 18 months.

C. He may; however, the employee must be notified in writing.
D. He may; however the employer must offer the employee the

option to purchase insurance at his group rate.
ANS:- D
59. Usually health insurance coverage for a employee

begins:
A. Immediately upon selecting coverage
B. When the insurance provider receives the paper work
C. 3 months after they start work
D. 30 days after starting employment
ANS:- C
60. Which of the following is a key component of

Medicare’s partnership with the home care industry to
monitor and facilitate improved home health care
results?
A. APC
B. OASIS
C. OBQI
D. HHA
ANS:- B
61. An individual sustaining a lumbar injury:
A. Will become a paraplegic and lose function of the chest,

B. May retain function of most areas, depending upon extent of

injury.
C. Will become a quadriplegic and may require a ventilator.
D. May possibly be rendered paraplegic, depending upon extent of

injury.
ANS:- D
62. Which is true of anxiety disorders?
A. PTSD and OCD are two forms of anxiety disorder.
B. Anorexia nervosa is a form of anxiety disorder.
C. They are defined by significant cognitive deficiencies.


D. They are often accompanied by somatic symptoms.
ANS:- B
63. Cortisone injections:
A. Are used for neither diagnoses nor treatments.
B. Are used for both diagnoses and treatments.
C. Are only used for repetitive motion disorder diagnoses.
D. Are only used for repetitive motion disorder treatments.
ANS:- B
64. State employment services offices employ:
A. The General Aptitude Test Battery
B. House-Tree-Person Test
C. The Symptom Checklist 90-R
D. Maslach Burnout Inventory
ANS:- A
65. An assessment tool’s reliability is responsible for its:
A. Upper limit of validity
B. Lower limit of validity
C. Test-retest limits
D. Test-reliability limits
ANS:- A
66. Which of the following would indicate a problem with

color vision?
A. inability to distinguish red from green
B. inability to vocalize color names
C. inability to differentiate between shades of gray
D. lack of knowledge regarding relationships of tints and hues
ANS:- A
67. Medicaid is funded by:
A. Federal governments.
B. Both federal and state governments.
C. Stage governments.

D. The CMS.
ANS:- B
68. Defamation may be defined as:
A. Failure to take due care or carelessness.
B. Professional misconduct or negligence.

C. Taking from one’s reputation.
D. A civil injury committed against another person or their

property.
ANS:- C
69. The best way for a Case Manager to obtain the most
accurate data from a client is to:
A. Review the client’s chart
B. Use close-ended questions
C. Retrieve information from the client’s caregiver and ask if they

concur with the findings
D. Use open-ended questions
ANS:- D
70. Which is true of Medicare?
A. It pays 100% of rehabilitative services and other hospital services

and supplies for the first year in a skilled nursing facility
B. It does not cover hospice care
C. It pays 100% of approved amount for durable medical equipment

as part of a home care treatment
D. It pays 100% of approved amount for home health care
ANS:- C
71. “Sedentary” is:
A. A vocationally qualified level
B. A skill level
C. An exertion level
D. An educational level
ANS:- C
72. Defense mechanisms: 

A. Are adaptive coping mechanisms.
B. Are neither adaptive or maladaptive but hinder adaptation.
C. May be maladaptive or adaptive.
D. Are maladaptive coping mechanisms.
ANS:- C
73. Injury or illness is an example of:
A. A long-term positive coping technique.
B. A maladaptive coping behavior.
C. A short-term positive coping technique.
D. A stressor.
ANS:- D
74. Which of the following is not one of the knowledge

domains elaborated by Michael Leahy of Michigan State
University in his 1992 national study?
A. Case Management Concepts Factor
B. Life Career Planning
C. Physical and Psychosocial Aspects Factor
D. Benefit Systems and Cost Benefit Analysis Factor
ANS:- B
75. An individual sustaining a cervical neck injury:
A. May possibly be rendered paraplegic, depending upon extent of

injury.
B. Will become a quadriplegic and may require a ventilator.
C. Will become a paraplegic and lose function of the chest,

D. May retain function of most areas, depending upon extent of

injury.
ANS:- B
76. Which is true of the Outcomes and Assessment

Information Set (OASIS)?
A. It represents the core items of a comprehensive assessment for

adult home care.
B. It is a forum for assessing the cost effectiveness of particular 

medications
C. It was developed as a comprehensive assessment tool for quality

of care
D. It is a productivity quotient, assessing the productivity of any

given group of healthcare workers in any given day
ANS:- A
77. A form of hepatitis, producing infections only when

HBV is present and exists at the expense of Hepatitis B,
it’s host, is named?
A. Hepatitis D
B. Hepatitis E
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis G
ANS:- A
78. The purpose for using clinical level of care criteria as

guidelines to support the case management process is so
that:
A) patients can be discharged as early as possible.
B) patients can be treated at the most appropriate level of care as

their condition changes.
C) hospitals can profit from the DRG arrangement.
D) physicians can follow the patients more efficiently from their

offices rather than in the hospital.
ANS:- B
79. The case manager’s identification of potential

problems or barriers to cost-effective, quality care begins
:
A) during the assessment phase.
B) throughout the case management process.
C) before discharge.
D) after completion of the case selection process.
ANS:- D
80. CPAP, continuous positive airway pressure, is most

often utilized in the home for:
A) ventilator dependent patients


B) chronic obstructive lung disease.
C) obstructive sleep apnea.
D) cystic fibrosis.
ANS:- C
81. A case manager is developing a plan for a client

without an established support system, who is being
discharged home from a skilled nursing facility, following
a stroke. The knowledge area that will best assist the case
manager during this phase of the case management
process is:
A) cost-benefit analysis.
B) insurance principles.
C) community resources and support programs.
D) psychosocial aspects of chronic illness and disability.
ANS:- C
82. It is important for the case manager to be aware of

Medicare’s definition of part-time or intermittent, when
recommending ongoing services. Combined skilled
nursing and home health aide services cannot total more
than ____ hours per week.
A) 20
B) 24
C) 28
D) 30
ANS:- C
83. A case manager is working with a client diagnosed

with terminal metastatic cancer and in need of money to
pay for medical care and living expenses. Selling a life
insurance policy at 50-80% of its face value is:
A) not a viable option.
B) called a viatical settlement.
C) an option frequently recommended by case managers.
D) not ethical.
ANS:- B
84. Best practices are predicted to do all the following

EXCEPT:
A) Improve clinical outcomes

B) Increase health care costs
C) Enhance administrative efficiency
D) Increase patient satisfaction
ANS:- B
85. Demand management, which provides risk

appraisals, telephone health information services, and
prevention and wellness initiatives, involves:
A) a health professional contacting the client at prespecified

intervals.
B) the client calling an independent call center, a center set up by

the health plan, or a number made available by the provider.
C) the client initiating a call for emergency needs when the case
manager is unavailable.
D) None of the above
ANS:- B
86. Upon meeting your client, a 40-year-old Asian

woman, you note that throughout the assessment process
she avoids eye contact. Your study of various cultural
practices helps you understand that the behavior in this
case is related to:
A) embarrassment about her health problem.
B) passivity.
C) language barrier.
D) a sign of deference.
ANS:- D
89. The root cause of problems such as malnutrition,

social isolation, alcohol abuse, and not adhering to
treatment in the elderly population, is most frequently
associated with:
A) dementia.
B) Alzheimer’s disease.
C) depression.
D) endocrine imbalance.
ANS:- C
90. The Glasgow Outcome Scale was commonly used

prior to the development of the Rancho Los Amigos
levels. Which of its five levels describes the stage where 
the client is able to follow commands but requires

assistance for activities of daily living?
A) Gross disability
B) Severe disability
C) Moderate disability
D) Mild disability
ANS:- B
91. The most appropriate objective for conducting a job

analysis, which includes an in-depth review of the
purpose of the job, related tasks, and the frequency of the
tasks, in association with a disabled client in a return-to-
work program, is to:
A) evaluate whether a job description requires modifications.
B) best match job functions, expectations or requirements, with

abilities and limitations.
C) determine when an individual should be promoted.
D) comply with ADA (American Disabilities Act).
ANS:- B
92. Which is the most appropriate strategy for promoting

behavioral changes among adolescents with obesity?
A. Age-matched, self-help group discussions
B. Family-centered group discussions
C. Individualized nutrition counseling
D. Lectures on esteem enhancement
ANS:- A
93. As a member of an interdisciplinary cardiac

rehabilitation team, a nurse case manager’s primary
responsibility is to:
A. communicate with families or significant others in meeting the

client’s care objectives.
B. consult with health care professionals to coordinate resources

and arrange referrals.
C. coordinate with health insurance providers to formulate care

plans and meet predetermined outcomes.
D. document and disseminate assessment information from the


team of health care professionals.
ANS:- B
94. A child who is ventilator-dependent and has a

gastrostomy button is scheduled to be discharged to
home with visits from a home health nurse. Prior to
discharge, the nurse case manager’s most critical action
is to:
A. assess the child’s long-term home care needs.
B. procure the required home medical equipment.
C. secure funding sources for home health care.
D. verify that the child is being discharged to a safe environment.
ANS:- D
95. Which type of authorization is generated when

services are rendered?
A. Concurrent
B. Prospective
C. Retrospective
D. Subauthorization
ANS:- A
96. Managing clinical outcomes, studying variance

trends, and evaluating actions taken to correct deviations
from critical pathways are components of:
A. performance improvement.
B. risk management.
C. the nursing process.
D. utilization review.
ANS:- A
97. During an annual gynecologic examination, a 28-year-

old female client with two small children requests a
resupply of oral contraceptives. The patient confides that
her husband is scheduled to be laid off next month and
the family cannot afford health insurance. The nurse case
manager’s most appropriate intervention is to:

A. ask the clinic business office to arrange special payment for the
client.
B. direct the client to the local Planned Parenthood clinic for her
gynecologic and contraceptive needs.
C. recommend that the client change her contraceptive method to

condoms.
D. refer the client to local social services agencies.
ANS:- D
98. To avoid hospital readmission, a patient requires

services at a specialty clinic. Since the services are not
covered under the patient’s health care plan, a nurse case
manager intercedes with the patient’s insurance
company. In this situation, the nurse case manager is
acting in the role of:
A. broker.
B. consultant.
C. negotiator.
D. provider.
ANS:- C
99. When using a utilization tool to perform a concurrent

review, a nurse case manager recognizes that:
A. clients have a right to set length of stay without incurring

nonreimbursable costs.
B. discharge is required whenever the tool so indicates.
C. exceptions exist because utilization tools reflect only average

circumstances.
D. the use of utilization tools guarantees payment for services.
ANS:- C
100. Ideally, case management planning identifies goals

that are:
A. anticipated, acceptable, and appropriate.
B. challenging and timely.
C. patient-focused and cost-effective.
D. realistic, measurable, and specific.
ANS:- D 
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300+ TOP CASE MANAGER Objective Questions and Answers

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300+ TOP CASE MANAGER Objective Questions and Answers

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7/12/22, 7:56 PM 300+ TOP CASE MANAGER Objective Questions and Answers

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CASE MANAGER Multiple Choice Questions :-

A. Avoid subject material in documentation.

B. Making medical decisions if the patient is unable to do so.

C. Obtain medical services for an incapacitated patient.

D. Obtain financial services for an incapacitated patient.

2. After obtaining work capacity documentation:

A. The case manager should perform job analysis.

B. The case manager should determine whether an IME is

C. The case manager should determine appropriateness of work-

D. The case manager should submit documentation to the employer

3. What is meant by annulus:

A. It is a sign of a herniated disc.

B. It is the outer portion of an intervertebral disc.

C. It is the inner portion of an intervertebral disc.

D. It is a medical procedure which is not common due to pain

4. A meaning of the root word “myel” is:

5. Which of the following are bisphosphonates used to

A. Evista and fosamax

C. Estrogen and raloxifene

D. Estrogen and alendronate

A. Is only incurred if assets are given away to a spouse.

B. Is a period of time during which enrollee is not eligible for

C. Is incurred when enrollee has given away assets; enrollee is no

D. Is a penalty fine incurred when the enrollee has given away

7. What is the Out of Area (OAC)?

A. Physicians who are located outside a prescribed geographic

B. Treatment that is only available at a facility that does not lie

C. The treatment received by a member of a health care plan when

D. Hospitals and facilities that are outside the geographic

8. In which model is care only reimbursed when paneled

A. EPO (Exclusive Provider Organization)

B. IPA (Independent Practice Association)

9. What is meant by Functional impairment:?

A. It is an indicator of crisis likelihood.

B. It is the temporary exchange of roles to cope with a disability.

C. It is the ability of a client’s family to provide for the client’s needs

D. It is when overwhelming distress hinders coping ability.

10. The age group with the highest suicide rate:

A. Are people among the 10-24 year old age group.

B. Are white men over the age of 85.

C. Are people among the 10-14 year old age group.

D. Are people among the 15-24 year old age group.

CASE MANAGER MCQs

11. Patient participation in pain treatment:

A. Is a maladaptive coping behavior.

B. Is not suggested by JCAHO.

C. Is only necessary if the patient is without an appropriate

D. Is an adaptive coping mechanism.

12. In legal terms, define “discovery period.”

A. This is not a legal term

B. The time in which all material evidence has to be produced and

C. Time where mediation takes place

D. Time were all parties involved get together to resolve differences

13. What is a Transcranial Doppler:

A. Assesses extent or location of injured brain tissue.

C. Is a lengthy process assessing cognitive abilities or deficits.

D. Assesses brain’s arterial circulation.

15. What is a nasal polyps?

C. Inflamed nasal cavity

D. Inflamed nasal mucosa