Solution

1 With reference to Paramahansa Mandali, consider the following statements:
1. It was founded in Maharashtra with the aim of reforming the Hindu religion and society in
general.
2. It was against widow remarriage
3. At their meetings, food cooked by lower caste people was taken by the members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
 C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: Founded in 1849 in Maharashtra, the founders of the Paramahansa

Mandali—Dadoba Pandurang, Mehtaji Durgaram and others—began as a secret society that
worked to reform Hindu religion and society in general. The ideology of the society was closely
linked to that of the Manav Dharma Sabha.
Statement 2 is not correct: The mandali also advocated women’s education and widow
remarriage.
Statement 3 is correct: The founders of the Mandali were primarily interested in breaking caste
rules. At their meetings, food cooked by lower caste people was taken by the members.
Question 2 of 100
2 With reference to the Indian National Congress (INC) sessions, consider the following
statements:
1. The Surat Session of 1907 was presided over by Annie Besant.
2. Badruddin Tyabji was the first Muslim President of INC.
3. Subhash Chandra Bose presided over Congress Sessions for four times.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
 C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3.
Explanation :
Statement 1 is not correct: Rash Behari Ghosh presided Surat session of 1907 in which there was
a split in Congress into the Moderates and Extremists. Annie Besant presided over the 1917
session of Calcutta.
Statement 2 is correct: 1887 session of INC was held at Madras and it was presided over by
Badruddin Tyabji. He was the first Muslim president of INC.
Statement 3 is not correct: Subhash Chandra Bose presided in Haripura (1938) and Tripuri
(1939). However, later he resigned and Rajendra Prasad took over as president. At the Haripura
session adopted a resolution that the Congress would give moral support to those who were
agitating against the governance in the princely states.
Question 3 of 100
3 With reference to Rani Gaidinliu, consider the following statements:

1. A�er the Gandhi-Irwin pact, she was released from imprisonment.
2. She started a secret congress radio during the Quit India Movement.
3. She led the socio-political movement called Heraka
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
 C. 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Statement 1 is not correct: At the young age of thirteen, Rani Gaidinliu, raised the banner of
revolt against foreign rule. She was imprisoned in 1932 and was released from the Jail on
October 14, 1947, a�er India became independent.
Statement 2 is not correct: I was Usha Mehta, not Rani gaidinliu who started secret congress
radio during the Quit India Movement.
Statement 3 is correct: Haipou Jadonang (cousin of Rani Gaidinliu), who was then leading a
socio-political movement called Heraka. A�er his death, at the age of 16, Rani Gaidinliu took the
leadership.
Question 4 of 100
4 Arrange the following events in chronological order:

1. Cripps Mission
2. Quit India Movement
3. Cabinet Mission
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
 A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2, 1 and 3
C. 3, 1 and 2
D. 2, 3 and 1
Explanation :
The correct order is 1, 2 and 3.

The Cripps Mission was sent by the British government to India in March 1942 to obtain Indian
cooperation for the British war e�orts in the 2nd World War.
The Quit India Movement, also known as the August Movement, was a movement launched at
the Bombay session of the All-India Congress Committee by Mahatma Gandhi on 9 August 1942,
during World War II, demanding an end to British rule in India.
The Cabinet Mission Plan was a statement made by the Cabinet Mission and the Viceroy, Lord
Wavell, on May 16, 1946, that contained proposals regarding the constitutional future of India in
the wake of Indian political parties and representatives not coming to an agreement.
Question 5 of 100
5 With reference to the provisions of the Gandhi-Irwin pact, consider the following statements.
1. Lenient treatment to those government servants who had resigned;
2. Right to make salt in coastal villages for sale.
3. Immediate release of all prisoners convicted for political or violent acts.
 A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: lenient treatment to those government servants who had resigned was
agreed on.
Statement 2 is not correct: Right to make salt in coastal villages for personal consumption (not
for sale);
Statement 3 is not correct: Immediate release of all political prisoners those who are not
convicted of violence;
Some of the other provisions of the pact are:
remission of all fines not yet collected;
return of all lands not yet sold to third parties;
right to peaceful and non-aggressive picketing; and
withdrawal of emergency ordinances.
Question 6 of 100
6 Kisan Sabha movements in some parts of India asked the kisans not to o�er hari and begar as
a form of protest. Hari and Begar refer to:
 A. Forms of unpaid labour provided by the peasants.
B. Voluntary watch and ward tax to keep chowkidar in the villages.
C. O�erings paid to the local village priest.
D. Land Revenue paid in the Mahalwari regions.
Explanation :
Manu Kisan Sabahas such as the Oudh Kisan Sabha asked the kisans to refuse to till bedakhli
land and not to o�er hari and begar - system of forced labour practised in pre-independent
India, in which members of populace were compelled to perform unpaid work for the
government.
Question 7 of 100
7 With reference to the Battle of KanglaTongbi, consider the following statements:

1. It is considered as one of the fiercest battles of World War I.
2. It was fought to foil Japanese forces’ plan to capture Imphal.
A. 1 only
 B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Statement 1 is not correct: The Battle of KanglaTongbi, considered one of the fiercest battles of
World War II, was fought by Ordnance personnel of 221 Advance Ordnance Depot on the night of
6/7 April 1944.
Statement 2 is correct: It was fought to foil Japanese forces’ plan to capture Imphal.
Question 8 of 100
8 With reference to Salt Satyagraha at Vedaranyam, consider the following statements:

1. It was organised in the state of Kerala.
2. It was led by G. Subramania Iyer.
3. It was organised as a part of the Civil Disobedience movement.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
 C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is not correct: The Vedaranyam Salt Satyagraha March was an o�-shoot of the Dandi
Salt Satyagraha March led by Mahatma Gandhi himself. The Vedaranyam salt march took place
from Trichinopoly to Vedaranniyam on the Tanjore coast in Tamil Nadu.
Statement 2 is not correct: It was led by C. Rajagopalachari not by G. Subramania Iyer
Statement 3 is correct: It was organised as a part of the Civil Disobedience movement inspired
by Gandhi’s march to Dandi.
Question 9 of 100
9 With reference to Lahore Congress Session of 1929, consider the following statements:
1. It was presided over by Motilal Nehru
2. It authorised the Working Committee to launch a programme of civil disobedience.
3. Resolution of Complete Independence was adopted at this session.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
 C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is not correct: It was not Motilal Nehru, Jawahar Lal Nehru became the president of
the historic Lahore Congress of 1929. Jawaharlal Nehru, who had done more than anyone else
to popularise the concept of purna swaraj, was the natural choice for the president.
Statement 2 is correct: The Lahore Congress of 1929 authorised the Congress Working
Committee to launch a programme of civil disobedience including non-payment of taxes and all
members of legislatures were asked to resign their seats.
Statement 3 is correct: In Lahore session 1929 the Congress adopted the resolution of Complete
Independence for India as its goal. Further, January 26, 1930 was fixed as the first Independence
(Swarajya) Day, to be celebrated everywhere.
Question 10 of 100
10 With reference to Wardha Scheme of Basic Education, consider the following statements:
1. The scheme provided for a flexible curriculum
2. The Zakir Hussain Committee worked out the details of the scheme
3. It was based on articles published by Mahatma Gandhi in his paper, The Harijan.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
 D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: The scheme provided for a flexible curriculum and the students and
teachers were free to work according to their interest and requirement. There was no
compulsion to complete a prescribed portion under the fear of examinations.
Statement 2 is correct: Government of India Act 1935, introduced provincial autonomy and
popular ministries started functioning from 1937. The Congress party set at work to evolve a
national scheme of education for the country.The Zakir Hussain Committee worked out the
details of the scheme.
Statement 3 is correct: In 1937 Mahatma Gandhi published a series of articles in his paper, The
Harijan, and proposed a scheme of education called Basic Education, better-known as the
Wardha Scheme. The main principle of Basic Education is learning through activity.
Question 11 of 100
11 With reference to Shri Narayan Guru, consider the following statements.

1. He established the Sree Narayana Dharma Paripalana Yogam in TamilNadu.
2. He built a number of temples which were declared open to people from all castes.
3. He coined the slogan no religion, no caste, no God for mankind.
A. 1 and 2 only
 B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is not correct: Shri Narayan Guru established the SNDP (Sree Narayana Dharma
Paripalana Yogam) in Kerala. The SNDP movement was an example of a regional movement
born out of conflict between the depressed classes and upper castes.
Statement 2 is correct: Shri Narayan launched a two-point programme for the upli� of the
Ezhavas (the untouchable caste to which he belonged). Firstly, to give up the practice of
untouchability with respect to caste below their castes. As a second step, Narayan Guru built a
number of temples which were declared open to all castes.
Statement 3 is not correct: He coined the slogan one religion, one caste, one God for mankind,
which his disciple Sahadaran Ayyapan changed into “no religion, no caste, no God for mankind.
Question 12 of 100
12 With reference to B.R. Ambedkar, consider the following statements

1. He started Bahishkrit Hitkarini Sabha in 1924.
2. He demanded separate electorates for the untouchables.
3. He was the founder of the independent Labour party.
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
 D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: In July 1924, Ambedkar started an organisation in Bombay called

‘Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha’ for the moral and material progress of the untouchables.
Statement 2 is correct: In 1930 Ambedkar entered national politics. He demanded separate
electorates for the untouchables.
Statement 3 is correct: The Independent Labour Party (ILP) was a political organisation formed
under the leadership of B. R. Ambedkar on 15 August 1936. It opposed the brahmanical and
capitalist structures in India, supported the Indian working class and sought to dismantle the
caste system.
Question 13 of 100
13 With reference to Indian Universities Act of 1904, consider the following statements.
1. It was based on the recommendations made by the Raleigh Commission.
2. Universities were given greater independence from the control of the Governor.
3. The Act increased university control over private colleges.
A. 1 and 2 only
 B. 1 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: Lord Curzon appointed a Commission under the presidency of Sir
Thomas Raleigh in 1902 to enquire into the condition and prospects of universities in India and
to recommend proposals for improving their constitution and working. Indian Universities Act of
1904 was passed based on the recommendations made by the Raleigh Commission.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Governor’s control over the universities was further increased by
vesting the Government with powers to veto the regulations passed by the Senate of a
university.
Statement 3 is correct: The Act increased university control over private colleges by laying down
stricter conditions of a�iliation and periodical inspection by the Syndicate. The private colleges
were required to keep a proper standard of e�iciency. The Government approval was necessary
for grant of a�iliation or disa�iliation of colleges.
Question 14 of 100
14 With reference to Ramosi Uprising, consider the following statements.

1. It was led by Vasudev Balwant Phadke.
2. The Ramosi peasants of Bengal aimed to get rid of zamindars and pay direct allegiance to the
British crown.
 A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: The first of the revolutionary activities in Maharashtra was the
organisation of the Ramosi Peasant Force by Vasudev Balwant Phadke in 1879.
Statement 2 is not correct: It aimed to rid the country of the British by instigating an armed
revolt by disrupting communication lines. It hoped to raise funds for its activities through
dacoities. It was suppressed prematurely. Further, Ramosi peasants belonged to Maharashtra
and not Bengal.
Question 15 of 100
15 With reference to All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC), consider the following statements:
1. Narayan Malhar Joshi was the first president of AITUC.
2. It opposed Gandhian philosophy of non-violence, Trusteeship and class-collaboration.
3. It remained by and large, under the influence of extreme communists.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
 D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Statement 1 is not correct: All-India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was founded on 31 October
1920. The Indian National Congress President of the year, Lala Lajpat Rai, was elected as its first
President.
Statement 2 is not correct: Gandhian philosophy of non-violence, Trusteeship and class-
collaboration had great influence on the AITUC and strike was a weapon rarely employed.
Statement 3 is not correct: AITUC remained, by and large, under the influence of moderate
communists like N.M. Joshi who believed that the political activities of labour organisations
should not go beyond agitation for the amelioration of their economic grievances.
Question 16 of 100
16 Consider the following rebellions during colonial times and arrange them in chronological
manner:
1. Kol Rebellions
2. Santhal Rebellion
3. Munda Rebellion
4. Sanyasi Rebellion
A. 1-2-3-4
B. 1-3-4-2
 C. 4-1-2-3
D. 3-1-4-2
Explanation :
Statement 1: The Kols of Chota Nagpur rebelled from 1820 to 1837.

Statement 2: The Santhal Revolt took place in 1855-56. Santhals are a tribal group concentrated
in the state of Jharkhand. This was the first peasant revolt that occurred in India. The revolt can
be attributed to the introduction of the Permanent Land Settlement of 1793. It was decided to
raise the banner of revolt, get rid of the outsiders and their colonial masters once and for all. The
rebellion continued till 1866.
Statement 3: The rebellion of the Munda tribesmen, led by Birsa Munda, occurred during
1899-1919.
Statement 4: Sanyasi rebellion, made famous by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in his novel Anand
Math, lasted from 1763 to 1800.
Question 17 of 100
17 With reference to Simla Deputation, consider the following statements:

1. It was a deputation sent to Lord Minto before the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919.
2. It expressed sentiments of loyalty to the British Crown.
3. Separate communal electorate demand by the Muslims was not accepted.
A. 1 only
 B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: Simla deputation was presented to Lord Minto who was the governor-
general of India. Lord Morley was secretary of state for India at the time.
Statement 2 is correct: The Deputationists expressed sentiments of loyalty to the British Crown
and showed grateful appreciation of the British Government’s policy of introducing further
reforms.
Statement 3 is not correct: The deputationists expressed the apprehension that if the principle
of election was introduced without conceding reservation of seats for the Muslims it would
prove detrimental to their interests. The Deputation demanded the reservation of seats on the
basis of their political importance and their services in the defence of the Empire. Lord Minto
gladly accepted the Muslim demand for separate communal electorates.
Question 18 of 100
18 With reference to the Royal Indian Navy (RIN) Mutiny of 1946, consider the following
statements:
1. Mahatma Gandhi extended his support to the mutineers.
2. The civilians of Madras were against the RIN demonstrations.
3. The Second World War was instrumental in the formation of collective consciousness in the
RIN.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
 C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is not correct: Mahatma Gandhi, in fact, condemned the riots and the ratings’ revolt.
He criticized the strikers for revolting without the call of a “prepared revolutionary party” and
without the “guidance and intervention” of “political leaders of their choice”
Statement 2 is not correct: The civilians of Madras became involved in the RIN demonstrations.
The reports in the newspapers from February 19 onwards were avidly read by the civilians in
Madras. On 21st, they watched the Madras ratings driving trucks, shouting slogans, marching
around the city and chasing all Europeans out of sight. The stimulation of popular involvement
began on that day and general tension mounted in the city.
Statement 3 is correct: The Second World War was instrumental in the formation of a specific
collective consciousness both in the RIN as well as among the Madras working classes. The most
obvious economic impact of war on Madras city was a steep rise in prices of commodities. The
price of paddy and rice continued to advance and the rise was more marked in the case of
paddy.
Question 19 of 100
19 With reference to the Satyashodhak Samaj, consider the following statements:

1. Satyashodhak Samaj was a social reform society founded by Mahadev Govind Ranade
2. It propagated the idea of caste equality.
A. 1 only
 B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Statement 1 is not correct: Satyashodhak Samaj (Truth seeker’s Society) was a social reform
society founded by Jyotiba Phule in 1873 and not by Mahadev Govind Ranade
Statement 2 is correct: He founded the samaj against upper class domination and for the
propagation of caste equality. Phule founded the Satyashodhak Samaj with the objectives of
social service and spread of education among women.
Question 20 of 100
20 With reference to the Vernacular Press Act 1878, consider the following statements:
1. This act was designed for better control of the vernacular press and e�ectively punish and
repress seditious writing.
2. The District Magistrate was empowered to call upon the printer of any vernacular newspaper
to enter into a bond with Government Undertaking.
3. The Act was repealed under the regime of Lord Rippon.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
 D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Vernacular Press Act 1878, was designed for better control of the
vernacular press and e�ectively punish and repress seditious writing.
Other provisions of this act were:
The District Magistrate was empowered to call upon the printer and publisher of any vernacular
newspaper to enter into a bond with Government Undertaking
The Magistrate action was final and no appeal could be made in a court of law. The Act came to
be nicknamed as the Gagging Act and the worst features of this act were discrimination between
English and Vernacular and no right of appeal.
Statement 3 is correct: There was strong opposition to this and the Act was repealed in
December 1881 under the regime of Lord Rippon.
Question 21 of 100
21 With reference to the Mediterranean region, consider the following statements:

1. The region is not suitable for dairy farming.
2. The region is not suitable for truck farming.
 A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Mediterranean-type ecosystems can be found in around five regions of the world: California;
Central Chile; the Mediterranean Basin; the Cape Region of South Africa; and Southwestern and
Southern Australia.
Statement 1 is correct: Due to low rainfall during long summers and cold conditions during
winters (with mild rainfall), the grasslands are not well developed here, hence this region is not
suitable for dairy farming.
Statement 2 is not correct: It has well established horticulture farming in the form of truck
farming. The Mediterranean climatic conditions promote orchids and other horticulture crops.
Question 22 of 100
22 With reference to the fisheries of the world, consider the following statements:
1. The littoral countries with broader continental shelf have rich fishing zones.
2. The convergence zone of warm and cold currents is good for fishing activities.
3. Bottom trawling has been recommended as the most environment friendly process in the
marine fish capture.
 A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: Broader continental shelf provides large area having photic zones filled
with sunlight. Photic zones are rich in phytoplanktons and this leads to good fisheries growth.
Example: West coast of India.
Statement 2 is correct: Such convergence zones of warm and cold currents are good fishing
zones because of mixing of nutrients. Mixing of nutrients promotes growth of phytoplanktons
which in turn promotes growth of fishes. For example, New Foundland near North Eastern parts
of USA.
Statement 3 is not correct: Bottom trawling leads to destruction of all the living flora and fauna
on the sea floor when the trawler moves on the sea floor to catch fishes. Thus, the method is not
environment friendly.
Question 23 of 100
23 With reference to Earthquakes, consider the following statements:

1. The point where the energy of the earthquake is released is called focus and the point on
surface above it is called epicenter.
2. Intensity of an earthquake is measured by Richter Scale and Magnitude through Mercalli
Scale.
3. There is no shadow zone with respect to P waves.
 A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: Focus is located within the lithosphere where crust crushing takes place
and energy gets released, while epicentre is a point on earth’s surface just above (nearest to) the
focus.
Statement 2 is not correct: The magnitude scale is known as the Richter scale. The magnitude
relates to the energy released during the quake. The magnitude is expressed in absolute
numbers, 0-10. The intensity scale is named a�er Mercalli, an Italian seismologist. The intensity
scale takes into account the visible damage caused by the event. The range of intensity scale is
from 1-12.
Statement 3 is not correct: Both S wave and P wave have a shadow zone. Seismographs located
at any distance within 105 degree from the epicentre, record arrival of both P and S waves,
however beyond 145 degree, it is only P waves. Hence a zone between 105 to 145 degree from
epicentre is the shadow zone for both P and S waves. The entire zone beyond 105 degree
doesn’t receive S waves. Thus, shadow zone of S waves is much larger than that of the P-waves.
The shadow zone of S-waves is not only larger in extent but it is also a little over 40 per cent of
the earth surface.
Question 24 of 100
24 Consider the following pairs related to various oceanic features:

1. Continental Shelf — Presence of submarine canyons.
2. Abyssal Plains — Huge deposits of terrigenous sediments.
3. Continental Rise — Zone of extensive sea beaches.
4. Mid-oceanic ridges — Zone of divergence of plate boundaries.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
 A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Continental Shelf is extended part of continents under the sea where
the large submarine canyons which are steep-sided valleys cut into the seabed of the
continental slope having nearly vertical walls are present.
Pair 2 is not correctly matched: Abyssal Plains are vast extent plain areas into the sea which are
thousands of kilometers away from coastline. Hence, land based deposits can’t reach there.
Pair 3 is not correctly matched: Continental Rise connects continental slope and abyssal plain. In
contrast, the beaches are the transitional zone between the ocean and land areas.
Pair 4 is correctly matched: Mid-oceanic ridges are zones of divergence where hot lava comes up
and gets solidified. For example, Mid-oceanic ridges of Atlantic Ocean.
Question 25 of 100
25 With reference to coral vegetation, consider the following statements:

1. Corals cannot tolerate water temperatures below 18° Celsius and require very saline water.
2. Great Barrier reef is the single largest coral vegetation found on Earth.
A. 1 only
 B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Statement 1 is not correct: Generally, Reef-building corals cannot tolerate water temperatures
below 18° Celsius. Many grow optimally in water temperatures between 23°–29°Celsius, but
some can tolerate temperatures as high as 40° Celsius for short periods.
Most reef-building corals also require very saline (salty) water ranging from 32 to 42 parts per
thousand. But corals are not just warm-water creatures. They also live at depths of 40m down to
2,000m, in water temperatures as low as 4ºC.
Statement 2 is correct: Great Barrier Reef, near the coast of Australia, is the single largest coral
vegetation. It is longer than 1200 miles (1900 km).
Additional Information: There are three types of reefs: Fringing reefs, Barrier reefs, and Atolls.
Fringing reefs occur along shorelines of continents and islands and are commonly found in
Hawaii and the Caribbean. Barrier reefs are found farther o�shore than fringing reefs, occurring
most o�en in the Indo-Pacific and Caribbean. Atolls are a series of low coral islands surrounding
a central lagoon, frequently found in the Indo-Pacific.
Question 26 of 100
26 With reference to the phenomenon of Inversion of Temperature, consider the following

statements:
1. Ground Surface inversion requires cloudless and clear sky with long winter nights.
2. Frontal inversion is more prominent in the tropical regions of the world.
3. Temperature Inversion causes disappearance of prevailing fog and frost conditions.
 A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: Surface Inversion is caused by excessive nocturnal cooling of the ground
surface due to rapid rate of loss of heat from the ground surface through outgoing terrestrial
radiation. Hence, it requires cloudless and clear sky with long winter nights.
Statement 2 is not correct: Frontal Inversion is generally found in frontal zones of the temperate
cyclones where warm front slides over the cold front. Hence, it is more prominent in temperate
regions like Steppe.
Statement 3 is not correct: Fog is formed due to situation of warm air above and cold air below
because the warm air is cooled from below and resultant condensation causes the formation of
tiny droplets around dust particles. Similarly, frost is formed when cooling occurs below freezing
point. Hence temperature inversion promotes fog and frost formation.
Question 27 of 100
27 With reference to the Tropical cyclones, consider the following statements:
1. Tropical cyclones are low pressure regions surrounded by high pressure all around.
2. Tropical cyclones generally move from West to East in northern hemisphere tropical regions.
3. The main driving force behind tropical cyclones is the tidal force generated in the ocean.
 A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: Cyclones, in general, are low pressure depressions formed over the high
temperature seas. Winds from surrounding high pressure areas rush to the central low pressure.
Due to Coriolis Force, it gets circular motion.
Statement 2 is not correct: Tropical cyclones move from east to west under the influence of
easterlies which are permanent trade winds prevailing in the tropical regions.
Statement 3 is not correct: The main driving force is latent heat of condensation arising from the
condensation of rising water vapour during their ascent.
Question 28 of 100
28 With reference to ‘Oceanic Tides’, consider the following statements:

1. Tides are generated due to the combined gravitational forces of Sun and Moon.
2. Spring tide is formed during both new moon and full moon.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
 C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: Tides are formed when gravitational pulling of Moon and Sun results into
upli� of water column. In this case, the e�ect of Moon is more prominent than that of Sun.
Statement 2 is correct: Spring tide is formed when Sun, Moon and Earth are almost in the same
line which happens either in case of full moon or new moon.
Question 29 of 100
29 With reference to Wular Lake in Jammu and Kashmir, consider the following statements:
1. It is the largest freshwater lake in India.
3. It is the result of the tectonic activity.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
 C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Statement 1 and 2 are correct: Most of the fresh water lakes are in the Himalayan region. They
are of glacial origin. In other words, they formed when glaciers dug out a basin, which was later
filled with snowmelt. The Wular lake in Jammu and Kashmir, in contrast, is the result of the
tectonic activity. It is the largest freshwater lake in India. The Dal lake, Bhimtal, Nainital, Loktak
and Barapani are some other important fresh water lakes.
Question 30 of 100
30 With reference to the Himalayan Rivers, consider the following statements:

1. A number of Himalayan Rivers are antecedents in nature.
2. These rivers are known for broad ‘U” shaped gorges and extensive flood plains.
 A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: Himalayan Rivers are antecedent in nature which means they were
flowing in the region even before the formation of Himalayas and Great Plains.
Statement 2 is not correct: Due to strong headward erosion and valley deepening, they tend to
form narrow ‘V’ shaped gorges in the upper course of the river. As a consequence, the extensive
erosion activities tend to form flood plains in middle plains.
Question 31 of 100
31 Consider the following pairs:

Waterfall — River
1. Dudhsagar — Mandavi
2 Duduma — Rushikulya
3 Jog Falls — Sharavati
4. Sivasamudram — Kaveri
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
 B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 2 and 4 only
Explanation :
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Dudhsagar Waterfall is located on Mandavi river in state of Goa.
Pair 2 is not correctly matched: Duduma waterfall is on Machhkund river in Koraput, Odisha.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Jog Falls is on Sharavati river in Karnataka.
Pair 4 is correctly matched: Sivasamudram is on Kaveri river near Mysore.
Question 32 of 100
32 With reference to Western Ghats, consider the following statements:

1. Western Ghats are formed due to the folding occurred during the collision of Indian plate with
Eurasian plate.
2. Western Ghats act as a water divide within Indian Peninsula.
3. Presence of Western Ghats is the main reason behind the drought proneness of interior region
of Deccan Plateau.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
 C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is not correct: Western Ghats are formed as block mountains due to downwarping
of part of land into the Arabian Sea. Continent-continent collision of the Indian plate with
Eurasian plate has given rise to Himalayan mountains.
Statement 2 is correct: Western Ghats act as water divide between west flowing rivers and east
flowing rivers of Peninsula. For example Sharavati, Mandavi, Periyar, etc flow westwards, while
rivers like Krishna, Kaveri, etc flow eastwards.
Statement 3 is correct: Western ghats don’t allow moisture laiden winds to reach Deccan
interiors on time, rather these winds shed their moisture to the leeward side of Western ghats i.e
west coast of India. Deccan interiors are le� with dry winds.
Question 33 of 100
33 Which of the following has an impact on Indian Monsoons?

1. Jet Streams
2. Tibetan Plateau
3. Mascarenes High
4. El-Nino
5. Indian Ocean Dipole
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 3, 4 and 5 only
 D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Explanation :
Indian Monsoon is a complex phenomenon that is impacted by a number of events:

Jet Streams: Withdrawal of Jet streams from North India leads to creation of low pressure and
sudden arrival of South-West Monsoon winds.
Tibetan Plateau: Heating of Tibetan plateau creates north-east upper air trade winds to move
towards Mascarenes creating high pressure there through their descent which ultimately leads
to arrival of South-West monsoon winds from Mascarenes High to North Indian Low.
Mascarenes High: In the southern hemisphere, of the coast of Madagascar, there arises a zone of
high pressure referred as the ‘Mascarenes High. Around this Mascarenes High, an anti-cyclonic
air circulation becomes predominant. Intensification of this high pressure zone leads to more
intense south-west winds into Indian Peninsula.
El Nino: During El-Nino years, the trade winds pattern in Southern Pacific Ocean get reversed
which weaken the high pressure in Indian Ocean resulting into weak and slow flow of south west
monsoon winds into India.
Indian Ocean Dipole: It depicts the pressure and temperature di�erence between western and
eastern points of Indian Ocean. A positive Indian Ocean Dipole leads to stronger monsoonal
winds into India. While a negative Indian Ocean Dipole leads to weakening of monsoonal winds
in India.
Question 34 of 100
34 With reference to rainfall patterns in India, consider the following statements:

1. The amount of rainfall decreases from East to West in the Gangetic plains of North India.
2. Both Southern west coast of India and parts of North-Eastern India receive rainfall more than
200 cm per annum.
3. North west India is the only region having winter rains in the country.
 A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: As south west monsoon winds first arrive at Eastern Himalayas (North
East India) from where they turn westwards, the amount of rainfall decreases from east to west
in India. Like, rainfall in West Bengal is more than that in Punjab.
Statement 2 is correct: These two place provide orographic (mountain) barrier to the south-west
monsoon winds at their first arrival, hence, these places witness high amount of annual
precipitation.
Statement 3 is not correct: North west India receives winter rainfall from moisture laiden
Westerlies coming from Mediterranean region. In addition, Coramondal Coast receives winter
rainfall from North-East trade winds that pick up the moisture from Bay of Bengal.
Question 35 of 100
35 With reference to the deciduous forests in India, consider the following statements:
1. These forests constitute the single largest category of forests in India and are also known as
monsoon forest.
2. Mahogany, Ebony and Rosewood are the important tree species found in these forests.
 A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: Because of Indian Monsoon, India generally has deciduous type of forests
where these trees shed their leaves during dry season. Tropical Deciduous Forests are the most
widespread forests of India and are popularly known as Monsoon Forests. These forests grow in
region having seasonal rainfall like Monsoonal Climatic region like Central India, Deccan
Interiors, etc.
Statement 2 is not correct: Deciduous forests have trees like Sal, Teak, Sandalwood, etc while
trees like Mahogany, Ebony, etc are found in evergreen forests.
Question 36 of 100
36 With reference to Indian Agriculture, consider the following statements:

1. In India, more than 80% of net sown area is practicing rainfed agriculture.
2. Rice is a rabi season crop in India, of which India is the largest producer in the world.
3. India is the largest producer as well as the consumer of pulses in the world.
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
 C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is not correct: The share of rainfed agriculture varies from 40% - 50% of net sown
area in India. It is dependent on monsoonal rainfall for irrigation. The spread of irrigation is not
much satisfactory in India.
Statement 2 is not correct: Rice is the staple food crop of a majority of the people in India. Our
country is the second largest producer of rice in the world a�er China. It is a kharif crop which
requires high temperature (above 25°C), and high humidity with annual rainfall above 100 cm. In
the areas of less rainfall, it grows with the help of irrigation.
Statement 3 is correct: India is the largest producer (25% of global production), consumer (27%
of world consumption) and importer (14%) of pulses in the world. Pulses account for around 20
per cent of the area under foodgrains and contribute around 7-10 per cent of the total
foodgrains production in the country. These are the major source of protein in a vegetarian diet.
Major pulses that are grown in India are tur (arhar), urad, moong, masur, peas and gram.
Question 37 of 100
37 With reference to Cotton plantation in India, consider the following statements:

1. Gujarat and Maharashtra are the two leading states in cotton production in India.
2. India contributes around one fourth of the global cotton produce.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
 C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: Gujarat and Maharashtra have ideal conditions like black soil, tropical
climate, cheap labour, market demand, etc which promotes cotton cultivation. Central zone
accounts for about 59% of the total cotton production in India. The main states in the central
zone are Gujarat and Maharashtra where cotton is cultivated as full season crop.
Statement 2 is correct: India has the largest acreage (103.29 lakh.ha) under cotton which
accounts for 33% of the global cotton area. It contributes around 23% of the global cotton
produce.
Question 38 of 100
38 With reference to Soils of India, consider the following statements:

1. Alluvial soil is the single largest category of soils in India.
2. Soil erosion is a dominant problem prevailing in Chambal valley of India.
3. Black soils are in situ soils in India and are spread mostly across interior Gujarat, Maharashtra,
Karnataka, and Madhya Pradesh.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
 D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: Alluvial soils are found all along Indus-Ganga-Bramhaputra plains and
the coastal plains of India. These are the result of sedimentary depositions by rivers. Hence, they
constitute single largest category of soils.
Statement 2 is correct: Due to weak soil cohesion and lack of vegetation, the streams running
here tend to erode the soils rigorously. The entire chambal basin has turned into barren
topography.
Statement 3 is correct: Among the in situ soils of India, the black soils are found in the lava-
covered areas. These soils are o�en referred to as Regur soils or “black cotton soils,” since cotton
has been the most common traditional crop in these areas. Black soils are derivatives of trap
lava and are spread mostly across interior Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Madhya
Pradesh on the Deccan lava plateau and the Malwa Plateau, where there is both moderate
rainfall and underlying basaltic rock.
Question 39 of 100
39 With reference to Islands in India, consider the following statements:

1. Andaman & Nicobar Islands are of coral origin.
2. Sagar island and New Moore island are the continental island detached from mainland.
3. Both Sriharikota island and Wheeler island are located on east coast of India.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
 C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is not correct: Andaman and Nicobar Islands are of tectonic origin formed due to
continent-continent collision. They are actually the extension of Himalayan mountain chains.
(Though we can find some coral banks at these islands.)
Statement 2 is not correct: Both Sagar island and New Moore island are formed due to
deposition of silt and sediments brought by rivers. They are present near the coast of West
Bengal.
Statement 3 is correct: Sriharikota island is located in Pulicat Lake near Andhra-Tamil Nadu
border and Wheeler island is located near Odisha coast. Thus, both are located on east coast of
India.
Question 40 of 100
40 With reference to Sundarbans Delta, consider the following statements:

1. About three-fi�hs of the delta is located in India and the remaining in Bangladesh.
2. These are the single largest deltas found in the world.
3. Royal Bengal Tiger is one of the important species found here.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
 C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Sunderban Deltas are formed due to sedimentation of Ganga, Bramhaputra and their numerous
distributaries. It is found in parts of West Bengal and Bangladesh.
Statement 1 is not correct: The total area of the Sundarbans, including both land and water, is
roughly 3,860 square miles (10,000 square km), about three-fi�hs of which is in Bangladesh.
Statement 2 is correct: Sunderban Deltas are largest in the world because of contribution of two
large international rivers like Ganga and Bramhaputra.
Statement 3 is correct: Species found here are Royal Bengal tiger, Sundari tree, saltwater
crocodiles, northern river terrapin, etc.
Question 41 of 100
41. India has a “2 plus 2 dialogue” engagement to the level of Foreign and Defence Ministers with
which of the following countries?
1. Bhutan
2. Russia
3. Australia
4. Japan
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
 C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
Recently, the first ever virtual bilateral summit was held between Prime Ministers of India and
Australia. Both the countries elevated the bilateral Strategic Partnership to Comprehensive
Strategic Partnership. They also elevated the “2+2” engagement to the level of Foreign and
Defence Ministers (from secretary level), where strategic discussions will be taking place every
two years. India already has such mechanism with USA and Japan.
Question 42 of 100
42. With reference to the UN Security Council (UNSC), consider the following statements:
1. Currently, India is serving as the non-permanent member of the UNSC.
2. The UNSC is composed of 20 Members: Five permanent members and fi�een non-permanent
members.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The United Nations Charter established six main organs of the United Nations, including the
United Nations Security Council (UNSC). Article 23 of the UN Charter concerns the composition
of the UNSC. The UNSC has been given primary responsibility for maintaining international
peace and security.
Statement 1 is not correct: The current non-permanent members of the Security Council are
Belgium, Dominican Republic, Germany, Indonesia, and South Africa, all of whose terms end this
year; and Estonia, Niger, Saint Vincent and the Grenadines, Tunisia, and Vietnam, whose terms
end in 2021.
India begins its term at the beginning of 2021 and will hold the position until the end of 2022.
Statement 2 is not correct: The UNSC is composed of 15 Members: Five permanent members:
China, France, the Russian Federation, the United Kingdom, and the United States and Ten non-
permanent members elected for two-year terms by the General Assembly.
Question 43 of 100
43. Which of the following terms best describes the term “monetization of fiscal deficits” in
India?
The funds that governments generate directly from the market to finance its fiscal
A.
deficits.
The monetary support the international institutions like IMF and World Bank extend to
B.
the Centre as part of the government’s borrowing programme.
The monetary support the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) extends to the Centre as part of
 C.
the government’s borrowing programme.
D. None of the above
Explanation :
In context of rising deficit, a number of economists have suggested that the government should
monetize the deficit.
Monetised deficit is the monetary support the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) extends to the Centre
as part of the government’s borrowing programme. In other words, the term refers to the
purchase of government bonds by the central bank to finance the spending needs of the
government.
Also known as debt monetisation, the exercise leads to an increase in total money supply in the
system, and hence inflation, as RBI creates fresh money to purchase the bonds. The same bonds
are later used to bring down inflation as they are sold in the open market. This helps RBI suck
excess money out of the market and rein in rising prices.
Question 44 of 100
44. Which of the following entities is/are covered under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code
(IBC)?
1. Individuals
2. Companies
3. Limited Liability Partnerships
4. Partnership firms
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
Recently, an ordinance was approved to amend the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) so as
to provide relief for corporates as the pandemic and subsequent lockdown had significantly
impacted economic activities. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) covers all individuals,
companies, Limited Liability Partnerships (LLPs) and partnership firms.
It provides for a time-bound process to resolve insolvency. The Code creates various institutions
to facilitate resolution of insolvency. These are as follows: National Company Law Tribunal
(NCLT) for companies and LLPs and Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT) for individuals and
partnership firms.
Question 45 of 100
45. President recently promulgated the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Ordinance 2020 with
the objective of:
To increase the powers of RBI with respect to monitoring of Commercial Banks in

A.
India.
To provide for increased disclosure norms of Commercial and Cooperative banks in

B.
India.
To bring Securities Markets in India under the direct supervision of Reserve Bank of
C.
India (RBI).
To bring all the Urban Cooperative Banks (UCB) and Multi State Cooperative Banks
 D.
under the direct supervision of Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
Explanation :
President recently promulgated the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Ordinance 2020. The
Ordinance seeks to amend the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (Act), which regulates the
functioning of banks and provides details on various aspects such as licensing, management,
and operations of banks.
It aims to bring all the Urban Cooperative Banks (UCB) and Multi State Cooperative Banks under
the direct supervision of Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
Additional Information: Co-operative banks are financial entities established on a co-operative
basis and belonging to their members. This means that the customers of a co-operative bank are
also its owners.
Question 46 of 100
46. With reference to Payments Infrastructure Development Fund (PIDF), consider the following
statements:
1. It will encourage acquirers to deploy Point of Sale (PoS) infrastructure in tier-3 to tier-6 centres
and in the north eastern states.
2. The Central and State Governments would be contributing to the fund on equal basis.
3. The PIDF will be managed and administered by the SEBI.
A. 1 and 2 only
 B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has announced setting up of a Payments
Infrastructure Development Fund (PIDF) which will encourage acquirers to deploy Point of Sale
(PoS) infrastructure in tier-3 to tier-6 centres and in the north eastern states.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Reserve Bank will make an initial contribution of 250 crores to
the PIDF covering half the fund and remaining contribution will be from card issuing banks and
card networks operating in the country. The PIDF will also receive recurring contributions to
cover operational expenses from card issuing banks and card networks. The Reserve Bank will
also contribute to yearly shortfalls, if necessary.
Statement 3 is not correct: The PIDF will be managed and administered by the RBI and governed
by an advisory council.
Question 47 of 100
47. With reference to the Bilateral investment treaties (BITs), consider the following statements:
1. Bilateral investment treaties (BITs) have been an important reason for FDI inflows into India.
2. India signed the first BITs in 2018 with the United Kingdom (UK).
 A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: Bilateral investment treaties (BITs) are treaties between two countries
aimed at protecting investments made by investors of both countries. These treaties impose
conditions on the regulatory behaviour of the host state and limit interference with the rights of
the foreign investor. BITs have been one the major drivers of FDI inflows into India.
Statement 2 is not correct: India started signing BITs in early 1990s and signed the first BIT with
the United Kingdom (UK) in 1994, since then India has signed BITs with 84 countries.
Question 48 of 100
48. Recently, new Purchasing Power Parities (PPPs) for reference year 2017 were released under
International Comparison Program (ICP). The ICP is an initiative that is managed by:
A. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
 B. World Bank
C. World Economic Forum (WEF)
D. Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)
Explanation :
Recently, World Bank released new Purchasing Power Parities (PPPs) for reference year 2017
under its International Comparison Program (ICP). ICP is worldwide data-collection initiative
that is managed by World Bank under auspices of UN Statistical Commission. The main
objective of the ICP is to produce comparable volume measures of GDP and its expenditure
components based on Purchasing Power Parities (PPPs).
India has participated in ICP rounds since its inception in 1970. Ministry of Statistics and
Programme Implementation is National Implementing Agency for ICP in India.
Question 49 of 100
49. World Investment Report is released by which of the following?
A. World Bank
B. World Economic Forum
C. Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development
 D. United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
Explanation :
The World Investment Report released by UNCTAD, focuses on trends in foreign direct
investment (FDI) worldwide, at the regional and country levels and emerging measures to
improve its contribution to development.
As per the report FDI flows to South Asia increased by 10% to $57 billion. The rise was driven
largely by a 20% increase in investment in India, the largest South Asian FDI recipient, to $51
billion. India jumped from 12th position in 2018 to 9th in 2019 on the list of the World’s top FDI
recipients.
Question 50 of 100
50. Skeletal remains of a child were excavated from Konthagai village as a part of the sixth phase
of ongoing excavations in the ancient site of Keeladi. This Keeladi site is located in which of the
following state?
 A. Tamil Nadu
B. Kerala
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Haryana
Explanation :
Keeladi excavation site is a Sangam period residence located near the town of Keeladi in
Sivagangai district, Tamil Nadu. The skeleton was found buried between two terracotta urns.
Excavations are currently taking place at Keeladi, Konthagai, Manalur and Agaram villages in
Sivaganga district. Konthagai village, located around 2 km from Keeladi, is believed to be a
burial site. Significance of this site is that it proves that an urban civilisation existed in Tamil
Nadu in the Sangam era on the banks of the river Vaigai. It may provide a crucial link between
the Iron Age [12th century BCE to 6th century BCE] and the Early Historic Period [6th century
BCE to 4th century BCE] and subsequent cultural developments.
Question 51 of 100
51. Which of the following are in correct chronological order from first to last?
1. Dandi March
2. Simon commission
3. Poona Pact
4. Gandhi- Irwin Pact
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
A. 2, 1, 3, 4
 B. 2, 1, 4, 3
C. 4, 3, 1, 2
D. 4, 3, 2, 1
Explanation :
• Simon commission came in 1928 to explore the possibility of further constitutional advance.
This was boycotted by Indians because no Indian represented in the com-mission.
• Poona Pact, an agreement between Dr Babasaheb Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi was signed
84 years ago on September 24, 1932. The agreement was signed by Pt Madan Mohan Malviya
and Dr B. R. Ambedkar and some Dalit leaders at Yerwada Central Jail in Pune, to break
Mahatma Gandhi's fast unto death.
• Salt March, also called Dandi March or the Salt Satyagraha, major nonviolent protest action led
by Gandhi in March–April 1930. The march was the first act in an even-larger campaign of civil
disobedience (satyagraha) Gandhi waged against British rule in India that extended into early
1931 and garnered Gandhi widespread support among the Indian populace and considerable
worldwide attention.
• Gandhi-Irwin Pact, an agreement signed on March 5, 1931, between Gandhi and Lord Irwin. It
marked the end of a period of Civil disobedience (satyagraha) against Brit-ish rule that Gandhi
and his followers had initiated with the Salt March (March–April 1930)
Question 52 of 100
52. With reference to the Self-Respect Movement in pre independent India, consider the
following statements:
1 It was started by C. N. Annadurai in Tamil Nadu.
2. Its objective was to get jobs and representation in the legislatures for the non-brahmins.
3. The movement was extremely influential in countries like Malaysia and Singapore also.
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
 C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is not correct: E.V. Ramaswamy laid the foundation of a dynamic social movement
that has come to be styled as the Self-Respect Movement. It was not a mere social reformist
movement. It aimed at destroying the existing Hindu social order in its totality and creating a
new, rational society without caste, religion and God. So it was considered a socially
revolutionary movement which had been destroying and creating, i.e., creative destruction or
creation through destruction.
Statement 2 is not correct: It was a non-Brahmin movement in south India and it was in favor of
popularizing tamil language and culture instead of sanskrit which was prevalent in the society.
The objective mentioned in the question is wrong as it had nothing to do with legislature and
jobs.
Statement 3 is correct: A large Tamil population was residing in Malaysia and Singapore at that
time and the movement had a wide base in dravidian belt and hence it was influential in these
countries also.
Question 53 of 100
53. During the 2nd World War, British government came forward with the August O�er. Which of
the following was/were the components of August O�er?
1. Self-government as the objective for India.
2. Setting up of a Constituent Assembly a�er the war.
3. Viceroy’s Executive Council would be expanded without delay.
4. Indians would decide the Constitution according to their social, economic and political
conceptions.
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
 C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
Statement 1 is not correct: Dominion status (and not Self-government) for India was one of the
proposals under the August o�er.
Statements 2 and 4 are correct: Setting up of a Constituent Assembly a�er the war in which
mainly Indians would decide the Constitution according to their social, economic and political
conceptions subject to fulfillment of the obligation of the government regarding defence,
minority rights, treaties with states and All India Services.
Statement 3 is correct: The Viceroy’s Executive Council would be expanded right away to include
for the first time more Indians than whites. However, defence, finance and home portfolios were
to remain with the British.
Question 54 of 100
54. Which of the following events of 1914 a�ected the course of the Ghadar Movement?
1. The arrest and escape of Rash Behari Bose.
2. The Komagata Maru incident.
3. Outbreak of the first World War.
A. 1 and 2 only
 B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 not correct: In 1914, the Ghadar Movement was influenced by the arrest of Lala har
Dayal not Rash Behari Bose.
Statement 2 is correct: the Ghadar Movement was also influenced by the Komagata Maru
Incident as it hurt the sentiments of overseas Indians.
Statement 3 is correct: The most important development that made the Ghadra Revolution
imminent was the outbreak of world war I.
Question 55 of 100
55. Which of the following can be attributed to the factors which led to growth of Militant
Nationalism?
1. Growth of self-confidence and self-respect among youth.
2. Increased rate of unemployment.
3. Reactionary Policies of Curzon
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
 D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Factors which led to growth of militant nationalism included;

Self-confidence, self-reliance (atma shakti) and self-respect increased among youth.
Increase in awareness because of education and increase in rate of unemployment as there were
not enough jobs for the educated Indians.
Reaction to increasing westernisation.
Administrative measures adopted during his rule—the O�icial Secrets Act, the Indian
Universities Act, the Calcutta Corporation Act and, above all, the partition of Bengal—le� no
doubts in Indian minds about the basically reactionary nature of British rule in India.
Dissatisfaction with the achievements of moderates as petitions and memorials were not
making any big change.
Question 56 of 100
56. With reference to upli�ment of dalits during pre-independence era, consider the following
statements:
1. All India Harijan Sevak Sangh started numerous schools for the Harijan including residential
vocational schools.
2. The first upper-caste temple to openly welcome dalits was the Laxminarayan temple in
Wardha.
3. Ramosi Revolt was launched to allow dalits to live in upper caste localities.
 A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: All India Harijan Sevak Sangh founded by Mahatma Gandhi in 1923
started numerous schools for the Harijan including residential vocational schools.
Statement 2 is correct: The first upper caste temple to openly welcome Dalits was the
Laxminarayan Temple in Wardha.
Statement 3 is not correct: The Ramosi revolt was of the Ramosi tribe in western Ghats who
raised against British rule and plundered the country around Satara.
Question 57 of 100
57. With reference to the Kaiser-i-Hind title, consider the following statements:
1. Gandhi was awarded the Kaiser-i-Hind in 1915.
2. It was awarded to Mahatma Gandhi for his contribution to ambulance services during World
War I.
3. Gandhi returned the medal in 1920 in support of the Khilafat Movement
A. 1 and 2 only
 B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: Mahatma Gandhi got the Kaiser-i-Hind in 1915.

Statement 2 is not correct: Lord Hardinge awarded Gandhi ji with title of Kaiser-i-Hind for his
ambulance corps in Zulu War and Boer War not in World War I.
Statement 3 is correct: Mahatma Gandhi returned this title in protest against the Jaliawala Bagh
massacre and in support of the Khilafat Movement. The reason was stated in his letter addressed
to Lord Chelmsfod in 1920. He was very saddened by the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
Question 58 of 100
58. Which among the following was/were the reasons for the rise of extremism during the
Swadeshi movement?
1. Emergence of a trained leadership.
2. Indian Famine of 1896-97.
3. Loss of Russian Empire in Crimean war.
4. Deportation of Natu brothers without trial.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
 B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation :
Reasons for rise of extremism during Swadeshi Movement were many such as:
Statement 1 is correct: Emergence of trained leadership in the form of Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Lala
Lajpat Rai and Aurbindo Ghosh etc.
Statement 2 is correct: The famine and plague of 1896-97 was eye opening for the exploitative
policy for British which degraded the economic condition of people.
Statement 3 is not correct: The defeat of the Italian army by Ethiopians (1896), the Boer wars
(1899- 1902) where the British faced reverses and Japan’s victory over Russia (1905) demolished
myths of European invincibility. Defeat of Russian Empire in Crimean War was the reason for the
rise of militant activities during the 1857 freedom struggle and not during the Swadeshi
Movement.
Statement 4 is correct: Recognition of true nature of British rule and their repressive policy. The
Natu brothers were deported without trial and Tilak and others imprisoned on charges of
sedition.
Question 59 of 100
59. Which of the following was/were founded by Mahatma Gandhi?

1. Harijan Sevak Sangh
2. Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association
3. All India Khilafat Committee
 A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Harijan Sevak Sangh: is a non-profit organisation founded by Mahatma Gandhi in 1932 to

eradicate untouchability in India, working for Harijan or Dalit people and upli�ment of
Depressed Class of India.
Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association: Anasuya Sarabhai was a social and labour activist. She
founded the Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association in 1920.
All India Khilafat Committee: Initially the Khilafat movement had two broad trends: a moderate
trend headed by the Bombay merchants and a radical trend led by the younger Muslim leaders,
like Muhammad Ali, Shaukat Ali, Maulana Azad and the ulema. The former group preferred to
proceed through the familiar constitutional path of sending a delegation to the viceroy or
ensuring Muslim representation in the Paris Peace Conference. The latter group on the other
hand, wanted a mass agitation against the British on the basis of unity with the Hindus.
Question 60 of 100
60. Which of the following was/were the movements initiated against the socio-religious reform
movements during British India?
1. Bharat Dharma Mahamandala
2. The Deoband School
3. Ahmadiya Movement
A. 1 only
 B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Bharat Dharma Mahamandala: An all India Organisation of the orthodox educated Hindus. It
stood for a defence of Orthodox Hinduism against teachings of Arya samajist, the theosophist,
and the RamKrishna Mission.
Deoband School: It was organised by orthodox section among muslim ulema as a revivalist
movement.
Ahmadiyya Movement: This movement was started by Mirza Gulam Ahmed in 1889 in order to
spread western education among Indian Muslims. The movement was based on liberal
principles, just like Brahma Samaj.
Question 61 of 100
61.Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Public safety Bill, 1928’:
1. The British government proposed the Bill to acquire the power to deport ‘undesirable’
foreigners.
2. The Indian Capitalist class gave their support in favour of the Bill.
3. The Swarajists failed in defeating the Bill in the legislature.
 A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: Frightened by the spread of the socialist and communist ideas and

influence and believing that the crucial role in this respect was being played by British and other
foreign agitators sent to India by the Communist International, the British government proposed
the Bill to acquire the power to deport ‘undesirable’ and ‘subversive’ foreigners.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Indian Capitalist class opposed the Bill. Even the two
spokesmen of the capitalist class, Purshottamdas Thakurdas and G. D Birla, firmly opposed the
Bill.
Statement 3 is not correct: The Swarajists were successful in defeating the Bill in the
legislature by passing adjournment motion.
Question 62 of 100
62. With reference to 1916 Lucknow session of Indian National Congress, consider the following
statements:
1. It was presided over by A.C Majumdar.
2. It marked the re-union of the Moderate and Extremist leaders.
3. Congress- Muslim League Pact providing for a united scheme of constitutional reforms was
also accepted at the session.
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
 D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: The Lucknow Session 1916 was presided over by Ambica Charan Majum-
dar.
Statement 2 is correct: The Lucknow session 1916 of the Congress marked the re-union of the
Moderate and Extremist parties which had got separated a�er the Surat Split (1907).
Statement 3 is correct: Another noteworthy development was the Congress League Pact (1916)
for acceptance of a united scheme of constitutional reform. The resultant e�orts produced the
Con-gress League Scheme and the ‘Nineteen Memorandum’ to give concrete shape to political
thinking in the country.
Question 63 of 100
63. Consider the following leaders of India’s Freedom Struggle:

1. C.R. Das
2. Lala Lajpat Rai
3. C. Rajagopalachari
4. Motilal Nehru
Which of the above leaders were the members of Swaraj Party?
 A. 1, 2 and 4only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
Swaraj Party was formed by C.R Das along with Lala Lajpat Rai and Motilalal Nehru. The party’s
primary goal was to contest the elections to the new Central Legislative Assembly in 1923 and,
once in o�ice, to disrupt o�icial policy and derail the British government in India by anti-
government agitation within the council chambers.
Question 64 of 100
64. Consider the following pairs:
Publications — Persons associated with it
1. Bengalee — Surendranath Banerjea
2. Mahratta — Bal Gangadhar Tilak
3. Al Hilal — Syed Ahmed Khan
4. Amrita Bazar Patrika — Anand Mohan Bose
 A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
Pair 1 is correct: Bengalee was published under Surendranath Banerjea.

Pair 2 is correct: Kesari and Mahratta were published under B.G. Tilak.
Pair 3 is not correct: Maulana Abul Kalam Azad propagated his ideas through his newspaper Al
Hilal.
Pair 4 is not correct: Amrita Bazar Patrika was published under Sisir Kumar Ghosh and Motilal
Ghosh.
Question 65 of 100

1. S.N. Banerjee — Essays in Indian Economics
2. Dadabhai Naoroji — Indian Poverty and un-British Rule in India
3. M.G. Ranade — Economic History of India
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
A. 1 and 2 only
 B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Pair 1 is not correctly matched: M.G. Ranade: Essays in Indian Economics.

Pair 2 is correctly matched: Dadabhai Naoroji: Indian Poverty and un-British Rule in India.
Pair 3 is not correctly matched: R.C. Dutt: Economic History of India.
Scholarly writings of nationalist leaders lead to the economic critique of the British empire in
India and lead to the recognition of the true Nature of British rule.
Question 66 of 100
66. Which of the following events took place during the tenure of Lord Curzon?
1. Passage of Indian Universities Act (1904).
2. Appointment of Famine Commission under presidency of Sir Anthony Macdonnell.
3. Appointment of Irrigation Commission under chairmanship of Sir Colin Scott Moncrie�.
4. Passage of the Calcutta Corporation Act, 1899.
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: Indian Universities Act (1904) was passed under Lord Curzon which
sought to increase o�icial control over universities by limiting the number of fellows and
increas-ing the nominated element over elected fellows.
Statement 2 is correct: A Famine Commission was appointed under the presidency of Sir
Anthony Macdonnell by Lord Curzon to enquire into the results of famine operations.
Statement 3 is correct: In 1901, a Commission was appointed under the chairmanship of Sir
Colin Scott Moncrie� by Lord Curzon. The Commission recommended an additional expenditure
of 4.5 crores of rupees on irrigation spread over 20 years.
Statement 4 is correct: The Calcutta Corporation Act was passed by Lord Curzon to reduce the
strength of elected members, thereby giving the British element a definite majority both on the
Cor-poration and on its various committees.
Question 67 of 100
67. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee’s novel Anandmath is based on which of the following upris-
ing/rebellion?
A. Bhil Uprising
B. Kol Uprising
 C. Sanyasi Rebellion
D. The Mappila Uprising
Explanation :
Anandamath (written in 1882) is based on the Sanyasi Rebellion’ against Mir Jafar, the ruler of
Bengal and the British tax collectors. Displaced peasants and demobilized soldiers of Bengal led
by religious monks and dispossessed zamindars rose up in the Sanyasi rebellion, made famous
by this novel.
Question 68 of 100
68. With reference to the Moderate phase of Indian National Congress, consider the following
statements:
1. During this period the Congress was dominated by the a�luent middle class intelligent-sia.
2. The Moderate leaders generally stood for the maintenance and strengthening of the British
Empire.
3. During this period the Congress demanded a few concessions and not freedom for the nation.
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
 D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: During the Moderate period the Congress was dominated by the a�luent
middle class intelligentsia, men of legal, medical, engineering, literary pursuits and journalists.
Statement 2 is correct: The Moderate leaders stood for the maintenance and strengthening of
the British Empire. This approach was the outcome of their apprehension that anarchy and
disorder would reappear in India if British Government was superseded.
Statement 3 is correct: During this period, the Congress demanded a few concessions and not
freedom for the nation. Most of the Congress leaders of the period believed that the British
people were just, righteous and freedom-loving. They were further convinced that the British
people meant justice to be done to India. If Indians had certain grievances, these were only due
to the reactionary policy of the British bureaucracy in India or ignorance of the British people
about these grievances.
Question 69 of 100
69. With reference to the Madras Mahajana Sabha, consider the following personalities.
1. Sridharalu Naidu
2. K. Kelappan
3. M. Veeraraghavachariar
4. P. Anandacharlu
A. 1 and 2 only
 B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation :
Option c is correct: In 1884, M. Veeraraghavachariar, G. Subramania Iyer and P. Anandacharlu

established the Madras Mahajana Sabha.
Question 70 of 100
70. With reference to Morley-Minto reforms, consider the following statements:

1. It increased the number of elected members in the Imperial Legislative Council.
2. It provided a separate electorate for Muslims.
3. Under the provisions of the reforms, Satyendranath Sinha became the first Indian member to
Governor General Executive Council.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
 D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: The number of elected members in the Imperial Legislative Council and
Provincial Legislative council were increased. The number of members in the Central Legislative
Council was raised from 16 to 60 whereas the number of members in the Provincial Legislative
council was not uniform.
Statement 2 is correct: The Act gave the Muslims representation disproportionate to their
population. This was done on the excuse of the political importance of the Muslim community.
Separate representation was also given to Presidency Corporations, Universities, Chambers of
Commerce, and the Land-holders.
Statement 3 is correct: Satyendra Nath Sinha became the first Indian to join the Viceroy’s
Executive council. He was appointed as the Law Member.
Question 71 of 100
71. Arrange the following ranges from North to South:

1. Karakoram Range
2. Zaskar Range
3. Ladakh Range
A. 1-2-3
B. 2-3-1
 C. 1-3-2
D. 3-2-1
Explanation :
The Karakorams are part of a complex of mountain ranges at the centre of Asia, including the
Hindu Kush to the west, the Pamirs to the northwest, the Kunlun Mountains to the northeast,
and the Himalayas to the southeast. The borders of Tajikistan, China, Pakistan, Afghanistan, and
India all converge within the Karakoram system, giving this remote region great geopolitical
significance.
Ladakh Range, southeastern extension of the Karakoram Range, south-central Asia. The range
extends southeastward from the mouth of the Shyok River in the Northern Areas to the border
with the Tibet Autonomous Region of China. The range parallels the northeast bank of the Indus
River.
Zaskar Range, also spelled Zanskar, group of mountains in the Himalayas, south-central Asia, of
northern India and the western Tibet Autonomous Region of China. They extend southeastward
from the Karcha (Suru) River to the upper Karnali River. Kamet Peak (25,446 feet [7,756 metres])
is the highest point, and the most important passes are Shipki, Lipu Lekh (Lipulieke), and Mana.
Question 72 of 100
72. Arrange the following on Geological Time Scale in descending order of duration starting from
Big Bang:
1. Era
2. Epoch
3. Period
4. Eons
Select the correct order using the code given below:
A. 4-2-3-1
B. 2-3-1-4
 C. 4-1-3-2
D. 1-4-2-3
Explanation :
The geological time scale is the calendar for events in Earth history. It subdivides all time into
named units of abstract time called—in descending order of duration—eons, eras, periods,
epochs, and ages. The enumeration of those geologic time units is based on stratigraphy, which
is the correlation and classification of rock strata. The fossil forms that occur in the rocks provide
the chief means of establishing a geologic time scale.
Question 73 of 100
73. With reference to the October heat, consider the following statements:
1. It is a period of transition from hot rainy season to dry winter conditions.
2. Retreat of monsoon from northern India is one of the reasons of October heat.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
 C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Statement 1 and 2 are correct: During October-November, with the apparent movement of the
Sun towards the south, the monsoon trough or the low-pressure trough over the northern plains
becomes weaker. This is gradually replaced by a high-pressure system. The south-west monsoon
winds weaken and start withdrawing gradually. By the beginning of October, the monsoon
withdraws from the Northern Plains. The retreat of the monsoon is marked by clear skies and
rise in temperature. The months of October-November form a period of transition from hot rainy
season to dry winter conditions. While day temperatures are high, nights are cool and pleasant.
The land is still moist. Owing to the conditions of high temperature and humidity, the weather
becomes rather oppressive during the day. This is commonly known as ‘October heat’. In the
second half of October, the mercury begins to fall rapidly in northern India.
Question 74 of 100
74. With reference to the structure of Earth, consider the following statements:
1. Crust is brittle in nature and continental crust is thicker than oceanic crust.
2. The Mantle extends from Moho’s discontinuity to a depth of 2,900 km.
3. The upper portion of the Mantle is called Asthenosphere.
4. The outer Core is in solid state while the inner Core is in liquid state.
 A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: Crust is the outermost solid part of the earth. It is brittle in nature. The
thickness of the crust varies under the oceanic and continental areas. Oceanic crust is thinner as
compared to the continental crust. It is made up of heavier rocks having density of 3 g/cm3. This
type of rock found in the oceanic crust is basalt. The mean density of material in oceanic crust is
2.7 g/cm3.
Statement 2 and 3 are correct: The portion of the interior beyond the crust is called the mantle.
The mantle extends from Moho’s discontinuity to a depth of 2,900 km. The upper portion of the
mantle is called asthenosphere. The word astheno means weak. It is considered to be extending
upto 400 km. It is the main source of magma that finds its way to the surface during volcanic
eruptions.
Statement 4 is not correct: The outer core is in liquid state while the inner core is in solid state.
The earthquake wave velocities helped in understanding the existence of the core of the earth.
The core is made up of very heavy material mostly constituted by nickel and iron. It is sometimes
referred to as the nife layer.
Question 75 of 100
75. With reference to the Abyssal Plains, consider the following statements:
1. These lie between the continental margins and mid-oceanic ridges.
2. These are the areas where the continental sediments that move beyond the margins get
deposited.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
 C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Statement 1 and 2 are correct: Abyssal plains are extensive plains that lie between the
continental margins and mid-oceanic ridges. The abyssal plains are the areas where the
continental sediments that move beyond the margins get deposited.
Question 76 of 100
76. Which of the following state does not have border with Bangladesh?
A. Assam
B. Meghalaya
 C. Manipur
D. Tripura
Explanation :
Manipur is bordered by the Indian states of Nagaland to the north, Assam to the west, and
Mizoram to the southwest and by Myanmar (Burma) to the south and east.
Assam, Meghalaya and Tripura border Bangladesh.
Question 77 of 100
77. With reference to Reunion Islands, consider the following statements:

1. These are French territory in Indian Ocean near Madagascar.
2. Deccan Traps in India are formed due to an eruption associated with a plume that now lies
directly below Reunion Island.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
 C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: Reunion Island (in French, La Reunion) is a multicultural society

composed of people originally from France, Mozambique, India, China, Madagascar, and the
Comores. Reunion Island lies in the Indian Ocean, o� the eastern coast of Madagascar. At 970
square miles, (2,512 square kilometers), it is the largest of the Mascarene islands.
Statement 2 is correct: Deccan Traps are very large igneous province located in west central
India. Studies have suggested it came about due to an eruption associated with a plume that
now lies directly below Reunion Island in the Indian Ocean, about 66 million years ago. The
eruption event that led to the creation of Deccan Traps also has historical significance as most
scientists believe it contributed to the decline of the dinosaurs by blocking sunlight and causing
global temperatures to drop before an asteroid struck the planet, wiping them out altogether.
Question 78 of 100
78. With reference to di�erent types of cloud, consider the following statements:
1. Cirrus are thin and detatched white clouds.
2. Cumulus clouds exist in patches and they have a flat base.
3. Stratus clouds are generally formed due to mixing of air masses of di�erent temperatures.
4. Nimbus clouds are shapeless masses of thin vapour which are formed at very high altitudes
only.
 A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: Cirrus clouds are formed at high altitudes (8,000 - 12,000m). They are thin
and detatched clouds having a feathery appearance. They are always white in colour.
Statement 2 is correct: Cumulus clouds look like cotton wool. They are generally formed at a
height of 4,000 - 7,000 m. They exist in patches and can be seen scattered here and there. They
have a flat base.
Statement 3 is correct: Stratus are layered clouds covering large portions of the sky. These
clouds are generally formed either due to loss of heat or the mixing of air masses with di�erent
temperatures.
Statement 4 is not correct: Nimbus clouds are black or dark gray. They form at middle levels or
very near to the surface of the earth. These are extremely dense and opaque to the rays of the
sun. Sometimes, the clouds are so low that they seem to touch the ground. Nimbus clouds are
shapeless masses of thick vapour.
Question 79 of 100
79. With reference to fog and mist, consider the following statements:
1. Mist contains more moisture than the fog.
2. In mist, each nuclei contains a thicker layer of moisture.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
 C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Statement 1 and 2 are correct: The only di�erence between the mist and fog is that mist contains
more moisture than the fog. In mist, each nuceli contains a thicker layer of moisture. Mists are
frequent over mountains as the rising warm air up the slopes meets a cold surface. Fogs are drier
than mist and they are prevalent where warm currents of air come in contact with cold currents.
Fogs are mini clouds in which condensation takes place around nuclei provided by the dust,
smoke, and the salt particles.
Question 80 of 100
80. When the lava makes its way through cracks and the fissures developed in the land, it
solidifies almost perpendicular to the ground. It gets cooled in the same position to develop a
wall-like structure. Such structures are called:
A. Sill
B. Stock
 C. Dykes
D. Conduit
Explanation :
When the lava makes its way through cracks and the fissures developed in the land, it solidifies
almost perpendicular to the ground. It gets cooled in the same position to develop a wall-like
structure. Such structures are called dykes. These are the most commonly found intrusive forms
in the western Maharashtra area. These are considered the feeders for the eruptions that led to
the development of the Deccan traps.
Question 81 of 100
81. With reference to the celestial bodies in our Solar System, consider the following statements:
1. Asteroids revolve around the Sun whereas meteoroids and comets revolve around the
planets.
2. Asteroids are generally larger in size as compared to meteoroids.
3. Comets consist of ice, dust and rocky particles.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
 C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is not correct: Asteroids, Comets and Meteoroids all revolve around the Sun.
Statement 2 is correct: Generally, a celestial body bigger than 10 m orbiting the Sun is called an
Asteroid. However, bodies similar to an asteroid, but significantly smaller (less than 10 meter)
consisting mostly the debris of comets, or that of asteroids is called as Meteoroid.
Statement 3 is correct: Asteroids are rocky bodies orbiting around the Sun. Comets are objects
composed mostly of ice and dust that grow tails when they approach the sun. All comets have a
nucleus, which is the hard rock/ice object.
Question 82 of 100
82. In which of the following layers of the Earth’s atmosphere generally the temperature
decreases as the height increases?
1. Troposphere
2. Mesosphere
3. Thermosphere
4. Stratosphere
 A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 3 and 4 only
Explanation :
Atmosphere consists of di�erent layers with varying density and temperature. The column of
atmosphere is generally divided into five di�erent layers depending upon the temperature
conditions.
These are: Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere and Exosphere.
Troposphere: It is the lowermost layer of atmosphere (average height 13 km). The temperature
in this layer decreases at the rate of 1 degree Celsius for every 165m increase in height.
Stratosphere: It lies above tropo-pause and extends up to the height of 50km. Generally,
temperature in this layer increases with increase in height.
Mesosphere: It lies above stratosphere and extends upto a height of 80 km. In this layer
temperature starts decreasing with increase in altitude.
Thermosphere: It is located between 80 and 400 km above the mesopause. Temperature in this
layer starts increasing with height. This layer is also called as Ionosphere.
Question 83 of 100
83. With reference to the Coriolis Force, consider the following statements:
1. It deflects the wind to their right direction in the northern hemisphere.
2. Higher the Pressure Gradient Force, lesser will be the e�ect of Coriolis Force.
3. Coriolis Force is inversely proportional to the angle of latitude.
 A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: The rotation of Earth around its axis a�ects the direction of winds. This
force is called Coriolis force. The wind gets deflected to the right direction in the northern
hemisphere and to the le� in the southern hemisphere. The deflection is more when the wind
velocity is high.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the pressure gradient force.
The pressure gradient force is perpendicular to the Isobar. The higher the pressure gradient
force, the more is the velocity of wind and higher will be the deflection in the direction of wind.
Hence, Coriolis force will be higher.
Statement 3 is not correct: The Coriolis force is directly proportional to the angle of latitude. It is
maximum at the poles and absent at the equator.
Question 84 of 100

1. Duncan Passage — Middle and Little Andaman
2. Coco Channel — Little and Great Nicobar
3. St. George’s Channel — North Andaman and Middle Andaman
Which of the pairs given above is/are not correctly matched?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
 D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is not correct: Duncan Passage is a strait in the Indian Ocean. It is about 48 km wide
and it separates Rutland Island to the north, and Little Andaman to the south.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Coco channel, part of the Andaman and Nicobar Ridge and the
Asian continental shelf, separates Myanmar’s Coco Islands from India’s Andaman Islands.
Statement 3 is not correct: St George’s Channel is a sea channel connecting the Irish Sea to the
north and the Celtic Sea to the southwest.
Question 85 of 100
85. Arrange the following state capitals from South to North.

1. Raipur
2. Kolkata
3. Ranchi
4. Bhubaneshwar
 A. 4-1-2-3
B. 4-3-1-2
C. 2-1-4-3
D. 3-4-1-2
Explanation :
Moving from South to North Bhubaneswar-Raipur-Kolkata-Ranchi.
Question 86 of 100
86. Consider the following passes:

1. Nathu la
2. Jelep La
3. Zoji la
Which of these passes are located in the state of Sikkim?
 A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
Explanation :
Nathu La is located in Sikkim: It is located in the Himalayas at the India-China Border in Sikkim.
The Pass, at 4310m above sea level, forms the part of o�shoot of the ancient silk road.
Jelep La is located in Sikkim: This pass located in Eastern Himalayas connects Sikkim with Lhasa
in Tibet. It passes through Chumbi valley.
Zoji La is located in Jammu and kashmir: It is located in Zanskar range at an altitude of 3850 m
above sea level, it joins Srinagar with Kargil and Leh.
Question 87 of 100
87. The Siliguri Corridor, popularly known as ‘India’s Chicken Neck’ connects which of the
following states of India?
A. Meghalaya — West Bengal
 B. Sikkim — West Bengal
C. Assam — Meghalaya
D. Bihar — West Bengal
Explanation :
Chicken’s Neck refers to the Siliguri Corridor, a narrow strip of land, which has several vital
installations around it. It is narrow strip of land connecting Sikkim and West Bengal.
Question 88 of 100

Rivers — Tributaries
1. Mahanadi — Manjira
2. Narmada — Hiran
3. Godavari — Seonath
A. 1 and 2 only
 B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Pair 1 is not correctly matched: The Penganga, the Indravati, the Pranhita, and the Manjra are
principal tributaries of River Godavari and not Mahanadi.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Hiran is the only major tributary of Narmada that joins on right bank.
Pair 3 is not correctly matched: Seonath is the le� bank tributary of Mahanadi not Godavari.
Question 89 of 100
89. With reference to the cyclones, consider the following statements:

1. The tropical cyclones a�ect a much larger area compared to extra tropical cyclones.
2. The wind velocity in tropical cyclones is much higher than that in extra tropical cyclones.
3. The tropical cyclones generally move from east to west but extra tropical cyclone moves from
west to east.
A. 1 and 2 only
 B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is not correct: Extra Tropical cyclones cover a larger area and can originate over the
land and sea, whereas Tropical cyclones originate only over the seas and on reaching land they
dissipate.
Statement 2 is correct: The wind velocity in Tropical cyclones is much higher than that in Extra
Tropical cyclones and thus tropical cyclones are more destructive.
Statement 3 is correct: The Extra Tropical cyclones move from west to east but Tropical cyclones
move from east to west.
Question 90 of 100
90. Which of the following can be considered as forms of precipitation?

1. Hail
2. Sleet
3. Dew
4. Mist
5. Frost
A. 1, 4 and 5 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
 C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Explanation :
The transformation of water vapour into water is called condensation. A�er condensation the
water vapour or moisture in the air takes one of the following forms- Dew, Frost, Fog, Mist and
Clouds. The process of continuous condensation in the free air helps the condensed particles to
grow. When the resistance of the air fails to hold them against the force of gravity, they fall on
the earth’s surface. So a�er condensation of water vapour the release of moisture is known as
precipitation. Di�erent forms of precipitation are- Rain, Snow, Hail, Sleet and Drizzle.
Question 91 of 100
91. With reference to the Indian Gas Exchange (IGX), consider the following statements:
1. It is India’s first gas exchange which is launched as a wholly owned subsidiary of Indian Energy
Exchange.
2. The price of domestically produced natural gas will be decided at the exchange.
 A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: India’s first gas exchange — the Indian Gas Exchange (IGX) — was
launched recently as wholly owned subsidiary of Indian Energy Exchange. It is a digital trading
platform that will allow buyers and sellers of natural gas to trade both in the spot market and in
the forward market for imported natural gas across three hubs —Dahej and Hazira in Gujarat,
and Ka-kinada in Andhra Pradesh.
Statement 2 is not correct: Imported Liquified Natural Gas (LNG) will be regassified and sold to
buyers through the exchange, removing the requirement for buyers and sellers to find each
other. The price of domestically produced natural gas is decided by the government and it will
not be sold on the gas exchange.
Question 92 of 100
92. With reference to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF), consider the following statements:
1. It is an intergovernmental organisation established under the aegis of the United Nations.
2. None of the countries black listed as of now.
3. Putting a country in “grey list” involves a direct penal action against the country.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
 D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is not correct: It is an inter-governmental body established in 1989 during the G7

Summit in Paris.
Statement 2 is not correct: There are only two countries on the FATF’s blacklist - North Korea and
Iran.
Statement 2 is not correct: Putting a country in “grey list” does not involve a direct le-gal or
penal action but involves increased scrutiny from watch dogs, regulators and finan-cial
institutions.
Question 93 of 100
93. The report titled ‘Assessment of Climate Change over the Indian Region’ was released
recently by:
 A. Ministry of Earth Sciences
B. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
C. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)
D. The Energy and Resource Institute (TERI)
Explanation :
The Ministry of Earth Sciences’ (MoES) released a report titled ‘Assessment of Climate Change
over the Indian Region’. It is a first ever attempt to document and assess climate change in
di�erent parts of India. • The report highlights the observed and projected changes in various
climatic di-mensions over the Indian region, their impacts and various policy actions to deal
with the regional climate change.
Question 94 of 100
94. Which of the following is the objective of the Seabed 2030 project?
A. Promoting e�icient utilization of Seabed resources.
Controlling the bottom trawling that destroys far more ocean habitat than any oth-er
B.
fishing practice
To bring together all available bathymetric data to produce the definitive map of the
 C.
world ocean floor
D. None of the above.
Explanation :
Recently, researchers under Seabed 2030 project had finished mapping nearly one-fi�h of the
world’s ocean floor. It is a collaborative project between the Nippon Foundation of Japan and
the General Bathymetric Chart of the Oceans (GEBCO). It aims to bring together all available
bathy-metric data to produce the definitive map of the world ocean floor by 2030 and make it
available to all.
Question 95 of 100
95. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with respect to Indian Gaur (Indian bison)?
1. It is native to South Asia and Southeast Asia.
2. It is listed as Critically Endangered under IUCN Red List.
3. The domesticated form of the Gaur is called as Mithun.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
 C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: The gaur also called the Indian bison is the largest extant bo-vine. It is
native to South Asia and Southeast Asia. The local names of the Gaur are a) Seladang — Malaysia
b) Pyoung — Myanmar and c) Gayal or Mithun — a domesticated form of gaur.
Statement 2 is not correct: It is categorized as vulnerable in the IUCN Red list of threatened
species, 2009 and listed in Schedule-1 of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Statement 3 is correct: The domesticated form of the gaur is called gayal (Bos frontalis) or
Mithun.
Question 96 of 100
96. With reference to the Toda people, consider the following statements:
1. They are the Dravidian ethnic group who live in the Indian state of Kerala.
2. These are one of the Primitive Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
A. 1 only
 B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Statement 1 is not correct: Toda people are a Dravidian ethnic group who live in the Nilgiri
Mountains of the Indian state of Tamil Nadu. Before the 18th century and British colonisation,
the Toda coexisted locally with other ethnic communities, including the Kota, Badaga and
Kurumba, in a loose caste-like society, in which the Toda was the top ranking.
Statement 2 is correct: These are one of the Primitive Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) of India
Question 97 of 100
97. With reference to National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF), consider the following
statements:
1. The NIRF was launched by the Ministry of Human Resource and Development in 2015.
2. The framework ranks only Universities and not individual institutions.
 A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: Recently, “India Rankings 2020” under National Institutional Ranking
Framework (NIRF) was released by the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD). The
NIRF was launched by the MHRD in 2015.
Statement 2 is not correct: This framework outlines a methodology to rank institutions both
universities and individual institutions across the country on a yearly basis under 10 categories-
Overall, University, Engineering, Management, Pharmacy, College, Medical, Law, Architecture
and Dental (newly added in 2020).
Question 98 of 100
98. With reference to the ‘Talamaddale art’ recently seen in the news, consider the follow-ing
statements:
1. It is a variant of Yakshagana theatre.
2. Yakshagana emerged in the Vijayanagara Empire and was performed by Jakkula Varu.
3. In the conventional ‘talamaddale art,’ the artists sit across in a place without any costumes
and engage in testing their oratory skills.
Which of the given statements are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
 D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: The traditional art of ‘Talamaddale’, a variant of Yakshagana theatre, has
gone virtual in times of COVID-19. Tala-Maddale is an ancient form of per-formance dialogue or
debate performance in Southern India in the Karavali and Malnad regions of Karnataka and
Kerala.
Statement 2 is correct: Yakshagana is the oldest theatre form popular in Karnataka. It emerged in
the Vijayanagara Empire and was performed by Jakkula Varu. The stories are drawn from
Ramayana, Mahabharata and other epics from both Hindu and Jain tradition.
Statement 3 is correct: Unlike the Yakshagana performance, in the conventional ‘tala-maddale,’
the artists sit across in a place without any costumes and engage in testing their oratory skills
based on the episode chosen.
Question 99 of 100
99. With reference to Plasma, consider the following statements:

1. Plasma is the liquid portion of blood that is colorless and is about 10% of the blood volume.
2. Plasma helps in maintaining blood pressure and volume.
A. 1 only
 B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
In a first in India, Delhi government has launched a plasma bank for treating covid19 patients.
Statement 1 is not correct: Plasma is the liquid portion of blood “yellowish” in color. About 55%
of blood is plasma, and the remaining 45% are red blood cells (RBC), white blood cells (WBC)
and platelets that are suspended in the plasma.
Statement 2 is correct: Plasma serves four important functions in the body
Helps maintain blood pressure and volume.
Supply critical proteins for blood clotting and immunity.
Carries electro-lytes such as sodium and potassium to our muscles.
Helps to maintain a proper pH balance in the body, which supports cell function.
Question 100 of 100
100. With reference to Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre (IN-SPACe),
consider the following statements:
1. It aims to launch a manned space flight to the Mars by 2030.
2. It is an entity of the Department of Space which will have its own chairperson and board.
A. 1 only
 B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Statement 1 is not correct: Government of India has created Indian National Space Promotion
and Authorization Centre (IN-SPACe) to boost private sector participation in the entire range of
space activities. It will act as an interface between ISRO and private parties, and assess how best
to utilise India’s space resources and increase space-based activities. It will provide a level
playing field for private companies to use Indian space infrastructure.
Statement 2 is correct: It is the new entity of the Department of Space which will have its own
chairperson and board. It will regulate and promote building of routine satellites, rockets and
com-mercial launch services through Indian industry and startups.

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