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Sl no Year Paper Word count Mark

1 2018 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150
2 2018 250 marks, 3 hrs 150 10
3 2018 250 marks, 3 hrs 150 10
4 2018 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

5 2018 10

250 marks, 3 hrs 150

6 2018 Not 20
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

7 2018 15
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

8 2018 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

9 2018 Not 20
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

10 2018 15
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

11 2018 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

12 2018 20
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

13 2018 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

14 2018 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

15 2017 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

16 2017 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

17 2017 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150
18 2017 250 marks, 3 hrs 150 10
19 2017 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

20 2017 Not 20
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

21 2017 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
22 2017 15
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

23 2017 Not 20
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

24 2017 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

25 2017 15
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

26 2017 20
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

27 2017 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

28 2017 15
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
29 2016 250 marks, 3 hrs 150 10
30 2016 250 marks, 3 hrs 150 10
31 2016 250 marks, 3 hrs 150 10
32 2016 250 marks, 3 hrs 150 10
33 2016 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

34 2016 Not 20
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

35 2016 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

36 2016 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

37 2016 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

38 2016 Not 20
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

39 2016 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

40 2016 Not 20
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

41 2016 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

42 2016 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

43 2015 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150
44 2015 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

45 2015 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

46 2015 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

47 2015 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

48 2015 Not 20
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

49 2015 15
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

50 2015 15
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

51 2015 20
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

52 2015 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

53 2015 15
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

54 2015 20
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

55 2015 15
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

56 2015 15
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

57 2014 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

58 2014 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

59 2014 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150
60 2014 250 marks, 3 hrs 150 10
61 2014 250 marks, 3 hrs 150 10
62 2014 20
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

63 2014 15
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

64 2014 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

65 2014 Not 20
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

66 2014 15
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

67 2014 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

68 2014 Not 20
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

69 2014 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

70 2014 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

71 2013 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150
72 2013 250 marks, 3 hrs 150 10
73 2013 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

74 2013 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

75 2013 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

76 2013 Not 25
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

77 2013 Not 25
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

78 2013 Not 25
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

79 2013 Not 25
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

80 2013 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

81 2013 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

82 2013 Not 20
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

83 2013 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150
84 2013 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

85 2013 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

86 2013 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

87 2013 Not 25
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

88 2013 Not 25
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

89 2013 Not 25
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

90 2013 Not 25
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

91 2013 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

92 2013 15
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

93 2013 Not 20
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

94 2012 12

300 marks, 3 hrs 150

95 2012 12
300 marks, 3 hrs 150

96 2012 12
300 marks, 3 hrs 150

97 2012 12
300 marks, 3 hrs 150

98 2012 12
300 marks, 3 hrs 150

99 2012 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

100 2012 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

101 2012 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
102 2012 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

103 2012 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

104 2012 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

105 2012 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

106 2012 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

107 2012 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

108 2011 15
300 marks, 3 hrs 150

109 2011 15
300 marks, 3 hrs 150

110 2011 15
300 marks, 3 hrs 150

111 2011 15
300 marks, 3 hrs 150

112 2011 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

113 2011 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

114 2011 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

115 2011 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

116 2011 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

117 2011 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

118 2011 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

119 2010 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

120 2010 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
121 2010 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

122 2010 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

123 2010 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

124 2010 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

125 2010 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

126 2010 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

127 2010 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

128 2010 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

129 2009 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

130 2009 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

131 2009 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

132 2009 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

133 2009 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

134 2009 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

135 2009 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

136 2009 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

137 2009 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

138 2009 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

139 2009 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
140 2008 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

141 2008 20

300 marks, 3 hrs 200

142 2008 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

143 2008 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

144 2008 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

145 2008 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

146 2008 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

147 2008 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

148 2008 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

149 2008 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

150 2008 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

151 2007 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

152 2007 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
153 2007 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
154 2007 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

155 2007 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

156 2007 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

157 2007 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

158 2007 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

159 2007 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
160 2007 Not 20
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

161 2007 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

162 2007 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

163 2006 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

164 2006 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

165 2006 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

166 2006 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

167 2006 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

168 2006 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

169 2006 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

170 2006 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

171 2006 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

172 2006 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

173 2006 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

174 2006 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
175 2006 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
176 2006 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
177 2006 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

178 2006 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

179 2006 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

180 2006 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

181 2006 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

182 2006 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
183 2005 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

184 2005 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

185 2005 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

186 2005 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

187 2005 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

188 2005 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

189 2005 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

190 2005 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

191 2005 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

192 2005 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2004 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

2004 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

2004 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

2004 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

2004 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2004 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2004 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2004 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2004 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2004 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
2003 20

300 marks, 3 hrs 200

2003 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

2003 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

2003 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

2003 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2003 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2003 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2003 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2003 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2003 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2002 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
2002 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
2002 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
2002 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
2002 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2002 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2002 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2002 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2002 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2002 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2001 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

2001 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
2001 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
2001 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

2001 30

Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2001 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2001 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2001 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2001 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2001 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2001 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
367 2000 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
368 2000 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

369 2000 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

370 2000 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

371 2000 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

372 2000 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
373 2000 30

Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

374 2000 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

375 2000 20

Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

376 2000 20

Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1999 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
1999 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
1999 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1999 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1999 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1999 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1999 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1999 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1999 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
1999 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
1998 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
1998 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
1998 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1998 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1998 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1998 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1998 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1998 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1998 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1998 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1998 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1996 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1996 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1996 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1996 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1996 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1996 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
1996 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1996 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1996 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1996 30

Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1996 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1996 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
1995 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
1995 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
1995 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
1995 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1995 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1995 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1995 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1995 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1995 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1995 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
1995 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1994 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1994 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
1994 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
1994 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1994 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1994 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1994 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1994 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1994 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1994 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1994 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1993 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1993 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1993 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
1993 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
1993 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1993 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1993 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
1993 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1993 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1993 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1993 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1993 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1992 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
1992 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
1992 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1992 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1992 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1992 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1992 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1992 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1992 Not 20
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1992 Not 20
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1992 Not 20
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1992 Not 20
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
1992 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
1991 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
1991 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1991 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1991 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1991 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1991 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1991 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1991 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1991 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1991 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1991 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1990 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1990 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1990 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1990 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1990 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1990 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
1990 Not 20
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1990 Not 20
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1990 Not 20
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1990 Not 20
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1990 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1990 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
Question

What do you understand by the terms 'cooperative federalism' and *competitive federalism' ? Do you agree with the view tha
based on the concept of competitive federalism' and not on the concept of cooperative federalism'?
Administrative powers/actions are not always in conflict with the rule of law principle. Discuss with illustration
Critically evaluate the changing dimensions of the concept of 'State under Article 12 of the Constitution of India.

"Natural justice is not a made to order formula which has to be fitted to all situations with an iron-bound uniformity." Comme

"With the adoption of Parliamentary form of government, the vesting clause under Article 53(1) remains to a great extent mea
power lies in the Ministry." Critically examine the above statement in the context of the status and position of the President o
Constitution. Also answer, if the President of India does not accept the advice of the Prime Minister, what consequences woul
Examine the concept of social justice as envisaged in the Constitution, more particularly in Chapter IV of the Constitution and u
Constitution.

What are the constitutional safeguards available to a civil servant against dismissal, removal or reduction in rank of services ?
an employee of a public corporation ? Discuss with reference to statutory provisions and case law.
What would be the best way or method for the appointment of judges in High Courts and the Supreme Court in India ? Give yo
views with reasons.

What are the major challenges in the functioning of local bodies in India ? Does it talk about success story or something else?

Is the Governor's post dependent on the pleasure of the President ? Discuss. What exactly constitutes the discretion of the Go
numerous powers ? Explain with reference to statutory provisions and relevant case law
Discuss the constitutionality of delegated legislation. What are the limits of delegated legislation ? Explain.

"The liberty of the press implicit in the freedom of speech stands on no higher footing than the freedom of speech and expres
privilege is attached to the press as such distinct from the ordinary citizen." Explain this statement and also distinguish the ter
expression' and 'speech and expression'
"Imposition of Emergency in a State under Article 356 has always been a matter of controversy." In this backdrop, explain the
of Emergency in a State
Under what circumstances, does a third party, apart from concerned parties, have locus standi to move writ petitions before t
Court in India ? Also point out the limitations of such petitions.
Discuss the importance of 'Right to life and personal liberty' with reference to recent case laws.

Is 'Secularism' an essential feature of the Constitution of India ? Explain in the light of decided case laws.

Elucidate the scope of the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India under the constitution with regard to Criminal m
Explain the phenomenon of tribunalisation of justice in India.
Briefly explain the grounds on which administrative actions can be subjected to judicial review.

What is the position of the Governor in a State ? Examine the Pardoning Powers of the Governor under the Constitution. Is Pa
judicial review
In view of the importance of Panchayat Raj institution in local governance, do you think the idea of prescribing educational qu
election is undemocratic and incoherent ?
Explain the significance of the rule of 'AUDI ALTERAM PARTEM'in administrative decision making and state the circumstances
hearing' can effectively
satisfy the mandate of natural justice

Evaluate the constitutional provisions relating to administrative relation between the Union and the State with special empha
delegation of administrative power

Discuss the law relating to the powers of Parliament and State Legislatures to punish a person for breach of their privileges

Discuss the circumstances under which ‘Financial Emergency can be proclaimed by the President of India and effects thereof.

Do you think the current trends in judicial activism in India are inconsistent with the Principles of Separation of Powers, which
basic features of the
Constitution ?

Examine the powers and role of Election Commission of India in conducting free and fair election.
Do you think the institution of Lokpal, as envisaged under the Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013, is efficacious enough to curb co
inadequacies in the legislative framework, if any.

Explain the concept of 'Federalism'as incorporated in the Indian Constitution.


“The procedure adopted for amending the Constitution is unique; it is not rigid yet difficult." Elaborate.
The rule against bias strikes at such factors which may improperly influence in arriving at a decision. Comment.
What do you understand by the term 'Eminent Domain? Discuss its relevance in the present-day context.
Discuss the relationship between 'Fundamental Rights' and 'Directive Principles of State Policy' in the light of the constitutiona
cases.

Discuss the legislative powers of the Union and States as provided in the Constitution on the basis of subjects and territory.

Discuss 'Residuary Powers of the Parliament to legislate

"The need for administrative rule making entails delegated legislation.” Comment.

Briefly enumerate the executive powers of the President, especially when two or more States are involved in non-observance
While discussing the underlying principle of the 99th Amendment Act, 2014, comment on the present system of appointment
in the country

Discuss the powers and functions of the Union Public Service Commission. Also explain how it has maintained its impartiality.
“The 'Rule of Law' is based on the principle of legality and is opposed to exercise of arbitrary powers.” Discuss. Explain whethe
amounts to exercising power arbitrarily.

The role of 'Ombudsman' is to correct the administrative faults which are troubling the rights of a person in view of proliferati

The Policy and Guideline Theory' presupposes delivery of justice by quasi-judicial authority.” Elaborate it.

Given the contemporary economic, political and social realities, critically evaluate the judicial framework developed to determ
‘State’ for the purposes of Article 12. Is the test currently too narrow ? Justify your answer.
What would be your opinion regarding the view that the exercise of powers by the President and Governors under Article 72 a
also be open to Constitutional Challenge ? Discuss with reference to recent cases of the Apex Court of the country.
“Article 14 of the Constitution of India forbids class legislation not reasonable classification.” Examine and also discuss how far
opportunity are achieved by this Constitutional provision.

Define and distinguish between the terms ‘Lokayukta’ aiid ‘Lokpal’ in the Indian context. Also mention about its relevance.
What do you understand by the expression ‘independence of judiciary* ? Why is it being discussed/debated/questioned too m
would you give for this development5
“Right to life means something more than mere animal existence.” Discuss with reference to case law. Is there any difference
to life’ and ‘personal liberty* ? Explain critically.

“The Prime Minister is the keystone of the Cabinet arch because he is responsible for its formation, life and death.” Critically e
the light of various provisions of the Constitution and determine the position of the Prime Minister of India in the Cabinet.

The horizon of ‘Legal aid* has been widened best, still the impact is totally missing. How would you resolve this crisis which is
poor people of our country over the years ? Suggest some concrete measures to make it more effective and implementative.

In light of the fact that the Constitution of India has no express proliibition on delegated legislation, critically evaluate the basi
either prohibiting excessive delegation or permitting delegation without Constitutional limitations.
What is ‘Protected discrimination’ ? Examine how far it is constitutional under Article 15 and 16. Give reference of decided cas
of these articles as per its application.
“The non-obstante clause in Article 246 ought to be regarded as last resource in case of an inevitable and irreconcilable conflic
critically. Also discuss the abuse/abuses related to this clause. Is there any connection between the doctrine of ‘pith and subst
clause’ ?

Under what circumstances, apart from concerned parties, a third party has locus standi to move writ petition before the High
has this procedure helped in developing and promoting democratic principles in the country ?

Critically evaluate the powers of the Governor of a State as provided under the Constitution of India. How would you interpret
“the role of a Lieutenant Governor is no more than that of a facilitator of administration under the President’s control” ?

Explain the opinion of the Supreme Court of India regarding the relation between the Fundamental Rights and Directive Princi
of its decided cases. Do you agree with the view that giving primacy to one over the other is to disturb the harmony of the Con
reference to the present day scenario relating to education, health, religion, etc.
What do you think is the form/nature of our Constitution --- Federal, Unitary or Quasi-federal ? The Members of the Drafting C
many others would dispute this title. Critically examine the statement.
What is 'Constitutionalismo ? Explain the said concept both in its negative and positive aspects in the
context of India's tryst with 'Constitutionalism' and 'Constitutional Governance'

Article 13 makes the judiciary, and especially the Apex Court, as a guardian, protector and the interpreter of the Fundamental
well as imposes an obligation on the Courts to declare a law void if it is inconsistent with a Fundamental Right. Discuss.
Explain the scope of the Special Leave Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court as expounded by it
Examine the doctrine of separation of powers. Also mention the relevance of this doctrine in India
The concept of 'Reasonable Opportunity' being a constitutional limitation on the doctrine of “Tenure Pleasure', Parliament or
defining the content of 'Reasonable Opportunity and prescribing procedure for affording the said opportunity to the accused g
concept with reference to leading cases.

Explain and elucidate the meaning of the Right to personal liberty' as interpreted by the Supreme Court in Papanasam Labour
1995 S.C. 2200. Analyse critically the guidelines prescribed by the Hon'ble Supreme Court in this respect

Define the term “public servant'. Also discuss the recruitment procedure of public servants in India.

Examine and elucidate the constitutional scope of the Ordinance making power of the President and the Governors in India

A backward class cannot be identified only and exclusively with reference to economic criterion. A backward class may, howev
occupation-cum-income without any reference to caste. There is no constitutional bar in the State categorising the backward
backward'. Do you agree with the statement ? Give reasons.

What is ‘Public Interest Litigation'? What are the major facets of this form of litigation ? Also discuss the limitations of this type

Define and distinguish between 'Constituent power', 'Armending power' and 'Legislative power'. Give illustrations.
Do you agree with the statement that "all human rights are fundamental rights protected and recognised by the Constitution o
to statutory provisions and case laws
Enumerate the fundamental duties as provided in the Constitution of India. Also discuss the rationale behind the incorporation
Constitution of India later on.

Has judiciary been a hindrance or a facilitation the interpretation of Directive Principles? Examine in the light of various judgem
Fundamental duties are only ethical and moral duties and should not form par of the fundamental law. Comment

Is `commercial advertisement' covered within the ambit of ` freedom of speech and expression? Discuss with reference to lea
Critically examine the constitutional validity of an amendment deleting article 16(4) and authorising the estate to make job res
classes of citizens.
Doctrine of equality under the constitution cannot be applied to legitimise an illegal act. Can equality be invoked to justify ano
with reference e to cases.

Do you agree with the view that `Equality is antithesis of arbitrariness. In fact, equality and arbitrariness are sworn enemies" ?
The constitution of India merely subscribes to the three fold division of gubernatorial functions and not to the doctrine of sepa
rigidity." Comment
The goals specified in the preamble contain basic structure of our constitution, which cannot be amended under Art 368. Elab
cases.

What restrictions have been imposed by Constitutional amendment (44th) to check misuse of proclamation of emergency? Di

Write critical note on - Residuary powers

Write critical note on -Whether law relating to preventive detention can be challenged for violation of Article 19

Write critical note on - Introduction of Uniform Civil Code

Has judiciary been a hindrance or a facilitator in the interpretation of Directive Principles ? Examine in the light of various judg
Commercial advertisement covered within the ambit of freedom of speech and expression ? Discuss with reference to leading
Critically examine the constitutional validity of an amendment deleting Article 16(4) and authorising the State to make job res
backward classes of citizens.
Doctrine of equality under the Constitution cannot be applied to legitimise an illegal act. Can equality be invoked to justify ano
with reference to cases.

Do you agree with the view that “Equality is antithesis of arbitrariness. In fact equality and arbitrariness are sworn enemies" ?
“The Constitution of India merely subscribes to three-fold division of gubernatorial functions and not to the doctrine of separa
rigidity." Comment.

The goals specified in the Preamble contain basic structure of our Constitution, which cannot be amended under Article 368. E
cases.

What restrictions have been imposed by the Constitutional Amendment (44th) to check misuse of proclamation of emergency
Write critical notes on the following : Residuary Powers

Write critical notes on the following : Whether law relating to preventive detention can be challenged for violation of Article 1

Write critical notes on the following : Introduction of Uniform Civil Code.

"The entries in the legislative lists are not the source of powers for the legislative constituents, but they merely demarcate the
well settled law that these entries are to be construed liberally and widely so as to attain the purpose for which they have bee
interpretation of the entries is likely to defeat their object as it is not always possible to write these entries with such precision
topics and without any overlapping." Critically evaluate the above statement with reference to interpretation of legislative ent
Schedule to the Constitution.

Are personal laws 'law' for the purposes of Part III of the Constitution ? Discuss with reference to leading case law.

What is meant by 'individual responsibility and 'collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers ? What would be the conse
responsibility' in case a Minister of the Government is found guilty of tort of misfeasance by the Supreme Court of India ? Com

What is the justification behind the Pardoning power of the President of India under Article 72 of the Constitution ? Discuss w
cases the extent to which the exercise of this power can be subjected to judicial review.
Do you agree with the statement that 're-looking of the process of delegated legislation is necessary particularly in context to
participation ? Comment critically.

What do you understand by the term


'Constitutional Conventions? Are they are relevant in a country like India having a lengthy written constitution with preamble

"Contempt of Court is a power inherent to a court of record.” In this regard discuss the sweep of power of the Supreme Court
their contempt. Also examine the defences of 'fair criticism' and 'truth' in the light of Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.
In what circumstances and for violation of which rights can monetary compensation be awarded to the victims ? What is your
approach by judiciary? Analyse critically.
With special reference to the landmark judgments of the Supreme Court of India, discuss the effect of relegation of the right t
fundamental right to a constitutional right. Also suggest the changes required to be made in the Land Acquisition Act, 1894.

In the presence of institutions like Competition Commission of India and Telecom Regulatory Authority of India, where policy m
functions are fused, comment on the significance of the doctrine of separation of powers in the contemporary Indian scenario
Is there any difference between 'Right to information' and 'Right to be informed' ? Do we have any provision in the Constitutio
reference to case law.

Write critical notes on the following-Doctrine of Legitimate Expectation

Write critical notes on the following-Institution of Local Self Government


Write critical notes on the following - Modern progressive approach of the principles of
natural justice

Constituent power to frame the constitution and the constituent power to amend the constitution have different connotation
“The Judiciary by usurping the powers of the other two organs of the Government in certain matter has diluted the theory of s
agree? Examine critically?

Do local bodies enjoy autonomy in performing their role in the field of economic development and social justice? Explain.

The Governor of a State holds office during the ‘pleasure’ of the President of India. Can he be removed by the President any ti
Examine in the context of the position of the Governor under the Indian Constitution.

‘Equality is a dynamic concept with many aspects and dimensions, and it cannot be cribbed, cabined or confined within traditi
Explain, how the judiciary has widened the scope of the right to equality by various
decision.

Right to life has been extended to a clean human environment by the Courts in India. Discuss the development of law in this re

The decision of the Supreme Court of India in ADM, Jabalpur v.S. Shukla, according to Dr. Upendra Baxi, “made the darkness o
Do you think that the Constitution (44th Amendment) Act 1978 removed
this darkness and provided for better protection of the Fundamental Rights? Explain.

Examine whether the Election Commission ofIndia has succeeded in performing the two responsibilities entrusted to it
under Art. 324 of the Constitution of India? What steps would you suggestto ensure the preparation of correct electoral rolls?
Write critical notes on the following:—
a) Doctrine of Prospective Overruling.
Write critical notes on the following:—
(b) Duties of the Prime Ministerregarding furnishing of information to the President.
Write critical notes on the following:—
(c) Secularism.
“The fragrance and colour which is enshrined in Article 141 of the Constitution of India is destined to uphold the Rule of Law in
people of India.” Do you agree? Give reasons.

Whether right to vote is a fundamental or a statutory right ? Justify your statement with the help of relevant case-law on this
“While certainty of law is important in India, it cannot be at the cost of justice." Critically examine this statement in the contex
and also refer to relevant case-law.

The doctrine of separation of powers in its classical sense, which is functional rather than structural, cannot be applied in any

New frontiers of criminal justice have been spelled out from Article 21 of the Constitution, which provides that no person shal
and personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. Discuss and refer to decided cases.

Locus standi is necessary for challenging an administrative action, through a writ petition. How has it been liberalised in case o
Comment on the statement that "PIL is not a PILL against all the ILLS."

Critically examine the role of the Supreme Court of India in the maintenance of minimum standards in public life and polity. O
enforcement of the rule of law and how much of it is judicial activism. In recent times the role of Governor in the appointmen
has been impugned and it is said that the Court has assumed the role of the Governor and the Speaker. Comment. Refer to re
Court has directed to take composite floor test and report to the Court.

Write critical notes on the following :“The power to destroy the Constitution is not included in the power to amend the Consti

Write critical notes on the following : “It is the religious teaching, not the teaching of religion which is prohibited under the Co

Write critical notes on the following : “The doctrine of excessive delegation is a judicially tailored principle.”

Differentiate between Federal Constitution' and 'Federal Government'. Based on judicial pronouncements and your perceptio
Constitution, comment on whether India has a Federal Government or a Federal Constitution.
"There is still a controversy whether Reasoned Decisions' comprise a third pillar of natural justice." Do you agree with this stat
to recent case laws.

Define and distinguish between 'formal equality' and 'substantive equality as interpreted by the Apex Court of the country.
How would you judge the constitutional validity of an Amendment giving primacy to the executive in the matter of appointme
Court and High Courts?

"By evolving the concept of jurisdictional facts, the Courts have broadened the power of judicial review of administrative actio
compare the extent of judicial review of administrative action over jurisdictional facts and ordinary facts.
“The term freedom of speech and expression' in Article 19(1)(a) has been held to include the right to acquire information and
Elucidate the import of this statement in the context of media industry. Is the right to paint or sing or dance covered by Article
Constitution or not?
“The Directive Principles which have been declared to be fundamental' in the governance of the country cannot be isolated fr
Explain critically. Also throw light with reference to recent judgments on the Supreme Court's view as regards the interplay of
Fundamental Rights

Spell out the object and reasons of Part IV A of the Constitution of India. Do you support this addition to the Constitution of In
suggest some effective measures to make these provisions more realistic and operational

Write short notes on/Answer the following - cope of the Right with regard to self incrimination

Write short notes on/Answer the following -Indian ombudsman-unfulfilled dream

Write short notes on/Answer the following - “Powers of Election Commission are not sufficient." Comment.
‘Rule of Law’ does not mean rule according to statutory law, pure and simple, because such a law may itself be harsh, inequita
‘Rule of Law’ connotes some higher kind of law which is reasonable, just and non-discriminatory. Explain.

“With a view to enabling Parliament to act and x discharge its high functions effectively, without any interference or
obstruction from any quarter, without fear or favour certain privileges and immunities are attached to each House collectively
individually.” Critically examine the statement.

Examine the scope of the ‘Special Leave Jurisdiction’ of the Supreme Court as expounded by the Supreme Court of India.
Explain and elucidate the significance of the various strategies adopted for the implementation of the ‘Directive Principles’ of
IV of the Indian Constitution.
The framers of the Constitution felt that, in an emergency, the centre should have overriding powers to control and direct all a
legislation through-outthe country.Elucidate.

‘Judicial review is one of the basic features of the Constitution.’ Do you agree with the view? Cite relevant case laws.
“The legislature cannot delegate its powers to make a law; but it can make a law to delegate a power to determine some fact
the law intents to make its own action depend.”
Critically comment on the above statement and discuss with the aid of relevant legal provisions and case laws.
“Equality is the basic feature of the Constitution of India and any treat- ment of equals unequally or un- equals as equals will b
the Constitution of India.” Explain.
Write short notes on the following:
(a) The distinction between ‘Executive Power’ of the President and his ‘Constitutional Power’.
Write short notes on the following:
Rights of the Press and the problem of Pre- censorship.

Write short notes on the following:


The scope of the constitutional har-mony and balance between ‘Funda-mental Rights’ and ‘Directive Prin-ciples’ of State Polic
What procedure would you suggest to the Government of India where under an agreement between the Government of India
country a
small portion of Indian territory comprised in State Y has to be ceded to the above foreign neighbouring country
The doctrine of pith and substance introduces a degree of flexibility into the otherwise rigid scheme of distribution of legislativ
Constitution. Justify this statement with the help of case law
The Constitution of India is not true to any traditional pattern of federation. Comment
What is the meaning of Freedom of Press under the Indian Constitution? Can the freedom of press be restricted by a law requ
minimum wages to the employees of the press? Decide
Examine and elucidate the scope and significance of Article 32 of the Constitution in the context of Public Interest Litigation as
Court in MC. Mehta vs. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC. 1086
When can the Presidents Rule be imposed under Article 356 of the Constitution? Is there any need to amend Article 356? Wha
regard

Are these features in the Constitution of India that are basic or fundamental to it? Would you subscribe to the proposition tha
to amend the Constitution is subject to the bask or fundamental features of the Constitution? Elucidate

Discuss in detail the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India. Is the Supreme Court opinion binding on all courts

Write short notes on the following: . The doctrine of territorial nexus


Write short notes on the following: Meaning of the term Other Authorities under Article. 12 of the Constitution (20).
Write short notes on the following:
Power of President of India to grant pardons, repreives, etc. Under Article 72 of the Constitution
Write explanatory notes on the following:
Jus Cogens

"Article 16(4) is by itself a rule of equality rather than an exception to the rule." What is your view? Discuss with the help of ca
"The fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression has in recent times seen expanding horizons." Discuss and point
regard.
"The constitutional scheme of the distribution of legislative powers weights heavily in favour of the Union Parliament." Elucida
constitutional provisions and judicial decisions.

"The Indian federal structure has brought in some novel provisions which are not to be found in other federations." Critically d
" All these years Article 368 has seen a tug of w Ir between the constituent power and power of judicial review." Comment on
in detail.
Discuss the scope of the Original and Advisory Jurisdictions of the Supreme Court of India. Also give in brief your response to t
Jurisdication to be abolished.

"Secularism is neither anti-God nor pro-God. It eliminates God from the matters of State and ensures that no one shall be disc
religion." In the light of the above observation discuss the true import of freedom of religion guaranteed under the Indian Con
Is the President of India a mere constitutional head? Is he bound to accept the advice of the Council of Ministers? Discuss fully
provisions.
Examine the scope of Proclamation of Emergency by the President of India and enumerate the safeguards introduced by cons
present abuse of these powers.

"Bias vitiates all judicial and quasi-judicial proceedings." Comment on this statement and give two examples to illustrate the p
"Aut dedere aut judicare obligation is a common feature of the recent anti- terrorism conventions." In the light of I this statem
International law pertaining to extradition of terrorists.

"The authors of the United Nations Charter were the first to regard respect for human rights as an instrument of peace." Expla
light of the provisions of the U.N. Charter relating to the C.S.E. LAW promotion of human rights.
Define intervention and state the grounds under which it is justified under International Law.
In what circumstances may the use of force be legal under the United Nations Charter? Critically comment.

What are the conditions for granting asylum in a diplomatic embassy? When is this asylum regarded irregular? Explain with illu
Write a critical note on the provisions of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, relating to the grounds of invalidity, te
operation of treaties.

Discuss the provisions relating to the exercise of control by a coastal state over the artificial islands, installations and structure
Exclusive Economic Zone and the conservation and utilization of living resources therein.
The 1972 Stockholm "Declaration on Human Environment" and" Action Plan on Human Environment" create a new relationsh
between developed and developing countries. Explain.
Critically examine the provisions of the United Nations Charter which enables the United Nations to perform its primary role o
Charter require any reform in this respect?
What do you understand by state succession? To what extent does succession take place to (a) the treaty rights and obligation
obligations of the extinct state? Explain.
"Article 16(4) is by itself a rule of equality rather than an exception to the rule." What is your view? Discuss with the help of ca
"The fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression has in recent times seen expanding horizons." Discuss and point
regard.
"The constitutional scheme of the distribution of legislative powers weights heavily in favour of the Union Parliament." Elucida
constitutional provisions and judicial decisions.

"The Indian federal structure has brought in some novel provisions which are not to be found in other federations." Critically d
" All these years Article 368 has seen a tug of war between the constituent power and power of judicial review." Comment on
in detail.
Discuss the scope of the Original and Advisory Jurisdictions of the Supreme Court of India. Also give in brief your response to t
Jurisdiction to be abolished.

"Secularism is neither anti-God nor pro-God. It eliminates God from the matters of State and ensures that no one shall be disc
religion." In the light of the above observation discuss the true import of freedom of religion guaranteed under the Indian Con
Is the President of India a mere constitutional head? Is he bound to accept the advice of the Council of Ministers? Discuss fully
provisions.
Examine the scope of Proclamation of Emergency by the President of India and enumerate the safeguards introduced by cons
present abuse of these powers.

"Bias vitiates all judicial and quasi-judicial proceedings." Comment on this statement and give two examples to illustrate the p
Federalism has in recent years, witnessed a change - from the dogmatic to dynamic - approach." Discuss the changing approac
deviations in the working of the Constitution of India.

"Liberty of Press consists in laying no prior restraints upon publications and not in freedom from censure for matters when pu
how far this liberty of Press is protected under the Indian Constitution.

"The extensive use of the device of 'reasonable classification' by State and its approval by the Supreme Court has rendered the
equitable treatment' under Article 14 largely illusory." Discuss making clear the constitutional and popular concepts of ‘right to
What is Judicial activism? In this context evaluate the contribution of the Supreme Court of India, which is empowered to act a
constitutional provisions.
“The pardoning power of the Governor is not immuned from Judicial review" Examine this statement in the light of the case o
2000).

Examine in detail the provisions of the Constitution regarding appointment of Judges of the Supreme Court of India. Is it neces
to review and reform the prevailing provisions of the Constitution in this regard? Give reasons.
"The Supreme Court of India has extended theory of basic structure of the Constitution to the constitutional morality in the ca
Tamil Nadu,(200l)." Explain.
What are the grounds, duration and consequencesof the Proclamation issued by the President of India pertaining to the failur
States? Is such a Proclamation justiciable?

"Parliamentary privileges is an essential incident to the high and multifariousfunctions which the legislature is called upon to p
under the Constitution of India. Will you suggest reforms, if any, in the existing position?
Explain the form of the Government that the Constitution of India has adopted and which has been subject of criticism. What
in this regard?
Preventive Detention is the only exception carved out to the generally accepted proposition that no person shall be deprived o
accordance with the procedure established by law. Discuss the safeguards evolved by the Judiciary for the protection of perso
under the law of Preventive Detention

While the implementation of the Directive Principles of the State Policy is a pre- condition for the enjoyment of Fundamental R
theFundamental Rights will frustrate the realisation of the Directive Principles. Discuss

One has to turn to the privileges of the House of Commons to ascertain the Parliamentary privileges in India. How far is this st
One of the methods of control over the excerise of power of delegated legislation is legislative overseeing of delegated legisla
legislative control over delegated legislation

Explain the provisions made in the constitution of India for smooth administrative relationship between the Union and the Sta
Article 136 does not confer a right of appeal on a party as such but it confers a wide discretionary power on the Supreme Cour
Appeal in suitable cases. Discuss
Briefly explain the principles of interpretation which have been upheld in ascertaining the respective jurisdictions of Parliamen
out in Article 246 of the Constitution of India

Discuss the constitutional safeguards in respect of dismissal, removal or reduction in rank of persons employed in civil capaciti
Do these safeguards override the Doctrine of Pleasure embodied in the Constitution

Critically examine the decisions of the Supreme Court from AK. Gopalan to Maneka Gandhi cases with special reference to pro

The powers under Article 226 confer a discretion of the most extensive nature on the High Courts. But the very vastness of the
Court imposes on it the responsibility to use them with circumspection. Discuss briefly the principles which would regulate the
under Article 226

If the words All minorities in ____ Article 30 of the Constitution of India are replaced by the words, All sections of citizens havi
religion, ......... what fundamental rights of the minorities would be affected
Can Parliament of India make laws on the entries in the State List? If so, in what circumstances
Elucidate the constitutional procedure for electing President of India
What is the nature of the Indian Constitution? Do you think it is a Federal Constitution? Discuss

Discuss any one theory developed by the Supreme Court of India under Article 21 of the Constitution of India for compensatio

Justify the contemporary economic liberalisation reforms on the basis of constitutional provisions

Outline any three constitutional provisions that ensure non-discrimination against any State by the Centre
Schedule-III provides for on oath of Secrecy by a Minister. Can a Chief Minister administer such an oath to a non-minister in or
to all government documentation? Given reasons

Outline the methods of Parliamentary control over delegated legislation

Illustrate the doctrine of Nerno judex in causa sua (no one should be a judge in his own cause) as an effective rule of natural ju

What fundamental right, if any, of a person is violated if the State acts in pursuance of either Article 15 (4) or 16 (4) of the Con
The doctrine of pith and substance introduces a great degree of flexibility into the otherwise rigid scheme of distribution of leg
Constitution. Elucidate
Discuss the relationship between Article 29 and Article 30 of the Constitution
There is no abdication, surrender of legislative function so long as the legislature has expressed its will on a particular subject m
left effectuation of policy to subordinate agency. Discuss

In order to make the best use of the limited resources in the country and to meet certain demands of the joumalists and other
industry; the government plans to enact a law which
i. fixes the minimum wages for all the journalists and workers.
ii. declares Sunday and all other national holidays as compulsory holidays for the newspaper industry:
iii. requires the newspapers to allocate certain percentage of news space to pressing socio-economic issues facing the country
And
iv. prohibits certain kinds of advertisements, particularly those which make indecent depiction of women.

Your advice is sought by the government on the constitutionality of such legislation vis-a-vis Article 19 − 1 − a, Give your advice
cases

Except in cases where the requirement has been dispensed with expressly or by necessary implication an administrative autho
judicial functions is required to record the reasons for its decisions.
Examine and discuss whether administrative authority must record reasons for its decision when performing administrative fu
Critically examine the statement that though Maneka Gandhi V Union of India has made a great advancement towards the un
the Fundamental Rights in our Constitution it has not been able to make much difference either to the preventive detentions o
process of law

In order to cure the heavy under-representation of the Schedules Castes and the Schedules Tribes in the State services even a
Constitution a State wants to make a scheme, which may remove this imbalance within a period of five years. Advise the State
take under the Constitution for this purpose

The recent judicial pronouncement on the question of the appointment of the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Cour
emphasis on integrated participatory consultative process for selecting the best and most suitable persons available for the ap
statement highlighting the norms laid down by the Supreme Court for appointment of the judges of the Supreme Court and th
of the judges of the High Courts
Discuss the nature and the scope of the following writs : Certiorari

Discuss the nature and the scope of the following writs : Mandamus
The Indian Constitution is essentially federal in character though it tends to be unitary at times. Comment

What are the discretionary powers of the Governors of States? Why is there no provision in the Constitution for impeachment

Explain the provisions relating to protection and improvement of environment in our Constitution with special reference to th
The question today is not whether there should he delegated legislation, but subject to what safeguards it should he resorted
statement
The supreme Court in Maneka Gandhis case has revolutionised the law relating to personal liberty under Article 21 of the Con
illustration
Examine critically the relationship between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy in the light of d
constitutional amendments
Assuming that the Parliament, under Article 368 of the Constitution, passes the following constitutional amendments
i. Religion is a matter of personal faith. Its propagation in any form is strictly prohibited.
ii. Article 16 (4) of the Constitution empowering the state to make reservation in services under he state in favour of backward
ridded.
Discuss whether these amendments are likely to be held valid
Article 311 (2) lays down that a civil servant cannot be dismissed or removed or reduced in rank unless he has been given a rea
cause against the action proposed to be taken against him. Critically examine the statement with reference to the Constitution
Act, 1976

The Transport Commissioner is the Director, ex-officio of the. Karnataka State Road Transport Corporation (KSRTC) which is re
management of the transport undertakings of the Corporation. The transport Commissioner is simultaneously Chairman of th
power to grant/refuse stage carriage permits. In this case, private bus operators had applied for renewal of their stage carriag
routes. At the same time. KSRTC also applied for fresh stage carriage permits in respect of the same routes. Examine with refe
of the Administrative Law, whether the Commission can be restrained from exercising his power. Give reasons for your answe

The Civil Surgeon had issued an advertisement for a training course in midwifery at the District Hospital. The advertisement ha
candidates must enclose along with their application their husbands written permission for pursuing the course. The wife got
husband and joined the course. The husband, however, had second thoughts and wrote to her and the authority saying she sh
not being there would disturb the family Life and hence she would not be permitted to join. Thereafter the authority asked he
no objection from the husband. Examine with reference to the relevant provisions of the Constitution the validity of the order

Parliaments power to amend the Constitution cannot be equated with the power of the Constituent Assembly to frame a Con
Justice should not only be done, but should manifestly and undoubtedly be seem to be done. Comment

Impendence if judiciary being a basic feature of the Constitution appointment of judges should not be influenced by political c
What is included within the right to freedom of speech and expression? Are commercial advertisements covered by the prote
decided cases.
What are the discretionary powers of the President, if any? How much discretion does he have in the appointment of the Prim
Government and dissolution of the Lok Sabha? Discuss.

The term procedure established by law in Article 21 of the Constitution has been interpreted by the Supreme Court to entitle a
fair trial. Discuss and referring to decided cases spell out the ingredients of a fair trial.
What is the meaning of failure of constitutional machinery in a State? To what extent is the satisfaction in of the President in t
the courts? Discuss.

A law prohibits religious conversions brought about by use of fraud, force, or allurement and makes it a punishable, offence. In
that the law is violative of right to propagate religion guaranteed under Article 25 of the Constitution. Decide giving reasons.

The Service Rules of a Statutory Corporation allow the Corporation to terminate the services of a conformed employee by givi
paying three months salary in lieu to notice. The validity of the rule is challenged for violation of Articles 14 and 21 of the Cons
A minority educational institution, which s completely unaided by the Government, is required by the Education Code framed
teachers salary at the prescribed rate. The institution shows its inability and contends that the enforcement of the code amou
constitutionally guaranteed right of administration. Decide giving reasons.
Constitution of India is first and foremost a social document. Granville Austin. Explain.
Right to equality and protection to personal liberty are no longer mutually exclusive. Discuss.
Repromulgation of ordinances without placing them before the Legislative Assembly is a fraud on the Constitution. Discuss wit
case.

What you cannot do directly, you cannot do indirectly. Discuss and comment on the theory of colourable legislation.

Directive Principles of state Policy have played a significant role in the interpretation of the Constitution. Explain and illustrate

State the scope of the Freedom of Trade and Commerce in India. When and in which circumstances may preference to one Sta

Right not to be discriminated on the ground of sex and the need for empowerment of women by making special provision for
ensure that women have adequate representation in Parliament. Argue for and against the proposed constitutional amendme

Critically examine the existing scheme of Union and State relations in India. Comment upon the Sarkaria Commission Report in
the property of the power of the Union Government to impose Presidents Rule in the States.

A body aged 16 was convicted and punished in 1957 to undergo rigorous punishment for six months. After his conviction the P
was passed. In appeal he claims the protection of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958. Decide

Section 7 of the Delhi Laws Act, 1912 empowered the Provincial Government to extend with such restrictions and modification
of Delhi or any part thereof, any enactment which is in force in any part of India on the date of such notification. A petition is fi
contending that delegation of such legislative power is not constitutional. Decide.

The Government of India by an offence memorandum reserved 27% of posts for


appointment under the State in favour of socially and educationally backward classes. A petition is filed in the Supreme Court
ground that it could only be done by an Act of Parliament and not by an executive order. Decide.
Does the right to life and personal liberty in Article 21 of the Constitution embrace a right to clean, healthy and livable environ
environment in its broadest meaning as understood in contemporary jurisprudence? Examine the question in the background
provisions and case-law.
Examine the contention that the Constitution 44th Amendment which has radically altered the character and content of the ri
basic structure of the Constitution.

The doctrine of pith and substance introduces a great deal of flexibility into otherwise rigid scheme of the distribution of legisl

The High Courts power of superintendence under Article 227 is of an administrative as well as of judicial nature. Discuss.
To what extent the Supreme Court has put a check on motivated and arbitrary dismissal of State governments by the Centre u
law.

The right to receive compensation in proceedings under Article 32 of the Constitution for violation of the fundamental right to
public officials cannot be defeated by raising a plea of sovereign immunity. Discuss
with the help of case-law.
What is the scope and content of the phrase reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect of those charges in Article 311
Does it embrace a right to receive a copy of the inquiry officers report? Refer to the case-law on the subject.

Discuss the constitutional position of President of India. On the eve of general elections to the Lok Sabha and just after the las
government sends an Ordinance to the President extending the benefit of job reservations to Dalit Christians. The President re
the Cabinet to reconsider its advice. Is the action of President sustainable under the Constitution? Discuss.

Examine whether the opinion of the Chief-Justice of India in regard to the appointment of Judges to the Supreme Court and H
primacy. Can the President of India disregard the said opinion when it is in conflict with the advice tendered by the Council of
constitutional issues and the case-law on the point.

X has been sentenced to death for having committed several murders. He writes his autobiography in jail and hands over the s
The autobiography depicts a close nexus between X and some top government officials, some of whom had been partners in t
accepts the autobiography for publication. The Inspector-General Persons asks Z to stop publication of Xs autobiography as it
against State officials and is false. Z contends that the Inspector-General Prisons has no authority to impose a prior-restraint u
autobiography. Decide.
In order to ensure availability of timber to the common man at a reasonable price, the State of UP declared timber as an essen
total ban on the movement of timber from Uttar Pradesh to any other area outside the State. The law imposing a total ban is c
301. Decide.

Write short notes on - Rebus sic Stantibus in the Vienna Convention 1969 on the Law of Treaties
Constitution of India is neither purely federal nor purely unitary but is a combination of both. Discuss.
A quasi-judicial authority cannot make any decision adverse to any party without giving him an effective opportunity of meetin
against him. Examine.
Right to life includes the right to commit suicide Examine.

The doctrine of basic structure has established judicial supremacy in the area of constitutional amendment. Examine.

Critically examine the widening dimensions of the concept the State in Article 12 of the Constitution of India.

Discuss the characteristics of secularism and examine how far the Indian Constitution is secular.
The Central Executive ... Exercises not only executive functions but also, in a limited way, judicial and legislative functions, Com
the Executive at the Centre.
Do you agree with the view what it is not possible to define limitations on the exercise of discretionary jurisdiction vested in th
136? Give reasons for your answer.

Da judge of a High Court was transferred by the Presidential order to another High Court. D challenges the transfer on the gro
without his consent and without the concurrence of the Chief Justices of the two State High Courts concerned and of the Chie
legal issues involved.

Consequent on a dispute between two rival groups, the police arrested A the leader of the group and lodged him in sub-jail. A
other group may attack him in jail. But the authorities did not take any precautionary measures. At night the rival group attack
of A filed writ petition before the High Court asking for compensation for the violation of the right to life of A The State pleads
Doordarshan invited X, a lady journalist for an interview to be telecast subsequently. The theme of the interview was Laws rel
the interview X referred to a bill on womens rights pending in Parliament and criticized that some of its provisions are unjustifi
portion of the interview was arbitrarily deleted when the interview was telecast. X wants to challenge with deletion, Discuss th
Distinction between quasi-judicial and administrative functions is no longer the exclusive criterion for deciding whether or not
apply. Critically examine the above statement.
The Preamble to the Constitution sets out the aims and aspirations of the people of India. To what extent have they been tran
provisions of the Constitution?
The law declared by the Supreme Court of India shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India. Discuss.
One of the methods of control over the exercise of power of delegated legislation is legislative overseeing of delegated legisla
legislative control over delegated legislation.
Examine the conditions under which emergency can be proclaimed under Article 352 of the Constitution. Point out the safegu
of the emergency.

Assess the powers of the Governor as the head of the Government of a State. Is the Governor bound to act according to the a
he exercises powers conferred on him under a statute as the Chancellor of a University in his State? Give your reasons

All obstructions or impediments, whatever shape they take, to the free flow or movement of trade or noncommercial intercou
Constitution Critically examine the above statement with the help of decided cases.
One has to turn to the privileges of the House of Commons to ascertain the parliamentary privileges in India. How far is this st
reasons.

A lawyer challenges the appointment of P as a judge of the High Court on the ground that the Chief Justice of India did not rec
the President consulted him. Identify the issues involved in this case.

The post of the Director of Health Services was reserved by the State government for Scheduled Caste. A a member of the Sch
this post. B, the senior most Deputy Director of the Health Services questioned the selection, Bs argument was that treating a
director as reserved is hundred percent reservation not allowed under the Constitution. Write a reasoned judgement.

The Regulation framed under a State law empowers the State government to prohibit, in certain areas during agricultural seas
for manufacture of bidis.
The State law was framed to promote agriculture. The District Collector used the power under the Regulations and issues a pr
manufacturer challenges the constitutional validity of the State law and the Regulation. Decide.

Point out the-contingencies under which the President may promulgate Ordinances. Discuss the limitations on this power

Explain how fundamental right to education was evolved. What limitations are now placed on this right by the Supreme Court

Explain the doctrine of pith and substance in relation to distribution of legislative powers between the Centre and the States.
State arguments for and against advisory juridsiction of the Supreme Court.

Critically discuss the financial relations between the Cenrtre and the State. What measures have been suggested to strengthen
Are provisions relating to preventive detention undemocratic and harsh? Discuss briefly the safeguards available to a person d
detention.

Explain the doctrine of pleasure incorporated into the Indian Constitution in respect of civil servants.
Enumerate the various procedures of amending the Constitution. Discuss the limits of the amending power.

The state education rules provide for compulsory singing of national anthems in schools every morning. X, a student, whose re
praise of anyone other then God refuses to sing but stands in respect when national anthem is sung The school authorities exp
Write the ground on which the expulsion can be challenged.

The Green party routs the White party in a general election to Parliament. The Whites do not get even a single parliamentary
they had the majority of seats in the State Assembly by virtue of an election in the past. The President dissolves the assemblie
rondered by the Green partys Cabinet at the Centre. The nine states challenge the action before the Supreme Court. Will they

An independent member joins the ruling party. After a few months he disobeys the whip and abstains from voting. He was dis
constitutional amendment providing for disqualification on the grounds that it restricts his freedom of speech and expression,
act according to the demands of his voters and excludes judicial review of the act of disqualification. Decide.
Decisions of courts and tribunals are a subsidiary and indirect source of international law. Discuss this statement and explain h
institutions lead to the formulation of the rules of international law.

An authority is State withing the meaning of Article 12 of the Constitution of India if it is an agency or instrumentality of State.
an authority is an agency or instrumentality of State or not?
Arbitranness is the very antithesis of equality. Discuss.

In matters of larger public interest the requirement of locus standi has been liberally construed. Illustrate your answer with re

The Supreme Court has been assigned the role of a sentinel on the qui vive for the protection of the fundamental rights. Discu

The reservation policy adopted in India in the last four decades has failed to promote social justice. On the contrary it has led t
disharmony. It has been called a case of right goal, wrong strategy. Critically examine this statement and suggest measures to
educationally and economically backward classes of people.

In exercise of powers conferred on him under paragraph 6 of the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, the Speaker of Lok Sabh
questions as to disqualification of some Members on ground of defection. The aggrieved members file a writ prtition against t
Supreme Court not withstanding a Bar to jurisdiction of all Courts under paragraph 7 of the said schedule. Decide.

The right to freedom of religion has neither created a secular State in India nor promoted secular outlook in public life. Critical
and suggest measures necessary to promote a secular social order in which secular State may grow.

The power given to the Union Government to impose Presidents rule in the State is not consistent with the concept of federal
statement and give your own suggestion to safeguard against the abuse of the said power.

Amending power has been exclusively assigned to the Union Parliament except when the amendment involves amendment o
Parliament is the sole judge in matters involving parliamentary privileges and immunities except when it is the question conce
citizen.

Doctrine of pleasure in relation to civil servants has been largely watered down by the specific constitutional safeguards guara
Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States has been heavily tilted in favour of the Union by a liberal i
power clause by the Supreme Court.
Declaration of the Rights of the child adopted by the General Assembly of the United Nations in 1959 has largely remained me
matching activity to improve the lot of the children. Discuss.
Have the Emergency Provisions in effect maintained a unitary constitution for India? Give your assessment.
Constitution of India accepts secularism but there is no rigid separation between state and freedom of religion given-to the ind
constitutional provisions.

The Supremacy of Constitution in Indian legal system in reality means primacy of judiciary over other organs of Government D
Delegation of legislative powers becomes unconstitutional when there is excessive delegation. Explain the statement and exam
delegation of legislative powers in India.
Right to equality is available only against state actions and arbitrariness but since the right to equality has very wide applicatio
enlargement of the scope of state for the benefit of people. Discuss
X is suffering from kidney failure and doctors advise that by frequent dialysis he can remain alive for some years. Dialysis of blo
has some property but be wants this property to be used by his wife and children. Can X refuse this treatment? Discuss the co
life and to die.
Are the principles of natural justice embodied rules of the Constitution of India having the characteristics of due process of law
of fundamental rights? Discuss how the Supreme Court has answered this question and how it has in Tulsi Ram Patel Case defi
natural justice.
Is the power of amendment implicit in the Constitution of India and is it wide enough to replace the present constitution by a
revolution or referudum?
Discuss by making reference to Keshwanand Bharti Case doctrines.

A highly controversial bill which has attracted public debate is under consideration in the Legislative Assembly of a State and it
day. A minister who is actively supporting the bill is stopped on the road while proceeding to attend the meeting of the Legisla
who disapproves the bill scolds the minister for the bill and throws a shoe on him. Can the Legislative Assembly punish the you
the House?

A new colony is developed near in Jam temple which is more than 15 km away from a city and there is no temple for worship
a demand for instralling Shivaling in this Jam temple for worship. This demand is rejected by management of the temple. The
temple under Article 226 for the protection of their freedom of religion under Article 25 of the Constitution. Decide.

A public officer B is charged for corruption and after a departmental inquiry he is desmissed from service. Subsequently he is p
for taking bribery and other offences for which he was dismissed from service. Is this prosecution before criminal court a viola

Fundamental Rights in India secure the minimum of peoples liberties which neither the State can take away nor a person can s
Is the principle of natural justice an essential precondition for all legal and administrative actions? Explain the position of this p
under the Constitution.
The essence of the power of judicial review is the maintenance of rule of law and constitutional supremacy in the State. Exam
experiences.

Examine the constitutional safeguards provided against misuse of imposition of Emergency under Article 352 of the Constituti

Discuss the basic conditions for making constitutionally valid classifications under the doctrine of equality before law. Illustrate
reference to validity of such enactments which apply to an individual only.

Discuss the nature, scope and interpretation of equal pay for equal work principle under Article 39 (d) and the right to work un
Principles of State Policy provided in Indian Constitution. Is it practicable to make them part of Fundamental Rights of people?
Discuss the following making reference to decided cases: Citizens right to show films on Television and Doordarshan.
Discuss the following making reference to decided cases: Statutory regulation of educational standards and conditions of emp
institutions.
Discuss the following making reference to decided cases: Warrant of arrest issued by the Speaker of the House of the People a
face the charges of contempt of the House of the People.
Discuss the following making reference to decided cases: A State law imposing tax on goods carried by all road transport comp
boundaries of the State.

The effective control of delegated legislation has been through judiciary and not through the legislature. Comment on the stat
Evaluate the regulatory role of the Union Public Service Commission in the exercise of pleasure by President of India in making
in termination of service of Civil Servants.
Sub topic
Fundamental rights
Supreme Court/ High Court

Fundamental rights

Fundamental rights

SLP
Fundamental rights

Fundamental duties

Supreme Court and the High Courts:


(a) Appointments and transfer.
(b) Powers, functions and jurisdiction
Fundamental duties

SUPREME COURT – PART II


MOST IMPORTANT AREAS+CA
Fundamental rights
Fundamental rights

Supreme Court and the High Courts:


(a) Appointments and transfer.
(b) Powers, functions and jurisdiction

(a) Appointments and transfer.

(b) Powers, functions and jurisdiction


Sl no Year Paper Word count Mark
1 2018 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

2 2018 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

3 2018 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

4 2018 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

5 2018 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

6 2018 Not 20
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7 2018 Not 15
8 2018 250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
15
9 2018 Not 20
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10 2018 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

11 2018 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

12 2018 Not 20
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

13 2018 15
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

14 2018 15
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
15 2017 250 marks, 3 hrs 150 10
16 2017 250 marks, 3 hrs 150 10
17 2017 250 marks, 3 hrs 150 10
18 2017 250 marks, 3 hrs 150 10
19 2017 250 marks, 3 hrs 150 10
20 2017 Not 20
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

21 2017 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

22 2017 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

23 2017 20
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

24 2017 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
25 2017 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

26 2017 Not 20
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

27 2017 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

28 2017 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
29 2016 250 marks, 3 hrs 150 10
30 2016 250 marks, 3 hrs 150 10
31 2016 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

32 2016 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150
33 2016 250 marks, 3 hrs 150 10
34 2016 20
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

35 2016 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

36 2016 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

37 2016 Not 20
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

38 2016 Not 20
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

39 2016 Not 10
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

40 2016 Not 10
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

41 2016 Not 20
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

42 2016 20
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

43 2015 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

44 2015 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150
45 2015 250 marks, 3 hrs 150 10
46 2015 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150
47 2015 250 marks, 3 hrs 150 10

48 2015 20
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
49 2015 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

50 2015 15
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

51 2015 Not 20
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

52 2015 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

53 2015 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

54 2015 Not 20
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

55 2015 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

56 2015 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

57 2014 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

58 2014 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

59 2014 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

60 2014 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150
61 2014 250 marks, 3 hrs 150 10
62 2014 20
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

63 2014 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

64 2014 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

65 2014 Not 20
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

66 2014 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

67 2014 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

68 2014 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

69 2014 Not 15
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

70 2014 Not 20
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
71 2013 10

250 marks, 3 hrs 150

72 2013 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

73 2013 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

74 2013 10

250 marks, 3 hrs 150

75 2013 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

76 2013 25
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

77 2013 25
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

78 2013 Not 25
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

79 2013 25
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

80 2013 Not 25
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

81 2013 25

Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

82 2013 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

83 2013 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150

84 2013 10
250 marks, 3 hrs 150
85 2013 10

250 marks, 3 hrs 150

86 2013 10

250 marks, 3 hrs 150

87 2013 25
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

88 2013 25
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

89 2013 Not 25
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

90 2013 25
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

91 2013 Not 25
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

92 2013 25
Not
250 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

93 2012 12
300 marks, 3 hrs 150

94 2012 12
300 marks, 3 hrs 150
95 2012 300 marks, 3 hrs 150 12

96 2012 12
300 marks, 3 hrs 150
97 2012 300 marks, 3 hrs 150 12
98 2012 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

99 2012 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
100 2012 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

101 2012 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

102 2012 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

103 2012 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

104 2011 15
300 marks, 3 hrs 150

105 2011 15

300 marks, 3 hrs 150

106 2011 15

300 marks, 3 hrs 150


107 2011 300 marks, 3 hrs 150 15

108 2011 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

109 2011 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

110 2011 30

Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

111 2011 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

112 2011 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

113 2011 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

114 2010 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
115 2010 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

116 2010 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

117 2010 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

118 2010 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

119 2010 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

120 2010 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

121 2010 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

122 2010 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

123 2010 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

124 2009 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

125 2009 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

126 2009 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

127 2009 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

128 2009 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

129 2009 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

130 2009 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

131 2009 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
132 2009 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
133 2009 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
134 2009 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

135 2008 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

136 20

2008 300 marks, 3 hrs 200

137 20

2008 300 marks, 3 hrs 200

138 20
2008 300 marks, 3 hrs 200

139 20
2008 300 marks, 3 hrs 200

140 Not 30
2008 300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

141 2008 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

142 2008 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

143 2008 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

144 2008 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

145 2008 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

146 2008 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

147 2007 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
148 2007 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
149 2007 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
150 2007 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
151 2007 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

152 Not 30
2007 300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
153 Not 30
2007 300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
154 Not 30
2007 300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
155 Not 20
2007 300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
156 Not 20
2007 300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
157 2007 Not 20
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

158 2006 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

159 2006 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
160 2006 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
161 2006 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
162 2006 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

163 2006 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

164 2006 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

165 2006 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

166 2006 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

167 2006 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

168 2005 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

169 2005 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
170 2005 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
171 2005 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
172 2005 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

173 2005 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

174 2005 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

175 2005 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

176 2005 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

177 2005 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2004 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
2004 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
2004 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
2004 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
2004 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2004 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2004 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2004 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2004 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2004 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
2003 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
2003 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
2003 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
2003 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
2003 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2003 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2003 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2003 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2003 Not 20
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2003 Not 20
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2003 Not 20
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2002 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
2002 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
2002 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
2002 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
2002 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2002 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2002 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2002 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2002 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2002 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
2001 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

2001 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
2001 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
2001 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20

2001 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2001 Not 20
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2001 Not 20
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2001 20

Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2001 Not 20
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2001 Not 20
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

2001 Not 20
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

377 2000 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

378 2000 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
379 2000 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
380 2000 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
381 2000 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

382 2000 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

383 2000 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

384 2000 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

385 2000 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

386 2000 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

387 2000 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
388 2000 Not 20
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
1999 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
1999 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
1999 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20

1999 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1999 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1999 Not 60
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1999 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1999 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1999 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1999 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1999 20

Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
1998 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
1998 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
1998 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
1998 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
1998 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1998 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1998 Not 20
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1998 Not 20
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
1998 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1998 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1998 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1998 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1998 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1997 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1997 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1997 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1997 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1997 30

Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1997 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1997 Not 20
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1997 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1997 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1997 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1997 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1997 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1997 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
1996 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
1996 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
1996 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1996 20

300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1996 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1996 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1996 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1996 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1996 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1996 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1996 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1996 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1996 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1996 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1995 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1995 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1995 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1995 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1995 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
1995 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1995 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1995 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1995 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1995 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1995 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1995 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1995 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
1994 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20

1994 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1994 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1994 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1994 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1994 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1994 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1994 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1994 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1994 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1994 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
1994 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1994 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1993 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
1993 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
1993 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1993 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1993 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1993 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1993 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1993 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1993 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1993 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1993 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1993 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1993 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1992 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1992 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
1992 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
1992 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20

1992 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1992 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
1992 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1992 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1992 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1992 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1992 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1992 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1991 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1991 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1991 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1991 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1991 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1991 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1991 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1991 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1991 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1991 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1991 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1991 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1990 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1990 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1990 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
1990 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20
1990 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1990 Not 20
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1990 Not 20
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1990 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1990 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
Question
Explain the distinctions between traditional and modern definitions of international law. Critically examine the growing scope
international law in the present context
"Where Extradition begins Asylum ends." Critically examine the above statement with special reference to extraditable person
crimes.
It is generally viewed that "Rights and Duties are correlative". However, the International Human Rights Movement has develo
oriented than duties-oriented. Why has this happened ? Explain with the help of various International Human Rights instrume
'Human Duty Movement instead of a Human Rights Movement'?
Define 'International Treaty and explain the growing importance of treaties in Modern International Law. Can a multilateral tre
so, on what grounds ? Explain.

Do you agree with the statement that "the Globalization is a necessary evil" ? Critically examine the implications of the reform
the IMF and IBRD by way of structural adjustment programmes and policies on developing countries, with special reference to
"Continental Shelf was regarded as the natural prolongation of the land mass of the coastal state." Critically examine the Delim
Continental Shelf with the help of relevant case law of the International Court of Justice (ICJ)
Define International
"Membership of the Dispute. Explain the
Security Council difference
is not between
democratic mainlypeaceful
becausesettlement of disputes
of its veto power. andof
In view compulsive settlement
that, the U.N. SecurityofCou
di
"Certain
examine provisions
expanded the
andgrowingofimportance
should the four
give moreGeneva
of ADRConventions
methods
membership in(1949)
to other and their
International
countries additional
Dispute
reflecting protocols of 1977
settlement
the demographic have assumed
composition the status of
of the community ofc
Gus cogens) of IHL today." Do you agree with the above statement ? Justify your arguments in the light of common Article 3 o
Conventions.

Explain the concept of terrorism in the context of current technological developments. Do you justify counter-terrorism as an
deal with terrorist activities ? Is the existing international legal regime effective in dealing with emerging new terrorist threats
Explain the differences between Paris and Bern regimes. Do you agree with the statement that "The Trade Related Intellectua
is nothing, but mere repetition of the Paris and Bern Conventions." Discuss.
"International law is primarily concerned with Rights, Duties and Interests of States." Critically examine the statement with ref
Individuals and Non-State entities in International law.
Do you agree with the statement that "Beginning with the Stockholm Declaration of 1972, there has been an increased relianc
international instruments dealing with environment" ? Why has this trend developed and have these instruments been more
Explain.
It is generally viewed that "What the U.N. did in the 20th century for maintenance of peace and security, the W.T.O. is going t
economic and trade relations in the 21* century". Discuss the above statement in view of the changing notion of political sove
sovereignty of States.
What are the theories relating to relationship between International Law and Municipal Law ? Elaborate.
What are the factors that govern the recognition of insurgency and belligerancy
Does the International Court of Justice (ICJ) have the competence to determine its own jurisdiction ? Discuss with case law
Define 'hijacking' and discuss the main provisions of the Hague Convention, 1970
Comment on the provisions relating to prohibition of use of force and exceptions thereto under the U. N. Charter, 1945

Define 'high seas'. Discuss in brief the provisions of the convention on high seas. Is freedom of fishing on high seas recognized
The Dispute Settlement Body (DSB) of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) is playing an important role in maintaining the stab
economy. Comment.

Enumerate the various methods of Peaceful Settlement of International disputes. Elaborate on judicial settlement.
What do you mean by 'human environment'? Discuss the role of United Nations Organisation (UNO) in protecting and improvi
environment.

Define Nationality'. What are the modes of acquisition and loss of nationality ? What is the position of nationality of married w
Discuss the provisions relating to amendment and modification of treaties under the Vienna Convention on Law of Treaties, 19

Explain the main provisions of the Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons, 2017. Do you think it can lead to complete e
weapons

Discuss the scope of right of asylum under International Law and explain ‘territorial and ‘extra-territorial' asylum

Elucidate the fundamental principles of International Humanitarian Law as envisaged under International Conventions.
Discuss the nature and basis of International Law
Discuss the status of individual in International Law especially with respect to Human Rights Treaties.
A treaty is void if it conflicts with an existing or new or emerging peremptory norm of International Law or jus cogens' at the ti
Comment
Discuss whether the trend of convention providing a special clause prohibiting all kinds of reservations or some or specific or s
reservation or prohibiting reservations totally will hinder the growth of International Law
International Law evidences the evidentiary theory of recognition. Discuss
Discuss how International Law becomes part of the law of the land in India. In case of conflict between the International Law a
which one would be applied by the Municipal Courts of this country? Explain.
Can India invoke the India-UK Mutual Legal Assistance Agreement for extraditing an Indian national who has run away to UK in
Court order in respect of fraud and money laundering against him? Explain.

What are the essential differences between the International Humanitarian Law and International Human Rights Law? Explain

Discuss the legal regime of fright of innocent passage' through the territorial waters (including international straits) of a State

Discuss the law of delimitation of the continental shelf of a State including the continental shelf common to two or more State
Discuss the functions, powers and jurisdiction of the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS) established under th
Law of the Sea, 1982.

Discuss the constituent elements of an international rule of customary law with the help of cases
Discuss, with the help of relevant case law, various methods specifically mentioned under Chapter VI of the UN Charter to reso
disputes peacefully. Also discuss the role of Security Council in this regard.

Final words of Paris Agreement under the UNFCCC, 2015 was adopted unanimously by 195 countries. According to this Agreem
Determined Contributions (NDC) are to be reported every 5 years and are to be registered with UNFCCC Secretariat which will
depending upon the targets set by each country itself and therefore contributions have been made 'non-binding' as a matter o
there will be a 'name and shame system' or 'name and encourage plan'. After explaining essential features, comment on the e
Agreement.
“Today there is a huge shift of the basis of International law though the principal component of International law is represente
imposing duties and conferring rights upon the state.” Comment critically.
Evaluate the importance and relevance of ‘Extradition Treaty’, under International law. Is a state liable to extradite an offende
accused of a political murder in a neighbouring state ? Give reasons.
Discuss the efficacy of International Humanitarian law in the protection of Prisoners of War.
“International Terrorism is a threat to world order and peace.” Elucidate. Also define the term ‘International Terrorism’. What
taken up by the developed, and developing countries in this respect ? Discuss.
Explain the principles of ‘Ratification of a Treaty. Also examine the consequences of non-ratification of a treaty.

The Republic of Marshall Islands (RMI) recently filed an application against India in the International Court of Justice (ICJ) alleg
obligation to pursue in good faith and conclude negotiations leading to nuclear disarmament. Would it fall under the compuls
Discuss. Also mention about the possibility of
challenging this jurisdiction by India.
“A man’s nationality is a continuing legal relationship between the sovereign state on the one hand and the citizen on the othe
statement. Also mention the difference between ‘nationality’, ‘double nationality’ and ‘statelessness’.

Define and distinguish between the following:


(i) Recognition of State and Recognition of Government
(ii) De facto and De jure recognition
Also explain the concept ‘Collective recognition’.
Critically evaluate the laws/conventions/practices available for the protection and preservation of marine environment under
discuss the rules provided under International law for ‘transit passage’ and its abuses.
Discuss the various peaceful means of resolving International disputes. Which one according to you is more practical in the co
present day ? Give reasons.
What is the meaning of the term ‘Territorial Asylum’, under International law ? What are its major components ? And how is it
‘Territorial Sovereignty’ ? Discuss.
Critically examine the provisions of the UN Charter which enables the UN to perform its primary role of ‘peace keeping’ among
assessment regarding this function of the UN ? Suggest some measures or a road-map for this purpose.
Under modern International law what meaning has been assigned to the term ‘High Sea’ ? Explain. Also discuss the scope of th
of the High Sea with reference to legality of nuclear test in the areas of High Sea.
“In the ultimate analysis individuals alone are the subjects of International law.” Comment. Also discuss the Transformation th
the relation between International law and Municipal law.
It is impossible to fix a precise date or period in history to mark the beginning of International Law as it prédates recorded hist
the history, nature, scope, and relevance of Interational Law in Contemporary International Society
International Law sets little or no limitation on the jurisdiction which a particular Ştate may arrogate to itself. Explain the natu
Jurisdiction'. Critically examine the principles of 'State Jurisdiction'.
Recognition confers the legal status of a State under International Law upon the entity seeking + recognition. Important legal e
from recognition. Critically examine the statement.
International Treaties are agreement of contractual character between States or organisation of States creating legal rights an
the parties. Examine the statement critically and explain the growing importance of Treaties in Modern International Law...
What do you understand by the concept 'Diplomatic Immunity'. What rules are provided under International Law in this respe
Explain the concept of 'International Humanitarian. Law? How can it be achieved ? Critically examine the role of 'The Hague' a
Convention' in the development of Modern International Humanitarian Law
'In several respects the TRIPS Agreement goes beyond the traditional GATT approach and further develops the law of Interna
the important achievement of the Agreements on Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights. (TRIPS).
What is 'fishery zone'? How it is different from 'Exclusive Economic Zone' ? Do you agree with the statement that 'a coastal sta
in the maintenance of the productivity of the living resources in any area of the high seas adjacent to its territorial sea'. Elucid
What are the objective, structure and functioning of World Trade Organisation ? Does signing and ratifying WTO undermine th
Autonomy of India ? Discuss.
Trace the development of International Law relating to sovereignty over air-space. Critically examine the scope of legal contro
outer space.

Define intervention and mention the grounds under which it is justified. Also throw light on the violations of this principle of In

"Asylum stops as it were when extradition begins". Comment. Also explain the various principles of extradition with reference
Define the concept of 'opposability in the context of relationship between International Law and Municipal Law. Also discuss t
concept in modern times with special reference to India.

What is the importance and meaning of 'Base Line' under UN convention on Law of Sea 1982 ? How is it determined ?
"Due to increasing penetration of international legal rules within domestic system, the distinction maintained between the tw
international and municipal law has been some what blurred."
Explain with special reference to Indian practice. How international legal rules emanating form customs and treaties influence
agencies?
While concluding a multilateral treaty, a State can make reservation(s ) and other State(s) may accept or reject such reservati
jeopardising the object and integrity of the treaty.
Discuss the need relevance of reservations in treaty law in the light of the above statement
Explain the rights and duties of coastal States over continental shelf, exclusive economic zone and high sea as defined under th
convention on Law of Sea (III), 1982.

The arbitration commission of European Conference on Yugoslavia emphasized in Opinion No 2, that ` it is well established tha
circumstances, the right to self determinations not involve changes to existing frontiers at the time of independence (Uti poss
where the state concerned agree otherwise.'
Explain the present day relevance of principle of self determinations a human right incorporated in both the international cove
at least one actual instance
` States are under a duty to recognize a nationality acquired by a person whi has no genuine link or connection with the natura
( Nottebohm case (second phase) ICJ, 1955)
In the light of the above statement, explain the concept of `nationality 'and its acquisition with the help of suitable examples
`The substance of customary law must be looked into primarily in actual practice, and `opinio juris' of the States. In the light of
and by referring case law, explain the interplay between the objective and subjective elements in accetptance of a particualr c
international law

`Startes are under a duty under international law, to recognize a new state fulfilling the legal requirements of statehood, but
duty is not borne out by the weight of precedents and practices by the States. The decision of a State in according or withho
matter of vital pollicy that each State is entitled to take by itself". Reconcile and argue which of these two statements (exterm
recognition of a State given by Lautepacht( obligatory) and by Podesta Costa ( Facultative) is more appropriate with the help
to de facto and de jure recognition
`The concept of necessity and proportionality are the heart of self defence in international law.Explain in the light of UN chart
extending these to pre emptive or anticipatry self defence due to the imminence of attacks and advancement in armaments

A group of three men ( L, M & N) citizens of a counrtry posing as officers of premier invetigating agency of A, rob a huge jewe
away to country B, where they are granted assylum. Govt of A, requests B to extradite L, M and N in terms of extradition treat
declines. A sends spies to B, who abduct L, M & N and who produce them before the court in A. B approaches ICJ, agaisnt us
(1) A brief argurmnet for A, (2) A brief arguemnt for B (3) Opinion of the court.
Chapter VI of UN charter is devoted to peaceful settlement of international disputes. Discuss the methods mentioned and exp
Council and General Assembly in this regard, and the role such settlement plays in obviating the need to resort to Chapter VI m

A member of European Union has witnessed widespread disturbances, consequent upon a military coup, including censorship
and communication, targeting civilians, sympathetic with the ousted leader, by assaulting and killing, severe rationing and con
commodities such as fuel and food resulting in galloping inflation. In the light of these grave violations of human rights, exami
1. Security Council,
2. European Court of Human Rights.
“Due to increasing penetration of international legal rules within the domestic systems, the distinction maintained between tw
of international and municipal law has been somewhat blurred." Explain with special reference to Indian practice. How interna
emanating from customs and treaties, influence the actions of domestic agencies
While concluding a multilateral treaty, a State can make reservation(s) and the other State(s) may accept or reject such reserv
jeopardising the object and integrity of the treaty. Discuss the need and relevance of reservations in treaty law in the light of a
Explain the rights and duties of coastal state over continental shelf, exclusive economic zone and high seas as defined under th
Convention on Law of Sea (331), 1982
The Arbitration Commission of European Conference on Yugoslavia emphasised in opinion no. 2 that "it is well established tha
circumstances, the right to self-determination must not involve changes to existing frontiers at the time of independence (Uti
where the states concerned agree otherwise."
Explain the present day relevance of principle of self-determination as a human right incorporated in both the international co
of at least one actual
instance

"States are not under a duty to recognize a nationality acquired by a person who has no genuine link or connection with the n
[Nottebohm case (second phase) ICJ, 1955] In the light of above statement, explain the concept of 'nationality and its acquisiti
suitable instances.

“The substance of customary law must be looked into primarily in actual practice and ‘opinio juris' of the States.” In the light o
by referring to case law, explain the interplay between objective and subjective elements in acceptance of a particular custom
international law.

"States are subject to a duty under International Law to recognise a new State fulfilling the legal requirements of Statehood, b
a duty is not borne out by the weight of precedents and practices of States. The decision of a State in withholding recognition
policy that each State is entitled to take by itself.” Reconcile and argue which of these two statements (extrem recognition of
Lauterpacht (obligatory) and by Podesta Costa (Facultative) is more appropriate, with the help of instances in regard to de fact
recognition.
The concepts of 'necessity' and 'proportionality are at the heart of self-defence in International Law. Explain, in the light of UN
trend of extending these to 'pre-emptive' or 'anticipatory' self-defence due to the imminence of attacks and advancement in a

A group of three men (L, M and N) citizens of country A, posing as officers of premier investigating agency of A, rob a huge jew
flee away to country B, where they are granted asylum. Government of A, requests B to extradite L, M and N in terms of extra
them. B declines. A sends spies to B who abduct L, M and N and who produce them before the Court in A. 'B' approaches ICJ a
‘A’. Prepare (i) A brief of arguments for A, (ii) A brief of arguments for B, (iii) Opinion of the Court.
Chapter VI of UN Charter is devoted to peaceful settlement of International Disputes. Discuss the methods mentioned and exp
Council and General Assembly in this regard, and the role such settlement plays in obviating the need to resort to Chapter VII

A member of European Union has witnessed widespread disturbances, consequent upon a military coup, including censorship
and communication, targeting civilians sympathetic with the ousted leader by assaulting and killing, severe rationing and cont
commodities such as fuel and food resulting into galloping inflation. In the light of these grave violations of human rights, exam
Security Council (ii) European Court of Human Rights..
It is often said that customary international law is earlier to apply than to definc. What are the inherent problems in defining c
custom be considered as a source of international law?
With reference to the relationship between international law and municipal law, discuss the 'transformation' and 'specific ado
can these two theories be harmonised with reference to States' obligations under relevant international law.
Identify and comment on the three major grounds for a State party to avoid its treaty obligations
“The rules of the humanitarian law of war have clearly acquired the status of jus cogens', for they are the fundamental rules o
character, from which no derogation is possible without negating the basic considerations of humanity which they are intende
the above statement and also point out the major distinction between humanitarian law and law relating to human rights
Do you agree with the statement that 'United Nations is a World Government'? Give reasons for your answer.
What is meant by right of national self determination of peoples and what is its role in the creation of a new State ? Critically e
rights can be protected whilc balancing the territorial integrity of a State at the same time.
Legal restraint on the use of force is the fundamental postulate on which the conception of enforcement of peace is based up
international law. Enumerate and elucidato various international legal instruments with the help of which this concept is actua
“With the exception of disputes of an exclusively legal character which are usually submitted to arbitration or judicial settleme
of policy or expediency which of the different methods is to be adopted for composing a particular difference between States.
methods of peaceful dispute settlement envisaged by the United Nations Charter and examine the appropriateness of each in

In the light of recent European crisis, critically assess the success of regional organisations of countries for cooperation in matt
commerce. How far do geo-political proximities further economic cooperation ?
Having regard to the United Nations Convention on Law of Sea (UNCLOS-III), which came into force in 1994, and its two prede
on the Law of the Sea, analyse how far these conventions have been able to effectively codify customary international law of s
Optional Protocol to the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights, 1966 providing an enforcement mech
the international sphere is a watershed moment for the enthusiasts of second generation rights. Discuss the proposed mechan
viability.
One extreme view is that International Law is a system without sanctions. However, it is not quite true that there are no forcib
a state to comply with International Law. Comment and state various sanctions for the observance of International Law.

‘The Universal Declaration of Human Rights is comprehensive and has to some extent affected the content of national laws, be
by tribunals, yet itis not a legal instrument and some of its provisions could hardly be said to represent legal rules. Some of its
constitute general principles of law or represent element considerations of humanity. Perhaps its greatest significance is that i
authoritative guide, produced by the General Assembly, to the interpretation of the provisions in the Charter.’
Comment and discuss the importance of the Universal

The Stockholm Conference of 1972 on the human environment served to identify those areas in which rules of International e
acceptable to international community as a whole can be laid down, and as well
as those areas in which the formation of environmentalrules must encounter insurmountable obstacles. Discuss the
principles of international environment law proclaimed in the Stockholm Declaration.
What is international terrorism? Discuss various actions taken by the United Nations to eliminate the causes underlying intern
“The distinction between ‘dejure/ defacto recognition’ and ‘recognition as the dejure and defacto government’ is insubstantia
question is one of intention and the legal consequences thereof in the particular case. If there is a distinction it does not seem
Comment and discuss the distinction between the two.
“Vessels on the high seas are subject to no authority except that of the State whose flag they fly. In virtue of the freedom to th
absence of any territorial sovereignty upon the high seas, no State may exercise any kind of jurisdiction over foreign vessels up
critical appraisal of this principle in the light of the case law and views of the International Law Commission.

“The principle of State being obliged to “settle theirinternational disputes by peaceful means in such a manner that internatio
and justice, are not endangered” is generally bashed aside by the tendencies of the
nation-states of being reticence to submit disputes to independent, impartial adjudication, particularly not accepting in advan
jurisdiction of an independent judicial body.”
Explain the statement with reference atleastto one such conflict existing in the world and also prepare a module for promotin
nations, using new opportunities created by globalisation.

“Extradition as a rule is effected by bipartite treaty. There is, therefore,no duty to extradite in the absence of a treaty. Further
normally relate only to serious crimes and impose the same obligation on both the parties concerned.” Give your opinion on t
statement with reference to the existing position under the International Law. Also critically examine this practice in the light
individual movements
for trade and service to suggest
The four Geneva Conventions of 1949 for the protection of war victims coverthe wounded and sick and land warfare; the wou
wrecked in warfare at sea; prisoners of war; and civilians. Discuss these protections.
‘The United Nations is capable of legal development in accordance with the needs and circumstances. The Uniting for Peace R
example.’ Discuss the validity of this resolution.
“The fundamental principles of International law are passing through a serious crisis and this necessitates its reconstruction."
statement ? Give reasons.
What do you understand by the principle of 'Continuity of State' in the context of succession of government ? Pinpoint the ma
addressed to improve upon the existing position relating to State succession rules and practice.
Comment on the statement that 'WTO' is the main organ for implementation of Multilateral Trade Agreements and is the thir
worldwide trade and commerce.
A reservation, which purports to exclude or to modify the legal effects of certain provisions of the treaty in their application to
in practice, if it is compatible with object and purpose of the treaty. Discuss the practice of different nations and opinion of ICJ
of reservations to the conventions.

The traditional definitions of International law with its restrictions to the conduct of States inter se, in view of developments d
decades cannot stand as a comprehensive description of all the rules now acknowledged to form part of International law. Ela
those developments which are not covered by the exclusive rules governing the conduct of States. Discuss with illustrations th
of various States in relation to non-recognition of governments.

Normally the States are reluctant to resort to the International Court of Justice mainly due to political factor; the general cond
relations; the greater suitability of other tribunals; a flexibility of arbitration in comparison with a compulsory jurisdiction and
enforcement of the decisions of the court. However, the court has made a reasonable contribution in settling disputes.
Critically evaluate the working of the court specially in contentious cases.
How would you react to the statement that TRIPS agreement on the one hand is a historic act but on the other hand it failed t
improving trading powers and trade issues of the least developed countries ? Comment.

Write short notes on the following :Exclusive Economic Zone

Write short notes on the following : Laws relating to aircraft hijacking

Write short notes on the following : Statelessness

Define and distinguish between 'arbitration' and judicial settlement in the context of the rules of International Law. Also menti
provisions regarding forum prorogatum'
“Humanitarian Law is no longer Geneva and the Hague Law but transcends these conventions to reach cosmic stature and see
the United Nations and other transnational instruments.” Discuss with reference to growth and development of International
the present century.
“A human rights violation is now conceived as a violation not only of those personally and directly aggrieved but of everybody
above statement with reference to present scenario of our country and rest of the world
"In practice the relationship between International Law and Municipal Law exists in the mixture of International Law suprema
supremacy and a coordination of legal system." Comment on the aforesaid statement of Edward Collins in the context of the r
International Law and Municipal Law.
Examine critically the different views regarding the recognition of States, highlighting the legal consequences of acts of recogn
non-recognition. Also mention the difference between express recognition' and 'implied recognition'.
Would you support the idea of the general review of the United Nations Charter? Give reasons. Also give your opinion about t
Veto System'. What is the stand of India in these respects?
Explain critically the principle of jus cogens'. Distinguish between 'Equal Treaties' and 'Unequal Treaties'. Give examples and al
features of Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties.
Enumerate the main features of International Criminal Court. What credit would you attribute to the functioning of this Court?
drawbacks of this Court? Discuss, in this context, the possible amendments to the Regulations of the International Criminal Co
Write short notes on the following - Sanctions of International Law
Write short notes on the following -Piracy jure gentium' on High Seas
Write short notes on the following -Manila Declaration, 1982

‘Rule of Law’ does not mean rule according to statutory law, pure and simple, because such a law may itself be harsh, inequita
unjust. ‘Rule of Law’ connotes some higher kind of law which is reasonable, just and non-discriminatory. Explain.

“It is difficult to maintain the distinction between formal and material sources taking into account that material ources consist
constitutional principles of inevitable but unhelpful generality.
What matters is the variety of material sources, theall-important evidence of the existence of consensus among States concer
practice.” Critically examine the various sources of International Law in the development of Modern International Law, with th
law.

“India is neither a signatory to the 1951 Convention nor to the 1967 Protocol relating to the status of refugees and is already a
Universal Human Rights instruments. The Indian courts have taken the lead by resorting to judicial activism in protection of re
International Instruments, cons titutional and various legislative provisions.”
Discuss.
Explain the concept and characteristics of ‘Third World Countries’. Critically examine the demands and the ahievements of ‘T
shaping New International Economic Order.
Do you find any distinction between the State Liability and State Responsibility under International Law ?Critically examine th
ofState Responsibility in International Law.
“International Organisations are very important to International Trade Law.” Examine the role of relevant International Organ
development of International Trade Law.

Explain the need, objectives and outcome of the Bretton Woods Conference of 1944. Discuss the similarities and distinctions
betweentheInternationalMonetaryFund (IMF) and the ‘International Bank for onstruction and Development(IBRD).’
Critically examine the role of IMF and IBRD initiatives in the liberalisation,
privatisation and globalisation of economies, while focussing on the problems ofthe developing countries.
“It is evident that general International Law does not prohibit intervention under all circumstances, forcible interference in the
another Stale is permit ted as reaction against violation of International Law.” Critically examine the statement.

“The general principles and prescriptions of International Law are not without applicability to problems of transnational pollu
degradation. Thus fundamental principle of international limits action by one State which would cause injury in the territory o
has been generalrecognition of the Rule that a State must not permit the use of its territory for purposes injurious to the inter
Explain.
Write notes on the following:
Globalisation and HumanRights.
Write notes on the following:
India’s accession to the WTO : Pros and Cons.

Write notes on the following:


Laws relating to Territorial Waters, Continental Shelf and High Seas.

International Law is defined as Vanishing point of Jurisprudence (Holland). Examine this viewpoint with reference to the natur
Explain the doctrine of Pacta sunt servanda. What are the exceptions to the above doctrine
How does the ICJ get jurisdiction over contentious disputes? Can a state be compelled to submit its dispute with another sove
consent
What do you mean by the term Subjects of International Law? What are its attributes

Discuss the importance of International Customs as a source of International Law. When does a usage crystallize into a custom

International practice supports the evidentiary theory as to the nature, effect and function of recognition. Comment
Define Continental Shelf and distinguish it from Exclusive Economic Zone. Critically evaluate the rights and obligations of coast
Exclusive Economic Zone
Discuss the powers of the Security Council to investigate any dispute or situation inimical to international peace and security
Write explanatory notes on the following:
. Territorial Sea
Write explanatory notes on the following:
. International Criminal Court
Write explanatory notes on the following:
Jus Cogens
"Aut dedere aut judicare obligation is a common feature of the recent anti- terrorism conventions." In the light of I this statem
International law pertaining to extradition of terrorists.
"The authors of the United Nations Charter were the first to regard respect for human rights as an instrument of peace." Expla
in the light of the provisions of the U.N. Charter relating to the C.S.E. LAW promotion of human rights.
Define intervention and state the grounds under which it is justified under International Law.
In what circumstances may the use of force be legal under the United Nations Charter? Critically comment.

What are the conditions for granting asylum in a diplomatic embassy? When is this asylum regarded irregular? Explain with illu
Write a critical note on the provisions of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, relating to the grounds of invalidity, te
suspension of the operation of treaties.
Discuss the provisions relating to the exercise of control by a coastal state over the artificial islands, installations and structure
the Exclusive Economic Zone and the conservation and utilization of living resources therein.
The 1972 Stockholm "Declaration on Human Environment" and" Action Plan on Human Environment" create a new relationsh
obligations between developed and developing countries. Explain.
Critically examine the provisions of the United Nations Charter which enables the United Nations to perform its primary role o
the Charter require any reform in this respect?
What do you understand by state succession? To what extent does succession take place to (a) the treaty rights and obligation
obligations of the extinct state? Explain.
"Aut dedere aut judicare obligation is a common feature of the recent anti- terrorism conventions." In the light of I this statem
International law pertaining to extradition of terrorists.
"The authors of the United Nations Charter were the first to regard respect for human rights as an instrument of peace." Expla
in the light of the provisions of the U.N. Charter relating to the C.S.E. LAW
promotion of human rights.
Define intervention and state the grounds under which it is justified under International Law.
In what circumstances may the use of force be legal under the United Nations Charter? Critically comment.

What are the conditions for granting asylum in a diplomatic embassy? When is this asylum regarded irregular? Explain with illu
Write a critical note on the provisions of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, relating to the grounds of invalidity, te
suspension of the operation of treaties.
Discuss the provisions relating to the exercise of control by a coastal state over the artificial islands, installations and structure
the Exclusive Economic Zone and the conservation and utilization of living resources therein.
The 1972 Stockholm "Declaration on Human Environment" and" Action Plan on Human Environment" create a new relationsh
obligations between developed and developing countries. Explain.
Critically examine the provisions of the United Nations Charter which enables the United Nations to perform its primary role o
the Charter require any reform in this respect?

What do you understand by state succession? To what extent does succession take place to (a) the treaty rights
"The controversy whether International law is law or not is meaningless because, in fact, it is law and is generally obeyed." Hig
prominent writers about the above statement.
"The Genera] Assembly has become more powerful than the Security Council of the United Nations." Do you agree with this v
Explain the forcible methods of settlement of international disputes.
Explain the scope of the concept of freedom of the High Seas and discuss also the legality of nuclear tests in the areas of High
Discuss the principles on which the extradition of a fugitive offender is based. Is a state liable to extradite an offender, who ha
political murder in a neighbouring state? Give reasons.

Explain 'Jus cogens'. Examine critically the Articles on 'Jus cogens' in the Vienna Convention.
"The Law of Sea Convention 1982, does not bestow on landlocked states any definite right of transit." Do you agree with this s
reasons.
Assess the contribution of the Johannesburg World Summit on Sustainable Development (WS.S.D.-August, 2002) and New Del
the Parties (C.O.P.-8 October, 2002) in combating climate change.

Discuss the jurisdiction of International Court of Justice. Who will decide as to whether the Court has jurisdiction or not?
"The granting of recognition to a new state is not constitutive but a declaratory act." Do you agree with this view? Discuss the
and state which theory is correct in your view.
Discuss the position of individual in international law
Explain Recognition of a State and Recognition of a Government
The term general principles of law recognised by civilized nation is very wide and vague. Comment in the context of Article 38
the ICJ
The relationship between International Law and Municipal Law is one of co- ordination and interdependence. Discuss
The principle Pacta sunt servanda has long been recognised as a fundamental principle of International Law, which makes the
parties to it, and must be performed by them in good faith (Vienna Convention). Explain

Explain the juridical basis of claim of a coastal state over the continental shelf in the light of North Sea Continental shelf cases

Discuss the concept of sustainable development highlighting contents of the Rio Declaration [UNCED] relating to protection of

Comment on the Legality of use or threat of atomic and nuclear weapons

Write explanatory notes on the following: Self-defence

Write explanatory notes on the following: State sponsored terrorism

Write explanatory notes on the following WTO and TRIPS (20)


If we examine the opinions on the definition of International Law, we are inclined to ask What is so international in the so-call
Analyse
Discuss State responsibility in respect of the act of multinational corporations on the basis of the Bhopal Gas Leak case
The legal regime of the Continental Shelf has undergone profound changes. What is the present concept of Continental Shelf
What steps, within the framework of International Law do you suggest India should take to eliminates state sponsored cross-b

Make out a case in favour of or against (any one) terminating diplomatic relations with a country during the state of hostilities

What will be the eclipsing reach of the proposals in the WTO and the GATT Anal Act on the Municipal law in India

Spell out the fundamental principles of the UNCTAD Charter of Economic Rights & Duties
Looking to the alarming transnationalisation of crimes, the idea of International Criminal Law and such Criminal Court appears
heavier limitations Please comment
Spell out the composition, functions and objectives of the I. LO. How is the International Labour Code adopted by nations? Wh
Code on Indias Labour Laws

What are the methods of settlement of disputes under International Law? Can use of force be one of the methods? Discuss
International law has progressed by leaps and bounds yet the theoretical controversy about the nature of international law is

Do you agree with the view that voting procedure stated in Article 27 of the UN Charter has destroyed the efficiency of the Se
Highlight the significance of judicial decisions as a source of international law
Discuss the extent and scope of the doctrine of forum prorogatum
The relationship between international law and municipal law has posed a difficult problem to municipal courts, namely to wh
courts give effect within the municipal sphere to rules of international law. Clearly examine the criterion which has been adop
to resolve this issue
Assume that as part of continuing bilateral treaty making with its neighbours, India agrees to cede certain parts of its territory
certain parts to Bangladesh. How should these agreements be ratified to be binding underinternational law
Discuss the position of an individual under the European Convention on Human Rights. In what way has the position of an indi
improved by the convention? Examine in the light of lawless case

A private Korean ship delivered some narcotics and philanthropic drugs to an Indian national near Madras well within the terr
The Indian coastguards came to know about it and chased the Korean ship which started moving in full speed towards Colomb

Before it could he captured by the Indian coastguards the ship entered the Sri Lankan territorial waters. Indian guards entered
captured the Korean ship and brought it to India. The Sri Lankan Government protested.
Discuss the legal position of India international law in relation to the right of hot pursuit

Write explanatory notes on the following: Recognition of a State and Recognition of a government

Write explanatory notes on the following: Anglo-Norwegian Fisheries case and the Straight base-lin method

Write explanatory notes on the following: . Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) and Contiguous Zone

International Law is a weak-law. Do you agree with this statement? Give reasons
Is the provision of the I. C. J. Pertaining to the appointment of National Judges belonging to the nationality of parties to a dispu
interest of justice? How are judgements of the courts enforced? Explain
Event person is subject to the territorial jurisdiction of a state. Critically examine the statement
The power of veto has paralysed the Security Council. Do you agree with this view? Give reasons
Give a brief account of attempts made in the international field for limitation of armaments. What, according to you, hinders t
the production, possession and use of automatic weapons
Discuss the recognised procedure, with special reference to the Hague Convention, for peaceful settlement of international di
arbitral award be enforced against a state refusing to submit to it

States A and B are at war with each other. Examine the effect of the war on the following treaties:
i. An extradition treaty between the States A and B.
ii. The Convention of Traffic in Narcotic Drugs 1926, to which States A and B are parties.
iii. The Geneva Prisoners of War Convention, to which States A and B are the parties
A revolution takes place in State X, Y seizes power in an unconstitutional manner by installing himself as the Head of State X, W
govern the question of recognition of Y as the Head of States X on the part of other states? What consequences will ensure if r
or refused
A foreign bank has given a loan to the Government of State A for the improvement of roads in X, a province of State A, X is sub
State B, The Government of State B refuses to accept any responsibility for the loan, State B entitled to do so? Discuss
Write explanatory notes on the following - Sanctions of International Humanitarian Law

Write explanatory notes on the following - The theory of consent as the binding force of international law (
Write explanatory notes on the following - . Prevention and punishment of crimes against diplomatic envoys (20).
What is prohibited is hostile discrimination, and not reasonable classification? Comment

It is too late to deny the legal character of international law, but in the present state of affairs it is tragically ineffective. Comm
Asylum stops, as it were, where extradition on rendition begins. Comment

The formulation of binding general rules of international law for the protection of human rights and fundamental freedoms by
for their enforcement still remains more a promise than an achievement. Comment
Rights, privileges, and immunities of diplomatic envoys are primarily based on the need to ensure the efficient performance of
diplomatic missions, and to a secondary degree that a diplomatic mission personifies the sending State and not on any theory
Comment

Examine the principal achievement of the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea of 1982 and their significance for India
How far is war recognised today by the rules of international law as an instrument of national policy? What is the distinction b
war hostilities? Discuss.

What is the basis of obligation of International law? Discuss the respective viewpoints of naturalist and positivist schools.

Pakistan has taken loan from certain international loading agencies for its development. Part of the loan was spent on the dev
East Pakistan which is now the independent State of Bangladesh. After East Pakistan seceded from Pakistan, Pakistan contend
responsibility for the repayment of that portion of debt which was spent on East Pakistan had devolved on Bangladesh. Bangla
giving reasons.

About a decade back the Government of Sri Lanka, as a part of anti-insurgency operations against L. TT. E. Laid siege on a porti
province. The Government of India insisted to drop and did drop food supplies in that area. Was it justified in International Law
can be proffered on behalf of the Government of India?

On board of Chinese public ship, while is was on high seas, a cabin boy, who was a British national, committed the crime of mu
ship ordered the crew to take the ship to the nearby Hong Kong territorial waters. Hong Kong was then a British colony. He too
Hong Kong authorities and the cabin boy was arrested. There he was tried and in the trial the Chinese authorities fully coopera
trial h was convicted and sentenced to death. In appeal he contended that the trial court did not have jurisdiction. In his view
was like a Chinese floating island and therefore, only a Chinese court had the jurisdiction and the Hong Kong court could assum
China waived its immunity and that in the facts of the case China had not done it. Decide giving reasons.
The United Nations is primarily an organization for maintaining peace and security. Discuss.
Right to peace and right to development are not human rights in true sense. Discuss.
Genocide, whether committed in time of peace or in time of war, is a crime under International Law. Explain.
Everyone has the right to a nationality and no one shall be arbitrarily deprived of his nationality. Discuss.

What do you understand by lawful use of force? Explain in this context aggression, selfdefence and intervention.
Trace and development of international law relating to sovereignty over the air- space.
Explain the scope of legal control of use and abuse of outer space.
The British ship Scotia colloided in mind-ocean with the American ship Berkshire which was not carrying the rights required by
fault and liability under appropriate principles of international law.
Rhodesia becomes independent by the unilateral Declaration of Independence. Examine the implications under relevant princ
law.
A group of people stages demonstration outside the Embassy of a foreign country in New Delhi. Shots were fired from inside t
Police Officer on duty outside to control the demonstrators. The Government of India requests the Foreign State to recall the
shooting. Decide.

Write short notes - Peaceful settlement of international disputes.

Write short notes- Legality of the use of nuclear weapons

Write short notes - Asylum

Write short notes - World Trade Organization.


Before a usage may be considered as amounting to a customary rule of international law, the material and psychological aspe
formation of the customary rule must be established Discuss.
So far the municipal law effects are concerned, the judicial decisions have virtually erased a number of distinctions between d
recognition. Examine.
Is the threat or use of nuclear weapons in any circumstances permitted under international law? Answer the question in the li
Opinion of the I. C. J. Dated 8th July 1996.

Can e state invoke non-compliance with its domestic constitutional law as a ground for invalidating its cinsent to be bound by

Although there can be a Continental Shelf where there is no E. E. Z. there cannot be an EEZ without a corresponding Continen
for juridical and practical reasons, the distance criterion must now apply to the Continental Shelf as well as to the EEZ, and thi
as to distance in para 1 of Art. 76 (Sea Law Convention 1982) -ICJ in Libya/Malta case concerning the Continental Shelf-ICJ Rep
examine the above observations of the International Court and consider whether they entail any departure from the law as ex
in the 1969 Continental Shelf cases.
The theory of extra-territoriality is not the correct basis of the immunities and privileges which the diplomatic agents enjoy. Do
view? Give reasons.
The theory of extra-territoriality is not the correct basis of the immunities and privileges which the diplomatic agents enjoy. Do
view? Give reasons.

Smith and Company registered in India was carrying on trade with Sikkim before it became part of India. The government of S
consignments set to the company office in Sikkim from India. Soon thereafter Sikkim became part of India. Smith and Compan
or their value from government of India. Discuss the liability of the government of India towards Smith and Company

State A received information that its neighbour, State B is preparing to invade its territory. In order to forestall the invasion Sta
and disperses the troops amassed in the State B. States A and B, both are the members of the Unite Nations. State B brings a c
A in the Security Council and contends that State A has committed aggression. State A pleads self-defence. Discuss the validity
State A.

Write short notes on - Legal significance of the Resolutions of the General Assembly.

Write short notes on - Advisory opinion of International Court of Justice on Western Sahara I. C. J. 1975 p12.

Write short notes on - Convention on International Liability for Damage Caused by Space Objects, 1971.

Write short notes on - Concept of opposability.


A provision of treaty may sometime generate a rule of customary international law. Discuss.
Discuss with the help of suitable illustrations the productive and creative role played by the United Nations in shaping, develop
normative content of contemporary international law.
While as a matter of international law, private rights acquired from an erstwhile sovereign do not cease to exist on a change o
nevertheless, their enforcement as such rights in the courts of the successor sovereign may be barred by the act of State doct
illustrate.

The exclusive economic zone is sui generis and although not territorial, it nevertheless, importantly modifies the regime of the
extends.
Critically examine this statement drawing attention to the special features and legal incidents of this new maritime features an
new maritime zone as established by the UN Sea Law Convention-1982.

Explain in the background of relevant U. N. Security Council Resolutions adopted in the context of the recent Gulf War and pro
Charter, the legal status of Operation Desert Storm mounted by the multinational forces under US Command to combat Iraqia
During the last decade laws of war have been replaced by international humanitarian law by introducing human rights rules an
of armed conflict. Discuss.

X, an American citizen published in Texas an article defamatory to a Mexican citizen Y. X was in Mexico on a temporary visit an
Mexican government for prosecution. The US government protests against the action of the Mexican government. How will yo

X, an American citizen published in Texas an article defamatory to a Mexican citizen Y. X was in Mexico on a temporary visit an
Mexican government for prosecution. The US government protests against the action of the Mexican government. How will yo
State X deposited some gold in State Y. There was a rebellion in State X and the rebels were successful in establishing a paralle
some times State Y granted de jure recognition to the new government formed by rebels. The new government claims the gol
by the old government. Decide.

X was a terrorist. He caused two explosions in a Cafe in Sri Lanka. After committing the offence X field to England, Sri Lanka de
X contends that the nature of his crime was political and therefore, he could not be extradited. Discuss the validity of the claim
principle of non-extradition for political crimes and the exceptions thereto.

Write short notes on - Outer Space Treaty 1967

Write short notes on - Optional clause


Write short notes on - Nicaragua Vs USA. Case concerning military and para-military activities in and
around Nicaragua-1986 I. C. J. Reports

Write short notes on - Rebus sic Stantibus in the Vienna Convention 1969 on the Law of Treaties
International law is the name for the body of customary and treaty rules which are considered legally binding by States in thei
other. Discuss.
Occupation can be effected only through taking possession of, and establishing an administration over, territory in the name o
State. Explain and distinguish occupation from annexation.
A system of international environmental law has emerged, rather than simply more international rules about the environment
this observation reflect the results of the Rio Conference?

One of the most controversial provisions in the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties 1969 is in respect of jus cogens. Disc

Discuss various theories as to the relationship between International law and Municipal law and explain the practices followed
Britain and India for adopting international law into their own legal systems.
Although the primary responsibility for the maintenance of peace and security belongs to the Security Council, the General As
connection certain facultative or permissive powers of consideration and recommendation, Highlight the developments that e
Assembly with a leading role on the guestion of international peace and security.

Ten aircraft that belonged to the monarchical government of pre-revolutionary Russia were lying in the British airfield even aft
American company. The Communist Government that came to power in Russia after the revolution and was recognised de jur
claim for the ownership of the aircraft, Discuss whether the previous transaction of sale if binding on the new government.

K, a foreign sovereign, assuming a false name enters into a contract of marriage in England with a woman Q. Later K makes a b
suit by Q. K pleads that he being a sovereign is entitled to immunity. Discuss the legal questions and decide.
X and Y were British subjects who entered in the service of the Chinese Government while they were on board a Chinese wars
territorial waters of Hong Kong, X killed Y, X is prosecuted for murder before the British local court of Hong Kong. X challenges
court to try him. Decide.

Write short notes on : Servitude

Write short notes on - Transit passege

Write short notes on - Calvo doctrine

Write short notes on - India and Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty


Custom and treaties are the two principal sources of international law. Discuss.

No Constitution can limit sovereignty, which is an attribute of the king in a monarchy, and of the people in a democracy Do yo
that the modem developments in international law cast a doubt on this statement.
A pirate is subject to arrest, trial and punishment by all States on the ground that he is an enemy of making. Examine whether
applied to a hijacker of aircraft.

Arbitration is essentially a consensual procedure. Distinguish arbitration with other methods of peaceful settlement.

Examine the impact of international conventions on the evolution of human rights jurisprudence.

Elaborate the new concepts laid down by the Third United Nations Conference on the Law of the Sea (UNCOS III). Point out th
that prevent full realization of the substantive recommendations of this Conference.

The Government of State X is overthrown. Rebels establish a new Government. State V continues to recognise the old Govern
facto recognition to the new Government. A suit is filed in State Y by new Government of State X against a bank for recovery o
State X. The old Government opposes the suit claiming that the money belongs to the lawful representatives of State X. Decid
State A discovers a new island and displays its flag there. Thereafter State B occupies the island. After a few years State A desi
from State B. Advise State B.

A Chinese warship which passes through the territorial waters of Singapore is damaged by the explosion of mines laid by Singa
of China sweeps the mines of the territorial waters of Singapore without the consent of Singapore. Both China and Singapore
action of the other. Develop the arguments on the basis of which decision can be given by the International Court of Justice.

Write short notes on - Domestic jurisdiction of States.

Write short notes on - Reservation in a treaty.


Write short notes on - Self-defense.

Write short notes on - Charges daffairs.


____the law of nations and the municipal law of several states are essentially different from each other. Explain and show how
conflict is made by state practice.
Boundaries are one of the most significant manifestations of State territorial sovereignty. Explain.

Not every State possesses the right of legation. Explain the right of legation and point out the conditions under which the righ

Now the central feature of distinction between occupation and prescription was this, that one act of animus and factum suffic
legal act disgnated by the term occupation; whereupon res ceased to be nullius, but the possession which required the factum
be continuous for a longtime, was the basis of prescription. OConnel. Explain and bring out the importance of occupation as a
territory in international law.

Distinguish between de jure recognition and de facto recognition.

Distinguish between territorial asylum and extra territorial asylum.


A treaty between United States and Switzerland was signed in 1850 providing for inheritance rights to aliens The treaty was ra
States only is 1855. The Swiss heirs of a former Swiss who was naturalised in the United States and died in the 1853 sued for in
property. Decide.

A municipal court allows extradition of a person who murdered his wife in hiscountry. The same court did not allow extraditio
took part in political uprisings in his country. Examine the legal questions involved and bring out the distinction.
An Australian ship collided with a Cuban vessel on high seas and caused the death of five Cuban officals on board the Cuban ve
captain was prosecuted in Cuban court for manslaugher he challenges the jurisdiction of the Cuban court, Discuss the rules of
question.

Write short notes on - Exclusive Economic Zone.


Write short notes on - Methods for the acquisition of nationality with special reference to the implication of
the ICJ in Nottebohm case.

Write short notes on - Right and duties of a subjacent state in the use of outer space.

Write short notes on -. Jus cogens.


Declaration of the Rights of the child adopted by the General Assembly of the United Nations in 1959 has largely remained me
without any matching activity to improve the lot of the children. Discuss.

Since the law of nations primarily deals with the States, relations between States are the only subjects of International Law. Cr
Common Consent of the family of nations is the basis of international law. Discuss.
Recognition of the State is not a legal but political action. Explain and illustrate.

No State has a right to intervene directly or indirectly for any reason whatever in the internal of external affairs of another Sta
and state various kinds of intervention. Explain in this context the term self-help and self-defence.

Define extradition. State the essential conditions for extradition. Explain the relationship of extradition with asylum. Can a cou
treaty with India refuse to surrender a terrorist charged of murder on the ground that it has granted him asylum?
The principal object of international law has been to ensure peaceful settlement of international disputes. The United Nations
efforts to evolve mechanism to achieve this object. Explain how the system works and how far it has succeeded in its work.
Discuss the rules of International Law concerning State Responsibility in case of expropriation of foreign property situated with
State. Is the State responsible for the acts of its citizens?

Write short notes on -. Legal control of nuclear weapons.

Write short notes on -. Use of force when lawful?

Write short notes on - How to ensure democracy in the Security Council?

Write short notes on -. Indias record of enforcement of Human Rights.

The principle of self-determination continues to be the dominant part of the concept of human rights in International Law but
sovereign identity of a state. Discuss with reference to contemporary international situations.
Present thinking is that whatever be the nature of war it is not a licence to destroy natural resources necessary for mankind or
Elucidate the developments in International Law on this aspect
Those who commit offences of hi-jacking and terrorism must always be punished. Critically examine how far International Con
principle in practice.
The theory of territoriality for application of criminal law is not an absolute principle of International Law and this by no mean
territorial sovereignty. Explain with help of practices of states.

Examine the concept of sovereign state in International Law. What duties are imposed on a state in respect of treatment of al

The states have complete legal jurisdiction in airspace over their territory but airspace is limited. Explain the position.

Examine the developments in International Law on the status and protection of refugees. How is it that Vietnamese refugees a
repatriated from Hong Kong against their wishes? Explain if violation of human rights is involved.
Write a critical note on the principle of the United Nations Organisation that it shall not intervene in maters which are essentia
jurisdiction of any state

Write short notes on -. Succession of contractual obligations of extinct stare

Write short notes on -. Territorial waters and land-locked states

Write short notes on-. Liabilities of individual for war crimes

Write short notes on-. Enforcement actions by Security Council against aggression by a state.

The jurisdiction of International Court of Justice depends on the consent of States since international adjudication continues to
on the statement explaining the ways in which the consent of States may be taken to be expressed by the International Court
Discuss the position of apartheid in International Law. Have the rulers of Republic of South Africa committed any international
apartheid?
A State is free to enact and enforce its own laws provided these laws are such that international obligations of the State are no
proposition particularly with reference to Indian position.
Can a war be legal under the Charter of. United Nations Organisation? Discuss.
X, a British merchant ship, and Y a French merchant ship, collide in high sea and X is sunk. When Y reaches a British port for lea
X, the British Government detains the captains of the two ships and wants to prosecute them for negligent navigation. Examin
British Courts in this case and the
Jaw applicable to the situation.
State A has a constitutional dictatorship and a rebel group PF is fighting a regular war for ousting the dictator. Explain if and w
give military help to PE.
A dissident political leader in a State C fears assassination by Government agents and seeks refuge in the embassy of State D. E
duties of State D with regard to State C.

Examine the efforts of international community since 1945 directed to make international conflicts less brutal both for civilian
Refer to important conventions and the laws which have come into existence in this direction.

Protection of rights of neutral States during a war are now illusory. Comment making reference to recent Iran-Iraq conflict.
Sl no Year Paper Word count Mark Source

1 2018 10
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2 2018 10
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3 2018 10
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4 2018 10

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5 2018 10

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6 2018 Not 20
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7 2018 Not 15
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9 2018 20
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10 2018 Not 15
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15 2018 10
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16 2018 10
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17 2018 10
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18 2018 10
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19 2018 10
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21 2018 15
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29 2017 10
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31 2017 10

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32 2017 250 marks, 3 hrs 150 10 UPSC scan pdf

33 2017 10
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43 2017 10
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44 2017 10
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45 2017 10
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46 2017 10
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47 2017 10
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48 2017 Not 20
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49 2017 Not 15
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51 2017 Not 20
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52 2017 Not 15
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53 2017 Not 15
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56 2017 Not 15
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57 2016 10
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58 2016 10
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59 2016 10
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60 2016 10
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63 2016 Not 15
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71 2016 10
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72 2016 10
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81 2016 Not 20
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83 2016 Not 15
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84 2016 Not 15
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85 2015 10
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86 2015 10

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87 2015 10
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88 2015 10
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89 2015 10
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99 2015 10
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102 2015 250 marks, 3 hrs 150 10 UPSC scan pdf
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109 2015 Not 15


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112 2015 Not 15


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113 2014 10
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143 2013 10
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148 2013 Not 20


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153 2013 10
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159 2013 Not 25


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162 2013 Not 25


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163 2012 12
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164 2012 300 marks, 3 hrs 150 12 UPSC scan pdf

165 2012 12

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166 2012 12
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167 2012 12
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176 2012 12
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188 2011 300 marks, 3 hrs 150 15 UPSC scan pdf
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208 2010 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20 UPSC scan pdf
209 2010 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20 UPSC scan pdf
210 2010 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20 UPSC scan pdf
211 2010 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20 UPSC scan pdf

212 2010 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

213 2010 20

Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

214 2010 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

215 2010 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

216 2010 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

217 2010 10
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

218 2010 Not 10


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf
219 2010 20

Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

220 2010 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

221 2010 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

222 2010 Not 15


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

223 2010 15
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

224 2010 Not 15


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

225 2010 30
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf

226 2010 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

227 2010 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

228 2010 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

229 2010 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

230 2010 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

231 2009 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf

232 2009 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf

233 2009 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf
234 2009 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20 UPSC scan pdf

235 2009 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

236 2009 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

237 2009 Not 10


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

238 2009 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf
239 2009 10

Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

240 2009 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

241 2009 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

242 2009 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

243 2009 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf
244 2009 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20 UPSC scan pdf

245 2009 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf
246 2009 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20 UPSC scan pdf
247 2009 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20 UPSC scan pdf

248 2009 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

249 2009 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

250 2009 Not 10


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

251 2009 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

252 2009 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

253 2009 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf

254 2009 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf

255 2009 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf
256 2009 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20 UPSC scan pdf

257 2009 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf
258 2009 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf

259 2009 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf

260 2009 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf

261 2008 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 Reproduced

262 2008 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 Reproduced
263 2008 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20 Reproduced

264 2008 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 Reproduced

265 2008 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

266 2008 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

267 2008 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

268 2008 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

269 2008 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

270 2008 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

271 2008 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 Reproduced

272 2008 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 Reproduced
273 2008 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20 Reproduced

274 2008 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 Reproduced

275 2008 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

276 2008 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

277 2008 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced
278 2008 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

279 2008 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

280 2008 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

281 2007 20
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

282 2007 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

283 2007 Not 20


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

284 2007 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

285 2007 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

286 2007 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

287 2007 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

288 2007 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

289 2007 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

290 2007 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

291 2007 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

292 2007 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

293 2007 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

294 2007 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced
295 2007 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20 Reproduced

296 2007 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 Reproduced
297 2007 20

300 marks, 3 hrs 200 Reproduced

298 2007 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

299 2007 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

300 2007 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

301 2007 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

302 2007 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

303 2006 20

300 marks, 3 hrs 200 Reproduced

304 2006 20

300 marks, 3 hrs 200 Reproduced

305 2006 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 Reproduced
306 2006 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20 Reproduced

307 2006 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

308 2006 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

309 2006 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

310 2006 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

311 2006 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced
312 2006 30

Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced
313 2006 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20 Reproduced

314 2006 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 Reproduced

315 2006 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 Reproduced
316 2006 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20 Reproduced

317 2006 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

318 2006 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

319 2006 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

320 2006 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

321 2006 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

322 2006 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Reproduced

323 2005 20
Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 Civil Service India.com

324 2005 20

Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 Civil Service India.com

325 2005 20 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs 200 Civil Service India.com

326 2005 20 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs 200 Civil Service India.com

327 2005 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Civil Service India.com
328 2005 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Civil Service India.com

329 2005 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Civil Service India.com

330 2005 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Civil Service India.com

331 2005 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Civil Service India.com

332 2005 30

Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Civil Service India.com

333 2005 20 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs 200 Civil Service India.com

334 2005 20 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs 200 Civil Service India.com

335 2005 20 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs 200 Civil Service India.com

336 2005 20 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs 200 Civil Service India.com

337 2005 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Civil Service India.com

338 2005 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Civil Service India.com

339 2005 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Civil Service India.com

340 2005 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Civil Service India.com

341 2005 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Civil Service India.com

342 2005 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned Civil Service India.com

343 2004 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf
344 2004 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20 UPSC scan pdf
345 2004 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20 UPSC scan pdf
346 2004 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20 UPSC scan pdf
347 2004 300 marks, 3 hrs 100 10 UPSC scan pdf

348 2004 10
300 marks, 3 hrs 100 UPSC scan pdf
349 2004 300 marks, 3 hrs 100 10 UPSC scan pdf

350 2004 10

300 marks, 3 hrs 100 UPSC scan pdf

351 2004 10
300 marks, 3 hrs 100 UPSC scan pdf
352 2004 300 marks, 3 hrs 100 10 UPSC scan pdf

353 2004 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

354 2004 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

355 2004 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

356 2004 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf
357 2004 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20 UPSC scan pdf

358 2003 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf
359 2003 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20 UPSC scan pdf

360 2003 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf

361 2003 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf

362 2003 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

363 2003 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

364 2003 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

365 2003 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

366 2003 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

367 2003 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

368 2003 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf
369 2003 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20 UPSC scan pdf

370 2003 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf

371 2003 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf
372 2003 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

373 2003 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

374 2003 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

375 2003 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

376 2003 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

377 2003 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

378 2002 20

300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf

379 2002 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf

380 2002 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf

381 2002 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf

2002 10
300 marks, 3 hrs 100 UPSC scan pdf
2002 300 marks, 3 hrs 100 10 UPSC scan pdf

2002 10
300 marks, 3 hrs 100 UPSC scan pdf

2002 10
300 marks, 3 hrs 100 UPSC scan pdf

2002 10
300 marks, 3 hrs 100 UPSC scan pdf

2002 10

300 marks, 3 hrs 100 UPSC scan pdf

2002 10
300 marks, 3 hrs 100 UPSC scan pdf

2002 10
300 marks, 3 hrs 100 UPSC scan pdf
2002 10
300 marks, 3 hrs 100 UPSC scan pdf

382 2002 30

Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

383 2002 15
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

384 2002 15
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

385 2002 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

386 2002 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

388 2002 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf

389 2002 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf

390 2002 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf

391 2002 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf

392 2002 30

Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

393 2002 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

394 2002 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

395 2002 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

396 2002 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

397 2002 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf
2001 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20 UPSC scan pdf

358 2001 20

300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf


359 2001 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20 UPSC scan pdf

360 2001 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf

361 2001 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

362 2001 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

363 2001 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

364 2001 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

365 2001 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

366 2001 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf
368 2001 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20 UPSC scan pdf

369 2001 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf

370 2001 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf
371 2001 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20 UPSC scan pdf

372 2001 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

373 2001 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

374 2001 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

375 2001 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

376 2001 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

377 2001 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf
336 2000 20

300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf

337 2000 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf

338 2000 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf

339 2000 20

300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf

340 2000 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

341 2000 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

342 2000 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

343 2000 Not 15


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

343 2000 Not 15


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

344 2000 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

345 2000 20

Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf
347 2000 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20 UPSC scan pdf

348 2000 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf

349 2000 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf

350 2000 10
300 marks, 3 hrs 100 UPSC scan pdf
350 2000 300 marks, 3 hrs 100 10 UPSC scan pdf

351 2000 Not 15


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

2000 Not 15
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

352 2000 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf
353 2000 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

354 2000 Not 30


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

355 2000 Not 15


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

356 2000 Not 15


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

443 1999 20
Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

444 1999 20
Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

445 1999 20
Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

446 1999 20
Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

447 1999 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

448 1999 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

449 1999 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

450 1999 Not 15 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

450 1999 Not 15 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

451 1999 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

452 1999 Not 20 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

454 1999 20
Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

454 1999 10 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs 100

455 1999 10 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs 100
456 1999 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

457 1999 20
Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

458 1999 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

458 1999 Not 15 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

458 1999 Not 15 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

459 1999 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

460 1999 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

461 1999 Not 15 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

462 1999 Not 15 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

463 1999 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

464 1998 20

Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

465 1998 20 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs 200

466 1998 20
Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

467 1998 20
Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

468 1998 20
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1998 Not 20 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

469 1998 Not 20 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
470 1998 15
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

471 1998 Not 15 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

472 1998 15
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

472 1998 Not 15 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

473 1998 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

474 1998 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

476 1998 20 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs 200

477 1998 20 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs 200

478 1998 20 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1998 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1998 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1998 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1998 Not 20 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1998 Not 20 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1998 Not 60 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1997 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1997 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1997 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1997 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1997 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
1997 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1997 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1997 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1997 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1997 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1997 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1997 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1997 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1997 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1997 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1997 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1997 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1997 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1997 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1997 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1996 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1996 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1996 20
Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
1996 20
Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1996 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1996 30

Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1996 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1996 30

Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1996 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1996 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1996 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1996 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1996 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1996 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1996 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1996 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1996 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
1996 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1996 Not 20 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1996 20
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1995 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1995 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1995 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1995 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1995 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1995 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1995 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1995 30

Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1995 30

Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1995 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1995 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1995 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
1995 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1995 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1995 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1995 30

Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1995 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1995 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1995 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1995 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1994 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1994 20
Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1994 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1994 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1994 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1994 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1994 30

Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
1994 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1994 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1994 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1994 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1994 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1994 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1994 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1994 20
Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1994 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1994 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1994 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1994 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1994 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1993 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1993 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1993 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1993 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1993 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1993 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1993 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1993 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
1993 Not 30 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1993 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1993 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1993 20
Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1993 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1993 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1993 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1993 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1993 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1993 30

Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1993 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1993 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1993 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1992 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1992 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1992 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1992 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
1992 30

Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1992 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1992 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1992 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1992 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1992 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1992 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1992 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1992 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1992 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1992 30

Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1992 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1992 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1992 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1992 15
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
1991 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1991 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1991 20
Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1991 20
Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1991 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1991 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1991 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1991 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1991 30

Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1991 30

Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1991 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1991 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1991 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1991 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200
1991 Not 30 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1991 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1991 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1991 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1991 Not 20 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1991 20
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1991 20
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1990 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1990 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1990 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1990 20
Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1990 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1990 30
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1990 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1990 30

Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1990 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned
1990 30

Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1990 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1990 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1990 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1990 20 Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs 200

1990 Not 30 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1990 30

Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1990 Not 20 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1990 Not 20 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1990 20
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1990 Not 20 Reproduced


300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1990 20
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

1990 20
Not Reproduced
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned

43 Not
252 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

434 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf
435 300 marks, 3 hrs 200 20 UPSC scan pdf
436 20
300 marks, 3 hrs 200 UPSC scan pdf

437 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

438 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

439 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

440 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

441 Not 30
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf

442 30
Not
300 marks, 3 hrs mentioned UPSC scan pdf
Question
Whether the maxim actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea' in general and the Common Law doctrine of 'mens rea' as an
independent doctrine in particular are relevant in the interpretation of provisions of the Indian Penal Code?" Explain the
above in the light of juristic opinions and judicial pronouncements
Critically examine the development of the law relating to remoteness of damages. Which test do you prefer for deciding
the question of remoteness of damages and why? Give reasons for your answer.

In view of the consistent opinion rendered in Aruna Shanbaug case and also considering the socio-legal, medical and
constitutional significance of Euthanasia, do you consider that the view expressed by the Constitutional Bench of
Supreme Court in Common Cause (A Regd. Society) vs. Union of India (2018) is conclusive? Comment critically.

'The paramount task of the law of torts is to pay an important regulatory role in the adjustment of losses and eventuate
allocation of their cost and that until the emergence of the welfare state, the law of torts provided the only source for
alternating the plight of the injured." In the light of the above statement, discuss the nature and scope of law of torts
and substantiate your answer with leading case law. Also discuss the position in India.

"Right of private defence to the extent of causing death of an assailant cannot be based on the surmises and speculation.
The accused must be under a bonafide fear of death or grievous hurt would otherwise be the consequence of the
assault, if he does not defend. To determine the existence of apprehension is always a question of fact." Explain the
above proposition in the light of existing legal provisions and judicial decisions.
"Section 300 (4) of the Indian Penal Code will be applicable in cases where the knowledge of the offender as to the
probability of death of a person approximates to practical certainty." Illustrate the above statement.
Explain the maxim volenti non fit injuria' Is the knowledge of risk not the same thing as consent to suffer the risk?
Support your answer with judicial pronouncement

A group of persons decided to act in concert with common intention to commit Tape on victim (V). More than one
person from the group, in furtherance of common intention, acted in concert in the commission of rape as per pre-
arranged plan. Onc lady member of the group facilitated the commission of such rape by many persons of the group.
he essence of liability in such situation being the existence of common intention. Decide the criminal liability of the
following members of the group:
( 1) Who were members of the plan but did not participate in the act (2) Who committed rape (3) The sole lady member
who lend full facilities for the commission of rape

Six people decided to carry out dacoity of a bank in a village. They went to the bank to commit it, but were intercepted
by police. All of them ran away. While the police was chasing them, one of the dacoits (Xkilled Mr. Y, who tried to
obstruct his way. Decide liability for the murder committed by one of them in view of Sections 391 and 396 of the Indian
Penal Code.
"A master is liable for all acts of his servant done during the course of employment." Explain it in general and from Indian
perspective in particular

Corruption by public servants has become gigantic problem. Large-scale corruption retards the nation-building activities
and everyone has to suffer on their count. The efficiency of public servant would improve only when the public servant
does his duty truthfully and honestly. Therefore, in such cases, it is difficult to accept any plea of leniency in sentence
(State of MP US. Shambhu Dayal Nagar (2006) 8 SCC 693). Comment.

"Plea bargaining in India is the truncated one, as it is applicable to sentence only and not to the charge. Equally it is a
court-monitored procedure, except that it provides a clause related to compensation to the victim." Critically analyse the
retention of such provision in the Indian Criminal Justice dispensation. Also suggest reforms, if any, you understand are
necessary.

"Rule of absolute liability has been expounded by the apex court in M. C. Mehta's us. Union of India." How far is it a
reform over the rule of strict liability? Comment
"For fixing criminal liability of a doctor under Section 304-A of the Indian Penal Code, it is necessary to prove that the act
complained against the doctor must show such rashness or negligence of such higher degree as to indicate mental state
which can be described as totally apathetic towards patient. Such gross negligence alone is punishable." In the light of
the latest judicial pronouncement, explain the above statement.
If certain goods are displayed either in a show window or inside the shop and such goods bear price tags, discuss
whether such display amounts to an offer to sell. Explain the distinction between offer and invitation to offer with the
help of decided cases.
In an action to avoid a contract on the ground of undue influence, the plaintiff has to prove two points. Explain those
points and different kinds of relations leading to presumption of undue influence which vitiates free consent.
Section 28 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 makes agreements in restraint of legal proceedings void. Are there any
exceptions to this rule? Discuss with the help of relevant provisions and decided cases.
Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India, of late, has been used not only to represent the unrepresented and weak but also
to advance the interest of others. Comment on the recent trends relating to the application, use and misuse of PIL in
India.
In spite of introduction and recognition of Technological Protection Measures (TPMs), the digital copyright continues to
be unsafe and unsecured. Explain the impact of the 2012 Amendments to the Copyright Act, 1957 on the protection of
digital copyright in India.
"It is well-settled that if and when there is frustration, the dissolution of the contract occurs automatically ..... It does not
depend on the choice or election of either party. It depends on the effect of what has actually happened on the
possibility of performing the contract." Discuss the effects of frustration of contract.

"If a person falsely represents that he is an agent of another, the principal may ratify the act even though the same was
done without his authority." Discuss, in the light of the above statement, the essentials of valid ratification and its effect.
Sustainable development has been accepted as a balancing concept between ecology and development. Discuss the
recognition and application of this principle under the laws relating to environmental protection in India.

If an officer with an intelligence agency of the Government receives a cheque for consideration on the basis of an
agreement to pass on intelligence inputs, can such cheque be enforceable under Section 138 of the Negotiable
Instruments Act, 18817 Discuss the scope of the legally enforceable liability of the drawer under Sections 138 and 139 of
the Act.
"E-governance represents a new form of governance which needs dynamic laws, keeping pace with the technological
advancement. Comment on the adequacy of the Information Technology Act, 2000 in ensuring effective E-governance in
India.
Even though Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 provides for out of court settlement of civil disputes filed in
a civil court, the impact of settlement through Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) appears to be poor. Analyse the
reasons for failure to settle the disputes through ADR modes
The courts have found it very difficult to come to the rescue of the weaker party to a standard form contract, and thus
evolved certain modes to protect such weaker party against the possibility of exploitation inherent in such contracts.
Explain the modes of protection available to weaker party in a standard form contract.
Trial by media appears to be an affront to the concept of free and fair trial in criminal cascs, apart from being a kind of
contempt of court in certain cases. Analyse the impact of trial by media on the administration of criminal justice in
general and on the stakcholders in particular.

"Mahatma Gandhi, the Father of Nation, observed that the meaning of real freedom is not to acquire authority by few
but to acquire the capacity to question the abuse of such authority." Examine, in the light of the above statement, the
obligations of the public authorities and explain whether they have discharged it effectively during the last about seven
decades.
“Law recognizes that 'mistake' must be in good faith.” In this backdrop, explain the defence of ‘mistake' contained under
General Exceptions of the Penal Code.
In all robbery, there is either theft or extortion. Explain

"The object of the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 is to abolish untouchability.” Discuss.
"Law of torts is said to be a development of the maxim 'Ubi jus ibi remedium'." Discuss the statement.

Explain 'necessity' as a defence for the liability of tort and also mention the classes of necessity.
"Section 34 is incorporated in the Indian Penal Code to deal with the cases where it is very difficult to distinguish
precisely the part taken by each individual in criminal act." While examining the rationality of this Section, support the
answer with the help of decided cases.
Discuss the different forms to outrage the modesty of a woman which have been made punishable in the Indian Penal
Code through the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013.
When, under the law of torts even using reasonable care, is a person liable for the tort of negligence? Discuss.

"There is a very thin but fine and subtle distinction between culpable homicide and murder. The difference lies merely in
the different degrees of probability of death ensuing.” Discuss the statement and refer to decided cases.

When is principal not liable for the torts committed by his servant? Discuss.
ention the defences of tort of defamation and also discuss whether exceptions given under the Indian Penal Code, 1860
for the offence of defamation may be claimed as additional grounds by the defendant.
"Consumer Protection Councils also play a very important role in consumer protection." Examine the statement and
elaborate the objects, composition and functions of the Central, State and District Consumer Protection Councils.

"In order to constitute criminal attempt, the act caused must be proximate to the intended result.” Explain the
observation with the help of decided case law.

Explaining the concept of 'no liability', mention the Indian Acts in which this concept has been incorporated.
"Minority can only be claimed as a shield but not as a sword." Explain the statement and mention the situations when a
minor is liable under the law of contract.
"Public policy is like an unruly horse which cannot be controlled easily.” Explain the statement and mention the
agreements which are against public

“Right to stoppage of goods in transit starts when right to lien ends.” Discuss.
Discuss the various defences which can be pleaded by the defendant in an action for infringement of copyright under the
Copyright Act, 1957.
When does the infringement of trademark occur? Discuss the essentials of infringement of trademark. Write down the
acts not constituting infringement of registered trademark.
Discuss the constitution, jurisdiction, powers and authority of National Green Tribunal. How far has it been successful in
achieving its objectives? Explain with the help of recent cases.

"Revocation of proposal is death of the proposal." Explain the statement and mention the manners of revocation.
Explain holder' and 'holder in due course', and distinguish between the two. Also discuss their rights.
"Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 has cut down the most troublesome knot of Common Law doctrine of
awarding damages.” Discuss the statement.
“Public interest litigation has played a very crucial role in protection ofenviroment in India".Elucidate and illustrate with
the help of decided cases.
"Notwithstanding transparency of governance, certain informations have been exempted from disclosure under the
Right to Information Act, 2005." Discuss the relevant provisions and limitations on disclosure of information.

Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, when is a contract deemed to be entered into by the parties? Discuss.

"An invention has to satisfy certain conditions in order to get a patent." Examine critically the statement.
How far is the Competition Act, 2002 an improvement over the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969
(MRTP Act, 1969) with respect to abuse of dominant position'? Discuss and explain the relevant statutory provisions.
“In determining the quantum of criminal liability, the law takes into account the motive, magnitude and character of the
offender.” Examine this statement in the light of absence of mens rea in statutory offences.
“The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 prevents the public servants from misuse and abuse of their official capacity."
Comment.

"No fault liability rule has undergone a drastic change in the recent past.” Comment.
“Malice is not to be inferred merely from the acquittal of the plaintiff. The plaintiff must prove independently of the
acquittal that his prosecution was malicious and without reasonable and probable cause." Comment.

Critically examine the Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2005 especially with reference to plea bargaining.

“Section 124A of the IPC dealing with sedition is ultra-vires of the Constitution insofar as it seeks to punish merely bad
feelings against the Government. It is an unreasonable restriction on freedom of speech and expression guaranteed
under Article 19(1)(a) and is not saved under Article 19(2) of the Constitution by the expression “in the interest of public
order”.” Comment.
"Culpable homicide is not murder, if it is committed without premeditation, in a sudden fight in the heat of passion.”
Critically examine the statement with leading case law
"A man is not criminally responsible for unintended and unknown consequences of his lawful acts performed in a lawful
manner, by lawful means with proper care and caution.” Elucidate.

"Harm suffered voluntarily does not constitute a legal injury and is not actionable.” Elaborate along with its limitations
“Direct evidence of negligence, however, is not always necessary and the same may be inferred from the circumstances
of the case.” Elucidate with cases.

"It is immaterial whether the defendant intended the defamatory statement to apply to the plaintiff or knew of the
plaintiff's existence if the statement might reasonably be understood by those who knew the plaintiff, to refer to him.”
“Provisions of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 shall be in addition to and not in derogation of the provisions of any
other law for the time being in force.” Critically examine the statement.
“The law making conspiracy a crime is designed to curb immoderate power to do mischief which is gained by a
combination of the means." Explain.
"Every confinement of the person is an imprisonment, whether it be in a common prison or in a private house, or in the
stocks or even by forcibly detaining one in the public streets." Explain with the help of case law.
"An offer is to an acceptance what a lighted match-stick is to a train of gunpowder. It produces something which cannot
be recalled or undone” — Anson. Explain.
"Every contract contains a 'core' or 'fundamental obligation' which must be performed. If one party fails to perform this
fundamental obligation, he will be guilty of a breach of contract whether or not any exempting clause has been inserted
which purports to protect him.” Critically examine the statement with case law.

"In determining whether a group of persons is or is not a firm, or whether a person is or is not a partner in the firm,
regard shall be had to the real relations between the parties, as shown by all relevant facts taken together.” Comment
A owed B 1,000, but the debt is barred by the Limitation Act, 1963. Subsequently A signs a written promise to pay र 1,000
on account of the previous debt. Decide the validity of this agreement.
"Every sole maker, drawer, payee or endorsee, or all of joint makers, drawers, payees, or endorsees, of a negotiable
instrument may endorse and negotiate it.” In the light of the above statement, distinguish between endorsement and
negotiation and also explain different kinds of ‘endorsements'.
“The Right to Information Act, 2005 was enacted in order to promote transparency and accountability in the working of
every public authority." How far has this goal been achieved by the Right to Information Act, 2005 in the last ten years ?
Critically analyse your answer with the support of exceptions and case law.
“Though there is no law for media trial, however, in freedom of expression and speech under fundamental rights, media
has the freedom to express its views based on evidence. This trial has no authority before the court of law.” Critically
examine the statement with case law.
"There can be a mistake of identity only when a person bearing a particular identity exists within the knowledge of the
plaintiff, and the plaintiff intends to deal with him only. If the name assumed by the swindler is fictitious, there will be no
mistake of identity.” Examine the statement with leading case law
Highlight the important amendments made in the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 by the Arbitration and
Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2015.
“The revocation of agent's authority can be made by the principal subject to certain rules.” Examine these rules in the
light of protection to agent.
"The rights of unpaid seller do not depend upon any agreement, express or implied, between the parties. They arise by
implication of law." Elucidate.
"The object of awarding damages for a breach of contract is to put the injured party in the same position, so far as
money can do it, as if he had not been injured.” In the light of the above statement, explain the various kinds of damages
that the court can award. Also explain the rules relating to assessment of damages.
Explain the salient features and your views on the Information Technology Act, 2000 as amended in 2008 by the
Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008.
“The object of Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 is to provide relief to the victims of accidents in hazardous industries in
addition to any other right to claim compensation." Explain with case law.
“The enforcement of any disability arising out of ‘Untouchability’ shall be an offence is punishable in accordance with
law.” Comment in the light of protection of Civil Rights.

“The criminal justice is administered in India by punishing the wrongdoer and the object of punishment is viewed
differently by different criminologists.” Elucidate.

“Liability of joint tort feasors in Law of Tort is Joint and Several.” Discuss.
“To constitute the offence of criminal conspiracy there must be an agreement to do, or cause to be done, an illegal act,
or an act which is not illegal by illegal means.” Critically examine.
Explain with the help of decided cases as to when Culpable Homicide under Section 299(3) will become Murder under
Section 300(4) of Indian Penal Code.
“No communication made in good faith is an offence by reason of any harm to the person to whom it is made, if it is
made for the benefit of that person.” Critically examine.
Explain the various circumstances under which a ‘public servant’ is said to commit the offence of “Criminal misconduct”
under ‘The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988’.
Whether the conduct of depriving someone from possession of property without causing wrongful gain or wrongful loss
amount to theft ? Comment.

“The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 provides a three tier structure for redressal of complaints.” Elucidate.

“Public nuisance is a crime whereas private nuisance is a civil wrong.” Explain.


“State liability in Torts has undergone an acute transformation in recent times.” Discuss in the light of latest judicial
pronouncements.
Discuss with the help of judicial pronouncements the situations in which plaintiff may prove apparently non-defamatory
statements as defamatory.
Discuss with the help of decided cases where the Court while deciding cases on contributory negligence keeps in mind
the negligence on the part of plaintiff and defendant both.
“Total restraint on the liberty of movement of a person, however short its duration may be, will amount to false
imprisonment.” Discuss with the help of relevant case law.
A, a singer, contracts with B, the manager of a restaurant, to sing at his restaurant for two nights every week during next
two months; and B engages to pay to her 5,000/- rupees for each night’s performance. On the sixth night, A wilfully
absents herself from the restaurant and B, in consequence, rescinds the contract. Decide.
“PIL writ petition cannot be filed' in the Supreme Court under Article 32 of Indian Constitution only if a question
concerning the enforcement of ‘Fundamental Rights’ is involved.” Comment.
“Every agreement by which any party thereto is.restricted absolutely from enforcing his rights under or in respect of any
contract, by the usual legal proceedings in the ordinary Tribunals, or which limits the time within which he may thus
enforce his right is void to that extent.” Explain the exceptions, if any, of this principle.
Write a note on impact of noise pollution on the health of the people.’
Discuss the various principles of ‘mediation’.

“A hire purchase agreement is a bailment plus an agreement to sell.” Explain.


“A contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor
himself or by the conduct of any other person, is called, a contract of indemnity”. Explain.

Discuss various provisions of Compulsory Licencing under Patents Act, 1970.


“An ‘Arbitration Agreement’ with respect to existing disputes, may or may not be in the form of an Arbitration clause in
the main contract.” Explain.
“The individual deserves to be protected against the possibility of exploitation inherent in ‘Standard Form of Contract’.”
Explain.

Explain the law relating to minor’s agreements.


“In a contract of sale of goods property or ownership in the goods will pass from seller to the buyer which the parties
intend to pass.” Explain the statement with necessary legal provisions and case law.

Explain clearly what is meant by ‘negotiation and endorsement’. How does negotiation differ from ordinary assignment ?
Explain the various circumstances in which a firm may be dissolved. What are the rights and obligations of partners after
dissolution of firm?
What is meant by right of private defence ? What are the general principles which form the basis of right of private
defence ?
Discuss various stages of crime. How is the stage of attempt punishable under the Indian Penal Code ?
“The maxim is ‘volenti non fit injuria’ and not ‘scienti non fit injuria”.”
“A tort is a specie of civil wrong.” Examine this definition and add other features to make it comprehensive.
"Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 is an important legislation to safeguard democracy in India.” Discuss.
What are thehis
‘A’ assaulted constituent elements
wife by kicking her of crime ? Elaborately
repeatedly on non-vitaldiscuss mens
parts of her rea with
body. Sherelevant case
fell down law.
and became unconscious. In
order to create an appearance that she had committed suicide he took up the unconscious body and thinking it to be a
dead body hung it up by a rope. The post mortem examination showed that death was due to hanging.
With the help of decided cases determine the culpability of A.
“The abetment of the illegal omission of an act may amount to an offence although the abettor may not himself be
bound to do that act.” Explain and illustrate.
"Criminal breach of trust and cheating are two distinct offences generally involving dishonest intention but mutually
exclusive and different in basic concept." Explain with the help of decided cases.

“Distinction between death caused by rash or negligent act under section 304-A and culpable homicide not amounting to
murder under section 304 of the Indian Penal Code is fine, but if overlooked, can result in grave injustice.” Discuss.
“The age of a child must be considered in deciding whether it has been guilty of contributory negligence." Discuss and
refer to case law,
"Although the decision of the Supreme Court in Kasturi Lal v. State of U.P. has not been overruled as such, yet for all
practical purposes its force has been considerably reduced.” Elucidate.

W, wife of A was diagnosed to be suffering from toxic Epidermal Necrolysis. Doctor D was consulted who prescribed a
long acting Cortico steroid 'Depomedrol' injection at a dose of 80 mg twice daily. Despite administration of this medicine
her condition deteriorated rapidly and she died within a week. On expert opinion, it was found that the line of treatment
followed by D is not supported by any school of medical thought and is in sheer ignorance of basic hazard relating to use
of steroids. A files a complaint in Consumer Forum claiming Rupees 75 lakhs as damages for death of his wife W. D
objects to the jurisdiction of the Consumer Forum and also pleads lack of negligence on his part. Decide.
"It is not necessary that in all cases of tort of defamation there must be a loss of reputation of the plaintiff." Explain and
illustrate.
If a contract is broken, the law will endeavour so far as money can do it, to place the injured party in the same position
as if the contract had been performed. Explain the above statement and discuss the principle court follows for
assessment of damages.
“The procedure and qualifications for appointment of chairperson and members of Cyber Appellate Tribunal have been
introduced to keep up the standards of Justice.” Comment.
Arbitration, as an alternate method of adjudication is acceptable to parties largely irrespective of the fact that access to
court by the parties has been curbed drastically under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. Explain.
The actual concept of partnership from ‘people sharing the profit' to 'mutual responsibility' was the outcome of the
decision in Cox V. Hickman case. Elaborate

“The liability of sub-agent towards principal is not direct, except in case of fraud and wilful wrong.” Explain giving
reasons.

X and Co. in its prospectus represented that A, B and C would be the directors of the company. This was true and on the
basis of this P and Q applied for shares. However, before the allotment took place, there were changes in directors, Is
the allotment of P and Q subject to their choice or it stands cancelled due to change in directors ? Discuss.
A, stands as a surety for the good conduct of B, who is employed in a Bank on a monthly salary of Rs. 1,600. Three
months after when the financial position of the bank deteriorated B, agreed to accept a monthly salary of Rs. 1,500. Two
months after, it is discovered that B has been misappropriating cash all through. What is the liability of A as surety under
the Indian Law ?
Judiciary in India is impartial, hence can not be influenced by internal or external factors. In the light of this discuss how
far media transgresses its limit and attempts to influence the judicial process.
"Copyright is the right of the artist, author, producer of a film who have created a work by use of their artistic skills."
Examine infringement of copyright particularly relating to video piracy and the remedies available under the law.
The doctrine of "Public Trust" as propounded by Supreme Court has worked as an instrument for protection of
Environment in India. Discuss.

Explain the scope of rule of “Caveat Emptor" in the expanding law of consumer protection.
“Right not to compete” is a right meant for promoting business through small groups called firms. Explain.

"By and large Lok-Adalats have failed in achieving the objects for which they were created." Comment. And also suggest
some measures to make this institution more effective

Cyber-terrorism is a well organised transborder criminal act, hence a combined domestic law supported by a Global law
may help to address the problem. Discuss
The word `voluntary' as used in the Indian penal code is very significant and doesnot mean willingly, but knowingly or
intentionally. Explain
Fake polic eencounters are nothin but murdersand polic eofficers committign it without any protection of lawto them
deserve death penalty as the cases fall into rarer of the rarest category. Comment
Unuances as a tort means an unlawful interference with a person's use or enjoyment of land or some right over or in
connection with it. Comment

Involuntary drunkenness is a defence. Critically examine the law relating to intoxication as a defence
The fdefinitoin givne under the consumer protectino act, 1986, gives altogether a new legal colourand scope to the term
consumer. In the light of this statement, explain the term `consumer'

X, the producer of a film showing the life of homosexuals, is prosecuted under section 292 of the Indian Penal Code,
allegeing that the film was obsecene and indecent. The film was certified by the Censor Board of Film of India for public
shows. X intends to claim protection against his charge under Section 79 of the Indian Penal Code. Can he do so? Justify
your answer
The natural calmity in Uttarakhand left hundreds dead.Some people were seen removing gold ornaments , watches,
other valuables form these dead bodies. Few days later, police apprehended them and wanted to prosecute them.
Under what provisions of th eIndia penal code can they be prosecuted? Disucss.
Assault is an act of the defendant which causes to the plaintiff reasonable apprehension of the infliction of a battery on
him by the defendant.Comment and distinguish between Assault and Battery
X sends an email to Y, containgin defamatory matters agaisnt him. The email is received by Y, who deletes it after
reading. Is X liable for publicatoin? Refer to relevant case law.
X, while, driving car, suddenly became unconscious, and fell back in his seat. The car becomes uncontrolled, it hit and
killed Y. Discuss the liability of X
Plea bargaining, which was considered unconstituional, illegal and tending to encourage complaint, collusion, and
pollution of the pure punt of justice, is now a part of sentencing under the Indian Crminal Law. Comment
Q refused to marry his boyfriend P, resulting into P's depression. Mr, R, a friend of P, suggested him to take revenge, with
an intensino that P will come out of shock. R provided p with abottle of liquid, believing it as acid. P mistook X to be Q, in
darkness, and threw it on her ( X) causing rashes onthe face of X, which later resulted in serious injuries. The
invetigations revealed that it was not acid, but a concentrate of fungicide. Decide th eliability of P and R in this case,
keeping in mind that defences which may be availabel to P & R
Indemnity has relation to the conduct either of the indeminfier himself or of a third party. A Guarantee is always to the
conduct of the third party . Elucidate
Privity of contract is no longer a rule, but only an exception. Explain in the context of modern transactions
The copyright exists in expression, but not in idea. Disucuss with the help of the provisins of the Copyright Act, and case
law
The principle of `holding out' is based on the principle of estoppel. Elucidate
`Once aninstrument passes through the hands of a holder in due course, it is purged of all defects, it is true like a current
coin. Explain
It has been a commonstatemen to fthe law that while relief is available for certain kinds of mutual mistake, it is
unavailable for unilateral mistake unless the other party knew or had reason to know of the mistake.'Critically exmaine
the statement with leading case law
Critically analyse the term `inventive steps' as incorporated under the Patent (Amendment) Act 2005. Do you agree with
the present definition? Refer to recent case law
An attempt by all political parties to bring amendments to RTI Act 2005, is to sabotage the steps towards transparency of
governance in this country. Critically evaluate the statement
In matters such as enforcement of social, economic , cultural or political rights or civil liberties or gender concerns, courts
in India have been inclined to apply relaxed rules of standing or litigational competence rather than strict rules of locus.
Discuss.
Competitoin law in India has not achieved the result as was expected. Discuss the bottlenecks with which it sufferes and
suggest th eremedies necenssary to make it fruitful
“Culpable homicide is the genus and murder is species, and that all murders are culpable homicide but not vice versa.”
Discuss in the light of legal provisions and some decided cases.
"The expression 'good faith' has a definite identity in the Indian Penal Code.” Discuss.

The defendant had been carrying cargo in a lorry for the plaintiff. On the way there was heavy rainfall. The cargo was
damaged by seepage due to rainwater rising from below, while it had been securely protected by the defendant by
tarpaulin from above. The flash flood on the highway had stranded hundreds of lorries including that of the defendant,
and the water level on the highway rose above tyres and up to the level of the platform which resulted in the seepage.
However, the plaintiff claimed heavy damages from the defendant on the ground of negligence or want of due care.
Discuss whether the defendant can have any defence in this case.
“The principle of 'res ipsa loquitur' is an exception to the rule that it is for the plaintiff to prove negligence of the
defendant.” Discuss with reference to some cases.
“The recent Criminal Law (Amendment) Bill, 2011 seeks to replace 'rape' by the term 'sexual assault in the IPC and
intends to make rape a gender-neutral offence in the country." Examine whether this is appropriate.
Explain the essentials of malicious prosecution. What are the grounds on which plaintiff can claim damages?

Mr. X himself was driving a car and when he was passing through a railway level crossing, his car was hit by a mail train.
The car was smashed and Mr. X was seriously injured, and died in hospital. In an action by the widow against the Union
of India, as owner of the Railway, it was contended that the level crossing was unmanned and the gates were open. This
constituted negligence on the part of the Railway, Further it was contended that there was no contributory negligence
on the part of Mr. X, the deceased, as he could not have a look at the railway line from a distance as his view was
obstructed by some trees, etc., nor could he hear the sound of the coming mail train while he was in the car with the
engine running and the windscreen closed. Decide the case giving your reasons.
“It is possible to support an action for nuisance as well as of negligence on the same set of facts, however, there are
certain points of distinction between the two.” Discuss.

The accused (appellant) was separated from his wife. She was living with her father. The accused was keeping their
youngest child with someone else. During the noon of a day, his wife took away the child from that someone. The
accused, on hearing this, reached his father-in-law's place and quarrelled. Later in the evening of the same day, the
accused and his father-in-law happened to meet at a marketplace. They again quarrelled, grappled with each other. Both
fell down. In the heat of passion thus generated, the accused stabbed his father-in-law and he died. Discuss in the light
of legal provisions whether the accused would have any lawful defence in this case.

The plaintiff was insured with the defendant against loss by theft. The plaintiff advertised a watch and a ring for sale and
in response, he received a telephone call from someone who expressed interest. He called, agreed to pay the asked price
and made payment by a building society cheque and took delivery of the items. The cheque was dishonoured. For the
articles so lost, a claim was presented to the insurer under the theft policy. The insurer refused to pay anything. Explain
the rights, if any, available to the plaintiff under the circumstances.

“There may be an element of abetment in a conspiracy but conspiracy is something more than an abetment.” Discuss
with illustrations.

The accused, one of the two joint owners of a shop, put her lock on the shop which was let out by another joint owner
without her consent. The tenant charged the accused with the offence of wrongful restraint in that he was prevented by
the lock from entering into the shop. Discuss in the light of legal provisions whether the accused has committed the
offence of wrongful restraint.
A contractor was given cement for construction work by the Minor Irrigation Department of a State Government under a
specific agreement that he would return unused cement but instead of doing so, he sold the cement to outsiders.
Mentioning relevant legal provision, discuss what offence, if any, is committed by the contractor.
"Undue influence is said to be a subtle species of fraud whereby mastery is obtained over the mind of the victim by
insidious approaches and seductive artifices.” Explain.
"Quasi-contract consists of the contractual obligation which is entered upon not because the parties have consented to
it, but because law does not allow a person to have unjustified benefit at the cost of other party.” Explain the real basis
of quasi-contracts with legal provisions and illustrations.

Explain with illustrations when may a principal unilaterally cancel an agency relation without incurring liability for breach
of contract.

Discuss the law regarding dishonour of cheque for insufficiency, etc., of funds in the account.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of Alternative Dispute Resolution System?
“An irrational distrust of all standard form contracts would be as dangerous as a facile acceptance and enforcement of
these contracts.” Discuss.

Briefly explain the meaning, scope and applicability of the doctrine of frustration under the law of contract.
Under what circumstances breach of condition' may be treated as breach of warranty' under the Sale of Goods Act?
Discuss.
"Public interest litigation is not in the nature of adversary litigation but it is a challenge and opportunity to the
Government and its officers to make basic human rights meaningful to the deprived and vulnerable sections of
community to assure them social and economic justice which is the signature tune of our Constitution.” Discuss.
"During high publicity court cases, the media are often accused of provoking an atmosphere of public hysteria akin to a
lynch mob which not only makes a fair trial nearly impossible but means that regardless of the result of the trial the
accused will not be able to live the rest of his life without intense public scrutiny.” How would you reconcile the
"freedom of the press” and the "individual's right to privacy and right to a fair trial”? Do you think that trial by media
amounts to "contempt of court" and needs to be punished?

A television was displayed on a Web site owned by XYZ Distributors for sale at a price of 79.99. Hundreds of customers
ordered the television but the retailer refused to fill the orders on the ground that they had been incorrectly priced by
mistake. The correct price was 7,999. Explain the liability, if any, arising out of the above-mentioned communications.
Give reasons.

In a contract between A and B, security deposit was taken by A from B to ensure due performance of the contract. B
committed default in performance though no actual loss had arisen. A forfeited the deposit for fault of B. B claimed that
forfeiture of deposit is not valid in law. How would you decide? Give reasons.
“The Indian Penal Code gives protection to one who does an act in good faith for the benefit of another.” Discuss.
“The Indian Penal Code extends protection to acts done by misfortune under certain circumstances.” Discuss.
“Tort is concerned with the allocation on prevention of losses which are bound to occur in society.” Discuss.
“Before a person can recover for loss which he suffered from another person’s act, it must be shown that his case falls
within the class of actionable wrongs.” Discuss.
“Merely doing certain acts that would bring the Government established by law into hatred or contempt is not the
decisive ingredient of Sedition.” Discuss.
Also state the view of Law Commission of India about reforms of this provision.

‘A’ with the intention of bringing “Hashish”, a prohibited drug in India, stealthily brought in his bag a cover believing that
it contains “hashish” while coming from Bangladesh to India. While trying to sell the same to ‘B’ a dispute regarding its
price arose. B grudgingly informed the police who opened the bag. It was found that it was a harmless snuff power
and not hashish. Discuss the liability of A.

“It would be wrong to perceive nudity and sex as essentially obscene, indecent or immoral. Sex and obscenity are not
always synonymous.” In the light of the above statement elaborate the position of obscenity as an offence in India. 30

An army Jawan X who was away from his home for the last two years, requested his senior Y for leave, which Y refused.
Annoyed at this, Xfired two shots at Y, one shot hitting Y beneath the knee of the right leg as a result of which he fell
down. X fired another shot which hit Y at the upper left arm. Y died afterthen days. Discuss the liability of X.
“The defendant must not only owe the plaintiff a duty of a care, he must be in breach of it.” In the light of the above
statement examine as to how would the court find out as to whether there is a breach of a duty on the part of the
defendant or not. Refer to case law.
“With the enactment and implementation of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, a new consumer jurisprudence has
developed in India.” Elaborate.
“Standard from contracts exist in complete disregard to the established principles of freedom of contract and equality of
bargaining power of the parties.” Elucidate.
“There can be no contract of guarantee unless there is someone primarily liable.” Comment.
“The great element of negotiability is the acquisition of property by your own conduct,notby another’s, that if you take it
bonafide and for value nobody can deprive you of it.” Explain.

“Lok-Adalatas in India manifestthe purpose and objective laid down in Alternate Dispute Resolution Schemes.” Discuss.
“Ratification is a kind of affirmation of unauthorized acts.” Critically examine. Is there any different between ‘agency by
estoppel’ and ‘agency by ratification’? Discuss.
A Central Government Medical Research Institute in collaboration with an MNC used a drug on experimental basis on
humans for curing cancer. Some of the patients died due to this drug. In order to sue for compensation for such victims
and violation of right to privacy, Mr. X, a relative of a deceased patient sought information through the instrumentality of
Right to Information Act. The information was refused on the ground that it affects the contracting power of the Central
Government with foreign companies and violates trade secrets too. Decide.
“Competition Law needs to have necessary provisions and teeth to examine and adjudicate upon anti- competitive
practices.” Examine and evaluate this statement in the context of the Competition Act, 2012. 30
“The rise of Environmental Crimes in spite of Environmental Legislations is due to absence of adequate punitive methods
of sentencing.” Discuss.
“Passing of property and delivery of goods are two different concepts.” Explain with the help of provisions of The Sale of
Goods Act and case law.
What is securing of digital signature under the Information Technology Act, 2000? State the duty of distance of the
Certifying Authority.
Distinguish common intention from abetment and criminal conspiracy.
“Right of private defence is available only against offences.” Discuss.
“Defence of “Volenti-non-fit injuria' is not available when the rescuer is injured in an act of rescuing." Discuss.
Discuss the principle of Res-ipsa-Loquitur. Refer to recent cases.
“In order to constitute a public nuisance there must be an act or an illegal omission, and it is not necessary that the act
should be illegal.” Explain the offence of public nuisance with the help of decided cases.

A' and 'B' were both security guards posted out side the home of a senior army officer, Mr. X. They often used to
exchange hot words with each other in context to the other. On the day of Holi festival both of them had a verbal
exchange due to the fact that both wanted to go to home early for festival, that led to altercation between the two, both
of them instantaneously aimed their revolvers at each other respectively. 'C' who was also on duty with them intervened
and pacified both of them. Both lowered their weapons respectively. The moment 'B' noted that 'A' had lowered his
revolver, he immediately fired at 'A' and killed him. On being tried 'B' was awarded death sentence. However, on appeal
the High Court acquitted 'B' on the plea of self-defence. The State intends to go in for appeal in the Supreme Court
against the decision of the High Court. Advise in the light of the case
law on the subject.

Discuss the law relating to criminal intimidation. Refer to case law. In what way is extortion different
from criminal intimidation

What test has the Supreme Court prescribed to understand 'the rarest of the rare cases theory' while inflicting Capital
Punishment ? Can one argue that Capital Punishment in any case is against society ?
Do you find it is necessary to convict the accused both under Section 304-B and Section 498-A of Penal Code ? Refer to
recent cases.
Mr. A, a chronic heart-patient was drawn into a political debate and in the course of arguments his adversary looked at
him fiercely and said that "people like him should be hit till they are dead”. Hearing this 'A' suffers a heart attack and dies
on the spot. Discuss the liability of his adversary. Argue for the State also.
A', a minor girl leaves her parents House because of ill treatment and lives with 'B', her friend. Can he (B) be prosecuted
for kidnapping ?
The editor of a weekly published a series of articles directed against the business of the plaintiff alleging how the wealth
of the vast empire was built up by having recourse to the unlawful and questionable means involving tax-evasion,
importexport rackets, foreign exchange violations and how the investigations into the operations of the organisation
were bogged down. In an action for defamation, the defendant put up the defence of fair comment on a matter of public
interest. The plaintiff brought evidence to show that the defendant had to tender an apology to the plaintiff in an earlier
defamation case and that the present publication was motivated by malice. Discuss the defence of fair comment in the
light of the facts of the case.
We must use our property so as not to cause discomfort to another's use of property. Yet a temporary discomfort is not
actionable. Explain the law.

Discuss the liability of hospitals under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986. Refer to decided cases a!so.
On breach of contract only such loss can be recovered as was in the contemplation of both the parties at the time of
entering into the contract. Discuss.

The very object of taking a surety is defeated, if the creditor is required to postpone his remedies against the surety.
Explain the liability of the surety. What do you understand by a Promissory Note ? Discuss.
Mere cessation of trading does not result in dissolution of a partnership. Rights and liabilities need to be settled between
the partners. Explain.
The Competition Act is designed to prevent monopolies and unfair trade practices against smaller competitors and
consuming public. Elucidate.

Public Interest Litigation has been a significant tool in protecting the environment. Discuss with the help of cases.
An impartial and independent conciliator assists the parties in resolving their dispute amicably. Discuss the provisions of
law relating to conciliation
Distinguish between “Foreign Award' and Conventional Award'. Discuss the procedure for the enforcement of ‘Foreign
Award' with the help of case law.
Examine the legal recognition of 'Digital Signature' and explain the procedure for its registration under the Information
Technology Act.
The principle of “passing off' in an action has been extended to the use of 'false trade description'. Explain the conditions
for a successful passing off action and the defences available to the opposite party.
Although the requirements of mens rea is general throughout the criminal law, there are numerous exceptions to it'.
Explain with illustrations.

“Necessity knows no law'. Comment giving illustrations

“Volenti non fit injuria is a defence for liability in tort'. Illustrate your answer with decided cases.
Explain the ingredients of "Innuendo”. What is a plaintiff required to prove in order to sustain the plea of Innuendo ?
Explain the ingredients of the offence of criminal misappropriation of property and distinguish this from criminal breach
of trust. A sees Z drop his purse with money in it. A picks up the purse with the intention of returning it to Z, but
afterwards appropriates it for his own use. Has A committed any offence ? Discuss.
Distinguish between culpable homicide and causing death by rash or negligent act.

A, a woman with a view to poisoning her husband, administered to him a substance which she believed to be poison, but
which in fact was harmless. What offence if any she has committed in this case ?
A statement made in performance of duty is privileged'. In the light of this statement critically examine the tort of
defamation.
X the famous writer and art critic while criticising the paintings of Y the famous painter, wrote in the newspaper as
follows:
'Mr. Y's paintings are pots of paint hurled in the eyes of the public'. He afterwards wrote to Y saying that whatever he
had written had been said by him in the course of his duty and hoped that he would not allow this to interfere with their
friendship. Y replied and said 'Next time I meet you, I shall punch your nose damn hard. I hope you will not allow this to
interfere with our friendship'. What torts, if any, have they committed and what defences are available to them ?

A master is not responsible for a wrongful act unless it is done in the course of employment'. Comment and explain the
circumstances when wrongful acts are deemed to be done "in the course of employment". Refer to decided cases.
"The enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability is to be an offence punishable in accordance with law".
Comment upon this statement and discuss in this context the scope of protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955.

Damnum sine injuria and injuria sine damnum are two different principles of law". Comment briefly.
List briefly the procedure to be followed by a District Forum on receipt of a complaint regarding defective goods under
the Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
“An invitation to treat is not an offer'. Explain.

“A cheque marked ‘not negotiable' is nevertheless negotiable". Comment.


*A quantum meruit, although a quasi contract, arises out of a contract'. Comment.
"An attempt at deceit which does not deceive is not fraud'. Do you agree ?
Information Technology - brought about by Computers, Internet and Cyberspace - has posed new problems in
jurisprudence'. In the context of this statement, critically examine how far our existing laws are deficient in meeting
these challenges

"The essential characteristic of an agent is that he is invested with a legal power to alter his principal's legal relations
with third parties; the principal is under a co-relative liability to have his legal relations altered'. Discuss.
A enters into a contract with B to sell him 500 bales of cotton and afterwards discovers that B was acting as agent for C.
Who is liable to A for the price of the cotton
As an agreement is an essential ingredient in a Partnership, it follows that a minor cannot enter into an agreement of
Partnership'. Critically examine this statement and discuss the circumstances under which the Indian Partnership Act
permits a minor to participate in the benefit of partnership.
Explain the concept of 'Holder' and 'Holder in due course as envisaged in the Negotiable Instruments Act and also
examine the privileges and protections to which they are entitled under the Act. Illustrate your answer with decided
cases.
Distinguish between the following, citing relevant provisions/case laws :
'Contract of indemnity' and 'Contract of guarantee'.

Distinguish between the following, citing relevant provisions/case laws :


Specific offer' and 'General offer'.

Distinguish between the following, citing relevant provisions/case laws :


'Sale' and 'hire purchase agreement.
All illegal agreements are void but all void agreements are not illegal. Discuss.
A contract can not be enforced by a person who is not a party to it though it is made for his benefit. He is a stranger to
the contract and can claim no rights under it.
Examine the above statement in the light of judicial pronouncements stating the exceptions thereto.
Explain the meaning of free consent as an essential element of a valid contract and enumerate the factors vitiating free-
consent.
What is meant by the doctrine of supervening impossibility? Under what circumstances the supervening impossibility
may arise?
The general rules as regards to transfer of title is nemo dat quod non habet (No one can give or transfer what he does
not himself possess). Critically examine the rule highlighting its exceptions in the light of statutory provisions
“Offence does not happen all of a sudden, it passes through some stages.” Discuss and distinguish between preparation
to commit offence and an attempt to commit an offence.
Discuss the rules regarding joint and constructive liability in Criminal Law. Do you find any distinction between similar
intention and common intention?
“State has to answer for every wrong committed by its erring servant.” Comment.
“It is an actionable wrong to institute, maliciously and without reasonable and probable cause, criminal proceedings
which may injure person’s reputation, personal freedom or property.” Elucidate.
“Right of private defence can be exercisedonly againstthe offender.”
Explain and discuss also the circumstances when even death can be caused of the accused in exercise of right of private
defence of property.

“In all robbery there is either theft or extortion.” Explain. A holds Z down, and fraudulently takes Z’s money and jewels
from Z’s person without Z’s consent and for this purpose he causes a wrongful restraint to Z. Discuss A’s liability.

“It is not the hindsight of a fool, it is the foresight of a reasonable man which alone can determine the lia-bility.” Discuss.
A threw a lighted cracker in a crowded market. It fell on B’s shop. C was standing nearby. To save himself and B’s shop
too, C threw the cracker away. It then fell on D’s shop. D in his turn, threw it away which then fell on E who be-came
blind. Decide, who is liable to E?

“Knowledge of the danger does not amountto consent to undertake the risk.” Discuss
“The law of consumer protection has come to meet the long felt ne-cessity of protection to the com-mon men from the
wrongs for which the remedy under ordinary law for various reasons has be- come illusory.” Discuss this statement and
explain to what extent the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 has succeeded in its objectives.

Critically examine the concept of ‘plea bargaining’ and evaluate its scope in India.
“For giving rise to a valid contract, there must be consensus ad-idem among the contracting parties.”
Explain this statement.
“Law as well as justice should try to prevent unjust enrichment.”
Critically examine this statement in relation to quasi-contracts.
“Liability of the surety is secondary.” Comment.
“The rule of Caveat Emptor does not mean that the buyer must take a chance, it means that the buyer must take care.”
Explain with exceptions, if any.
“The effects of non-registration of partnership firm are so fatal that ordinarily the firms are registered.”
Explain with the help of legal provisions and decided cases.

“Every contract of guarantee is a contract of indemnity but every contractof indemnityis not acontract of guarantee.”
Elaborate. ‘A’ and ‘B’ go to a shop. ‘A’ says to the shopkeeper, “let B take goods from your shop and if he does not pay, I
will pay”. What kind of contract is this? Give reasons.
“The object of Sec. 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 is to inculcate faith in the efficacy of banking operations
and credibility in transacting business on negotiable instruments.” Elucidate with the help of the latest Supreme Court
cases.
The “precautionary principle” and the “polluterpays principle” are the parts of the environmentlaw of this country.
Explain in the light of decided cases.
“Intellectual property of whatever species is in the nature of intangible incorporal property.” In the light of this
statement discuss the scope of intellectual property rights in India..
“Cyber crime is a collective term encompassing both ‘cyber contraventions’ and ‘cyber offences’. “ Explain this
statement and discuss the various offencesenumerated in the Information Technology Act, 2000.

Describe the kinds of punishments to which offenders may be punished under the provision of Indian Penal Code, 1960.

What is meant by extortion? Explain its ingredients and distinguish between theft and extortion.

The doctrine of alternative danger is the extention of the doctrine of contributory negligence. Discuss.

Distinguish between tortious liability and criminal liability.


When an offence of adultery is said to be committed? Whether a wife may be punished for the offence of adultery as an
abettor? Distinguish between the offences of rape and adultery
A with the intention in good faith of saving human life and property, in a great fire, pulls down houses in order to
prevent the conflagration from spreading it. A pleads that the harm to be prevented was of such a nature and so
imminent as to justify or excuse his act. Decide, whether A has committed any offence
If a person brings or accumulates on his land anything which if it should escape may cause damages to his neighbours, he
does so at his peril. Discuss the above statement by referring the judicial pronouncements alongwith the exceptions
thereto

Acts done with the intention of annoying a neighbour and actually causing annoyance will be nuisance. Comment.

A, a music teacher, gives music lessons at his residence. B, the neighbour, resides in the adjoining house, maliciously
causes discomfort to A, by hammering against the party wall, beating the trays, whistling and shricking. A prays for an
injunction against B, should he succeed

Discuss the composition and objects of Consumer Protection Council under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986

Define and discuss the ingredients of corruption as given under the provisions of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
Sharing of profits is not a conclusive evidence of the existence of partnership firm. Discuss and describe the essential
elements to constitute a partnership firm

Discuss the rights of unpaid seller against the goods as described under the Sale of Goods Act 1930
Who can make negotiable instrument? Whether a promissory note duly executed in favour of minor is void? Give
reasons
What is meant by material alteration in the negotiable instrument? Under what circumstances an alteration in the
negotiable instrument may be treated as material alteration under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881? State the
effect of such alteration
All illegal agreements are void but all void agreements are not illegal. Discuss.
A contract can not be enforced by a person who is not a party to it though it is made for his benefit. He is a stranger to
the contract and can claim no rights under it.
Examine the above statement in the light of judicial pronouncements stating the exceptions thereto.
Explain the meaning of free consent as an essential element of a valid contract and enumerate the factors vitiating free-
consent.
What is meant by the doctrine of supervening impossibility? Under what circumstances the supervening impossibility
may arise?
The general rules as regards to transfer of title is nemo dat quod non habet (No one can give or transfer what he does
not himself possess). Critically examine the rule highlighting its exceptions in the light of statutory provisions

Under what circumstances a partnership firm may be dissolved by the intervention of the court
Who can make negotiable instrument? Whether a promissory note duly executed in favour of minor is void? Give
reasons
What is meant by material alteration in the negotiable instrument? Under what circumstances an alteration in the
negotiable instrument may be treated as material
alteration under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881? State the effect of such alteration

Under what conditions may the defence of insanity be pleased on behalf of an accused?

Discuss, "attempt to commit suicide," referring to the decisions of the Supreme Court on the Constitutional validity of
Section 309 of the Indian Penal Code.
What is meant by 'innuendo? What are the facts, the Plaintiff must prove or establish in order to sustain a plea of
innuendo?
Which one of the following two expressions is correct any why? ‘Law of Torst' or 'Law of Tort'.
Discuss the importance of mens rea in criminal law. Also explain the role of mens rea in statutory offences with the help
of relevant case law.
X strikes Y with a stick. Y is by this provocation excited to violent rage. Z, a bystander intending to take advantage of Y's
rage and to cause him kill X, puts a knife into Y's hand for that purpose. Y kills X with that knife. What offence is
committed by Y and Z ? Explain and discuss with reasons.

The liability of joint tort-feasors is 'joint and several' In the light of this statement discuss who are joint tort-feasors and
their liability with the help of illustrations and case law.
"In tort of malicious prosecution the plaintiff must prove among other things, that the defendant was the person who
was actively instrumental in putting the law in force." Discuss.
When is a public servants said to have committed an offence of criminal misconduct as defined in the Prevention of
Corruption Act, 1988? Discuss referring to some decided cases.
"The evil of dowry system has been a matter of serious concern to everyone in view of its ever increasing and disturbing
proportion." Discuss and critically analyse whether the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 can cope with this social
menace.
"All contracts are agreements but all agreements are not contracts." Explain.
"A contracts without consideration is void but there are some contracts, which even though made without
consideration, are valid." Discuss.

"Enumerate and explain briefly those relations in the Indian Contract Act which resemble those created by a contract.
"The authority of an agent means his capacity to bind the principal." Discuss.

"The Indian Partnership Act has effectively ensured the registration of firms without making it compulsory." Comment.
A, B, C and D are partners in a firm which has not been registered. A is wrongfully expelled from the firm by the other
partners. Can he successfully bring a suit' against the other partners for damages for wrongful expulsion and declaration
that he continues to be a member of the firm? What remedies if any are open to A?
Define and distinguish between a 'Condition' and a 'Warranty'. Under what circumstances can a breach of condition be
treated as a breach of warranty?
A sells his motor car to B, one cylinder of which is slightly cracked to A's knowledge. B examined the car but failed to
detect the defect at the time of purchasing the car. Later on, the defect comes to the knowledge of B. Can he rescind the
sale and get back the price paid by him?
"In most cases reference to arbitration shuts out the jurisdiction of the courts, except as provided in the Act, and since
criminal courts cannot be deprived of their jurisdiction to try criminals, no criminal matter can be referred to arbitration."
Comment
"In any event, adaptability and access to expertise are hallmarks of arbitration." Discuss the advantages of arbitration
over litigation.

Under what conditions may the defence of insanity be pleased on behalf of an accused?

Discuss, "attempt to commit suicide," referring to the decisions of the Supreme Court on the Constitutional validity of
Section 309 of the Indian Penal Code.
What is meant by 'innuendo? What are the facts, the Plaintiff must prove or establish in order to sustain a plea of
innuendo?

Which one of the following two expressions is correct any why? ‘Law of Torst' or 'Law of Tort'.
Discuss the importance of mens rea in criminal law. Also explain the role of mens rea in statutory offences with the help
of relevant case law.
X strikes Y with a stick. Y is by this provocation excited to violentrage. Z, a bystander intending to take advantage of Y’s
rage and to cause him kill X, puts a knife into Y’s hand for that purpose. Y kills X with that knife. What offence is
ommitted by Y and Z? Explain and discuss with reasons.
The liability of joint tort-feasors is 'joint and several' In the light of this statement discuss who are joint tort-feasors and
their liability with the help of illustrations and case law.
"In tort of malicious prosecution the plaintiff must prove among other things, that the defendant was the person who
was actively instrumental in putting the law in force." Discuss.
When is a public servants said to have committed an offence of criminal misconduct as defined in the Prevention of
Corruption Act, 1988? Discuss referring to some decided cases.

"The evil of dowry system has been a matter of serious concern to everyone in view of its ever increasing and disturbing
proportion." Discuss and critically analyse whether the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 can cope with this social
menace.

"All contracts are agreements but all agreements are not contracts." Explain.
"A contracts without consideration is void but there are some contracts, which even though made without
consideration, are valid." Discuss.

"Enumerate and explain briefly those relations in the Indian Contract Act which resemble those created by a contract.

"The authority of an agent means his capacity to bind the principal." Discuss.

"The Indian Partnership Act has effectively ensured the registration of firms without making it compulsory." Comment.
A, B, C and D are partners in a firm which has not been registered. A is wrongfully expelled from the firm by the other
partners. Can he successfully bring a suit' against the other partners for damages for wrongful expulsion and declaration
that he continues to be a member of the firm? What remedies if any are open to A?
Define and distinguish between a 'Condition' and a 'Warranty'. Under what circumstances can a breach of condition be
treated as a breach of warranty?
A sells his motor car to B, one cylinder of which is slightly cracked to A's knowledge. B examined the car but failed to
detect the defect at the time of purchasing the car. Later on, the defect comes to the knowledge of B. Can he rescind the
sale and get back the price paid by him?
"In most cases reference to arbitration shuts out the jurisdiction of the courts, except as provided in the Act, and since
criminal courts cannot be deprived of their jurisdiction to try criminals, no criminal matter can be referred to arbitration."
Comment
"In any event, adaptability and access to expertise are hallmarks of arbitration." Discuss the advantages of arbitration
over litigation.
"The constitutional validity of Section 124A of Indian Penal Code was questioned in Kedar Nath Singh on the ground of
the provision of the section being in violation of freedom of speech and' expression." Briefly discuss the contentions and
give reasons for or against the decision in the said case.
Distinguish between criminal breach of trust and criminal misappropriation of property.
"All torts are civil injuries but all civil injuries are not torts." Explain the above statement.
Distinguish between tortious liability and contractual liability.
A soldier A fires on a mob by the order of his superior officer in conformity with the commandments of law.
A sees B commit what appears to A to be a murder, A in good faith seizes B in order to bring B before the proper
authorities. Later on, it turns out that B was acting in self-defence.
A finds a ring on the highway not in the possession of anyone person. A picks it up.

A cuts down a tree on B's ground with the intention of dishonestly taking the tree out of B's possession without B's
consent.

A intentionally gives a sword cut to B sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death. B dies in consequence.
A without any excuse, fires a loaded pistol into a crowd of persons and kills one of them.
Discuss the law relating to commencement and continuance of the right of private defence of property. When does the
right of private defence of property extend to the causing of death?

Discuss the jurisdiction of various authorities under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 for the settlement of disputes.
"In assessing damages, the law takes an account of certain consequences but considers only proximate consequences."
State the test by which the remoteness of consequences 'is determined by the courts for this purpose. Refer to judicial
pronouncements.
Critically examine the provisions of 'The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 and highlight the deficiences, if any, in the
said law.
Whether an agreement without consideration is void? Discuss the rule with exceptions, if any.
Whenever an illegal omission of an act is abetted, the same may amount to an offence although the abettor may not be
bound to do that act. Discuss.
An act which is done by one against his will is not his act. Discuss.

It is the task of the law of tort to determine when the law will and will not grant redress for damage suffered. Discuss.
When a plaintiff acts as a reasonable and prudent man, he is entitled to damages even though he selects the more
dangerous alternative when confronted by the defendants negligence. Discuss.
The question as how is a court to determine as to whether a bodily injury intentionally inflicted by an accused is likely to
cause death or not depends on many factors. Discuss

A boatman gets hold of gold ornaments from the body of a person who had drowned. A police constable takes away the
same after slapping the boatman. The constable does not enter the same in the records and dishonestly keeps them with
himself. Discuss the criminal liability of the constable
Absence of knowledge that a matter is defamatory or absence of intention to injure the plaintiff is, by itself, no excuse
for the defendant in tort. Discuss
A car diver in the course of his employment leaves the ignition keys in the car and leaves the car on a crowded road.
During his absence a trespasser gets into the car and drives it causing an accident resulting into unjuries to the plaintiff.
The plaintiff sues the car owner in tort. Decide

In murder cases sentence of imprisonment for life is the rule and death sentence an exception. Discuss
Discuss in detail the meanings of complaint and unfair trade practice under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986. Are
these definitions satisfactory and in consonance with the spirit of this Act
Jurisdiction of a court to decide disputes arising out of contractual relations cannot be ousted by an agreement between
the parties. Discuss.
A deceit which does not deceive is no fraud. Discuss.

A cheque marked not negotiable is nevertheless nogotiable. Discuss.

The right of stoppage of goods in transit is the rule of natural justice and is recongnised in sale of goods. Discuss
Discuss in detail the principle of promissory estoppel and its application in respect of contractual obligations. Explain the
position of this principle as against the Government and its agencies

A makes an offer to purchase goods in possession to B who is the agent of C but who has no authority to make any
contract of sale. The offer is accepted by B on behalf of C. B writes to C for ratification of the contracrt. Before the
ratification A withdraws the offer. C ratifies the contract made by B. Has the contract come into existence in this case? If
B repudiates the contract before C comes to know of it, and subsequently C ratifies the contract and sues to enforce it,
what will be the consequences
Examine the reasons which make it necessary that there should be a concept like holder in due course in the law of
negotiable instruments. State the characteristics of a holder in due course and his privileges and protections under the
Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881

A offers to sell his machinery to B for a fixed price, B agrees to buy the same subject to the condition that A should get it
repaired in order to put it into its running condition. A replies that B should himself get the machinery repaired and pay
him the agreed price less the actual cost of repairs. While being repaired, the machinery is destroyed without any fault of
the mechanic. A sues B for the price of the machinery. Will he succeed
What is meant by Reconstitution of a firm? In what circumstances can a partnership firm be constituted? Refer to the
relevant statutory provisions and the decided cases in your answer
How is an Arbitral Tribunal constituted? On what grounds and under what procedure can an approximate of an
arbitrator be challenged

Critically examine the following statement with reasons and examples: A corporation aggregate cannot be fastened with
criminal liability.
Critically examine the following statement with reasons and examples: The defence of irresistible impulse has frequently
been rejected in charges of murder.
Critically examine the following statement with reasons and examples: It is not at all in doubt that the proof of existence
of guilty intent is an essential element in a crime under common law.
Critically examine the following statement with reasons and examples: The offence of riot is not committed unless all
the five elements are present.
Explain whether any offence is committed in the following instances and under what circumstances? Give reasons.
X husband of W, cohabits with Z.
Explain whether any offence is committed in the following instances and under what circumstances? Give reasons.
Explain whether any offence is committed in the following instances and under what circumstances? Give reasons.
A cheque issued by X on his Bank having knowledge about insufficient funds in his account.
Explain whether any offence is committed in the following instances and under what circumstances? Give reasons. X
burns a share certificate of Z due to which she suffered mental agony in addition to financial loss.
Explain whether any offence is committed in the following instances and under what circumstances? Give reasons. X
shakes his fist at Z so as to cause reasonable apprehension in the mind of Z that she would be hit.

Explain whether any offence is committed in the following instances and under what circumstances? Give reasons. X has
sexual intercourse with his wife without her consent.
Explain whether any offence is committed in the following instances and under what circumstances? Give reasons. X
finds a valuable ring on the street and immediately sells the same for using the money to buy a computer.
Explain whether any offence is committed in the following instances and under what circumstances? Give reasons. X sells
the estate of which he is not the owner and executes a conveyance deed in
favour of the purchaser.
Explain whether any offence is committed in the following instances and under what circumstances? Give reasons. X
takes Y a girl of 13 years of age without her knowledge to Mumbai to send her to Dubai to handover for marriage to a
Sekh over there and dispathces her to Dubai for the above purpose.

Distinguish the following two incidents and point out regarding wrong, if any, which has been committed in these
incidents. Distinguish in the context of the nature and composition of these wrongs
1. The Municipality permitted a political party to hold a meeting in a public park blocking a busy road. X wanted to go to
Ys house crossing the road but was not allowed. There was no other way to go to Ys house.
2.A customer was suspected of having committed a theft in the departmental
store by the staff. She was detained by the Manager for 2 days in a Store-room.
Distinguish the wrong committed in the following two incidents and also give decisions : X circulated a handbill to his
neighbours alleging that Y became the Chairman of the Village Panchayet by paying money to the members of the
Panchayet.
Distinguish the wrong committed in the following two incidents and also give decisions: X goes on informing his
community members in many families that Ms Y is not chaste as many people have seen her in the company of different
people at various places.
Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 has many lacunae leading to undesirable consequences, which call for immediate
requisite amendment to the Act. Critically examine the above statement and suggest reasons for such amendment, if
any
To know whether a person occupies the position of an agent or not, the law has to go by his functions and the substance
of the transaction and not the parties terminology
Law relating to coercion and undue influence has a feature in each which is uncommon to the legal system as a whole.
Explain with illustrations.
Legal framework of offer and acceptance does not favour protection of consumers interests. Critically examine with
illustrations.
There is a very limited application of law relating to agreement in restraint of trade in India. Critically examine the
statement and suggest the area of limitations.
Even where the party seeking recession is not in a position to restore to the defendant his status quo ante, the courts
may allow by doing what is practically just in the circumstances.

How do you distinguish the nature and features of the following transactions?
i. A agrees to buy a motor-cycle from M/s Eastern Traders on terms that on delivery of the motor-cycle to A, A will pay
the price in installments along with interest for the motor-cycle in 24 monthly installments.
ii. M/s Eastern Traders agrees to give possession of a motorcycle to A on terms that A would pay down Rs. 5, 000 and
thereafter Rupees Three Thousand every month for 12 months. After the payment of all installments only the vehicle
would be registered in the name of A
There is a possibility that a minor admitted to the benefit of partnership may not know long after his attaining majority
that he is admitted to the benefits of partnership. Hence the principle of equity may adversely affect the interest of the
minor. Critically examine the statements and justify with reasons
What conditions an instrument must possess to became negotiable? How do you distinguish negotiability from
endorsement? Explain with illustrations

What is unfair trade practices? Explain why the following transactions are or are not unfair trade practice (s):
i. Selling renovated goods as original:
ii. exaggerating usefulness of a product:
iii. suggesting a trade name for the product, which belong to another

Discuss the rights and obligations of undisclosed principal and his agent vis-a-vis the other party to the contract
The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 contains provisions for effective use of Arbitration as an alternate model of
justice. Do you agree? Explain your answer with suitable illustrations
Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is bound by law to do it. Discuss.

Mere medical insanity is not a valid defence under the Indian Penal Code but legal insanity is. Discuss.
Whenever there is a breach of duty there is a cause of action in tort Discuss.
Where damages cannot be precisely calculated in terms of money. The court may take into account the motives and
conduct of the defendant, and where these aggravate the plaintiffs injury the damages will be correspondingly
increased. Discuss.
The law of criminal conspiracy insists on an agreement between two or more persons whereas in abetment by
conspiracy a mere engagement between them may be sufficient. Discuss.
A intentionally attacks B. While doing so A does not know that B is suffering from an enlarged appendix. The blow falls on
the appendix as a result of which the appendix bursts and B dies. Discuss As liability.
In the tort of negligence the question as to whether the defendant has acted as a reasonable man or not depends on
many factors. Discuss.

The defendant establishes a flour mill in the heart of a city adjacent to the plaintiffs house in a residential area. Running
of the mill causes vibrations to the house and unpleasant noise. The plaintiff sues the defendant and claims damages and
injunction. The defendant argues that he has a freedom to establish his own trade and business and that his flour mill is
also beneficial to a large number of residents in the area. Decide.
Whether a public servant is guilty of criminal misconduct under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 or not is not an
easy question for the courts to determine. Discuss.

Explain the meaning of consumer and service under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
The test of contractual intention is objective, not subjective. Discuss.
An act done at the promisors desire furnishes a good consideration for his promise even though it is of no significance or
personal benefit to him. Discuss.
There are definite rules for ascertaining the intention of the parties as to time when the property in the specific goods is
to pass to the buyer. Discuss.
Once a bearer instrument is always a bearer instrument. Discuss.
An agency coupled with interest cannot be terminated in the absence of an express contract. Discuss. Also discuss as to
when is an agency irrevocable.

A sold 100 bales of cotton to B for a sum of Rs. 50.000. A had not received the payment of the price but he sent the
railway receipt to B without reserving his right of disposal. B immediately endorsed the railway receipt to C a bonafide
purchaser for value. B became insolvent before the goods could reach their destination. A exercised his rights of
stoppage of goods in transit. Discuss the title of C over the goods.
Distinguish between partnership by estoppel and partnership by holding out. Discuss the chief ingredients of Section 28
of the Indian Partnership Act.
The defendant husband and his wife lived in a suite of a hotel where he was the manager and the wife acted as
manageress. They had no domestic establishment of their own. The wife incurrent with a tradesman a debt for clothes,
payment of which was demanded from the husband. Discuss the liability of the husband to pay off the debt.
Discuss the circumstances in which a bill of exchange is said to be dishonoured. What are the consequences of such
dishonour?
Define and explain international commercial agreement and arbitration agreement under the Arbitration and
Conciliation Act, 1996.
A, a pickpocket, puts his hand in the pocket of B, a person, who was reclining in the park. Incidentally, the person had a
piston in his pocket and as the pickpocket put his hand in the pocket, it touched the trigger and the pistol went off killing
the person: Is A guilty of culpable homicide? Explain when culpable hnmicide does not amount to murder with the help
of illustrations and decided cases.
X, a girl of 14, is ill-treated by her father and step mother. A the neighbour under the belief that X was 18; takes her away
from her parents house on her request but without the consent of the parents. Is he guilty of any offence? If yes, analyse
the nature of the offence and cite relevant cases.
A promises to B, his student, and induced her to cohabit with him. He has given her a false assurance of marriage and
also fraudulently gone through certain ceremonies of marriage making B to believe that she was a lawfully wedded wife
of A, Later A refused to recognise her as his wife. What is the offence committed by A? Explain its ingredients.

There was a leakage of oleum gas from one of the units of Mr. Xs Textile Industry, situated in the city of Mumbai, on 4th
and 5th October, 1995. It resulted in the death of an advocate practising in a court and all the ill effects of the same to
various other persons. Mr. Y, a public spirited individual filed a writ petition, under Art. 32 of the Constitution, before the
Supreme Court of India claiming compensation. Decide the liability of the occupier.

Intention and the act both must concur to constitute a crime. Explain.

Explain the occupiers liability in respect of structures.

Explain the law relating to contributory negligence of children.

Distinguish between: Malicious prosecution and False imprisonment

Distinguish between: . Maintenance and Champerty

What are the changes that were brought to the Untouchability Act of 1955?

Critically examine viability of the Dowry Prohibition Act.


A minor is liable to payout of his property for necessaries supplied to him. Discuss with the help of decided cases.
Public policy was a very unruly horse and when once you get astride it you never know where it will carry you (Burrough,
J.). Examine relevancy of this statement under the Indian Law.
A transport company refuses to deliver certain goods to the consignee except upon the payment of illegal charge of
carriage. The consignee pays the sum charged in order to obtain the goods. Discuss the rights of the consignee as against
the transport company.

Explain how far the rule of Caveat Emptor has undergone changes especially after passing the Consumer Protection Act.
Examine the principle of time is the essence of contract.

What is meant by material alteration of negotiable instrument? What is the legal effect of such material alteration?
A dismissed his servant B from service and for his wages gave him a draft in the following words Mr. X will much oblige
Mr. A by paying to Mr. B or order Rs. 200 on his account A, Is this draft a bill of exchange?

Explain the circumstances under which a partnership firm is said to be reconstituted.


X, one Ayurvedic doctor prescribed the medicine of Allopathy which caused the death of a patient. What is his liability?
Explain the liability of the doctors under the Consumer Protection Act.
Critically examine the utility of the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, t969 in the days of liberalisation,
globalisation and privatisation.

What is forgery? What are the effect of forged indorsement on a negotiable instrument?

What is passing of the property where the goods are unascertainable?

The accused picked up a revolver and believing it to be loaded pulled the trigger with the criminal intention of shooting B
dead. Fortunately for B, the revolver was not loaded and he escaped unhurt. What offence, if any, has the accused
committed? Is it open to the accused to contend in his defence that when the intended offence was physically
impossible of being accomplished on the facts as they turned out to be ultimately, he is entitled to a verdict of acquittal?

A and B are Hindus and are married under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. During the subsistence of their marriage A, the
husband, embraces Islam and goes through a second marriage ceremony with C, his girl-friend. On the complaint of B,
wife of the first marriage, A is prosecuted for the offence of bigamy under Section 494 of the Penal Code. Decide, citing
relevant case law.

The accused succeeded in getting a decree of restitution of conjugal rights in his favour, but his wife, who was living
separately with her parents, refused to rejoin him. He thereupon went to his in-laws place and there he had sex with his
wife without her consent. The wife desires to have her husband criminally prosecuted for the offence of rape and seeks
your legal advice. What advice will you give her?
Even if the master cannot actually control the way in which the servant does his work, because the servant is a skilled
professional who knows his job and will carry it out in his own way, he master nevertheless remain liable for the
negligence of the servant. Comment.
In the scheme of the Penal Code, culpable homicide is the All murder is culpable homicide Supreme Court in State of A P
vs Punnayva 1977 (SC) Discuss and illustrate.

What are the exceptions to the rule of strict liability? Briefly examine each of them.
Statutory right affords no protection if negligence, unreasonable conduct, want of jurisdiction or irregularity is proved.
Comment

Distinguish between the following: Libel and slander

Distinguish between the following: Public nuisance and private nuisance


What do you mean by untouchability in the context of Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955? Discuss, highlighting the
salient features of the Act.
Explain the nature, scope and extent of the Liability of the polluter for environmental torts in the light of the Polluter
pays principle as developed in recent Supreme Court decisions.

The general rule undoubtedly is that no third person can sue or be sued on a contract to which he is not a party, but at
bottom that is only a rule of procedure. It goes to the form of remedy, riot to the underlying right. Critically comment on
the principle of privity of contract in the light of the above statement and state whether you agree with the statement.

No consideration is necessary to create an agency. Explain, giving reasons


A owes B Rs. 1, 000, but the debt is time barred, C signs a written promise to pay B Rs. 500 on account of the above
barred debt. Is B entitled to enforce the promise against C?
What is the rule of caveat emptor? Explain the exceptions to this rule.
Explain, citing relevant case flow, whether he penal provisions of Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act cover a
case where a cheque is dishonoured by a bank on the ground that the drawer of the cheque has closed the particular
account on which he has dawn the cheque.
Critically examine the legal basis, scope and extent of the liability of a principal for the misrepresentations made or
frauds committed by his agent. Would it be correct to say that the said liability is art extension of the principle of
vicarious liability?
Examine the obligation under the Indian Contract Act of a person to whom money has been paid by mistake. In this
connection is there a distinction required to be drawn between a mistake of fact and mistake of law?
The plaintiff bank paid cash over the counter on a crossed cheque on which the defendant had forged the payees
endorsement. Can they claim return of the money by contending that it was paid by mistake?
The doctrine of frustration is really an aspect of or part of law of discharge of contract by reason of supervening
impossibility or illegality of the act agreed to he done. Elucidate with suitable illustrations.
What tests would you apply to determine whether a person consumer within the meaning of Section 2 (d) (i) of the
Consumer Protection Act, 1986? What is the scope and effect of the Explanation added to the above sub-clause by the
Amendment Act of 1993? Explain with the aid of suitable illustrations.
A bankers cheque is a peculiar sort of instrument in many respects resembling a bill of exchange, but in some entirely
different. Explain highlighting the distinctive features of these two instruments.
A cheque is drawn payable to B or order and delivered to B, It is stolen and Bs endorsement is forged. The Bank pays the
cheque and debits the drawers account. B sues the Bank and the drawer. Decide.

What are interconnected undertakings ad determined in Section 2J of the MRTP Act?


Explain briefly how and when the Central Government may direct severence of interconnection between undertakings.

The appellant along with the other three named accused were charged under Sec 120 − B (criminal conspiracy) read with
Sec 471 and Sec 420 IPC for conspiring to use forged documents and thereby induced the Controller of Imports to grant
import licences. The magistrate acquitted all accused persons on all charges. The High Court on appeal reversed the
acquittal of the appellant and convicted him for the substantive offence as well as conspiracy to commit such offence
under Sec 120 − B of the Indian Penal Code. Do you advice the appellant to appeal to the Supreme Court? Give reasons.

In all robbery there is either theft or extortion. Comment.

On what grounds can a person committing any harm on a consenting individual be not punished? Is there any limit to the
harm or can it be a harm to any extent?

What test has the Supreme Court prescribed to understand the rarest of the rare cases while inflicting capital
punishment? Can one argue that capital punishment in any case is against human right jurisprudence?
H files a petition for diverse against W. The court allows the divorce petition ex-parte. H marries Z after waiting for the
period of appeal and the appeal being not preferred within the time. W, makes an appeal after the stipulated appeal
period. The appeal court allows the appeal. Can H be tried for bigamy? Give reasons.

When will sexual intercourse by a man with wife be rape?

What changes are incorporated in the law dealing with the offence of rape in the recent past?
How do you distinguish the following? What reasons can be attributed for the
difference?
A solicitor, acting on behalf of his client, dictated a letter to the plaintiff stating
therein that the (plaintiff) bears immoral character. The letter then was posted
to the plaintiff.
How do you distinguish the following? What reasons can be attributed for the difference?
X told Z that Y is suffering from AIDS through the statement is not true.

Distinguish the wrong committed in the following:


The defendant told the plaintiff to leave the premises in occupation of the plaintiff. When the plaintiff refused, the
defendant collected some of his workmen who mustered round the plaintiff, tucking up their sleeves and
aprons and threatened to break the plaintiffs neck if he did not leave. The plaintiff then left the place.
Distinguish the wrong committed in the following:
A take B by the collar and pushes him down the hill.

How do you distinguish between wrongful imprisonment and wrongful restraint? Explain with illustrations.
Recent amendment to the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969 has left the Act with only regulating
restrictive trade practices. Justify the statement. Critically explain the provisions amended.

Hire purchase does not have any legal regulation in India. Critically examine the statement.
How do you distinguish void agreement and void contact? Does void contact have similar legal implications to voidable
contract?
What do you mean by force majecure clause in a contact? What implications does the clause have in view of the
provision for supervening impossibility?
What is the legal validity of a negotiable instrument where the promisor of the note simply signs a stamp paper for a
promissory note of Rs. 5, 000 but he did not write anything exception merely signing on a blank stamp paper?
A managing partner of a partnership firm asks for your legal advice on why or why not the firm be registered. Give you
opinion with reaons.

What forms of the acid test for a partnership firm? Explain with illustrations.
One of the requirements for formation of a valid contact is free consent. Why then, in some case of absence of free
consent, does it make the contract voidable, not a void agreement? Explain with illustrations.
Critically explain the revolution of Banker-Customer relations in the common law countries. What type of relations would
you suggest to suit the modern banking transactions?
Do you find any areas of conflict between the Indian Sale of Good Act and the Consumer Protection Act? Critically review
the areas and suggest how may would like to resolve the conflict.
Under the Indian Penal Code there is no right of private defence in which there is time to have recourse to the protection
of public authorities. Examine.
The abetment of the illegal omission of an act may amount to an offece although the abettor may not himself be bound
to do that act. Examine.
In tort the plaintiff wins his case only when he proves as to what particular tort the defendant has committed against
him. Examine.
The mere fact that a process or business is useful to persons generally, in spite of its annoyance to the plaintiff, is no
defence to an action for the tort of nuisance. Examine.
It is now a settled law in India that death sentence can be imposed only in the rarest to the rare cases. Examine the
above statement with the help of important decided cases clearly identifying as to what are rarest of rare cases.
X group, consisting of seven persons, waylaid Y group of persons. In the fighting that ensued between the two groups A,
a person belonging to the X group, was injured. Because of the injury A had to withdraw to one side and he took no
further part in the fight that continued between the two groups. Sometime later a person belonging to the Y group was
killed in the fighting. A along with other persons of the X group are prosecuted for the murder. Decide.
In the tort of malicious prosecution the plaintiff must prove, among other things, that the defendant was the person who
was actively instrumental in puffing the law in force. Examine.

The defendant newspaper company publishes the photographs of Mr. A and Mr. B along with the caption that they were
getting married on that day. They published this only Mr. A himself had confirmed to then correspondent that the news
was true. The fact, however, was that Mr. A was already married but his wife was residing in another city because their
relations were strained. The wife Mrs. A files a defamation suit against the defendant. Decide.
The thrust of the Protection of Civil Rights Act. 1955 is to liberate the society from blind ritualistic adherence and
traditional beliefs which have lost all legal and moral base. Examine.
In the light of the relevant provisions in the prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954 and the judicial prononcements
discuss as to whether a company enjoys immunity from prosecution in respect of those offences where the minimum
punishment prescribed is imprisonment.
Under the law of contract the intention of the parties must be manifested clearly so that their obligations mast be
demarcated with certainty. Examine.
The cost, insurance and freight (C. I. F.) contract is not a contract of sale of goods but a contract of sale of documents
relating to goods. Examine.
An agent cannot personally enforce a contract entered into by him on behalf of the principal, nor is he personally bound
by them. Examine.
A cheque is a bill of exchange drawn on a specific banker and is not expressed to be payable otherwise than on demand
Examine.
In India the impossibility of performance covers both the agreement to do impossible act as well as the contrect to do
act afterwards becoming impossible or unlawful. Examine.

The plaintiff bank made payment of certain crossed cheques to the defendantbank.The latter informed their customer-
payee of the cheques that the payment had been received for the cheques. It then turned out that the cheques were
forged. The plaintiff sued the defendant bank and his customer to recover back the amount contending that the
payment had been made under the mistaken belief that the cheques were genuine. Decide.
Discuss the law relating to contribution and indemnity between partners. Also discuss as to what happens in case one of
the partners is unable to contribute.
A government building contract is allotted through tenders. It falls to the share of a Karnataka based contractor who
transports his mobile workshop from there to the work site at Jammu. He had done only apart of the work when the
government unjustifiably repudiates the contract. The contractor sues for the loss of profits. Decide.
Examine the mechanism envisaged by the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969 to have surveillance over
restrictive trade practices.

Examine the nature and scope of the remedies under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986.

Examine as to whether a person who causes death of a pregnant woman is guilty of committing one homicide or two.
Whereas in criminal conspiracy an agreement between two or more persons is needed, in abetment by conspiracy an
engagement between them is enough. Examine.

Duties in tort exist by virtue of the law itself, and are not dependent upon the consent of the persons subjected to them.
Examine.
Examine how and when a duty of care arises, breach of which on the part of the defendant makes him liable in an action
for negligence. What is the liability, if any for negligent misstatement kilt which causes financial loss to the plaintiff?

When is a man said to commit the offence of rape?

Examine the criminal liability of A in the following:


i. A, with a known background of sleep-walking, got up from sleep one night, walked to the garage while asleep and
drove away in his car in that condition for quite some distance. He halted the car at his brother-in-laws place, entered
the room where his brother-in-law was asleep and gave a hard blow to him, thereby severely injuring-him. In a
prosecution for attempt to commit murder As lawyer pleads non insane automatism, on the basis of which he seeks an
acquittal. Decide. Do you think that this case should be dealt with under section 84 of the Indian Penal Code?

ii. A buys milk from B knowing that it contains water, in order to have B prosecuted for selling adulterated milk. What
offence has A committed?
Discuss the legal principles, in the background of the recent changes in the law, applicable to the determination of
liability for injury caused by hazardous substances and also the nature of the said liability. Refer to relevant case law.

Examine the tortious liability of A in the following:


i. A pretends to lock the plaintiff in a room by purporting to turn the key of the door from outside and taking it away. The
fact is that the door, thought shut, is not locked. The plaintiff remains in the room for two hours under the belief
that he has been locked inside:
ii. Branches of trees grown on Bs land overhang on the side of A. His neighbour A repeatedly requests B to cut off these
overhanging branches so that A is able to enjoy sunlight. B does not pay heed to these requests. A goes on to the side of
B and cuts off those branches

Discuss in detail the various provisions under section 7 of the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 with respect to
punishment for other offences arising out of untouchability.

Discuss in detail the very wide powers given to the food inspectors by the Prevention of Food

A contract consists of the actionable promise or promises. Examine.

Liberty to trade is not an aspect which the law would permit a person to barter. Examine.

An agent is person employed to do any act for another in dealing with third parties. Examine.

Risk follows the owner is an established rule in sale of goods. Examine.

A quasi-contract arises out of judicial principles and not out of a contractual agreement between two persons. Examine.

The tenant and the sub-tenant of a certain premises agree between themselves that the subtenant would pay the
tenants rent directly to the landlord. After paying the said rent for a certain period, the sub-tenant refuses to make
further payments. The land-lord sues the subtenant. The sub-tenant argues that there was no contract between him and
the landlord. Decide.
Examine the circumstances under which a firm may be dissolved on just and equitable grounds. Refer to various judicial
pronouncements in this regard.
A sold a television by auction. It was knocked down in favour of B, who was allowed to take it on the condition that he
would give a cheque for the price and the ownership would pass only when the cheque was cleared. The cheque given
by B was not cleared, but in the meanwhile B sold the television to C. Discuss the validity of the title to C.
The greatest element of negotiability is the acquisition of property by your own conduct, not by anothers, that if you can
take it bonafide and for value, nobody can deprive you of it. Examine.

Explain the scope and content of the expression contract of personal service in the exclusionary part of section 2 (1) (0)
of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986. What is the distinction between contract of service and contract for services? In
which category would you place the contract between a doctor and his patient? Is the service rendered by a doctor
under such a contract covered by the exclusionary part of the definition of service in section 2 (1) (0) of the Act? Refer to
case law.

Under the Indian Penal Code an act which is done by one against his will is not his act. Examine.
An abetment of an offence being complete offence by itself, an attempt of abetment of an offence is also an offence.
Examine.
Under the toil of nuisance a person cannot increase the liabilities of his neighbour by applhing his own property to
special uses, whether for business or pleasure Examine.
Law of tort is based upon a fundamental general principle that it is wrongful to cause harm to other persons in the
absence of some specific ground of justification or excuse. Examine.

To hold an accused guilty of murder under Clause (3) of Section 300 of the Indian Penal Code the prosecution must prove
that there was an intention to inflict that particular injury; that is to say that the injury was not accidental or
unintentional or that some other kind of injury was intended, and that particularly injury was sufficient in the ordinary
course of nature to cause death. Examine.
A, in association with B, relieved C of his watch in a running train, and when A and B tried to get down from the train C
raised an alarm where upon B slapped him. Discuss the liability of A and B.
The purpose of a combination and the means employed to achieve that purpose are the two most important
considerations in the tort of conspiracy. Examine.

Study very carefully the following two situations


Situation A: The defendant, a deeply religious man and owner of a house in the heart of a city, set it apart free of rent for
those who wished to use the same for religious purposes. As a result the house remained occupied most of the time. The
music played through the loudspeakers during religious ceremonies caused constant noise and inconvenience to the
neighbours.
Situation B: The defendant established a flour mill in a residential area in the heart of a city adjacent to the plaintiffs
house. Continuous running of the mill for long hours everyday caused unpleasant noise as well as continuous vibrations
in the house of the plaintiff.
Compare the tortious liability of the defendants in the above mentioned situations. Give reasons and Cite case-law.

Discuss the concept of dowry as stated under the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 Also suggest necessary changes which are
needed in your opinion to be made in the definition of dowry.
Explain adulterated and misbranded food under the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954 and differentiate
between the two.

A contract shall not be enforced if the agreement is opposed to public policy. Examine.

An agency coupled with interest cannot, in the absence of an express contract, be terminated. Examine.
Any change in the relations of the partners will result in the reconstitution of the firm, Examine.

Examine the concepts of consumer and consumer dispute under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
With the help of decided cases discuss in detail the market rate theory of assessment of damages in cases of breach of
contract.

The plaintiff booked a hotel for his sons wedding reception in which two hundred guests were invited. The contract
included provision for a dinner in a big ball by the hotel management who would also provide a band to play music. The
hotel management cancelled the contract just a day before the wedding. As a result the plaintiff was forced to organise
only a simple function at a small place with a simple dinner. The plaintiff sues the hotel management and claims general
damages for Inconvenience and mental torture and special damages for cancellation of the band music and telephone
expenses to inform the guests about the change of venue. Decide.

Explain the effect of mistake of fact on agreements with illustrations and decided cases.
What is the nature of an unfair trade practice under the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969? How does
the Act protect a consumer?
Examine the correctness of the following statements:
i. In the absence of express agreement the seller of goods is bound to answer for his title.
ii. A person cannot make a contract to purchase his own goods.
A draws a cheque payable to bearer and hands it over to B. B crosses it and endorses it in favour of C and delivers it to hi
in D steals the cheque from C and presents it for payment before the bank which makes the payment over the counter. C
sties the bank. Decide.
A partner has undefined ownership alongwith other partners over all the assets of partnership, and if he chooses to use
any of them for his own purposes, tie cannot be held guilty of criminal misappropriation of property. Examine.

Examine the criminal liability of a landlord who cuts of the electricity connection of his tenant in order to put pressure on
him to pay enhanced rent.

The maxim Res Ipsa Loquitur is not a rule of Law but a rule of Evidence. Explain and illustrate.
A wrong falls within the course of employment of the servant if it is necessarily incidental to something which the
servant is employed to do. Explain.
Clause (4) of Section 300, Indian Penal Code, defining murder, cannot be applied until it is clear that Clause 1, 2 and 3 of
the section each or all of them fail to suit the circumstances. Examine the above statement with the help of decided
cases.

A enticed a minor girl M without the consent of her lawful guardian G and kept her with him for a month after which he
deserted her. While M was loitering on the street immediately thereafter, B took her with him from whose custody M,
was later recovered by the police. Discuss with reasons and decided cases criminal liability of A and B.

Study very carefully the following two situations: Situation A: While playing on a cricket ground owned by the defendant
a batsman hit the ball so hard that it went over the boundary wall and hit the plaintiff walking on an adjoining street. In
the history of the eighty year old ground the ball had been so hit out five or six times. Situation B: Trespassing children
used to play football in an open area belonging to the defendant adjoining a busy road In the absence of a high boundary
wall the ball used to go on to the road frequently and children used to go there to fetch the ball back. One day the ball
was shot out on the road where it hit a scooter driver causing hi in to fall and suffer injuries Compare the tortious liability
of the defendants in above mentioned situations. Give reasons and cite case law.
A, a journalist, writes an article against B, a public servant, alleging that B has misappropriated sum of Rs. 2 lacs from the
public fund under his control In an action in tort for defamation by B against him A takes the defence of fair comment.
Discuss with reasons.
Discuss the various defences which may or may not be allowed during prosecutions under the Prevention of Food
Adulteration Act, 1954.

Explain the concepts of civil rights and place of public worship under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955.

A contract is a contract from the time it is made and not from the time its performance is due. Explain.

Explain an offer “and a quotation” and differentiate between the two.


In a partnership where no contract exists, how would the partners distribute the assets after dissolution and how would
they charge interest on capital and loan?
Under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 discuss the procedure to be followed by the District Forum on receipt of
complaint relating to any goods.

Though offer and acceptance bring the parties together and constitute the outward semblance of contract, vet most
systems of law require some further evidence of the intention of the parties and in default of such evidence refuse to
recognise an obligation. Comment upon the above statement and discuss the nature of evidence required to be supplied
under the Indian Contract Act.
The plaintiff, municipality of a town, sold to the derendant by contract the right to collect dung in the municipal area for
one year. No dung was, however, left to be collected by the defendant as the same was removed by the pig owners
themselves in their own right.
Examine the situations in which law of fiction shall apply in partnership relations Refer to the relevant provisions of the
Partnership Act and case-law.
A and Sons, a partnership firm, manufactures certain articles under a trade name B gives to his own products a similar
name to pass them off as a product of the said firm. The firm files a suit against B and claims injunction against using the
name. B pleads that the firm being non-registered the suit is not maintainable. Decide.
The notion of transit is both a matter a fact as well as of law as regards stoppage in transit by an unpaid seller. Examine
this statement and refer to case-law.
Discuss the various ways under the Negotiable Instruments Act in which the liability on a negotiable instrument is
discharged.
What are the difficulties that arise in the application of the rule the acceptance must be absolute, and must correspond
with the terms of the offer?

Outline the nature of undue influence in the law of contract.

Are there any exceptions in the partnership law to the rule that contracts in restraint of trade are void?
When does a discount sale announced by a trader amount to an unfair trade practice
under the MRT. P. Act?

Can an outgoing partner claim a share in the profits of the firm? If yes, under what circumstances?
A, B and C were partner of a form in which A was a dormant partner. He retired from the partnership without given
public notice and his place was taken by D. Subsequently F becomes a creditor of the firm. Can F proceed to recover his
debt from A, B, C and D?

What is ratification and what are its essentials?


B creating an impression that he is a creditworthy person purchased a car from A by handing over a cheque for the price
of the car, having taken possession of the car he sold it to C. The cheque was dishonoured. A seeks to recover the car
from C. Will he succeed?
What constitutes material alteration of a negotiable instrument and what are its effects?
A cheque payable to A or his order is endorsed by B forging the signature of A, The drawee bank pays the amount. What
is the legal position of the bank? If the forged signature were that of the drawer would the legal position of the bank
change?

Can less than five persons be charged, tried and convicted for the offence of unlawful assembly?

Amplify the view that our penal law does not recognise insanity that affects our emotions which prompt our actions, and
tile will by which our actions are performed.

When do the courts award exemplary damages in an action for tort?


Examine that statement that would is lawful in one may become unlawful when done by more than one acting in
combination.
The law relating to murder recognises the principles that anger is a passion to which good and bad men are subject, and
mere human frailty and infirmity ought not to be punished equally with ferocity or their evil feeling. Elucidate.
In spite of recent amendment in the law, the definition of rape with Indian Penal Code leaves, certain loopholes making
it difficult to secure convictions. Critically evaluate this statement.

The fact must support the implication from occupiers conduct that he has permitted entry, not merely tolerated it, for
knowledge is not tantamount to consent. Discuss with reference to the liability of the occupier towards a licensee. Is it in
any way different towards a trespasser? Explain.

Employees of the telecommunications department opened a manhole in a street near a childrens park and in the
evening left the open manhole covered by a canvas tent unattended and surrounded by warning paraffin lamps. The
plaintiff, a boy aged eight, attracted by lamps and the tent entered into the tent. While peeping into the manhole lie
stumbled over a lamp.
The lamp fell into the manhole and in a violent explosion has followed plaintiff sustained burn injuries. In an action in
tort, the department pleads remoteness of damage. Decide.
State the powers of Food Inspectors and the procedure which they are required to follow in exercising their powers
under the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
A hotel refuses to serve food to certain classes of persons unless they sit in a separate place earmarked for then Discuss
the liablity of the hotel owner, if any, under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955.
An offer cannot be accepted after it has been terminated or negatived. Explain when an offer ceases to be capable to
acceptance.
If there has been a substantial though not exact and literal performance by the prmoisor, the promisee cannot treat
himself as discharged. Explain. What is remedy in such a case regarding the deficiency in performance?
Under what circumstances is it permissible for a principal to revoke the authority given to an agent? From what date
does the revocation operate?

What is the purpose served by crossing a cheque? What is effect of adding not negotiable to crossing?
Discuss how far the performance of something which the promisee is already under a legal obligation to perform can
from consideration for a promise.
The Government has notified an order under an appropriate statute that no one shall buy or sell a particular explosive
substance except under a licence obtained from the authority specified. As has obtained a-license to buy, but B, who has
no license to sell, represents to A that he has license to sell and induces him to enter into a contract for the sale of a
certain quantity of the explosive. A pays a part of the price. A learns that B has no license to sell and has no change of
obtaining in within a reasonable time. Can A sue to recover the advance paid? If B delivers the commodity as promised,
can be recover the balance of the price from A, when it is clear to the court that the sale is prohibited?
Under a contract of sale of goods, what are the rights and duties of the seller and buyer regarding the delivery and
acceptance of the goods agreed to be sold?

X, a company which manufactures a certain type of goods, has 4 units of new and sophisticated machinery to
manufacture the goods. Such units are not easily available in the market. Y, another company which is just formed and is
expected to go into production two years hence, enters into a contract with X to buy 2 of those units. Later Y company
gets merged in the manufacture and sale of the particular type of goods. Z can immediately start production using the
new units. X refuses to sell the units to Z. Can Z sue for specific performance of the contract?
What are services as defined by the Consumer Protection Act, 1986? Do medical services provided in a nursing home
come withing the scope of the Act? Under what conditions does a complaint lie under the Act in respect of services?
P and Q who are marred, agree to separate and P, the husband, promises Q to pay Rs. 1000 every month so long as she
remains unmarried. Is the contract enforceable? What is the position if the agreement is that should any contingency
arises at any time in future for them to separate, P will pay in that manner?

Explain how far the minority of the accused person may be pleaded as ground of defence in a criminal prosecution.

What is meant by stolen property? When is receiving stolen property an offence?

When can a defendant plead voluntary assumption of risk by the plaintiff as a groung of defence in an action in tort?
What is meant by innuendo? What are the facts which the plaintiff must prove or establish in order to sustain a plea of
innuendo?
Assuming that the accused person had no f1tention to cause the death of the deceased, but had only intention to cause
bodily injury, explain when the accused may be held guilty of murder, culpable homicide not amounting murder, or only
voluntarily causing grievous hurt.

P, aged 17 years, the daughter of Q, develops friendship with a young man living in a neighbouring house, She wants to
marry him. On leaning this, Q takes her and entrusts her to 5, a relative living in a different part of the same city. Shortly
thereafter, P goes out of Ss house and calls Ron the telephone. R joins her and both go to a temple and go through a
ceremony of marriage. Then both go from place to place for some days as husband and wife until the police arrest them
on a complaint of kidnapping given by Q. R is prosecuted for the offence of kidnapping with intent to compel P to marry.
Can R be held guilty of the offence?

Explain the elements of the tort of private nuisance.

A, the owner of a house, allows the branches of a tree in his compound to overhang the adjoining highway. B, a driver of
the city bus corporation, drives a bus negligently very close to the overhanging branches so that the branches injured a
passenger in the bus through a window, and he loses his eyes. From whom can the passenger recover damages for the
loss of amenity, from B, the city bus corporation, or A, or from all the three?
If an offence is committed by a company under the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954, in course of
manufacturing a particular food for sale. Who are the persons liable to be prosecuted?
I alleges that A, a Government servant, sought a bribe from him. I writes to Xs superior complaining against X. He follows
it up by sending copies of the complaint to some Members of Parliament and representatives of the press. X denies the
truth of the allegations Can X sue I for defamation? On what grounds?
Explain the common law doctrine of contributory negligence and the illogicality involved in it that paved the way for its
modification.
The basic principle for the measure of damages in tort as well as in contract is that there should be restitution in
integrum. Explain and comment.

While Section 55 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) empowers the appropriate Government to commute a sentence of
imprisonment for life to fourteen years, Section 57 states that in calculating the fractions of sentence of imprisonment,
imprisonment for life shall-be reckoned as equivalent to twenty years. What is the actual duration of a sentence
imprisonment for life and how do you explain the above two seemingly contradictory statements?
How do you differentiate preparation for and attempt at commission of a crime? To be guilty of an attempt, it is not
necessary that circumstances should be such as would facilitate the completion of the crime. Comment. What is the
punishment prescribed for a criminal attempt?
What are the conditions of application of the maxim resipsa loquitor? How does it affect the burden of proof in cases of
negligence?

The plaintiff engaged the defendants, a firm of interior decorators, to do some work in his house. The firm deputed one
of its servants to do the work. The plaintiff instructed the worker that if he should ever go out he should close shut the
front door and go. The worker went out without securely closing the front door to fetch some materials. Before he
returned some thieves entered the house and stole some very valuable jewels. Can the plaintiff recover the value of the
jewels from the defendants?

Explain the distinction between Criminal Misappropriation and Criminal Breach of Trust.

A letter is received to the address of one A Raman. A person bearing the same name and working in the same office as
the former receives it. On opening it, he finds in it a dividend warrant, to which he knows he has no clam at all and has
reason to believe that the former Raman could have. He however takes it and deposits it in his own bank account. What
offence has lie committed? Assuming that the former Raman has himself received the latter but gave to the latter to be
deposited in the formers bank account, what is the offence committed by the latter thereby?

Examine the following statements:


i. Instigation of minor to commit suicide amounts to abetment of murder.
ii. Killing another in excessive self-defence but without premeditation is not murder.

A and B were married in 1988. A had been pestering B all along to bring from her parents money for him to buy a scooter
and even subjecting her to cruelty. One day he gave her a severe thrashing on this account and left the house. When he
returned home two hours later, he found her dead, having consumed cyanide poison. He reported the death to the
police as a case of suicide due to some personal ailment. The police prosecuted him for dowry death, and in the
alternative for abetment of suicide. At the trial he did not produce any evidence of ailment from which she suffered. For
what offence can he be held guilty?
Explain the principle of non est factum, and comment on its rationality when applied in reference to a document
executed by a well-educated person.
Examine the value of stipulations contained in a contract which specify the images or penalties to be paid by the party in
breach to the other party.
A stipulation may be a condition though called a warranty in the contra. Explain bringing out the distinction between
conditions and stipulations. When may a condition in contract of sale of good have to be treated as a warranty?
In what way a holder of a negotiable instrument stands in a less advantageous position than a holder in due course?
Comment on: A holder who derives title from a holder in due course has the same rights as a holder in due course.
Explain the doctrine of frustration of contracts. Examine the statement Cases of frustration of contracts are not simply
cases of initial or supervening physical or legal impossibility of performance of contracts.

X agreed with Y to supply twenty transformers, which were to be imported from a foreign country, at a price stated to be
firm and not subject to escalation. X imported ten transformers and there after stopped importing as the prices had gone
up three- fold due to conditions of war. V sued X for specific performance of the contract limiting the chain to the ten
transformers available with X, and claimed damages with respect to the remaining ten. X has taken the position that the
whole contract has become frustrated ans so the suit is not maintainable. Does V succeed?
In a sale of goods risk usually passes with the property, but may pass independently of it. Explain, when property and risk
pass.

P agreed to sell 100 bales of cotton from W, to be delivered at Delhi. P sent the goods by railway, the railway receipt to a
bank at Delhi with an instruction that it should be delivered to W on his paying the invoiced amount. W paid the amount
and got the receipt, but then learnt that a few days earlier the bales were destroyed by fire. Can W recover the amount
he has paid?
What are the essential elements of a partnership? If two corporations agree that they shall invest equally and start a
joint venture one year hence, can you say that there is a subsisting partnership?
What are the types of complaints that may be preferred under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986? Who are competent
to bring a complaint before a District Forum? What are the remedies available to a party aggrieved by a decision of a
District Forum?
Who are the person that can invoke the protection afforded by the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955? A person
belonging to a scheduled tribe, professing the religion of Christianity, is refused admission to a Hindu temple. Can be
invoke the protection under the Act?

What are unliquidated damages? When are they awarded?

Under what conditions may an action in tort be maintained for a breach of a statutory duty?
What is the distinction between Conspiracy and abetment by conspiracy? When is an abettor liable to the same extent
as the principal offender?

Under what conditions may the defence of insanity be pleaded on behalf of an accused?
What is the liability of the manufacturer of defective goods for personal injuries suffered by a consumer? Has the
Consumer Protection Act, 1986, altered the law in any way?

X, received from B, a bookseller, a parcel of books. X did not order for them. He did not want to buy them, nor incur the
postage to return them by post. He wrote to B to arrange for taking them back soon as he did not want to buy them.
After three months X received a letter from B asking X to hand them over to a local book dealer. By this time the books
became moth-eaten and unfit for sale. Can B sue X conversion, or on any other basis, and recover the price of the
books?

Explain the elements of the Offence of Sedition.

A, B, D and E broke into a house during night. A and B carried instruments useful for housebreaking, breaking iron chests,
C and D carried knives, and E a revolver. As C was snatching a gold chain forcibly, from an inmate, another inmate P
pointed a gun at him. Before P could shoot, E shot him dead. All intruders escaped with the gold chain and other
ornaments. Outside the house, a neighbour N at-tempted to catch hold of D, but D killed him by stabbing. What are the
offences for which these five may be charged? Is it possible to plead the right of private defence with respect to killing of
P?

What are civil rights as defined by the Civil Rights Protection Act, 1955? State briefly the offences prescribed by the Act.
Explain the following offences created by the Dowry Prohibition (Amendment) Act,
1986:
i. Advertising offers to give dowry
ii. Dowry death (Sec. 304 B, IPC).

Consideration need not be adequate, but it must be real or valuable. Explain.


While a minors contract is void, his estate is subject to quasi-contractual liability. What are the conditions of quasi-
contractual liabilities to which the estate of a minor is subject?
In a bilateral contract, where both parties have obligations to perform, questions may arise as to who is to perform first.
How are such questions answered?
The right to rescind a contract is a more drastic remedy than the right to damages, and therefore some restrictions are
placed on it. What are they? When may rescission be refused?

What is the effect of a mistake of fact on the validity of a contract?

A takes on hire a finishing trawler from B for the purpose of deep-sea fishing. The trawler was imported by B and was
never used by him. Under the contract, A was to get the necessary repairs done in the trawler to make it sea-worthy, for
which B would pay. After it was certified sea-worthy, A was to pay monthly rent. While the repairing was being done, A
discovered that the refrigeration equipment of the trawler was not capable of bringing down the temperature to such a
low level as is necessary to use the trawler for deep-sea fishing. A sues for a declaration that the contract is void, and for
recovery of the expenses incurred on repairs. There is no evidence that during the negotiation for contract there was any
discussion about the quality of the refrigeration of the trawler, but the purpose of chartering of trawler was known to B.
How will you decide?

What are the implied conditions and warranties in a contract of sale of goods?

When may an unpaid seller resell the goods? Who is entitled to the profit got on resale?
X bought an electric typewriter from Y and used it for seven months, Then it came to light that Y had stolen it from Z. Z
recovered the machine from X. X sues for the recovery of the price he had paid to Y. Y pleads that since X had used the
machine for seven months, the full price is not recoverable. Is the plea sustainable?
If a duly appointed agent enters into a contract with a third party without disclosing the principal or the agency, what are
the rights and liabilities of the principal, the agent and the third party inter Se with reference to the contract?
A partnership, which is a partnership at will, is dissolved by a partner giving a notice to ocher partners of his intention to
retire from the 1artnership. From what date does such dissolution take effect? When does the liability of such partner
with respect to the dealings of the firm with outsiders cease?

X Draws a cheque in favour of Y, a businessman, as part of a legal transaction and delivers it to him. Y endorses it in
favour of Z and passes it on to him towards the price payable to him in respect of the goods purchased from him. Z gives
the cheque as a present to? On P presenting the cheque, it is dishonoured. P sues X for its amount. Will P succeed?
Corporates causing havoc to the wildelife existing on seashore is an extreme type of environmental crime and laws are
almost non existent to deal withthem directly. Discuss.

"The strict adherence to the theoretical consideration that a contract made under mistake as to the identity of parties or
identity of the subject matter is void, would lead to absurd result." Do you, agree with this statement? Give reasons.
"The contract of sale is consensual and bilateral." Discuss. How does Sale differ from Hire Purchase Agreement?
"In determining whether a group of persons is or is not a firm, or whether a person is or is not a partner in a firm, regard
shall be had to the real relations between the parties as shown by all the relevant facts taken together." Do you agree
with this statement? Give reasons.

Distinguish between Holder and Holder in due Course. Support your answer with decided cases.

What are various kinds of Indorsement recognised by law? Discuss the effect of forged indorsement. Give reasons.
Critically examine the principle of Caveat Emptor, highlighting its exceptions in the light of statutory provisions and
judicial pronouncements.

Discuss the consequences of non-registration of partnership firm.


Discuss the scope of Section 70 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.Can a State recover cost of training on failure of the
defendant to join the service?
"In a 'standard form contract', it is likely. that the party having stronger bargaining power may insert such exemption
clauses in the contract that his duty to perform the main contractual obligation is thereby negatived" Explain, and
discuss the various rules which have been evolved to protect the weaker party.
UPSC Topic UPSC Chapter Sub topic

Crime
Mens rea in Statutory Offences

Crime
General principles of Criminal
liability : mens rea and actus
reus, mens rea in statutory
offences

Dacoity

Crime Offences against Property

Crime

Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988

Crime

Plea bargaining
Liability based upon fault and
Tort strict liability;
Absolute liability
General principles of Criminal
Crime liability : mens rea and actus
reus, mens rea in statutory
offences

Contract
Sale of goods and hire purchase

Contract

CLD
PIL

Major statutes concerning


CLD environmental law.

Contract
Negotiable Instruments Act,
1881

CLD
Trial by media
General Exceptions 1. Mistake
(Ss.76,79) 2. Judicial Acts (Ss Mistake
Crime 77,78)
Crime Offences against Property

Protection of Civil Rights Act,


Crime 1955 and
subsequent legislative
developments.
Tort
4.2 General Exceptions :
Crime Accident (S.80) and Neccessity necessity
(S.81)

Tort

Crime

Tort

Tort
Defamation

Tort

Crime

Liability based upon fault and


Tort strict liability;
Absolute liability

Contract
Sale of goods and hire purchase
CLD

CLD
Contract

CLD

Contract

Crime
Mens rea in Statutory Offences

Crime Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988

Liability based upon fault and


Tort strict liability;
Absolute liability

Crime
Plea bargaining

Crime

Crime

Crime

Crime

Tort
Negligence

Tort

Tort
Conspiracy
Contract

Contract

Contract

CLD
Trial by media
General Exceptions 1. Mistake
(Ss.76,79) 2. Judicial Acts (Ss Mistake
Crime 77,78)
Contract Arbitration and Conciliation
Act, 1996.

Contract
Sale of goods and hire purchase

Contract

Crime Kinds of punishment and


emerging trends as to abolition
of capital punishment
Liability based upon fault and
Tort strict liability;
Absolute liability
Crime
Criminal conspiracy.
Crime Culpable Homicide
Offences against human body
Crime Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988

Crime
Offences against Property
Tort

Tort

Tort

Tort
Defamation
Tort
Negligence
Tort
False imprisonment

Contract

CLD

Contract

Contract

CLD

Contract

Contract

Contract

Contract
Crime Stages of Crime

Offences against human body –


Crime PART II : of Corruption Act, 1988
Prevention
1. Abetment of suicide
Crime 2. Attempt
Mens rea intoStatutory
murder, Offences
culpable
homicide,suicide.
Crime 3. Thug Suicide
4. Miscarriage
Crime

Crime

Crime

Crime

Crime

Tort

Contract

Contract

Contract

Liability based upon fault and


Tort strict liability;
Absolute liability
Tort Liability based upon fault and
strict liability;
Absolute liability

CLD Intellectual property rights,


Concept, types/ prospects
Major statutes concerning
CLD environmental law.

CLD
Alternate dispute resolution
Information Technology Law
CLD including Cyber Laws-Concept,
purpose/prospects

Contract

Crime

Tort

4.3 General Exceptions: 1.


Infancy (Ss.82,83) 2. Insanity Drunkenness
(S.84) 3. Drunkenness
Crime (Ss.85,86)
CLD

Crime

Crime

Crime

CLD

Contract

Crime
Plea bargaining
Tort
Vicarious liability including
State Liability

Contract
Contract

Copyright Act
CLD IPR

General Exceptions 1. Mistake


(Ss.76,79) 2. Judicial Acts (Ss Mistake
Crime 77,78)
`inventive steps- Patent Act
CLD patent Act

CLD RTI Act RTI Act

CLD

Crime
Crime

Tort

Negligence
Tort
Negligence

Tort
Malicious prosecution

Tort

Negligence
Tort
Nuisance

Crime

Offences against Property


Tort
Conspiracy

Contract

Contract

Crime

Contract

Liability based upon fault and


Tort strict liability;
Absolute liability
Contract Negotiable Instruments Act,
1881
CLD Alternate dispute resolution
Contract

Contract

Contract
Sale of goods and hire purchase

cld
CLD

Trial by media

Contract

Contract

Crime
Crime
Crime
Crime

Crime Sedetion
Offences against the State

Tort
Vicarious liability including
State Liability

Tort
Vicarious liability including
State Liability

Tort
Consumer Protection a=Act

Contract

CLD
Alternate Dispute Resolution
CLD

RTI Act
CLD
Competition law
Major statutes concerning
CLD environmental law.

Contract Goods and Services Act


CLD
IT Act
Crime
Crime
Crime

Tort
Nuisance

Crime

Crime

Crime Kinds of punishment and


emerging trends as to abolition
of capital punishment
Crime

Liability based upon fault and


Tort strict liability;
Absolute liability
Tort

Defamation

Tort
Consumer Protection Act
Contract

Liability based upon fault and


Tort strict liability;
Absolute liability

cld

Contract Arbitration and Conciliation


Act, 1996

Crime
Mens rea in Statutory Offences
4.2 General Exceptions :
Crime Accident (S.80) and Neccessity necessity
(S.81)
Liability based upon fault and
Tort strict liability;
Absolute liability
Crime Plea bargaining innuendo

Tort
Defamation
Tort
Consumer Protection Act

Contract Negotiable Instruments Act,


1881

Information Technology Law


CLD including Cyber Laws-Concept,
purpose/prospects
Liability based upon fault and
Tort strict liability;
Absolute liability

Contract

Contract
Sale of goods and hire purchase
Contract

Crime
Stages of Crime

General Exceptions 1.
Crime Consent(S.87-93) 2. Consent
Compulsion (S.94) 3. Trifles
(S.95)

Tort
Consumer Protection Act
Crime
Plea bargaining

Contract

Sale of goods and hire purchase


Major statutes concerning
CLD environmental law.
CLD Intellectual property rights,
Concept, types/ prospects

Crime Kinds of punishment and


emerging trends as to abolition
of capital punishment
Crime
Offences against Property
Tort
Negligence

General principles of Criminal


Crime liability : mens rea and actus tortious liability and criminal liability.
reus, mens rea in statutory
offences

Crime

Tort

Nuisance
Tort
Consumer Protection Act

Crime Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988

Contract
Sale of goods and hire purchase
General Exceptions 1.
Consent(S.87-93) 2. Consent
Compulsion (S.94) 3. Trifles
Crime (S.95)

Contract Negotiable Instruments Act,


1881

Contract Negotiable Instruments Act,


1881

4.3 General Exceptions: 1.


Crime Infancy (Ss.82,83) 2. Insanity insanity
(S.84) 3. Drunkenness
(Ss.85,86)

Offences against human body –


PART II :
Crime 1. Abetment of suicide Suicide
2. Attempt to murder, culpable
homicide,suicide.
3. Thug
4. Miscarriage
Crime innuendo
Plea bargaining

Crime
Mens rea in Statutory Offences

Liability based upon fault and


Tort strict liability;
Absolute liability
Tort
Malicious prosecution

Crime Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988


Offences against human body –
PART I :
1. Culpable Homicide
2. Murder
3. Causing death by Negligence
Crime 4. Dowry Death

Contract Arbitration and Conciliation


Act, 1996.
Contract Arbitration and Conciliation
Act, 1996.

4.3 General Exceptions: 1.


Crime Infancy (Ss.82,83) 2. Insanity insanity
(S.84) 3. Drunkenness
(Ss.85,86)

Offences against human body –


PART II :
Crime 1. Abetment of suicide Suicide
2. Attempt to murder, culpable
homicide,suicide.
3. Thug
4. Miscarriage
Crime innuendo
Plea bargaining
Tort

Crime
Mens rea in Statutory Offences
Crime

Tort

Tort

Crime Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988

Offences against human body –


PART I : Dowry
1. Culpable Homicide
2. Murder
3. Causing death by Negligence
Crime 4. Dowry Death

Contract

Contract

Contract

Contract

Contract

Contract

Contract

Contract

Contract

Contract
General Exceptions 1.
Crime Consent(S.87-93) 2. Consent
Compulsion (S.94) 3. Trifles
(S.95)

Tort
Consumer Protection Act

Tort
Negligence

General principles of Criminal


Crime liability : mens rea and actus
reus, mens rea in statutory
offences

Tort

Tort
Consumer Protection Act

Contract Negotiable Instruments Act,


1881
Contract
Sale of goods and hire purchase
Contract

Sale of goods and hire purchase

General principles of Criminal


Crime liability : mens rea and actus
reus, mens rea in statutory
offences

Contract Negotiable Instruments Act,


1881

General Exceptions 1.
Crime Consent(S.87-93) 2. Consent
Compulsion (S.94) 3. Trifles
(S.95)
Crime

Offences against Property

Crime Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988

Contract

Sale of goods and hire purchase

Contract Arbitration and Conciliation


Act, 1996.
4.3 General Exceptions: 1.
Crime Infancy (Ss.82,83) 2. Insanity insanity
(S.84) 3. Drunkenness
(Ss.85,86)

Tort
Conspiracy
Tort

Tort
Negligence

Crime

Crime Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988

Tort
Consumer Protection Act

Contract
Sale of goods and hire purchase

Contract

Sale of goods and hire purchase

Tort

Contract Arbitration and Conciliation


Act, 1996.
Tort

Liability based upon fault and


Tort strict liability;
Absolute liability
Tort
Negligence
Tort
False imprisonment

Offences against human body –


PART I :
1. Culpable Homicide
2. Murder
3. Causing death by Negligence
Crime 4. Dowry Death

Contract
Sale of goods and hire purchase
Tort
Consumer Protection Act

Contract Negotiable Instruments Act,


1881
Tort
Consumer Protection Act

Contract Negotiable Instruments Act,


1881
Contract
Sale of goods and hire purchase

General Exceptions 1.
Crime Consent(S.87-93) 2. Consent
Compulsion (S.94) 3. Trifles
(S.95)

Tort
Negligence

Liability based upon fault and


Tort strict liability;
Absolute liability
Tort
Negligence

Tort
Nuisance

Major statutes concerning


CLD environmental law.

Contract
Contract Negotiable Instruments Act,
1881

Tort Vicarious liability including


State Liability

Contract

Contract

Tort
Consumer Protection Act
Contract Negotiable Instruments Act,
1881
Contract Negotiable Instruments Act,
1881

Tort

Conspiracy
Crime
Offences against Property

General Exceptions 1.
Crime Consent(S.87-93) 2. Consent
Compulsion (S.94) 3. Trifles
(S.95)

Crime Kinds of punishment and


emerging trends as to abolition
of capital punishment
Contract Negotiable Instruments Act,
1881

Contract

Tort
Consumer Protection Act

Tort
Nuisance
Tort
Malicious prosecution

Tort

Defamation

Crime

Contract
Sale of goods and hire purchase

Contract Negotiable Instruments Act,


1881

Contract

Tort
Consumer Protection Act

Tort
Conspiracy

General Exceptions 1.
Consent(S.87-93) 2. Consent
Compulsion (S.94) 3. Trifles
Crime (S.95)
Tort
Negligence

Crime

General principles of Criminal


liability : mens rea and actus
reus, mens rea in statutory
offences
Tort Vicarious liability including
State Liability

Protection of Civil Rights Act,


Crime 1955 and subsequent
legislative developments.

Contract
Sale of goods and hire purchase
Contract Negotiable Instruments Act,
1881

Tort

Consumer Protection Act

Crime

4.2 General Exceptions : Accident


Accident (S.80) and Neccessity
Crime (S.81)

Tort
Conspiracy

Crime

Offences against human body –


PART I :
1. Culpable Homicide
2. Murder
3. Causing death by Negligence
Crime 4. Dowry Death
Tort
Consumer Protection Act

Contract

Contract
Sale of goods and hire purchase

Contract Negotiable Instruments Act,


1881

General principles of Criminal


Crime liability : mens rea and actus
reus, mens rea in statutory
offences

General principles of Criminal


Crime liability : mens rea and actus
reus, mens rea in statutory
offences
Tort
Defamation

Tort
Consumer Protection Act

Crime

Contract Negotiable Instruments Act

Contract Negotiable Instruments Act,


1881
Contract Negotiable Instruments Act,
1881

Contract Negotiable Instruments Act,


1881

4.3 General Exceptions: 1.


Infancy (Ss.82,83) 2. Insanity insanity
(S.84) 3. Drunkenness
Crime (Ss.85,86)

General Exceptions 1.
Consent(S.87-93) 2. Consent
Compulsion (S.94) 3. Trifles
Crime (S.95)

Crime

Contract Negotiable Instruments Act,


1881
Contract
Sale of goods and hire purchase

Contract

Sale of goods and hire purchase


Tort
Consumer Protection Act

Crime

Theft
Crime Offences against Property
Crime

Crime innuendo
Plea bargaining

Tort
Nuisance

Tort
Defamation
Tort
Negligence

Crime Preparations and criminal


attempt ( together with 1.2)
Tort
Negligence

Offences against human body –


PART II :
Crime 1. Abetment of suicide Suicide
2. Attempt to murder, culpable
homicide,suicide.
3. Thug
4. Miscarriage

Offences against human body –


PART II :
1. Abetment of suicide
2. Attempt to murder, culpable
homicide,suicide.
3. Thug Suicide
Crime 4. Miscarriage Dowry

Contract Negotiable Instruments Act,


1881
Contract
Sale of goods and hire purchase

Contract

Sale of goods and hire purchase

Tort
Consumer Protection Act

Tort
Conspiracy

4.3 General Exceptions: 1.


Crime Infancy (Ss.82,83) 2. Insanity insanity
(S.84) 3. Drunkenness
(Ss.85,86)
Tort
Consumer Protection Act

Crime Sedetion
Offences against the State

Crime
Offences against human body –
PART I :
1. Culpable Homicide
2. Murder
3. Causing death by Negligence
Crime 4. Dowry Death

Contract

Contract

Contract

Contract
Sale of goods and hire purchase
Contract
Sale of goods and hire purchase

Crime

Contract
Negotiable Instruments Act,
1881
Major statutes concerning
CLD environmental law.

Contract
Sl no Year Paper I Paper II
1 2000 Yes yes
2 2001 Yes yes
3 2002 Yes yes
4 2003 Yes yes
5 2004 Yes yes
6 2005 Yes yes
7 2006 Yes yes
8 2007 Yes yes
9 2008 Yes yes
10 2009 Yes yes
11 2010 Yes yes
12 2011 Yes yes
13 2012 Yes yes
14 2013 Yes yes
15 2013 Yes yes
16 2014 Yes yes
17 2015 Yes yes
18 2016 Yes yes
19 2017 Yes yes
20 2018 Yes yes
21 1999 Yes yes
22 1998 Yes yes
23 1997 Yes yes
24 1996 Yes yes
25 1995 Yes yes
26 1994 Yes yes
27 1993 Yes yes
28 1992 Yes yes
29 1991 Yes yes
30 1990 Yes yes

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