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Question 2
Test for lateralization:
Response: Weber test
Correct answer: Weber test
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 3
The chief muscle for breathing is innervated by:Supraclavicular nerve
Response: Phrenic nerve
Correct answer: Phrenic nerve
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 4
A patient came in to the ER with central cyanosis, the following conditions you will
consider except:
Response: IDA
Correct answer: IDA
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 5
The skin’s ability to return to its place when pinched or lifted up:
Response: Turgor
Correct answer: Turgor
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 6
General term for enlarged thyroid gland
Response: Goiter
Correct answer: Goiter
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 7
Dryness of the skin can be associated in the following conditions except:
Response: None of the above
Correct answer: None of the above
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 8
A patient in the community approached you and told you that she has been suffering
from a vesicular skin lesion in her back on a which is very painful and upon inspection
you suspected that she might be suffering from shingles. What is the distribution of the
abovementioned lesion?
Response: Dermatomal
Correct answer: Dermatomal
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 9
During otoscopy, what landmark you need you look for to orient yourself on the
structures you need to examine:
Response: Cone of light
Correct answer: Cone of light
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 10
In examining patient with a skin complain the following must be noted except:
Response: the interruption of the eruption
Correct answer: the interruption of the eruption
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 11
You’re the nurse assigned in the neuro ward and you are taking care of patients who
are suffering from stroke. You are assessing the cardinal movements of the extraocular
muscles and you know very well that the superior oblique muscle is innervated by what
cranial nerve?
Response: Abducens nerve
Correct answer: Trochlear nerve
Score: 0 out of 1 No
Question 12
A simple test to check the acute inflammation of the external ear.
Response: Tut test
Correct answer: Tug test
Score: 0 out of 1 No
Question 13
Adventitious breath sound that may indicate upper respiratory tract obstruction:
Response: Stridor
Correct answer: Stridor
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 14
True of Rinne’s test, except:
Response: A and B
Correct answer: None of the above
Score: 0 out of 1 No
Question 15
The anterior-posterior chest diameter may increase with aging:
Response: True
Correct answer: True
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 16
Functions of the nose, except
Response: Aesthetic functions
Correct answer: Aesthetic functions
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 17
Normal diaphragmatic excursion
Response: 3-7 cm
Correct answer: 3-7 cm
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 18
Arrange the sequence in examining the cervical lymph nodes:
i.Supraclavicular
ii.Posterior cervical
iii.Tonsillar
iv.Preauricular
v.Occipital
vi.Submental
vii.Posterior auricular
viii.Deep cervical chain
ix.Submandibular
x.Superficial cervical
Response: iv, vii, v, iii, ix, vi, x, ii, viii, i
Correct answer: iv, vii, v, iii, ix, vi, x, ii, viii, i
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 19
In disease conditions that causes narrowing of airways, what adventitious breath sound
you may expect to hear during auscultation?
Response: Wheezing
Correct answer: Wheezing
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 20
Landmark of the thyroid ithmus:
Response: 2nd, 3rd and 4th tracheal rings
Correct answer: 2nd, 3rd and 4th tracheal rings
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 21
You are a nurse assigned in the ENT OPD and you are assessing a senile client. You
are suspecting hearing loss what should you do next?
Response: Distinguish between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss using air and
bone conduction test
Correct answer: Distinguish between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss using
air and bone conduction test
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 22
The following are functions of the skin except:
Response: Wound regression
Correct answer: Wound regression
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 23
A patient diagnosed with acne came in your primary care clinic and noted several
lesions on here back and face. The above-mentioned lesion is an example of:
Response: Patch
Correct answer: Pustule
Score: 0 out of 1 No
Question 24
Dullness during percussion may indicate the following except:
Response: COPD
Correct answer: COPD
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 25
The following are symptoms of pulmonary tuberculosis, except:
Response: Bulimia
Correct answer: Bulimia
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 26
In cranial nerve X paralysis, what finding you may expect see when assessing the
pharynx?
Response: Soft palate fail rise
Correct answer: Soft palate fail rise
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 27
You are a nurse assigned in the OPD, a person from Kenya came in with a chief
complain of abdominal pain and fever and initial assessment was acute cholecystitis vs
hepatitis. in the case presented, how will you assess jaundice?
Response: Use a bright and examine the buccal mucosa for yellowish discoloration of
mucosa
Correct answer: Use a bright and examine the buccal mucosa for yellowish
discoloration of mucosa
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 28
The following is true about the examination of the head and neck except:
Borders of the anterior triangle of the neck, except
Response: Neck midline
Correct answer: Hyoid bone
Score: 0 out of 1 No
Question 29
A finding that may indicate CN XII damage:
Response: Deviation of the tongue
Correct answer: Deviation of the tongue
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 30
Asymmetric chest expansion can be in one of the following conditions:
Response: Flail chest
Correct answer: Flail chest
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 31
Contact lenses and eyeglasses must be removed when testing the distal visual acuity.
Response: False
Correct answer: False
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 32
Correct order of physical examination of the chest and thorax:
Response: Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
Correct answer: Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 33
You noted a septal perforation upon examining a 32-year old male patient in the ORL
OPD. The causes of this finding are the following except:
Response: Intranasal influenza vaccine
Correct answer: Intranasal influenza vaccine
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 34
Gradual loss of ability of the eye to focus due to aging:
Response: Presbyopia
Correct answer: Presbyopia
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 35
A part of health promotion and disease prevention activities in patient with skin
complaints, the following must be included in the self skin examination health teaching
except;
Response: Teach the patient to use the ABCDE method in assessing moles
Correct answer: Advise patient use emollient
Score: 0 out of 1 No
Question 36
Accurate description of the skin lesion is very important in making a dermatologic
Response: True
Correct answer: True
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 37
All are true except:
Response: Adventitious breath sounds are seen in almost all normal individuals
Correct answer: Adventitious breath sounds are seen in almost all normal individuals
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 38
How to straighten the ear canal:
Response: Grab the pinna firmly but gently and pull it upward and backward and slightly
away from the head.
Correct answer: Grab the pinna firmly but gently and pull it upward and backward and
slightly away from the head.
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 39
A patient diagnosed with neurofibromatosis 1 came in your primary care clinic and
noted several café au lait spots in his skin. The above-mentioned lesion is an example
of:
Response: Patch
Correct answer: Patch
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 40
A finding that may indicate CN XII damage:
Response: Deviation of the tongue
Correct answer: Deviation of the tongue
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 41
The following are risk factors for melanoma except:
Response: 80 years old
Correct answer: Dark eyed individuals
Score: 0 out of 1 No
Question 42
The following statements are true except:
Response: Visual cortex is part of the parietal lobe of the brain
Correct answer: Visual cortex is part of the parietal lobe of the brain
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 43
Swollen and tender lymph nodes suggest:
Response: Infection
Correct answer: Infection
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 44
In assessing pallor and cyanosis, fingernails and lips are the areas you need to
examine because:
Response: They consist of thick layers of mucous membrane that changes in blood flow
can be easily seen
Correct answer: The layer is thin enough to cause less scatter of light
Score: 0 out of 1 No
Question 45
You are assigned as nurse to care for a patient with dermatologic problem. Which of
the following is coonsidered the best practice in examining the skin:
Response: Thorough observation
Correct answer: Thorough observation
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 46
Which statement is true about cyanosis
Response: Central cyanosis occurs when there is low venous oxygen level in the blood
Correct answer: Peripheral cyanosis occurs when cutaneous blood flow is decreased
Score: 0 out of 1 No
Question 47
Inspiratory and expiratory sounds that are equal in length
Response: Bronchovesicular
Correct answer: Bronchovesicular
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 48
The anterior-posterior chest diameter may increase with aging:
Response: True
Correct answer: True
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 49
The nerve that innervates all the extrinsic tongue muscles
Response: Hypoglossal nerve
Correct answer: Hypoglossal nerve
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 50
You are a dialysis nurse and you are taking of patient with pitting edema. Which of the
following is true of pitting edema:
Response: It’s a depression left when pressure is applied in the non-dependent area of
the body
Correct answer: A depression left for 16 seconds when pressed
Score: 0 out of 1
Question 1
During the interview, when patients are angry, the nurse listens for associated themes
and avoids becoming defensive or personalizing the situation.
Response: True
Correct answer: True
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 2
In 2012 the Philippines passed the Data Privacy Act 2012, comprehensive and strict
privacy legislation “to protect the fundamental human right of privacy, of communication
while ensuring free flow of information to promote innovation and growth.” .” (Republic
Act. No. 10273, Ch. 1, Sec. 2).
Response: False
Correct answer: False
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 3
It is the ability to perceive, reason, and communicate an understanding of another
person’s feelings without criticism.
Response: Empathy
Correct answer: Empathy
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 4
The goal is to elicit as much data about health status including biographical data,
reasons for seeking care, and history of present concern.
Response: Working phase
Correct answer: Working phase
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 5
Avoid being at different levels from the patient like standing in front of her/him. It makes
the patient feels inferior, he/she may not share critical information and may feel you are
disinterested.
Response: True
Correct answer: True
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 6
It is the ability to focus on patients and their perspectives. Talking to patients with eye
contact.
Response: Active listening
Correct answer: Active listening
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 7
A student nurse is learning about the appropriate use of touch when communicating
with clients during the health assessment. Which statement by the instructor best
provides information about this aspect of therapeutic communication?
Response: A. "Touch carries a different meaning for different individuals." Always ask
permission.
Correct answer: A. "Touch carries a different meaning for different individuals." Always
ask permission.
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 8
Students are permitted to perform controlled acts authorized to nursing if they meet all
three criteria:
Response: Have been taught by their faculty, preceptor or Nurse Educator.
Response: Have the knowledge, skill and judgment to perform them as determined by
their preceptor or faculty member.
Response: Are supervised by a member of the nursing staff at hospitals or the faculty
member.
Correct answer: Have been taught by their faculty, preceptor or Nurse Educator. , Have
the knowledge, skill and judgment to perform them as determined by their preceptor or
faculty member. , Are supervised by a member of the nursing staff at hospitals or the
faculty member.
Score: 3 out of 3 Yes
Question 9
In verbal Communication, all is correct except for:
Response: Tell your patient that everything will be alright after the surgery.
Correct answer: Tell your patient that everything will be alright after the surgery.
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 10
When the community health nurse visits a patient at home, the patient states, “I haven’t
slept the last couple of nights.” Which response by the nurse illustrates a therapeutic
communication response to this patient?
Response: . "You're having difficulty sleeping?"
Correct answer: . "You're having difficulty sleeping?"
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 11
It was mandated by Article III, Section 9 of R. A. 9173, promulgated by the Philippine
Regulatory Board of Nursing which serves as the ethical -and legal basis in the practice
of the nursing profession in the Philippines.
Response: Philippine Nursing Code of Ethics
Correct answer: Philippine Nursing Code of Ethics
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 12
Which therapeutic communication technique is being used in this nurse-client
interaction?
Client: “My father spanked me often.”
Nurse: “Your father spanked you often, he was a disciplinarian.”
Response: A. Restatement
Correct answer: A. Restatement
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 13
All is true about non- verbal therapeutic communication except for:
Response: d. Posture: Nurse is standing in open posture, while the client is sitting in a
chair.
Correct answer: d. Posture: Nurse is standing in open posture, while the client is sitting
in a chair.
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 14
The closing phase is where the nurse ends the interview by summarizing and stating
what the two to three most important patterns or problems might be and asking patients
if they would like to mention or need anything else.
Response: True
Correct answer: True
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 15
These are ethical considerations in conducting health assessments except for:
Response: Supervision
Correct answer: Supervision
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 16
A nurse states to a client, “Things will look better tomorrow after a good night’s sleep.”
This is an example of which communication technique?
Response: D. The nontherapeutic technique of "giving false reassurance"
Correct answer: D. The nontherapeutic technique of "giving false reassurance"
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 17
It is the ability to connect with the patient and demonstrate compassion, sensitivity, and
patient-centered care.
Response: Caring
Correct answer: Caring
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 18
Is an agreement to a client to accept a course of treatment or procedure after being
provided complete information, including the benefits and risks of treatment, alternatives
to the treatment, and prognosis if not treated by a health care provider.
Response: Informed consent
Correct answer: Informed consent
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 19
Under the Philippine Nursing Act of 2002 R.A. 9178, nursing students do not perform
professional nursing duties. They are to be supervised by their clinical instructors.
Response: False
Correct answer: False
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 20
These are sensitive, personal, and privileged information of patients:
Response: Social security I.D.
Correct answer: Social security I.D.
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 21
Obtaining valid nursing history and gathering information on the physiologic,
psychological, socio-cultural, and spiritual status. The nursing role focuses on promoting
health, screening for problems, and intervening to restore or improve health or function
as optimally as possible.
Response: Interview
Correct answer: Interview
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 22
It is a basic nursing tool in which the nurse ensures that the interaction focuses on the
patient and the patient’s concerns and can gather complete information that can help
improve the health of patients.
Response: Therapeutic Communication Skills
Correct answer: Therapeutic Communication Skills
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 23
When a patient goes to the laboratory and offers his or her arm for blood extraction is
an example of an Express onsent.
Response: False
Correct answer: False
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 24
It is a special agreement to allow something to happen such as a surgery based on full
disclosure of risks, benefits, alternatives, and consequences of refusal.
Response: Informed consent
Correct answer: Informed consent
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 25
The following behaviors are expected of nursing students, except:
Response: Perform controlled acts without close supervision of a clinical instructor.
Correct answer: Perform controlled acts without close supervision of a clinical instructor.
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 26
Choose the three guidelines to avoid mistakes for nursing students:
Response: Nursing students should always be under the supervision of their clinical
instructors.
Response: They should be given assignments that are at their level of training ,
experience, and competency.
Correct answer: Nursing students should always be under the supervision of their
clinical instructors. , They should be given assignments that are at their level of training ,
experience, and competency.
Score: 2 out of 2 Yes
Question 27
Students are not permitted to:
Response: Act as a witness under any circumstances or for any purpose.
Response: Give phone advice for discharged families.
Response: Take verbal or telephone orders.
Response: Transport patients alone when the presence of an RN is required.
Correct answer: Act as a witness under any circumstances or for any purpose. , Give
phone advice for discharged families. , Take verbal or telephone orders. , Transport
patients alone when the presence of an RN is required.
Score: 4 out of 4 Yes
Question 28
It allows patients time to gather their thoughts and provide accurate answers. Silence
can be therapeutic, communicating nonverbal concerns.
Response: Purposeful silence
Correct answer: Purposeful silence
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 29
It helps to minimize uncomfortable feelings but may mislead a patient into minimizing a
health concern or neglecting to perform a needed health-promoting activity.
Response: False reassurance
Correct answer: False reassurance
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 30
It is a phase where the nurse establishes rapport by introducing herself/ himself and
explaining the purpose of the interview.
Response: Beginning phase
Correct answer: Beginning phase
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 31
These are the inherent factors of effective nursing care:
Response: All of the above
Correct answer: All of the above
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 32
“Don’t worry everything will be alright”, is an example of_____________.
Response: False reassurance
Correct answer: False reassurance
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 33
It relates to the content of the communication. The nurse makes a simple statement,
usually using the same words as patients.
Response: Restatement
Correct answer: Restatement
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 34
The nurse changes the topic when a situation is uncomfortable because of personal
experiences or coping mechanisms.
Response: Changing the subject
Correct answer: Changing the subject
Score: 1 out of 1
Question 1
Functions of the nose, except
Correct answer: Aesthetic functions
Question 2
Test for lateralization:
Correct answer: Weber test
Question 3
What disease condition that has small and large plaque with silvery scales?
Correct answer: Psoriasis
Question 4
In disease conditions that causes narrowing of airways, what adventitious breath sound
you may expect to hear during auscultation?
Correct answer: Wheezing
Question 5
A patient diagnosed with neurofibromatosis 1 came in your primary care clinic and
noted several café au lait spots in his skin. The above-mentioned lesion is an example
of:
Correct answer: Patch
Question 6
Adventitious breath sound that may indicate upper respiratory tract obstruction:
Correct answer: Stridor
Question 7
You noted a septal perforation upon examining a 32-year old male patient in the ORL
OPD. The causes of this finding are the following except:
Correct answer: Intranasal influenza vaccine
Question 8
In testing the hearing, in order to minimize distractions by preventing lip ready the
examiner can do the one of the following measures:
Correct answer: Use mask when speaking
Question 9
Accurate description of the skin lesion is very important in making a dermatologic
Correct answer: True
Question 10
Considered the best practice in examining the skin:
Correct answer: Thorough observation
Question 11
During otoscopy, what landmark you need you look for to orient yourself on the
structures you need to examine:
Correct answer: Cone of light
Question 12
Arrange the sequence in examining the cervical lymph nodes:
i.Supraclavicular
ii.Posterior cervical
iii.Tonsillar
iv.Preauricular
v.Occipital
vi.Submental
vii.Posterior auricular
viii.Deep cervical chain
ix.Submandibular
x.Superficial cervical
Correct answer: iv, vii, v, iii, ix, vi, x, ii, viii, i
Question 13
True of Webers test, except:
Correct answer: Sound normally lateralize
Question 14
A simple test to check the acute inflammation of the external ear.
Correct answer: Tug test
Question 15
All are components of eye examination includes the following except:
Correct answer: Test for lateralization
Question 16
You are a nurse assigned in the OPD, a person from Kenya came in with a chief
complain of abdominal pain and fever and initial assessment was acute cholecystitis vs
hepatitis. in the case presented, how will you assess jaundice?
Correct answer: Use a bright and examine the buccal mucosa for yellowish
discoloration of mucosa
Question 17
Dullness during percussion may indicate the following except:
Correct answer: COPD
Question 18
The following are types of secondary skin lesions except
Correct answer: Papule
Question 19
Asymmetric chest expansion can be in one of the following conditions:
Correct answer: Flail chest
Question 20
In cranial nerve X paralysis, what finding you may expect see when assessing the
pharynx?
Correct answer: Soft palate fail rise
Question 21
Contact lenses and eyeglasses must be removed when testing the distal visual acuity.
Correct answer: False
Question 22
Functions of the skin except:
Correct answer: Synthesize calcium
Question 23
In assessing the skin, the following are described except:
Correct answer: Thermometer
Question 24
The following is true about the examination of the head and neck except:
Correct answer: None of the above
Question 25
The chief muscle for breathing is innervated by:Supraclavicular nerve
Correct answer: Phrenic nerve
Question 26
Inspiratory and expiratory sounds that are equal in length
Correct answer: Bronchovesicular
Question 27
The following are needed in setting up the following are needed except:
Correct answer: Make up
Question 28
Correct order of physical examination of the chest and thorax:
Correct answer: Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
Question 29
The following are symptoms of pulmonary tuberculosis, except:
Correct answer: Bulimia
Question 30
In examining patient with a skin complain the following must be noted except:
Correct answer: the interruption of the eruption
Question 31
Correct pairing of tonsil grading:
Correct answer: Grade 2 – tonsils are between pillars and uvula
Question 32
The following are risk factors for melanoma except:
Correct answer: Younger age group
Question 33
Direct and consensual reaction are done to test__________.
Correct answer: Pupillary reaction
Question 34
How to straighten the ear canal:
Correct answer: Grab the pinna firmly but gently and pull it upward and backward and
slightly away from the head.
Question 35
A primary lesion that is usually seen in patient with acne;
Correct answer: Pustule
Question 36
The anterior-posterior chest diameter may increase with aging:
Correct answer: True
Question 37
All are true except:
Correct answer: Adventitious breath sounds are seen in almost all normal individuals
Question 38
The nerve that innervates all the intrinsic tongue muscles
Correct answer: Hypoglossal nerve
Question 39
A patient in the community approached you and told you that she has been suffering
from a vesicular skin lesion in her back on a which is very painful and upon inspection
you suspected that she might be suffering from shingles. What is the distribution of the
abovementioned lesion?
Correct answer: Dermatomal
Question 40
The skin’s ability to return to its place when pinched or lifted up:
Correct answer: Turgor
Question 41
One of the two common techniques in holding the otoscope:
Correct answer: Pencil grip
Question 42
The following statements are true except:
Question 43
You are a nurse assigned in the ENT OPD and you are assessing a senile client. You
are suspecting hearing loss what should you do next?
Correct answer: Distinguish between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss using
air and bone conduction test
Question 44
Hard and fixed lymph nodes suggest:
Correct answer: Inflammation
Question 45
General term for enlarged thyroid gland
Correct answer: Goiter
Question 46
Normal diaphragmatic excursion
Correct answer: 3-7 cm
Question 47
You’re the nurse assigned in the neuro ward and you are taking care of patients who
are suffering from stroke. You are assessing the cardinal movements of the extraocular
muscles and you know very well that they are lateral rectus muscle is innervated by
what cranial nerves?
Correct answer: Abducens nerve
Question 48
A finding that may indicate CN XII damage:
Correct answer: Deviation of the tongue
Question 49
Dryness of the skin can be associated in the following conditions except:
Correct answer: None of the above
Question 50
Landmark of the thyroid ithmus:
Correct answer: 3rd and 4th tracheal rings
NURSE BORNIE
Question 1
Pain is:
- A strongly unpleasant bodily sensation caused by actual or potential injury
Question 2
The stage that occurs between 5 – 13 years of age is concerned with:
- Industry vs. inferiority
Question 3
Who among the following proposed that personality development in childhood takes
place during five psychosexual stages, which are the oral, anal, phallic, latency, and
genital stages and that during each stage, sexual energy (libido) is expressed in
different ways and through different parts of the body?
- sigmund
Question 4
Facial expression, physiological changes and behavioral changes are a part of direct
observation for pain assessment.
- true
Question 5
Failure to provide health care to prevent or treat physical or emotional illnesses is a
form of which type of violence?
- Physical neglect
Question 6
The amount of force exerted against the walls of the artery by the blood is commonly
referred to as:
Blood pressure
Question 7
One of your friends tells you to steal some sweets. You are in Level 1, why do you NOT
steal?
Question 8
Direct methods of nutritional assessment are summarized as:
- abcd
Question 9
A technique that teaches your body to respond to your verbal commands. These
commands "tell" your body to relax and help control breathing, blood pressure ,
heartbeat, and body temperature to achieve deep relaxation and reduce stress is known
as:
- autogenic training
Question 10
The nurse is aware that the term bradycardia means:
- a heart rate of under 60 bpm
Question 11
At which phase of the cycle of violence does the abuser assumes a loving behavior,
contrite and makes promises to change?
- Honeymoon phase
Question 12
The capacity to identify possible courses of action, anticipate consequences, and
choose appropriate behaviour, and extent of awareness of illness and maladaptive
behaviours are assessments to identify which element of the patient’s mental status
- Knowledge, insight and judgement
Question 13
Kohlberg was concerned with what type of development?
- moral
Question 14
Obsessions, delusions and suicidal and homicidal thoughts and thought process
alterations are categorized under which element of Mental Status Examination?
- Thought content and processes
Question 15
A situation in which one family member causes physical or emotional harm to another
family member is known as:
- Family violence
Question 16
______________________ is the amount of time something lasts or continues.
- Duration
Question 17
Which of the following vital sign will reveal information about pyrexia is:
- Temperature
Question 18
You are about to take the baseline vital signs. Before doing this you should ensure that:
- You inform the patient
Question 19
A person is considered obese with a BMI of:
- BMI of 30 or higher
Question 20
Pain management for acute pain involves pharmacological approaches only.
- false
Question 21
Which of the following assessment is a component of a patient assessment that
observes the entire patient as a whole and begins with the initial patient contact and
continue throughout the helping relationship?
- General survey
Question 22
What is the name of Erik Erickson's development theory?
- Psycho-social
Question 23
________________ is a pain that lasting for more than 6 months.
- Chronic pain
Question 24
Which of the following Non-Steroidal Anti-inflammatory drug (NSAIDS) is prescribed for
mild to moderate pain?
- Ibuprofen motrin
Question 25
Which pain scale is used for children?
- Wong-bake faces pain scale
Question 26
Which of the following is a specific nerve receptor for pain?
- nociceptors
Question 27
BMI stands for:
- body mass index
Question 28
The height, weight, head circumference, body mass index (BMI), body circumferences
to assess for adiposity (waist, hip, and limbs), and skinfold thickness are the core
elements of:
- Antropometric assessment
Question 29
Which of the following refers to how much pain a person can reasonably endure?
- tolerance
Question 30
To assess for hypotension due to shock, the nurse would take which vital sign?
- Blood pressure
Question 31
Cindy understands her world primarily by grasping and sucking easily available objects.
Cindy is clearly in Piaget's ________ stage:
- Sensorimotor
Question 32
Pain that we experience it when our internal organs are damaged is related to:
- Visceral pain
Question 33
In which psychosexual stage of personality development does Oedipus and Electra
complexes become evident?
- Phallic
Question 34
Which of the following are the most vulnerable person for violence in the family unit?
- all
Question 35
An unresponsiveness from which a person arouses from sleep only after painful stimuli.
Verbal responses are slow or absent and lapses into unresponsiveness when stimulus
stops. Patient has minimal awareness of self or environment. This is known as:
- stupor
Question 36
The categories of information necessary for a comprehensive cultural assessment of a
client includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
- political affiliation
Question 37
Failure to provide physical and cognitive stimulation needed to prevent developmental
deficits is a form of which type of violence?
- Developmental neglect
Question 38
Factors influencing pain would include which of the following?
- all
Question 39
Characteristics of abusers includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
- high self esteem
Question 40
The people within a culture who share characteristics based on race, religion, color,
national origin, or language is known as:
- ethnic group
Question 41
Mental Status assessment is a structured assessment of client’s behavioural and
cognitive functioning—is a vital component of nursing care that assists with evaluation
of:
- mental health conditions
Question 42
Intimacy vs. Isolation occurs at what stage?
- Young adulthood
Question 43
As victims’ self-esteem becomes diminished with chronic abuse, they may blame
themselves for the violence and be unable to see a way out of the situation.
- true
Question 44
Which of the following is also known as the 5th vital sign?
- pain
Question 45
A description of pain is ______________________ when it is based on the individual’s
experience or perceptions.
- subjective
Question 46
Which assessment tool was developed to help health care professionals address
spiritual issues with patients?
- maslows
Question 47
What is Kohlberg's theory?
- People progress in their moral reasoning through stages
Question 48
Kohlberg was concerned with what type of development?
- moral
Question 49
To assess the effectiveness of cardiac compressions during adult cardiopulmonary
resuscitation (CPR), the nurse should palpate which pulse site?
- Carotid
Question 50
Nurses should take a patient’s vital signs during all of the following, EXCEPT:
- During any surgical procedure
DOC. VARGAS
Question 1
Functions of the nose, except
Correct answer: Aesthetic functions
Question 2
Test for lateralization:
Correct answer: Weber test
Question 3
What disease condition that has small and large plaque with silvery scales?
Correct answer: Psoriasis
Question 4
In disease conditions that causes narrowing of airways, what adventitious breath sound
you may expect to hear during auscultation?
Correct answer: Wheezing
Question 5
A patient diagnosed with neurofibromatosis 1 came in your primary care clinic and
noted several café au lait spots in his skin. The above-mentioned lesion is an example
of:
Correct answer: Patch
Question 6
Adventitious breath sound that may indicate upper respiratory tract obstruction:
Correct answer: Stridor
Question 7
You noted a septal perforation upon examining a 32-year old male patient in the ORL
OPD. The causes of this finding are the following except:
Correct answer: Intranasal influenza vaccine
Question 8
In testing the hearing, in order to minimize distractions by preventing lip ready the
examiner can do the one of the following measures:
Correct answer: Use mask when speaking
Question 9
Accurate description of the skin lesion is very important in making a dermatologic
Correct answer: True
Question 10
Considered the best practice in examining the skin:
Correct answer: Thorough observation
Question 11
During otoscopy, what landmark you need you look for to orient yourself on the
structures you need to examine:
Correct answer: Cone of light
Question 12
Arrange the sequence in examining the cervical lymph nodes:
i.Supraclavicular
ii.Posterior cervical
iii.Tonsillar
iv.Preauricular
v.Occipital
vi.Submental
vii.Posterior auricular
viii.Deep cervical chain
ix.Submandibular
x.Superficial cervical
Correct answer: iv, vii, v, iii, ix, vi, x, ii, viii, i
Question 13
True of Webers test, except:
Correct answer: Sound normally lateralize
Question 14
A simple test to check the acute inflammation of the external ear.
Correct answer: Tug test
Question 15
All are components of eye examination includes the following except:
Correct answer: Test for lateralization
Question 16
You are a nurse assigned in the OPD, a person from Kenya came in with a chief
complain of abdominal pain and fever and initial assessment was acute cholecystitis vs
hepatitis. in the case presented, how will you assess jaundice?
Correct answer: Use a bright and examine the buccal mucosa for yellowish
discoloration of mucosa
Question 17
Dullness during percussion may indicate the following except:
Correct answer: COPD
Question 18
The following are types of secondary skin lesions except
Correct answer: Papule
Question 19
Asymmetric chest expansion can be in one of the following conditions:
Correct answer: Flail chest
Question 20
In cranial nerve X paralysis, what finding you may expect see when assessing the
pharynx?
Correct answer: Soft palate fail rise
Question 21
Contact lenses and eyeglasses must be removed when testing the distal visual acuity.
Correct answer: False
Question 22
Functions of the skin except:
Correct answer: Synthesize calcium
Question 23
In assessing the skin, the following are described except:
Correct answer: Thermometer
Question 24
The following is true about the examination of the head and neck except:
Correct answer: None of the above
Question 25
The chief muscle for breathing is innervated by:Supraclavicular nerve
Correct answer: Phrenic nerve
Question 26
Inspiratory and expiratory sounds that are equal in length
Correct answer: Bronchovesicular
Question 27
The following are needed in setting up the following are needed except:
Correct answer: Make up
Question 28
Correct order of physical examination of the chest and thorax:
Correct answer: Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
Question 29
The following are symptoms of pulmonary tuberculosis, except:
Correct answer: Bulimia
Question 30
In examining patient with a skin complain the following must be noted except:
Correct answer: the interruption of the eruption
Question 31
Correct pairing of tonsil grading:
Correct answer: Grade 2 – tonsils are between pillars and uvula
Question 32
The following are risk factors for melanoma except:
Correct answer: Younger age group
Question 33
Direct and consensual reaction are done to test__________.
Correct answer: Pupillary reaction
Question 34
How to straighten the ear canal:
Correct answer: Grab the pinna firmly but gently and pull it upward and backward and
slightly away from the head.
Question 35
A primary lesion that is usually seen in patient with acne;
Correct answer: Pustule
Question 36
The anterior-posterior chest diameter may increase with aging:
Correct answer: True
Question 37
All are true except:
Correct answer: Adventitious breath sounds are seen in almost all normal individuals
Question 38
The nerve that innervates all the intrinsic tongue muscles
Correct answer: Hypoglossal nerve
Question 39
A patient in the community approached you and told you that she has been suffering
from a vesicular skin lesion in her back on a which is very painful and upon inspection
you suspected that she might be suffering from shingles. What is the distribution of the
abovementioned lesion?
Correct answer: Dermatomal
Question 40
The skin’s ability to return to its place when pinched or lifted up:
Correct answer: Turgor
Question 41
One of the two common techniques in holding the otoscope:
Correct answer: Pencil grip
Question 42
The following statements are true except:
Question 43
assigned in the ENT OPD and you are assessing a senile client. You are suspecting
hearing loss what should you do next?
Correct answer: Distinguish between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss using
air and bone conduction test
Question 44
Hard and fixed lymph nodes suggest:
Correct answer: Inflammation
Question 45
General term for enlarged thyroid gland
Correct answer: Goiter
Question 46
Normal diaphragmatic excursion
Correct answer: 3-7 cm
Question 47
You’re the nurse assigned in the neuro ward and you are taking care of patients who
are suffering from stroke. You are assessing the cardinal movements of the extraocular
muscles and you know very well that they are lateral rectus muscle is innervated by
what cranial nerves?
Correct answer: Abducens nerve
Question 48
A finding that may indicate CN XII damage:
Correct answer: Deviation of the tongue
Question 49
Dryness of the skin can be associated in the following conditions except:
Correct answer: None of the above
Question 50
Landmark of the thyroid ithmus:
Correct answer: 3rd and 4th tracheal rings
FEAR>subjective
URINE OUTPUT>objective
ITCHINESS>subjective
RASHES>objective
BLOOD TYPE>objective
CHEST TIGHTNESS>subjective
HEADACHE>subjective
HOPELESSNESS>subjective
PALLOR>objective
BODY WEAKNESS>objective
DOES IT HURT?>closed
FORMULATING GOALS>planning
ADMINISTERING MEDICATIONS>implementation
RECHECKING RESPIRATORY>evaluation
- Difficulty in breading
- Body mechanics will be very poor
6TH
AREOLA COMPLEX
MONTGOMERY TUBERCLES
- involve respiration
5TH AREA IS THE TAIL OF THE SPENCE OR THE AXILLARY BREAST TISSUE
AFTER MENOPAUSE THE GLANDULAR STRACTURE WILL ATpatROPHY, THERE WILL BE NOTABLE
DECREASE NUMBER OF OBULES BECAUSE OF THE REGRESSION OR DECREASE DEPLETED ESTROGEN
SUPPLY.
SLIDE 7
THE SURFACE OF THE AREOLAR AS SMALL JROUNDED ELEVATION FORM BY SEBACEOUS GLAND SWEAT
GLANDS AND ACCESSORY AREOL GLANDS.
SLIDE 9
SUPERNUMERARY NIPPLE
SLIDE 11
GYNECOMASTIA
PSEUDOGYNECOMASTIA
MOST OF THE LYMPHATIC SYSTEM OF THE BREAST USUALLY DRAIN IN AXILLARY LYMPH NODES THEY
MAY EMERGED IN TAIL OF SPENCE.
Slides 12
CENTRAL NODES
LATERAL NODES
Slide 13
SBE
- Self-breast examination
- What you do personally on your own
CBE
GALACTORRHEA
PROLACTINE
Slide 37
- Fungating mass
Slide 43
- Erythematous
Slide 44
Slide 45
- Peau d’orange
LEFT VENRTICLE
APICAL IMPULSE
- The highest the loudest and the most recognizable heartbeat upon auscultation
PMI
- Locate in left boarder of the heart normally in the intercostal space. Just medial to mid clavicular
line. 4th to 5th
- Not usually palpable
Slide 4
CYSTUS INVERSUS
DESTROCARDIA
Slide 5
Slide 6
RIGHT ATRIUM
Slide 9
SYSTOLE PUMING
- Heart contract
- Aortic bulb is open
- Mitral bulb closes and pulmonic valve are open and tricuspid bulb closes
DIASTOLE FILLING
- Aortic bulb is close
- Mitral bulb is open
- Pressure In the heart
- Left atrium down to left ventricle
Slide 12
Aortic stenosis
S3
Slide 14
A2
- First sound
- Signify closure of aortic valve
P2
INSPIRATION
Slide 15
BELL
DIAPHRAGM
- Use for relatively high intensity of high pitch sound cause by S1, S2
SA NODES (SIANOATRIAL)
STROKE VOLUME
AFTERLOAD
VOLUME OVERLOAD
AUTOMATICTY
- Or the capacity to generate electrical impulses for a circumvented around the heart for the
heart to contract.
CHEST PAIN
FAINTING (syncope)
LEVEL C TO D/CATEGORY 3 TO 4
ONSET
CHARACTERISTIC
DURATION
LOCATION
RADIATION
ASSOCIATION
- Masakit lng and doghan kong mag hakwat ko, kong ga kotoy tyan ko, kong mahigda
ALLEVIATING FACTORS
- Ano ginahi mo sa patient pra ma dula ang sakit sa doghan
INTERMETENT CLUADICATION
ATRIAL FIBRIATION
DYSPNEA
ORTHOPEA
- Occurs when the patient is a supine/ tas gulpi lng nag tindog tas ng hapo kna
Paroxysmal – abot2
Dyspnea – hapo
SWELLING OR EDEMA
- Palng habok2
FAINTING
Slide 25
INSPECTION
Slide 55
- Boutonniere deformity
The most predominant quadrant of the female breast where 33% of breast cancer cases according to
National Cancer Database is?
Which structure is used to demarcate the point of origin where the female breast is further divided into
4 quadrant?
- Sternum
Mother showed a toy to her child during examination the hid it under the blanket. The child then
searched for the toy under the blanket thereafter. It is assumed that the child should be at least what
age?
- 6 months old
Which structure is used to demarcate the point of origin where female breast is further divided into 4
quadrants?
- Nipple
- A and B
Patient J, a female recently sought consult due to difficulty sleeping she claims to have episodes of
dyspnea awakening her from sleep usually 1-2 hours after going to bed urging her to sit up a nearby
window for some air. This symptom is medically known as?
Babinski reflex (extensor plantar response) in elderly patients is abnormal and indicates.
Women typically have a 13% risk of developing breast cancer over their lifetime. Angela Jolie on the
other hand had an estimated 87% risk of developing the disease and a 50% risk of ovarian cancer due to
heredofamilial tendencies discovered via gene testing. She underwent double mastectomy and later had
her ovaries and fallopian tubes removed significantly reducing risk of developing cancer. What specific
gene mutation conferred Angelina Jolie her risk for breast and ovarian cancer?
- BRCA1
Among edentulous patients, the tongue may enlarge due to the following.
- A. amyloidosis
The most predominant quadrant of the male breast where 17% of the breast cancer cases are detected
according to the national cancer database is?
The following heart sounds can be best heard using the diaphragm of the stethoscope
Patrick, a 14 years old adolescent, has been hooked to alcoholic beverages and habitual smoking of
cigarettes which caught his parent’s attention. He was brought to the clinic for behavioral modification
and counseling which of the following approaches will best benefit Patrick?
- Interview Patrick separately from parents to provide safe space for discussion of personal or
sensitive concerns that need to be voiced out
Patient HY, a 33YO female patient, sought consult at the OPD due to singular breast mass described as
soft, elastic, well delineated, mobile. Which of the following lesions most probable based on the
patient’s profile and description?
- Firboadenoma
The statement jane, 34yo, mother of baby boy KY- 90% reliability as informant, tita, 45YO female
caremaker at home of baby boy KY – 50% reliability as informant should be included in the pediatric
history under which category of information?
Breast cancer among men occurs in approximately 1% of the population. A nurse knowledgeable of this
incidence will put emphasis on palpation of which territory to detect the lesion?
- Developmental history
The most widely used tool for the assessment of the risk of developing pressure ulcer is?
- Barden scale
Black splinter hemorrhages in the middle or distal third of the fingernail are more likely to be due.
- Trauma
Patient KL, a 13yo female, was accompanied by the mother to purchase her first pair of brassieres. Her
breasts still has no distinct contour separation of the nipple-areola complex. Grossly her breast has now
assumed a rounded contour with tissues configuring a small cone. This can be documented by nurses as
Tanner stage
- Stage 4
- A and B
Patient JK, a 60yo female sought consult due to difficulty sleeping. She claims to have episodes of
dyspnea awakening her from sleep usually 1-2 hours after going to bed urging her to sit up or to rush to
a nearly window for some air. This symptoms medically known as?
The most widely used method of screening for valvular heart disease according to American college of
cardiology and the American heart association is/
- 2-dimensional echocardiography
The following are areas which differentiate the pediatric fromadult history taking and assessment except.
Babinski reflex extensor plantar response in elderly patients is abnormal and indicates.
- Spontaneous unilateral bloody discharge from one or two ducts may indicate carcinoma
- A and b
- A and B
The following views/maneuvers are employed in the insof the breast except.