ALLEN

Test Pattern
NEET(UG)
32 This Booklet contains 32 pages.
MAJOR
[
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
, /; <+
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
: Important Instructions :
1. = -1 -2 /; 1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1
and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. 3 , 180 2. The test is of 3 hours duration and this Test Booklet
4 , 4 contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4 marks.
For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks.
, , ; For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted
720 from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
3. , = 3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing
, particulars on this page/marking responses.
4. 4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this
purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5. ] 5. On completion of the test, the candidate must
hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator
= ; before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates
are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with
them.
6. = ,, 6. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet
; is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Form No. anywhere
= ;= else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/
Answer Sheet.
7. = 7. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on
the Answer Sheet.

]
In case of any ambiguity in translation of any question, English version shall be treated as final.

( ):
Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)
:
Form Number : in figures
:
: in words
( ):
Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :
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Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :
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LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE

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ALLEN MAJOR TEST DATE : 07 - 03 - 2020

SYLLABUS – 05

PHYSICS : Magnetic effect of current and Magnetism, Electromagnetic

Induction, Alternating current, EM Waves.

CHEMISTRY : p-block elements (group 13 to 18)

d & f-block elements
Coordination Compounds
Metallurgy

BIOLOGY : Genetics and Evolution : (i) Principles of inheritance and

Variation (ii) Molecular basis of inheritance

Biology in Human Welfare : (i) Microbes in Human Welfare

Biotechnology : (i) Biotechnology : Principles and Pro-

cesses

(ii) Biotechnology and its Applications (iii) DOP

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 ALLEN
1. A straight wire of length 2 metre is carrying a current 1. 2
} / 2A
of 2A and the magnetic field due to it is measured at a 1 cm ; {= ;
point distant 1 cm from it. If the wire is to be bent into ,
a circle and is to carry the same current as before, the ;{= ;{=
ratio of the magnetic field at its centre to that obtained
:-
in the first case would be approximatly :-
(1) 50 : 1 (2) 1 : 50 (3) 100 : 1 (4) 1 : 100 (1) 50 : 1 (2) 1 : 50 (3) 100 : 1 (4) 1 : 100
2. Two parallel conductors A and B of equal lengths carry 2. A B %I
currents I and 10 I, respectively, in the same direction. 10 I :-
Then :- (1) A B , -
(1) A and B will repel each other with same force (2) A B , -
(2) A and B will attract each other with same force (3) A, B ] B, A
(3) A will attract B, but B will repel A (4) A B , - -
(4) A and B will attract each other with different forces
3. A magnet of magnetic moment 50iˆ A m 2 is placed 3. ; 50iˆ A m 2 ]
along the x-axis in a magnetic field B (0.5iˆ 3.0 ˆj) T. ; { = B (0.5iˆ 3.0 ˆj) T x-
The torque acting on the magnet is :- :-
(1) 175 kˆ N m (2) 150 kˆ N m (1) 175 kˆ N m (2) 150 kˆ N m

(3) 75 kˆ N m (4) 25 37 kˆ N m (3) 75 kˆ N m (4) 25 37 kˆ N m

4. The energy stored in a 50 mH inductor carrying a 4. 50 4 /
current of 4 A will be :- &
(1) 0.4 J (2) 4.0 J (1) 0.4 (2) 4.0
(3) 0.8 J (4) 0.04 J (3) 0.8 (4) 0.04
5. An alternating voltage E 200 2 sin(100 t) is 5. E 200 2 sin(100 t) 1µF
connected to a 1 microfarad capacitor through an =
ac ammeter. The reading of the ammeter shall be: :-
(1) 10 mA (2) 20 mA (3) 40 mA (4) 80 mA (1) 10 mA (2) 20 mA (3) 40 mA (4) 80 mA
6. The magnetic induction in air at a point 1cm away from 6. 1A / 1
a long wire that carries a current of 1A, will be:- ; :-
–5 –5
(1) 1 × 10–5T (2) 2 × 10–5T (1) 1 × 10 T (2) 2 × 10 T
–5
(3) 3 × 10–5T (4) 4 × 10–5T (3) 3 × 10 T (4) 4 × 10–5T
7. The current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer 7. / /
can be decreased by :- :-
(1) Increasing the magnetic field of the permanent
(1) ; {= <+
magnet
(2) Increasing the area of the deflecting coil (2) { <+
(3) Increasing the number of turns in the coil (3) [; <+
(4) Increasing the torsional constant of spring (4) ; ,
provided for restoring couple. ,
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8. The vertical component of earth's magnetic field 8. ; {= ? ;
is zero at or The earth's magnetic field always has ;{=
a vertical component except at the :- ; {= ? :-
(1) Magnetic poles (2) Geographical poles (1) ;/ (2) /
(3) Every place (4) Magnetic equator (3) (4) ;
9. A solenoid of length l metre has self-inductance L 9. l L ;
henry. If number of turns are doubled, its self [;
inductance :- :-
(1) Remains same (2) Becomes 2L henry (1) (2) 2L
L L
(3) 4L Henry (4) Henry (3) 4L (4)
2 2
10. If the value of potential in an ac, circuit is 10V, then 10. , ac 10V
the peak value of potential is :- :-
10 20 10 20
(1) (2) 10 2 (3) 20 2 (4) (1) (2) 10 2 (3) 20 2 (4)
2 2 2 2
11. An –particle travels in a circular path of radius 11. - 1.2 2
; {= 0.45 m
0.45 m in a magnetic field B = 1.2 Wb/m2 with a ? ;
speed of 2.6 × 107 m/sec. The period of revolution 7
2.6 × 10 m/sec -
of the –particle is
(1) 1.1 × 10 –5 sec (2) 1.1 × 10–6 sec
(1) 1.1 × 10 –5 sec (2) 1.1 × 10–6 sec
(3) 1.1 × 10 –7 sec (4) 1.1 × 10–8 sec (3) 1.1 × 10 –7 sec (4) 1.1 × 10–8 sec
12. An arbitrary shaped closed coil is made of a wire 12. L
of length L and a current I ampere is flowing in I / ; ;
it. If the plane of the coil is perpendicular to = B :-
magnetic field B , the force on the coil is (1) ; (2) IBL
(1) Zero (2) IBL
1
1 (3) 2IBL (4) IBL
(3) 2IBL (4) IBL 2
2
13. At a certain place the angle of dip is 30° and the 13. 30°
horizontal component of earth's magnetic field is ;{= { ? 0.50
0.50 Oersted. The earth's total magnetic field is:- ; { = :-
1 1 1 1
(1) 3 (2) 1 (3) (4) (1) 3 (2) 1 (3) (4)
3 2 3 2
14. If a current of 10 A flows in one second through 14. ], 10 A /
a coil, and the induced e.m.f. is 10 V, then the , 10 V ]
self-inductance of the coil is :- :-
2 4 5 2 4 5
(1) H (2) H (3) H (4) 1H (1) H (2) H (3) H (4) 1H
5 5 4 5 5 4
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15. An inductor of inductance L and resistor of resistance 15. L, R
R are joined in series and connected by a source of ac ;;
frequency . Power dissipated in the circuit is :- :-
2
(R 2 2 2
L) V R (R 2 2 2
L) V 2R
(1) (2) (R 2 2 2
L)
(1) (2) (R 2 2 2
L)
V V

V R2 2 2
L V R2 2 2
L
(3) (R2 2 2
L)
(4) 2
(3) (R2 2 2
L)
(4) 2
V V
16. An electron is travelling horizontally towards east. A 16. {
magnetic field in vertically downward direction exerts , ; { =]
a force on the electron along &
(1) East (2) West (3) North (4) South (1) (2) (3) (4)
17. A circular coil of 20 turns and radius 10 cm is 17. 20 , 10 cm , ;
placed in uniform magnetic field of 0.10 T normal 0.10 ;{= ;
to the plane of the coil. If the current in coil is = ;
5 A, then the torque acting on the coil will be :- 5A :-
(1) 31.4 Nm (2) 3.14 Nm (1) 31.4 Nm (2) 3.14 Nm
(3) 0.314 Nm (4) Zero (3) 0.314 Nm (4) ;
18. The universal property of all substances is :- 18. :-
(1) Diamagnetism (2) Ferromagnetism (1) (2)
(3) Paramagnetism (4) All of these (3) (4)
19. An inductor, L a resistance R and two identical bulbs, 19. = , L, R
B1 and B2 are connected to a battery through a switch B1 B2 , } ,
S as shown in the figure. The resistance R is the same L ] R ;
as that of the coil that makes L. Which of the S ;
following statements gives the correct description of :-
the happenings when the switch S is closed :- L B1
L B1
R B2
R B2
B
S
B
S
(1) B2 B1 ,
(1) The bulb B2 lights up earlier than B1 and finally
, :
both the bulbs shine equally bright
(2) B1 light up earlier and finally both the bulbs (2) B1 , ,
acquire equal brightness
(3) B2 lights up earlier and finally B1 shines brighter (3) B2 , B1 , B2
than B2
(4) B 1 and B 2 light up together with equal
brightness all the time (4) B1 B2 , , :
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20. What is natural frequency of circuit ? (in rad/sec) 20. %& ( / )
2L 2L

2C 2C
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (1) (2)
LC 2 LC LC 2 LC
2 1 2 1
(3) (4) (3) (4)
LC 2LC LC 2LC
21. When a magnetic field is applied in a direction 21. ;{=
perpendicular to the direction of cathode rays, then :-
their :-
(1) ?
(1) Energy decreases
(2) Energy increases (2) <+
(3) Momentum increases
(3) <+
(4) Magnitude of momentum and energy remain
unchanged (4) ,
22. A wire of length L metre carrying a current of I ampere 22. L I / ,
is bent in the form of a circle. Its magnitude of + ;
magnetic moment will be :- :-
IL IL2 IL IL2
(1) 4
(2) (1) 4
(2)
4 4

I 2 L2 I 2L I 2 L2 I 2L
(3) (4) (3) (4)
4 4 4 4

23. A magnetic needle is placed on a cork floating in a 23. , > ,

still lake in the northern hemisphere. Does the needle ; ; ,
together with the cork move towards the north of the :-
lake :- (1)
(1) Yes
(2)
(2) No
(3) May be or may not be move (3)
(4) Nothing can be said (4)
24. A step up transformer has transformation ration 24. 5:3 ;
5 : 3. What is voltage in secondary if voltage in primary 60 V
is 60 V :-
(1) 20 V (2) 60 V (1) 20 V (2) 60 V
(3) 100 V (4) 180 V (3) 100 V (4) 180 V
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25. If A and B are identical bulbs which bulb glows 25. = A B
brighter :- :-
100 mH A 100 mH A

10 pF B 10 pF B

~ ~
100 V, 50 Hz 100 V, 50 Hz
(1) A (1) A
(2) B (2) B
(3) Both equally bright (3) :
(4) Cannot say (4)
26. An electron (mass = 9.1 × 10–31 kg; charge = 1.6×10–19C) 26. = 9.1 × 10–31 kg;
( = 1.6×10–19C)
experiences no deflection if subjected to an electric ]; 3.2 × 105 V/m ,
field of 3.2 × 105 V/m, and a magnetic fields of –3
{ = , 2.0 × 10 Wb/m 2
; {=
2.0 × 10–3 Wb/m2. Both the fields are normal to the ; {=
path of electron and to each other. If the electric field ? :-
is removed, then the electron will revolve in an orbit (1) 45 m
of radius :- (2) 4.5 m
(1) 45 m (2) 4.5 m (3) 0.45 m
(3) 0.45 m (4) 0.045 m (4) 0.045 m
27. Figure shows a straight wire of length l current i. The 27. = , ; ]
magnitude of magnetic field produced by the current i, l / P
at point P is :- ; {= :-

l l
P P
i i
l l

2 0i 0i 2 0i 0i 2 0i 0i 2 0i 0i
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
l 4 l 8 l 2 2 l l 4 l 8 l 2 2 l
2
28. In a coil of area 10 cm and 10 turns with a magnetic 28. 10 10
8
field directed perpendicular to the plane and is ; { = 10
changing at the rate of 10 8 gauss/second. The 20 /
resistance of the coil is 20 ohm. The current in the :-
coil will be :-
(1) 5 amp (2) 0.5 amp
(1) 5 amp (2) 0.5 amp
(3) 0.05 amp (4) 5 × 108 amp (3) 0.05 amp (4) 5 × 108 amp
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29. The output current versus time curve of a rectifier 29. , / , ; =
is shown in the figure. The average value of output , / :-
current in this case is :-

Current
Current

Time
Time
I 2I I0 2I0
(1) 0 (2) 20 (3) 0 (4) I0 (1) 0 (2) 2 (3) (4) I0

30. The wavelength of ultraviolet rays is of the order 30. , /; :-

of :- (1) 10–3 m (2) 10–6 m
(1) 10–3 m (2) 10–6 m
(3) 10–8 m (4) (2) (3)
(3) 10–8 m (4) between (2) and (3)
31. A circular coil of radius 4 cm and of 20 turns carries 31. 4 cm 20 3,
2
a current of 3 amperes. It is placed in a magnetic field / 0.5 weber/m ;
of intensity of 0.5 weber/m2. The magnetic dipole = ] ; }/
moment of the coil is :- :-
(1) 0.15 ampere – m2 (2) 0.3 ampere – m2 (1) 0.15 ampere – m2 (2) 0.3 ampere – m2
(3) 0.45 ampere – m2 (4) 0.6 ampere – m2 (3) 0.45 ampere – m2 (4) 0.6 ampere – m2
32. Points A and B are situated along the extended axis 32. 2 cm +
of 2 cm long bar magnet at a distance x and 2x cm x 2x A B
respectively. From the pole nearer to the points, the ; {= :-
(1) 4 : 1
ratio of the magnetic field at A and B will be :-
(2) 4 : 1
(1) 4 : 1 exactly (2) 4 : 1 approx. (3) 8 : 1
(3) 8 : 1 exactly (4) 8 : 1 approx. (4) 8 : 1
33. A conducting wire is moving towards right in a 33. ;{=B ,
magnetic field B. The direction of induced current in / = ;{=
the wire is shown in the figure. The direction of :-
magnetic field will be

B v
i
B v
i

(1)
(1) In the plane of paper pointing towards right
(2)
(2) In the plane of paper pointing towards left
(3) Perpendicular to the plane of paper and down wards (3)
(4) Perpendicular to the plane of paper and upwards (4)
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34. For a series RLC circuit R = X L = 2X C . The 34. LCR R = XL = 2XC
impedance of the circuit and phase difference V i /; :-
(between) V and i will be :-
5R 5R 1 1
5R 1 (1) , tan 1 (2) (2) , tan
5R 1
2 2 2
(1) , tan 1 (2) (2) , tan
2 2 2

1 (3) 5X C , tan 1 (2) (4) 1 1

(3) 5X C , tan 1 (2) (4) 5R, tan 1 5R, tan
2 2

35. In a apparatus, the electric field was found to 35. ; {= 18 V/m

oscillate with an amplitude of 18 V/m. The ;{= :-
magnitude of the oscillating magnetic field will be:- (1) 4 × 10–6 T (2) 6 × 10–8 T
(1) 4 × 10–6 T (2) 6 × 10–8 T
(3) 9 × 10–9 T (4) 11 × 10–11 T (3) 9 × 10–9 T (4) 11 × 10–11 T
36. Through two parallel wires A and B, 10 and 2 ampere 36. A B % 10 , 2 ,
of currents are passed respectively in opposite A B
direction. If the wire A is infinitely long and the length 2 ; B A 10 cm
of the wire B is 2 m, the force on the conductor B, B :-
which is situated at 10 cm distance from A will be :-
(1) 8 × 10–5 N (2) 4 × 10–7 N
(1) 8 × 10–5 N (2) 4 × 10–7 N
(3) 4 × 10–5 N (4) 4 × 10–7 N (3) 4 × 10–5 N (4) 4 × 10–7 N
37. Force between two unit pole strength placed at a 37. 1 , ;/
distance of one metre is :- /; :-
7 7
10 10
(1) 1 N (2) N (1) 1 N (2) N
4 4
(3) 10–7 N (4) 4 × 10–7 N (3) 10–7 N (4) 4 × 10–7 N
38. A long horizontal metallic rod with length along the 38. { / +
east-west direction is falling under gravity. The ]
potential difference between its two ends will :- /; :-
(1) Be zero (1) ;
(2) Be constant (2)
(3) Increase with time (3) ; <+
(4) Decrease with time (4) ; ?
39. In a LCR circuit the pd between the terminals of the 39. LCR ] 60 V
inductance is 60 V, between the terminals of the = 30V ,
capacitor is 30V and that between the terminals of 40V :-
resistance is 40V. the supply voltage will be equal (1) 50 V
to …… (2) 70 V
(1) 50 V (2) 70 V (3) 130 V
(3) 130 V (4) 10 V (4) 10 V
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40. An electromagnetic wave travels along +ve z-axis. 40. ; / z-
Which of the following pairs of space and time varying ;{= ; ?
fields would generate such a wave ?
(1) Ex, By (2) Ey, Bx
(1) Ex, By (2) Ey, Bx
(3) Ez, Bx (4) Ey, Bz (3) Ez, Bx (4) Ey, Bz
41. A moving coil galvanometer has N number of turns 41. / { A
in a coil of effective area A, it carries a current I. The [; N / I
magnetic field B is radial. The torque acting on the ;{=B= ;
coil is :- :-
(1) NA2B2I (2) NABI 2 (1) NA2B2I (2) NABI 2
(3) N2 ABI (4) NABI (3) N2 ABI (4) NABI
42. The intensity of magnetic field is H and moment of 42. ;{= H , ;
magnet is M. The maximum potential energy is:- M :-
(1) MH (2) 2 MH (1) MH (2) 2 MH
(3) 3 MH (4) 4 MH (3) 3 MH (4) 4 MH
43. In a transformer, the coefficient of mutual 43. ;
inductance between the primary and the secondary 0.2 /
coil is 0.2 henry. When the current changes by 5, ]
5 ampere/second in the primary, the induced
e.m.f. in the secondary will be :-
(1) 5 (2) 1
(1) 5 V (2) 1 V
(3) 25 V (4) 10 V (3) 25 (4) 10
44. For high frequency, a capacitor offers :- 44. , = :-
(1) More reactance (1)
(2) Less reactance (2)

(3) Zero reactance (3) ;

(4) Infinite reactance (4)

45. A coil of inductance 300 mH and resistance 45. 300 2 ,

2 is connected to a source of voltage 2V. The 2 , /
current reaches half of its steady value in :- :-

(1) 0.15 s (1) 0.15

(2) 0.3 s (2) 0.3

(3) 0.05 s (3) 0.05

(4) 0.1 s (4) 0.1

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46. Copper pyrites ore is concentrated by:- 46. :-
(1) Froth floatation (1)
(2) Electrolysis (2)
(3) Roasting (3)
(4) Magnetic separation (4) ;
47. In Fe(CO)5, the Fe–C bond possesses :- 47. Fe(CO)5, Fe–C :-
(1) ionic character (1)
(2) -character (2) -
(3) -character (3) -
(4) both and character (4)
48. K4[Fe(CN)6] reacts with FeCl3 to form :- 48. K4[Fe(CN)6], FeCl3 :-
(1) K3[Fe(CN)6] (2) K4[Fe(CN)3Cl3] (1) K3[Fe(CN)6] (2) K4[Fe(CN)3Cl3]
(3) K3[Fe(CN)5Cl] (4) K Fe[Fe(CN)6] (3) K3[Fe(CN)5Cl] (4) K Fe[Fe(CN)6]
49. Which of the following reaction is incorrectly 49. ?
written ? (1) P4 + 20HNO3 4H3PO4 + 20NO2 + 4H2O
(1) P4 + 20HNO3 4H3PO4 + 20NO2 + 4H2O
(2) I2 + 10HNO3 2HIO4 + 10NO2 + 4H2O
(2) I2 + 10HNO3 2HIO4 + 10NO2 + 4H2O
(3) S + 6HNO3 H2SO4 + 6NO2 + 4H2O (3) S + 6HNO3 H2SO4 + 6NO2 + 4H2O
(4) None of the above (4)
50. In which of the following compounds B–F bond length 50. ; B–F &
is shortest :- (1) BF4
(1) BF4
(2) F3B NH3
(2) F3B NH3
(3) BF3 (3) BF3
(4) equal in all compounds (4) ;
51. Autoreduction process is used in the extraction 51. " "
of:- :-
(1) Cu & Pb (2) Zn & Hg (1) Cu & Pb (2) Zn & Hg
(3) Cu & Al (4) Fe & Pb (3) Cu & Al (4) Fe & Pb
52. The most stable complex among the following is:- 52. :-
(1) K3[Al(C2O4)3] (2) [Pt(en)2 Cl2] (1) K3[Al(C2O4)3] (2) [Pt(en)2 Cl2]
(3) K2[Ni(EDTA)] (4) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl (3) K2[Ni(EDTA)] (4) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl
53. The number of geometrical isomers of 53. [Co(NH3)3 (NO3)3] ; [;
[Co(NH3)3 (NO3)3] :- :-
(1) 0 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 3 (1) 0 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 3
54. Which of the following halogen disproportionate in 54. ?
water ?
(1) F2 (2) Cl2
(1) F2 (2) Cl2
(3) I2 (4) All three (3) I2 (4)
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55. Which is correct statement. 55. &
+1 +3
(1) Compounds of Tl+1 are less ionic than Tl+3 (1) Tl ; Tl
but, have more stability
(2) Compounds of Tl+1 are more ionic than Tl+3 (2) Tl+1 ; Tl+3
but, have less stability
(3) Compounds of Tl+1 are more ionic than Tl+3 and (3) Tl+1 ; Tl+3
have more stability
(4) Compounds of Tl+1 are less ionic than Tl+3 but, (4) Tl+1 ; Tl+3
have less stability
56. Match the following :- 56. :-
I II I II
(A) Calcination a. 2Cu2S + 3O2 (A) a. 2Cu2S + 3O2
2Cu2O + 2SO2 2Cu2O + 2SO2
(B) Roasting b. Fe2O3 . nH2O (B) b. Fe2O3 . nH2O
Fe2 O3 + nH2 O Fe2 O3 + nH2 O
(C) Flux c. Cr2O3 + 2Al (C) c. Cr2O3 + 2Al
Al2O3 + 2Cr Al2O3 + 2Cr
(D) Thermite d. SiO2 + FeO FeSiO3 (D) Thermite d. SiO2 + FeO FeSiO3
A B C D A B C D
(1) a b c d (1) a b c d
(2) b a d c (2) b a d c
(3) d a b c (3) d a b c
(4) c a b d (4) c a b d
57. How many EDTA molecules are required to make 57. Ca+2 ; EDTA
an octahedral complex with a Ca+2 ion :- :-
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
58. The complex [Co(NH 3 ) 5 (CN)]Cl 2 and 58. [Co(NH3)5 (CN)]Cl 2 [Co(NH3)5(NC)]Cl2
[Co(NH3)5(NC)]Cl2 are the examples of :- :-
(1) Co-ordination isomerism (1)
(2) Ionisation isomerism (2)
(3) Geometrical isomerism (3)
(4) Linkage isomerism (4)
59. Which anion can undergo both oxidation and reduction? 59. ?
(1) Cr2O72– (2) NO3– (3) OCl– (4) S2– 2–
(1) Cr2O7 (2) NO3 –
(3) OCl –
(4) S 2–

60. Reactivity of borazole is greater than organic 60.

benzene beacuse :- &
(1) Borazole is non-polar compound (1) , ;;
(2) Borazole is polar bond containing compound (2) / ; ;
(3) Borazole is electron-deficient compound (3) ;
(4) Presence of delocalised e– (4)
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61. Which of the following is not a bidentate ligand :- 61. :-
(1) C2O4–2 (2) OH– (1) C2O4–2 (2) OH–
(3) dmg– (4) Glycinato (3) dmg– (4) Glycinato
62. The number of unpaired electrons in [Mn(H2O)6]+2 62. [Mn(H2O)6]+2 [; :-
will be :- (1) 4 (2) 3
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 2 (3) 5 (4) 2
63. Which is inner orbital complex :- 63. :-
(1) [Co(H2O)6]+3 (2) [RhF 6] –3 (1) [Co(H2O)6] +3
(2) [RhF 6] –3
(3) [IrF 6]–3 (4) All (3) [IrF 6]–3 (4)
64. Sodium thiosulphate, Na2S 2O3.5H2O is used in 64. Na2S2O3.5H2O
photography to :- :-
(1) Reduce the silver bromide to metalic silver (1) / Ag
(2) Convert the metallic silver to silver salt (2) Ag
(3) Remove undecomposed AgBr as soluble (3) AgBr
silver thiosulphate complex :
(4) Remove reduced silver (4)
65. Which of the following halides does not hydrolyse? 65.
(1) PbCl4 (2) SiCl4 (3) CCl4 (4) SnCl4 (1) PbCl4 (2) SiCl4 (3) CCl4 (4) SnCl4
66. What is the oxidation number of Fe in 66. Na 2[Fe(CN) 5 NO] Fe [; :-
Na2 [Fe(CN)5 NO] :- (1) ; (2) +1
(1) Zero (2) +1 (3) +2 (4) +3 (3) +2 (4) +3
67. Jahn Teller effect is observed is :- 67. :-
(1) d0 (2) d10 (3) d7 (4) d8 (1) d 0
(2) d 10
(3) d7 (4) d8
6
68. If 0 < P, the correct electronic configuration for 68. 0 < P, d ,
d6 system will be :- :-
(1) t 32 g eg3 4
(2) t 2g eg2
3
(1) t 2g eg3 (2) t 24 g eg2
5 2 5
(3) t 2 g eg1 (4) t 2g eg4 (3) t 2g eg 1
(4) t 22 g eg4
69. The ion of least magnetic moment (µ spin only ) 69. ; ;
among the following is :- :-
(1) Ti+3 (2) Ni+2 (3) Co+2 (4) Mn+2 (1) Ti+3 (2) Ni+2 (3) Co+2 (4) Mn+2
70. Which of the following is not correctly matched:- 70. :-

(1) ZnCO3 Zn Calcination followed by (1) ZnCO3 Zn , }

smelting
(2) Al(OH)3 Al Calcination followed by (2) Al(OH)3 Al ,
electrolytic reduction
(3) PbS Pb Partial roasting followed (3) PbS Pb , %
by self reduction }
(4) Cu2S Cu Roasting followed by
carbon reduction (4) Cu2S Cu , }

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71. The coordination number and oxidation number of 71. ; [X(SO 4 ) (NH 3 ) 4 (H 2 O)] X
X in compound [X(SO4) (NH3)4(H2O)]:- [; :-
(1) 6, 1 (2) 4, 2 (3) 6, 2 (4) 4, 1 (1) 6, 1 (2) 4, 2 (3) 6, 2 (4) 4, 1
–
72. HgCl2 and I2 both when dissolved in water containing 72. HgCl2 I2 I ; ?
I– ions the pair of species. formed is:- ; :-
(1) HgI2 , I– (2) Hg2I2 , I– (1) HgI2 , I–
(2) Hg2I2 , I–
(3) HgI4–2 , I3– (4) HgI2 , I3– (3) HgI4–2 , I3– (4) HgI2 , I3–
73. In the reaction, 2X + B2H6 [BH2(X)2]+ [BH4]– 73. 2X + B2H6 [BH2(X)2]+ [BH4]–, ,
, the amine(s) X is not X
(1) NH3 (2) CH3NH2 (1) NH3 (2) CH3NH2
(3) (CH3)2NH (4) (CH3)3N (3) (CH3)2NH (4) (CH3)3N
74. Consider the following transformation 74. :
Room temperature
2CuX 2 2CuX X 2 2CuX 2 Room temperature 2CuX X 2
–
Then X can be :- X– :-
(1) F–, Br– (2) Cl–, Br– –
(1) F , Br–
(2) Cl–, Br–
(3) CN–, I– (4) Cl–, F– (3) CN–, I– (4) Cl–, F–
75. In the extraction of copper from copper pyrites, iron 75. ] :
is removed as :
(1) FeSO4 (2) FeSiO3 (3) Fe3O 4 (4) Fe2O 3 (1) FeSO4 (2) FeSiO3 (3) Fe3O 4 (4) Fe2O 3
76. Which of the following is an anionic complex :- 76. :-
(1) Pentacarbonyliron (0) (1) Pentacarbonyliron (0)
(2) Fluoropentaaminecobalt (III) ion (2) Fluoropentaaminecobalt (III) ion
(3) Trioxalatoferrate (III) ion (3) Trioxalatoferrate (III) ion
(4) Dichlorodiammineplatinum (II) (4) Dichlorodiammineplatinum (II)
77. Which of the following can convert Cl– into Cl2 :- 77. Cl– Cl2 :-
(1) KMnO4 (2) H2SO3 (1) KMnO4 (2) H2SO3
(3) Fe2(SO4)3 (4) HI (3) Fe2(SO4)3 (4) HI
78. Which of the following is not correctly matched for 78. , :-
given reaction :- XeF6 H2 O
A H2 O
B H 2O
C
H2 O H2 O H 2O
XeF6 A B C (1) C, XeO3 ;
(1) C is XeO3 and pyramidal in shape
(2) B, XeOF2
(2) B is XeOF2
(3) A is XeOF4 and has sp3d2 hybridation (3) A, XeOF4 sp3d2
(4) A,B and C have same oxidation state of Xe (4) A,B C Xe
79. The oxoanion which contains all equivalent 79. M–O :-
M–O bond is :- (I) CrO 2
4
(II) MnO4 (III) Cr2 O2–
7

(I) CrO24 (II) MnO4 (III) Cr2 O2–7 (1) III (2) I, II, III
(1) III only (2) I, II, III
(3) I, II (4) I only (3) I, II (4) I
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80. In PO4 –3 the formal charge on oxygen atom and 80. PO4 –3
P—O bond order respectively are :- P—O % :-
(1) – 0.75, 1.0 (2) – 0.75, 1.25 (1) – 0.75, 1.0 (2) – 0.75, 1.25
(3) – 0.75, 0.6 (4) – 3, 1.25 (3) – 0.75, 0.6 (4) – 3, 1.25
81. Which of the following has least conductivity in 81. ; :-
aqueous solution :- (1) Co(NH3)4Cl3 (2) Co(NH3)3Cl3
(1) Co(NH3)4Cl3 (2) Co(NH3)3Cl3
(3) Co(NH3)5Cl3 (4) Co(NH3)6Cl3 (3) Co(NH3)5Cl3 (4) Co(NH3)6Cl3
82. CrO3 is red or orange in colour. The nature of oxide 82. CrO 3 ;
is :- :-
(1) Acidic (2) Basic (1) ; (2) ;
(3) Amphoteric (4) Neutral (3) ;/ (4)
83. When zinc reacts with very dilute HNO 3, the 83. Zn HNO3
oxidation state of nitrogen changes from :- :-
(1) +5 to +1 (2) +5 to –3 (1) +5 to +1 (2) +5 to –3
(3) +5 to +4 (4) +5 to +3 (3) +5 to +4 (4) +5 to +3
84. Which of the following gives chromyl chloride test:- 84. :-
(1) KCl (2) PbCl4 (1) KCl (2) PbCl4
(3) HgCl2 (4) All (3) HgCl2 (4)
85. Ozone can be tested by :- 85. :-
(1) Ag (2) Hg (3) Zn (4) Au (1) Ag (2) Hg (3) Zn (4) Au
86. Which of the following is not an organometallic 86. ; :-
compound :- (1) (C2H5)2Zn (2) Ni(CO)4
(1) (C2H5)2Zn (2) Ni(CO)4
(3) B(OCH3)3 (4) C2H5MgBr (3) B(OCH3)3 (4) C2H5MgBr
x
87. Cr2 O7–2
x
2CrO –2
4 , x and y are respectively :- 87. Cr2 O7–2 y
2CrO–2
4 , x y % :-
y

(1) H+, OH– (2) OH–, H+ (1) H+, OH– (2) OH–, H+
(3) H+, H+ (4) OH–, OH– (3) H+, H+ (4) OH–, OH–
88. Nitrogen gas is liberated by thermal decomposition 88. ;
of :- :-
(1) NH4NO 2 (2) NaN3 (1) NH4NO 2 (2) NaN3
(3) (NH4)2Cr2O7 (4) All (3) (NH4)2Cr2O7 (4)
89. Which is not monomer for a high molecular mass 89.
silicone polymer. , :-
(1) PhSiCl3 (2) MeSiCl3 (1) PhSiCl3 (2) MeSiCl3
(3) Me2SiCl2 (4) Me3SiCl (3) Me2SiCl2 (4) Me3SiCl
90. Which of the following can not be dehydrated by 90. H2SO4 ?
conc. H2 SO 4 ? (1) HCl (2) HF
(1) HCl (2) HF (3) H2 S (4) All (3) H2 S (4)
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91. If single gene can exhibit multiple phenotypic 91.
effect then such gene is called :- :-
(1) Multiple gene (2) Multiple allele (1) (2)
(3) Pleiotropic gene (4) Lethal gene (3) (4)
92. Which of following is not include in transcription unit:- 92. :-
(1) Promoter (2) Terminator (1) (2)
(3) Structural gene (4) Recon (3) (4)
93. The large holes in "Swiss cheese" are due to 93. " " CO2
production of large amount of CO2 by a bacterium
named as :- :-
(1) Streptococcus (1)
(2) Lactobacillus (2)
(3) Propioni bacterium sharmanii (3)
(4) Bacillus (4)
94. Select correct match :- 94. :-
(1) Himgiri - disease resistant variety of maize (1) -
(2) Atlas - 66 - High protein content variety of wheat (2) - 66 -
(3) Parbhani kranti - variety of rice (3) -
(4) Sonalika - Semidwarf variety of rice (4) -
95. If recombinant DNA is directly injected in to nucleus 95. DNA
of an animal cell then such process in known as :- :-
(1) Heat shock (2) Biolistics (1) (2)
(3) Microinjection (4) Electroporation (3) (4)
96. In gene therapy functional ADA gene is introduced 96. ADA
in to patient's lymphocyte by using :- :-
(1) retroviral vector (2) Agrobacterium vector (1) (2)
(3) microinjection (4) Gene gun (3) (4)
97. ABO blood groups in human beings are controlled by 97. ABO -I
the gene I. The gene I has three alleles IA, IB and IO. I I ,I
A B
I O

Since there are three different alleles, six different

genotypes are possible. ?
How many phenotypes can occur ? (1) (2)
(1) Six (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (3) (4)
98. The inheritance pattern of a gene over generations 98.
among humans is studied by the pedigree analysis.
Character studied in the pedigree analysis is :-
equivalent to :- (1) (2)
(1) Quantitative trait (2) Mendelian trait
(3) Polygenic trait (4) Maternal trait (3) (4)
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99. Select the option showing the correct sequential 99.
steps to produce a new genetic variety of a crop :- ?
(1) Selection of parents Hybridisation of selected
(1)  
parents Germplasm collection Selection of
 
superior recombination Testing and release of
New varieties.
(2) Germplasm collection Selection of parents  (2)  
Hybridisation of selected parents  Selection of  
superior recombination  Testing and release of
new varieties.
(3) Selection of superior recombinants germplasm (3)  
collection Hybridisation of selected parents  
selection of parents testing and release of new
varieties.
(4)  
(4) Germplasm collection selection of parents 
testing and release of new varieties selection  
of superior recombinants.
100. Read the following statements and select the correct 100. :-
option :- -1 LAB B12
Statement-1 Besides curdling of milk, LAB also
improve its nutritional quality by increasing vitamin
-2 LAB
B12.
Statement-2 LAB, when present in human stomach,
check disease causing microbes. (1) 1 2
(1) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct (2) 1 2
(2) Statement 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect
(3) 1 2
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct
(4) Both Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect (4) 1 2
101. Male heterogamy is not found in :- 101. :-
(1) Human (1)
(2) Drosophila (2)
(3) Grass hopper (3)
(4) Birds (4)
102. Which of following enzyme did not affect 102. ?
transformation ? (1) DNase, RNase
(1) DNase, RNase
(2) RNase, Proteases, DNase
(2) RNase, Proteases, DNase
(3) Protease, RNase, Lipase (3) Protease, RNase, Lipase

(4) DNase, Proteases (4) DNase, Proteases

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103. Different types of alcoholic drinks are obtained on 103.
the basis of :- :-
(1) raw material used for fermentation only (1)
(2) type of processing only (2)
(3) types of microbes only (3)
(4) both raw material and types of processing (4)
104. Source of single cell protein (SCP) is :- 104. (SCP) :-
(1) Spirulina (2) BGA (1) (2) BGA
(3) NPV (4) Bacillus thuringiensis (3) NPV (4)
105. Which enzyme is not used in case of isolation of 105. DNA
genetic material form plant cell ? ?
(1) Cellulase (2) Pectinase (1) (2)
(3) Ribonuclease (4) Chitinase (3) (4)
106. Which of the following is not a method of molecular 106. ?
diagnosis ? (1) PCR (2)
(1) PCR (2) Radioactive probe
(3) ELISA (4) Urine test (3) ELISA (4) Urine test
107. Human skin colour is controlled by several gene pairs. 107.
Let us assume here that there are just three gene pairs
on different chromosomes and that for each pair there
are two alleles. If a very dark skinned person marries
a very light skinned women what will be chance that
their offspring will have very dark skin :- :-
1 5 9 1 5 9
(1) 0 (2) (3) (4) (1) 0 (2) (3) (4)
4 8 64 4 8 64
108. What are those structures that appear as 'beads on 108.
string' in the chromosomes when viewed under ' ' :-
electron microscope :- (1) (2)
(1) Nucleosome (2) Nucleolus
(3) (4)
(3) Chromosome (4) Lysosome
109. Single cell protein can be obtained from :- 109. :-
(1) Bacteria (2) Algae (1) (2)
(3) Fungi (4) All of these (3) (4)
110. Monascus purpureus is a yeast, commercially used 110.
in the production of :- :-
(1) Citric acid (1)
(2) Ethanol (2)
(3) Blood cholesterol lowering statins
(3)
(4) Streptokinase for removing clots from blood
vessels. (4)
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111. Which of the following chromosomal disorder is 111.
not an example of trisomy ? ?
(1) Down's syndrome (1)
(2) Klinefelter's syndrome (2)
(3) Turner's syndrome (3)
(4) Jacob's syndrome (4)
112. Which one is correctly matched ? 112. ?
(1) m-RNA - brings amino acid and read the (1) m-RNA -
code
(2) r-RNA - play structural and calalytic role (2) r-RNA -
during translation
(3) tRNA - ribozyme during translation (3) tRNA -
(4) Soluble-RNA - Provides template for protein (4) -RNA -
synthesis
113. Find out incorrect match :- 113. :-
(1) Streptokinase - clot buster (1) -
(2) Cyclosporin-A - immuno suppressive agent (2) -A -
(3) Statin - Blood cholesterol lowering agent (3) -
(4) Citric acid - Lactobacillus (4) -
114. Virus free plants can be obtained through :- 114. :-
(1) Apical meristem only (1)
(2) Axillary meristem only (2)
(3) Embryo culture (3)
(4) Apical and axillary meristem (4)
115. Which of the following is not true for continuous 115. ?
culture system ? (1)
(1) used medium is drained out from one side and
fresh medium is added from other.
(2)
(2) cells are grow in most physiologically active log
phase
(3) This method produces low yield of desired (3)
product
(4)
(4) Bioreactor prodives such type of culture
116. Which transgenic animal milk produced human 116.
protein enriched milk ? :-
(1) Rosie - cow (1) -
(2) Molly - sheep (2) -
(3) Polly - sheep (3)
(4) Tracy - sheep (4) -
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117. When one gene hides the effect of another gene, 117.
the phenomenon is called :- :-
(1) Complementary gene action (1)
(2) Supplementary gene action (2)
(3) Duplicate gene action (3)
(4) Epistasis (4)
118. Mode of DNA replication in E.coli is :- 118. DNA :-
(1) Conservative and unidirectional (1)
(2) Semiconservative and unidirectional (2)
(3) Conservative and bidirectional (3)
(4) Semiconservative and bidirectional (4)
119. Somaclones are :- 119. :-
(1) Somatic hybrids (1)
(2) Genetically identical to the original plants (2)
(3) Used to recover disease free plants (3)
(4) Sterile plants (4)
120. Given figure represents a typical biogas plant. React 120.
the correct option for A, B and C respectively :- A, B C :-

B B

A C A C
(CH4+CO2+ ----) (CH4+CO2+ ----)

Digester Digester

(1) A is the inlet for cattle dung. (1) A

(2) C is the outlet for the releasae of biogas (2) C
(3) B is the chamber which contains left over slurry. (3) B
(4) All of these (4)
121. Hardy-Weinberg principle is applicable when :- 121. :-
(1) Population is large (1)
(2) Non random mating is present (2)
(3) Population in unequilibrium condition (3)
(4) Genetic drift is present (4)
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122. Genetic code is :- 122. :-
(1) Degenerate, universal, unambiguous (1)
(2) Degenerate, nonuniversal, ambiguous (2) ,
(3) Tetraplate, ambiguous, overlapping (3) , ,
(4) Non degenerate, overlapping (4) ,
123. Biogas is a mixture of different gases containing 123.
predominantly :- :-
(1) Methane (2) Nitrogen (1) (2)
(3) Carbon dioxide (4) H2S (3) (4) H2S
124. The process by which nutritional quality of food crops 124.
is improved through plant breeding or modern
biotechnology :- :-
(1) Bioremediation (1)
(2) Biopiracy (2)
(3) Biofortification (3)
(4) Biomagnification (4)
125. The process through which a piece of DNA is 125. DNA
introduced in a host bacterium is known as :- :-
(1) Transfection (2) Transduction (1) (2)
(3) Transformation (4) Transamination (3) (4)
126. The use of bio resources by multinational companies 126.
and other organisation without proper authorisation
from the countries and people concerned without :-
compensatory payment is known as :- (1) (2)
(1) Biopiracy (2) Biopatent
(3) Biowepon (4) Biofortification (3) (4)
127. All genes located on the same chromosome :- 127. :-
(1) form different groups depending upon their relative (1)
distance. (2)
(2) form one linkage group (3)
(3) will not form any linkage group (4)
(4) form interactive groups that affect the phenotype
128. Chemically, RNA is _(i)_ reactive and _(ii)_ stable 128. , RNA _(i)_ DNA
as compared to DNA :- _(ii)_ :-
(1) (i) equally (ii) equally (1) (i) (ii)
(2) (i) less (ii) more (2) (i) (ii)
(3) (i) more (ii) less (3) (i) (ii)
(4) (i) more (ii) equally (4) (i) (ii)
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129. An explant is :- 129. :-
(1) Dead plant (1)
(2) Part of the plant (2)
(3) Part of the plant used in tissue culture (3)
(4) Part of the plant that expresses a specific gene. (4)
130. Figure represents the maturation of pro-insulin 130.
into insulin. Identify the product A :- A :-

A A

(1) Polypeptide chain A (1) A

(2) Polypeptide chain B (2) B
(3) Polypeptide chain C (3) C
(4) Mature insulin (4)
131. Chromosomal aberration are commonly observed 131. :-
in :- (1) (2)
(1) Cancer cells (2) Meristematic cells
(3) (4)
(3) Bone cell (4) Gland cell
132. The sequence of RNA that is flanked by start codon 132. RNA (AUG)
(AUG) and stop codon and codes for polypeptide is
known as :- :-
(1) Transcription unit (2) Translation unit (1) (2)
(3) Replication unit (4) Operon (3) (4)
133. Which of the following microbes is not used as a 133.
biocontrol agent ? ?
(1) Trichoderma (1)
(2) Baculovirus (2)
(3) Bacillus thuringiensis (3)
(4) Saccharomyces (4)
134. In EcoRI, the letter 'R' is derived from the name 134. EcoRI 'R' :-
of :- (1)
(1) Genus of bacteria (2)
(2) Species of bacteria
(3) RY-13
(3) RY-13 strain of E.coli
(4) K-12 strain of E.coli (4) K-12
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135. The protein encoded by genes cry IAc and 135. cry IAc cry IIAb
cry IIAb control :- :-
(1) corn borer (2) cotton bollworm (1) (2)
(3) nematode (4) bacteria (3) (4)
136. GEAC stand for :- 136. GEAC :-
(1) Genetic engineering approval committee (1) Genetic engineering approval committee
(2) Genomic editing approval committee (2) Genomic editing approval committee
(3) Genomic engineering accepting committee (3) Genomic engineering accepting committee
(4) Golden ege appointment committee (4) Golden ege appointment committee
137. If a colourblind woman marries a normal visioned man 137.
their sons will be :- :-
(1) Three fourth colourblind and one fourth normal (1)
(2) All colourbind (2)
(3) All normal visioned (3)
(4) One half colourblind and one half normal (4)
138. To prove that DNA is the genetic material which 138. DNA
radioactive isotope were used by Hershey and Chase (1952)
(1952) in their experiments ? (isotopes) ?
(1) 35S and 15N (2) 32P and 35S (1) S
35 15
N (2) 32P 35
S
(3) 32P and 15N (4) 14N and 15N (3) P
32 15
N (4) N
14 15
N
139. The term 'Recombinant DNA' refers to :- 139. ' DNA' :-
(1) DNA of the host cell (1) DNA
(2) DNA with a piece of foreign DNA (2) DNA DNA
(3) DNA with selectable marker (3) DNA
(4) DNA with more than one recognition sites (4) DNA
140. Early detection of a disease is possibly by :- 140. :-
(1) PCR (1) PCR
(2) Gene therapy (2)
(3) Recombinant DNA technology and ELISA (3) DNA ELISA
(4) Both (1) & (3) (4) (1) (3)
141. Sickle cell anaemia is a classical example of :- 141. :-
(1) Aneuploidy (2) Polyploidy (1) (2)
(3) Point mutation (4) Trisomy (3) (4)
142. A polycistronic structural gene is regulated by a 142.
common promoter and regulatory genes. Such ......
arrangement is very common in ....... and is referred ....... :-
to as ....... :- (1) , (2) ,
(1) Bacteria, Operon (2) Virus, Recon
(3) Plant, Replicon (4) Bacteria, Cistron (3) , (4) ,
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143. Which of the following microbes is not used as a 143.
biofertilizer ? ?
(1) Glomus (2) Anabaena (1) (2)
(3) Rhizobium (4) Bacillus thuringiensis (3) (4)
144. Which of the following is true for restriction 144. ?
endonuclease ?
(1) DNA
(1) It recognises a sepecific non palindromic
sequence in DNA
(2) Naturally found in plants (2)
(3) Restricting the growth of bacteriophage in (3)
bacteria.
(4) DNA
(4) Same restriction enzyme produces different sticky
end in DNA
145. Insect resistant transgenic crop is :- 145. :-
(1) Golden rice (2) Bt-Brinjal (1) (2) Bt-
(3) Flavr savr tomato (4) Sonalika (3) (4)
146. In his classical experiments on pea plant, Mendel did 146. ?
not use :- (1) (2)
(1) Flower position (2) Arrangement of flower
(3) (4)
(3) Seed colour (4) Seed shape
147. Experimental verification of 'chromosomal theory of 147.
inheritance' was done by :- :-
(1) Sutton and Boveri (1)
(2) Morgan (2)
(3) Henking (3)
(4) Karl Correns (4)
148. During transcription, the site of DNA molecule at 148. DNA RNA
which RNA polymerase binds is called :- :-
(1) Promoter (1)
(2) Regulator (2)
(3) Receptor (3)
(4) Enhancer (4)
149. Which of the following technique is not used to 149. DNA
transfer recombinant DNA into host cell ? ?
(1) Microinjection (1)
(2) Gene-gun (2)
(3) Bioreactors (3)
(4) Disarmed pathogen vector (4)
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150. A human protein which is being obtained from 150.
transgenic animals and is used to treat emphysema is:- :-
(1) Alpha lactalbumin (1)
(2) Thyroxine (2)
(3) -1 antitrypsin (3) -1
(4) insulin (4)
151. Deoxycytidine is a :- 151. :-
(1) Nucleotide of RNA (1) RNA
(2) Nucleoside of RNA (2) RNA
(3) Nucleoside of DNA (3) DNA
(4) Nucleotide of DNA (4) DNA
152. The technique of DNA finger printing was initially 152. DNA
developed by :- :-
(1) Alec Jeffreys (2) Morgan (1) (2)
(3) R.C. punnett (4) Strutevent (3) R.C. (4)
153. Find out correct statement :- 153. :-
(1) "Toddy" is a fermented sap from grapes (1) " "
(2) LAB improves nutritional quality of curd by (2) LAB -A
increasing vit-A
(3) Statins produced by the yeast monascus purpureus (3)
(4) Baculovirus belongs to genus BGA (4) BGA
154. In cloning vector pBR 322 , tet R gene contains 154. pBR322 tetR gene
restriction site for which restriction enzyme :- :-
(1) Pvu – I, Pst I (1) Pvu – I, Pst I
(2) Pvu – II, BamH I (2) Pvu – II, BamH I
(3) Cla-I, EcoR I (3) Cla-I, EcoR I
(4) BamHI, Sal-I (4) BamHI, Sal-I
155. Nematode resistant transgenic tobacco plant was 155.
developed through :- ?
(1) RNA interference (2) Mutation (1) RNA (2)
(3) Hybridization (4) Selection (3) (4)
156. The contrasting traits show blending at which 156.
generation ? ?
(1) Parental generation (1)
(2) F1 generation (2) F1
(3) F2 generation (3) F2
(4) Never show any blending (4)
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157. Inheritance of which of the following traits is 157.
shown in the given cross ? ?
XY × XXC
XY × XXC
(lkekU; uj) (okgd L=h)
(Normal man) (Carrier woman)
XX XX XY XY
C C

XX C
XX XY XYC
(okgd (lkekU; (lkekU; (jksxh
(carrier (Normal (Normal (Diseased iq=h) iq=h) iq=) iq=)
daughter) daughter) son) son)
(1) X-
(1) X-linked dominant trait
(2) X-
(2) X-linked recessive trait
(3)
(3) Autosomal recessive trait
(4) Autosomal dominant trait (4)
158. In transcription in eukaryotes, heterogenous nuclear 158. RNA
RNA (hnRNA) is transcribed by :- (hnRNA) :-
(1) RNA polymerase I (2) RNA polymerase II (1) RNA I (2) RNA II
(3) RNA polymerase III (4) Both (1) and (2) (3) RNA III (4) (1) (2)
159. Identify the palindromic sequence in the following:- 159. :-
GAATTC GAATTC
(1) (1)
CTTUUG CTTUUG
GGATCC GGATCC
(2) (2)
CCTAGG CCTAGG
CCTGG CCTGG
(3) (3)
GGACC GGACC
CGATA CGATA
(4) (4)
GCTAA GCTAA
160. The organisation which makes decisions regarding 160. GM
the validity of GM research and the sefety of GM :-
introducing GM-organism to public services is :- (1)
(1) Genetic engineering approval committee
(2)
(2) Genome environment action committee
(3)
(3) Genetic environment approval committee
(4) Genetic and ethical issue action committee. (4)
161. A typical nucleosome contains :- 161. :-
(1) 200 bp of DNA helix (1) DNA 200
(2) 200 bases of DNA helix (2) DNA 200
(3) 200 bp of RNA (3) RNA 200 bp
(4) 200 bases of RNA (4) RNA 200
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162. The complete sequence of chromosome 1 was 162. 1
completed in :- ?
(1) May 2006 (1) May 2006
(2) January 2006 (2) January 2006
(3) May 2003 (3) May 2003
(4) May 2008 (4) May 2008
163. The conventional method of breeding for disease 163.
resistance is that of :- :-
(1) Hybridization (1)
(2) Mutation (2)
(3) Polyploidy (3)
(4) Hybridisation & selection (4)
164. For the transformation of plant Agrobacterium 164.
deliver :- :-
(1) Whole Ti–Plasmid (1) T i–
(2) Only T-DNA of Ti-plasmid (2) Ti T-DNA
(3) Only Vir-region of Ti-plasmid (3) Ti Vir-
(4) Only Ori-point of Ti-plasmid (4) Ti plasmid Ori-point
165. Inactive Bt toxin converted in to active Bt-toxin 165. Bt Bt-
due to :- :-
(1) Acidic pH of gut of insect (1) pH
(2) Alkaline pH of gut insect (2) pH
(3) Neutral pH of gut insect (3) pH
(4) Always occur in inactive form in insect (4)
166. In which of the following inheritance the effect of 166.
each allele is additive :- :-
(1) Mendelian inheritance (1)
(2) Cytoplasmic inheritance (2)
(3) Polygenic inheritance (3)
(4) Multiple allele (4)
167. Turner's syndrome in human is caused by :- 167. :-
(1) Autosomal aneuploidy (1)
(2) Sex chromosme aneuploidy (2)
(3) Polyploidy (3)
(4) Point mutation (4)
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168. Match Column-I with column-II and select the 168. -I -II
correct option from the given codes :- :-

Column-I Column-II -I -II

(codons) (Translated ( ) (
Amino acid) )

A UUU i Methionine A UUU i

B GGG ii Proline B GGG ii

C CCC iii Phenyl alanine C CCC iii

D AUG iv Glycine D AUG iv

(1) A (iii) B (iv) C (ii) D (i) (1) A (iii) B (iv) C (ii) D (i)
(2) A (iv) B (iii) C (i) D (ii) (2) A (iv) B (iii) C (i) D (ii)
(3) A (ii) B (i) C (iv) D (iii) (3) A (ii) B (i) C (iv) D (iii)
(4) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv) (4) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
169. The sticky ends of a fragmented DNA molecule are 169. DNA :-
made of :-
(1) (2)
(1) Calcium salts (2) Endonuclease enzyme
(3) Unpaired bases (4) Methyl group (3) (4)
170. Which Column-I with Column-II and select the 170. -I -II
correct option from the given codes :- :-

Column-I Column-II -I -II

A Biopiracy i Effort to fix the A i
non functional gene
B Biopatent ii Gene silencing B ii

C Gene iii Illegal use of C iii

therapy biological resources
D RNAi iv Right granted for
biological entities D RNAi iv

(1) A(iv) B(ii) C(i) D(iii)

(1) A(iv) B(ii) C(i) D(iii)
(2) A(ii) B(iv) C(i) D(iii)
(2) A(ii) B(iv) C(i) D(iii)
(3) A(iii) B(iv) C(i) D(ii)
(3) A(iii) B(iv) C(i) D(ii)
(4) A(iii) B(iv) C(ii) D(i) (4) A(iii) B(iv) C(ii) D(i)
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171. At the time of DNA replication template with 171. DNA 5'3',
polarity 5' 3', new strand synthesised :- :-
(1) Continuously (1)
(2) Discontinuously (2)
(3) Both continuously and discontinuously (3)
(4) Without the help of RNA primer (4) RNA
172. Most commonly used cloning vector in HGP :- 172. HGP :-
(1) BAC, YAC (2) Retrovirus (1) BAC, YAC (2)
(3) Agrobacterium (4) PBR322 (3) (4) PBR322
173. Which is true for Mung bean variety ? 173. ?
(1) Resistant to yellow mosaic virus (1)
(2) Developed through hybridization (2)
(3) Resistance to salinity (3)
(4) Resistance to insect pest (4)
174. Insertional inactivation of -galactosidase enzyme 174.
coding gene is helps in selection of :- :-
(1) Transformant (2) Only recombinant (1) (2)
(3) Non transformant (4) Non recombinant (3) (4)
175. Which of the following peptide chain is not present 175.
in mature insulin ? ?
(1) A-peptide (2) B-peptide (1) A-peptide (2) B-peptide
(3) C-peptide (4) A & C-peptide (3) C-peptide (4) A & C-peptide
176. Among the seven pairs of contrasting traits in 176.
pea plant as studied by Mendel, the number or
traits related to flower, pod and seed :-
respectively were :-
(1) 2,2,2 (2) 2,2,1 (3) 1,2,2 (4) 1,1,2
(1) 2,2,2 (2) 2,2,1 (3) 1,2,2 (4) 1,1,2
177. Match column-I with column-II and find the 177. -I II :-
correct answer :-
-I -II
Column-I Column-II A i 2n-1
A Monoploidy i 2n-1 B ii 2n-2
B Monosomy ii 2n-2
C iii x
C Nullisomy iii x D iv 2n+1
D Trisomy iv 2n+1
(1) A (iv) B (iii) C (ii) D (i)
(1) A (iv) B (iii) C (ii) D (i)
(2) A (iii) B (i) C (ii) D (iv)
(2) A (iii) B (i) C (ii) D (iv)
(3) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(3) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(4) A (iii) B (iv) C (i) D (ii) (4) A (iii) B (iv) C (i) D (ii)
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178. Refer to the given mRNA segment :- 178. mRNA :-
A B A B
CGUG UUUUUGU GAGA CGUG UUUUUGU GAGA
5' 3' 5' 3'
It can be translated completely into a polypeptide.
Which of the following codons may correspond A B
with A and B ? ?
(1) A-AUG, B-UAA, UAG or UGA (1) A-AUG, B-UAA, UAG or UGA
(2) A-UAA, B-AUG, GUG or UAG (2) A-UAA, B-AUG, GUG or UAG
(3) A-AUG, B-GUG, UAA or UGA (3) A-AUG, B-GUG, UAA or UGA
(4) A-AUG, B-UAA, UUU or UGA (4) A-AUG, B-UAA, UUU or UGA
179. Correct sequence of making a cell competent is :- 179. (competent ) :-
(1) Treatment with divalent cations  incubation (1) 
of cell with recombinant DNA on ice  heat DNA 42° C
shock (42°C)  placing on ice. 
(2) Heat shock (42°C) incubation of cells with (2) 42°C 
recombinant DNA on ice  Treatment with DNA 
divalent cations  placing on ice. 
(3) Treatment with divalent cations Placing on (3) 
ice  incubation or cells with recombinant  DNA
DNA on ice
(4) Incubation of cells with recombinant DNA on (4) DNA
ice  heat shock (42°C)  treatment with 42°C 
divalent cations  placing on ice. 
180. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the 180. -I -II
correct answer from the given codes :- :-

Column-I Column-II -I -II

A Recombinant i Chilled ethanol A DNA i
DNA
technology
B DNA ii DNA
B Precipitation of ii DNA staining
DNA
C iii
C Transposons iii Jumping genes
D Ethidium iv Genetic D iv
bromide engineering

(1) A-(iv) B-(i) C-(iii) D-(ii) (1) A-(iv) B-(i) C-(iii) D-(ii)
(2) A-(i) B-(iii) C-(ii) D-(iv) (2) A-(i) B-(iii) C-(ii) D-(iv)
(3) A-(ii) B-(i) C-(iii) D-(iv) (3) A-(ii) B-(i) C-(iii) D-(iv)
(4) A-(iv) B-(ii) C-(i) D-(iii) (4) A-(iv) B-(ii) C-(i) D-(iii)
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 ALLEN

Read carefully the following instructions : :

1. Each candidate must show on demand his/her 1.
Allen ID Card to the Invigilator.
2. No candidate, without special permission of 2.
the Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
3. The candidates should not leave the 3.
Examination Hall without handing over their
Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty.
4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is 4.
prohibited.
5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and 5.
Regulations of the examination with regard to
their conduct in the Examination Hall. All
cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per
Rules and Regulations of this examination.
6. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet 6.
shall be detached under any circumstances.
7. The candidates will write the Correct Name 7.
and Form No. in the Test Booklet/Answer
Sheet.

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in within 2 days
along with Paper code and Your Form No.

Correction Paper code Form No. 2

dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in mail
Corporate Office :  CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
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