Test Paper : III

Test Booklet Serial No. : _______________________

Test Subject : LIFE SCIENCE
OMR Sheet No. : _________________________________
Test Subject Code : K-2816
Roll No.
(Figures as per admission card)
Name & Signature of Invigilator/s
Signature : _________________________________
Name : _________________________________
Paper : III
Subject : LIFE SCIENCE
Time : 2 Hours 30 Minutes Maximum Marks : 150
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
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K-2816 1 ±Üâ.£.®æãà./P.T.O.
*K2816* Total Number of Pages : 16

LIFE SCIENCE
Paper – III

Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions. Each question
carries two (2) marks. All questions are compulsory.

1. The Z-DNA helix 3. Which of the following is the most

(A) has fewer base pair per turn appropriate answer regarding

than B-DNA microtubule assembly and disassembly

during cell division ?

(B) is favoured by alternate GC base

pairs (A) Kinetochore microtubules

polymerize at their plus ends up to

(C) tends to be found at !

ends of
anaphase and then begin to
genes
depolymerize
(D) is the most common conformation

of DNA (B) Kinetochore microtubules

polymerize at their minus ends up

2. Which of the following chromosome to anaphase and then begin to
aberration causes change in order of depolymerize
genes in the genetic map without
(C) Once formed, kinetochore
altering its linkage group ?
microtubules depolymerize at the
(A) transposition
plus ends throughout mitosis

(B) translocation
(D) Once formed, kinetochore

(C) inversion microtubules polymerize at the plus

(D) recombination ends throughout mitosis

Paper III 2 K-2816

*K2816* Total Number of Pages : 16

4. Which of the following statement on cell 7. Origin of replication usually contains

junctions is wrong ?
(A) AT rich sequence
(A) Adherens junctions are cell-cell
anchoring junctions connecting (B) GC rich sequence
actin filaments in one cell with that
in the next cell (C) Both AT and GC rich sequence

(B) Gap junctions are channel forming (D) No particular sequence

junctions allowing passage of small
water soluble molecules from cell
8. Regulatory elements for expression of
to cell
ribosomal RNA genes reside in the
(C) Tight junctions are occluding
junctions, which seal gap between (A) non-transcribed spacer region
two cells
(B) transcribed spacer region
(D) Hemidesmosomes are cell-matrix
anchoring junctions connecting (C) internal regions within the genes
intermediate filaments in one cell to
extracellular matrix (D) #


flanking region of individual
ribosomal RNA genes
5. The amino acid that can be synthesized
directly by the incorporation of ammonia
9. In semi-conservative DNA replication,
into oxalo acetic acid
discontinuous fragments called Okazaki
(A) Aspartic acid
fragments are synthesised on the
(B) Alanine
lagging strand. These fragments are
(C) Glutamine
synthesised into continuous DNA
(D) Proline
strand by which enzymes ?
6. “Agent Orange” is a
(A) DNA Pol I and DNA ligase
(A) Colour used in inflorescent lamp
(B) DNA Pol III and DNA ligase
(B) Hazardous chemical used in plant
(C) Natural insecticide (C) DNA Pol II and DNA ligase

(D) Dioxin containing weedicide (D) DNA gyrase and DNA ligase

K-2816 3 Paper III

*K2816* Total Number of Pages : 16

10. Sequence in TATA box is

14. Choose the right match
(A) ATGC
Category – I Category – II
(B) !

-TATAT-

i. IgA 1. Basophils
#

(C) GCGCAT
ii. IgE 2.

heavy chain
(D) -TATAAA-

iii. IgG 3. Secretory

!

component
11. The consensus sequence of and #


!

splice junctions in eukaryotic mRNA iv. IgM 4. Pentamer

contains 5. Cross placenta
(A) GU-GA
Which of the above is right match ?
(B) GU-AG
(A) i-3, ii-1, iii-5, iv-4
(C) AG-GU
(B) i-3, ii-5 iii-2, iv-1
(D) CG-AG
(C) i-2, ii-3, iii-5, iv-4
12. Choose the appropriate typical structure (D) i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-5
of a -> eukaryotic gene.
#

!

(A) #
UTR->Promoter->Exons->


15. Which of the following is the right
Introns-> UTR !

sequence for the auditory pathway ?

(B) P r o m o t e r - > U T R - > E x o n s - > !

(A) External auditory canal, tympanic

Introns-> UTR #

membrane, auditory ossicles, oval

(C) UTR->Exons->Introns->
#


!

UTR- window, cochlea and spiral organ

> Promoter (B) Tympanic membrane, external
(D) P r o m o t e r - > U T R - > E x o n s - > #


auditory canal, auditory ossicles,
Introns-> UTR !


cochlea, spiral organ and round
window
13. A device used for measuring arterial (C) Auditory ossicles, tympanic
pressure membrane, cochlea, round window,
(A) Electrocardiogram oval window and external auditory
canal
(B) Defibrillator
(D) Auricle, tympanic membrane, round
(C) Otoscope
window, cochlea, spiral organ and
(D) Sphygmomanometer oval window

Paper III 4 K-2816

*K2816* Total Number of Pages : 16

16. A cross is made between pure wild type 18. Upon studying a considerable number
males and brown eyed, curled wing of different crosses in Drosophila,
females of D. melanogaster. The F 1 Morgan reached the conclusion that all
females were test crossed. The F 2 the genes of this fly were clustered into
progeny obtained are four linked groups corresponding to the
four pair of chromosomes. Further
Wild type 200
studies revealed that the linkage is not
Brown eyes, curled wings 150 absolute and it is broken frequently. It is
Brown eyes, normal wings 30 broken in the prophase by a process
called
Normal eyes, curled wings 20
(A) recombination
Total 400
(B) mutation
The genetic distance in cM between (C) integration
brown eye and curled wing loci is
(D) jumping of genes
(A) 50
19. Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes,
(B) 12.5
while our closest relatives, chimpanzees,
(C) 25 have 24. Chromosome studies indicate
(D) 150 that at some point early in human evolution,
two chromosomes simultaneously
17. Seymour Benzer proposed the concept broke into a large portion and a small
of Recon by studying recombination portion. The large parts combined to
between form a large chromosome, and the small
parts combined to form a much smaller
(A) white eye mutants of Drosophila
chromosome which was subsequently
melanogaster
lost. This event could be due to
(B) lysis mutants of bacteriophage T4
(A) nondisjunction followed by deletion
(C) biochemical mutants of Neurospora
(B) translocation followed by deletion
crassa
(C) duplication followed by deletion
(D) auxotrophic mutants of Escherichia
coli (D) translocation followed by inversion

K-2816 5 Paper III

*K2816* Total Number of Pages : 16

20. Which is the least invasive method of 23. The author of the monumental work “On

the following used to detect genetic the Origin of Species by Means of

disorders before birth ? Natural Selection or the “Preservation

of Favored Races in the Struggle for
(A) Chorionic villi sampling
Life”
(B) Amniocentesis
(A) Alfred Russel Wallace
(C) Ultrasound imaging
(B) Charles Darwin
(D) Fetoscopy
(C) Charles Darwin and Alfred Russel

21. An autosomal recessive disorder has a Wallace

population prevalence of 1 : 40 000. The (D) Charles Darwin and Charles Lyell
carrier frequency is therefore
24. Which of the following is not contributing
(A) 1/400
to genomic diversity among various
(B) 1/200
species ?
(C) 1/100 (A) Gene duplication
(D) 1/50 (B) Gene transcription

(C) Lateral gene transfer

22. A couple has a female child with
disease, and three unaffected children. (D) Chromosomal rearrangements
Neither of the parents affected with this
disease. What is the probable pattern 25. Which of the following in an

of inheritance ? insectivorous plant ?

(A) X-linked recessive (A) Adiantum

(B) Autosomal recessive (B) Dionea

(C) X-linked dominant (C) Nephrolepis

(D) Autosomal dominant (D) Nerium

Paper III 6 K-2816

*K2816* Total Number of Pages : 16

26. The CO2 acceptor in C3 plants is 29. Inorganic element that serves as
cofactor in Glutathione peroxidase is
(A) PEP

(B) PGA (A) Copper

(C) RUDP (B) Magnesium

(D) NADP (C) Nickel

(D) Selenium
27. Identify the most likely mode of
inheritance of the following pedigree.
30. Secondary structures of collagen
contains

(A)

-conformation

(B) Triple helix

(C)

-helix

(D)

-helix

(A) X-linked recessive inheritance 31. Which among the following statements

(B) X-linked dominant inheritance is correct about urea cycle ?

(C) Autosomal dominant inheritance (A) Nitrogens of urea enter cycle as

(D) Autosomal recessive inheritance ammonia and alanine

28. Which among the following is not a (B) Urinary urea is increased by diet

thermodynamic system ? rich in protein

(A) Open system (C) Urea cycle occurs exclusively in

(B) Isolated system cytosol

(C) Closed system (D) Urea is produced from hydrolysis of

(D) Surrounding ornithine directly

K-2816 7 Paper III

*K2816* Total Number of Pages : 16

32. Cadherin helps in 36. Consider the following statements.

(A) Cell-cell adhesion Which of the following events in basic

life cycle are in the right order ?
(B) Phagocytosis
i. Fertilization, cleavage
(C) Exocytosis ii. Adulthood, senescence

(D) Apoptosis iii. Gastrulation, Germ layer formation

iv. Organogenesis, metamorphosis
33. Caspase 3 helps in Which of the statements given above are
right ?
(A) Activation of cells
A) i, ii, iii, iv
(B) Inhibition of cells
(B) i, iii, iv, ii
(C) Apoptosis of cells (C) i, iv, iii, ii

(D) Division of cells (D) i, ii, iv, iii

37. Identify the technique that allow

34. Petals are formed in the 2nd Whorl due to
thousands of genes in different types of
(A) Class A genes cells to be compared simultaneously
A) Microarray
(B) Class A+B genes
(B) In situ hybridization
(C) Class B+C genes (C) RFLP
(D) Class C genes (D) Restriction digestion

35. Which of the following organisms has 38. Each mammalian somatic cell, whether
male or female, has only one functional
the highest repetitive sequence ? X-chromosome. This phenomenon is
called
(A) Rana pipiens
(A) X-chromosome Histone acetylation
(B) Escherichia. coli
(B) Constitutive heterochromatin
(C) Mus. musculus (C) X-chromosome activation
(D) Arabidopsis thaliana (D) X-chromosome inactivation

Paper III 8 K-2816

*K2816* Total Number of Pages : 16

39. Gene arrangement of cytotoxic T cells 42. In the -cells of the pancreas, proinsulin

occurs primarily in the is converted to insulin

(A) Bone marrow
(A) In the blood stream
(B) Spleen
(B) In clathrin-coated vesicle
(C) Germinal centers
(C) In the golgi complex
(D) Thymus
(D) At the time of fusion of mature
40. Asthma is a consequence of the release granula
of histamine and heparin from

(A) Mast cells, which induces oedema 43. The mechanism in which the rate of the

and broncho constriction solute movement increases by

(B) Plasma cells, which induces interaction of trans-membrane proteins

antibody release is termed as

(C) Eosinophils, which induces (A) Endocytosis

proliferation of basophils
(B) Simple diffusion
(D) Goblet cells, which induces
hypersecretion (C) Faciliated diffusion

(D) Active transport

41. All the following belong to the
conducting portion of the respiratory
44. Bulk of protein glycosylation takes place in
system, except
(A) Golgi complex
(A) Trachea
(B) Peroxisomes
(B) Bronchi

(C) Bronchioles (C) Ribosomes

(D) Alveoli (D) Lysosomes

K-2816 9 Paper III

*K2816* Total Number of Pages : 16

45. Which of the given enzyme is involved 48. Consider the following statements.

in packaging/supercoiling of DNA (Assertion) (A) : Species is a genetically

closed system
molecule ?
(Reason) (R) : Its members do not
(A) Topoisomerase interbreed with member of different
species
(B) Ligase
Which of the following is correct ?
(C) -polymerase
(A) Both A and R are true, R is the right

(D) Helicase explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true, R is wrong

46. Which of the following gene was explanation of A
engineered in the “Flavr-Savr” (C) A is true and R is false
transgenic tomato variety ? (D) Both A and R are false

(A) 1-Amino cyclopropane-1-carboxylic

49. Presence of Chlorella within
acid synthase Paramecium is an example for

(B) 1-Amino cyclopropane-1-carboxylic __________ association.

acid oxidase (A) Parasitic

(B) Saprophytic
(C) Expansin
(C) Endosymbiotic
(D) Polygalacturonase
(D) Pathogenic

47. A taxon is
50. Which of the following is a autoimmune
(A) A group of related families disorder ?

(A) Multiple sclerosis

(B) A group of related species
(B) Blood cancer
(C) A type of living organisms
(C) Huntington disease
(D) A taxonomic group of any ranking
(D) Cystic fibrosis

Paper III 10 K-2816

*K2816* Total Number of Pages : 16

51. Consider the following statements. 53. Which of the following virulence factor

The methods employed for the detection protect bacteria from host immune

of viruses are response during phagocytosis ?

1. Detection of infectivity using cell (A) Cytolytic toxins and capsule

cultures (B) Pronase

2. Detection of virus nucleic acids (C) Antigenic Variation

3. Detection of virus antigens

(D) IgA protease

4. Detection of Ergosterols
54. Which of the following spore of Puccinia
Which of the above statements are
graminis infect Berberis vulgaris ?
right ?
(A) Basidiospores
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are right
(B) Teliospores
(B) 1, 2 and 3 are wrong
(C) Urediniospores
(C) 2, 3 and 4 are right

(D) Aeciospores
(D) 1, 2 and 4 are right

52. Carbon source for cyanobacteria during 55. Localized clusters of cambium-like cells

dark reaction is in the callus is referred to as

(A) Glucose (A) Cybrids

(B) CO2 (B) Meristemoids

(C) Carbohydrate (C) Embryoids

(D) Hydrocarbon (D) Lutoids

K-2816 11 Paper III

*K2816* Total Number of Pages : 16

56. Rotavirus is a 60. The fungus exploited as a source for

(A) Double-stranded DNA virus mycoprotein “Quorn” is

(B) Single-stranded DNA virus (A) Fusarium salani

(C) Double-stranded RNA virus
(B) Fusarium semitectum
(D) Single-stranded RNA virus
(C) Fusarium graminearum
57. Typhoid is caused by
(D) Fusarium monoliformae
(A) Eschrichia

(B) Bacillus
61. According to the competitive exclusion
(C) Mycobacterium
principle, two species cannot continue
(D) Salmonella
to occupy the same

58. Identify the virus that has recently (A) Habitat

attracted strict quarantine measures, to
avoid pandemic scare (B) Niche

(A) HIV (C) Range

(B) SARS
(D) Biome
(C) Ebola

(D) Hepatitis 62. Which of the following is a coagulant

fixative ?
59. Heterothallism in fungi was reported for
the first time by
(A) Formaldehyde
(A) Alexopoulous
(B) Osmium tetraoxide
(B) Landecker
(C) Acetic acid
(C) Blakeslee

(D) Mims (D) Ethanol

Paper III 12 K-2816

*K2816* Total Number of Pages : 16

63. FMDV causes significant economic loss 66. Which among the following is a buffer ?

to which of the following industry ?

(A) Mixture of acid and base
(A) Dairy
(B) Mixture of weak acid and strong
(B) Poultry
base
(C) Fishery
(C) Mixture of strong acid and weak
(D) Piggery
base

64. In island biogeography theory, if there

(D) A weak acid and its conjugate base
are two islands and one is closer to the
mainland, the closer would have
67. The functional genomics can be best
(A) A lower rate of extinction than the
studied with
distant island
(A) PCR
(B) Fewer species than the distant
island (B) DNA microchips

(C) A higher rate of extinction than the (C) Dot blot

distant island
(D) ELISA plate reader
(D) A higher rate of immigration than the
distant island
68. What is the correlation coefficient value

65. Ecologist interested in functional required for accepted positive

aspects of Ecosystem often use correlation of calibration line ?

(A) Shannon Wiener index, Simpson (A) R=1

index
(B) R=> 0.95
(B) Species evenness
(C) R=100
(C) Species richness

(D) Cluster analysis (D) R=0.01

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69. A type I survivorship curve is
characteristic of the species with a rapid
increase in mortality in old age. This type
curve is
(A) typical of many invertebrates that
produce a large number of offspring
(B) typical of humans and other large
mammals
(C) almost never found in nature
(D) typical of all species
70. Sampling error in a small population
leads to
(A) Genetic load
(B) Genetic drift
(C) Heterosis
(D) Homeostasis
71. “Evolution by random walk” refers to
(A) Any of the neutral mutations at
random not retained in the gene
pool or removed from the gene pool
(B) Any of the neutral mutations at
random are retained in the gene
pool or removed from the gene pool
(C) All the neutral mutations at random
retained in the gene pool or
removed from the gene pool
(D) None of the neutral mutations at
random retained in the gene pool
or removed from the gene pool
____________
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Total Number of Pages : 16
72. Which of the following repeated
sequence includes an open reading
frame for reverse transcriptase ?
(A) LINE
(B) SINE
(C) Segmental duplication
(D) DNA transposon
73. Choose the labeling technique in which
DNA polymerase I is used to replace
some of the nucleotides of a DNA
sequence with their labeled analogues
to create a tagged DNA sequence.
(A) End-labeling
(B) Random priming
(C) Nick translation
(D) Labeling by probe
74. How many genes are coded by the yeast
genome ?
(A) ~ 12000
(B) ~6000
(C) ~20000
(D) ~4000
75. Among the following which habitat is not
covered in project tiger.
(A) Sivalik-Terial Conservation Unit
(B) North East Conservation Unit
(C) Western Ghats Conservation Unit
(D) Eastern Ghats Conservation Unit
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Space for Rough Work

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bñÜᤠŸÃÜÖÜPÝRX ÓܧÙÜ
Space for Rough Work

Paper III 16 K-2816