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CONTENTS
l Mock Test – 1 Physics....................................................................................................................................1-18
l Mock Test – 2 Physics..................................................................................................................................19-32
l Mock Test – 3 Physics..................................................................................................................................33-44
l Mock Test – 4 Physics..................................................................................................................................45-58
l Mock Test – 5 Physics..................................................................................................................................59-72
l Mock Test – 1 Chemistry.............................................................................................................................73-91
l Mock Test – 2 Chemistry...........................................................................................................................92-102
l Mock Test – 3 Chemistry.........................................................................................................................103-113
l Mock Test – 4 Chemistry.........................................................................................................................114-124
l Mock Test – 5 Chemistry.........................................................................................................................125-134
l Mock Test – 1 Mathematics.....................................................................................................................135-154
l Mock Test – 2 Mathematics.....................................................................................................................155-168
l Mock Test – 3 Mathematics.....................................................................................................................169-182
l Mock Test – 4 Mathematics.....................................................................................................................183-196
l Mock Test – 5 Mathematics.....................................................................................................................197-212
Mock Test-1
Test Booklet Code
1
Important Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is strictly
prohibited.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer
Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of, Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 25
questions in each part of equal weightage.
6. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct response. For MCQs - 4 Marks will be awarded for every correct
answer and 1 Mark will be deducted for every incorrect answer.
7. For answer with numeric value - 4 Marks will be awarded for every correct answer and 0 Mark will be deducted for every
incorrect answer.
8. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/ marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer Sheet.
Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
9. No candidates is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.
10. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given at the
bottom of each page and at the end of the booklet.
11. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room / Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
12. The CODE for this Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet and also tally the serial
number of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet are the same as that on this booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate
should immediately report the matter to the invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
13. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
SECTION 1 (Multiple Choice Question) following shows the relative nature of the liquid columns
in the two tubes?
1. If a particle moves from point P (2,3,5) to point Q (3,4,5).
A B A B
Its displacement vector be:
a. b.
a. iˆ + ˆj + 10 kˆ b. iˆ + ˆj + 5kˆ
c. ˆi + ˆj d. 2iˆ + 4 ˆj + 6kˆ A B A B
c. d.
2. Long horizontal rod has a bead which can slide along its
length and is initially placed at a distance L from one end
A of the rod. The rod is set in angular motion about A with 7. Two rods of different materials having coefficients of
a constant angular acceleration α. If the coefficient of linear expansion α1 , α 2 and Young’s
friction between the rod and bead is µ, and gravity is moduli Y1 , Y2 respectively are fixed between two rigid
neglected, then the time after which the bead starts massive walls. The rods are heated such that they undergo
slipping is: the same increase in temperature. There is no bending of
µ µ the rods. If α1 : α 2 = 2 : 3, the thermal stresses developed
a. α b. α in the two rods are equal provided Y1 : Y2 is equal to:
1 a. 2 : 3 b. 1 : 1
c. µα d. infinitesimal c. 3 : 2 d. 4 : 9
3. A wind-powered generator converts wind energy into 8. Three liquids of equal volumes are thoroughly mixed. If
electric energy. Assume that the generator converts a their specific heats are s1 , s2 , s3 and their temperature
fixed fraction of the wind energy intercepted by its blades θ1 , θ 2 ,θ3 and their densities d1 , d 2 , d 3 respectively then
into electrical energy. For wind speed v, the electrical
the final temperature of the mixture is:
power output will be proportional to
a. v b. v2 s1 θ1 + s2 θ 2 + s3 θ3 d1 s1 θ1 + d2 s2 θ2 + d3 s3 θ3
a. b.
c. v 3
d. v4 d1 s1 + d 2 s2 + d3 s3 d1 s1 + d2 s2 + d3 s3
Wien constant, b = 2.88 × 106 nm-K. Then, 16. Double slit interference experiment is carried out with
monochromatic light and interference fringes are observed. If
a. U1 = 0 b. U 3 = 0
now monochromatic light is replaced by white light, what
c. U1 > U 2 d. U 2 > U1
change is expected in interference pattern?
12. In moving from A to B along an electric field line, the a. no change
electric field does 6.4 × 10−19J of work on an electron. If b. pattern disappears
φ1 , φ2 are equipotential surfaces, then the potential difference c. white and dark fringes are observed throughout the
pattern
(VC − VA ) is
d. a few coloured fringes are observed on either side of
a. – 4V b. 4V
central white fringe
c. Zero d. 64 V
17. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave in free space
13. Force acting on a charged particle kept between the plates
of a charged condenser is F. If one of the plates of the is given by E = 10 cos (107 t + kx ) ˆj V/m, Where, t and x are
condenser is removed, the force acting on the same in seconds and metres respectively. It can be inferred that
particle becomes: (a) the wavelength λ is 188.4 m
F (b) the wave number k is 0.33 rad/m
a. 0 b.
2 (c) the wave amplitude is 10 V/m
c. F d. 2F (d) the wave is propagating along + x direction
Which one of the following pairs of statements is correct?
14. An electric cable of copper has just one wire of radius
a. (c) and (d) b. (a) and (b)
9 mm. Its resistance is 50 Ω. This single copper wire of
c. (b) and (c) d. (a) and (c)
cable is replaced by 6 different well insulated copper
wires, each of radius 3 mm. The total resistance of the 18. Light of wavelength λ strikes a photosensitive surface
cable will now be equal to: and electrons are ejected with kinetic energy E. If the
a. 7.5 Ω b. 45 Ω kinetic energy is to be increased to 2E, the wavelength
c. 90 Ω d. 270 Ω must be changed to λ ′ where:
15. An infinitely long conductor PQR is bent to form a right λ
a. λ ′ = b. λ ′ = 2λ
angle as shown. A current I flows through PQR. The 2
magnetic field due to this current at the point M is H1. λ
c. < λ′< λ d. λ ′ = λ
Now another infinitely long straight conductor QS is 2
connected at Q so that the current is I/2 in QR as well as in
19. The ionisation potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 V. The
QS, The current in PQ remaining unchanged. The
energy required to remove an electron in the n = 2 state of
magnetic field at M is now H 2. .The ratio H1 / H 2 is given
the hydrogen atom is
by
a. 27.2 eV b. 13.6 eV
M
c. 6.8 eV d. 3.4 eV
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 24) acting on the conductor, then the correct statement(s)
MCQs with one or more than one correct answer is(are)
y
1. A transparent thin film of uniform thickness and refractive R R
index n1 = 1.4 is coated on the convex spherical surface of π/6 π/4
radius R at one end of a long solid glass cylinder of L R R L x
refractive index n2 = 1.5, as shown in the figure. Rays of
a. If B is along zˆ, F ∝ ( L + R)
light parallel to the axis of the cylinder traversing through
the film from air to glass get focused at distance f1 from b. If B is along xˆ, F = 0
the film, while rays of light traversing from glass to air get c. If B is along yˆ , F ∝ ( L + R)
focused at distance f 2 from the film. Then
d. If B is along zˆ, F = 0
n1
3. Planck’s constant h, speed of light c and gravitational
Air n2
constant G are used to form a unit of length L and a unit of
mass M. Then the correct option(s) is(are)
a. M ∝ c b. M ∝ G
a. | f1 | = 3R b. | f1 | = 2.8 R c. L ∝ h d. L ∝ G
c. | f 2 | = 2 R d. | f 2 | = 1.4 R 4. Two independent harmonic oscillators of equal mass are
2. A conductor (shown in the figure) carrying constant oscillating about the origin with angular frequencies ω1
current I is kept in the x-y plane in a uniform magnetic and ω2 and have total energies E1 and E2 , respectively.
field B. If F is the magnitude of the total magnetic force The variations of their momenta p with positions x are
Mock Test-1 7
a a SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 24)
shown in the figures. If = n 2 and = n, then the correct
b R Numerical value answer type questions
equation(s) is(are)
P P 7. A small filament is at the centre of a hollow glass sphere
Energy = E1 Energy = E2
of inner and outer radii 8 cm and 9 cm respectively. The
b refractive index of glass is 1.50. Calculate the position of
x x
a R the image of the filament when viewed from outside the
sphere.
OA = 8 cm
ω Glass OB = 9 cm
a. E1ω1 = E2ω2 b. 2 = n
2
m = 1.50
ω1
E1 E2 O A B
c. ω1ω 2 = n 2 d. = Air
ω1 ω2
5. Inner and outer radii of a spool are r and R respectively.
A thread is wound over its inner surface and spool is 8. An infinitely long uniform line charge distribution of
placed over a rough horizontal surface. Thread is pulled charge per unit length λ lies parallel to the y-axis in the
by a force F as shown in figure. In case of pure rolling, 3
which of the following statements are false? y-z plane at z = a (see figure). If the magnitude of the
2
flux of the electric field through the rectangular surface
F
R ABCD lying in the x-y plane with its center at the origin is
α
r λL
(ε 0 = permittivity of free space), then the value of n
nε 0
is
z
a. Thread unwinds, spool rotates anticlockwise and
friction acts leftwards
D L
b. Thread winds, spool rotates clockwise and friction acts C
3
leftwards a
a
2
c. Thread winds, spool moves to the right and friction acts O
y
rightwards
d. Thread winds, spool moves to the right and friction
A B
does not come into existence
x
6. Two ideal batteries of emf V1 and V2 and three resistances
9. For an atom of an ion having single electron, the
R1 , R2 and R3 are connected as shown in the figure. The
wavelength observed λ1 = 2 are units and λ3 = 3 units
current in resistance R2 would be zero if
figure. The value of missing wavelength λ2 is
V1
R1 n3 orbit
R2 λ1 λ3
n2 orbit
λ2
V2 n1 orbit
R3
10. Consider an elliptically shaped rail PQ in the vertical
a. V1 = V2 and R1 = R2 = R3 plane with OP = 3 m and OQ = 4 m. A block of mass
b. V1 = V2 and R1 = 2 R2 = R3 1 kg is pulled along the rail from P to Q with a force of
c. V1 = 2V2 and 2 R1 = 2 R2 = R3 18 N, which is always parallel to line PQ (see the given
d. 2V1 = V2 and 2 R1 = R2 = R3 figure). Assuming no frictional losses, the kinetic energy
8 Physics
of the block when it’s reaches Q in (n × 10) joules. The SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 12)
−2 2 Paragraph based questions (2 paragraphs, each having
value of n is (take acceleration due to gravity 10 ms )
2 MCQs with one correct answer only)
Q
Paragraph for Question No. 15 to 16
Light guidance in an optical fiber can be understood by
4m
considering a structure comprising of thin solid glass cylinder
90° of refractive index n1 surrounded by a medium of lower
O 3m P refractive index n2 . The light guidance in the structure takes
11. Two identical uniform discs roll without slipping on two
place due to successive total internal reflections at the interface
different surfaces AB and CD (see figure) starting at A and
of the media n1 and n2 as shown in the figure. All rays with
C with linear speeds v1 and v2 , respectively, and always
the angle of incidence i less than a particular value im are
remain in contact with the surfaces. If they reach B and D
with the same linear speed and v1 = 3 m / s, then v2 in m/s confined in the medium of refractive index n1 . The numerical
is ( g = 10 m / s 2 ) aperture (NA) of the structure is defined as sin im .
A v1 = 3m / s C
v2
n1 > n2
Air
30 m 27 m Cladding n2
B D
θ Core
i n1
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 24) in equilibrium with the sphere P in L1 and sphere Q in L2
MCQs with one or more than one correct answer and the string being taut (see figure). If sphere P alone in
1. A fission reaction is given by L2 has terminal velocity VP and Q alone in L1 has
236
92 U
→ 14054 Xe + 94
38Sr + x + y, where x and y are two
terminal velocity VQ , then
236
particles. Considering 92 U to at rest, the kinetic energies
L1
P
of the products are denoted by K Xe , KSr , K x (2MeV) and
K y (2MeV), respectively. Let the binding energies per L2
Q
236
nucleon of 92 U, 140
54 Xe and
94
38 Sr be 7.5 MeV, 8.5 MeV
| VP | η1 | VP | η 2
and 8.5 MeV respectively. Considering different a. = b. =
| VQ | η 2 | VQ | η1
conservation laws, the correct option(s) is(are)
a. x = n, y = n, KSr = 129 MeV, K Xe = 86 MeV c. VP ⋅VQ > 0 d. VP ⋅VQ < 0
b. x = p, y = e − , K Sr = 129 MeV, K Xe = 86 MeV 3. In terms of potential difference V, electric current I,
c. x = p, y = n, KSr = 129 MeV, K Xe = 86 MeV permittivity ε 0 , permeability µ0 and speed of light c, the
d. x = n, y = n, KSr = 86 MeV, K Xe = 129 MeV dimensionally correct equation(s) is(are)
a. µ 0 I 2 = ε 0V 2 b. ε 0 I = µ0V
2. Two spheres P and Q of equal radii have densities ρ1 and
c. I = ε 0 cV d. µ0 cI = ε 0V
ρ 2 , respectively. The spheres are connected by a mass
less string and placed in liquids L1 and L2 of densities σ 1 4. Consider a uniform spherical charge distribution of radius
R1 centred at the origin O. In this distribution, a spherical
and σ 2 and viscosities η1 and η2 , respectively. They float
Mock Test-1 11
cavity of radius R2, centred at P with distance 8. A large spherical mass M is fixed at one position and two
OP = a = R1 − R2 (see figure) is made. If the electric field identical point masses m are kept on a line passing
through the centre of M (see figure). The point masses are
inside the cavity at position r is E (r ), then the correct
connected by a rigid mass less rod of length ℓ and this
statement(s) is(are) assembly is free to move along the line connecting them.
R2
P All three masses interact only through their mutual
a
R1 gravitational interaction. When the point mass nearer to M
O is at a distance r = 3ℓ from M, the tension in the rod is
M
zero for m = k . The value of k is
288
a. E is uniform, its magnitude is independent of R2 but its
M m m
direction depends on r
b. E is uniform, its magnitude depends on R2 and its r ℓ
direction depends on r
9. The energy of a system as a function of time t is given as
c. E is uniform, its magnitude is independent of a but its
direction depends on a E (t ) = A 2 exp( − α t ), where α = 0.2 s −1 . The measurement
of A has an error of 1.25%. If the error in the
d. E is uniform and both its magnitude and direction
measurement of time is 1.50%, the percentage error in the
depend on a
value of E (t ) at t = 5 s is
5. In plotting stress versus strain curves for two materials P
and Q, a student by mistake puts strain on the y-axis and 10. The densities of two solid spheres A and B of the same
stress on the x-axis as shown in the figure. Then the r
radii R vary with radial distance r as ρ A ( r ) = k and
correct statement(s) is(are) R
5
r
ρ B (r ) = k , respectively, where k is a constant. The
R
Strain
P
moments of inertia of the individual spheres about axes
Q passing through their centres are I A and I B , respectively.
Stress
IB n
a. P has more tensile strength than Q If = , the value of n is
I A 10
b. P is more ductile than Q
c. P is more brittle than Q 11. Four harmonic waves of equal frequencies and equal
d. The Young’s modulus of P is more than that of Q π 2π
intensities I0 have phase angles 0, , and π. When
6. A spherical body of radius R consists of a fluid of constant 3 3
density and is in equilibrium under its own gravity. If P(r) they are superposed, the intensity of the resulting wave is
is the pressure at r(r < R), then the correct option(s) is(are) nI 0 . The value of n is
P(r = 3R / 4) 63
a. P(r = 0) = 0 b. = 12. For a radioactive material, its activity A and rate of change
P(r = 2 R / 3) 80
dN dA
P(r = 3R / 5) 16 P (r = R / 2) 20 of its activity R are defined as A = − and R = − ,
c. = d. = dt dt
P (r = 2 R / 5) 21 P(r = R / 3) 27
where N(t) is the number of nuclei at time t. Two
SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 24)
radioactive sources P (mean life τ ) and Q (mean life 2τ )
Numerical value answer type questions
have the same activity at t = 0. Their rates of change of
7. An electron in an excited state of Li2+ ion has angular
activities at t = 2τ are R P and RQ , respectively. If
momentum 3h / 2π . The de Broglie wavelength of the
electron in this state is pπ a0 (where a0 is the Bohr RP n
= , then the value of n is
RQ e
radius). The value of p is
12 Physics
13. A monochromatic beam of light is incident at 60° on one (D) Ratio of the 4. 5 : 27
face of an equilateral prism of refractive index n and wavelengths of first
emerges from the opposite face making an angle line of Lyman series
θ ( n ) with the normal (see the figure). For n = 3 the and first line of
Balmer series is
dθ
value of θ is 60° and = m. The value of m is 5. 0
dn
a. A→ 1; B→ 2, 4; C→3; D→ 4
b. A→3; B→1, 2; C→1; D→ 2
c. A→4; B→3, 4; C→2; D→ 1
60° θ d. A→2; B→2, 3; C→4; D→ 3
16. You are given many resistances, capacitors and inductors.
These are connected to a variable DC voltage source
(the first two circuits) or an AC voltage source of 50 Hz
14. The figure shows a portion of an electric circuit. Resistors frequency (the next three circuits) in different ways as
are known and are indicated on the diagram and the shown in Column II. When a current I (steady state for DC
voltmeters are identical. If the voltmeters V1 and V2 read or r.m.s. for AC) flows through the circuit, the
7.5 V and 5.0 V respectively, find the reading of the volt- corresponding voltage V1 and V2. (indicated in circuits) are
meter V3. related as shown in Column I.
V1
R1 = 9
Column I Column II
(A) I ≠ 0, V1 is 1.
V1 V2
V2 proportional to I 6 mH 3 µF
R2 = 14
V3
V
R3 = 24
(B) I ≠ 0, V2 > V1 2. V1 V2
SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 12)
6 mH 2Ω
Matching type questions with 4 options
V
15. Match the statement of Column with those in
Column II: (C) V1 = 0, V2 = V 3. V1 V2
Column I Column II 6 mH 2Ω
(A) In any Bohr orbit of 1
1. −
the hydrogen atom, 2 V
the ratio of kinetic
(D) I ≠ 0, V2 is 4. V1 V2
energy to potential
energy of the electron proportional to I 6 mH 3µF
is
(B) The ratio of the 2. 2 V
kinetic energy to the
5. V1 V2
total energy of an
electron in a Bohr 1 kΩ 3µF
orbit is
(C) In the lowest energy V
h
3.
level of hydrogen 2π a. A→3, 4; B→2, 3, 4; C→1, 2; D→2, 3, 4
atom, the electron has b. A→1, 2; B→1, 2, 3; C→3, 4; D→1, 3 ,4
the angular c. A→2, 4; B→2, 3, 4; C→2, 3; D→1, 2, 3
momentum d. A→1, 3; B→1, 3, 4; C→1, 3; D→2, 3, 4
Mock Test-1 13
17. The gravitational field intensity E of earth at any point is a. A→1; B→2; C→3; D→4
defined as the gravitational force per unit mass at that b. A→4; B→3; C→2; D→1
point. If varies from place to place. The variation is shown c. A→4; B→1; C→3; D→2
d. A→3; B→2; C→1; D→4
in column II with form of position r v s the E in the form
18. A person in a lift is holding a water jar, which has a small
of graphs. The variation of r is given in column I.
hole at the lower end of its side. When the lift is at rest, the
Choose the correct form of graphs for the corresponding water jet coming out of the hole hits the floor of the lift at a
variations of r . distance d of 1.2 m from the person. In the following, state
Column I Column II of the lift’s motion is given in Column I and the distance
where the water jet hits the floor of the lift is given in
(A) Position r of body R rE
1. O Column II. Match the statements from Column I with those
measured from
in Column II and select the correct using the code given
surface earth
below the lists.
upward E
Column I Column II
(B) Position r of body R rE (A) Lift is accelerating 1. d = 1.2 m
O
measured from 2. vertically up.
surface of earth (B) Lift is accelerating 2. d > 1.2 m
along diameter to E vertically down with
opposite point on an acceleration less
surface of earth than the gravitational
acceleration.
(C) Position r measured r
O
3. (C) Lift is moving 3. d < 1.2 m
from center of earth
vertically up with
to any point
constant speed.
E
(D) Lift is falling freely. 4. No water leaks out of
(D) Position r measured R rE the jar
4. O
from center of a. A→1; B→1; C→1; D→4
hollow sphere to b. A→4; B→3; C→2; D→1
any point E c. A→4; B→1; C→3; D→2
d. A→3; B→2; C→1; D→4
F
t
60o Now t = 2π , Hence 2t0 = t
g eff
x
F sin 60o
6. (b) Soap solution has lower surface tension as compared
2. (a) Tangential force (Ft) of the bead to pure water so h is less for soap solution.
will be given by the normal reaction
Ft 7. (c) F1 = F2
(N), while centripetal force (Fc) is A L
Fc Y1 r2 3
provided by friction (Fr). The bead ⇒ Y1 A α1∆θ = Y2 A α 2 ∆θ ⇒ = =
starts sliding when the centripetal Y2 r1 2
force is just equal to the limiting Ft is inwards 8. (b) Let 0°C be the reference temperature for zero heat,
friction. Therefore, Ft = ma = mα L = N then initial heat energy = final heat energy
∴ Limiting value of friction ( f r ) max = µ N = µ mα L . . . (i) m1s1θ1 + m2 s2θ 2 + m3 s3θ3 = ( m1s1 + m2 s2 + m3 s3 )
Angular velocity at time t is ω = α t m1s1θ1 + m2 s2θ 2 + m3 s3θ3
⇒ θθ =
∴ Centripetal force at time t will be m1s1 + m2 s2 + m3 s3
Fc = mL ω 2 = mL α 2 t 2 . . . (ii) Vd1s1θ1 + Vd 2 s2θ 2 + Vd 3 s3θ3 d s θ + d 2 s2θ 2 + d 3 s3θ 3
= = 11 1
µ Vd1s1 + Vd 2 s2 + Vd 3 s3 d1s1 + d 2 s2 + d 3 s3
Equation (i) and (ii), we get t =
α
γ RT 1
9. (b) Speed of sound in a gas is given by v = ,v ∝
µ
For t > , F > ( f r )max i.e. , the bead starts sliding. M M
α c
v1 M2 m2
In the figure Ft is perpendicular to the paper inwards. ∴ = =
v2 M1 m1
3. (c) Power = F i v = Fv
Here,γγ =
Cp 5 for both the gases 5
dm d ( ρ × volume ) = γ monoatomic =
F = v = v CV 3 3
dt dt γ −1
V T1
d ( volume )
γ −1 γ −1
10. (b) T1 V1 = T2 V2 ⇒ 2 =
= ρv = ρ v ( Av ) = ρ Av
2
V1 T2
dt γ −1 1−γ
∴ Power P = ρ Av3 or P ∝ v 3 V1 T1 T 1 1
or = = 1 = 1−γ
>
4
V2 T2 ( 2)
2T2 2
4. (b) Let ρ be the density of lead. Then M = π R3ρ =
3 11. (d) Wien’s displacement law is λmT = b (b = Wien’s
= mass of total sphere constant)
3
4 R M b 2.88 × 106 nm-K
m1 = π ρ = mass of removed part = ∴ λm = =
3 2 8 T 2880K
Mock Test-1 15
∴ λ = 1000 nm y-direction. As E is varying with x and t, hence
Energy distribution with wavelength will be as follows: propagation of electromagnetic wave takes place along –x
axis. Thus statement (d) is wrong. Comparing the relation,
E = 10 cos(107 t + kx) with standard equation of
electromagnetic wave
2π 2πυ 2π
E = E0 cos (υ t + x) = E0 cos t+ x
1000
1499
1500
λ
499
599
999
λ λ
U1 We have, E0 = 10V / m. Thus statement (c) is correct.
From the fig. it is clear that (In fact U2 is maximum)
U2
2πυ 2π × (3 × 108 )
12. (b) Work done by the field W = q (−dV ) = −e(VA − VB ) = 107 or = 107
λ λ
= e(VB − VA ) = e(VC − VA ) (∵ VB = VC) 22
−19
or λ = 60π = 60 × ≈ 188.4 m
W 6.4 × 10 7
⇒ (VC − VA ) = = = 44V
V
e 1.6 × 10−19 Thus, statement (a) is correct.
13. (b) In the electric field between plates of parallel plate 2π 2π 1
⇒ k= = = = 0.033 rad
rad / m
m
σ λ 60π 30
capacitor E =
ε0 Thus, statement (b) is wrong.
qσ hc
∴ F = qE = . . . (i) 18. (c) E = = −W . . . (i)
ε0 λ
When one plate is removed, the electric field becomes hc
2E = = −W . . . (ii)
σ λ′
E′ =
2ε 0 hc
−W
σ Dividing (ii) by (i) 2 = λ ′ =
2hc
− 2W =
hc
−W
∴ F ′ = qE′ = . . . (ii)
2ε 0 hc
−W
λ λ′
λ
F′ 1 F
= ⇒ F′ = hc 2hc 1 2 W
F 2 2 ⇒ = −W ⇒ = −
λ′ λ λ ′ λ hc
14. (a) Resistance of 9 mm cable = 5 Ω
1 λ
1 1 ⇒ λ′ = ⇒ λ′ > but less than λ
As R ∝ or R ∝ 2 ; resistance of 3 mm 2 W 2
A r −
λ hc
Cable 9 × 5 = 45 Ω
19. (d) Energy required to remove electron in the n = 2
In second case 6 wires are connected in parallel, so total
13.6
45 state = + 2 = +3.4 eV
eV
resistance of cables = = 7 ⋅ 5Ω (2)
6
15. (c) Magnetic field at any point lying on the current 20. (b) Hydrogen bomb is based on nuclear fusion.
carrying straight conductor is zero. Here
21. (a) V = l 3 = (1.2 × 10−2 m)3 = 1.728 × 10 −6 m 3
H1 = Magnetic field at M due to current in PQ.
∵ Length (l) has two significant figures, the volume (V) will
H2 = Magnetic field at M due to QR + magnetic field at M
also have two significant figures. Therefore, the correct
due to QS + magnetic field at M due to PQ
answer is V = lV = 1.7 × 10 −6 m 3
H 3 H 2
= 0 + 1 + H 1 = H1 ⇒ 1 =
2 2 H2 3 h
22. (b) a = g sin θ , l =
16. (d) If monochromatic light is replaced by white light, a sin θ
few coloured fringes are seen on either side of a central h 1 1
⇒ = g sin θt 2 ⇒ t ∝
white fringe. sin θ 2 sin θ
17. (d) Electric field of an electromagnetic wave in free space t22 sin θ11 1/ 2 1 t 3
⇒ =
= = = / t2 = 1 = = 3 s
is given by E = 10cos(107 t + kx) ˆj which is acting along t1 sin θ22 3/2 3 3 3
16 Physics
GM 1
=
GM 2 a ω2
23. (c) ⇒ = = n2
(1 − x ) b ω1
2 2
x
Planet
100 10, 000 2 1 E1 E2 E1 E2
r2 r1
⇒ = P ⇒ = ⇒ =
x 2 (1 − x )2 ω12 a 2 ω22 a 2 ω1 ω2
de-Broglie Wavelength λ =
h
mv
⇒
d 3
dn 4
( )
4n 2 − 3 − 1 = cos θ
dθ
dn
2π r 2π a0 (3) 2 dθ
= = = 2π a0 For θ = 60° and n = 3 ⇒ =2
3 3 z Li dn
1
R 2 as if whole mass lies at centre E ∝ decreasing
At t = 2τ ; P = r2
RQ e
parabolic graph after sudden rise at surface of earth.
3
13. (2) Snell’s Law on 1st surface: = n sin r1 18. (a) A→1; B→1; C→1; D→4
2
In A, B, C no horizontal velocity is imparted to falling
3
sin r1 = . . .(i) water, so d remains same.
2n
In D, since its free fall, aeff = 0
3 4n 2 − 3
⇒ cos r1 = 1 − 2 =
4n 2n ∴ Liquid won’t fall with respect to lift.
Mock Test-2 19
JEE-MAIN: PHYSICS MOCK TEST-2
SECTION 1 (Multiple Choice Question) 5. The total energy of a particle executing simple harmonic
αZ motion is:
α −
1. In the relation p = e kθ
p is pressure, Z is distance, k
β a. ∝ x b. ∝ x2
is Boltzmann constant and θ is the temperature. The c. independent x d. ∝ x1/2
dimensional formula of α will be: 6. Two satellites A and B go around a planet P in circular
−2 2
a. [ MLT ] b. [ML T] orbits having radii 4R and R respectively. If the speed of
c. [ML T ] 0 −1
d. [M 0 L2 T −1 ] satellite A is 3v, the speed of satellite B will be:
a. 12 v b. 6 v
2. A small block is shot into each of the four tracks as shown
4 3
below. Each of the tracks rises to the same height. The c. v d. v
3 2
speed with which the block enters the track is the same in
all cases. At the highest point of the track, the normal 7. The following diagram shows three soap bubbles A, B and
reaction is maximum in C prepared by blowing the capillary tube fitted with stop
cocks, S1, S2 and S3. With stop cock S closed and stop
cocks S1, S2 and S3 opened.
v v
a. b. C
S
S1 S2
S3
v v A B
c. d.
3. A particle, which is constrained to move along x-axis, is a. B will start collapsing with volumes of A and C
subjected to a force in the same direction which varies increasing
with the distance x of the particle from the origin as b. C will start collapsing with volumes of A and B
F ( x ) = − kx + ax 3 . Here, k and a are positive constants. increasing
For x ≥ 0, the functional form of the potential energy c. C and A both will start collapsing with the volume of B
U(x) of the particle is increasing
U(x) U(x) d. Volumes of A, B and C will becomes equal at
equilibrium
a. x b. x 8. A steel wire of length 20 cm and uniform cross-section
1 mm2 is tied rigidly at both the ends. The temperature of
the wire is altered from 40°C to 20°C. What is the
U(x) U(x) magnitude of force developed in the wire? (Coefficient of
linear expansion for steel, α = 1.1 × 10–5 /°C and Y for
c. x d. x steel is 2.0 × 1011 N/m 2 ).
a. 2.2 × 106 N b. 16 N
4. A carpenter has constructed a toy as c. 8 N d. 44 N
shown in the adjoining figure. If the O2 2R
9. The intensity level of two waves of same frequency in a
density of the material of the sphere given medium are 20 dB and 60 dB. Then the ratio of
is 12 times that of cone, the position their amplitudes is:
of the center of mass of the toy is 2R a. 1 : 4 b. 1 : 16
given by. O1 c. 1 : 104 d. 1 : 100
a. at a distance of 2R from O
O
b. at a distance of 3R from O 10. The specific heat of a substance varies as (2t2 + t) ×10–3
2R
c. at a distance of 4R from O cal/g °C. What is the amount of heat required to raise the
d. at a distance of 5R from O temperature of 100 g of substance through 20°C to 40°C.
20 Physics
a. 37.9 kilocal b. 3.79 kilocal 17. The intensity ratio at a point of observation due to two
c. 379 kilocal d. 82 cal coherent waves is 100 : 1. The ratio between their
11. A real gas behaves like an ideal gas if its amplitudes is:
a. pressure and temperature are both high a. 1 : 1 b. 1 : 10
c. 1 : 100 d. 10 : 1
b. pressure and temperature are both low
c. pressure is high and temperature is low 18. An electromagnetic wave propagating along north has its
d. pressure is low and temperature is high electric field vector upwards. Its magnetic field vector
points towards
12. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor of capacity of 50µF
a. north b. east
are charged by a battery to a potential of 100 volt. The
c. west d. downwards
battery remains connected the plates are separated from
each other so that the distance between them is doubled. 19. The ionisation energy of 10 times ionised sodium atom is
How much is the energy spent by battery in doing so? a. 13.6 eV b. 13.6 × 11 eV
a. 25 × 10–2 J b. –12.5 × 10–2 J 13.6
–2
c. eV d. 13.6 × (11)2 eV
c. – 25 × 10 J d. 12.5 × 10–2 J 11
13. The magnetic moment produced in a substance of 1gm is 20. The example of nuclear fusion is
6 × 10–7 ampere-metre2. If its density is 5 gm/cm3, then a. Formation of barium and krypton from uranium
b. Formation of helium from hydrogen
the intensity of magnetisation in A/m will be
c. Formation of plutonium 235 from uranium 235
a. 8.3 × 106 b. 3.0
d. Formation of water from hydrogen and oxygen
c. 1.2 × 10–7 d. 3 × 10–6
14. An ionized gas contains both positive and negative ions. If SECTION 2 (Numeric Value Question)
it is subjected simultaneously to an electric field along the 21. A force of 5 N acts on a particle along a direction making
+x direction and a magnetic field along the +z direction, an angle of 60° with vertical. Its vertical component be:
then a. 10 N b. 3 N
a. Positive ions deflect towards +y direction and negative c. 4 N d. 2.5 N
ions towards –y direction 22. A neutral water molecule (H2O) in it's vapor state has an
b. All ions deflect towards +y direction electric dipole moment of magnitude 6.4 ×10–30 C–m.
c. All ions deflect towards –y direction How far apart are the molecules centres of positive and
d. Positive ions deflect towards –y direction and negative negative charge?
ions towards +y direction a. 4 m b. 4 mm
c. 4 µm d. 4 pm
15. A hundred turns of insulated copper wire are wrapped
around an iron cylinder of area 1 × 10–3 m2 are connected 23. A cell of e.m.f. 1.5 V having a finite internal resistance is
to a resistor. The total resistance in the circuit is 10 ohms. connected to a load resistance of 2 Ω. . For maximum
If the longitudinal magnetic induction in the iron changes power transfer, the internal resistance of the cell in ohms
from 1 Wb m–2, in one direction to 1 Wb m −2 in the should be:
opposite direction, how much charge flows through the a. 4 b. 0.5
circuit? c. 2 d. None of these
a. 2 × 10–2 C b. 2 × 10–3 C 24. Two plane mirrors are at 45° to each other. If an object is
c. 2 × 10–4 C d. 2 × 10–5 C placed between them, then the number of images will be
a. 5 b. 9
16. A resistor R, an inductor L and a capacitor C are
c. 7 d. 8
connected in series to an oscillator of frequency n. If the
resonant frequency is nr, then the current lags behind 25. A photon of energy 8 eV is incident on a metal surface of
Threshold frequency 1.6×1015Hz. The kinetic energy of the
voltage, when
photoelectrons emitted (in eV) (Take h = 6 × 10 −34 J − s)
a. n = 0 b. n < nr
c. n = nr d. n > nr a. 1.6 b. 6
c. 2 d. 1.2
Mock Test-2 21
JEE ADVANCE PAPER-I
1N
θ a. 4 b. 3
O P
c. 2 d. 1
22 Physics
SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 24) 12. A cylindrical vessel of height 500 mm has an orifice
Numerical value answer type questions (small hole) at its bottom. The orifice is initially closed
and water is filled in it up to height H. Now the top is
7. The densities of two solid spheres A and B of the same completely sealed with a cap and the orifice at the bottom
is opened. Some water comes out from the orifice and the
radii R vary with radial distance r as ρ A (r ) = k r and
R water level in the vessel becomes steady with height of
5 water column being 200 mm. Find the fall in height
r
ρ B (r ) = k , respectively, where k is a constant. (in mm) of water level due to opening of the orifice.
R
The moments of inertia of the individual spheres about [Take atmospheric pressure = 1.0 × 105 N / m 2 , density of
axes passing through their centres are IA and IB, water = 1000 kg/m3 and g = 10 m/s2. Neglect any effect of
IB n surface tension.]
respectively. If = , the value of n is
I A 10 13. Consider two solid spheres P and Q each of density 8 gm
8. Gravitational acceleration on the surface of a planet is cm−3 and diameters 1 cm and 0.5 cm, respectively. Sphere
gravity is 1/ 4th of its value at the surface of the planet. If s −1. If the Young’s modulus of the material of the wire is
n × 109 Nm −1 , the value of n is
the escape velocity from the planet is vesc = v N , then the
value of N is (ignore energy loss due to atmosphere) SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 12)
10. The ends Q and R of two thin wires, PQ and RS, are Paragraph based questions (2 paragraphs, each having 2
soldered (joined) together. Initially each of the wires has a MCQs with one correct answer only)
length of 1m at 10°C. Now the end P is maintained at Paragraph for Question No. 15 to 16
10°C, while the end S is heated and maintained at A small block of mass 1 kg is released from rest at the top of a
400 °C. The system is thermally insulated from its rough track. The track is circular arc of radius 40 m. The block
surroundings. If the thermal conductivity of wire PQ is slides along the track without toppling and a frictional force
twice that of the wire RS and the coefficient of linear acts on it in the direction opposite to the instantaneous velocity.
thermal expansion of PQ is 1.2 ×10−5 K −1 , the change in The work done in overcoming the friction upto the point Q, as
length of the wire PQ is: shown in the figure, below, is 150 J. (Take the acceleration due
to gravity, g = 10 m / s −2 ).
11. Two soap bubbles A and B are kept in a closed chamber
where the air is maintained at pressure 8 N/m2. The radii
R
of bubbles A and B are 2 cm and 4 cm, respectively. P
30°
Surface tension of the soap-water used to make bubbles is
n
0.04 N/m. Find the ratio B , where nA and nB are the
nA Q R
which is originally at the pressure of 105 N/m 2 . The air in Matching type questions with 4 options
the cylinder is now compressed isothermally until the 15. Work is defined as dot product of force and displacement
radius of the bubble is halved. The pressure of air in the
W = ∫ dW = ∫ F ⋅ dS . It is a scalar quantity. The total work
cylinder now becomes n ×105 N/m 2 . The surface tension
done will depend on the displacement and the force,
of soap film is 0.08Nm –1 . Find the integer value of n. which may be constant or variable.
Thus in different situations of variable force applied in
11. A length of wire carries a steady current I. It is bent first
column I, the final expression for work done can be
to form a circular plane coil of one turn. The same length
expressed as in column II.
is now best more sharply to give double loop of smaller
Column I Column II
radius. If the same current I is passed, the ratio of the
(A) Force constant in magnitude acts 1
magnitude of magnetic field at the centre with its first 1. kx 2 cos θ
at constant angle θ with direction 2
value is. of motion
12. A current 1 amp is flowing in the sides of an equilateral (B) Force constant in magnitude acts F
2. sin θθ
triangle of side 4⋅5 ×10−2 m. the magnetic field at the at angle θ which varies as θ = kx K
centroid of the triangle in the unit of (10 −5 T) is. (C) Force varies with distance x as 3. Fx sin θ
F = k x but angle θ is constant
13. There are two infinite long parallel straight current (D) Force is constant in magnitude 4. zero
carrying wires, A and B separated by a distance r (Fig.) but changes in direction with
A B changing angle and always acts
along radius of circular path
I
a. A→1, B→2, C→3, D→4 b. A→3, B→2, C→1, D→4
P Q
c. A→4, B→3, C→2, D→1 d. A→2, B→1, C→4, D→3
r
16. Four charges Q1 , Q2 , Q3 and Q4 of same magnitude are fixed
I
r along the x-axis at x = −2a, − a, + a and +2a respectively.
A positive charge q is placed on the positive y-axis at a
distance b > 0 . Four options of the signs of these charges
The current in each wire is I. The ratio of magnitude of
magnetic field at points P and Q when points P and Q lie are given in column I. the direction of the forces on the
in the plane of wires is charge q is given in column II. Match column I with
column II and select the correct answer using the code
14. A length of wire carries a steady current I. It is bent first given below the lists.
to form a circular plane coil of one turn. The same length +q (0, b)
is now bent more sharply to give double loop of smaller
radius. If the same current I is passed, the ratio of the
magnitude of magnetic field at the centre with its first
value is Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4
(−2a,0) (−a,0) (+ a,0) (+2a,0)
Column I Column II
P a (A) Q1 , Q2 , Q3 , Q4 all positive 1. + x
O
(B) Q1 , Q2 positive; Q3 , Q4 negative 2. − x
(C) Q1 , Q4 positive; Q2 , Q3 negative 3. + y
2a (D) Q1 , Q3 positive; Q2 , Q4 negative 4. − y
26 Physics
a. A→3, B→1, C→4, D→2 c. A→2, B→3, C→4, D→1
b. A→4, B→2, C→3, D→1 d. A→3, B→4, C→1, D→2
c. A→3, B→1, C→2, D→4 18. To determine specific heat of different substances we use
d. A→4, B→2, C→1, D→3 different types of calorimeters. Can you match the type of
17. The vibration of body can be under various types of colorimeter used named in column I to the substance
forces. The vibration are classified mentioned in column I whose specific heat is determined by corresponding
under the conditions mentioned in column II. Match the calorimeter in column II.
type of vibrations in column I with conditions in Column I Column II
column II. (A) Regnault’s 1. To determine specific
Column I Column II calorimeter heat of solids at very
(A) Free vibrations 1. A body vibrating in low temperatures
viscous medium (B) Joly’s differential 2. To determine specific
(B) Forced vibrations 2. A body vibrating under calorimeter heat of solids or gases
its natural restoring force at constant pressures
(C) Resonant vibrations 3. A body vibrating under (C) Calender and 3. Used to measure specific
the influence of another Barmer’s calorimeter heat at constant volume
vibrating body (D) Nernst’s vacuum 4. Specific heat of liquids
(D) Damped vibrations 4. A body vibrating with calorimeter and gases at constant
its natural frequency pressure
under the influence of a. A→1, B→2, C→3, D→4
another vibrating body
b. A→2, B→3, C→4, D→1
of same frequency
c. A→3, B→4, C→1, D→2
a. A→1, B→2, C→3, D→4
d. A→4, B→3, C→2, D→1
b. A→4, B→3, C→2, D→1
F
12. (a) When separation between the plates is doubled the 60 o
6 × 10 −7
× 5 × 10 3 23. (c) For maximum power Rext = Rint = 2 Ω
Hence I = −3
=3
10 360°
24. (c) n = −1 = 7
14. (c) As the electric field is switched on, positive ion will 45°
start to move along positive x-direction and negative ion
25. (c) W = hv0 = 6 ×10−34 ×1⋅ 6 ×1015 joule
along negative x-direction. Current associated with motion
of both types of ions is along positive x-direction. 6 × 10−34 × 1 ⋅ 6 × 1015
= eV = = 6 eV
According to Fleming's left hand rule force on both types 1 ⋅ 6 × 10−19
of ions will be along negative y-direction. ∴ Ek = hv − W = 88eV eV−–6 eV==22eV
6 eV eV
Mock Test-2 29
JEE Advance Paper -I If θ > 45° ; mg sin θ > F cos θ
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. ∴ Friction acts towards Q.
b c a,b,c a,c c,d c 6 3 2 7 If θ < 45 ° F cos θ > mg sin θ
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. ∴ Friction acts towards P.
6 6 3 4 b a a c
5. (c, d) Condition of translational equilibrium N1 = µ2 N 2
a mg
1. (b) tan θ = y
⇒ N 2 = µ1 N1 = Mg , Solving N2 =
g 1 + µ1µ2
N cos θ
dy N
µ2 mg
tan θ = = 2kx θ ⇒ N1 = Applying torque equation about corner (left)
dx N
1 + µ1 µ2
ma sin θ
a
⇒ x= θ x point on the floor
2 gk ma
ℓ
⇒ mg cos θ = N1ℓ sin θ + µ1 N1ℓ cos θ
2. (c) mg sin θ = µ s mg cos θ [when partied is just balanced] 2
dy x 2 1 − µ1µ 2
⇒ tan θ = us ⇒ tan θ = = Solving tan θ =
dx 2 2µ 2
2.5 × 10 −4 ms −1. If the electron density in the wire is 7. A current 1 amp is flowing in the sides of an equilateral
−3
8 ×10 m , the resistivity of the material is close to:
28 triangle of side 4.5 ×10−2 m . The magnetic field at the
c. 1.6 × 10 −6 Ω m d. 1.6 ×10−5 Ω m 8. If the maximum values of signal and carrier waves are 4 V
3. A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 100 Ω gives a and 5V respectively, the percentage of amplitude
full scale deflection, when a current of 1 mA is passed modulation is a × 10%. What is the value of a ?
through it. The value of the resistance, which can convert 9. A signal wave of frequency 4.5 kHz is modulated with a
this galvanometer into ammeter giving a full scale carrier wave of frequency 3.45 MHz. The bandwidth of
deflection for a current of 10 A, is: FM wave is kHz is
10. What is the maximum usuable frequency (in MHz) for
a. 0.01 Ω b. 2 Ω
E-layer of atmosphere having critical frequency 4 MHz,
c. 0.1 Ω d. 3 Ω
when the angle of incidence is 60°?
4. The temperature dependence of resistances of Cu and 11. A T.V. Tower has a height 100 m. In order to triple its
undoped Si in the temperature range 300–400 K, is best coverage range, the height of tower to be increased is
described by: a × 10 2 m. What is the integer value of a?
a. Linear increase for Cu, linear increase for Si
12. A microwave telephone link operating at the central
b. Linear increase for Cu, exponential increase for Si
frequency of 10 GHz has been established. If 2% of this is
c. Linear increase for Cu, exponential decrease for Si
available for microwave communication channel and each
d. Linear decrease for Cu, linear decrease for Si
telephone is allotted a bandwidth of 8 kHz, the number of
5. Two ideal batteries of emf V1 and V2 and three resistances telephone channels which can be simultaneously granted
R1, R2 and are R3 connected as shown in the figure. The is 2.5 × 10 a. What is the integer value of a ?
current in resistance R2 would be 13. A uniform circular disc of mass 1.5 kg and radius is
V1
zero if R1 initially at rest on a horizontal frictionless surface. Three
a. V1 = V2 and R1 = R2 = R3 R2 forces of equal magnitude F = 0.5 N are applied
b. V1 = V2 and R1 = 2R2 = R3 simultaneously along the three sides of an equilateral
triangle XYZ with its vertices on the perimeter of the disc
c. V1 = 2V2 and 2R1 = 2R2 = R3 (see figure). One second after applying the forces, the
R3 V2
d. 2V1 = V2 and 2R1 = R2 = R3 angular speed of the disc in rad s –1 is
F
6. Heater of an electric kettle is made of a wire of length L X
and diameter d. It takes 4 minutes to raise the temperature
of 0.5 kg water by 40 K. This heater is replaced by a new O
Y F
heater having two wires of the same material, each of Z
F
36 Physics
14. A horizontal circular platform of radius 0.5 m and mass 16. Consider two different metallic strips (1 and 2) of same
0.45 kg is free to rotate about its axis. Two mass less dimensions (lengths ℓ , width w and thickness d) with
spring toyguns, each carrying a steel ball of mass 0.05 kg carrier densities n1 and n2, respectively. Strip 1 is placed
are attached to the platform at a distance 0.25 m from the in magnetic field B1 and strip 2 is placed in magnetic field
centre on its either sides along its diameter (see figure). B2, both along positive y-directions. Then V1 and V2 are
Each gun simultaneously fires the balls horizontally and the potential differences developed between K and M in
perpendicular to the diameter in opposite directions. After strips 1 and 2, respectively. Assuming that the current I is
leaving the platform, the balls have the same for both the strips, the correct option(s) is(are)
horizontal speed of 9 ms −1 with a. If B1 = B2 and n1 = 2n2 , then V2 = 2V1
respect to the ground. The
b. If B1 = B2 and n1 = 2n2 , then V2 = V1
rotational speed of the platform in
c. If B1 = 2 B2 and n1 = n2 , then V2 = 0.5V1
rad s –1 after the balls leave the platform is
d. If B1 = 2 B2 and n1 = n2 , then V2 = V1
SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 12)
Paragraph for Question No. 17 to 18
Paragraph based questions (2 paragraphs, each having 2
The capacitor of capacitance C can be charged (with the help of
MCQs with one correct answer only)
a resistance R) by a voltage
Paragraph for Question No. 15 to 16 source V, by closing switch S1 V
In a thin rectangular metallic strip a constant current I flows R
while keeping switch S 2 open. S1
along the positive x-direction, as shown in the figure. The C
length, width and thickness of the strip are l, w and d, The capacitor can be
connected in series with an
respectively. A uniform magnetic field B is applied on the L S2
strip along the positive y-direction. Due to this, the charge inductor ‘L’ by closing switch
carriers experience a net deflection along the z-direction. This S 2 and opening S1
results in accumulation of charge carriers on the surface PQRS 17. Initially, the capacitor was uncharged. Now, switch S1 is
and appearance of equal and opposite charges on the face closed and S2 is kept open. If time constant of this circuit
opposite to PQRS. A potential difference along the z-direction is τ, then
is thus developed. Charge accumulation continues until the
a. after time interval τ, charge on the capacitor is CV/2
magnetic force is balanced by the electric force. The current is
b. after time interval 2τ , charge on the capacitor is
assumed to be uniformly distributed on the cross-section of the
strip and carried by electrons. CV (1 − e −2 )
l y c. the work done by the voltage source will be half of the
I
•K heat dissipated when the capacitor is fully charged
W I
x
S R d. after time interval 2τ , charge on the capacitor is
d •M z
CV (1 − e −1 )
P Q
15. Consider two different metallic strips (1 and 2) of the 18. After the capacitor gets fully charged, S1 is opened and S2
same material. Their lengths are the same, widths are w1 is closed so that the inductor is connected in series with
and w2 and thicknesses are d1 and d2, respectively. Two the capacitor. Then
points K and M are symmetrically located on the opposite a. at t = 0, energy stored in the circuit is purely in the
faces parallel to the x-y plane (see figure). V1 and V2 are form of magnetic energy
the potential differences between K and M in strips 1 and b. at any time t > 0, current in the circuit is in the same
2, respectively. Then, for a given current I flowing
direction
through them in a given magnetic field strength B, the
c. at t > 0, there is no exchange of energy between the
correct statement(s) is(are)
inductor and capacitor
a. If w1 = w2 and d1 = 2d2, then V2 = 2V1
d. at any time t > 0, instantaneous current in the circuit
b. If w1 = w2 and d1 = 2d2, then V2 = V1
c. If w1 = 2w2 and d1 = d2, then V2 = 2V1 may V
C
d. If w1 = 2 w2 and d1 = d 2 , then V2 = V1 L
Mock Test-3 37
JEE ADVANCE PAPER-II
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 24) µ 0 NI b µ 0 NI b + a
a. In b. In
MCQs with one or more than one correct answer 2(b − a ) a 2(b − a ) b – a
a. I1 > I 2
b. I1 < I 2 π
a. a 2 Ikˆ b. + 1 a 2 Ikˆ
2
c. I 1 is in the direction ba and I 2 is in the direction cd
π
d. I1 is in the direction ab and I 2 is in the direction dc c. − + 1 a 2 Ikˆ d. (2π + 1) a 2 Ikˆ
2
2. A thin flexible wire of length L is connected to two 5. An infinitely long hollow conducting cylinder with inner
adjacent fixed points and carries a current I in the radius R/2 and outer radius R carries a uniform current
clockwise direction, as shown in the figure. When the density along its length. The magnitude of the magnetic
system is put in a uniform magnetic field of strength B
field, | B | as a function of the radial distance r from the
going into the plane of the paper, the wire takes the shape
of a circle. The tension in the wire is axis is best represented by.
B B
a. b.
r r
R/2 R R/2 R
flows through the wire. The Z component of the magnetic 6. A circular loop of radius 0.3 cm lies parallel to a much
field at the center of the spiral is
bigger circular loop of radius 20 cm. The centre of the
Y
small loop is on the axis of the bigger loop. The distance
between their centres is 15 cm. If a current of 2.0 A flows
I a
X
through the smaller loop, then the flux linked with bigger
b
loop is
a. 9.1 × 10 −11 weber b. 6 × 10 −11 weber
c. 3.3 × 10 −11 weber d. 6.6 × 10 −9 weber
38 Physics
SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 24) Column I Column II
Numerical value answer type questions (A) Boltzmann Constant 1. [ML2 T −1 ]
12
(B) Coefficient of viscosity 2. [ML−1T −1 ]
7. The isotope 5 B having a mass 12.014 u undergoes
(C) Plank Constant 3. [MLT −3 K −1 ]
β - decay to 12
6 C. 126 C has an excited state of the nucleus
(D) Thermal conductivity 4. [ML2 T −2 K −1 ]
( 126 C* ) at 4.041 MeV above its grounds state. If
12 12
a. A-4; B-1, 4; C- 4; D-2
5 B decays to 6 C* , the maximum kinetic energy of the
b. A-1; B- 1,4; C-4; D-4
β - particle in units of MeV is: c. A-4; B-1,4; C-4; D-2
( 1u = 931.5MeV / c2,, where c is the speed of light in d. A-1; B- 1,4; C-2; D-4
vacuum)
16. Column I give a list of possible set of parameters
8. A binary star consists of two stars A (mass 2.2Ms) and B measured in some experiments. The variations of the
(mass 11Ms), where Ms is the mass of the sun. They are parameters in the form of graphs are shown in Column II.
separated by distance d and are rotating about their centre Match the set of parameters given in Column I with the
of mass, which is stationary. The ratio of the total angular graph given in Column II.
momentum of the binary star to the angular momentum of Column I Column II
star B about the centre of mass is (A) Potential energy of a 1. y
simple pendulum (y axis)
9. Two homogeneous spheres A and B of masses m and 2m
as a function of
having radii 2a and a respectively are placed in contact.
displacement (x axis) O x
The ratio of distance of c.m. from first sphere to the
distance of c.m. from second sphere is: (B) Displacement(y axis) as a 2. y
function of time (x axis)
10. A non-uniform thin rod of length L is placed along X-axis
for a one dimensional
so that one of its ends is at the origin. The linear mass
motion at zero or constant O x
density of rod is λ = λ0 x ⋅ The centre of mass of rod
acceleration when the
divides the length of the rod in the ratio: body is moving along the
11. A sphere of mass 5 kg and diameter 2 m rotates about a positive x-direction
tangent. What is its moment of inertia? (C) Range of a projectile 3. y
(y-axis) as a function of its
12. A uniform rod of length 1 m and mass 0.5 kg rotates at
velocity (x-axis) when
angular speed of 6 rad/sec about one of its ends. What is
projected at a fixed angle O x
the KE of the rod?
fmax = mω2 A with ω 2 = k = k From the graph itself, it is clear that p3 > p1 .
∴
m + m 2m Hence, the correct option is
k kA Note: At point B, slope of adiabatic (process BC) is
Hence, f max = m A=
2m 2 greater than the slope of isothermal (process AB).
Mock Test-3 41
γ 17. (c) The wavelength of spectral line in Balmer series is
V
10. (c) P1 V1γ = P2 V2γ ⇒ P2 = P1 1 1 1 1
V2 given by = R 2 − 2
λ 2 n
γ −1
R 1 V1
For first line of Balmer series, n = 3
work = ( P2 V2 − P1 V1 ) = P1 − 1
1− γ 1 − γ V2 1 1 5R
⇒
1
= R 2 − 2 = ; For second line n = 4.
1 λ1 2 3 36
× 105 × 22.4 ×10−3 × ( 2 ) − 1
0.40
=
1 − 1.40 1 1 1 3R
⇒ = R 2 − 2 =
=
1
× 22.4 ×102 [1.32 − 1] = 1792 J λ2 2 4 16
0.40 λ2 20 20
∴ = ⇒ λ1 = × 6561 = 4860 Å
dQ dm Temperature difference dm λ1 27 27
11. (c) = L or = L
dt dt Thermal resistance dt
18. (d) 6 C 11 → 5 B 11 + β+ + γ because β+ = 1 e 0
dm 1 1
or ∝ ⇒q∝
dt Thermal resistance R 19. (a) The base is always thin
In the first case rods are in parallel and thermal resistance
20. (a) VHF (Very High Frequency) band having frequency
R range 30 MHz to 300 MHz is typically used for TV and
is while in second case rods are in series and thermal
2 radar transmission.
resistance is 2R.
π
q1 2R 4 21. (a) V = 5cos ωt = 5sin ωt + ⇒ I = 2sin ωt
⇒ = = 2
q2 R / 2 1
π π
1 1 ∴ φ= ⇒ P = Erms I rsm cos =0 W
12. (d) Energy u ∝ E2 and u ∝ for a point charge; so u ∝ 4 2 2
r2 r
m
13. (c) For short bar magnet in tan A-position 22. (d) Density ρ =
π r2L
µ0 2M ∆ρ
= H tan θ . . . (i) ∆m ∆r ∆L
4π d 3 ∴ × 100 = +2 + ×100
ρ m r L
When distance is doubled, then new deflection θ ′ is given by
After substituting the values, we get the maximum
µ0 2 M
= H tan θ ′ . . . (ii) percentage error in density = 4%
4π (2 d )3
23. (c) L = 40 m, v = 1080 km,
tan θ ′′ 1
∴ = h–1 = 300 m sec−1 and B = 8.3 × 10−4 T
tan θ 8
tan θ tan 60° 3 3 ⇒ e = Blv = 8.3 ×10−4 × 40 × 300 = 1 V
⇒ tan θ ′ = = = ⇒ θ ′ = tan –1
8 8 8 8 24. (a) Relative velocity of image w.r.t. object
1 = 3 – (–3) = 6 m/sec
14. (a) cos φ = ⇒ φ = 60°
2
–3m/sec 3m/sec
ωL 3
tan 60° = ⇒L= H O
R π I
I max ( a1 + a2 ) 2 + 1 9
2 2
15. (d) = = = 25. (b) Angular momentum of satellite about center of earth
I min ( a1 − a2 )2 2 − 1 1
remains constant, i.e., mvr = constant
16. (a) In the given question, the electromagnetic wave is 1 v r
⇒ v∝ ⇒ 2 = 1
propagating along + z axis. In e.m. wave, the electric field 2 v1 r2
( E) and magnetic field ( B ) are perpendicular to each other Speed is maximum at position 2,
and also perpendicular to the direction of propagation of vmax r1 (1 + ε ) a 1 + ε 1 + 0.0167
∴ = = = = = 1.033
wave, vmin r2 (1 − ε ) a 1 − ε 1 − 0.0167
So, E = E0 iˆ and B = B0 ˆj.
42 Physics
JEE Advance Paper -I A
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. I
a d a c a,b,d b,d 4 8 9 8
O
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18.
I
8 4 2 4 a,d a,c b d 60° 60°
r
B C
1 1 1 I D
1. (a) = + a
R e q R1 R2
It will be acting perpendicular to the plane of triangle
V2 V2 V2 upwards. Total magnetic field induction at O due to
⇒ P= = + + .....
R e q R1 R2 current through all the three sides of the triangle will be
= 15 × 40 + 5 × 100 + 80 × 5 + 1× 1000 = 2500 w
W 3µ0 I
B = 3B1 = sin θ11++sin
[sin sin θ2 2]
⇒ P = VI 4π r
Here, I = 1 A, θ1 = 60° = θ2
250 125
⇒ P = 2500 = 220 I ⇒ I = = BD a/2 a 4.5 × 10 −2
22 11 And r = OD = = = = m
tan 60° 3 2 3 2 3
i i
2. (d) υd = ∴ = υd ⋅ ne 1
Ane A ∴ B = 3 × 10−7 × × [sin 60° + sin 60°]
V V
( 4.5 ×10 −2
/2 3 )
⇒ i= = ∴ρ= V
R ρ ℓ i On solving, B = 4 × 10–5 T.
ℓ
A A
8. (8) Here, Am = 4 V ; Ac = 5 V
V
⇒ ρ= Percentage of modulation,
υd ⋅ ne ℓ
Am 4
5 µ= × 100 = × 100 = 80% = a × 10%. ⇒ a = 8
⇒ ρ= Ac 5
2.5 ×10−4 × 8 ×1028 ×1.6 ×10−19 × 0.1
2 1 9. (9) Here, vs = 4.5kHz; vc = 3.45MHz = 3450 kHz
= = × 10−4 = 1.6 ×10−5 Ω m
8 × 1.6 × 10−4 6.4 Bandwidth = 2 vs = 2 × 4.5 = 9.0 kHz.
ig G 10. (8) Here, vc = 4 MHz, i = 90°
3. (a) S = Here ig = 10 −3 A
1 − ig
Maximum usuable frequency = vc sec i
⇒ G = 102 Ω, I = 10 A ⇒ S = 10−2 Ω = 4 × sec60° = 4 × 2 = 8MHz
4. (c) For conductor (Cu) resistance increases linearly and
11. (8) d ' = 2h ' R = 3d = 3 2hR
for semiconductor resistance decreases Exponentially in
given temperature range. or h ' = 9 h = 9 ×100 = 900 m
Increase in height of tower = 900 − 100 = 800 = a × 10 2
R (V + V2 )
5. (a, b, d) V1 = 1 1 ⇒ V1 R3 = V2 R1 ⇒ a =8
R1 + R3
R3 (V1 + V2 ) 12. (4) Microwave frequency used in telephone link = 10 GHz
⇒ V2 = ⇒ V2 R1 = V2 R3
R1 + R3 = 10 × 109 Hz = 1010 Hz
Frequency available for microwave communication
V2 V2 V2 2
6. (b, d) H = 4= t1 t2 = 2% of 10 GHz = ×1010 = 2 × 108 Hz
R R / 2 R /8 100
⇒ t1 = 2 min. ⇒ t2 = 0.5 min. Bandwidth of each telephone channel = 8 kHz
⇒ ω = ω0 + αt ⇒ ω = 2 rad / s b
µ0 IN µ0 IN b
dr µ IN b
(a) ∫
2(b − a) ∫
3. dr = = 0 ln
14. (4) Since net torque about centre of rotation is zero, so we a 2r (b − a) a r 2(b − a) a
can apply conservation of angular momentum of the 4. (b) M = IA
system about centre of disc Li = L f 2
a
π a
0 = Iω + 2mv (r / 2); comparing magnitude
A = 4 × + a2
2
⇒ a a
2 a
0.45 × 0.5 × 0.5 0.5
∴ ω = 0.05 × 9 × ×2
π a2 a2 2 π 2
2 2 = 2× + a2 = π + a + 1 a
∴ ω=4 4 2 2
π
15. (a, d) I1 = I2 ∴ M = + 1 a 2 Ikˆ
2
⇒ 1 1 = neA2v2 ⇒ d1w1v1 = d2 w2v2
neAv
5. (d) Let current be I.
Now, potential difference developed across MK
I
V = Bvw Current density J =
R2
V1 v1w1 d2 π R2 −
⇒ = = and hence, correct choice is a & d. 4 R/2
V2 v2 w2 d1 Amperian
I 4I r
⇒ J= = R loop
16. (a, c) As I1 = I2 n1w1d1v1 = n2 w2d2v2 3R 2 3π R 2
π
4
V2 B2v2 w2 B2 w2 n1w1d1 B2 n1
Now, = = = R R
V1 B2v1w1 B1w1 n2 w2 d2 B1n2 Field for r ≤ B = 0 For < r ≤ R
2 2
∴ Correct options are a & c. Applying Ampere’s Law B.2π r
17. (b) Q = Q0 (1 − e − t /τ ) 4I R 2 4µ I R2
= µ0 .π r 2 − = 02 r 2 −
Q = CV (1 − e−t /τ ) after time interval 2τ . 3π R
2
4 3R 4
2 µ0 I R2 R
18. (d) q = Q0 cos ω t B= r − ⇒ At r = , B = 0
3π R 2 4r 2
dq
⇒ i=− = Q0ω sin ωt R
dt ∴ At r = filed is continuous.
2
C
⇒ ikax = CωV = V From the above expression as r increases B increases.
L
For r ≥ R B.2π r = µ 0 I
µ0 I 1
JEE Advance Paper -II ⇒ B= ∴B∝
2π r r
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
µ0 I
d c a b d a 9 6 2 2/3 ⇒ At r = R, B=
2π R
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18.
From inside expression at r = R
7 3 1 9 c a c d
2µ0 I R 2 µ0 I
1. (d) According to Lenz’s Law, current will be in ⇒ B= . R − =
3π R2 4R 2π R
anticlockwise sense as magnetic field is increasing into
the plane of paper. This proves the continuity in the graph at r = R. From the
above only correct option is (d).
44 Physics
6. (a) First we find the mutual inductance of the assembly.
2
11. (7) Here, m = 5 kg; r = = 1m ; I = ?
r 2
R Moment of inertia of the sphere about a tangent to the
7 7
I sphere, I = mr 2 = × 5 × 12 = 7kgm2 ⋅
5 5
Let current I flow through the larger loop.
12. (3) Here, l = 1 m, m = 0.5 kg, ω = 6 rad/sec
The strength of induction at the smaller loop
1 2 1 ml 2 2 1 0 ⋅ 5 × 12
µ0 IR2 KE = Iω = ω = × × 62 = 3 J ⋅
= 2 2 3 2 3
2( R 2 + d 2 )3 / d
13. (1) Here, L1 = I1ω1 , When ω2 = 2ω1 ,
µ0πIR 2 r 2
∴ Flux through smaller loop = 1 1
2( R 2 + d 2 )3 / 2 and KE = I 2ω22 = 2 I1ω12
2 2
µ0 R 2 r 2
∴ Mutual inductance = 1 1 1
2( R 2 + d 2 )3 / 2 I 2 (2ω1 ) 2 = 2 × I1ω12 ; I 2 = I1
2 2 2
µ 0πR 2 r 2 1 L
∴ Flux linked through coil = .i ∴ L2 = I 2ω2 = I1 × 2ω1 = I1ω1 = L1 ⇒ x = 2 = 1 ⋅
2( R 2 + d 2 ) 3 / 2 2 L1
4π × 10−7 × π × 10−2 × 9 × 10−6 × 2 14. (9) Let l1 be the length of closed pipe l2 = 36cm= length
=
2(4 ×10 −2 + 2.25 ×10−2 )3 / 2 of open pipe
=
16 10 × 18
× × (10 +3−15 ) = 9.1× 10 −11 weber Fundamental frequency of closed pipe n1 = υ
2 15.625 4l1
12 Frequency of first overtone of open pipe,
7. (9) 12
→ C + β− +γ −
B 6
υ υ υ
5
–Q → +Q
a. Zero
p
b. 1 V
c. 0.5 V
x
–Q +Q d. Cannot be determined from the given information
P
x →
17. Following figure shows an ac generator connected to a
x p "box" through a pair of terminals. The box contains
possible R, L, C or their combination, whose elements and
–Q →
p +Q arrangements are not known to us. Measurements outside
the box reveals that e = 75 sin(sin ωt ) volt, i = 1.5 sin
k. p 2kp
a. b. (ωt + 45°) amp, then, the wrong statement is
x3 x3
2 kp
c. Zero d. ~ ?
x3
13. The area of the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is A and
a. There must be a capacitor in the box
the distance between the plates is 10 mm. There are two
b. There must be an inductor in the box
dielectric sheets in it, one of dielectric constant 10 and
c. There must be a resistance in the box
thickness 6 mm and the other of dielectric constant 5 and
d. The power factor is 0.707
thickness 4 mm. The capacity of the capacitor is:
12 2 18. The focal length of a concave mirror is f and the distance
a. ε 0A b. ε 0 A from the object to the principle focus is x. The ratio of the
35 3
5000 size of the image to the size of the object is
c. ε0A d. 1500 ε 0 A f +x f
7 a. b.
14. If a magnet is suspended at an angle 30o to the magnetic f x
meridian, it makes an angle of 45o with the horizontal. The f f2
c. d.
real dip is x x2
Mock Test-4 47
19. The energy of incident photon is 12.375 eV while the 23. A sound wave of wavelength 32 cm enters the tube at S as
energy of scattered photon is 9.375 eV. Then the kinetic shown in the figure. Then the smallest radius r so that a
energy of recoil electron is minimum of sound is heard at detector D is.
a. 3 eV b. less than 3 eV
c. more than 3 eV d. 21.75 eV
r
20. In a transistor circuit shown here the base current is
S D
35 µA. The value of the resistor Rb is
E C a. 7cm b. 14 cm
c.21cm d. 28 cm
B
24. Three rods made of the same material and having the
Rb RL
9V same cross-section have been joined as shown in the
figure. Each rod is of the same length. The left and right
a. 123.5 kΩ b. 257 k Ω ends are kept at 0°C and 90ºC respectively. The
c. 380.05 k Ω d. None of these
temperature of junction of the three rods will be
SECTION 2 (Numeric Value Question) 90°C
c. 4 d. 4 5 c. 5 Ω d. 1 ohm
b. If A = – B; C = 2B, amplitude = | B 2 |
4
c. If A = B; C = 0 3
d. If A = B; C = 2B amplitude = |B| 2
5. Two coaxial solenoids of different radii carry current I in 1
2 3 4 5 6 7 8
the same direction. Let F1 be the magnetic force on the Years
Here dN(t)/dt is the rate of radioactive decay at time t. If
inner solenoid due to the outer one and F2 be the magnetic
the number of radioactive nuclei of this element decreases
force on the outer solenoid due to the inner one. Then: by a factor of p after 4.16 years, the value of p is
52 Physics
11. The activity of a freshly prepared radioactive sample is (D) If different masses have m1
10 10
disintegrations per second, whose mean life is same momentum, the ratio 4. m
2
3 3 16
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
c d b b c 6. (c) g ′ = g − Rω 2 (at equator)
R 2 cos θ
mg T=Mg Mg + mg However, the increase in potential energy ∆E p of the raised
Pulley is in equilibrium under four forces. Three forces as h
water column = mg , where m is the mass of the raised
shown in figure and the fourth, which is equal and 2
column of water.
opposite to the resultant of these three forces, is the force
∴ m = π r 2 hd
applied by the clamp on the pulley (say F).
gh π r h dg
2 2
λ P0 8
23. (b) Path difference (πr − 2r) = =
32
= 16 ⇒ P′ = ⇒ P′ + ρ gh = P0
2 2 54 − h
8 P0
2l l ⇒ + ρ gh = P0
54 − h
46 − h
2Y θ Y ⇒ ρ gh = P0 ( P0 = ρ g (76))
θ1 θ2 54 − h
16 (54-h)
⇒ r= = 14cm P0 P’
π−2 54 cm
24. (b) Let θ be the temperature of the junction (say B). h
Thermal resistance of all the three rods is equal. Rate of
heat flow through AB + Rate of heat flow through CB = 46 − h
⇒ h= (76) ⇒ 54h − h2 = 76 × 46 − 76h
Rate of heat flow through BD 54 − h
A
90°C ⇒ h2 − 130h + 76 × 46 = 0 ⇒ ( h − 38) ( h − 92) = 0
D B ⇒ h = 38,92 ⇒ h = 38cm
↓
0°C Not possible
90°C
4. (a) Pressure at 0 level is same from both sides.
C
90°− θ 90°− θ θ − 0
∴ + = , Here, R =Thermal resistance
R R R α
α
∴ 3θ = 180°, or θ = 60°C d
α
25. (c) Resistance ( 6 × 5) = 30 Ω and 6 Ω are in parallel; so
0
30 × 6
equivalent resistance R = =5Ω d1 (1 − sin α ) = d1 (1 − cos α ) + d 2 [cos α + sin α ]
30 + 6
JEE Advance Paper -I d1 sin α + cos α
⇒ =
d 2 cos α − sin α
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
b a a a c a,b,d 4 2 6 2
2ρw g
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 5. (c) R 2 , The downward force on the bubble due to
3T
6 6 4 2 d a d c
2π Tr 2
surface tension = 2πr.T sin θ =
1. (b) P1 = pressure just inside the bubble at the end R
4T R
2 = P0 +
R θ
2. (a) If water is half filled M shell g = ρ ( ∆V ) displaced g
V
⇒ ( ∆V ) = shell r
2 θ
δT
56 Physics
The upward buoyant force exceeds, the surface tension Amplitude R of resultant wave is
force then the bubble detaches. R = a 2 + b 2 + 2 ab cos φ
2ρw g
∴ 4 π R 3 ρ w g = 2π Tr ⇒ r = R 2
2
R 2 = a 2 + b2 + 2 ab cos φ
3 R 3T
As intensity ∝ (amplitude)2
6. (a, b, d) A 2dF Vg ∴ Resultant intensity, I R = I1 + I 2 + 2 I1 I 2 cos φ
7. (4) No. of photons emitted per second by 25 watt source 14. (2) See figure
Vd VR
will be
E Eλ 25 × (6600 ×10−10 ) 25 R
n= = = =
hc / λ hc (6.6 × 10−34 ) × (3 ×108 ) 3 × 10−19 I
−ω (ℓ + d cos 45°)iˆ
h h2 1
9. (6) As λ = or EK = or EK ∝ 2
2mEK 2 mλ 2
λ
2 2 −ω ℓiˆ
E K1 λ 0.5 1
∴ = 2 = =4 P d cos 45°
EK2 λ
1 1 As angular velocity of a rigid body about any point should
or EK1 = 4 EK1 = 4 × 2 eV == 88 eV
eV be same. v = vPC + vCO
Increase in energy = EK2 − EK1 = 8 − 2 = 6eV ⇒ vPO = rPC + ω '+ vCO
d ˆ ˆ d
h h −ω Liˆ = − (k + j ) × ω + − ω L + .45° iˆ
10. (2) L = 2 and L ' = 4 2 2 2
2π 2π
⇒ rp = ℓˆj
∴ L ' = 2 L = n L, where n = 2
d d
11. (6) As is clear from figure. E1 = E2 + E3 ⇒ rc = ℓ + cos 45° ˆj + sin 45° kˆ
2 2
hc hc hc
= + d d
λ1 λ2 λ3 ⇒ rPC = − cos 45° ˆj − sin 45° kˆ
2 2
1 1 1 1 1 1
∴ = − = − = = 6 units d
λ2 λ1 λ3 2 3 6 ⇒ vCO = − ℓ + cos 45° ωiˆ
2
12. (6) 3rd excited state means n = 4. No. of different ωd ˆ d ˆ
⇒ i =− (i + j ) × ω ' ⇒ ω ' = ω kˆ
n( n − 1) 4(4 − 1) 2 2 2 2
wavelength observed N = = =6
2 2
16. (a) V = ω ℓ 2 + r 2 TOP View
13. (4) Here, I1 = I
2V sin θ ω ℓ 2 + r 2 r
W = = =ω
I 2 = 2 I ,φ = 60° 2r ℓ + r2
r 2
Mock Test-4 57
Here there is a vrel of P′ and Q′ (not for P, Q) (vrel)P’Q’ will JEE Advance Paper -II
be in horizontal plane 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
c c a a,b,c a a,b 2 2 6 8
p1
ℓ+r 2 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18.
1 4 3 2 b b d d
θ θ ω0 ℓ 2 + r 2
ℓ2 + r2 F
θ 1. (c) F
0 R/ 2
4 A ℓ ℓ
F
= Y α∆T
v t
dr ⇒ P=
∫ R2
= ∫ ω dt . . .(i) A
r2 −
R/2 0
R ℓ1 ℓ
Assume: r = sec θ 3. (a) T = 2π , TM = 2π 2
2 g g
R ℓ1 ℓ
⇒ dr = sec θ tan θd θ T 2 = 4π 2 ⋅ , TM2 = 2π 2 2
2 g g
R
sec θ tan θd θ t TM2 ℓ 2
2 ⇒ = x
⇒ ∫ R2
= ∫ ω dt
0
T 2 ℓ1
tan θ
2
4 TM2 ℓ ℓ −ℓ
⇒ 2
−1 = 2 −1 = 2 1
2r T ℓ1 ℓ1
4r 2 − R 2
⇒ ω t = ℓn + Mg ℓ1
R R ⇒ γ= ⋅
A (ℓ 2 − ℓ 1 )
R ωt
⇒ r= [ e + e −ω t ]
A TM
2
4 1 A (ℓ 2 − ℓ1 )
⇒ = ⋅ = − 1
γ Mg ℓ1 Mg T
18. (c) Frot = Fin + 2m(vrot iˆ) × ωkˆ + m(ωkˆ × riˆ) × ωkˆ
A B C
mrω 2iˆ = Fin + 2 mvrotω ( − ˆj ) + mω 2 riˆ 4. (a, b, c) x = (1 − cos 2ωt ) + (1 + cos 2ωt ) + sin 2ωt
2 2 2
Fin = 2mvrω ˆj . . .(i) C
For A = 0, B = 0 x = sin 2ωt
R ωt −ωt ω (kˆ) y ( ˆj ) 2
r= e + e For A = − B and C = 2 B x = B cos 2ω t + B sin 2ω t
4
dr R Amplitude = | B 2 |
= vr = ωeωt − ωe−ωt r vr
dt 4 For A = B; C = 0 x=A
iˆ
Rω ωt −ωt ˆ Hence this is not correct option
Fin = 2m e − e ω j
4 For A = B, C = 2 B x = B + B sin 2ωt
Also reaction is due to disc surface then
It is also represents SHM.
mRω 2 ωt (a) Solenoid consists of circular current loops which are
Freaction = e − e −ωt ˆj + mgkˆ 5.
2 placed in uniform field, so magnetic fore on both
solenoids = 0.
58 Physics
– λt − λt
F1 12. (4) f = (1 − e ) = 1− e ≈ 1 − (1 − λ t ) = λ t
⇒ f = 0.04 . Hence % decay ≈ 4%
B=0
t
13. (3) A = 1
T
B2
A0 2
x x x x x x x x x x x x Where, A0 is the initial activity of the radioactive material
SECTION 1 (Multiple Choice Question) 5. A mass M is suspended from a spring of negligible mass.
The spring is pulled a little and then released, so that the
1. Frequency is the function of density ( ρ ) , length (a) and
mass executes SHM of time period T. If the mass is
surface tension (T ) . Then its value is
increased by m, the time period becomes 5T/3. The ratio
a. k ρ 1/ 2 a 3/ 2 / T b. k ρ 3/ 2 a 3/ 2 / T of m/M is
1/ 2 3/ 2
c. k ρ a / T
3/ 4 1/ 2 1/ 2
d. k ρ a / T
3/ 2 5 3 16 28
a. b. c. d.
3 5 9 9
2. With respect to a rectangular cartesian coordinate system, 6. The gravitational potential difference between the surface
r r
three vectors are expressed as: a = 4iˆ − ˆj , b = −3iˆ + 2 ˆj of a planet and a point 10 m above is 4.0 J/kg. The
r gravitational field in this region, assumed uniform is
and c = − kˆ where iˆ, ˆj , kˆ are unit vectors, along the X, Y
a. 0.025 N/kg b. 0.40 N/kg
and Z-axis respectively. The unit vectors r̂ along the c. 40 N/kg d. 4.0 N/kg
direction of sum of these vector is: 7. 1000 drops of water all of same size join together to form
1 ˆ ˆ ˆ 1 ˆ ˆ ˆ a single drop and the energy released raises the
a. rˆ = (i + j − k ) b. rˆ = (i + j − k )
3 2 temperature of the drop. Given the T is the surface tension
1 1 ˆ ˆ ˆ of water. r the radius of each small drop, ρ the density of
c. rˆ = (iˆ − ˆj + kˆ) d. rˆ = (i + j + k )
3 2 liquid, J the mechanical equivalent of heat. What is the
3. If W1 , W2 and W3 represent the work done in moving a rise in temperature?
a. T / Jr b. 10T / Jr
particle from A to B along three different paths 1, 2 and 3
respectively (as shown) in the gravitational field of a c. 100T / Jr d. None of these
point mass m. Find the correct relation between W1 , W2 8. A simple pendulum is made by attaching a 1 kg bob to
and W3 . 5 m long copper wire. Its period is T. now if 1 kg bob is
replaced by 10 kg bob, the period of oscillations:
B a. remains T
b. becomes greater than T
1 2 c. becomes less than T
3
d. any of above answer depends on locality
A
9. On which of the given scales of temperature, the temperature
a. W1 > W2 > W3 b. W1 = W2 = W3 is inverse negative?
c. W1 < W2 < W3 d. W2 > W1 > W3 a. Celsius b. Fahrenheit
4. The moment of inertia of a uniform rod of length 2l and c. Reaumur d. Kelvin
mass m about an axis xx′ passing through its center and 10. An ideal gas is initially at temperature T and volume V. Its
inclined at an angle α is: volume is increased by ∆V due to an increase in
x temperature ∆T , pressure remaining constant. The quantity
δ = ∆V / V ∆T varies with temperature is:
A α B
C
a. b.
x′
2 ml 2 T T
a. ml sin 2 α b. sin 2 α T T
3 12
ml 2 ml 2
c. cos 2 α d. cos 2 α c. d.
6 2
T T
T T
60 Physics
11. A lead ball moving with velocity V strikes a wall and µ0 M µ0 M
a. ( 2) 3 b. ( 3) 3
stops. If 50T of its energy is converted into heat, then 4π d 4π d
what will be the increases in temperature (specific heat of
2µ M µ0 M
lead is s)? c. 0 3 d. ( 5) 3
π d 4π d
2V 2 V2
a. b.
Js 4 Js 16. The figure shows four wire loops, with edge lengths of
2 2 either L or 2L. All four loops will move through a region
V s V s
c. d. of uniform magnetic field B (directed out of the page) at
J 2J
the same constant velocity. Rank the four loops according
12. The plots of intensity versus wavelength for three black to the maximum magnitude of the e.m.f. induced as they
bodies at temperatures T1 , T2 and T3 respectively are as move through the field, greatest first:
shown. Their temperatures are such that • • • • •
I • • • • •
T3 • • • • •
a b
T1 T2 • • • • •
c d
a. (ec = ed ) < (ea = eb ) b. (ec = ed ) > (ea = eb )
c. ec > ed > eb > ea d. ec < ed < eb < ea
λ
a. T1 > T2 > T3 b. T1 > T3 > T2 17. A resistance is connected to an AC source. The average
power dissipation in the resistance is
c. T2 > T3 > T1 d. T3 > T2 > T1
a. 50% of the peak power
13. The electric field in a region surrounding the origin is b. 25% of the peak power
uniform and along the x-axis. A small circle is drawn with c. 41.4% of the peak power
the centre at the origin cutting the axes at points A, B, C, D d. equal to peak power
having co-ordinates (a, 0), (0, a), (– a, 0), (0, – a); 18. When a point source of monochromatic light is at a
respectively as shown in figure then potential in minimum distance of 0.2 m from a photoelectric cell, the cut-off
at the point voltage and the saturation current are 0.6 V and 18 mA
→
B E respectively. If the same source is placed 0.6 m away from
the photoelectric cell, then
C a. the stopping potential will be 0.2 V
b. the stopping potential will be 0.6 V
D
c. the saturation current will be 6 mA
a. A b. B d. the saturation current will be 18 mA
c. C d. D
19. A beam of fast moving alpha particles were directed
14. A spherical capacitor consists of two concentric spherical towards a thin film of gold. The parts A ′, B ′ and C ′ of the
conductors of inner one of radius R1 maintained at
transmitted and reflected beams corresponding to the
potential V1 and the outer one of radius R2 at potential V2 . incident parts A, B and C of the beam, are shown in the
The potential centre ( R2 > x > R1 ) is: adjoining diagram. The number of alpha particles in
V1 − V2 V1 R1 ( R2 − x ) + V2 R2 ( x − R1 )
a. ( x − R1 ) b. B′
R2 − R1 ( R2 − R1 ) x B
A A′
Vx V +V
c. V1 + 2 d. 1 2 x C
R1 − R1 R2 + R1 C′
15. Two identical short bar magnets, each having magnetic a. B′ will be minimum and in C′ maximum
moment M, are placed a distance of 2d apart with axes b. A′ will be maximum and in B′ minimum
perpendicular to each other in a horizontal plane. The c. A′ will be minimum and in B′ maximum
magnetic induction at a point midway between them is d. C′ will be minimum and in B′ maximum
Mock Test-5 61
20. Energy released in the fission of a single 92 U 235
nucleus a. 1.29 km/sec b. 2.58 km/sec
c. 3.87 km/sec d. 5.16 km/sec
is 200 MeV. The fission rate of a 92 U 235 fuelled reactor
24. A battery of 10 cells each of e.m.f. E = 1.5 V, and internal
operating at a power level of 5W is
resistance 0.5Ω has 1 cell wrongly connected. It is being
a. 1 . 56 × 10 +10 s −1 b. 1 . 56 × 10 +11 s −1
charged by 220V power supply with an external resistance
c. 1 . 56 × 10 +16 s −1 d. 1 . 56 × 10 +17 s −1
of 47 Ω in series. The potential difference across the
SECTION 2 (Numeric Value Question) battery is:
21. A train of 150 m in length is going towards north direction a. 32 V b. 8 V
at a speed of 10 m/s. A parrot flies at a speed of 5 m/s c. 180 V d. 188 V
towards south direction parallel to the railway track. Then 25. A cell is connected between the points A and C of a
the time taken by the parrot to cross the train is equal to: circular conductor ABCD of centre O with angle
a. 12 sec b. 8 sec A OC = 60°. If B1 and B2 are the magnitudes of the
c. 10 sec d. 15 sec magnetic fields at O due to the currents in ABC and ADC
22. What is the maximum value of the force F such that the B
respectively, the ratio 1 is
block shown in the arrangement, does not move? B2
F m = 3 kg i1
1
60° µ= B
300o
2 3
O
a. 20 N b. 10 N 60o
c. 12 N d. 15 N A C
D
23. When an astronaut in a rocket reaches near the moon, he 1A i2
sends a radiowave of frequency 5000 MHz towards the
moon. He finds that the reflected wave from the moon has a. 0.2 b. 6
a frequency 86 kHz more than the real frequency. The c. 1 d. 5
velocity of the rocket with respect to the moon is:
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 24) 4. A 2µF capacitor is charged as shown in figure. The
MCQs with one or more than one correct answer percentage of its stored energy dissipated after the switch
S is turned to position 2 is
1. Given, 1 2
R1 = 1 Ω C1 = 2 µ
µFF s
R2 = 2 Ω C 2 = 4 µF
F
C1 V
2µF 8µF
C1 C2
R2 C2 R1 R2
R1 C1 C2 a. 0% b. 20% c. 75% d. 80%
V
R2
5. In the given circuit, a charge of +80 µF is given to the
+ V –
R2 V upper plate of the 4µF capacitor. Then in the steady state,
(I) (II) (III) the charge on the upper plate of the 3µF capacitor is.
The time constants (in µS) for the circuits I, II, III are
respectively +80 µC 4 µF
a. 18, 8 / 9, 4 b. 18, 4, 8 / 9
c. 4, 8 / 9, 18 d. 8 / 9, 18, 4 2 µF 3 µF
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 24) 4. Figure shows three resistor configurations R1, R2, and R3
MCQs with one or more than one correct answer connected to 3V battery. If the power dissipated by the
configuration R1, R2, and R3 is P1, P2, and P3, respectively,
1. A parallel plate capacitor has a dielectric slab of dielectric
then
constant K between its plates that covers 1/3 of the area of
1Ω 1Ω
its plates, as shown in the figure. The total capacitance of 1
1 +
the capacitor is C while that of the portion with dielectric + 1 1 3V
1 +
3V –
in between is C1. When the capacitor is charged, the plate 1 1 3V 1Ω 1Ω
– E2 –
area covered by the dielectric gets charge Q1 and the rest 1 1 1 1Ω
of the area gets charge Q2. The electric field in the
R1 R2 R3
dielectric is E1 and that in the other portion is E2. Choose
a. P1 > P2 > P3 b. P1 > P3 > P2
the correct option/options, ignoring edge effects.
E E 1 c. P2 > P1 > P3 d. P3 > P2 > P1
a. 1 = 1 b. 1 =
E2 E2 K 5. Incandescent bulbs are designed by keeping in mind that
Q 3 C 2+ K the resistance of their filament increases with the increase
c. 1 = d. =
Q2 K C1 K in temperature. If at room temperature, 100 W, 60 W and
40 W bulbs have filament resistances R100, R60 and R40,
2. A parallel plate capacitor having plates of area S and plate
respectively, the relation between these resistances is
separation d, has capacitance C1 in air. When two
1 1 1
dielectrics of different relative permittivities (ε1 = 2 and a. = + b. R100 = R40 + R60
R100 R40 R60
ε2 = 4) are introduced between the two plates as shown in
1 1 1
C2 c. R100 > R60 > R40 d. > >
the figure, the capacitance becomes C 2 . The ratio is R100 R60 R40
C1
d/2 6. To verify Ohm’s law, a student is provided with a test
resistor RT, a high resistance R1, a small resistance R2, two
identical galvanometers G1 and G2, and a variable voltage
S/2 source V. The correct circuit to carry out the experiment is
ε2
G1 G1
S/2
R2 R1
ε1 G2 G2
d a. RT R1 b. RT R2
a. 6/5 b. 5/3 c. 7/5 d. 7/3
3. Consider a cylindrical element as shown in the figure. V V
ℓ./ 2 ℓ./ 2
SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 24)
Numerical value answer type questions
a. Power loss in first half is four times the power loss in
second half 7. Image of an object approaching a convex mirror of radius
b. Voltage drop in first half is twice of voltage drop in of curvature 20 m along its optical axis is observed to
second half 25 50
move from m to m in 30 seconds. What is the
c. Current density in both halves are equal 3 7
d. Electric field in both halves is equal speed of the object in km per hour?
Mock Test-5 65
8. Water (with refractive index = 4/3) in a tank is 18 cm 12. A silver sphere of radius 1 cm and work function 4.7 eV is
7 suspended from an insulating thread in free space. It is
deep. Oil of refractive index lies on water making a
4 under continuous illumination of 200 nm wavelength
convex surface of radius of curvature ‘R = 6 cm’ as shown. light. As photoelectrons are emitted, the sphere gets
Consider oil to act as a thin lens. An object ‘S’ is placed charged and acquires a potential. The maximum number
24 cm above water surface. The location of its image is at of photoelectrons emitted from the sphere is A × 10 z
‘x’ cm above the bottom of the tank. Then ‘x’ is (where 1 < A < 10). The value of 'Z' is
S
R = 6 cm 13. A proton is fired from very far away towards a nucleus
µ = 1.0
with charge Q = 120 e, where e is the electronic charge. It
µ = 7/4 makes a closest approach of 10 fm to the nucleus. The de
Broglie wavelength (in units of fm) of the proton at its
µ = 4/3 start is: (take the proton mass,
1
9. Consider a concave mirror and a convex lens (refractive m p (5 / 3) × 10 −27 kg; h / e = 4.2 × 10−15 J .s / C; = 9 ×109
4πε 0
index = 1.5) of focal length 10 cm each, separated by a m / F ;1 fm = 10 −15 m)
distance of 50 cm in air (refractive index = 1) as shown in
the figure. An object is placed at a distance of 15 cm from 14. The work functions of silver and sodium are 4.6 eV and
the mirror. Its erect image formed by this combination has 2.3 eV, respectively. The ratio of the slope of the stopping
magnification M 1 . When the set-up is kept in a medium of potential versus frequency plot for silver to that of sodium
is
refractive index 7/6, the magnification becomes M 2 . The
M2 SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 12)
magnitude is
M1 Matching type questions with 4 options
3. (b) Gravitational field is a conservative force field. In a 9. (d) Zero Kelvin = –237 °C (absolute temperature). As no
conservative force field work done is path independent matter can attain this temperature, hence temperature can
∴ W1 = W2 = W 3 never be negative on Kelvin scale.
x =+ l
10. (c) For an ideal gas : pV = nRT
4. (a) The desired moment of inertia is I = ∫
x =− l
dI
For p = constant p ∆ V = nT ∆ T
+l
m ml 2 ∆V nR nR V
= ∫ dx ( x sin α ) =
2
sin 2 α ∴ = = =
∆T p nRT T
−l 2l 3 T
V
∆V 1 1
x sin α ∴ = or δ =
α V ∆T T T
•
x
Therefore, δ is inversely proportional to temperature T.
dx
i.e., when T increases, δ decreases and vice-versa.
Hence, δ − T graph will be a rectangular hyperbola as
shown in the above figure.
5. (c) m1 = M , T1 = T
1 1 2
5T 11. (b) ⋅ mv = J ms ∆∆θ
⇒ m2 = M + m, T2 = 2 2
3
v2
T1 2π m1 / K m1 M ⇒ ∆θ =
⇒ = = = 4 Js
T2 2π m2 / K m2 M +m
2 12. (b) Wien’s displacement law for a perfectly black body is
M + m T2 5T / 3 25
or, = = = λmT = constant = Wien’s constant b
M T1 T 9
Here, λm is the minimum wavelength corresponding to
m 16
⇒ = maximum intensity I.
M 9
68 Physics
1 19. (b) Because atom is hollow and whole mass of atom is
or λm ∝
T concentrated in a small centre called nucleus.
From the figure ( λm )1 < ( λm )3 < ( λm )2 Energy
20. (b) 200 MeV = 200 × 10 6 × 1 .6 × 10 −19 J
= 200
Therefore, T1 > T3 > T2 Fission
5
13. (a) In the direction of electric field, potential decreases. Fission rate = = 1 . 56 × 10 11 fission/sec.
200 MeV
14. (b) Let q1 and q2 be charges on inner and outer spherical
21. (c) Relative velocity of parrot and train
conductors.
= 10 + 5 = 15 m/s /
1 q1 q2
Then V1 = + . . .(i) s 150
4πε 0 R1 R2 ∴ Time = = = 10 s
v 15
1 q1 + q2
Also V2 = . . .(ii) 22. (a) Free body diagram (FBD) of the block (shown by a
4πε 0 R2
dot) is shown in figure. For vertical equilibrium of the
1 q1 q2 block
Then potential at point P, V = + . . .(iii)
4πε 0 x R2 N Vertical
3Ze
Iυ = 7.5mA = 7.5 × 10−3 A ⇒ d=
π R3
Eυ = ?
As resistance of coil is negligible, JEE Advance Paper-II
∴ Eυ = Iυ ( X L ) = Iυ ( 2π vL )
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
−3 0.2 a,d d b c d c 3 2 7 2
= 7.5 ×10 2π ×1000 × = 3V
π 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18.
Iυ1 3 7 7 1 a d c b
I0 / 2
12. (1) = =1
Iυ2 I0 / 2 1. (a, d) As E = V/d
Phase difference has no impact on virtual value of current. E1 / E2 = 1 (both parts have common potential difference)
eV,, λ = 200 nm.
13. (7) Here, r = 1 cm = 10 −2 m; φ0 = 4.7 eV Assume C0 be the capacitance without dielectric for
Let Vs be the stopping potential. According to Einstein’s whole capacitor.
photoelectric equation (using hc = 1240 eV nm), we have C 0 2C 0
⇒ k + =C
hc 1240eV 3 3
eVs − φ0 = − 4.7eV
λ 200nm C 2+k Q k
⇒ + ⇒ 1 + .
= 6.2eV − 4.7eV = 1.5eV = 1.5eV C1 k Q2 2
∴ Vs = 1.5
S
4ε 0
The sphere will stop emitting photoelectrons, when the
2. (d) C10 = 2 = 4ε 0 S
potential on its surface becomes 1.5 V. Let n be the no. of d /2 d
photoelectrons emitted from sphere. C10 C20
The charge on sphere, q = ne, Vs = 1.5V
Vs × r × 4πε 0 (1.5) × (10 −2 ) 1
∴ n= = −19
× = 1.05 × 107
e 1.6 × 10 (9 × 109 )
C30
As per questions, A × 10 Z = 1.05 × 10 7 or Z = 7
2ε 0 S ε S
⇒ C20 = , C30 0
hc hc d d
3eV0 0 =
14. (4) 3eV − φ0 and eV
eV00 = − φ0
λ 2λ 1 1 1 d 1
⇒ = + = 1 + 2
hc 1 hf hc
hc C10 C10 C10 2ε 0 S
'
2eV00 = 1 − =
or 2eV or = 4λ
λ 2 2λ eV
eV0 0
4ε 0 S
⇒ C10' =
If λ0 is the stopping wavelength, then eV
eV00 = hc / λ0 3d
hc 7ε 0 S
or λ0 = = 4λ ⇒ C2 = C30 + C10' =
eV0 3d
15. (a) Po C2 7
⇒ =
C1 3
Mock Test-5 71
R1 A1 4 M2 M m2 M ℓ 2
3. (b) = = So = =7
R2 A2 1 M1 M m1 M ℓ1
P1 I 2 R1 4
⇒ = =
P2 I 2 R2 1 3
10. (2) Snell’s Law on 1st surface: = n sin r1
V1 IR1 4 J 1 2
⇒ = = ⇒ 1 =
V2 IR2 1 J2 4 3
sin r1 = . . .(i)
2n
2
V
4. (c) P = 3 4n 2 − 3
R ⇒ cos r1 = 1 − =
4n 2 2n
⇒ R1 = 1 Ω, R2 = 1/ 2 Ω, R3 = 2 Ω
r1 + r2 = 60° . . .(ii)
∴ P2 > P1 > P3 nd
Snell’s Law on 2 surface: n sin r2 = sin θ
5. (d) Power ∝1/ R Using equation (i) and (ii) n sin(60° − r1 ) = sin θ
6. (c) G1 is acting as voltmeter and G 2 is acting as ammeter. 3 1
n cos r1 − sin r1 = sin θ
7. (3) For v1 =
50
m, u1 = −25m 2 2
7
⇒ v2 =
25
m, u2 = −50m
d 3
dn 4
( )
4n2 − 3 − 1 = cos θ
dθ
dn
3
25 18 For θ = 60 ° and n = 3
Speed of object = × = 3 kmph.
30 5 dθ
⇒ =2
7 dn
−1
7 1
8. (2) − = 4 1 2
4V1 −24 6 11. (3) mv = qV
2
⇒ V1 = 21 cm h
⇒ λ=
4/3 7/4 mv
⇒ − =0
V2 21 ⇒ λ = 8 ≃ 3.
⇒ V2 = 16 cm hc
12. (7) Stopping potential = −W
⇒ x = 18 − 16 = 2 cm λ
= 6.2 eV − 4.7 eV = 1.5 eV
9. (7) Image by mirror is formed at 30 cm from mirror at its
right and finally by the combination it is formed at 20 cm Kq
⇒ V = = 1.5
on right of the lens. So in air medium, magnification by r
7 1.5 × 10 −2
lens is unity. In second medium, µ = , focal length of ⇒ n= = 1.05 × 107
6 9 × 109 × 1.6 × 10 −19
the lens is given by, ⇒ Z =7
1 1 1 2 1 (120)e2
1 (1.5 − 1) − 13. (7) mv∞ = [By Conservation of energy]
10 = R1 R2 2 4πε 0 (10 fm)
1 1.5 1 1 Assuming the nucleus to be considerably massive, we can
− 1 −
f 7 / 6 R1 R2 disregard its motion.
∴ Let momentum of proton be p = mv∞
35
⇒ f = cm
2 p2 1 (120)e2
∴ =
So, in second medium, final image is formed at 140 cm to the 2m p 4πε 0 (10 × 10−15 )
right of the lens. Second medium does not change the
5 120 × e 2
magnification by mirror. ∴ p = 9 × 109 × 2 × × 10 −27 ×
3 10 −14
72 Physics
⇒ p = 30 × 120 × 10 9 − 27 +14
×e 2 Primers contain materials which make obtuse angle of
contact due to their surface tension and do not allow
∴ p = 3600 × 10 −4 × e 2 capillary rise of water in pours of bricks.
∴ p = 60 × 10 −2 × e Interstellar dust particles attract each other by
h 42 × 10−15 42 gravitational pull to build a star.
h
∴ λ= = = = × 10−15 m Oil has smaller surface tension than water and is lighter
p e × 60 × 105 60 × 10−2 6
than water so it spreads move over the surface of water to
∴ λ = 7fm decrease height of tides.
14. (1) Slope of graph is h/e = constant ⇒ 1 17. (c) A-1; B-2; C-3; D-4
15. (a) A→1, B→3, C→3, D→1,2,3 18. (b) A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1
A, C and D in case of concave mirror convex lens image F l Longitudinal stress
can be real, virtual, diminished magnified or of same size. Y= × = = Young’s modulus
A ∆l Longitudinal strain
B is case of convex mirror image is always virtual (for
F V Normal stress
real object) K= × = = Bulk modulus
A ∆V Volumetric strain
16. (d) A-3; B-4; C-2; D-1 = Volume elasticity
According to Bernoulli’s theorem the spinning of ball Lateral strain
along with horizontal throw will change the velocity of Poisson’s ratio =
Longitudinal strain
streamlines of air above and below the ball which will
∆D
change the pressure on ball above and below it which ∆D l
cause change in its direction of motion. This is called ⇒ σ= D = ×
∆l D ∆l
magnus effect. l
Mock Test-1
Test Booklet code 73
Important Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is strictly
prohibited.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer
Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of, Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30
questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct response.
6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 5 for correct response of each question. 1/4 (one
fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will
be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each question will be treated as
wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 6 above.
8. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/ marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer Sheet.
Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
9. No candidates is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.
10. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given at the
bottom of each page and at the end of the booklet.
11. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room / Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
12. The CODE for this Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet and also tally the serial
number of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet are the same as that on this booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate
should immediately report the matter to the invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
13. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
2. Sodium metal crystallizes in a body centred cubic lattice 8. Two Faraday of electricity is passed through a solution of
with a unit cell edge of 4.29 Å. The radius of sodium atom CuSO4. The mass of copper deposited at the cathode is:
is approximately a. 0 g b. 63.5 g
a. 1.86 Å b. 3.22 Å c. 2 g d. 127 g
c. 5.72 Å d. 0.93 Å 9. What is the half life period of a radioactive substance if
3. Which of the following is the energy of a possible excited 87.5% of any given amount of the substance disintegrates
state of hydrogen? in 40 minutes?
a. 13.6 eV b. 6.8 eV a. 160 min b. 10 min
c. 3.4 eV d. 6.8 eV c. 20 min d. 13 min 20 sec
10. 3 g of activated charcoal was added to 50 mL of acetic
4. The number of atoms in 100 g of an fcc crystal with
acid solution (0.06 N) in a flask. After an hour it was
–3
density =10.0 g cm and cell edge equal to 200 pm is filtered and the strength of the filtrate was found to be
equal to 0.042 N. The amount of acetic acid adsorbed (per gram of
a. 5 10 24 b. 5 10 25 c. 6 10 23 d. 2 10 25 charcoal) is :
5. The following reaction is performed at 298 K. a. 18 mg b. 36 mg
c. 42 mg d. 54 mg
2NO(g) O2 (g) 2NO2 (g)
11. The ionic radii (in Å) of N 3 , O 2 and F are respectively:
The standard free energy of formation of NO (g) is 86.6
a. 1.36, 1.40 and 1.71 b. 1.36, 1.71 and 1.40
kJ/mol at 298 K. What is the standard free energy of
c. 1.71, 1.40 and 1.36 d. 1.71, 1.36 and 1.40
formation of NO 2 (g) at 298 K? (Kp 1.6 10 )
12
12. In the context of the Hall-Heroult process for the
a. R(298) n (1.6 10 ) 86600
12 extraction of A , which of the following statements is
b. 86600 R(298) n (1.6 1012 ) false?
a. CO and CO 2 are produced in this process
n (1.6 1012 )
c. 86600 b. A 2 O3 is mixed with CaF2 which lowers the melting
R(298)
point of the mixture and brings conductivity
d. 0.5[2 86600 R(298) n (1.6 1012 )]
c. A 3 is reduced at the cathode to form A
6. The vapour pressure of acetone at 20C is 185 torr. When d. Na 3A F6 serves as the electrolyte
1.2 g of a non-volatile substance was dissolved in 100 g of
13. From the following statements regarding H 2 O 2 , choose
acetone at 20 C, its vapour pressure was 183 torr. The
the incorrect statement
molar mass (g mol–1) of the substance is:
a. It can act only as an oxidising agent
a. 32 b. 64 b. It decomposes on exposure to light
c. 128 d. 488 c. It has to be stored in plastic or wax lined glass bottles in
7. The standard Gibbs energy change at 300 K for the dark
d. It has to be kept away from dust
reaction 2A B C is 2494.2 J. At a given time, the
14. Which one of the following alkaline earth metal sulphates
composition of the reaction mixture is [A] 12 , [B] 2 and has its hydration enthalpy greater than its lattice enthalpy?
[C] 12 . The reaction proceeds in the: a. CaSO 4 b. BeSO 4
O O COOH
H CH3
|
N CH 3 a. b.
O CH3
H
| + H 2O CN
c. N CH 3
O O c.
d. H CH
3
N H 3CH 3COO CH3
25. Which polymer is used in the manufacture of paints and
H
| lacquers?
d. + H 2O
N CH 3 a. Bakelite b. Glyptal
c. Polypropene d. Poly vinyl chloride
O O
Mock Test-1 77
26. Which of the vitamins given below is water soluble? Assertion and Reason
a. Vitamin C b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E d. Vitamin K Note: Read the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully to mark
27. Which of the following compounds is not colored yellow? the correct option out of the options given below:
a. Zn 2 [Fe(CN)6 ] b. K 3 [Co(NO 2 )6 ] a. If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the
c. (NH 4 )3 [As(Mo3O10 ) 4 ] d. BaCrO 4 correct explanation of the assertion.
b. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
28. Match the statement of Column with those in Column II:
Column I Column II correct explanation of the assertion.
c. If assertion is true but reason is false.
(A) C12 H22 O11 H 2 O H 1. Pseudo first
order d. If the assertion and reason both are false.
C 6 H12 O 6 C 6 H12 O 6 e. If assertion is false but reason is true
(B) CH 3 COOC 2 H 5 HOH
2. Zero order 29. Assertion: Enthalpy and entropy of any elementary
H or OH
2. Section 1 contains 8 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer ranging from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
Marking Scheme: +4 for correct answer and 0 in all other cases.
3. Section 2 contains 10 multiple choice questions with one or more than one correct option.
Marking Scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –2 in all other cases.
4. Section 3 contains 2 “match the following” type questions and you will have to match entries in Column I with the entries
in Column II.
Marking Scheme: for each entry in Column I, +2 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and – 1 in all other cases.
NOTE: It’s the mock test as per previous year’s papers but sometimes IIT changes the test paper pattern and
marking scheme too.
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 32) 4. The total number of lone pairs of electrons in N 2 O 3 is
This section contains EIGHT questions.
5. For the octahedral complexes of Fe3 in SCN
The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER
ranging from 0 to 9, both inclusive. (thiocyanato-S) and in CN ligand environments, the
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct difference between the spin-only magnetic moments in
integer in the ORS. Bohr magnetons (When approximated to the nearest
Marking scheme: integer) is [Atomic number of Fe = 26]
+4 If the bubble corresponding to the answer is darkened.
0 In all other cases.
6. Among the triatomic molecules/ions, BeCl 2 , N 3 , N 2 O,
NO 2 , O 3 ,SCl 2 , ICl 2 , I3 and XeF2 , the total number of
1. If the freezing point of a 0.01 molal aqueous solution of a
linear molecule(s)/ion(s) where the hybridization of the
cobalt (III) chloride-ammonia complex (which behaves as
central atom does not have contribution from the d-
a strong electrolyte) is 0.0558C, the number of
orbital(s) is
chloride(s) in the coordination sphere of the complex is
[Atomic number: S = 16, Cl = 17, I = 53 and Xe = 54]
[ K f of water = 1.86 K kg mol–1]
2. The total number of stereoisomers that can exist for M is 7. Not considering the electronic spin, the degeneracy of the
H 3C CH 3 second excited state (n = 3) of H atom is 9, while the
degeneracy of the second excited state of H is
CH 3 P1 , V2 ,T2
CH 3 P1 , V2 ,T2
CH 3
a. H 3C b. H 3C
Br Br Thermal insulation
80 Chemistry
a. q 0 b. T2 T1 For each entry in Column I, darken the bubbles of all the
matching entries. For example, if entry (A) in Column I, matches
c. P2 V2 P1V1 d. P2 V2 P1V1
with entries (2), (3) and (4), then darken these three bubbles in the
17. Fe3 is reduced to Fe2 by using ORS. Similarly, for entries (B), (C) and (D).
a. H 2 O2 in presence of NaOH Marking scheme:
b. Na 2 O 2 in water For each entry in Column I
+2 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct match(es)
c. H 2 O2 in presence of H 2SO 4 is(are) darkened
d. Na 2 O 2 in presence of H 2SO 4 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened
–1 In all other cases
18. The % yield of ammonia as a function of time in the
reaction N 2 (g) 3H 2 (g) 2NH 3 (g), H 0 at (P, T1 ) 19. Different possible thermal decomposition pathways for
peroxyesters are shown below. Match each pathway from
is given below:
Column -I with an appropriate structure from Column –II is:
P
CO
R R O
T1 1
O Q
CO
R R O
O 1
% Yield T2 % Yield T1
(B) Pathway B 2. O
c. d. O
C6 H 5 O CH 3
time time
(C) Pathway C 3. O
O CH 3
SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 16)
C6 H5 CH 2 O
This section contains TWO questions. CH 2 C6 H5 CH 3
Each question contains two columns, Column I and Column II
Column I has four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D) (D) Pathway D 4. O
Column II has five entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5)
O CH 3
C6 H 5 O
Match the entries in Column I with the entries in Column II
C6 H5 CH 3
One or more entries in Column I may match with one or more
entries in Column II a. →1; B→3; C→4; D→2
The ORS contains a 4 5 matrix whose layout will be similar to b. →2; B→4; C→4; D→1
the one shown below: c. →1; B→1; C→2; D→4
(A) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) d. →3.; B→2; C→1; D→3
(B) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
20. Match the orbital overlap figures shown in Column -I with
(C) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
the description given in Column -II and select the correct
Mock Test-1 81
answer using the code given below the lists. 3. p-d bonding
(en H 2 NCH 2 CH 2 NH 2 ; atomic numbers : (C)
Ti 22, Cr 24, Co 27; Pt 78)
Column I Column II
4. d-d antibonding
1. p-d antibonding
(A) (D)
2. Section 1 contains 8 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer ranging from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
Marking Scheme: +4 for correct answer and 0 in all other cases.
3. Section 2 contains 8 multiple choice questions with one or more than one correct option.
Marking Scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –2 in all other cases.
4. Section 3 contains 2 “paragraph” type questions. Each paragraph describes an experiment, a situation or a problem. Two
multiple choice questions will be asked based on this paragraph. One or more than one option can be correct.
Marking Scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and – 2 in all other cases.
NOTE: It’s the mock test as per previous year’s papers but sometimes IIT changes the test paper pattern and
marking scheme too.
1. In dilute aqueous H 2SO 4 , the complex diaquodioxalato- 4. The crystal of a solid is square packing of identical
spheres in each layer and spheres of one layer are placed
ferrate (II) is oxidized by MnO −4 . For this reaction, the
just above the voids made by spheres in previous layer.
ratio of the rate of change of [H + ] to the rate of change of The packing efficiency of such crystal (in %) is
[MnO −4 ] is [π = 3.15, 2 = 1.4]
2. The number of hydroxyl group(s) in Q is
+
H aqueous dilute KMnO4 (excess)
H
heat
→P 0°C
→Q
HO
H3C CH3 5. Among the complex ions, [Co(NH 2 - CH 2 - CH 2 -NH2)2
3. Among the following, the number of reaction(s) that Cl 2 ]+ , [CrCl 2 (C 2 O 4 ) 2 ]3– , [Fe(H 2 O) 4 (OH) 2 ]+ , [Fe(NH3)2]
produce(s) benzaldehyde is
(CN) 4 ]− , [Co(NH 2 − CH 2 − CH 2 − NH 2 ) 2 (NH 3 )Cl]2 + and
15. Under hydrolytic conditions, the compounds used for ground state energy is :
preparation of linear polymer and for chain termination, a. 0.75 b. 1.50
respectively, are c. 2.25 d. 4.50
18. The orbital angular momentum quantum number of the
a. CH3SiCl3 and Si(CH 3 ) 4
state S2 is :
b. (CH3 ) 2 SiCl2 and (CH3 )3 SiCl
a. 0 b. 1
c. (CH3 ) 2 SiCl2 and (CH 3 )3 SiCl3 c. 2 d. 3
d. SiCl 4 and (CH3 )3 SiCl
Paragraph for Question No. 19 to 20
16. When O 2 is adsorbed on a metallic surface, electron In the following reactions
transfer occurs from the metal to O 2 . The TRUE Pd BaSO4
C8H 6 C8 H8 i. B2 H 2
X
H2 ii. H 2O2 . NaOH, H 2O
statement(s) regarding this adsorption is(are) H2O
a. O 2 is physisorbed HgSO 4 , H 2SO4
KMnO 2
SOCl2
H 3C O
Toluene Benzoic acid
N
sp
3 linear H Br
H 3 C — CH — C — CH 2 — CH 3
N 2 O
sp
linear
H Br
NO 2
sp
linear Optically inactive
O 3
sp 2
linear
(3) H 2 C C — C — CH 3
H 2 /Pt
SCl 2
sp 3
linear
H2C H Br H
I 3
sp 3 d
linear
H 3 C — C — C — CH3
ICl 2
sp 3 d
linear H2C H Br
XeF2
sp 3d
linear Optically inactive
So, among the following only four (4) has linear shape and no
d-orbital is involved in hybridization. (4) H2 C CH —C — CH2 —CH3
H /Pt
2
7. (3) Single electron species don’t follow the (n ) rule but H Br H3C — CH2 — C—CH2 —CH3
multi electron species do. H Br
Ground state of H 1s2 Optically inactive
M 3 2e E 0.25V
0
M
CH 3 CH 3
OH
G for the this reaction is
0
O O
H+ ,H2O/Δ
G nFE 2 ( 0.25) 96500 48250 J / mol
0 0
48.25 KJ/mol
So the number of moles of M oxidized using CH 3
12. (d) |
X Y will be H Br
H 2 C C — CH CH 2
193
4 moles
48.25
CH 3
|
9. (a, b, d) 6I ClO 6H 2SO4
3 H 3 C — C — CH CH 2
Cl 6HSO 4 3I 2 3H 2 O
H3C
: H3C
10. (b, d) C CH — CH2
Br
C CH — CH2 — Br
H3C H3C
CH 3
(1) H 3C — CH CH — C 13. (b, d) (a) H 3 BO 3 is a weak monobasic Lewis acid.
H Br CH 3 H3 BO3 H OH B(OH)4 H . . .(i)
H 3C — CH 2 — CH 2 — C
H 2 /Pt
(b) Equilibrium (i) is shifted in forward direction by the
H Br addition of syn-diols like ethylene glycol which forms a
Optically active stable complex with B(OH) 4 .
88 Chemistry
forward reaction would be greater than at lower temperature
H O that is why the percentage yield of NH3 too would be more
O H O H
H O initially.
B 19. (a) →1; B→3; C→4; D→2
O
H O O H
H O O
O H
(A) H5C6CH2 O CH3
–
O
O C6 H5 CH2 CO2 CH2O
B 4H 2 O O CH 3
O
O CH 3
O
(B) H 5 C6 CH 2 O
(stable complex) CH 2 C6 H 5
(c) It has a planar sheet like structure due to hydrogen
bonding. O
|
(d) H3BO3 is a weak electrolyte in water. C6 H5 — C H 2 CO2 Ph — CH 2 — C — CH3
|
14. (c) CH3
OH :OH
| |
H3C C O H3C C O
Ph — C H 2 CH3 — CO — CH3
CH —CH2 —CH
NaNO2 / HCl
CH —CH2 —HC
H3C
NH2
H3C
O CH 3
N N
O CH 3
H
H3C H3C
O (C) C6 H 5 O
CH —CH2 —CH —COOH
H2O
CH —CH2 —HC C== O C6 H 5
H3C H3C
OH
O
15. (a, b, c) OH |
I C6 H5 — CO 2 CH3 C — CH3
|
I2
Rxn (i)
CH3
CMe 3
OH OH
Ph CH 3 — CO — Ph CH 3
Br O
Br2
Rxn (ii)
O
CMe 3 CMe 3 C6 H 5 O CH 3
(D)
Br
OH C6 H 5 CO 2 CH 3O
C6 H 5 CO2
Cl Cl
20. (a)→2; B→3; C→1; D→4
Cl2
Rxn (iii)
CMe 3
Cl (A)
d-d bonding
16. (a, b, c) Since container is thermally insulated so, q = 0,
and it is a case of free expansion therefore W = 0 and
E 0. So, T1 T2 . Also, P1V1 P2 V2 . (B)
p-d bonding
3 2
17. (a, b) 2Fe H 2 O2 2OH 2Fe 2H2 O O2
Na 2 O2 H 2 O
H 2 O 2 NaOH
(C)
p-d antibonding
18. (b) N 2 (g) 2H 2 (g)
N 2 (g) 2H 2 (g) 2NH 3 (g); H 0
(D)
d-d antibonding
Increasing the temperature lowers equilibrium yield of
ammonia. However, at higher temperature the initial rate of
Mock Test-1 89
JEE Advance Paper-II 1
is shared in second layer
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 2
8 4 4 75 5 6 3 9 a a 1
Z 4 0.5 1
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 8
b a b,c c,d b b,c,d a b c d (2r 2 ) h2 x 2 fi h = 2r
Area = 4r 2 [ a 2 = (2r ) 2 fi a = 2r ]
1. (8) [Fe(C 2 O 4 )(H 2 O)]2 MnO 24 8H
Mn 2 Fe3 4CO 2 6H 2 O Vol 4r 2 2r 4 2r 3
4
So, the ratio of rate of change of 1 r 3
3
[H ] to that of rate of change of [MnO4 ] is 8. D 3
0.75 75%
4 2r 3 2
2. (4) 5. (5) [Co(en) 2 Cl 2 ]
will show cis-trans isomerism
[CrCl 2 (C 2 O 4 ) 2 ]3
will show cis-trans isomerism
H
H
[Fe(H 2 O) 4 (OH) 2 ]
will show cis-trans isomerism
+
HO [Fe(CN) 4 (NH 3 ) 2 ]
will show cis-trans isomerism
[Co(en) 2 (NH 3 )Cl]2
will show cis-trans isomerism
[Co(NH 3 ) 4 (H 2 O)Cl]2
will not show cis-trans
(P) isomerism (although it will show geometrical isomerism)
aqueous dilute KMnO4 6. (6) B 2 H 6 6MeOH 2B(OMe)3 6H 2
(excess) 0C
OH 1 mole of B2 H 6 reacts with 6 moles of MeOH to give 2
moles of B(OMe)3
3 moles of B2 H 6 will react with 18 moles of MeOH to
HO OH
HO (Q) give 6 moles of B(OMe)3 .
[H ] [X ]
3. (4) 7. (3) HX H X Ka
[HX]
CHO
I CO, HCl
[H ] [Y ]
Anhydrous AlCl3 / CuCl HY H Y Ka
[HY]
OH CH CH 3 CH3
CH 2 OH | |
2H 2 O H — O — Si — O — Si ——O — H
| |
CH 3 CH 3 n
H 3C
N
Me3SiCl, H 2 O
(S) CH 3 CH 3
Me | | Me
O
|| Me Si — O — Si — O — Si ——O — Si Me
H 3C C—H Me | | Me
CH 3 CH 3 n
..
CH 2 — CH — NH 2
|| 16. (b, c, d) * Adsorption of O 2 on metal surface is
OH
exothermic.
11. (b)
* During electron transfer from metal to O 2 electron
H3C — CH — CH3
occupies 2p
*
orbital of O2 .
CH3
| * Due to electron transfer to O 2 the bond order of O 2
C — CH3 decreases hence bond length increases.
O2
|
O
O For Question Nos. 17 to 18
U
CH H E1H 32 9
H 3C CH3 17. (c) E S1 2.25 E1H .
22 4
T
Mock Test-1 91
18. (b) S2 is 3p l = 1 O
||
For Question Nos. 19 to 20 C — CH3 CH2 CH2 OH
C8 H 6
double bond equivalent
6 (i) EtMgBr (X)
8 1 6 (ii) H 2 O
2
C CH CH CH2 OH CH 3
| |
H / heat
Ph — C — CH3 Ph — C CH — CH 3
| (Y)
(1) B2 H8 Et
HgSO 4 , H 2SO 4 , H 2O (2) H 2O 2 , NaOH, H 2O
19. (c)
20. (d)
92 Chemistry
JEE-MAIN: CHEMISTRY MOCK TEST-2
1. 2 g of oxygen contain same number of atoms as contained a. More cis-2-pentene is formed
by b. Equilibrium is shifted in the forward direction
a. 0.5 g hydrogen b. 4.0 g sulphur c. Equilibrium remains unaffected
c. 7.0 g nitrogen d. 2.3 g sodium d. Additional trans-2-pentene is formed
2. The axial angles in triclinic crystal system are 10. The dissociation constant of CH 3 COOH is 1.8 105.
a. 90 b. 90, 90
The hydrolysis constant for 0.1 M sodium acetate is
c. 90 d. 90
a. 5.56 10 4 b. 5.56 1010
3. A sample of drinking water was found to be severely c. 1.8 105 d. 1.8 109
contaminated with chloroform CHCl3 , supposed to be a
11. The half-life of a first order reaction having rate constant
carcinogen. The level of contamination was 15 ppm (by
mass). Determine the molality of chloroform in the water K 1.7 105 s 1 is
sample. a. 12.1 h b. 9.7 h
a. 2.12 104 mol kg 1 b. 1.26 10 4 mol kg 1 c. 11.3 h d. 1.8 h
c. 0.12 10 4 mol kg 1 d. 5.36 10 4 mol kg 1 12. Which characteristic is true in respect of colloidal particle
a. They always have two phases
4. The temperature at which hydrogen molecules will have b. They are only in liquid state
the same root mean square velocity as oxygen molecules c. They can't be electrolysed
have at 27C is d. They are only hydrophilic
a. 25C b. 7.93C
13. The heat of transition (H t ) of graphite into diamond
c. 248C d. 127C
would be, where
5. An electron makes a transition from orbit n = 4 to the C(graphite) O 2 (g)
CO2 (g); H x kJ
orbit n = 2 of a hydrogen atom. The wave number of the
emitted radiations (R = Rydberg's constant) will be C(diamond) C2 (g)
CO 2 (g) ; H y kJ
16 2R 3R 4R a. (x y) kJ mol 1 b. (x y) kJ mol 1
a. b. c. d.
3R 16 16 16 c. (y x) kJ mol 1 d. None of these
6. Select the compound in which chlorine is assigned the 14. All the nuclei from the initial element to the final element
oxidation number +5 constitute a series which is called
a. HClO 4 b. HClO 2 a. g-series b. b-series
c. HClO3 d. HCl c. b-g series d. Disintegration series
7. The molar conductivity is maximum for the solution of 15. The following compound will undergo electrophilic
concentration substitution more readily than benzene
a. 0.001 M b. 0.005 M a. Nitrobenzene b. Benzoic acid
c. 0.002 M d. 0.004 M c. Benzaldehyde d. Phenol
8. The number and type of bonds between two carbon atoms 16. Cis and trans 2-butene are
in calcium carbide are a. Conformational isomers
a. One sigma, one pi b. One sigma, two pi b. Optical isomers
c.Two sigma, one pi d. Two singma, two pi c. Position isomers
d. Geometrical isomers
9. The standard state gibbs free energy change for the given
17. Electrolysis of a concentrated solution of sodium fumarate
isomerization reaction cis-2-pentene trans-2-pentene gives
is –3.67 kJ / mol at 400K. If more trans-2-pentene is added a. Ethylene b. Ethane
to the reaction vessel, then c. Acetylene d. Vinyl alcohol
Mock Test-2 93
18. Identify X and Y in the following sequence 24. The correct statement in respect of protein haemoglobin is
C 2 H 5 Br
X
product
Y
C3 H 7 NH 2 that it
a. Acts as an oxygen carrier in the blood
a. X KCN, Y LiAlH 4
b. Forms antibodies and offers resistance to diseases
b. X KCN, Y H 3O c. Functions as a catalyst for biological reactions
c. X CH 3Cl, Y AlCl3 / HCl d. Maintains blood sugar level
d. X CH 3 NH 2 , Y HNO 2 25. Which one of the following is known as broad spectrum
antibiotics
19. Consider the following alcohols
a. Streptomycine b. Ampicillin
(i) 1-Phenyl-1-propanol c. Chloramphenicol d. Penicillin G
(ii) 3-Phenyl-1-propanol
26. The element or elements whose position is anomalous in
(iii) 1-Phenyl-2-propanol
the periodic table is
The correct sequence of increasing order of reactivity of
a. Halogens b. Fe, Co and Ni
these alcohol in their reaction with HBr is
a. (i), (ii), (iii) b. (ii), (i), (iii) c. Inert gases d. Hydrogen
c. (i), (iii), (ii) d. (ii), (iii), (i) 27. Flux added in the extraction of iron is
20. Reaction between diethyl cadmium and acetyl chloride a. Silica b. Felspar
leads to the formation of c. Limestone d. Flint
a. dimethyl ketone b. ethylmethyl ketone 28. The correct order of the increasing ionic character is
c. diethyl ketone d. acetaldehyde a. BeCl 2 MgCl 2 CaCl 2 BaCl 2
PV (liter-atm mol–1)
24.6 (Graph not to scale)
cm2, find out the no. of surface sites occupied per 23.1
21.6
molecule of N 2 . 20.1
6. Among PbS, CuS, HgS, MnS, Ag 2S, NiS, CoS, Bi 2S3 and 13. The first ionisation potential of Na is 5.1 eV. The value of
electron gain enthalpy of Na will be
SnS2 , the total number of black coloured sulphides is
a. –2.55 eV b. 5.1eV
7. 29.2% (w/w) HCl stock solution has a density of 1.25 g c. 10.2 eV d. 2.55 eV
1 1
mL . The molecular weight of HCl is 36.5 g mol . The
14. In a galvanic cell, the salt bridge
volume (mL) of stock solution required to prepare a 200 a. does not participate chemically in the cell reaction.
mL solution of 0.4 M HCl is b. stops the diffusion of ions from one electrode to another.
8. The maximum number of isomers (including c. is necessary for the occurrence of the cell reaction
d. ensures mixing of the two electrolytic solutions
stereoisomers) that are possible on monochlorination of
the following compound is
15. Stability of the species of Li2 , Li2 and Li2 increase in
CH 3 the order of
C a. Li 2 Li 2 Li 2 b. Li 2 Li 2 Li 2
CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 3 c. Li 2 Li 2 Li 2 d. Li 2 Li 2 Li 2
H
Mock Test-2 95
16. How many litres of water must be added to 1 litre of an (C) CO 2 (P 1 atm, T 273K) 3. P nRT
aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of 1 to create an
(D) Real gas with very large 4. P(V nb) nRT
aqueous solution with pH of 2?
molar volume
a. 0.1 L b. 0.9 L c. 2.0 L d. 9.0 L
a. A 2; B 3; C 2; D 1, 4
17. NiCl2 {P(C2 H 5 ) 2 (C6 H 5 )}2 exhibits temperature dependent
b. A 1, 3; B 1; C 2; D 4
magnetic behavior (paramagnetic / diamagnetic). The c. A 3; B 4; C 3, 4; D 1, 2
coordination geometries of Ni2+ in the paramagnetic and
d. A 1, 2; B 3; C 1, 2; D 1, 4
diamagnetic states are respectively.
a. tetrahedral and tetrahedral 20. The standard reduction potential data at 25ºC is given
b. square planar and square planar below:
c. tetrahedral and square planar E (Fe 3 , Fe 2 ) 0.77 V; E (Fe 2 , Fe) 0.44V
d. square planar and tetrahedral
E (Cu 2 , Cu) 0.34V; E (Cu , Cu) 0.52V
18. Four successive members of the first row transition elements
E[O 2 (g) 4H 4e
2H 2 O] 1.23V;
are listed below with atomic numbers. Which one of them is
expected to have the highest E 0M3 / M 2 value? E[O 2 (g) 2H 2 O 4e
4OH ] 0.40V
a. Cr(Z 24) b. Mn(Z 25) E (Cr 3 , Cr) 0.74V; E (Cr 2 , Cr) 0.91 V
c. Fe(Z 26) d. Co(Z 27) Match E of the redox pair in Column I with the values
given in Column II.
SECTION 3 Contains 2 Match The Following Type Questions Column I Column II
You will have to match entries in Column I with the entries in 3
(A) E (Fe , Fe) 1. – 0.18 V
Column II.
(B) E(4H 2 O 4 4OH ) 2. – 0.4 V
19. Match gases under specified conditions listed in Column-I
with their properties/laws in Column-II. (C) E(Cu 2 Cu
2Cu ) 3. – 0.04 V
Column I Column II (D) E (Cr 3 , Cr 2 ) 4. – 0.83 V
(A) Hydrogen gas (P 200 atm, 1. Compressibility
a. A 2; B 3; C 1; D 4
T 273K) factor 1
b. A 1; B 2; C 3; D 4
(B) Hydrogen gas (P 0, 2. Attractive forces
c. A 3; B 4 ; C 1; D 2
T 273K) are dominant
d. A 2; B 3; C 1; D 4
Space for rough work
96 Chemistry
JEE ADVANCE PAPER-II
SECTION 1 Contains 8 Questions.
10. Mixture(s) showing positive deviation from Raoult’s law
The answer to each question is a single digit integer ranging from 0 to at 35ºC is(are)
9 (both inclusive). a. carbon, tetrahedral + methanol
1. The maximum number of electrons that can have principal b. carbon disulphide + acetone
quantum number, n = 3, and spin quantum number, c. benzene + toluene
1 d. phenol + aniline
ms , is
2 11. For a gaseous state, if most probable speed is denoted by
2. The dissociation constant of a substituted benzoic acid at C*, average speed by C and mean square speed by C,
25ºC is 1.0 × 10–4. The pH of a 0.01M solution of its then for a large number of molecules the ratio of these
sodium salt is speeds are
3. The total number of cyclic structural as well as stereo a. C* : C : C 1.225 :1.128 :1
isomers possible for a compound with the molecular b. C* : C : C 1.128 :1.1225 :1
formula C5 H10 is c. C* : C : C 1:1.228 :1.225
d. C* : C : C 1:1.225 :1.128
4. To an evacuated vessel with movable piston under
external pressure of 1 atm, 0.1 mol of He and 1.0 mol. of 12. The species having bond order different from that in CO is
an unknown compound (vapour pressure 0.68 atm. At a. NO– b. NO+ c. CN– d. N2
0ºC) are introduced. Considering the ideal gas behaviour, 13. Which of the following is the wrong statement?
the total volume (in litre) of the gases at 0ºC is close to a. ONCF and ONO are not isoelectronic
5. The coordination number of Al in the crystalline state of b. O3 molecules is bent
AlCl3 is c. Ozone is violet–black in solid state
6. Among the following, the number of compounds than can d. Ozone is diamagnetic gas
react with PCl5 to give POCl3 is 14. The qualitative sketches I, II and III given below show the
variation of surface tension with molar concentration of
O 2 , CO 2 , SO 2 , H 2 O, H 2SO 4 , P4 O10
three different aqueous solutions of KCl, CH 3 OH and
7. If the freezing point of a 0.01 molal aqueous solution of a
CH 3 (CH 2 )11 OSO 3 Na at room temperature. The correct
cobalt (III) chloride-ammonia complex (which behaves as
assignment of the sketches is
a strong electrolyte) is –0.0558ºC, the number of
chloride(s) in the coordination sphere of the complex is
[Kf of water = 1.86 K kg mol–1] II
Surface tension
Surface tension
III
Surface tension
I
8. A student performs a titration with different burettes and
finds titre values of 25.2 mL, 25.25 mL and 25.0 mL. The
number of significant figures in the average titer value is
9. The correct statement(s) regarding defects in solids is(are) a. I : KCl II : CH 3 OH III : CH 3 (CH 2 )11 OSO 3 Na
a. Frenkel defect is usually favoured by a very small b. I : CH 3 (CH 2 )11 OSO 3 Na II : CH 3 OH III : KCl
difference in the sizes of cation and anion
c. I : KCl II : CH 3 (CH 2 )11 OSO 3 Na III : CH 3 OH
b. Frenkel defect is a dislocation defect
c. Trapping of an electron in the lattice leads to the d. I : CH 3 OH II : KCl III: CH 3 (CH 2 )11 OSO 3 Na
formation of F-centre 15. Using the data provided, calculate the multiple bond
d. Schottky defects have no effect on the physical energy (kJ mol–1) of CC bond in C2H2. That energy is
properties of solids (take the bond energy of a C—H bond as 350 kJ mol–1)
Mock Test-2 97
1 9
2C(s) + H 2 (g)
C 2 H 2 (g); H 225 kJ mol 3
18. The solubility product (K sp ; mol dm ) of MX2 at 298 K
2C(s)
2C(g) based on the information available for the given
H 1410 kJ mol 1 concentration cell is (take 2.303 × R × 298 / F = 0.059 V)
H 2 (g)
2H(g) a. 11015 b. 4 1015
H 330 kJ mol 1
c. 11012 d. 4 1012
a. 1165 b. 837
Paragraph for Question Nos. 19 to 20
c. 865 d. 815
Chemical reactions involve interaction of atoms and molecules.
16. A solution of (–)-1-chloro-1-phenylethane in toluene A large number of atoms/molecules (approximately
racemises slowly in the presence of a small amount of
6.023 10 23 ) are present in a few grams of any chemical
SbCl5 , due to the formation of
compound varying with their atomic/molecular masses. To
a. carbanion b. carbene
handle such large numbers conveniently, the mole concept was
c. carbocation d. free radical
introduced. This concept has implications in diverse areas such
SECTION 3 Contains 2 Paragraph Type Questions as analytical chemistry, biochemistry, electrochemistry and
Each paragraph describes an experiment, a situation or a problem. radiochemistry. The following example illustrates a typical
Two multiple choice questions will be asked based on this paragraph. case, involving chemical/electrochemical reaction, which
One or more than one option can be correct. requires a clear understanding of the mole concept.
Paragraph for Question No. 17 to 18 A 4.0 molar aqueous solution of NaCl is prepared and 500mL
of this solution is electrolysed. This leads to the evolution of
The electrochemical cell shown below is a concentration cell.
chlorine gas at one of the electrodes (atomic mass:
M|M 2 (saturated solution of sparingly soluble salt, Na 23, Hg 200, 1 Faraday 96500 coulombs)
2 3
MX 2 ) || M (0.001 mol dm ) | M. The emf of the cell depends
19. The total number of moles of chlorine gas evolved is
on the difference in concentration of M 2 ions at the two a. 0.5 b. 1.0
electrodes. The emf of the cell at 298 K is 0.059 V. c. 2.0 d. 3.0
17. The value of G (kJ mol 1 ) for the given cell is
20. If the cathode is a Hg electrode, the maximum weight (g)
(take 1 F = 96500 C mol 1 ) of amalgam formed from this solution is
a. –5.7 b. 5.7 a. 200 b. 225
c. 11.4 d. –11.4 c. 400 d. 446
8. (b) 1σ and 2π
6 ×1023 × 4
(2) = 7.5 ×1022
32 9. (a) Equilibrium shifts backward by Le-chatelier’s
principle.
6 ×1023 × 7
(3) = 1.5 × 1023
28 K w 1× 10−14
10. (b) K b = = = 5.56 × 10−10
6 ×10 × 2.3
23 K a 1.8 × 10−5
(4) = 6 ×1022
23
11. (c) K = 1.7 ×10−5 s−1
∴ The correct answer is (b).
0.693 0.693
t1/ 2 = = × 105 = 11.32h
2. (c) The axial angles in triclinic crystal system are different K 1.7
and none is perpendicular to any of the others i.e.,
12. (a) Dispersion medium and dispersed phase are phases of
α ≠ β ≠ γ ≠ 90°.
colloid.
3. (b) Level of contamination = 15 ppm
13. (b) Graphite → diamond ∆H t = ( x − y ) kJ mol −1 .
= 15 parts in 106 parts Mass % of CHCl3
14. (d) Definition of disintegration series.
15 15. (d) Phenol will undergo electrophilic substitution more
= 6 ×100 = 1.5 ×10−3
10 readily than benzene.
Thus, the water sample contains 16. (d) Cis and trans 2-butene are geometrical isomers.
1.5 ×10−3% (by mass) of CHCl3 CHCOONa CH
17. (c) || + 2H 2 O
Electrolysis
→ |||
15g CHCOONa CH
Amount of CHCl3 = = 0.126mol
119.5g mol−1 Acetylene
3 RT 3R × 300
=
2 32 (1) (2) (3)
Mock Test-2 99
CH 2CH 3 2. (0)
20. (b) Cd 2CH3COCl
CH 2CH 3
2CH3COCH 2CH3 CaCl2 Br
F F
13. (a) ONCF and ONO– are isoelectronic in nature. For Question Nos. 17 to 18
17. (d) G nFE cell
14. (d) Impurities affect surface tension appreciably. It is
2 96500 0.059
observed that impurities which tend to concentrate on
surface of liquids, compared to its bulk lower the surface 11.387 kJ mol1
tension. 11.4 kJ
Substances like detergents, soaps [CH 3 (CH 2 )11 SO 3 Na ] 0.0591 C
18. (b) E log10 3
decreases the surface tension sharply. 2 10
Those like alcohol (e.g., –CH 3 OH, C 2 H 5 OH) lower the 0.0591 C
0.059 log10 3
surface tension slightly. This can also be related to the fact 2 10
that CH 3 OH has smaller dielectric constant. Dielectric C
10 2 C [M 2 ] 10 5 M.
constant is directly proportional to surface tension. So, on 10 3
adding CH 3 OH in water, overall dielectric constant K sp [M 2 ] [X ]2 4s3 = 4(10 -5 )3 = 4 ¥ 10-15
decreases and surface tension decreases.
For Question Nos. 19 to 20
Inorganic impurities present in bulk of a liquid such as
19. (b) NaCl Na Cl
KCl tend to increase the surface tension of water.
At anode: 2Cl
Cl 2
15. (d) 2C(s) H 2 (g)
C 2 H 2 (g) (H C C H)
Moles of Cl 2 in 500 ml.
BE(H2) + BE(H2) + Hsub (C) – BE (C – H) × 2 +
Therefore 1 mole of Cl2 evolves.
BE(C C ) Hrxn
330 1410 [350 2 x] 225 x= 815 20. (d) Na—Hg (amalgam) formed = 2 moles at cathode.
Mock Test-3 103
JEE-MAIN: CHEMISTRY MOCK TEST-3
1. The volume of 1.0 g of hydrogen in litres at N.T.P. is 10. Ammonium cyanide is salt of NH4OH(Kb = 1.8 × 10–5)
a. 2.24 b. 22.4 c. 1.12 d. 11.2 and HCN (Kb = 4.0 × 10–10). The hydrolysis constant of
2. Which set of characteristics of ZnS crystal is correct? 0.1 M NH 4 CN at 25ºC is
a. Coordination number (4: 4) : ccp; Zn2+ ion in the alternate a. 1.4 b. 7.2 10 15
tetrahedral voids
b. Coordination number (6: 6); hcp; Zn2+ ion in all tetrahedral c. 7.2 101 d. 1.4 106
voids
11. For the reaction A + B C it is found that doubling the
c. Coordination number (6: 4) : hcp; Zn2+ ion in all octahedral
concentration of A increases the rate by 4 times, and
voids
doubling the concentration of B doubles the reaction rate.
d. Coordination number (4: 4); ccp; Zn2+ ion in all tetrahedral
voids What is the overall order of the reaction?
a. 4 b. 3/2
3. PtCl4.6H2O can exist as a hydrated complex. 1 molal
c. 3 d. 1
aqueous solution has depression in freezing point of 3.72º
Assume 100% ionisation and K f (H 2O) 1.86 mol1 kg, 12. The coagulation power of an electrolyte for arsenious
then complex is sulphide decreases in the order
a. [Pt(H2O)6 ]Cl4 b. [Pt(H 2 O) 4 Cl2 ]Cl 2 2H 2O a. Na + , Al+3 , Ba +2 b. PO 4-3 , SO 4-2 , Cl -
c. [Pt(H 2O)3 Cl3 ],Cl.3H 2O d. [Pt(H 2O 4 )Cl 4 ]4H 2 O c. Al+3 , Ba +2 , Na + d. None of these
4. A weather balloon filled with hydrogen gas at 1 atm and 13. Correct relationship between heat of fusion (H fus ), heat
27ºC has volume equal to 12000 litres. On ascending, it
of vaporisation (H vap ) and heat of sublimation (Hsub ) is
reaches a place where temperature is –23ºC and pressure
0.5 atm. The volume of the balloon is a. H fus H vap H sub
a. 24000 L b. 12000 L
b. H vap H fus H sub
c. 10000 L d. 20000 L
c. H sub H vap H fus
5. In Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, the lowest orbit
corresponds to d. H sub H vap H fus
a. Infinite energy b. The maximum energy
14. The number of neutrons in the parent nucleus which gives
c. The minimum energy d. Zero energy
N14 on - emission is
6. When KMnO 4 is reduced with oxalic acid in acidic
a. 7 b. 14 c. 6 d. 8
solution, the oxidation number of M n changes from
a. 7 to 4 b. 6 to 4 15. Which represents nucleophilic aromatic substitution
c. 7 to 2 d. 4 to 2 reaction?
7. The unit of molar conductivity is a. Reaction of benzene with Cl 2 in sunlight
a. –1cm–2 mol–1 b. cm–2 mol–1 b. Benzyl bromide hydrolysis
c. –1cm2 mol–1 d. cm2 mol–1 c. Reaction of NaOH with dinitrofluorobenzene
8. In a double bond connecting two atoms, there is a sharing of d. Sulphonation of benzene
a. 2 electrons b. 1 electron
16. Which one of the following is the chiral molecule?
c. 4 electrons d. All electrons
a. CH3Cl b. CH 2 Cl2
9. In a reversible reaction, the catalyst
c. CHBr3 d. CHClBrI
a. Increases the activation energy of the backward reaction
b. Increases the activation energy of the forward reaction 17. n-Propyl chloride and benzene react in the presence of
c. Decreases the activation energy of both, forward and anhydrous AlCl3 to form
backward reaction a. ethyl benzene b. methyl benzene
d. Decreases the activation energy of forward reaction
c. n-propyl benzene d. iso-propyl benzene
104 Chemistry
18. 1-chlorobutane reacts with alcoholic KOH to form 24. The waxes are long chain compounds of fatty acids, which
a. 1-butene b. 2-butane belong to the class of
c. 1-butanol d. 2-butanol a. Esters b. Ethers
19. An alcohol having molecular formula C5H11OH on c. Alcohols d. Acetic acid
dehydration gives an alkene, which on oxidation yield a 25. Which of the following is a local anaesthetic?
mixture of ketone and an acid. The alcohol is a. Diazepam b. Procaine
a. CH3CH2CH(OH)CH2CH3 b. CH 3CHCH 2 CH 2 CH 3 c. Mescaline d. None of these
|
OH 26. The electronic configuration of the element which is just
c. (CH3 )2 CHCH(OH)CH3 d. (CH3 )2 CCH2OH above the element with atomic number 43 in the same
periodic group is
20. m-chlorobenzaldehyde on reaction with conc. KOH at
a. 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 3d 5 4s 2
room temperature gives
a. potassium m-chlorobenzate and m-chlorobenzyl alcohol b. 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 3d10 4s 2 4p5
b. m-hydroxy benzaldehyde and m-chlorobenzyle alcohol c. 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 3d 6 4s1
c. m-chlorobenzyl alcohol and m-hydroxy benzyle alcohol
d. 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 3d10 4s1 4p 6
d. potassium m-chlorobenzoate and m-hydroxy bezaldehyde
21. Acetamide is treated separately with the following 27. Complex is formed in the extraction of
reagents. Which one of these would give methyl amine? a. Na b. Cu c. Ag d. Fe
a. PCl5 b. NaOH Br2 28. MgCl 2 .6H 2O when heated gives
c. Sodalime d. Hot conc. H 2SO 4 a. Magnesium oxychloride b. Magnesium dichloride
22. On treating aniline with nitrous acid and HCl at 0–5ºC c. Magnesium oxide d. Magnesium chloride
gives 29. Acidified potassium dichromate on reacting with a
a. An alcohol sulphite is reduced to
b. Diazonium salt a. CrO 2Cl2 b. CrO 24
c. Nitro aniline
c. Cr 3 d. Cr 2
d. Aniline hydrogen chloride
23. ‘Rayon’ is 30. In the extraction of which of the following, complex ion
a. Natural silk b. Artificial silk forms?
c. Natural plastic or rubber d. Synthetic plastic a. Cu b. Ag c. Fe d. Na
11. The given graphrepresents the variation of Z
H
H
heat
P
aqueous dilute KMnO4 (excess)
0C
Q PV
(compressibility factor ) versus P, for three real
HO nRT
H 3C CH3 gases A, B and C. Identify the only incorrect statement.
C
4. The total number of basic groups in the following form of A
A
lysine is Ideal gas
B
1
H 3 N CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 O C
CH C Z
B
H2 N O
0 P (atm)
5. In 1 L saturated solution of AgCl [Ksp(AgCl)=1.6×10–10],
0.1 mol of CuCl [K sp (CuCl) 1.0 106 ] is added. The a. For the gas A, a = 0 and its dependence on P is linear at
all pressure
resultant concentration of Ag in the solution is b. For the gas B, b = 0 and its dependence on P is linear at
x
1.6 10 . The value of “x” is all pressure
c. For the gas C, which is typical real gas for which
6. EDTA4– is ethylenediaminetetraacetate ion. The total
neither a nor b 0. By knowing the minima and the
number of N – Co – O bond angles in [Co(EDTA)1–]
complex ion is point of intersection, with Z = 1, a and b can be
calculated
7. Reaction of Br2 with Na2CO3 in aqueous solution gives
d. At high pressure, the slope is positive for all real gases
sodium bromide and sodium bromated with evolution of
CO2 gas. The number of sodium bromide molecules 12. For the reaction: I ClO3 H 2SO 4
Cl HSO 4 I 2
involved in the balanced chemical equation is The correct statement(s) in the balanced equation is/are
8. A decapeptide (Mol. Wt. 796) on complete hydrolysis a. Stoichiometric coefficient of HSO 4 is 6
gives glycine (Mol. Wt.75), alanine and phenylanine. b. Iodide is oxidised
Glycine contributes 47.0% to the total weight of the c. Sulphur is reduced
hydrolysed products. The number of glycine units present d. H2O is one of the products.
in the decapeptide is 13. The rate of a reaction doubles when its temperature
changes from 300 K to 310 K. Activation of such a
SECTION 2 Contains 10 Multiple Choice Questions reaction will be (R 8.314 JK 1 and log 2 0.301)
With one or more than one correct option
a. 53.6 kJ mol1 b. 48.6 kJ mol1
9. If the unit cell of a mineral has cubic close packed (ccp) array
c. 58.6 kJ mol1 d. 60.5 kJ mol1
of oxygen atoms with m fraction of octahedral holes
106 Chemistry
14. The freezing point (in ºC) of a solution containing 0.1 g of Match the following:
K3[Fe(CN)6](Mol. Wt. 329) in 100 g of water (Kf = 1.86K Column I Column II
kg mol–1) is (A) Vn/Kn = ? 1. 0
a. −2.3 × 10−2 b. −5.7 × 10−2 (B) If radius of nth orbit 2. –1
c. −5.7 × 10−3 d. −1.2 × 10−2 x
∝E ,x=?
n
15. The carboxyl functional group (—COOH) is present in (C) Angular momentum in 3. –2
a. picric acid b. barbituric acid lowest orbital
c. ascorbic acid d. aspirin 1 4. 1
(D) ∝ Zy , y = ?
16. Which compound would give 5-keto-2-methyl hexanal rn
upon ozonolysis? a. A → 3 ; B → 2 ; C → 1 ; D → 4
CH3 b. A → 1 ; B → 2 ; C → 3 ; D → 4
CH3 c. A → 4 ; B → 2 ; C → 1 ; D → 3
a. b.
CH3 d. A → 3 ; B → 4 ; C → 1 ; D → 2
CH3 20. An aqueous solution of X is added slowly to an aqueous
CH3 solution of Y as shown in Column - I. The variation in
CH3
conductivity of these reactions in Column - II.
c. d. H 3C
Column I Column II
CH3
(A) (C 2 H 5 )3 N + CH 3 COOH 1. Conductivity
X Y
decreases and
17. For the process H 2 O(l)
→ H 2 O(g) at T=100ºC and 1
then increases
atmosphere pressure, the correct choice is
(B) KI(0.1M)+ AgNO3 (0.01 M) 2. Conductivity
a. ∆Ssystem > 0 and ∆Ssurrounding > 0 X Y
decreases and
b. ∆Ssystem > 0 and ∆Ssurrounding < 0 then does not
c. ∆Ssystem < 0 and ∆Ssurrounding > 0 change much
(C) CH 3 COOH + KOH 3. Conductivity
d. ∆Ssystem < 0 and ∆Ssurrounding < 0 X Y
increases and
18. Which of the following exists as covalent crystals in the then does not
solid state? change much
a. Iodine b. Silicon (D) NaOH + HI 4. Conductivity
X Y
c. Sulphur d. Phosphorus does not
change much
SECTION 3 Contains 2 Match The Following Type Questions
and then
You will have to match entries in Column I with the entries in increases
Column II.
a. A → 1 ; B → 2 ; C → 3 ; D → 4
19. According to Bohr’s theory,
b. A → 2 ; B → 4 ; C → 3 ; D → 1
E n = Total energy K n = Kinetic energy
c. A → 3 ; B → 4 ; C → 2 ; D → 1
Vn = Potential energy rn = Radius of nth orbit
d. A → 3 ; B → 4 ; D → 1 ; D → 2
Space for rough work
Mock Test-3 107
JEE ADVANCE PAPER-II
SECTION 1 Contains 8 Questions a. The number of the nearest neighbours of an atom
The answer to each question is a single digit integer ranging from 0 to present in the topmost layer is 12
9 (both inclusive). b. The efficiency of atom packing is 74%
1. Amongst the following, the total number of compounds c. The number of octahedral and tetrahedral voids per
whose aqueous solution turns red litmus paper blue is atom are 1 and 2, respectively
KCN K 2SO 4 (NH 4 ) 2 C 2O 4 d. The unit cell edge length is 2 2 times the radius of the
NaCl Zn(NO3 ) 2 FeCl3 atom
K 2CO3 NH 4 NO3 LiCN 10. The standard Gibbs energy change at 300 K for the
2. When the following aldohexose exists in its D– reaction 2A B C is 2494.2 J. At a given time, the
configuration, the total number of stereoisomers in its composition of the reaction mixture is [A] 12 , [B] 2 and
pyranose form is
[C] 12 . The reaction proceeds in the:
CHO
| [ R 8.314 J / K / mol, e 2718 ]
CH 2
| a. forward direction because Q K c
CHOH
| b. reverse direction because Q K c
CHOH
| c. forward direction because Q K c
CHOH d. reverse direction because Q K c
|
CH 2 OH 11. A compound MpXq has cubic close packing (ccp)
3. The number of resonance structures for N is arrangement of X. Its unit cell structure is shown below.
The empirical formula of the compound is
4. The concentration of R in the reaction RP was
measured as a function of time and the following data is
obtained:
[R] (molar) 1.0 0.75 0.40 0.10 M=
X=
t (min). 0.0 0.05 0.12 0.18
The order of the reaction is
5. The oxidation number of Mn in the product of alkaline
oxidative fusion of MnO2 is
a. MX b. MX 2
6. The total number of diprotic acids among the following is
H 3 PO 4 H 2SO 4 H 3 PO 3 H 2CO3 H 2S2 O 7 c. M 2 X d. M 5 X14
H3BO3 H 3 PO 2 H 2 CrO 4 H 2SO 3 12. Which of the following is the energy of a possible excited
7. The number of neutrons emitted when 235
U undergoes state of hydrogen?
92
142 90
a. 13.6 eV b. 6.8 eV
controlled nuclear fission to 54 Xe and 38 Sr is
c. 3.4 eV d. 6.8 eV
8. In dilute aqueous H 2SO 4 , the complex diaquodioxa-
13. Assuming 2s-2p mixing is not operative, the paramagnetic
latoferrate (II) is oxidised by MnO 4 . For this reaction,
species among the following is
the ratio of the rate of change of [H ] to the rate of a. Be2 b. B2
change of [MnO 4 ] is c. C2 d. N2+
14. In allene(C3H4), the type(s) of hybridization of the carbon
SECTION 2 Contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions
atoms is (are)
With one or more than one correct option
a. sp and sp3 b. sp and sp 2
9. The correct statement(s) for cubic close packed (cep) three
dimensional structure is (are) c. only sp 2 d. sp 2 and sp3
108 Chemistry
15. Isomers of hexane, based on their branching, can be L = 24 cm
divided into three distinct classes as shown in the figure
and
17. The value of d in cm (shown in the figure), as estimated
II.
from Graham’s law, is
a. 8 b. 12 c. 16 d. 20
II. 18. The experimental value of d is found to be smaller than
the estimate obtained using Graham’s law. This is due to
The correct order of their boiling point is a. larger mean free path for X as compared to that of Y
a. I > II > III b. III > II > I b. larger mean free path for Y as compared to that of X
c. II > III > I d. III > I > II c. increased collision frequency of Y with the inert gas as
CH3 compared to that of X with the inert gas
d. increased collision frequency of X with the inert gas as
N (isomeric products)
Cl 2 , h v
compared to that of Y with the inert gas
16. H3C
CH3 Paragraph for Question Nos. 19 to 20
C5H11Cl
fractional distillation
M(isomeric products) When 100 mL of 1.0 M HCl was mixed with 100 mL of 1.0 M
What are N and M ? NaOH in an insulated beaker at constant pressure, a
a. 6, 6 b. 6, 4 temperature increase of 5.7ºC was measured for the beaker and
c. 4, 4 d. 3, 3 its contents (Expt. 1). Because the enthalpy of neutralization of
SECTION 3 Contains 2 Paragraph Type Questions a strong acid with a strong base is a constant (–57.0 kJ mol 1 ),
Each paragraph describes an experiment, a situation or a problem. this experiment could be used to measure the calorimeter
Two multiple choice questions will be asked based on this paragraph. constant. In a second experiment (Expt. 2), 100 mL of 2.0 M
One or more than one option can be correct. acetic acid (K a 2.0 10 5 ) was mixed with 100 mL of 1.0 M
Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 18 NaOH (under identical conditions to Expt. 1) where a
X and Y are two volatile liquids with molar weights of 10g temperature rise of 5.6C was measured. (Consider heat
mol–1 and 40g mol–1 respectively. Two cotton plugs, one capacity of all solutions as 4.2 J g 1 K 1 and density of all
soaked in X and the other soaked in Y, are simultaneously
solutions as 1.0 g mL1 )
placed at the ends of a tube of length L = 24 cm, as shown in
the figure. The tube is filled with an inert gas at 1 atmosphere 19. Enthalpy of dissociation (in kJ mol 1 ) of acetic acid
pressure and a temperature of 300 K. Vapours of X and Y react obtained from the Expt. 2 is
to form a product which is first observed at a distance d cm a. 1.0 b. 10.0 c. 24.5 d. 51.4
from the plug soaked in X. Take X and Y to have equal 20. The pH of the solution after Expt. 2 is
molecular diameters and assume ideal behaviour for the inert a. 2.8 b. 4.7 c. 5.0 d. 7.0
gas and the two vapours.
Space for rough work
Mock Test-3 109
ANSWER & SOLUTIONS 8. (c) In a double bond connecting two atoms sharing of 4
JEE-Main electrons take place as in H2C = CH2.
1
7. (c) Molar conductivity = CH 3 — CH — CH — CH 3 Dehydration
ρM 19. (c) | | →
So, its unit will be Ω–1cm2 mol–1 CH 3 OH
110 Chemistry
CH 3 — C CH — CH 3 Oxidation
CH 3 — C O 28. (c) MgCl 2 .6H 2O heat
MgO 5H 2O 2HCl
| |
CH 3 CH 3
29. (c) Cr2 O72 8H 2SO32
2Cr 3 3SO24 4H 2O
O C — CH 3
| 30. (b) Ag 2S 4NaCN 2Na Ag CN 2 Na 2S
OH
Sodium dicyno argentate
20. (a)
2Na [Ag(CN) 2 ] Zn
Na 2 [Zn (CN) 4 ] 2Ag
Cl Cl Cl Sodium tetracynozincate (ppt)
KOH
JEE Advance Paper-I
CHO COOK CH2OH 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Cannizzaro's
reaction 3 8 4 2 7 8 5 6 a a
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
O O
|| | b a, b, d a a d b b b a c
Ph — C — H HO
Ph — C — H
| [H ][X ]
OH 1. (3) HX H X Ka
[HX]
I
O [H ][Y ]
HY H Y Ka
|| [HY]
21. (b) CH 3 — C — NH 2 Br2 NaOH
CH 3 NH 2
m for HX m1 m for HY m2
“Hofmann’s bromamide reaction”
1
22. (d) m1 m Ka C 2
NH2 N 2 Cl 10 2
2 2
m m
HONO
HCl
Ka1 C1 0 1 Ka 2 C2 0 2
m1 m2
2
NH2 Ka1 C1 m1
Ka 2 C2 m 2
ææ
Æ O O
2
0.01 1
0.001 pKa1 pKa 2 3
23. (b) ‘Rayon’ is man-made fibre which consists of purified 0.1 10
cellulose in the form of long threads. Rayon resembles 6 2
2. (8) 92 U 238 80 X 214 82 Pb 214
silk in appearance. Hence called as artificial silk.
(6 , 2 ), total 8 particles.
24. (a) Waxes are esters of higher fatty acids.
25. (b) The anaesthetics produce temporary insensitibility to 3. (4)
the vital function of all type of cells, specially of nervous
H
H
system and are used during surgical operations. +
These are classified as HO
(a) General anasthetic – produces unconsciousness all over
the body e.g. N 2 O, Cyclopropane, chloroform
(b) Local anasthetic – affect only the part of body e.g.
(P)
Xylocaine, Procain etc.
aqueous dilute KMnO4
(excess) 0C
26. (a) 25 Mn 3d 4s .
5 2
OH
27. (c) Hydrometallurgy
Ag 2S 4NaCN
2Na[Ag(CN)2 ] Na 2S HO OH
2Na[Ag(CN)2 ] Zn
Na 2 [Zn(CN)4 ] 2Ag HO (Q)
Mock Test-3 111
O 10. (a)
||
(2) —C — O and — NH 2 are basic groups in lysine.
4. 11. (b)
5. (7) Let the solubility of AgCl is x mol litre 1 12. (a, b, d) ClO3 6I 6H 2SO4
AgCl Ag Cl and that of CuCl is y mol litre 1 3I2 Cl 6HSO4 3H 2O
x x
CuCl Cu Cl Ea T2 T1
y y 13. (a) 0.3010
2.303R T1T2
K sp of AgCl [Ag ] [Cl1 ]
Ea 310 300
0.3010
1.6 1010 x(x y) . . .(i) 2.303 8.314 10 3 310 300
Similarly K sp of CuCl [Cu ] [Cl ] E a 53.6 kJ mol
1.6 106 y(x y) . . .(ii) 3K [Fe(CN)6 ]3 , i 4
14. (a) K 3 [Fe(CN)6 ]
On solving (i) and (ii) [Ag ] 1.6 107 m 1000 0.1 1000
Tf K f i 1.86 4
x7 M W 329 100
6. (8) Total no. of N – Co – O bond angles is 8.
2.3 102 fi Tf 2.3 102
O
15. (d) O
||
O O — C — CH 3
O
COOH
N O
Co (Aspirin)
N O
16. (b) CH 3 CH 3
O O
O
O3
Zn / H 2 O
CHO
O
CH 3 CH 3
5-keto-2-methyl hexanal
7. (5) 3Br2 3CO32
5Br BrO3 3CO 2
17. (b) At 100C and 1 atmosphere pressure
8. (6) Let number of glycine units n
Mass of decaeptide = 796 H 2 O( ) H 2 O(g) is at equilibrium. For equilibrium
Mass of H 2 O needed = 162 g, Total mass = 958 g Stotal 0 and Ssystem Ssurrounding 0
47 Ssystem 0 and Ssurrounding 0
958 75 n
100
18. (b) Silicon exists as covalent crystal in the solid state.
958 47
n 6 19. (a) A 3; B 2; C 1; D 4
100 75
9. (a) In ccp lattice: 20. (c) A 3; B 4; C 2; D 1
Number of O atoms
4 (A) (C 2 H 5 )3 NH CH 3 COO
(C 2 H 5 )3 N CH 3 COOH
X Y
1 1
HO 11. (b) X : 8 × + 6 × =4
→NNaOH 8 2
1
N is M= × 4 + 1 = 2; M 2 X 4 = MX 2
4
O–
12. (c) Energy in 1st excited state = −3.4 eV
1 2 3
x
2p 0
(diamagnetic)
y
O O– O (diamagnetic)
2 π 2p π *2p 1 0
(c) C2 → σ 1s , σ *1s , σ 2s , σ * 2s , σ 2p z , π 2p1x , π *2p0x , σ * 2p z (param
2 2 2 2 0
y y
4 5 6
π 2p1x π *2p 0x
σ 1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ 2s 2 , σO* 2s 2 , σ 2p z2 , , σ * 2p 0z (paramagnetic)
–
O C2 O ,
π 2p1y π *2p 0y
7 8 9
(d) N 2 → σ 1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ 2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ 2p z2 , π ,π , σ * 2p 0z (diam
π π
, σ *1s 2 , σ 2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ 2p z2 , ππ 22 pp x2 , π *2 p 0x
2
4.(5) From two data, (forNzero order
σ 1s kinetics)
2
, σ * 2p 0z (diamagnetic)
2 π *2 p 0y
x 0.25 y
KI = = =5
t 0.05 H H
x 0.60 14. (b) C == C == C (allene)
⇒ K II = = =5 H sp 2 sp sp 2 H
t 0.12
Mock Test-3 113
15. (b) III > II > I More the branching in an alkane, lesser Energy evolved due to neutralization of HCl and NaOH
will be the surface area, lesser will be the boiling point. 0.1 57 5.7 kJ 5700 Joule
CH3 CH3 Energy used to increase temperature of solution
16. (b)
Cl 200 4.2 5.7 4788 Joule
* *
H3C H3C
CH3 Energy used to increase temperature of calorimeter
CH3 1,d
1,d 5700 4788 912 Joule
CH3 CH3
ms. t 912
CH3 m.s 5.7 912
H3C Cl H3C
CH2Cl ms 160 Joule / C [Calorimeter constant]
Md, 1 cannot be separated by fractional distillation. Energy evolved by neutralization of CH 3COOH and
For Question Nos. 17 to 18 NaOH 200 4.2 5.6 160 5.6 5600 Joule
rX d 40 So energy used in dissociation of 0.1 mole
17. (c) 2
rY 24 d 10 CH 3COOH 5700 5600 100 Joule
d 48 2d Enthalpy of dissociation 1 kJ / mole
3d 48 1100 1
d 16 cm 20. (b) CH3COOH
200 2
18. (d) As the collision frequency increases then molecular 1100 1
CH3CONa
speed decreases than that expected. 200 2
[salt]
For Question Nos. 19 to 20 pH pK a log
[acid]
19. (a) HCl NaOH
NaCl H 2O
1/ 2
n 100 1 100 m mole 0.1 mole pH 5 log 2 log pH= 4.7
1/ 2
114 Chemistry
JEE-MAIN: CHEMISTRY MOCK TEST-4
1. The number of moles of SO 2 Cl2 in 13.5 g is a. 1.0 104 b. 1.0 1010
a. 0.1 b. 0.2 c. 1.0 1010 d. 1.0 1014
c. 0.3 d. 0.4 11. According to Arrhenius theory, the activation energy is
2. Arrangement of sulphide ions in zinc blende is a. The energy it should possess so that it can enter into an
a. simple cubic b. hcp effective collision
c. bcc d. fcc b. The energy which the molecule should possess in order
to undergo reaction
3. A pressure cooker reduces cooking is increased
c. The energy it has to acquire further so that it can enter
a. Heat is more evenly distributed
into a effective collison
b. Boiling point of water inside the cooker is increased
d. The energy gained by the molecules on colliding with
c. The high pressure tenderizes the food another molecule
d. All of the above
12. Which of the following is property of colloid?
4. Two flasks of equal volume contains SO 2 and CO 2 a. Scattering of light b. They show attraction
respectively at 25 C and 2 atm pressure. Which of the c. Dialysis d. Emulsion
following is equal in them ? 13. Which of the following is an example of endothermic
a. masses of the two gas b. number of molecules reaction?
c. rates of effusion d. molecular structure a. C 2 H 2 2H 2
C 2 H 6 ; E 314.0 kJ
5. The ratio of the kinetic energy to the total energy of an
b. C O 2
CO 2 ; E 393.5kJ
electron in a Bohr orbit is
a. –1 b. 2 c. N 2 O 2
2NO; E 180.5kJ
c. 1 : 2 d. None of these d. 2H 2 O 2
2H 2 O; E 571.8 kJ
6. Oxygen has oxidation states of +2 in the 14. The nuclear binding energy for Ar (39.962384 amu) is:
a. H2O2 b. CO 2 (given mass of proton and neutron are 1.007825 amu and
c. H 2 O d. OF2 1.008665 amu respectively)
a. 343.81 MeV b. 0.369096 MeV
7. Given l / a 0.5 cm 1 , R 50 ohm, N 1.0. The equivalent
c. 931 MeV d. None of these
conductance of the electrolytic cell is
15. Which is an electrophile?
a. 10 ohm 1 cm 2 gm eq 1 b. 20 ohm 1 cm 2 gm eq 1
a. AlCl3 b. CN c. NH 3 d. CH 3OH
c. 300 ohm 1 cm 2 gm eq 1 d. 100 ohm 1 cm 2 gm eq 1
16. Cyanide and isocyanide are isomers of type
8. In N 2 molecule, the atoms are bonded by a. Positional b. Functional
a. One , Two b. One , One c. Tautomer d. Structural
c. Two , One d. Three bonds 17. Acetone will be formed by the ozonolysis of
a. Butene-1 b. Butene-2
9. For the reaction H 2 (g) I 2 (g) 2HI(g), the c. Isobutene d. Butyne-2
equilibrium constant changes with
18. Which of the following reactions gives
a. Total pressure
H 2 C C C CH 2 ?
b. Catalyst
c. The amounts of H 2 and I 2 taken a. CH 2 Br CBr CH 2 ææææ
Zn / CH3 OH
Æ
1
density 1.095g mL and containing 30% HCl by weight. OH
|
Calculate the molarity of the solution. CH3 — C — CH3 ; CH 3 — CH — CH 2 OH
| |
2. A sample contains a mixture of NaHCO3 and Na 2 CO3 . CH3 CH 3
HCl is added to 15.0 g of the sample, yielding 11.0 g of Total number of isomers (including stereoisomers) is
NaCl. What percent of the sample is Na 2 CO3 ? 7. Total number of isomers
Reactions are: CH 3 CH 2 CH3 CH 3 CH 3
Na 2 CO 3 2HCl
2NaCl CO 2 H 2 O
NaHCO 3 HCl NaCl CO 2 H 2 O
Mw of NaCl 58.5, Mw of NaHCO3 84, Mw of CH 3 CH 3 H CH 3 Mirror CH 3 H
Na 2 CO3 106g mol1
H H CH 3 H H CH 3
3. Amongst the following, the total number of compounds
meso Pair of enantiomers
soluble in aqueous NaOH is
H 3C CH 3 8. In the scheme given below, the total number of
N COOH NO 2 OH
intramolecular aldol condensation products formed from
‘Y’ is
1. O3
Y
1. NaOH(aq)
N 2. Zn, H2 O 2. heat
H 3C CH 3
OCH 2CH 3 OH
CH 2OH SECTION 2 Contains 10 Multiple Choice Questions
With one or more than one correct option
9. For a dilute solution containing 2.5 g of a non-volatile
CH 2CH3 COOH non-electrolyte solute in 100 g of water, the elevation in
CH 2CH3 boiling point at 1 atm pressure is Assuming concentration
of solute is 2C. Assuming concentration of solute is
much lower than the concentration of solvent, the vapour
pressure (mm of Hg) of the solution is (take
4. The total number of contributing structures showing
K b 0.76 K kg mol1 )
hyperconjugation (involving C—H bonds) for the
a. 724 b. 740
following carbocation is.
c. 736 d. 718
5. The total number(s) of stable conformers with non-zero 10. Two closed bulbs of equal volume (V) containing an ideal
dipole moment for the following compound is (are) gas initially at pressure pi and temperature T1 are
connected through a narrow tube of negligible volume as
Cl shown in the figure below. The temperature of one of the
bulbs is then I raised to T2. The final pressure pf is:
Br CH 3
T1 T1 T1 T2
Br Cl
Pi , V Pi , V Pf ,V Pf ,V
CH 3
Mock Test-4 117
TT T1 17. The number of structural isomers for C6H14 is
a. p i 1 2 b. 2p i
T1 T2 T1 T2 a. 3 b. 4
c. 5 d. 6
T2 TT
c. 2p i d. 2p i 1 2
T1 T2 T1 T2 18. Amongst the given options, the compound(s) in which all
the atoms are in one plane in all the possible
11. A stream of electrons from a heated filament was passed
conformations (if any), is (are)
between two charged plates kept at a potential difference
H H
V esu. If e and m are charge and mass of an electron, CC H
a. b. H C C — C
respectively, then the value of h/ (where is wavelength H2C CH 2 CH 2
associated with electron wave) is given by:
c. H 2 C C O d. H 2 C C CH 2
a. meV b. 2 meV
c. meV d. 2 meV
SECTION 3 Contains 2 Matches The Following Type Questions
12. Reduction of the metal centre in aqueous permanganate You will have to match entries in Column I with the entries in
ion involves Column II.
a. 3 electrons in neutral medium
19. According to Bohr’s theory,
b. 5 electrons in neutral medium
c. 3 electrons in alkaline medium E n Total energy K n Kinetic energy
d. 5 electrons in acidic medium Vn Potential energy rn Radius of nth orbit
13. For the following electrochemical cell at 298 K, Match the following:
4 2
Pt(s) | H 2 (g, 1 bar) H (aq, 1 M) || M (aq), M (aq) | Pt(s) Column I Column II
2
[M (aq)] (A) Vn / K n ? 1. 0
E cell 0.092 V when 10 x.
[M 4 (aq)] (B) If radius on nth orbit 2. –1
RT E ,x ?
x
Given: E 0M4 / M2 0.151 V; 2.303 0.059 V n
F (C) Angular momentum in 3. –2
The value of x is
lowest orbital
a. –2 b. –1
1 4. 1
c. 1 d. 2 (D) n
Zy , y ?
r
14. Which one of the following molecules is expected
a. A 3; B 2; C 4; D 1
diamagnetic behaviour?
b. A 1; B 2; C 3; D 4
a. C2 b. N2
c. O2 d. S2 c. A 3; B 1; C 2; D 4
The standard reaction Gibbs energy, ∆r G° of this reaction is gluconic acid is formed
Ag + + e −
→ Ag ; E ored = 0.8 V
positive. At the start of the reaction, there is one mole of X 2
and no X. As the reaction proceeds, the number of moles of X C6 H12 O 6 + H 2 O
→ Gluconic acid
formed is given by β . Thus β equilibrium is the number of moles of (C6 H12 O7 ) + 2H + + 2e− ; E ooxd = − 0.05 V
X formed at equilibrium. The reaction is carried out at a Ag(NH3 ) 2+ + e −
→ Ag (s) + 2NH3 ; E ooxd = 0.337 V
constant total pressure of 2 bar. Consider the gases to behave RT F
ideally. (Given: R = 0.083 L bar K −1 mol −1 ) [Use 2.303 × = 0.0592 and = 38.92 at 298 K
F RT
17. The equilibrium constant K p for this reaction at 298 K, in 19. 2Ag − + C6 H12 O6 + H 2O
→ 2Ag (s) + C6 H12 O7 + 2H +
terms of β equilibrium , is Find ln K of this reaction.
2 2
a. 66.13 b. 58.38
8βequilibrium 8βequilibrium c. 28.30 d. 46.29
a. b. 2
2 − βequilibrium 4 − βequilibrium
20. When ammonia is added to the solution, pH is raised to
2 2
4βequilibrium 4β equilibrium 11. Which half-cell reaction is affected by pH and by how
c. d.
2 − βequilibrium 2
4 − βequilibrium much?
a. E oxd will increase by a factor of 0.65 from Eooxd
18. The incorrect statement among the following, for this
b. E oxd will decrease by a factor of 0.65 from Eooxd
reaction, is
a. Decrease in the total pressure will result in formation of c. E red will increase by a factor of 0.65 from E ored
more moles of gaseous X d. E red will decrease by a factor of 0.65 from E ored
27. (b) Cu 2 Cl 2 Ag 2S
Cu 2S 2AgCl participate in hyperconjugation.
2AgCl Hg
Hg 2 Cl 2 2Ag H H
H
AgCl Hg
Ag HgCl
28. (a) The solubility of hydroxides of alkaline earth metals in
water increases on moving down the group. Three structures Two structures
e2 × 2π nh
JEE Advance Paper -II ⇒ v= ∴ (mvr = )
nh 2π
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
1 4
2 4 6 2 3 4 4 0 a, c, d a me × 4π 2
1
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. ⇒ K.E. = mv = 2 2 2
2
. . .(i)
2 nh
c b,c,d c b d a b c b a
h2
WB × 1000 Expression for a 0 =
1. (2) Normality = N = 4π 2 me2
Eq.wt × V
h2
0.45 × 1000 ⇒ me2 = . . .(ii)
∴ Eq. Wt = = 45 4π 2a 0
0.5 × 20
h2 1
Molec. Wt 90 ⇒ K.E. = × 2 . . .(iii)
∴ Basicity = = =2 8ma 0π n
2 2
Eq. Wt 45
h2
2. (4) In Cuprammonium sulphate [Cu(NH3 )4 ]SO4 co- For n = 2 K.E. =
32π 2 ma 02
ordination no. of Cu is 4.
12. (c, d) Cu2+ ions will react with CN– and SCN– forming
3. (6) [Co(en)2 Br2 ]Cl2
[Cu(CN) 4 ]3 − and [Cu(SCN) 4 ]3− leading the reaction in
C.N.of Co = 2 × number of bidentate ligand
the backward direction.
+1× number of monodentate ligand = 2 × 2 + 1× 2 = 6.
124 Chemistry
2
Cu 2CN
Cu(CN) 2
eq 2eq
2Cu(CN) 2
2CuCN (CN) 2 Px(g) Ptotal Ptotal
1 eq 2 eq
CuCN 3CN
[Cu(CN) 4 ]3 2
Cu 2 4SCN
[Cu(SCN) 4 ]3 2 eq.
2
Ptotal
Cu 2 also combines with CuCl2 which reacts with Cu to (Px) 2 2 eq.
So Kp
produce CuCl pushing the reaction in the backward (Px 2 ) 2 eq.
Ptotal
direction. (2 )
eq
CuCl2 Cu
2CuCl
4eq.
2
8eq2
13. (c) Kp P 2
4 eq. 4 eq
2 total
14. (b)
18. (c) (a) Correct statement. As one decrease in pressure
2000 reaction will move in the direction where no. of gaseous
15. (d) Given, log K 6
T molecules increases.
Ea (b) Correct statement
Since, log K log A
2.303RT
At the start of reaction Qp K p so dissociation of X 2 take
1
So, A 10 sec
6
place spontaneously.
and Ea 38.3kJ / mole (c) Incorrect statement as
Mock Test-5 125
JEE-MAIN: CHEMISTRY MOCK TEST-5
1. One mole of potassium dichromate completely oxidises 9. The formation of nitric oxide by contact process
the following number of moles of ferrous sulphate in N 2 O2 2NO. H 43.200 kcal is favoured by
acidic medium
a. Low temperature and low pressure
a. 1 b. 3
b. Low temperature and high pressure
c. 5 d. 6
c. High temperature and high pressure
2. In a solid lattice, the cation has left a lattice site and is d. High temperature and excess reactants concentration
located at an interstitial position, the lattice defect is
a. Frenkel defect 10. The pH of an aqueous solution Mg OH 2 is 9.0. If the
b. Schottky defect solubility product of Mg OH 2 is 1 10 11 , what is [ Mg 2 ] ?
c. F-centre defect
a. 1 10 5 b. 1.0 104
d. Valency defect
c. 1 102 d. 0.1
3. At 300 K, the vapour pressure of an ideal solution containing
3 mole of A and 2 mole of B is 600 torr. At the same 11. If ‘I’ is the intensity of absorbed light and C is the
temperature, if 1.5 mole of A and 0.5 mole of C (non- concentration of AB for the photochemical process
volatile) are added to this solution the vapour pressure of AB hv AB*, the rate of formation of AB* is directly
solution increases by 30 torr. What is the value of PBo ? proportional to
a. 940 b. 405 a. C b. I
c. 90 d. None of these c. I 2 d. C.I
12. Gold number is maximum for the lyophilic sol is
4. If the root mean square speed of helium is 4.75 m s–1 at
a. Gelatin b. Haemoglobin
25C, then its speed will become 9.50 m s–1 at
c. Sodium oleate d. Potato starch
a. 100C b. 323C
13. For the allotropic change represented by equation
c. 919C d. 1192C
C(diamond) C(graphite); the enthalpy change is
5. Which electronic level would allow the hydrogen atom to H 1.89 kJ. If 6 g of diamond and 6 g of graphite are
absorb a photon but not to emit a photon?
separately burnt to yield carbon dioxide, the heat liberated
a. 3s b. 2p in the first case is
c. 2s d. 1s a. Less than in the second case by 1.89 kJ
6. The product of oxidation of I with M nO 4 in alkaline b. More than in the second case by 1.89 kJ
SECTION 1 Contains 8 Questions 8. Hydrolysis of an alkyl halide (RX) by dilute alkali [OH ]
The answer to each question is a single digit integer ranging from 0 to takes place simultaneously by SN 2 and SN1 pathways. A
9 (both inclusive).
1 d[R X]
plot of vs. [OH ] is a straight line of
1. The change in the number of unpaired electrons when [RX] dt
2 4
Fe H 2 O 6 is changed into Fe CN 6 is the slope equal to 2 103 mol 1 L h 1 and intercept equal to
1102 h 1. Calculate the initial rate (mol L1 min 1 ) of
2. A compound of mol. wt. 180 is acetylated to give a consumption of RX when the reaction is carried out taking
compound of mol. wt. 390. The number of amino groups
1mol L1 of RX and 0.1 mol L1 of [OH ] ions.
in the initial compound is?
3. Specific rotations of -anomer of glucose is 112 and SECTION 2 Contains 10 Multiple Choice Questions
for -anomer is + 19 . Specific rotation of equilibrium With one or more than one correct option
mixture is 52.6 . Calculate % composition of -and -
anomers in the equilibrium mixture. 9. The ionic radii (in Å) of N3 , O2 and F are
respectively:
4. Consider all possible isomeric ketones including
a. 1.36, 1.40 and 1.71
stereoisomers of MW = 100. All these isomers are
b. 1.36, 1.71 and 1.40
independently reacted with NaBH 4 (Note: Stereoisomers
c. 1.71, 1.40 and 1.36
are also reacted separately). The total number of ketones
that give a racemic product(s) is/are d. 1.71, 1.36 and 1.40
5. Amongst the following, the total number of compounds 10. From the following statements regarding H 2O 2 , choose
soluble in aqueous NaOH is the incorrect statement
a. It can act only as an oxidizing agent
H3C CH3 b. It decomposes on exposure to light
N COOH OCH2CH3 OH c. It has to be stored in plastic or wax lined glass bottles in
CH2OH3 dark
d. It has to be kept away from dust
11. AgNO3 (aq.) was added to an aqueous KCl solution
OH CH2CH3
NO2 gradually and the conductivity of the solution was
CH2OH3 COOH
measured. The plot of conductance (^) versus the volume
of AgNO3 is
N
H 3C CH3 + +
+ + +
a. + ++ b. +
6. The half-life period of a radioactive substance is 2 min. +
+ +
The time taken for 1 g of the substance to reduce to 0.25 g
volume volume
will be
(a) (b)
SECTION 1 Contains 8 Questions 10. Among the electrolytes Na 2SO4 , CaCl2 , Al2 (SO 4 )3 and
The answer to each question is a single digit integer ranging from 0 to NH4Cl, the most effective coagulating agent for Sb2S3
9 (both inclusive).
sol is
2
1. The number of rings formed in Ca EDTA is a. Na 2SO4 b. CaCl2 c. Al2 (SO4 )3 d. NH4Cl
…………… 11. The compound(s) with TWO lone pairs of electrons on the
2. The number of equivalent Cl O bonds in Cl2O7 is central atom is(are)
a. BrF5 b. ClF3
……………
c. XeF4 d. SF4
3. In fructose, the possible optical isomers are……………
4. Oxidation of glucose is one of the most important 12. Solubility product constant (K sp ) of salts of types
reactions in a living cell. What is the number of ATP MX, MX 2 and M 3X at temperature ‘T’ are
molecules generated in cells from one molecule of
4.0 108 , 3.2 1014 and 2.7 1015 , respectively.
glucose?
3
Solubilities (mole dm ) of the salts at temperature ‘T’
5. 10 gm of a mixture of hexane and ethanol reacts with
are in the order
sodium to give 200 ml. of H 2 at 27 C and 760 mm
a. MX MX 2 M 3 X b. M 3 X MX 2 MX
pressure. The percentage of ethanol is……………
c. MX 2 M 3 X MX d. MX M 3 X MX 2
6. The polymerisation of propene to linear polypene is
represented by the reaction 13. According to the Arrhenius equation
CH 3 a. a high activation energy usually implies a fast reaction
CH 3
| | b. rate constant increases with increase in temperature.
n CH CH 2 — CH — CH 2—
n This is due to a greater number of collisions whose energy
Where n has large integral value, the average enthalpies of exceeds the activation energy
bond dissociation for (C C) and (C C) at 298 K c. higher the magnitude of activation energy, stronger is
are +590 and 331kJ mol 1 , respectively. The enthalpy the temperature dependence of the rate constant
d. the pre-exponential factor is a measure of the rate at
of polymerization is 360 kJ mol1 . Find the value of n. which collisions occur, irrespective of their energy
7. In the case of a first order reaction, the time required for 14. For a linear plot of log (x/m) versus log p in a Freundlich
93.75% of reaction to take place is x times that required adsorption isotherm, which of the following statements is
for half of the reaction. Find the value of x. correct?
8. In 1 L saturated solution of AgCl (K sp of AgCl a. Both k and 1/n appear in the slope term
b. 1/n appears as the intercept
1.6 1010 ), 0.1mol of CuCl (Ksp CuCl 1.0 106 ) is c. Only 1/n appears as the slope
added. The resultant concentration of Ag in the solution d. log (1/n) appears as the intercept.
is 1.6 10 x. Calculate the value of x. 15. When O2 is adsorbed on a metallic surface, electron
transfer occurs from the metal to O2 . The TRUE
SECTION 2 Contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions statement(s) regarding this adsorption is(are)
With one or more than one correct option a. O2 is physisorbed
9. Which of the following atoms has the highest first b. heat is released
ionization energy? c. occupancy of 2p
*
of O2 is increased
a. Rb b. Na d. bond length of O2 is increased
c. K d. Sc
130 Chemistry
16. Methylene blue, from its aqueous solution, is adsorbed on b. Carbon dating can be used to find out the age of earth
activated charcoal at 25 °C. For this process, the correct crust and rocks
statement is c. Radioactive absorption due to cosmic radiation is equal to
a. The adsorption requires activation at 25 ° C the rate of radioactive decay, hence the carbon content
b. The adsorption is accompanied by a decrease in remains constant in living organism
enthalpy d. Carbon dating cannot be used to determine concen-
c. The adsorption increases with increase of temperature tration of 14 C in dead beings
d. The adsorption is irreversible
18. What should be the age of fossil for meaningful
SECTION 3 Contains 2 Paragraph Type Questions determination of its age?
a. 6 years
Each paragraph describes an experiment, a situation or a problem.
Two multiple choice questions will be asked based on this paragraph. b. 6000 years
One or more than one option can be correct. c. 60,000 years
d. It can be used to calculate any age
Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 18
Carbon–14 is used to determine the age of organic material. Paragraph for Question Nos. 19 to 20
The procedure is based on the formation of 14 C by neutron Rocket propellants consist of rocket engines powered by
capture in the upper atmosphere propellants. These are used both in space vehicles as well as in
14
7 N + 0 n1
→ 14
6 C + 1n
1
offensive weapons such as missiles. The propellants are
14
C is absorbed by living organisms during photosynthesis. chemical substances which on ignition provide thrust for the
The 14 C content is constant in living organism once the plant or rocket to move forward. These substances are called rocket
animal dies, the uptake of carbon dioxide by it ceases and the propellants. A propellant is a combination of an oxidiser and a
level of 14 C in the dead being, falls due to the decay which fuel which when ignited undergoes combustion to release large
C 14 undergoes quantities of hot gases. The passage of hot gases through the
− nozzle of the rocket motor provides the necessary thrust for the
C 7 N + β
→ 14
14
6
rocket to move forward according to Newton's third law of
The half life period of 14 C is 5770 years. The decay constant
motion.
(λ ) can be calculated by using the following formula
19. A biliquid propellant contains
0.693 a. Liquid hydrazine
λ= . The comparison of the β - activity of the dead
t1/ 2 b. A mixture of liquid fuel and a liquid oxidiser
matter with that of the carbon still in circulation enables c. A solid rocket fuel
measurement of the period of the isolation of the material from d. A liquid fuel which can also act as an oxidiser
the living cycle. The method however, ceases to be accurate
20. A hybrid rocket propellant uses
over periods longer than 30,000 years. The proportion of 14 C
a. A liquid oxidiser and a solid fuel
12 12
to C in living matter is 1 : 10 . b. A composite solid propellant
17. Which of the following option is correct? c. A biliquid propellant
a. In living organisms, circulation of 14 C from atmosphere d. A solid, liquid and gas as a propellant
is high so the carbon content is constant in organism
Space for rough work
Mock Test-5 131
ANSWER & SOLUTIONS 11. (b) In photochemical reaction the rate of formation of
JEE-Main product is directly proportional to the intensity of
absorbed light.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
d a c c d a c b d d 12. (d) Gold number shows the protective power of a
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. lyophilic solution. Lesser the gold number, greater will be
b d d b c a d a a c the protecting power of that colloid. Gelatin is one of the
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. best protective colloid. Among the given colloids, potato
a d d d a d a d c c starch has maximum gold number.
0.693 CN
Also, t1/ 2 , which is independent of concentration |
K (c) PhCHO
KCN
Ph — C — O ;
and t1/ 2 decreases with the increase of temperature. |
H
2.303 100 AgNO3 CN
AgCN
t 99.6 log
K 0.4
(d) AgNO3 I
AgI
2.303 0.693
t 99.6 (2.4) 8 8 t1/ 2
K K
JEE Advance Paper –II
15. (d) Overall order of reaction can be decided by the data
given t 75% 2t 50% 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
5 6 8 38 10 5 4 7 d c
It is a first order reaction with respect to P.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
From graph [Q] is linearly decreasing with time, i.e., order
b, c d b,c,d b,c,d b b c b 2 1
of reaction with respect to Q is zero and the rate
expression is r k[P]1[Q]0 . 1. (5)
16. (a, d) (a) Preferential adsorption of ions on surface from 2. (6)
the solution 3. (8) Fructose has three chiral centres and hence 23 8
(c) Attraction between particles having same charges on optical isomers are possible.
their surface accounts for the Brownian motion. 4. (38) C 6 H 12 O 6 6O 2 6CO 2 6H 2 O 38ATP
(d) Definition of Zeta Potential.
5. (10) 22400 ml of H 2 is produced by 46 gms of ethanol.
17. (c) Combustion of glucose
46 200 23
C6 H12 O6 6O2
6CO2 6H 2 O 200 ml of H 2 is produced by
22400 56
Mock Test-1
Test Booklet code
135
Important Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is strictly
prohibited.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer
Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of, Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30
questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct response.
6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 5 for correct response of each question. 1/4 (one
fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will
be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each question will be treated as
wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 6 above.
8. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer Sheet.
Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
9. No candidates is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.
10. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given at the
bottom of each page and at the end of the booklet.
11. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
12. The CODE for this Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet and also tally the serial
number of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet are the same as that on this booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate
should immediately report the matter to the invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
13. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
log 2 ( x + 3) π 3π
1. The domain of definition of f ( x) = is: 10. sin sin =
x 2 + 3x + 2 10 10
a. R − {−1, −2} b. (−2, ∞) a. 1/2 b. – ½ c. 1/4 d. 1
c. R − {−1, −2, −3} d. (−3, ∞) − {−1, −2} 11. Find real part of cosh −1 (1)
2 2 a. – 1 b. 1
2. How many roots the equation x − = 1− have
x −1 x −1 c. 0 d. None of these
a. One b. Two 12. From a 60 meter high tower angles of depression of the
c. Infinite d. None top and bottom of a house are α and β respectively. If
3. If ω is the cube root of unity, then (3 + 5ω + 3ω 2 ) 2 + 60sin ( β − α )
the height of the house is , then x =
x
+(3 + 3ω + 5ω ) = 2 2
4. From the following find the correct relation log(1 + ax) − log(1 − bx)
13. The function f ( x) = is not defined
a. ( AB)′ = A′B′ b. ( AB )′ = B′A′ x
adj A at x = 0. The value which should be assigned to f at
c. A−1 = d. ( AB) −1 = A−1B −1 x = 0 so that it is continuous at x = 0, is
A
a. a − b b. a + b
If the roots of the cubic equation ax + bx + cx + d = 0
3 2
5.
c. log a + log b d. log a − log b
are in G.P., then
a. c a = b d b. ca = bd c. a b = c d d. ab = cd , at θ = 3π , is
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
dy
14. If x = a cos 4 θ , y = a sin 4 θ , then
dx 4
6. C1 + 2C2 + 3C3 + 4C4 + .... + nCn =
a. –1 b. 1
a. 2 n b. n. 2n c. − a 2 d. a 2
c. n. 2n−1 d. n. 2n+1
15. The minimum value of [(5 + x )(2 + x)]/[1 + x ] for non-
(log e n) 2 (log e n) 4 negative real x is
7. 1+ + +K =
2! 4! a. 12 b. 1 c. 9 d. 8
−1
a. n b. 1/ n e tan x
1 1
16. ∫ 1 + x2
dx =
c. ( n + n −1 ) d. (e n + e − n ) −1
2 2 a. log(1 + x 2 ) + c b. log etan x
+c
8. How many words can be made from the letters of the −1 −1
c. π a 2 d. None of these 27. The values of A and B such that the function
π
21. The locus of the mid-point of the line segment joining the −2sin x, x≤−
2
focus to a moving point on the parabola y 2 = 4 ax is
π π
another parabola with directrix f ( x) = A sin x + B, − < x < , is continuous
2 2
a. x = − a b. x = −
a π
cos x, x≥
2 2
a everywhere are
c. x = 0 d. x =
2 a. A = 0, B = 1 b. A = 1, B = 1
r r
22. If a = (2, 5) and b = (1, 4), then the vector parallel to c. A = −1, B = 1 d. A = −1, B = 0
r r
( a + b ) is
a. (3, 5) b. (1, 1)
28. ∫ x 3 3 + 5 x 4 dx =
c. (1, 3) d. (8, 5) 1
a. (3 + 5 x 4 )3/ 2 + c b. (3 + 5 x 4 )3/ 2 + c
5
23. The acute angle between the line joining the points (2, 1,
1
x −1 y z + 3 c. (3 + 5 x 4 )3/ 2 + c d. None of these
–3), (–3,1,7) and a line parallel to = = 30
3 4 5
through the point (–1, 0, 4) is 29. The equations of tangents to the circle
a. cos −1 b. cos −1
5 10 10 line 5 x + 12 y + 8 = 0 are
3 1 a. 12 x − 5 y + 8 = 0, 12 x − 5 y = 252
c. cos −1 d. cos −1
5 10 5 10 b. 12 x − 5 y = 0, 12 x − 5 y = 252
c. 12 x − 5 y − 8 = 0,12 x − 5 y + 252 = 0
24. Which of the following is logically equivalent to
d. None of these
~ (~ p ⇒ q)
a. p ∧ q b. p ∧ ~ q 30. ~ p ∧ q is logically equivalent to
c. ~ p ∧ q d. ~ p ∧ ~ q a. p → q
b. q → p
25. The number of solutions of the system of equations
2x + y − z = 7, x − 3 y + 2z = 1, x + 4 y − 3z = 5 is c. ~ ( p → q )
a. 3 b. 2 c. 1 d. 0 d. ~ (q → p )
2. Section 1 contains 8 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer ranging from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
Marking Scheme: +4 for correct answer and 0 in all other cases.
3. Section 2 contains 10 multiple choice questions with one or more than one correct option.
Marking Scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –2 in all other cases.
4. Section 3 contains 2 “match the following” type questions and you will have to match entries in Column I with the entries
in Column II.
Marking Scheme: For each entry in Column I, +2 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
NOTE: It’s the mock test as per previous year’s papers but sometimes IIT changes the test paper pattern and
marking scheme too.
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 32) 5. Let n be the number of ways in which 5 boys and 5 girls
This section contains EIGHT questions. can stand in a queue in such a way that all the girls stand
The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER consecutively in the queue. Let m be the number of ways
ranging from 0 to 9, both inclusive. in which 5 boys and 5 girls can stand in a queue in such a
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct way that exactly four girls stand consecutively in the
integer in the ORS. m
queue. Then the value of is
Marking scheme: n
+4 If the bubble corresponding to the answer is darkened.
6. TP and TQ are any two tangents to a parabola and the
0 In all other cases.
tangent at a third point R cuts then in P' and Q', then the
1. If area enclosed between the curves y = ln( x + e) and TP ′ TQ ′
value of = must be
TP TQ
1
x = ln and the axis of x is λ sq unit, then the value of
y 7. Let f :R→R be a function defined by
SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 40) P2 : 2 x − y + z − 1 = 0. Let M be the locus of the feet of the
This section contains TEN questions. perpendiculars drawn from the points on L to the plane
Each question has FOUR options (a), (b), (c) and (d). ONE OR P1 . Which of the following points lie(s) on M?
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct.
5 2
For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the a. 0, − , −
correct option(s) in the ORS. 6 3
Marking scheme: 1 1 1
+4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct b. − , − ,
6 3 6
option(s) is(are) darkened.
5 1
0 If none of the bubbles is darkened c. − , 0,
–2 In all other cases 6 6
r uuur r uuur 1 2
9. Let ∆PQR be a triangle. Let a = QR, b = RP, and d. − , 0,
3 3
r uuur r r rr
c = PQ. If | a | = 12, | b | = 4 3 and b.c = 24, then which
14. Let P and Q be distinct points on the parabola y 2 = 2 x
of the following is (are) true?
r r such that a circle with PQ as diameter passes through the
| c |2 r | c |2 r
a. − | a | = 12 b. − | a | = 30 vertex O of the parabola. If P lies in the first quadrant and
2 2
r r r r rr the area of the triangle ∆OPQ is 3 2, then which of the
c. | a × b + c × a | = 48 3 d. a.b = −72
following is (are) the coordinates of P?
10. Let X and Y be two arbitrary, 3×3, non-zero, skew- a. (4, 2 2) b. (9,3 2)
symmetric matrices and Z be an arbitrary 3×3, non-zero,
1 1
symmetric matrix. Then which of the following matrices c. , d. (1, 2)
4 2
is (are) skew symmetric?
15. Let y( x) be a solution of the differential equation
a. Y 3 Z 4 − Z 4Y 3 b. X 44 + Y 44
(1 + e x ) y ′ + ye x = 1. If y(0) = 2, then which of the
c. X Z − Z X
4 3 3 4
d. X 23 + Y 23
following statements is (are) true ?
11. Which of the following values of α satisfy the equation
a. y(−4) = 0
(1 + α) 2
(1 + 2α) 2
(1 + 3α) 2
b. y(−2) = 0
(2 + α) 2 (2 + 2α) 2 (2 + 3α) 2 = −648α ??
c. y( x) has a critical point in the interval ( −1, 0)
(3 + α)2 (3 + 2α)2 (3 + 3α)2
d. y( x) has no critical point in the interval ( −1, 0)
a. −4 b. 9
16. Consider the family of all circles whose centers lie on the
c. −9 d. 4
straight line y = x. If this family of circles is represented
12. In R 3 , consider the planes P1 : y = 0 and P2 : x + z = 1. by the differential equation Py ′′ + Qy ′ + 1 = 0, where P, Q
Let P3 be a plane, different from P1 and P2 , which passes
dy d2 y
are functions of x, y and y ′(here y ′ = , y ′′ = 2 ), then
through the intersection of P1 and P2 . If the distance of dx dx
the point (0, 1, 0) from P3 is 1 and the distance of a point which of the following statements is (are) true?
a. P = y + x
(α, β, γ) from P3 is 2, then which of the following
b. P = y − x
relations is (are) true?
a. 2α + β + 2γ + 2 = 0 b. 2α – β + 2γ + 4 = 0 c. P + Q = 1 − x + y + y ′ + ( y ′) 2
c. 2α + β – 2γ – 10 = 0 d. 2α – β + 2γ – 8 = 0 d. P − Q = x + y − y ′ − ( y ′) 2
Mock Test-1 141
17. Let g:R→R be a differential function with For each entry in Column I, darken the bubbles of all the
matching entries. For example, if entry (A) in Column I, matches
g (0) = 0, g ′(0) = 0 and g ′(1) ≠ 0.
with entries (2), (3) and (5), then darken these three bubbles in the
x g ( x ), ORS. Similarly, for entries (B), (C) and (D).
x≠0
Let f ( x) = | x | and h ( x ) = e| x| for all
Marking scheme:
0, x=0
For each entry in Column I
x ∈ R. Let ( f o h) (x) denote f ( h ( x )) and (h o f )( x) +2 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct match(es)
denote h( f ( x)). Then which of the following is (are) is(are) darkened
0 If none of the bubbles is darkened
true?
–1 In all other cases
a. f is differentiable at x = 0
b. h is differentiable at x = 0 19. Match the Column:
c. f o h is differentiable at x = 0 Column I Column II
(A) In R 2 , if the magnitude of 1. 1
d. h o f is differentiable at x = 0
the projection vector of the
π π vector αiˆ + β ˆj on 3iˆ + ˆj
18. Let f ( x) = sin sin sin x for all x∈R and
6 2
is 3 and if α | = 2 + 3β,
π
g ( x) = sin x for all x ∈ R. Let (f o g)(x) denote f (g(x)) then possible value(s) of | α |
2
and (g o f )(x) denote g(f (x)). Then which of the following is (are)
is (are) true? (B) Let a and b be real numbers 2. 2
such that the function
1 1
a. Range of f is − ,
2 2
1 1
f (x) = {
−3ax2 −2, x <1
bx +a2, x ≥1
is
2. Section 1 contains 8 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer ranging from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
Marking Scheme: +4 for correct answer and 0 in all other cases.
3. Section 2 contains 8 multiple choice questions with one or more than one correct option.
Marking Scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –2 in all other cases.
4. Section 3 contains 2 “paragraph” type questions. Each paragraph describes an experiment, a situation or a problem. Two
multiple choice questions will be asked based on this paragraph. One or more than one option can be correct.
Marking Scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –2 in all other cases.
NOTE: It’s the mock test as per previous year’s papers but sometimes IIT changes the test paper pattern and
marking scheme too.
first seven terms to the sum of the first eleven terms is 6 : F(x) 1 1
for all x ∈[−1, 2]. If lim = , then the value of f
11 and the seventh term lies in between 130 and 140, then x→1 G(x) 14 2
the common difference of this A.P. is is
144 Mathematics
SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 32) 43 7
a. e12 + e22 = b. e1e2 =
This section contains EIGHT questions. 40 2 10
Each question has FOUR options (a), (b), (c) and (d). ONE OR
5 3
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct. c. | e12 − e22 | = d. e1e2 =
8 4
For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the
correct option(s) in the ORS. 13. Consider the hyperbola H : x 2 − y 2 = 1 and a circle S with
Marking scheme: center N ( x2 , 0). Suppose that H and S touch each other at
+4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s)
a point P( x1 , y1 ) with x1 > 1 and y1 > 0. The common
is(are) darkened.
tangent to H and S at P intersects the x-axis at point M. If
0 If none of the bubbles is darkened
–2 In all other cases (l , m) is the centroix of the triangle ∆PMN, then the
correct expression(s) is (are)
3
192x 1 dl 1
9. Let f ′( x) = for all x ∈ R with f = 0. If a. = 1 − 2 for x > 1
2 + sin π x
4
2 dx1 3x1
1
dm x1
m≤ ∫ f ( x ) dx ≤ M , then the possible values of m and M = for x1 > 1
)
b.
(
1/ 2
dx1 3 x12 − 1
are
1 1 dl 1
a. m = 13, M = 24 b. m = ,M = c. = 1 + 2 for x1 > 1
4 2 dx1 3x1
c. M = −11, M = 0 d. M = 1, M = 12
dm 1
d. = for y1 > 0
10. Let S be the set of all non-zero real numbers α such that dy1 3
the quadratic equation α x 2 − x + α = 0 has two distinct 14. The option(s) with the values of a and L that satisfy the
real roots x1 and x2 satisfying the inequality | x1 − x2 | < 1. following equation is(are)
4π
Which of the following intervals is(are) a subset(s) of S ?
∫ (sin at + cos 4 at ) dt
6
1 1 1 π
0
= L?
a. − , − b. − ∫ e (sin at + cos 4 at ) dt
1 6
, 0
2 5 5 0
1 1 1 e4π − 1 e4π + 1
c. 0, , a. a = 2, L = b. a = 2, L =
d. eπ − 1 eπ + 1
5 5 2
e4π − 1 e4π + 1
6 4 c. a = 4, L = d. a = 4, L =
11. If α = 3 sin −1 and β = 3 cos −1 , where the inverse eπ − 1 eπ + 1
11 9
trigonometric functions take only the principal values, 15. Let f , g :[−1, 2] → R be continuous functions which are
then the correct option(s) is (are) twice differentiable on the interval (–1, 2). Let the values
a. cos β > 0 b. sin β < 0 of f and g at points –1, 0 and 2 be as given in the
c. cos(α + β ) > 0 d. cos α < 0 following table:
x = −1 x=0 x=2
12. Let E1 and E 2 be two ellipse whose centers are at the f ( x) 3 6 0
origin. The major axes of E1 and E 2 lie along the x-axis g ( x) 0 1 –1
and the y-axis, respectively. Let S be the circle In each of the intervals (–1, 0) and (0, 2) the function
x 2 + ( y − 1) 2 = 2. The straight line x + y = 3 touches the ( f − 3g )′′ never vanishes. Then the correct statements(s) is
curves S, E1 and E 2 at P, Q and R, respectively Suppose (are)
a. f ′( x) − 3 g ′( x) = 0 has exactly three solutions in
2 2
that PQ = PR = . If e1 and e2 are the eccentricities of (−1, 0) ∪ (0, 2)
3
E1 and E2 , respectively, then the correct expression(s) b. f ′( x) − 3 g ′( x) = 0 has exactly one solution in (–1, 0)
is(are)
Mock Test-1 145
c. f ′( x) − 3 g ′( x) = 0 has exactly one solution in (0, 2) 3 3
∫ x F ′( x ) dx = − 12 and ∫ F ′′( x ) dx = 40, then
2
18. If the
1 1
d. f ′( x) − 3 g ′( x) = 0 has exactly two solutions in (–1, 0) correct expression(s) is(are)
and exactly two solutions in (0, 2) a. 9 f ′(3) + f ′(1) − 32 = 0
16. Let f ( x ) = 7 tan 8 x + 7 tan 6 x − 3 tan 4 x − 3 tan 2 x for all 3
b. ∫
1
f ( x ) dx = 12
π π
x ∈ − , Then the correct expression(s) is (are)? c. 9 f ′(3) − f ′(1) + 32 = 0
2 2 3
π /4
a. ∫ xf ( x ) dx =
1 π /4
d. ∫ f ( x ) dx = − 12
∫
1
b. f ( x ) dx = 0
0 12 0
π /4 1 π /4 Paragraph-II
c. ∫ xf ( x ) dx = d. ∫ f ( x ) dx = 1
0 6 0
Let n1 and n2 be the number of red and black balls,
SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 16) respectively, in box I. Let n3 and n4 be the number of red and
This section contains FOUR questions. black balls, respectively, in box II.
Each question has FOUR options (a), (b), (c) and (d). ONE OR
19. One of the two boxes, box I and box II, was selected at
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct.
random and a ball was drawn randomly out of this box. The
For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the
ball was found to be red. If the probability that this red ball
correct option(s) in the ORS.
1
Marking scheme: was drawn from box II is , then the correct option(s) with
3
+4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s)
the possible values of n1 , n2 , n3 and n4 is (are)
is(are) darkened.
a. n1 = 3, n2 = 3, n3 = 5, n4 = 15
0 If none of the bubbles is darkened
–2 In all other cases b. n1 = 3, n2 = 6, n3 = 10, n4 = 50
c. n1 = 8, n2 = 6, n3 = 5, n4 = 20
Paragraph-I
d. n1 = 6, n2 = 12, n3 = 5, n4 = 20
Let F : R → R be a thrice differentiable function. Suppose that
1 20. A ball is drawn at random from box I and transferred to
F (1) = 0, F (3) = −4 and F ′( x) < 0 for all x ∈ , 3 . Let box II. If the probability of drawing a red ball from box I,
2
1
f ( x ) = xF ( x ) for all x ∈ R. after this transfer, is , then the correct option(s) with
3
17. The correct statement(s) is (are)
the possible values of n1 and n2 is(are)
a. f ′(1) < 0
a. n1 = 4, n2 = 6 b. n1 = 2, n2 = 3
b. f (2) < 0
c. n1 = 10, n2 = 20 d. n1 = 3, n2 = 6
c. f ′( x) ≠ 0 for any x ∈ (1, 3)
d. f ′( x) = 0 for some x ∈ (1, 3)
α
H=60m
= (2ω )2 + (2ω 2 )2 = 4ω 2 + 4ω 4 = 4(−1) = −4.
h
4. (b) It is understandable. β
d
A H = d tan β and H − h = d tan α
5. (a) Let , A, AR be the roots of the equation
R
60 tan β
ax3 + bx2 + cx + d = 0 ⇒ =
60 − h tan α
d
then A 3 = Product of the roots = − 60sin( β − α )
a ⇒ − h = 60 tan α − 60 tan β ⇒ h=
tan β sin β
1/ 3 cos α cos β
d cos β
⇒ A = −
a ⇒ x = cos α sin β .
Since A is a root of the equation.
13. (b) Since limit of a function is a + b as x → 0, therefore
∴ aA3 + bA2 + cA + d = 0
to be continuous at a function, its value must be a + b at
2/3 1/ 3
d d d x=0
⇒ a − + b − + c − +d =0
a a a ⇒ f (0) = a + b.
2/3 1/ 3
d d
2
d d
⇒ b = c ⇒ b3 = c3 ⇒ b3d = c3a. 14. (a) y = a sin 4 θ
a a a2 a
dy
6. (c) Trick: Put n = 1, 2, 3,.... ⇒ = 4a sin 3 θ cosθ
dθ
S1 = 1, S 2 = 2 + 2 = 4 and x = a cos θ
4
(− 5 × 3) + (0 × 4) + (10 × 5)
cosθ =
25 + 0 + 100 9 + 16 + 25
dy
18. (a) = e x − y + x 2 e − y = e − y (e x + x 2 ) 35
dx ⇒ cos θ =
25 10
⇒ e y dy = ( x 2 + e x ) dx
7
x3 ⇒ θ = cos −1
Now integrating both sides, we get e = + e x + c. y
5 10
3
19. (c) 4x + 3 y = 11 and 4 x + 3 y =
15 24. (d) Since ~ ( p ⇒ q) ≡ p ∧ ~ q
2 ~ (~ p ⇒ q) = ~ p ∧ ~ q
15
Therefore, 11 −
D= 2 = 7 . 2 1 −1
5 10 25. (d) ∆ = 1 −3 2
1 4 −3
20. (c) Since area = π r 2 , where
r =a = 2(9 − 8) − 1(−3 − 2) − 1(4 + 3) = 7 − 7 = 0
π 4
f − = lim − (−2sin x)
2 x→( −π / 2) 3
= lim ( A sin x + B) 2
x →( −π / 2)+
1
⇒ 2 = −A + B . . .(i) –2 –1
O 1 2 3 4 5
π –1
and f = lim − ( A sin x + B )
2 x→(π / 2) –2
= lim + (cos x) –3
x →(π / 2)
Required area = 4 × (1× 1) = 4 sq unit
⇒ 0 = A+ B . . .(ii)
From (i) and (ii), ∴ λ =4
1 1 1 1 1/ 2
A = −1 + + + +K∞
λ λ λ λ K∞ = λ 2 4 8 16
= λ 1−1/ 2 = λ = 4
and B = 1.
5
2. (8) cos 2 2 x + cos 4 x + sin 4 x + cos 6 x + sin 6 x = 2
4
28. (c) Put 3 + 5 x 4 = t ⇒ 20 x3 dx = dt , then
5
1 ⇒ cos 2 2 x − 5cos 2 x sin 2 x = 0
∫ x3 3 + 5 x 4 dx = ∫ t 1/ 2 dt
20
4
⇒ tan 2 2 x = 1, where 2 x ∈ [0, 4π ]
2 1 1
= × .t 3/ 2 + c = (3 + 5 x 4 )3/ 2 + c. Number of solutions = 8
3 20 30 3. (4) Image of y = −5 about the line x + y + 4 = 0 is
x =1
29. (a) Equation of line perpendicular to
⇒ Distance AB = 4
5x + 12 y + 8 = 0 is
4. (8) Let coin was tossed ‘n’ times
12 x − 5 y + k = 0.
1 n
Now it is a tangent to the circle, if Probability of getting at least two heads = 1 − n + n
2 2
Radius of circle
n + 1
= Distance of line from centre of circle ⇒ 1 − n ≥ 0.96
2
12(11) − 5(2) + k 2n
121 + 4 − 25 =
144 + 25 ⇒ ≥ 25 ⇒ n ≥ 8
n +1
⇒ k = 8 or −252.
5. (5) n = 6!.5! (5 girls together arranged along with 5
Hence equations of tangents are 5
boys) m = C4 .(7! − 2.6!).4!
12 x − 5 y + 8 = 0 and
(4 out of 5 girls together arranged with others – number of
12x − 5 y = 252 cases all 5 girls are together)
m 5 ⋅ 5 ⋅ 6!⋅4!
30. (d) ~ p ∧ q =~ (q → p) . =
n 6! ⋅ 5!
Mock Test-1 149
6. (1) Let Parabola be y = 4ax and coordinates of P and Q
2
10. (c,d) (Y Z − Z Y ) = ( Z ) (Y ) − (Y ) ( Z )
3 4 4 3 T T 4 T 3 T 3 T 4
{
x+4
⇒ y= h( f ( x )) = e
( f ( x )|
, x≠0
1 + ex 1, x=0
⇒ y (−4) = 0 h( f (0)) − h( f (0 − δ ))
LHD. h′( f (0 − δ )) = lim
(1 + e x ) − ( x + 4)e x δ →0 δ
⇒ y′ = =0
(1 + e x ) 2 1− e | g ( − δ )|
| g ( −δ ) |
= lim ⋅ =0
(1 + e ) − ( x + 4)e
x x δ →0 | g ( −δ ) | δ
Let g ( x) =
(1 + e x ) 2 π
18. (a,b,c) Given g ( x) = sin x ∀ x ∈ R
2
2−4
g (0) = 2 < 0 1
2 f ( x) = sin g ( g ( x))
1 3 3
2
1 + − 1− π π
g (−1) = e e
<0= e >0 Also, g ( g ( g ( x))) ∈ − , ∀ x ∈ R
1
2
1
2
2 2
1 + 1 +
e e 1 1
Hence, f ( x) and f ( g ( x)) ∈ − ,
g (0) ⋅ g ( −1) < 0. Hence g(x) has a root in between ( −1, 0) 2 2
1
16. (b,c) Let the family of circles be x 2 + y 2 − αx − αy + c = 0 sin g ( g ( x)) 1 g ( g ( x))
lim
f ( x)
= lim 3 ⋅3
On differentiation 2 x + 2 yy ′ − α − αy ′ = 0 x →0 g ( x) x →0 1 g ( x)
g ( g ( x))
Again on differentiation and substituting ' α' we get 3
2 x + 2 yy′ π
2 x + 2 y ′2 + 2 yy′′ − sin sin x
y ′′ = 0 π =π
lim ⋅
2
1 + y′ ⇒
x →0 6 π 6
⇒ ( y − x) y ′′ + y ′(1 + y ′ + y ′2 ) + 1 = 0 sin x
2
Mock Test-1 151
π 1 π 1 ⇒ 2(sin( X − Y ) ⋅ sin( X + Y ) = sin ( Z ) 2
8 2
+ (ω ( −3ω + 2ω + 3) 4 n + 3 = 0
2 2
= 6−
3
⇒ (3 − 3ω + 2ω 2 ) 4 n + 3 + (1 + ω 4 n + ω 8 n ) = 0
When α = 1
⇒ n ≠ 3k , k ∈ N 1 2
(D) Let a = 5 − d
Area = ∫ 0
(3 − x − 2 x ) dx + ∫ ( x + 1 − 2 x ) dx
1
1 2
q = 5+ d x2 4 x2 4
= 3x − − x3/ 2 + + x − x3/ 2
b = 5 + 2d 2 3 0
2 3 1
⇒ | q − a | = | 2d | 8
= 5− 2.
2ab 3
Given =4
a+b
ab JEE Advance Paper-II
⇒ =2
a+b
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(5 − d )(5 + 2d ) = 2(5 − d + 5 + 2 d ) = 2(10 + d )
9 4 9 8 4 2 9 7 d a,d
25 + 10d − 5d − 2d 2 = 20 + 2d 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
2d 2 − 3d − 5 = 0 b,c,d a,b a,b,c a,c b,c a,b a,b,c c,d a,b c,d
5
d = −1, d = ⇒ | 2 d | = 2, 5 1.
r r r r
(9) s = 4 p + 3q + 5r
2
r r r r r r r r r r
c2 s = x(− p + q + r ) + y ( p − q + r ) + z (− p − q + r )
20. (c) (A) a 2 − b 2 = (given) r r r r
2 s = (− x + y − z ) p + ( x − y − z )q + ( x + y + z )r
4R2 ⇒ −x + y − z = 4
4 R 2 (sin 2 X − sin 2 Y ) = sin 2 ( Z )
2
152 Mathematics
⇒ x− y−z =3 Multiplying equation (iii) and (iv), we get
⇒ x+ y+z =5 1 1 1 1
( x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 ) × + + + = 4
On solving we get x = 4, y =
9 7 x1 x2 x3 x4
,z=−
2 2 ( ) −e
cos α n
⇒ 2x + y + z = 9 e e
6. (2) lim =−
α →0 αm 2
( ) (cosα
12 kπ π
e e (cos(α )
i i n
−1)
Σ e 7
e 7 −1
n
− 1) e
k =1
12 lim α 2n = −
2. (4)
3 i
π
=
3
=4 α →0
( cos(α n
) −1 α α ) m 2n
2
Σ ei (4 k − 2) e 7 − 1
k =1 if and only if 2n − m = 0
⇒ 3
− ( a 2 − b 2 ) 2 x ′4 + 2 ha 2 ( a 2 − b 2 ) x ′3 + x ′ 2 (K) − 2 a 4 h ( a 2 − b 2 ) x ′ + a 6 h 2 = 0 16 x 4 − 1 ≤ f ( x ) ≤ 24 x 4 −
2
Above equation being of fourth degree in x′, therefore 1
1 1 3
roots of the above equation are x1 , x2 , x3 , x4 then ∫1/ 2
(16 x 4 − 1)dx ≤ ∫
1/ 2
f ( x)dx ≤ ∫ 24 x 2 − dx
1/ 2
2
2ha 2 (a 2 − b 2 ) 2ha 2 26 1 39
10 ∫1/ 2
( x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 ) = − = . . .(iii) 1< ≤ f ( x ) dx ≤ < 12
−(a 2 − b 2 ) 2 (a 2 − b 2 ) 10
π 3π for a = 2 as well as a = 4
11. (b,c,d) <α <π,π < β < Similarly
2 2
3π
3π 5π
∫ π e (sin at + cos 4 at) dt = e 2π A
1 6
⇒ <α + β < 2
2 2
⇒ sin β < 0; cos α < 0 A + eπ A + e2π A + e3π A 34π −1
So, L = = π
A e −1
⇒ cos(α + β ) > 0.
12. (a,b) For the given line, point of contact for For both a = 2, 4
x2 y 2 a 2 b2
E1 : 2
+ 2 = 1 is , 15. (b,c) Let H ( x ) = f ( x) − 3g ( x)
a b 3 3
H (−1) = H (0) = H (2) = 3.
x2 y 2 B2 A2
and for E2 : 2 + 2 = 1 is , Applying Rolle’s Theorem in the interval [–1, 0]
B A 3 3
H ′( x) = f ′( x) − 3 g ′( x) = 0 for atleast one c ∈ (−1, 0)
Point of contact x + y = 3 of and circle is (1, 2)
As H ′′( x ) never vanishes in the interval
Also, general point on x + y = 3 can be taken as
⇒ Exactly one c ∈ (−1,0) for which H ′( x) = 0
r r 2 2
1 m , 2± where, r =
2 2 3 Similarly, apply Rolle’s Theorem in the interval [0, 2]
7 43
⇒ ∫0
f ( x ) dx = 0
∴ e1e2 = and e12 + e22 =
40 π /4 π /4 π /4
2 10
∫ xf ( x)dx = x ∫ f ( x) dx − ∫ ∫ f ( x) dx dx
0 0 0
13. (a,b,d) Tanget at P, xx1 − yy1 = 1 intersects x-axis at
π /4 1
1 ∫0
xf ( x ) dx =
12
M , 0
x1
17. (a,b,c) (a) f ′( x) = f ( x) + xF ′( x)
y1 y1 − 0
Slope of normal = − =
x1 x1 − x2 f ′(1) = F (1) + F ′(1)
⇒ x2 = 2 x1 ⇒ N ≡ (2 x1 ,0) f ′(1) = F ′(1) < 0
1
3 x1 + f ′(1) < 0
x1 y
For centroid l = ,m= 1
3 3 (b) F (2) = 2 F (2)
dl 1
= 1− 2 F ( x ) is decreasing and F (1) = 0
dx1 3x1
dm 1 dm 1 dy1 x1 Hence F (2) < 0
= , = =
dy1 3 dx1 3 dx1 3 x12 − 1 ⇒ f (2) < 0
π 1 (c) f ′( x) = F ( x) + xF ′( x)
14. (a,c) Let ∫
0
e (sin 6 at + cos 4 at) dt = A
2π F ( x) < 0 ∀ x ∈ (1, 3)
I = ∫ e1 (sin 6 + at + cos 4 at) dt
π
F ′( x) < 0 ∀ x ∈ (1, 3)
Put t = π + x
dt = dx Hence f ′( x) < 0 ∀ x ∈ (1, 3)
Mock Test-2 155
JEE-MAIN: MATHEMATICS MOCK TEST-2
c. log e (1 + n) d. log e (1 − n)
2π 2π 2
3. Let ωn = cos + i sin , i = −1, then 10. There are 10 lamps in a hall. Each one of them can be
n n
switched on independently. The number of ways in which
( x + yω3 + zω3 2 ) ( x + yω32 + zω3 ) is equal to
the hall can be illuminated is.
a. 0
a. 102 b. 1023
b. x 2 + y 2 + z 2 10
c. 2 d. 10 !
c. x 2 + y 2 + z 2 − yz − zx − xy
11. A fair coin is tossed repeatedly. If tail appears on first four
d. x 2 + y 2 + z 2 + yz + zx + xy tosses, then the probability of head appearing on fifth toss
equals
6
2π k 2π k
4. The value of ∑ sin
k =1 7
− i cos
7
is a.
1
b.
1
2 32
a. –1 b. 0
31 1
c. –i d. i c. d.
32 5
1 0 0
tan 2 60°cosec30°
5. The inverse of the matrix 0 1 0 is 12. If x sin 45° cos 2 60° = , then x =
sec 45° cot 2 30°
0 0 1
a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 16
0 0 1 1 0 0
a. 0 1 0 b. 0 1 0 13. If sin θ + sin 2θ + sin 3θ = sin α and
1 0 0 0 0 1 cos θ + cos 2θ + cos 3θ = cos α ,then θ is equal to
a. α / 2 b. α c. 2α d. α / 6
0 1 0 1 0 0
c. 0 0 1 d. 0 0 1 5 7 − 9i
14. Find imaginary part of sin −1
1 0 0 0 1 0
16
a. log 2 b. − log 2
6. The sum of the first five terms of the series
1 3 c. 0 d. None of these
3 + 4 + 6 + ...... will be
2 4
15. An observer on the top of a tree, finds the angle of
9 3 depression of a car moving towards the tree to be 30°.
a. 39 b. 18
16 16 After 3 minutes this angle becomes 60°. After how much
7 9 more time, the car will reach the tree
c. 39 d. 13
16 16 a. 4 min b. 4.5 min c. 1.5 min d. 2 min
156 Mathematics
x + x − 16 x + 20
3 2 23. The vertex of an equilateral triangle is (2,–1) and the
,if x ≠ 2 .
16. Let f ( x) = ( x − 2)2 If f ( x) be equation of its base in x + 2 y = 1. The length of its sides
k , if x = 2 is
continuous for all x, then k = a. 4 / 15 b. 2 / 15
a. 7 b. –7 c. 4 / 3 3 d. 1/ 5
c. ± 7 d. None of these
K ( x + 1) 2 ( y + 2) 2
x + e x +.... ∞ dy 24. If the equation + = 1 represents a circle,
17. If y = e x + e , then = 3 4
dx then K =
y 1 a. 3/4 b. 1 c. 4/3 d. 12
a. b.
1− y 1− y 25. The equation of the common tangent to the curves
y y y 2 = 8 x and xy = −1 is
c. d.
1+ y y −1 a. 3 y = 9 x + 2 b. y = 2 x + 1
c. 2 y = x + 8 d. y = x + 2
18. One maximum point of sin p x cos q x is
r r
a. x = tan −1 ( p / q ) b. x = tan −1 ( q / p ) 26. The vectors a and b are non-collinear. The value of x for
c. x = tan −1 ( p / q ) d. x = tan −1 ( q / p ) r r r r r r
which the vectors c = ( x − 2) a + b and d = (2 x + 1) a − b
1 are collinear, is
19. ∫ x(log x) 2
dx =
a. 1 b.
1
2
1 1
a. +c b. − +c 1
log x log x c. d. None of these
3
c. log log x + c d. − log log x + c
r r r r r r r
27. If vectors a , b , c satisfy the condition | a − c | = | b − c |,
20. Area bounded by the parabola y = 2 x and the ordinates 2
r
r r r ar + b
x = 1, x = 4 is then (b − a ) ⋅ c − is equal to
2
a. 4 2 sq. unit b. 28 2 sq.unit a. 0 b. –1 c. 1 d. 2
3 3
56 x +1 y − 2 z + 3
c. sq. unit d. None of these 28. The angle between the straight lines = =
3 2 5 4
x −1 y + 2 z − 3
dy 1 + x 2 and = = is
21. The solution of the differential equation + = 0 is 1 2 −3
dx x
a. 45° b. 30° c. 60° d. 90°
1 x2
a. y = − tan −1 x + c b. y + log x + +c =0 29. A variable plane is at a constant distance p from the origin
2 2
and meets the axes in A, B and C. The locus of the
1 x2
c. y = tan −1 x + c d. y − log x − =c centroid of the tetrahedron OABC is
2 2
a. x −2 + y −2 + z −2 = 16 p −2 b. x −2 + y −2 + z −2 = 16 p −1
22. The solution of the
differential equation c. x −2 + y −2 + z −2 = 16 d. None of these
cos y log(sec x + tan x ) dx = cos x log (sec y + tan y )dy is
30. ~ ( p ∨ q ) is equal to
a. sec2 x + sec2 y = c b. sec x + sec y = c
a. ~ p ∨ ~ q b. ~ p ∧ ~ q
c. sec x − sec y = c d. None of these
c. ~ p ∨ q d. p ∨ ~ q
Space for rough work
Mock Test-2 157
JEE ADVANCE PAPER-I
∫ f ( x)dx = 4
( f (a) + f (b) + 2 f (c)).
SECTION 3 Contains 2 Paragraph Type Questions a
π /2
Each paragraph describes an experiment, a situation or a problem.
Two multiple choice questions will be asked based on this paragraph.
19. ∫ sin x dx
0
is equal to
One or more than one option can be correct.
π π
a. (1 + 2) b. (1 + 2)
Paragraph for Question No. 17 to 18 8 4
A box B1 contains 1 white ball, 3 red balls and 2 black balls. π π
c. d.
Another box B2 contains 2 white balls, 3 red balls and 4 black 8 2 4 2
balls. A third box B3 contains 3 white balls, 4 red balls and 5 20. If f ′′( x ) < 0 ∀x ∈ (a, b) and c is a point such that
black balls. a < c < b , and (c, f (c )) is the point lying on the curve for
17. If 1 ball is drawn from each of the boxes B1 , B2 and B3 , which F ( c ) is maximum, then f ′( c ) is equal to
the probability that all 3 drawn balls are of the same
f (b ) − f ( a ) 2( f (b) − f (a ))
colour is a. b.
b−a b−a
82 90 558 566 2 f (b ) − f ( a )
a. b. c. d. c. d. 0
648 648 648 648 2b − a
9 y =
9 2x
= − log + 1 + = − log(2). D C
16 16
O A B X
15. (c) D′
C′
h
Required area = CDD ' C ' = 2 × ABCD
60° 30°
4 28 2
d = 2∫ 2 x 1/ 2 dx = sq. unit.
1 3
d = h cot 30 ° − h cot 60 ° and time = 3 min.
h (cot 30 o − cot 60 o ) dy 1 + x 2 1
∴ Speed = per minute 21. (b) + = 0 ⇒ dy + + x dx = 0
3 dx x x
It will travel distance h cot 60° in x2
On integrating, we get y + log x + + c = 0.
h cot 60 × 3 o
2
= 1.5 minute.
h(cot 30o − cot 60 o )
22. (d) cos y log(sec x + tan x)dx = cos x log(sec y + tan y)dy
16. (a) For continuous lim f ( x ) = f (2) = k
x→2
⇒ ∫ sec y log(sec y + tan y ) dy
2 2
⇒ x mx + = −1⇒ mx 2 + x + 1 = 0 1. (8) x9 can be formed in 8 ways
m m
i.e., x 9 , x1+8 , x 2+ 7 , x 3+ 6 , x 4+5 , x1+ 2+ 6 , x1+3+5 , x 2+3+ 4
Since, it has equal roots.
D=0 z and coefficient in each case is 1
∴
⇒ Coefficient of x9 = 1 + 1 + 1 + .........+ 1 = 8
4 8 times
⇒ − 4m = 0 ⇒ m3 = 1
m2
a −5 + a −4 + 3( a −3 ) + 1 + a 8 + a10
≥ ( a −5 a −4 ( a −3 ) 3 (1) ( a 8 )( a10 ) ) = 1
1/8
7.
1
(7) G (1) = ∫ t | f ( f (t )) | dt = 0 11. (d) X = sin θ + sin 3θ + ... + sin 29θ
−1
2(sin θ ) X = 1 − cos 2θ + cos 2θ − cos 4θ + ... + cos 28θ − cos30θ
⇒ f (− x ) = − f ( x )
1 − cos 30θ 1
1 ⇒ X = =
Given f (1) = 2sin θ 4 sin 2°
2
F ( x) − F (1) 12. (d) AAT = 9I
F ( x) x −1 f (1) 1
⇒ lim = lim = = 1 2 2 1 2 a
x →1 G ( x ) x →1 G ( x ) − G (1) | f ( f (1)) | 14
x −1 2 1 −2 2 1 2 = 9 I
1/ 2 1 1 a 2 b 2 −2 b
⇒ = ⇒ f = 7.
| f (1/ 2) | 14 2 9 0 a + 4 + 2b 9 0 0
⇒ 2a + 2 − 2b ⇒ 0 9 0
8. (5) Let (1,1,1), ( −1,1,1), (1, −1,1), ( −1, −1, −1) be vectors 0 9
r r r r r r r r a + 4 + 2b 2a + 2 − 2b a 2 + 4 + b 2 0 0 9
a , b , c , d rest of the vectors are −a, −b , −c , −d and let us
find the number of ways of selecting co-planar vectors. Equation a + 4 + 2b = 0
Observe that out of any 3 coplanar vectors two will be ⇒ a + 2b = −4 . . .(i)
collinear (anti parallel) and 2a + 2 − 2b = 0
Number of ways of selecting the anti parallel pair = 4
⇒ 2a − 2b = −2 . . .(ii)
Number of ways of selecting the third vector = 6
Total = 24 a2 + 4 + b2 = 0
Number of non co-planar selections ⇒ a2 + b2 = 5 . . .(iii)
= C3 − 24 = 32 = 2 , p = 5
8 5
Solving a = −2, b = −1
Alternate
8× 6× 4 13. (c) 0.7 + 0.77 + 0.777 + ..... + 0.777...7
Required value =
3! 7
= [0.9 + 0.99 + 0.999 + ... + 0.999...9]
∴ p=5 9
7
= [(1 − 0.1) + (1 − 0.01) + (1 − 0.001...1) + ... + (1 − 0.000...1)]
9. (c) f ′ = ± 1 − f 2
9
Possibilities are (0, 1, 2); (1, 3, 0); (2, 1, 1); (4, 1, 0). bx + a , x ≥ 1
∴ Required coefficients For continuity −3a − 2 = b + a 2
= ( 4 C0 ×7 C1 ×12 C2 ) + ( 4 C1 ×7 C3 ×12 C0 ) + ( 4 C2 ×7 C1 ×12 C1 ) + ( 4 C4 ×7 C1 × 1)
⇒ a 2 + 3a + 2 = −b . . .(i)
= (1× 7 × 66) + (4 × 35 × 1) + (6 × 7 × 12) + (1× 7)
For differentiability −6a = b
= 462 + 140 + 504 + 4 = 113.
⇒ 6 a = −b
15. (c) Coefficient of x10 in ( x + x 2 + x 3 )7
⇒ a 2 − 3a + 2 = 0
Coefficient of x in (1 + x + x )
3 2 7
⇒ a = 1, 2
Coefficient of x3 in (C) (3 − 3ω + 2ω 2 )4 n + 3 + (2 + 3ω − 3ω 2 )4 n + 3 + (−3 + 2ω + 3ω 2 ) 4n +3 = 0
−7 7 + 3+ 7
(1 − x ) (1 − x)
3 7
= C3 − 7 = C3 − 7
9
(3 − 3ω + 2ω 2 ) 4 n + 3 + (ω (2ω 2 + 3 − 3ω )) 4 n + 3 + (ω 2 (−3ω + 2ω 2 + 3) 4 n + 3 = 0
9 ×8× 7 ⇒ (3 − 3ω + 2ω 2 ) 4 n + 3 + (1 + ω 4 n + ω 8 n ) = 0
= − 7 = 77
6 ⇒ n ≠ 3k , k ∈ N
Σxi
16. (d) = 16 ⇒ Σxi = 256 (D) Let a = 5 − d
16
q = 5+d
(Σxi ) − 16 + 3 + 4 + 5 252
= = 14 b = 5 + 2d
18 18
17. (b) Using cosine rule for ∠C | q − a | = | 2d |
3 ( x 2 + x + 1) 2 + ( x 2 − 1) 2 − (2 x + 1) 2 2ab
= Given =4
2 2( x 2 + x + 1)( x 2 − 1) a+b
ab
2x2 + 2 x − 1 ⇒ =2
⇒ 3= 2 a+b
x + x +1
⇒ (5 − d )(5 + 2 d ) = 2(5 − d + 5 + 2d ) = 2(10 + d )
⇒ ( 3 − 2) x 2 + ( 3 − 2) x + ( 3 + 1) = 0
⇒ 25 + 10d − 5d − 2d 2 = 20 + 2d
(2 − 3) ± 3
⇒ x= ⇒ 2d 2 − 3d − 5 = 0
2( 3 − 2)
5
⇒ x = − (2 + 3),1 + 3 ⇒ x = 1 + 3 as ( x > 0). ⇒ d = −1, d =
2
1 1
18. (d) f k = (sin k x + cos k x) f 6 ( x) = (sin 6 x + cos6 x) ⇒ | 2 d | = 2,5
4 6
1 a b c
f 4 ( x) = (sin 4 x + cos 4 x)
4 20. ∆ = b c a = − 1 (a + b + c)[( a − b) 2 + (b − c) 2 + (c − a )2 ]
2
1 3 c a b
f 6 K = 1 − sin 2 2 x
6 4
(A) If a + b + c ≠ 0
1 sin 2 2 x
f 4 ( x ) = 1 = and a 2 + b 2 + c 2 = ab + bc + ca
4 2
⇒ ∆ = 0 and a = b = c ≠ 0
1 sin 2 2 x 1 sin 2 2 x 1 1 1
f 4 ( x) − f 6 ( x) = − − − = − = ⇒ the equations represent identical planes.
4 8 6 8 4 6 12
(B) a + b + c = 0 and a 2 + b 2 + c 2 ≠ ab + bc + ca
3α + β ⇒ ∆=0
19. (A) = 3
2 ⇒ the equations have infinitely many solutions.
3α + β = ± 2 3 . . .(i) ax + by + ( a + b) z
Given α = 2 + 3β . . .(ii) bx + cy = (b + c) z
So |α| = 1 or 2 ⇒ ax + by + cy = 0 ⇒ ax = ay ⇒ x = y = z
166 Mathematics
(C) a + b + c ≠ 0 2 2 1
4. (8) cos α = sin α =
and a + b + c ≠ ab + bc + ca
2 2 2
3 3
⇒ ∆≠0 C1
R α
⇒ a =b=c =0
⇒ the equation represent whole of the three dimensional space.
C
1 1 1+ x 3 x 1
14. (d) tan 30° = =
8. (2) x ⋅ x 0 2 6 x3 − 1 = 0
2 y+z 3
0 6 24 x3 − 2
⇒ x 3 (12 x 3 + 2) = 0
x
⇒ 6 x 6 + x3 − 5 = 0
⇒ 6 x 6 + 6 x 3 − 5 x3 − 5 = 0
60 30
⇒ (6 x 3 − 5)( x 3 + 1) = 0
y B z A
5
⇒ x = − 1, x =
3 3
⇒ 3x = y + z
6
5
1/ 3 x
⇒ x = −1, x = ⇒ tan 60° = = 3
6 y
So, two solution ⇒ x = 3y = y + z
9. (d) x = 4n − 3n − 1, n ∈ N 3y = y + z
x = (1 + 3) n − 3n − 1, n ∈ N ⇒ 2y = z
⇒ X = 0,9,54, ... y = 9(n − 1), n ∈ N for 2y distance time
⇒ y = 0,9,18, ... ⇒ x ∪ y = y. = 10 min.
So for y dist time = 5 min.
10. (b) x 2 + bx − 1 = 0
x2 + x + b = 0 . . .(i) (1 − cos 2 x) (3 + cos x )
15. (d) lim
x →0 x tan 4 x
Common root is (b − 1)x − 1 − b = 0
b +1 (2sin 2 x )(3 + cos x)
⇒ x= This value of x satisfies equation (i) = lim
b −1 x →0 tan 4 x
x × 4x
(b + 1)2 b + 1 4x
⇒ + +b =0
(b −1)2 b −1 2sin 2 x (3 + cos x ) 2
= lim = (3 + 1) = 2
x →0 4x2 4
⇒ b = 3i, − 3i, 0.
π
16. (c) g (u ) = 2 tan −1 (eu ) −
11. (b) Variance =
∑ x − ( x) 2
1
2
2
n = 2 tan −1 e u − tan −1 e u − cot −1 e u = tan −1 e u − cot − 1 e u
2
2 + 4 + 6 + ... + 100 2 + 4 + ... + 100
2 2 2 2
g ( − x) = − g ( x )
⇒ σ2 −
50 50
⇒ g ( x) is odd and g ′( x ) > 0
⇒ σ 2 = 3434 − 2601 = 833
⇒ increasing.
2 1
2
12. (b) Exp. = tan A + 1
=
1
tan A −
tan A − 1 tan A − tan 2 A tan A − 1 tan A 17. (a) P (required) = P (all are white) + P (all are red) + P
(all are black)
tan 2 A + tan A + 1
= = tan A + cot A + 1 = sec A. cosec A + 1
tan A 1 2 3 3 3 4 2 4 5 5
= × × + × × + × × ×
23
6 9 12 6 9 12 6 9 12 12
13. (b) cot ∑ cot −1 ( n 2 + n + 1)
n =1 6 36 40 82
= + + = .
648 648 648 648
23 n +1− n
cot ∑ tan −1
n =1 1 + n(n + 1) 18. (d) Let A : one ball is white and other is red
23 25 E1 : Both balls are from box B1
⇒ cot tan −1 = .
325 23 E2 : Both balls are from box B2
Mock Test-3 169
JEE-MAIN: MATHEMATICS MOCK TEST -3
−1 x < 0 1 7
a. b.
1. Let g ( x) = 1 + x − [ x] and f ( x) = 0 x = 0. Then for all 2 15
1 x >1
c.
2
d.
1
x, f {g ( x)} is equal to: 15 3
a. x b. 1 c. f ( x) d. g ( x ) 3π 1 − cos α 1 + cos α
10. If π < α < , then + =
2 1 + cos α 1 − cos α
2. If x = 6 + 6 + 6 + ....to ∞ , then 2 2
a. b. −
a. x is an irrational number b. 2 < x < 3 sin α sin α
c. x = 3 d. None of these 1 1
c. d. −
sin α sin α
3. If z + z −1 = 1, then z100 + z −100 is equal to
a. i b. – I c. 1 d. – 1 3 i
11. Find real part of cos −1
2 + 2
2 −3
4. The inverse of is
−4 2 a. π / 3 b. π / 4
−1 2 3 −1 3 2 3 −1
c. log
2
a. b. d. None of these
8 4 2 8 2 4
1 2 3 1 3 2 12. A house of height 100 metres subtends a right angle at the
c. d.
8 4 2 8 2 4 window of an opposite house. If the height of the window
be 64 metres, then the distance between the two houses is
5. The sum of 100 terms of the series .9 + .09 + .009......... ill be
100 100
a. 48 m b. 36 m c. 54 m d. 72 m
1 1
a. 1 − b. 1 + sin x
10 10 + cos x, when x≠0
106 100
13. If f ( x) = x then
1 1 2, when x=0
c. 1 − d. 1 +
10 10
a. lim f ( x) ≠ 2 b. lim f ( x) = 0
x →0 + x →0 −
6. If n is an integer greater than 1, then a − C1 ( a − 1) +n n
c. f ( x ) is continuous at x = 0 d. None of these
C2 (a − 2) +.... + ( −1) n (a − n) =
dy
a. a b. 0 14. If x y = e x − y , then =
dx
c. a 2 d. 2 n
a. log x.[log(ex)]−2 b. log x.[log(ex)]2
2 6 12 20
7. The sum of + + + +K is c. log x.(log x)2 d. None of these
1! 2! 3! 4!
3e 15. 20 is divided into two parts so that product of cube of one
a. b. e
2 quantity and square of the other quantity is maximum. The
c. 2e d. 3e parts are
a. 10, 10 b. 16, 4
8. If the letters of the word KRISNA are arranged in all
c. 8, 12 d. 12, 8
possible ways and these words are written out as in a
dictionary, then the rank of the word KRISNA is 1
a. 324 b. 341
16. ∫ x
tan 4 x sec 2 x dx =
Then the sum of the diagonal entries of M is 10. The real number k for which the equation,
2 x + 3 x + k = 0 has two distinct real roots in [0, 1]
3
3. Suppose that all the terms of an arithmetic progression
a. lies between 1 and 2 b. lies between 2 and 3
(A.P.) are natural numbers. If the ratio of the sum of the
c. lies between –1 and 0 d. does not exist
first seven terms to the sum of the first eleven terms is
6 : 11 and the seventh term lies in between 130 and 140, 11. If z is a complex number of unit modulus and argument
then the common difference of this A.P. is 1+ z
θ , then arg equals
4. A pack contains n cards numbered from 1 to n. Two 1+ z
π
consecutive numbered cards are removed from the pack a. −θ b. −θ
and the sum of the numbers on the remaining cards is 2
1224. If the smaller of the numbers on the removed cards c. θ d. π − θ
is k, then k − 20 = _____
5 a −b
5. Consider a triangle ABC and let a, b and c denote the 12. If A = and A adj A = A A , then 5a + b is equal
T
3 2
lengths of the sides opposite to vertices A, B and C
to:
respectively. Suppose a = 6, b = 10 and the area of the
a. –1 b. 5
triangle is 15 3. If ∠ACB is obtuse and if r denotes the c. 4 d. 13
radius of the in circle of the triangle, then r 2 is equal to
13. Three positive numbers form an increasing G.P. If the
6. Let m and n be two positive integers greater than 1. If
middle term in this G.P. is doubled, the new numbers are
e cos(α ) − e
n
e m
lim = − then the value of is in A.P. Then the common ratio of the G.P. is :
a →0
α
m
2 n
a. 2+ 3 b. 3 + 2
7. Let S be the focus of the parabola y2 = 8x and let PQ be
c. 2 − 3 d. 2 + 3
the common chord of the circle x2 + y2 – 2x –4y = 0 and
the given parabola. The area of the triangle PQS is.
14. If the number of terms in the expansion of
Q n
2 4
1 − + 2 , x ≠ 0, is 28, then the sum of coefficients
S x x
P (2,0) of all the terms in this expansion, is:
a. 64 b. 2187
c. 243 d. 729
172 Mathematics
15. Let Tn be the number of all possible triangles formed by SECTION 3 Contains 2 Match The Following Type Questions
joining vertices of a n-sides regular polygon. If You will have to match entries in Column I with the entries in
Column II.
Tn+1 − Tn = 1 then the value of n is
a. 7 b. 5 19. Match the statements given in Column I with the values
c. 10 d. 8 given in Column II.
16. A computer producing factory has only two plants T1 and Column I Column II
r ˆ
T2 . Plant T1 produces 20% and plant T2 produces 80% (A) If a = j + 3kˆ = −ˆj + 3kˆ 1. π
r 6
of the total computers produced. 7% of computers and c = 2 3kˆ form a
produced in the factory turn out to be defective. It is triangle, then the internal
known that P(computer turns out to be defective given angle of the triangle
that it is produced in plant T1 ) = 10 P (computer turns out r r
between a and b is
to be defective given that it is produced in Plant T2 ), b
2π
∫ (f (x) − 3x)dx = a − b2 ,
2
where P(E) denotes the probability of an event E. A (B) If 2.
a
3
computer produced in the factory is randomly selected and
it does not turn out to be defective. Then the probability π
then the value of f is
that it is produced in plant T2 is 6
36 47 π2 π
a. b. (C) The value of 3.
73 79 ln 3 3
5/6
78 75
c.
93
d.
83 ∫ sec(π x) dx is
7/6
17. A bird is sitting on the top of a vertical pole 20 m high and (D) The maximum value 4. π
is elevation from a point O on the ground is 45° . It flies 1
Arg for
off horizontally straight away from the point O. After one 1− z
second, the elevation of the bird from O is reduced to
| z |= 1, z ≠ 1 f is given by
30°. Then the speed (in m/s) of the bird is:
π
a. 40( 2 − 1) 5.
2
b. 40( 3 − 2)
20. Consider the lines given by L1 : x + 3 y − 5 = 0,
c. 20 2
L2 : 3 x − ky − 1 = 0, L3 : 5 x + 2 y − 12 = 0 Match the
d. 20( 3 − 1) Statements /Expressions in Column I with the Statements/
Expressions in Column II
18. Let f ( x) be differentiable on the interval (0, ∞) such that
Column I Column II
t 2 f ( x) − x 2 f (t ) (A) L1 , L2 , L3 are 1. k = −9
f (1) = 1, and lim = 1 for each x > 0.
t →x t−x concurrent, if
Then f ( x) is
(B) One of L1 , L2 , L3 is 6
2
2. k=−
1 2x parallel to at least of 5
a. +
3x 3 the other two, if
1 4x2 (C) L1 , L2 , L3 form a 5
b. − + 3. k =
3x 3 6
triangle, if
1 2
c. − + (D) L1 , L2 , L3 do not form 4. k =5
x x2
1 a triangle, if
d.
x
Mock Test-3 173
JEE ADVANCE PAPER-II
SECTION 1 Contains 8 Questions. 8. If the normals of the parabola y 2 = 4 x drawn at the end
The answer to each question is a single digit integer ranging from 0 to points of its latus rectum are tangents to the circle
9 (both inclusive).
( x − 3) 2 + ( y + 2) 2 = r 2 , then the value of r 2 is
1. For a point P in the plane, let d1 ( P ) and d 2 ( P) be the
distances of the point P from the lines x − y = 0 and SECTION 2 Contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions
With one or more than one correct option
x+ y =0 respectively. The area of the region R
1
consisting of all points P lying in the first quadrant of the
9. Let p = lim (1 + tan 2 x ) 2 x then log p is equal to:
x→0+
plane and satisfying 2 ≤ d1 ( P ) + d 2 ( P) ≤ 4, is _______
1 1
a. 2 b. 1 c. d.
2. The slope of the tangent to the curve 2 4
( y − x5 )2 = x(1 + x2 )2 at the point (1, 3) is 10. Let f ( x) be a non-constant twice differentiable function
3. Let (x, y, z) be points with integer coordinates satisfying defined on (−∞, ∞) such that f ( x) = f (1 − x) and
the system of homogeneous equations: 3x − y − z = 0 , 1
f ′ = 0. Then
−3 x + z = 0 −3x + 2 y + z = 0. 4
Then the number of such points for which a. f ′′( x) vanishes at least twice on [0, 1]
x + y + z ≤ 100 is
2 2 2
1
b. f ′ = 0
2
−1 sin θ π π 1/ 2
4. Let f (θ ) = sin tan , where − < θ < . 1
cos 2θ 4 4 c. ∫
−1/ 2
f x + sin x dx = 0
2
d 1/ 2 1
Then the value of (f (θ )) is f ( t ) esin π t dt =
d(tan θ ) d. ∫
0
∫
1/ 2
f (1 − 1)esin π t dt
log(1+ 2 )
b
6. Let a, b, c be positive integers such that
a
is an integer. b. ∫
0
(eu + e −u )17 du
a 2 + a − 14
c. ∫ (eu − e −u )17 du
mean of a, b, c is b + 2, then the value of is 0
a +1 log(1+ 2 )
3 5 2 20. min |1 − 3i − z |=
a. ± , ± z∈S
2 7
2− 3
a.
3 5 19 2
b. ± ,±
2 4
2+ 3
b.
1 2
c. ±2 3, ±
7 3− 3
c.
4 3 2
d. ±2 3, ±
7 3+ 3
d.
2
Mock Test-3 175
ANSWER & SOLUTIONS 2 6 12 20
7. (d) Let S = + + + + K and let
JEE-Main 1! 2! 3! 4!
S1 = 2 + 6 + 12 + 20 + K + Tn
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
b c d a a b d a b b S1 = 2 + 6 + 12 + KTn −1 + Tn
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
0 = 2 + 4 + 6 + 8 + K upto n terms − Tn
b a c a d c d c b c
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. Tn = 2 + 4 + 6 + 8 + .......upto n terms
a c a a b a c a a d
n
⇒ Tn = [2 × 2 + (n − 1) 2] = n(2 + n − 1) = n(n + 1)
2
−1 g ( x) < 0
∴ nth term of given series
1. (b) f ( g ( x)) = 0 g ( x) = 0
1 n(n + 1) n(n + 1) 1 2
g ( x) > 0 Tn = or Tn = or Tn = +
n! n(n − 1)! (n − 2)! (n − 1)!
Since g ( x) ≥ 1 > 0
∞ ∞
1 1
Hence g ( g ( x)) = 1 Now, sum = ∑ + 2∑ = e + 2e = 3e.
n =1 ( n − 2)! n =1 ( n − 1)!
π
+[C1 − 2C2 + 3C3 − .... + ( −1) n −1 n.Cn ] = a.0 + 0 = 0 = sin −1 sin θ − i log( sin θ + 1 + sin θ ), where θ =
6
176 Mathematics
3 i 1 π b a 2 − b 2 cos θ + 0 − ab −b a 2 − b 2 cos θ − ab
∴ Real part of cos −1 + = sin −1
= . 19. (b)
2 2 2 4 b 2 cos 2 θ + a 2 sin 2 θ b 2 cos 2 θ + a 2 sin 2 θ
12. (a) 64 cot θ = d −[b 2 ( a 2 − b 2 ) cos 2 θ − a 2b 2 ]
=
Also (100 − 64) tan θ = d or (64)(36) = d , 2
(b 2 cos 2 θ + a 2 sin 2 θ )
∴ d = 8 × 6 = 48 m. b 2 [a 2 − a 2 cos 2 θ + b 2 cos 2 θ ]
=
b 2 cos 2 θ + a 2 sin 2 θ
13. (c) f (0+) = f (0−) = 2 and f (0) = 2
b 2 [a 2 sin 2 θ + b 2 cos2 θ ]
Hence f ( x) is continuous at x = 0. = = b2
b 2 cos 2 θ + a 2 sin 2 θ
14. (a) x y = e x− y
⇒ y log x = x − y 20. (c)
O
x
⇒ y=
1 + log x 45°
A C B
dy
⇒ = log x(1 + log x) −2 = log x[log ex ]−2 . AB = 2
dx
Let AB be the chord of length 2 , O be centre of the circle
15. (d) Let x + y = 20 ⇒ y = 20 − x
and let OC be the perpendicular from O on AB. Then
and x 3 . y 2 = z ⇒ z = x 3 . y 2
2 1
AC = BC = =
z = x 3 (20 − x) 2 2 2
⇒ z = 400 x 3 + x5 − 40 x 4 1
In ∆ OBC , OB = BC cosec 45° = . 2 =1
dz 2
= 1200 x 2 + 5 x 4 − 160 x 3
dx ∴ Area of the circle = π (OB ) 2 = π
dz
Now = 0, then x = 12, 20 y
dx
21. (a) Tangent as
d 2z d 2z A focal chord
Now = 2400 x + 16 x 3
− 480 x 2
; 2 = −ive 2
dx 2 dx x =12 P θ C(6,0)
x'
θ x
Hence x = 12 is the point of maxima (4,0)
2
∴ x = 12, y = 8. B
1
16. (c) ∫ x
tan 4 x .sec2 x dx y'
Here, the focal chord of y 2 = 16 x is tangent to circle
2
sec x
Put tan x = t ⇒ dx = dt , ( x − 6) 2 + y 2 = 2.
2 x
⇒ focus of parabola as (a,0) ie, (4,0)
then it reduces to
2 2 Now, tangents are drawn from (4,0) to ( x − 6) 2 + y 2 = 2.
2 ∫ t 4 dt = (tan x )5 + c = tan 5 x + c.
5 5 Since, PA is tangent to circle.
2 AC BC 2
17. (d) Required area = ∫
0
[2 x − (2 x − x 2 )] dx ∴ tan θ = slope of tangent =
AP
2
=
= 1, or
BP
= −1
2
2x x3 4 8 1 3 4 ∴ Slope of focal chord as tangent to circle = ±1.
= − x2 + = −4+ − = − .
log 2 3 0 log 2 3 log 2 log 2 3 r r r r r r r r r r r
22. (c) a ⋅ b = a ⋅ c ⇒ a ⋅ b − a ⋅ c = 0 ⇒ a ⋅ (b − c ) = 0
dy r r r r r r r r
18. (c) Given equation = e x (sin x + cos x ) ⇒ Either b − c = 0 or a = 0 ⇒ b = c or a ⊥ (b − c ).
dx
⇒ dy = e x (sin x + cos x) dx 23. (a) Given lines are,
x−5 y−7 z+ 2
On integrating, we get y = e x sin x + c. = = = r1 , (say)
3 −1 1
Mock Test-3 177
x+3 y−3 z−6 Let AE is a vertical lamp-post. Given, AE = 12m
and = = = r2 , (say)
−36 2 4 AE
tan 45° =
∴ x = 3r1 + 5 = −36r2 − 3 , AC
y = −r1 + 7 = 3 + 2r2 and z = r1 − 2 = 4r2 + 6 AC = AE = 12m
m
AE
5
On solving, we get x = 21, y = , z =
10 tan 60° =
3 3 AB
Trick: Check through options. AE
AB = =4 3
3
24. (a) ~ ( p ∧ q) ≡ ~ p ∨ ~ q .
BC = AC 2 − AB 2 = 144 − 48 = 96 = 4 6
25. (b) From the given identity
Area = = AB × BC = 4 3 × 4 6 = 48 2 sq
sq.cm.
. cm.
b( x + 1) 2 + c ( x + 1) + d − (bx 2 + cx + d ) = 8 x + 3
y
⇒ 2bx + b + c = 8 x + 3 29. (a)
⇒ b = 4, c = −1 B y= x
2 pq
26. (a) As given H = x−3
p+q y=
2
x' x
H H 2q 2p 2( p + q ) O A(3,0) (9,0)
∴ + = + = =2.
p q p+q p+q p+q y'
27. (c) Plan: A square matrix M is invertible if f det(M) or To find the area between the curves, y = x , 2 y + 3 = x
| M |≠ 0. and x-axis in the Ist quadrant (we can plot the above
a b condition as);
Let, M =
b c Area of shaded portion OABO
9 9
a b 9 x −39 x3 / 2 1 x 2
(a) Given that = ⇒ a = b = c = α (let) =∫ x dx − ∫ dx = − − 3x
b c
0 3
2 3 / 2 0 2 2 3
α α 2 1 81 9
⇒ M = ⇒ | M |= 0 = ⋅ 27 − − 27 − − 9
α α 3 2 2 2
⇒ M is non-invertible. 1
= 18 − (18) = 9 sq unit
(b) Given that [b c] = [a b] 2
⇒ a = b = c = α (let) 30. (d) The equation of tangent at ( x1 , y1 ) is xx1 − 2 yy1 = 4,
Again | M |= 0 which is same as 2 x + 6 y = 2
⇒ M is non-invertible. x1 2y 4
∴ =− 1 =
a 0 2 6 2
(c) As given M = ⇒ | M |= ac ≠ 0
0 c ⇒ x1 = 4 and y1 = − 6
( Q a and c are non-zero)
⇒ M is invertible. JEE Advance Paper-I
a b
(s) M = ⇒ | M |= ac − b 2 ≠ 0 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
b c
5 9 9 5 3 2 4 5 a d
Q ac is not equal to square of an integer.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
∴ M is invertible.
c b d d b c d a c a
D C
28. (a) 5
E 450 1. (5) | 2z − 6 + 5i |= 2 z − 3 −
2
5 5
600
≥ 2 3 − 3 − i (corresponding Pt A) = 2 = 5
B 2 2
A
178 Mathematics
0 −1 ⇒
n
C2 = 2n
1 0 n(n − 1)
= 2n
M 1 = 1 ⇒ g + h + i = 12 ⇒ i = 7 2
1 12 ⇒ n −1 = 4
⇒ n = 5.
∴ Sum of diagonal elements = 9.
9. (a) Set A has 4 elements
3. (9) Let seventh term be ‘a’ and common difference be‘d’
Set B has 2 elements
S7 6 ∴ Number of elements in set ( A × B) = 4 × 2 = 8
Given =
S11 11
∴ Total number of subsets of ( A × B) = 28 = 256
⇒ a = 15d
Hence, 130 < 15 d < 140 ⇒ d = 9 Number of subsets having 0 elements = 8C0 = 1
4. (5) Clearly, 1 + 2 + 3 + K + n − 2 ≤ 1224 ≤ 3 + 4 + K n Number of subsets having 1 element each = 8C1 = 8
(n − 2) (n − 1) (n − 2) ∴ Number of subsets having 2 elements each
⇒ ≤ 1224 ≤ (3 + n)
2 2 8! 8× 7
= 8C2 = = = 28
⇒ n 2 − 3n − 2446 ≤ 0 and n 2 + n − 2454 ≥ 0 2!6! 2
⇒ 49 < n < 51 Number of subsets having at least 3 elements
⇒ n = 50 = 256 − 1 − 8 − 28 = 256 − 37 = 219
n(n + 1) 10. (d) f ( x) = 2 x3 + 3x + k
∴ − (2k + 1) = 1224
2 f ′( x) = 6 x 2 + 3
⇒ k = 25 ⇒ k − 20 = 5
1
1 ⇒ f ′( x) = 0 ⇒ x 2 = −
5. (3) ∆ = ab sin C 2
2 Not possible. As condition for two distinct real root is
2∆ 2 ×15 3 3 f (α ) f ( β ) = 0
⇒ sin C = = = ⇒ C = 120°
ab 6 ×10 2 (where are α , β roots of f ′( x) = 0)
⇒ c= a 2 + b 2 − 2 ab cos C 11. (c) Let z = ω
= 6 + 10 − 2 × 6 × 10 × cos120 ° = 14
2 2
1+ z 1+ ω −ω 2
Now = = =ω
∆ 225 × 3 1+ z 1+ ω2 −ω
r= ⇒ r = = 3.
2
∴
s 10 + 14
6 + 1+ z
∴ arg = arg ω = θ (put z = cosθ + i sin θ )
2 1+ z
12. (b) | A | I = AAT
( )
cos α n
e −e e
6. (2) lim =− 1 0 5a −b 5a 3
α →0 αm 2 ⇒ (10a + 3b) =
0 1 3 2 −b 2
lim
(
e e (cos(α )
n
−1)
) (cos α n
− 1)
α 2n = −
e ⇒ 25a 2 + b2 = 10a + 3b & 15a − 2b = 0 & 10a + 3b = 13
α →0
( cos(α n
)
) −1 α α m 2n
2
3.15a
⇒ 10a + = 13 ⇒ 65a = 2 ×13
if and only if 2n − m = 0 2
Mock Test-3 179
2 ⇒ OB − OA = 20( 3 − 1)
⇒ a= ⇒ 5a = 2
5 Hence distance covered in one second by the bird is
⇒ 2a = 6 ⇒ b = 3 AB = 20( 3 − 1)
∴ 5a + b = 5
Thus speed of bird
13. (d) Let the numbers be a, ar, ar2 is G.P. = 20( 3 –1)
− 1) m/s
/
2 a + ar 2
Given a, 2ar, ar are in A.P. the 2 ar = ( a ≠ 0)
2 t 2 f ( x) − x 2 f (t )
18. (a) lim =1
which gives r = 2 + 3, as the G.P. is an increasing G.P. t →x t−x
⇒ x 2 f ′( x ) − 2 x f ( x ) + 1 = 0
14. (d) Theoretically the number of terms are 2N + 1 (i.e. odd)
But As the number of terms being odd hence considering ⇒ f ( x ) = cx 2 + 1
that number clubbing of terms is done hence the solutions 3x
follows: Also f (1) = 1
n+2
Number of terms = C2 = 28
⇒ c=2
∴ n=6 3
Sum of coefficient = 3n = 36 = 729 2 2 1
Hence f ( x ) = x + .
3 3x
Put x = 1
r r
n +1 19. (A) a − b = 1 + 3 = 2
15. (b) C3 − C3 = 10
n
r
r
| a |= b, | b |= 2
⇒ On solving n = 5
2 1
16. (c) Let x = P (computer turns out to be defective given cos θ = =
2× 2 2
that it is produced in plate T2 ),
π 2π 2π
7 1 4 θ= , but its as its opposite to side of maximum
⇒ = (10 x) + x 3 3 3
100 5 5
length.
⇒ 7 = 200 x + 80 x b
∫ (f (x) − 3x) dx = a − b2
2
7 (B)
⇒ x= a
280
−a 2 + b 2
b
3 2
P (produced in T2 / not defective)
∫ f (x)dx = 2
(b − a 2 ) + a 2 − b 2 =
2
P( A ∩ B) a
= ⇒ f (x) = x.
P(B)
π 2 ln (sec π x + tan π x) 7 / 6
5/ 6
4 4 273
(C)
5(1 − x) 5 280 ln 3 π
⇒ =
1 4 1 280 − 70 4 273
(1 − 10 x) + (1 − x) +
5 5 5 280 5 280 π 5π 5π 7π 7π
= ln sec + tan − ln sec + tan = π.
ln 3 6 6 6 6
4 × 273 2 × 273 546 78
⇒ = = =
210 + 4 × 273 105 + 2 × 273 651 93 1 1
(D) Let u = ⇒ z = 1−
17. (d) Q P
1− z u
1
| z |= 1 ⇒ 1 − =1
2
⇒ | u − 1|=| u |
B A O ∴ locus of u is perpendicular bisector of line segment
Here, AP = QB = 20m joining 0 and 1
∠POA = 45°, ∠QOB = 30° π
⇒ maximum arg u approaches but will not attain.
⇒ OA = 20; OB = 20 3 2
180 Mathematics
20. x + 3 y − 5 = 0 and 5 x + 2 y − 12 = 0 intersect at (2, 1) −1 sin θ
4. (1) f (θ ) = sin tan
Hence 6 − k − 1 = 0 k = 5 2cos θ
1 3
for L1 , L2 to be parallel = ⇒ k = −9 sin θ
3 −k = sin sin −1
sin θ + cos 2θ
2
3 −k −6
for L2 , L3 to be parallel = ⇒k= . sin θ sin θ sin θ
5 2 5 = = = = tan θ
−6 sin θ + (cos θ − sin θ )
2 2 2 | cos θ | cos θ
for k ≠ 5, − 9, they will form triangle
5 d d(tan θ )
−6 ⇒ f (θ ) = =1
for k = 5, k = −9, they will not form triangle d(tan θ ) d(tan θ )
5
π π
5 (2) 2cos + 2cos = 3 +1
JEE Advance Paper-II 2k k
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. π π 3 +1
⇒ cos + cos =
6 8 7 1 5 4 3 2 3 All 2k k 2
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. π θ 3 +1
a d a,d c d a d a b c
Let = 0, cos θ + cos =
k 2 2
1. (6) θ θ 3 +1
y=x ⇒ 2 cos 2 − 1 + cos =
2 2 2
θ 3 +3
P(α , β ) ⇒ cos = t ⇒ 2t 2 + t − =0
2 2
x= 2 x=2 2 −1 ± 1 + 4(3 + 3) −1 ± (2 3 + 1) −2 − 2 3 3
⇒ t= = = ,
2 ≤ d1 ( p ) + d 2 ( p ) ≤ 4 4 4 4 2
For P (α , β ), α > β θ 3
Q t ∈ [ −1,1],cos =
2 2
⇒ 2 2 ≤ 2α ≤ 4 2
θ π
2 ≤α ≤ 2 2 ⇒ = ⇒ k = 3.
2 6
⇒ Area of region = ((2 2) − ( 2) ) 2 2
b c
= 8 − 2 = 6 sq.. units 6. (4) = = (integer) b 2 = ac
a b
dy b2 a +b+c
2. (8) 2( y − x 5 ) − 5 x 4 ⇒ c= ⇒ =b+2
dx a 3
= 1(1 + x 2 )2 + ( x)(2(1 + x 2 )(2 x)) a + b + c = 3b + 6
Now put x = 1, y = 3 ⇒ a − 2b + c = 6
dy b2
and = m. 2(3 − 1)( m − 5) = 1(4) + (1)(4)(2) a − 2b + =6
dx a
12 2b b 2 6
⇒ m−5 = ⇒ 1− + =
4 a a2 a
dy 2
⇒ m = 5+3 = 8 ⇒ = m = 8. b 6
dx − 1 = a = 6 only
a a
3. (7) 3x − y − z = 0 −3 x + z = 0 7. (3) The expression may not attain integral value for all a, b, c
⇒ y = 0 and z = 3 x If we consider a = b = c, then x = 3a
⇒ x 2 + y 2 + z 2 = x 2 + z 2 = x 2 + 9 x 2 = 10 x 2 ≤ 100 y = a(1 + ω + ω 2 ) = a(1 + i 3)
⇒ x2 ≤ 10 ⇒ x = 0, ± 1, ± 2, ± 3 z = a(1 + ω 2 + ω ) = a(1 + i 3)
There are such seven points. ∴ | x |2 + | y |2 + | z |2 = 9 | a |2 +4 | a |2 +4 | a |2 = 17 | a |2
Mock Test-3 181
8. (2) Equation of normals are x + y = 3 and x − y = 3. (e − e )
u −u
⇒ − ∫ (eu + e − u )17 du
⇒ Distance from (3, −2) on both normals is ‘r’ 2cosec x cot x
ln(1+ 2 )
|3−2−3|
0
⇒
2
=r = −2 ∫ (eu + e − u )16 du = ∫ 2(eu + e − u )16 du
ln(1+ 2 ) 0
⇒ r = 2.
2
1 1
3 − 5 dx
12. (d) ∫
1 x x
9 (3) P = lim+ (1 + tan 2 x − 1) 2x
then log p =
x →∞ 2 1
2− 2 + 4
(1+ tan 2 x −1 )
1
lim
(tan x )2 1 x x
lim 2x
x →0+ 2( x ) 2
P=e x→0+
=e = e2 2 1
Let 2 − + =z
1
1 x2 x4
⇒ log P = log e = 2
2 1 dz
4∫ z
⇒
10. (a,b,c,d) 1
⇒ × z +c
2
1/4 3/4
1 2 1
1/2 ⇒ 2− 2 + 4 +c
2 x x
13. (a,d) y '− y tan x = 2 x sec x
f ( x) = f (1 − x)
I.F. = e∫
tan x dx
= elog cos x = cos x
Put x = 1/ 2 + x
∴ y cos x = ∫ 2 x sec x.cos x dx
1 1
⇒ f + x = f − x
2 2 ⇒ y cos x = x 2 + c
Hence f ( x + 1/ 2) is an even function or f ( x + 1/ 2)sin x ⇒ y ⋅ cos x = x 2 (Q y (0) = 0)
an odd function.
⇒ y = x 2 sec x
Also, f '( x) = − f '(1 − x) and for x = 1/ 2,
π π π 4π 2π
2 2
Also,
1/ 2
∫ f (1 − t )esin π t dt = − ∫ f ( y)esinπ t dy
1/ 2 14. (c) ∆ =
3 2
b . . .(i)
4
(obtained by putting, 1 − t = y ).
sin120° sin 30°
Also =
Since f ′(1/ 4) = 0, f ′(3/ 4) = 0. Also f ′(1/ 2) = 0 a b
⇒ f ′( x) = 0 atleast twice in [0, 1] (Rolle’s Theorem) ⇒ a = 3b and ∆ = 3s and s =
1
(a + 2b)
2
π
2 3
⇒ ∆= (a + 2b)
∫ (2cosec x) . . .(ii)
17
11. (a) dx
π
2
From equation (i) and (ii), we get ∆ = (12 + 7 3)
4
π
Let eu + e− u = 2cosec x, x = 15. (d) Circle touching y-axis at (0, 2) is
4
π (x − 0) 2 + (y − 2) 2 + λ x = 0
⇒ u = ln(1 + 2), x =
2 passes through (–1, 0)
⇒ u=0 ∴ 1+ 4 − λ = 0 ⇒ λ = 5
⇒ cosec x + cot x = eu and cosec x − cot x = e − u ∴ x 2 + y 2 + 5x − 4y + 4 = 0
eu − e −u Put y = 0 ⇒ x = −1, − 4
⇒ cot x (eu − e − u ) dx = −2cosec x cot xdx
2 ∴ Circle passes through (–4, 0)
182 Mathematics
16. (a) Any point on the line can be taken as 18. (a) Locus is parabola
Q ≡ {(1 − 3µ ), ( µ − 1), (5µ + 2)} 3x 4 y
Equation of AB Is + =1
9 4
PQ = {−3µ − 2, µ − 3, 5 µ − 4}
x
Now 1(−3µ − 2) − 4( µ − 3) + 3(5µ − 4) = 0 ⇒ + y = 1 ⇒ x + 3y − 3 = 0
3
⇒ − 3 µ − 2 − 4 µ + 12 + 15 µ − 12 = 0
( x + 3 y − 3) 2
( x − 3)2 + ( y − 4) 2 =
8 µ = 2 ⇒ µ = 1/ 4 10
10 x + 90 – 60 x + 10 y + 160 – 80 y = x 2 + 9 y 2 + 9 + 6 xy – 6 x – 18
2 2
17. (d) y = mx + 9 m 2 + 4
10 x 2 + 90 – 60 x + 10 y 2 + 160 – 80 y = x 2 + 9 y 2 + 9 + 6 xy – 6 x – 18 y
4 − 3m = 9m 2 + 4
⇒ 9 x 2 + y 2 – 6 xy – 54 x – 62 y + 241 = 0.
12 1
16 + 9m 2 − 24m = 9m 2 + 4 ⇒ m = =
24 2 19. (b) y + 3x = 0
1
Equation is y − 4 = ( x − 3)
2 60°
2y − 8 = x − 3 60°
x 2 + y 2 < 16
⇒ x − 2y + 5 = 0
Let B = (α , β )
Area of region S1 ∩ S 2 ∩ S3 = shaded area
xα y β
⇒ + −1 = 0
9 4 π × 42 42 × π
= +
α / 9 β / 4 −1 4 6
⇒ = = ⇒
1 −2 5 1 1 20π
= 42 π + =
⇒
9
α =− , β =
8 4 6 3
5 5 20. (c) Distance of (1, –3) from y + 3 x = 0
9 8
⇒ B ≡ − , . −3 + 3 × 1 3 − 3
5 5 > >
2 2
Mock Test-4 183
JEE-MAIN: MATHEMATICS MOCK TEST-4
1. The number of solutions of log 4( x − 1) = log 2( x − 3) is: a. occurrence of E ⇒ occurrence of F
a. 3 b. 1 c. 2 d. 0 b. occurrence of F ⇒ occurrence of E
c. non-occurrence of E ⇒ non-occurrence of F
2. The real roots of the equation x 2 + 5 | x | + 4 = 0 are
d. None of the above implication holds
a. – 1, 4 b. 1, 4
π π
c. – 4, 4 d. None of these 10. tan + θ − tan − θ =
4 4
1+ 3 i a. 2 tan 2θ b. 2 cot 2θ c. tan 2θ d. cot 2θ
3. If is a root of equation x 4 − x 3 + x − 1 = 0 then
2
11. tanh( x + y ) equals
its real roots are
a. 1, 1 b. – 1, – 1 c. 1, – 1 d. 1, 2 tanh x + tanh y tanh x + tanh y
a. b.
1 − tanh x tanh y 1 + tanh x tanh y
1 0 0
tanh x − tanh y tanh x − tanh y
4. Let A = 5 2 0 , then the adjoint of A is c. d.
1 − tanh x tanh y 1 + tanh x tanh y
−1 6 1
12. The length of the shadow of a pole inclined at 10° to the
2 −5 32 −1 0 0
a. 0 1 −6 b. −5 −2 0
vertical towards the sun is 2.05 metres, when the elevation
of the sun is 38°. The length of the pole is
0 0 2 1 −6 1
2.05 sin 38° 2.05 sin 42°
a. b.
−1 0 0 sin 42 ° sin 38°
c. −5 −2 0 d. None of these 2.05 cos 38°
c. d. None of these
1 −6 −1 cos 42 °
2 1
5. The value of 0.234 is x sin , when x≠0
13. If f ( x) = x , then
232 232 0, when x=0
a. b.
990 9990 a. f (0 + 0) = 1 b. f (0 − 0) = 1
232 232 c. f is continuous at x = 0 d. None of these
c. d.
990 9909
( x − a)( x − b) dy
6. The sum of the coefficients of even power of x in the 14. If y = , then =
( x − c)( x − d ) dx
expansion of (1 + x + x 2 + x 3 )5 is
y 1 1 1 1
a. 256 b. 128 c. 512 d. 64 a. + − −
2 x − a x − b x − c x − d
1 − 2 x + 3x 2
7. In the expansion of , the coefficient of x5 1 1 1 1
ex b. y + − −
x − a x − b x − c x − d
will be
1 1 1 1 1
71 71 c. + − −
a. b. − 2 x − a x − b x − c x − d
120 120
d. None of these
31 31
c. d. −
40 40 x2 − 1
15. If f ( x) = , for every real number x, then the
8. The total number of seven digit numbers the sum of x2 + 1
whose digits is even is minimum value of f
a. 9000000 b. 4500000 a. Does not exist because f is unbounded
c. 8100000 d. None of these b. Is not attained even though f is bounded
9. If E and F are events with P ( E ) ≤ P ( F ) and P ( E ∩ F ) > 0, c. Is equal to 1
then d. Is equal to –1
184 Mathematics
x
a 23. A line makes the same angle θ , with each of the x and
16. ∫ 1 − a2x
dx =
z-axis. If the angle β , which it makes with y-axis is such
1 that sin 2 β = 3sin 2 θ , then cos 2 θ equals
a. sin −1 a x + c −1
b. sin a + c x
log a
3 2
1 a. b.
c. cos −1 a x + c d. cos −1 a x + c 5 3
log a
1
c. d. None of these
17. The area bounded by the circle x 2 + y 2 = 4, line x = 3 y 5
and x-axis lying in the first quadrant, is 24. (~ (~ p)) ∧ q is equal to
π π π
a. b. c. d. π a. ~ p ∧ q b. p ∧ q c. p ∧ ~ q d. ~ p ∧ ~ q
2 4 3
∫x
n− 2
tossed, so that the probability of getting at least two heads g ( x) = ( f o f oKo f )( x). Then g ( x) dx equals
144244 3
f occurs n times
is at least 0.96 is
1 1
1 1− 1 1−
4. For any real number x, let |x| denote the largest integer less a. (1 + nx n ) n + K b. (1 + nx n ) n + K
n(n − 1) n −1
than or equal to x. Let f be a real valued function defined 1 1
1 1+ 1 1+
Ï x - [ x] if [ x] is odd c. (1 + nx n ) n + K d. (1 + nx n ) n + K
on the interval [−10, 10] by f (x) = Ì n(n + 1) n +1
Ó1 + [ x] - x if [ x] is even
12. Let f :[0, 2] → R be a function which is continuous on
Then the value of π
2 10
10 −∫10
f ( x)cosπ x dx is [0, 2] and is differentiable on (0, 2) with f (0) = 1. Let
x2
1
d2 F ( x) = ∫ f ( t ) dt for x ∈ [0,2]. If F ′( x ) = f ′( x ) for all
5. The value of ∫ 4 x3 2 (1 − x 2 )5 dx is ________ 0
0 dx
x ∈ (0, 2), then F (2) equals
6. Let f be a real-valued differentiable function on R (the set a. e2 − 1 b. e4 − 1 c. e − 1 d. e4
of all real numbers) such that f(1) = 1. If the y-intercept of
13. The function y = f ( x ) is the solution of the differential
the tangent at any point P(x, y) on the curve y = f(x) is
dy
dy xy
xy xx 4 + 2xx
equal to the cube of the abscissa of P, then the value of equation ++ 2 == in (–1,1) satisfying
dx x − 11 1 − x2
f (−3) is equal to
3
7. The line 2x + y = 1 is tangent to the hyperbola 2
f (0) = 0. Then
2 2
∫ f ( x ) dx is
3
x y
− = 1. If this line passes through the point of 2
a 2 b2
π 3 π 3 π 3 π 3
intersection of the nearest directrix and the x-axis, then the a. − b. − c. − d. −
3 2 3 4 6 4 6 2
eccentricity of the hyperbola is 14. Let O (0, 0), P (3, 4), Q (6, 0) be the vertices of the triangle
r r r
8. If a , b and c are unit vectors satisfying OPQ. The point R inside the triangle OPQ is such that the
r r2 r r2 r r2 r r r triangles OPR, PQR, OQR are of equal area. The
a − b + b − c + c − a = 9, then 2a + 5b + 5c is. coordinates of R are
186 Mathematics
4 2 19. Match the statements given in Column I with the
a. , 3 b. 3,
3 3 interval/union of intervals given in Column II
4 4 2 Column I Column II
c. 3, d. ,
3 3 3 2iz 1. (−∞, − 1) ∪ (1, ∞)
(A) The set Re : z is
1 − z
2
x2 y 2
15. Tangents are drawn to the hyperbola − = 1, parallel
9 4 a complex number,
to the straight lien 2 x − y = 1. The points of contact of the | z |= 1, z ≠ ±1 is
tangents on the hyperbola are. (B) The domain of the 2. (−∞, 0) ∪ (0, ∞)
−1
function f (x) = sin
9 1 9 1
a. , b. − , x−2
2 2 2 2 2 2 8(3)
2( x −1)
is
c. 3 3, −2 2 d. −3 3, 2 2 1− 3
(C) If 3. [2, ∞)
16. If the vectors AB = 3iˆ + 4kˆ and AC = 5iˆ − 2 ˆj + 4kˆ are the
1 tan θ 1
sides of a triangles ABC , then the length of the median f (θ ) = − tan θ 1 tan θ ,
through A is −1 − tan θ 1
then the set
a. 18 b. 72
π
c. 33 d. 45 f (θ ) : 0 ≤ θ < is
2
17. In R3 , consider the planes P1 : y = 0 and P2 : x + z = 1. Let (D) If f (x) = x 3 / 2 (3x − 10), 4. (−∞, − 1] ∪ [1, ∞)
P3 be a plane, different from P1 and P2 , which passes x ≥ 0, then f(x) is
through the intersection of P1 and P2 . If the distance of the increasing in
JEE-Main = (1 + 5 x + 10 x 2 + 10 x 3 + 5 x 4 + x 5 )
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. ×(1 + 5 x 2 + 10 x 4 + 10 x 6 + 5 x 8 + x10 )
b d c d a c b b d a Therefore the required sum of coefficients
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
= (1 + 10 + 5).25 = 16 × 32 = 512
b a c a d a c b a d
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. Note: 2 n = 25 = Sum of all the binomial coefficients in
a b a b b a d a a b the 2nd bracket in which all the powers of x are even.
x x2 x3
log( x − 1) log( x − 3) 7. (b) (1 − 2 x + 3 x 2 )e − x = (1− 2x + 3x2 ) 1− + − +
1. (b) Given = 1! 2! 3!
2 log 2 log 2
1 1 1
⇒ ( x − 1) = ( x − 3) 2 ∴ The coefficient of x5 = 1 − + (−2) + 3 −
5 ! 4 ! 3 !
⇒ x = 2,5
1 1 1 71
But at x = 2, given log is not defined. =− − − =− .
120 12 2 120
2. (d) x 2 + 5 | x | + 4 = 0
8. (b) Suppose x1 x2 x3 x4 x5 x6 x7 represents a seven digit number.
⇒ | x |2 +5 | x | + 4 = 0
Then x1 takes the value 1, 2, 3, ,9 and x2 , x3 , x7 all
⇒ | x | = −1, −4, which is not possible. Hence, the given
take values 0, 1, 2, 3, , 9. If we keep x1 , x2 , , x6 fixed,
equation has no real root.
then the sum x1 + x2 + + x6 is either even or odd. Since
3. (c) x − x + x − 1 = 0
4 3
x7 takes 10 values 0, 1, 2, ,9, five of the numbers so
⇒ x ( x − 1) + 1( x − 1) = 0
3
formed will be even and 5 odd.
Hence the required number of numbers
x − 1 = 0 or x 3 + 1 = 0
= 9 .10 .10.10 .10.10 . 5 = 4500000.
1 + 3i 1 − 3i
⇒ x = 1, − 1, , 9. (d) It is given that P( E ) ≤ P( F ) ⇒ E ⊆ F
2 2
So its real roots are 1 and −1. and P( E ∩ F ) > 0 ⇒ E ⊂ F . . .(ii)
(a) Occurrence of E ⇒ occurrence of F [from Eq.(i)]
1 0 0 (b) Occurrence of F ⇒ occurrence of E [from Eq.(ii)]
4. (d) A = 5 2 0 (c) Non-occurrence of E ⇒ non-occurrence of F [from
−1 6 1 Eq.(i)]
2 −5 32 2 0 0
T
π π 1 + tan θ 1 − tan θ
10. (a) tan + θ − tan − θ = −
⇒ adj ( A) = 0 1 −6 = −5 1 0 .
4 4 1 − tan θ 1 + tan θ
4 tan θ 2 tan θ
0 0 2 32 −6 2 = = 2 = 2 tan 2θ .
1 − tan θ
2
1 − tan θ
2
f ′( x) = 0 ⇒ x = 0
y'
( x + 1) 4 − 4 x.2( x + 1)2 x
2 2 2
Since, distance of vertex from origin is 2 and focus is
f ′′ ( x) =
( x 2 + 1) 4
2 2.
( x 2 + 1)4 − 16 x( x) −12 x 2 + 4 ∴ V(1, 1) and F(2, 2) (ie, lying on y = x)
= =
( x 2 + 1)3 ( x 2 + 1)3 where, length of latusrectum = 4a = 4 2 (Q a = 2)
∴ f ′′(0) > 0 ∴ By definition of parabola PM 2 = (4 a )( PN )
∴ There is only one critical point having minima. Where, PN is length of perpendicular upon x + y − 2 = 0
Hence f ( x) has least value at x = 0. (ie, tangent at vertex).
−1 ( x − y )2 x+ y−2
f min = f (0) = = −1. ⇒ = 4 2
1 2 2
dy2 1 1(−2 x) 1 dy
∴ I= ∫
−10
f ( x ) cos π x dx
=− = ⇒ 2 = 1.
dx 1 − (1 − x ) 2 1 − x
2
1− x 2 dy1 10 2
= 2 ∫ f ( x ) cos π x dx = 2 × 5∫ f ( x ) cos π x dx
30. (b) Let y = f ( x ) = x 2e − x
0 0
1
2
dy 10 = ∫ (1 − x ) cos π xdx + ∫ ( x − 1) cos π x dx = 10( I1 + I 2 )
⇒ = 2 xe− x − x 2e− x = e− x (2 x − x 2 ) 0
dx 1
1 1 40 π 2
r r2 r r2 r r2
= −20 − 2 − 2 = 2 ∴ I = 4 8. (3) a − b + b − c + c − a = 9
π π π 10
r r r r r r
1 ⇒ 2 − 2a ⋅b + 2 − 2 b ⋅c + 2 − 2 c ⋅ a = 9
d2
5. (2) ∫ 4 x 3 (1 − x 2 ) 5 dx
dx 2 3 r r r r r r
− = a ⋅b + b ⋅c + c ⋅a
I II
0 ⇒ . . .(i)
1 1
2
d d r r r
= 4 x 3 (1 − x 2 )5 − ∫12 x 2 (1 − x 2 )5 dx Now, | a + b + c |2 ≥ 0
dx 0 0 dx
r r r r r r
1 1
1
⇒ 1+1+1+ 2 a ⋅b + b ⋅c + c ⋅ a ≥ 0
= 4 x 3 × 5(1 − x 2 )4 (−2 x ) − 12 x 2 (1 − x 2 )5 − ∫ 2 x (1 − x 2 )5 dx
0
0
r r r r r r 3
a ⋅b + b ⋅c + c ⋅ a ≥ −
0
⇒ . . .(ii)
1 2
1
(1 − x 2 )6
= 0 − 0 − 12[0 − 0] + 12∫ 2 x(1 − x 2 )5 dx = 12 × − Equation (i) and (ii) are simultaneously true
0 6 0
r r r r r r 1
1 If a ⋅ b = b ⋅ c = c ⋅ a ≥ −
= 12 0 + = 2 2
6 r r r 2
Now, 2a + 5b + 5c
6. (9) y − y1 = m ( x − x1 )
r r r r r r
= 4 + 25 + 25 + 20 a ⋅ b + 50b ⋅ c + 20( a ⋅ c )
Put x = 0, to get y intercept y1 = mx1 = x1
3
r r r
dy = 54 − 10 − 25 − 10 = 9 ⇒ 2a + 5b + 5c = 3
y1 − x1 = x13
dx
dy 9 (a) y = sec(tan −1 x)
x − y = − x3
dx dy 1
⇒ = sec(tan −1 x ).tan (tan −1 x ).
dy y dx 1 + x2
− = − x2
dx x dy 2 1
1
⇒ dx = 1 + 1 =
f dx 1 x =1 2
e x
= e− ln x =
x 1
10. (b,c,d) For f (x) = x cos , x ≥ 1
1 1 x
y × = ∫ − x 2 × dx
x x
1 1 1
y y x2 f '(x) = cos + sin → 1forx → ∞
= −∫ xdx ⇒ = − + c x x x
x x 2
1 1 1 1 1 1
x3 3 also f '(x) = 2
sin − 2 sin − 3 cos
⇒ f ( x) = − + x ∴ f (−3) = 9. x x x x x x
2 2
1 1
a = cos < 0 forx ≥ 1
(2) Substituting , 0 in y = −2x + 1
3
7. x x
e
⇒ f '(x) is decreasing for [1, ∞)
2a
0=− +1 ⇒ f '(x + 2) < f '(x). Also,
e
2a
=1 a =
e 1 1
lim f (x + 2) − f (x) = lim (x + 2)cos − x cos = 2
e 2 x →∞ x →∞
x + 2 x
Also, 1 = a2 m2 − b2 ∴ f (x + 2) − f (x) > 2∀x ≥ 1
Mock Test-4 193
f ( x) x 14. (c) Since, ∆ is isosceles, hence centroid is the desired
11. (a) Here ff ( x ) = =
[1 + f ( x ) n ]1/ n (1 + 2 x n )1/ x point.
x
⇒ fff ( x ) = (3, 4)
(1 + 3 x n )1/ n
x
⇒ g ( x ) = ( f o f oK o f )( x ) =
n times (1 + nx n )1/ n
xn−1dx
Hence I = ∫ x n−2 g ( x) dx = ∫
(1 + nx n )1/ n (0, 0) (6, 0)
1 − x2 2
Volume = (5 3) = 10 cu. units
x5 3
or y 1 − x 2 = ∫ ( x 4 + 2 x )dx = + x 2 + c
5
17. (b, d) Let the required plane be x + z + λ y − 1 = 0
f (0) = 0 ⇒ c = 0
| λ −1 | 1
x5 ⇒ =1 ⇒ λ = −
⇒ f ( x) 1 − x 2 = + x2 λ +22 2
5
3/2 3/2
x2 ⇒ P3 ≡ 2 x − y + 2 z − 2 = 0
Now, ∫ f ( x )dx = ∫ 1 − x2
dx (Using property)
| 2α − β + 2γ − 2 |
− 3/2 − 3/2
Distance of P3 from (α , β , γ ) is 2 =2
π /3 4 ×1 + 4
sin θ
3/2 2 2
x
= 2 ∫
0 1− x 2
dx = 2 ∫
0
cos θ
cos θ dθ ⇒ 2α − β + 2λ + 4 = 0 and 2α − β + 2λ − 8 = 0
1 1
Q −1 ≤ y ≤ 1 ⇒ − ≤ −1 or − ≥ 1. π [ x] 2π
y y 1. (4824) The period of sin is = 24 as
12 π /12
8.3x − 2
(B) For domain −1 ≤ ≤1 π [ x + 24] π ([ x] + 24)
1 − 32( x −1) sin = sin
12 12
3x − 3x − 2
⇒ −1 ≤ ≤ 1. π [ x] π [ x]
1 − 32 x − 2 = sin 2π + = sin
12 12
3 x − 3x − 2
Case (i): −1 ≤ 0 π [ x]
1 − 32 x − 2 Similarly the period of tan is 3 and the period of
3
(3x − 1)(3x − 2 − 1)
⇒ ≥0
(32 x − 2 − 1) π x 2π
cos is =8
⇒ x ∈ ( −∞, 0] ∪ (1, ∞ ).
4 π /4
Hence, the period of the given function
3 x − 3x − 2 λ = LCM of 24, 8, 3 = 24
Case (ii): +1 ≥ 0
1 − 32 x − 2
∴ 201 λ = 201× 24 = 4824
(3x − 2 − 1)(3x + 1)
⇒ ≥0 b
(3x.3x − 2 − 1) x− a
ax − b −1 −1
⇒ x ∈ ( −∞, 1) ∪ [2, ∞ ). 2. (1004) Q y = tan = tan
bx + a 1+ b ⋅ x
So, x ∈ (−∞, 0] ∪ [2, ∞) a
(C) R1 → R1 + R3 b
= tan −1 x − tan −1
a
0 0 2
dy 1
f (θ ) = − tan θ 1 tan θ = 2(tan 2 θ + 1) = 2sec 2 θ . ∴ = −0
dx 1 + x 2
−1 − tan θ 1
dy 1 1 1
∴ = = =
3 1/ 2 15 1/ 2 dx 1 + (−1) 1 + 1 2
2
(D) f ′( x) = ( x) (3x − 10) + ( x) × 3 = ( x) ( x − 2)
3/ 2 x = −1
2 2
dy 1
Increasing, when x ≥ 2. ⇒ (2008) = 2008 × = 1004
dx x = −1 2
( x − 1)( x − 5)
20. f ( x) = . The graph of f ( x) is shown π
( x − 2)( x − 3) PL d 2 N
3. (50) I =
PLAN
= 4
y
33000 33000
∆I ∆P ∆L 2∆d ∆N
y= ∴ = + + +
I P L d N
⇒ ∆I ∆P ∆L ∆d ∆N
1 2 3 5 x ×100 = ×100 + ×100 + 2 ×100 + ×100
I P L d N
= 10% + 10% + 2 ×10% + 10% = 50%
(A) If −1 < x < 1 ⇒ 0 < f ( x) < 1 ∴ λ = 50
(B) If 1 < x < 2 ⇒ f ( x) < 0 2x + 2
4. (3) Let I = ∫ sin −1 dx
(C) If 3 < x < 5 ⇒ f ( x) < 0 (4 x 2 + 8 x + 13)
(D) If x > 5 ⇒ f ( x) < 1
Mock Test-4 195
2x + 2 7. (1601) Solving the equation (2 + c ) x + 5c y = 1 and
2
I = ∫ sin −1 dx
(2 x + 2)2 + 32 3x + 5 y = 1,
Put 2 x + 2 = 3tan θ 1 − 3x
(2 + c) x + 5c 2 = 1, then, (2 + c ) x + c (1 − 3 x ) = 1
2
∴ 2 dx = 3sec θ dθ
2 5
1 − c2
3sec2 θ dθ 3 ∴ x=
Then I = ∫ θ ⋅ = {θ ⋅ tan θ − ln secθ } + c 2 + c − 3c 2
2 2
(1 + c )(1 − c ) 1+ c
or x = =
3 2 x + 2 2 x + 2
2
−1 2 x + 2 (3c + 2)(1 − c ) 3c + 2
= ⋅ tan − ln 1 + + c
2 3 3 3 1+ c 2
∴ x = lim ⇒ x=
3c + 2
c →1 5
2x + 2 3
= ( x + 1) tan −1 − ln(4 x + 8 x + 13) + c
2
1 − 3 x 1 − (6 / 5) 1
3 4 ∴ y= = =−
5 5 25
3
Hence λ = − 2 1
4 Therefore the centre of the required circle is , −
5 25
Then, −4λ = 3
but circle passes through (2,0)
dx 2 1
2
2
5. (40) = x +1
dt ∴ Radius of the required circle = − 2 + − − 0
5 25
dx
⇒ = dt
x +1 64 1 1601 1601 λ
= + = = =
⇒ ln( x + 1) = t + c 25 625 625 25 25
∴ λ = 1601
Putting t = 0, x = 0 we get c = 0
r r r r
⇒ t = ln( x + 1) 8. (500) Let PV of A, B, C and D be a , b , c and 0
uuur uuur r r r r r r r
For x = 99, t = ln100 = 2log e 10 ∴ AB × CD = (b − a ) × − c = − b × c + a × c
uuur uuur r r r r r r r
∴ 20λ log10 e = 20 × 2log e 10 × log10 e = 40 BC × AD = ( c − b ) × − a = − c × a + b × a
uuur uuur r r r r r r r
6. (30) Since, centroid divides the orthocenter and circum and CA × BD = ( a − c ) × −b = − a × b + c × b
center in the ratio 2 : 1 (internally) and if centroid Adding all we get
uuur uuur uuur uuur uuur uuur r r r r r r
2 1 3 2 AB × CD + BC × AD + CA × BD = − 2 ( a × b + b × c + c × a )
G ( x, y ), then O (1, 1) G ( x, y ) C , uuur uuur uuur uuur uuur uuur
2 4 r r r r r r
∴ | AB × CD + BC × AD + CA × BD | = 2 | a × b + b × c + c × a |
3 3 r r r r uuur uuur
2 × + 1× 1 2 × + 1× 1 = 2 | ( c − a ) × (b − a ) | = 2 | AC × AB |
2 4 4 5
x= = and y = =
2 +1 3 2 +1 6 1 uuur uuur
= 4 ⋅ | AC × AB | = 4 (Area of ∆ABC )
4 5 2
∴ Centroid is , and nine point centre is the mid point ∴ λ=4
3 6
of orthocenter and circumcentre. Then, 125 λ = 500
1 + ( 3/ 2 ) 1 + ( 3/ 4 ) 9. (c) A = [ x, y ] B = {a, b, c, d}
∴ Nine point centre is , ,
2 2 A × B Having 2 × 4 = 8 elements
5 7 Total subsets of A × B is 28 = 256
i.e., ,
4 8 ∴ Total no. of subsets of A × B having 3 or more elements
⇒
4
a= ,β =
5 5
and γ = , δ =
7
3 6 4 8 = 256 − 1 + 8 + 8 C2
null set single ton set subset having
∴ 6α + 12β + 4γ + 8δ 2 elements
4 5 5 7 = 256 − 1 − 5 − 28 = 219
= 6× + 12 × + 4 × + 8 × = 8 + 10 + 5 + 7 = 30
3 6 4 8
196 Mathematics
10. (d) f ( x) = 2 x + 3x + k 3
1
f ′( x) = 6 x 2 + 3 f ′( x) = 0 Also, 2cosθ (1 − sin φ ) = sin θ
2
cos φ − 1
sin cos θ
θ
1 2 2
⇒ x2 = −
2 ⇒ 2cos θ − 2 cos θ sin φ = 2sin θ cos φ − 1
Not possible. As condition for two distinct real root is ⇒ 1 + 2 cos θ = 2sin(θ + φ )
f (α ) f ( β ) = 0 (where are α , β roots of f ′( x) = 0) 1
⇒ sin(θ + φ ) = + cosθ
z1 − 2 z 2 2
= 1 ⇒ | z1 − 2 z2 | = | 2 − z1 z2 |
2 2
11. (c)
2 − z1 z 2 1 π 4π
⇒ < sin(θ + φ ) < 1 ⇒ < φ <
2 2 3
⇒ ( z1 − 2 z2 )( z1 − 2 z2 ) = (2 − z1 z2 )(2 − z1 z2 )
1/ 2
⇒ z1 z1 + 4 z2 z2 = 4 + z1 z1 z2 z2 16. (c) 1 + x 2 ( x cos cot −1 x + sin cot −1 x ) 2 − 1
⇒ 4 + | z1 |2 | z2 |2 − 4 | z2 |2 − | z1 |2 = 0 2
1/ 2
x 1
= 1 + x x cos cos −1
2
+ sin sin −1
− 1
⇒ (| z1 |2 −1) ⋅ ( | z2 |2 − 4) = 0 1 + x2 1 + x2
But | z2 | ≠ 1, ∴ | z2 | = 2 1/ 2
x 2 1
2
Hence, z lies on a circle of radius 2 centered at origin. = 1 + x 2 + − 1
1 + x 2
1 + x2
1 4 4
12. (a,d) adj P = 2 1 7 ⇒ | adj P |= 4 = 1 + x2 ( x2 + 1 − 1)1/ 2 = x 1 + x 2 .
1 1 3
17. (a) a1 = 1 a2 = 2 a3 = 3 a4 = 5
We know, | adj P | = | P |n −1 (where n is order of matrix)
an is following Fibonacci series. Hence a17 = a16 + a15 .
⇒ | adj P | = | P |2 ⇒ 4 = | P |2 ⇒ | P | = ± 2
18. (b) 1 1
2 2 2 2 2
8 12 16 20 24 Total no of ways exactly two consecutive two is = 5 ways
13. (b) + + + + + ...
5 5 5 5 5 Total no of ways exactly three consecutive two is = 2
ways
82 122 162 202 242 (4n + 4) 2
= 2
+ 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 + .... Tn = Total no of ways exactly four consecutive two is = 1 ways
5 5 5 5 5 52
10
So, b6 = 5 + 2 + 1 = 8
1 16 10 2
Sn =
52
∑16(n + 1)
n =1
2
= ∑ (n + 2n + 1)
25 n =1 19. (b) Case (i): One odd, 2 even
16 10 × 11× 21 2 × 10 × 11 16 16 Total number of ways = 2×2×3+1×3×3+1×2×4 = 29.
= + + 10 = × 505 = m Case (ii): AII 3 odd
25 6 2 25 5
Number of ways = 2×3×4 = 24
⇒ m = 101
Favourable ways = 53
14. (c) Number of required ways
53 53
= 5!− {4 ⋅ 4}!− 4 C2 ⋅ 3!+ 4 C3 ⋅ 2!− 1} = 53. Required probability = = .
3 × 5 × 7 105
15. (a,c,d,) Conditions: 20. (c) Here 2 x2 = x1 + x3
3 ⇒ x1 + x3 = even
− tan(θ ) > 0 ⇒ tan θ < 0 and −1 < sin θ < −
2 Hence number of favourable ways
3π 5π 1 = 2C1 ⋅4 C2 +1 C 1 ⋅3 C1 = 11.
∴ θ ∈ , ⇒ 0 < cosθ <
2 3 2
Mock Test-5 197
JEE-MAIN: MATHEMATICS MOCK TEST-5
1. The domain of definition of the function y ( x ) given by 10. sin(π + θ ) sin(π − θ ) cosec2θ =
the equation 2 x + 2 y = 2 is: a. 1 b. –1 c. sin θ d. − sin θ
a. 0 < x ≤ 1 b. x ≤ x ≤ 1
11. sinh 2 x equals
c. −∞ < x ≤ 0 d. −∞ < x < 1.
a. cosh 2 x − 1 b. cosh 2 x + 1
2. A real root of the equation log 4 {log 2 ( x + 8 − x )} = 0 is 1 1
c. (cosh 2 x − 1) d. (cosh 2 x + 1)
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 2 2
3. cosh(α + i β ) − cosh(α − i β ) is equal to 12. A tower subtends an angle α at a point A in the plane of
a. 2 sinh α sinh β b. 2 cosh α cosh β its base and the angle of depression of the foot of the
tower at a point l meters just above A is β . The height of
c. 2i sinh α sin β d. 2 cosh α cos β
the tower is
0 −4 1 a. l tan β cot α b. l tan α cot β
4. Matrix 4 0 −5 is
c. l tan α tan β d. l cot α cot β
−1 5 0
13. The value of k so that the function
a. Orthogonal b. Idempotent
c. Skew-symmetric d. Symmetric k (2 x − x 2 ), when x < 0
f ( x) = is continuous at x = 0, is
20 cos x, when x ≥ 0
an +1 1
5. For a sequence < an >, a1 = 2 and
an
= . Then
3
∑a
r =1
r is a. 1 b. 2
c. 4 d. None of these
20 1
a. [4 + 19 × 3] b. 3 1 − 20 dy
2 3 14. If y = (1 + x) x , then =
dx
c. 2(1 − 320 ) d. None of these
x
a. (1 + x) x + log ex
6. Coefficients of x r [0 ≤ r ≤ ( n − 1)] in the expansion of 1 + x
( x + 3) n −1 + ( x + 3) n − 2 ( x + 2) x
b. + log(1 + x)
+ ( x + 3) n −3
( x + 2) + ... + ( x + 2)
2 n −1 1+ x
a. Cr (3 − 2 n )
n r n
Cr (3n− r − 2 n − r ) x
b. c. (1 + x) x + log(1 + x)
1 + x
c. n Cr (3r + 2 n− r ) d. None of these
d. None of these
2 3 4
7. 1+ + + + K∞ = 15.
x
is maxima at
3! 5! 7! 1 + x tan x
a. e b. 2e c. e/2 d. e/3 a. x = sin x b. x = cos x
8. The number of ways in which the following prizes be π
c. x = d. x = tan x
given to a class of 20 boys, first and second Mathematics, 3
first and second Physics, first Chemistry and first English 1
is. 16. ∫ x 1 + log x
dx =
a. 204 ×192 b. 203 ×193
2
c. 202 × 194 d. None of these a. (1 + log x )3/ 2 + c b. (1 + log x)3/ 2 + c
3
9. If the integers m and n are chosen at random between 1 c. 2 1 + log x + c d. 1 + log x + c
and 100, then the probability that a number of the form
17. The area of the triangle formed by the tangent to the
7 m + 7 n is divisible by 5, equals
hyperbola xy = a 2 and co-ordinate axes is
1 1 1 1
a. b. c. d. a. a 2 b. 2a 2 c. 3a 2 d. 4a 2
4 7 8 49
198 Mathematics
dy 24. ~ ( p ∨ (~ q )) is equal to
18. The solution of = x log x is
dx a. ~ p ∨ q
x2 b. (~ p ) ∧ q
a. y = x 2 log x − + c
2
c. ~ p ∨ ~ p
x2
b. y = log x − x 2 + c d. ~ p ∧ ~ q
2
25. If the sum of the roots of the equation λ x + 2x + 3λ = 0
2
1 1
c. y = x 2 + x2 log x + c
2 2 be equal to their product, then λ =
d. None of these a. 4
19. The distance of point (–2, 3) from the line x − y = 5 is b. –4
c. 6
a. 5 2
d. None of these
b. 2 5
26. If a , b, c and u , v , w are the complex numbers representing
c. 3 5
the vertices of two triangles such that c = (1 − r )a + rb and
d. 5 3 w = (1 − r )u + rv, where r is a complex number, than the
20. If the coordinates of one end of the diameter of the circle two triangles
x + y − 8x − 4 y + c = 0 are (–3, 2), then the coordinates
2 2 a. have the same area
b. are similar
of other end are
c. are congruent
a. (5, 3) b. (6, 2)
d. None of these
c. (1, –8) d. (11, 2)
21. Let ( x, y) by any point on the parabola y 2 = 4 x. Let P be 2 3 1 4
27. The rank of the matrix, A = 0 1 2 − 1 is
the point that divides the line segment from (0, 0) to
0 −2 −4 2
( x, y) in the ratio 1: 3. Then, the locus of P is
a. 2 b. 3
a. x 2 = y c. 1 d. Indeterminate
b. y 2 = 2 x 28. The coefficient of xn in the expansion of
c. y 2 = x (1 + x + x + ....) is
2 −n
d. x = 2 y
2
a. 1
r r r r r r b. (–1)n
22. If a , b , c are unit vectors such that a + b + c = 0, then c. n
r r r r r r
a ⋅b + b ⋅c + c ⋅ a = d. n + 1
a. 1 29. Three boys and two girls stand in a queue. The probability
b. 3 that the number of boys ahead of every girl is atleast one
c. – 3/2 more than the number of girls ahead of her, is
d. 3/2 a. 1/2
b. 1/3
23. The direction cosines of three lines passing through the
c. 2/3
origin are l1 , m1 , n1 ; l2 , m2 , n2 and l3 , m3 , n3 . The lines will
d. 3 4
be coplanar, if
l1 n1 m1 l1 m2 n3 30. The imaginary part of tan −1 (cos θ + i sin θ ) is
a. l2 n2 m2 = 0 b. l2 m3 n1 = 0 a. tanh −1 (sin θ )
l3 n3 m3 l3 m1 n2 b. tanh −1 (∞)
c. l1l2l3 + m1m2 m3 + n1n2 n3 = 0 1
c. tanh −1 (sin θ )
d. None of these 2
d. None of these
Mock Test-5 199
JEE ADVANCE PAPER-I
2. The normal to the parabola y 2 = 8 x at the point (2, 4) SECTION 2 Contains 10 Multiple Choice Questions
meets it again at (18, –12). If length of normal chord is λ , With one or more than one correct option
then the value of λ must be
2
9. Let A and B be two sets containing four and two elements
3. An electric component manufactured by ‘RASU respectively. Then the number of subsets of the set A × B ,
electronics’ is tested for its defectiveness by a each having at least three elements is:
sophisticated testing device. Let A denote the event “the a. 219 b. 256
device is defective” and B the event “the testing device c. 275 d. 510
reveals the component to be defective”. Suppose 10. The quadratic equation p( x) = 0 with real coefficients
P( A) = α and P( B / A) = P( B '/ A ') = 1 − α , where 0 < α <
< 1.
1. has purely imaginary roots. Then the equation
If the probability that the component is not defective, p( p( x)) − 0 has
given that the testing device reveals it to be defective, is
a. only purely imaginary roots
λ, then the value of 2008 λ must be b. all real roots
4. The coefficient of x 50 in the polynomials after parenthesis c. two real and two purely imaginary roots
have been removed and like terms have been collected in d. neither real nor purely imaginary roots
the expansion (1 + x )1000 + x (1 + x )999 + x2 (1 + x )998 + ... + x100011. A value of θ for which 2 + 3i sin θ is purely imaginary, is:
1 − 2i sin θ
λ!
(1 + x ) 998 + ... + x1000 is , then the value of λ + 2µ +3v must be
µ ! v! π π
a. b.
3 6
(v > µ )
3 1
c. sin −1 d. sin −1
5. The value of 4 3
1 −1 7π −1 2π −1 5π −π
216 sin sin + 27 cos cos + 28 tan tan + cot −1ω cos
200Let
12.
be a complex cube root of unity with ω ≠ 1 and
π 6 3 4 4 i+ j
P[ Pij ] be a n × n matrix with pij = ω . Then when
2π −1 5π −1 −π
7 cos −1 cos + 28 tan tan + 200 cot cos P 2 ≠ 0, n =
3 4 4
a. 57 b. 55
must be c. 58 d. 56
r r r
6. Let a, b and c be three non-coplanar unit vectors such 13. If m is the A.M. of two distinct real numbers l and
π n ( l, n > 1) and G1, G2 and G3 are three geometric means
that the angle between every pair of them is . If
3 between l and n, then G14 + 2G24 + G34 equals,
r r r r r r r
a × b + b × c = pa + qb + rc , where p, q and r are a. 4l 2 mn b. 4l m2 n
p 2 + 2q 2 + r 2 c. 4l mn2 d. 4l 2 m2 n 2
scalars, then the value of is _______
q2
200 Mathematics
4n k ( k +1) SECTION 3 Contains 2 Match The Following Type Questions
14. Let Sn = ∑ (−1) 2
k 2 . Then S n can take value(s)
k =1
You will have to match entries in Column I with the entries in
Column II.
a. 1056 b. 1088 c. 1120 d. 1332
15. If 3x = 4 x −1 , then x = 19. Match the statements given in Column I with the
interval/union of intervals given in Column II
2 log 3 2 2
a. b. Column I Column II
2 log 3 2 − 1 2 − log 2 3
2iz 1. (−∞, − 1) ∪ (1, ∞)
1 2 log 2 3 (A)The set Re 2
: z is a
c. d. 1 − z
1 − log 4 3 2 log 2 3 − 1
complex number,
| z |= 1, z ≠ ±1 is
16. The number of integers greater than 6,000 that can be
formed, using the digits 3, 5, 6, 7 and 8, without (B) The domain of the function 2. (−∞, 0) ∪ (0, ∞)
x −2
repetition, is: 8(3)
f (x) = sin −1 2( x −1) is
a. 216 b. 192 c. 120 d. 72 1− 3
17. A ship is fitted with three engines E1 , E2 and E3 . The 1 tan θ 1 3. [2, ∞ )
engines function independently of each other with (C)If f (θ ) = − tan θ 1 tan θ ,
1 1 1 −1 − tan θ 1
respective probabilities , and . For the ship to be
2 4 4 then the set
operational at least two of its engines must function. Let X π
denote the event that the ship is operational and let f (θ ) : 0 ≤ θ < is
2
X 1 , X 2 and X 3 denote respectively the events that the (D)If f (x) = x 3 / 2 (3x − 10), 4. (−∞, − 1] ∪ [1, ∞)
engines E1 , E2 And E3 are functioning. Which of the x ≥ 0, then f(x) is
following is (are) true? increasing in
a. P[ X 1c | X ] =
3 5. (−∞, 0] ∪ [2, ∞ )
16
b. P [Exactly two engines of the ship are functioning 20. Match the statements/expressions in Column I with the
values given in Column II.
7
[X ] = Column I Column II
8
(A) The number of solutions of the 1. 1
5
c. P[ X | X 2 ] = equation xesin x − cos x = 0 in the
16
π
7 interval 0,
d. P[ X | X 1 ] = 2
16
(B) Value (s) of k for which the plane 2. 2
7 kx + 4 y + z = 0, 4 x + ky + 2 z = 0 and
18. Let PQR be a triangle of area ∆ with a = 2, b = and
2
2 x + 2 y + z = 0 intersect in a
5
c = , where a, b and c are the lengths of the sides of the straight line
2 (C) Value (s) of k for which 3. 3
triangle opposite to the angles at P, Q and R respectively. | x − 1 | + | x − 2 | + | x + 1 | x + 2 |= 4 k
2 sin P − sin 2 P has integer solution (s)
Then equals
2 sin P + sin 2 P (D) If y′y + 1 and y (0) = 1 then value 4. 4
2 2
3 45 3 45 (s) of y (ln2)
a. b. c. d.
4∆ 4∆ 4∆ 4∆ 5. 5
e8 x − 8 x + 7
y1 = , then the numerical value of λ must be ( x − 1) n
λ 11. Let g ( x) = ; 0 < x < 2, m and n are
log cos m ( x − 1)
4. If m1 and m2 are the roots of the equation integers, m ≠ 0, n > 0, and let p be the left hand
x + ( 3 + 2) x + ( 3 − 1) = 0 and if area of the triangle derivative of | x − 1| at x = 1. If lim+ g ( x) = p, then
2
x →1
formed by the lines y = m1 x, y = m2 x2 , and y = c is a. n = 1, m = 1 b. n = 1, m = −1
(a + b)c , then the value of 2008 (a + b ) must be
2 2 2
c. n = 2, m = 2 d. n > 2, m = n
5. Tangents are drawn form P(6, 8) to the circle x 2 + y 2 = r 2 , 12. Let g ( x) = log( f ( x)) where f ( x ) is a twice differentiable
then the radius of the circle such that the area of the ∆ formed positive function on (0, ∞) such that f ( x + 1) = x f ( x).
by tangents and chore of contact is maximum must be
Then, for N = 1, 2, 3, ...,
6. ‘P’ is any arbitrary point on the circum circle of the 1 1 1
a. −4 1 + + + ... + 2
equilateral triangle of side length 26 unit, then the value 9 25 (2 N − 1)
uuur uuur uuur
of | PA |2 + | PB |2 + | PC |2 must be 1 1 1
b. 4 1 + + + ... + 2
9 25 (2 N − 1)
x + 4 y + 6 z −1
7. The lines = = and 3 x − 2 y + z + 5 = 0 1 1 1
3 5 −2 c. −4 1 + + + ... + 2
9 25 (2 N + 1)
= 2 x + 3 y + 4 z − k are coplanar for k is equal to
1 1 1
d. 4 1 + + + ... + 2
8. If a circle cuts a rectangular hyperbola xy = c in A, B, C 2
9 25 (2 N + 1)
and D are the parameters of these four points be t1, t2 , t3 ex e− x
13. Let I = ∫ dx , J = ∫ e−4 x + e −2 x + 1 dx. Then for
and t 4 respectively, then the value of 16t1t 2 t3t 4 must be e 4 x + e2 x + 1
an arbitrary constant C , the value of J − I equals
SECTION 2 Contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions 1 e4 x − e2 x + 1
a. log 4 x 2 x +C
With one or more than one correct option 2 e + e +1
202 Mathematics
1 e + e +1
2x x 17. The unit vector perpendicular to both L1 and L2 is
b. log 2 x x +C
2 e − e +1 −iˆ + 7 ˆj + 7kˆ
a.
1 e2 x − e x + 1 99
c. log 2 x +C
e + e +1
x
2 −iˆ − 7 ˆj + 5kˆ
b.
1 e4 x + e2 x + 1 5 3
d. log 4 x 2 x +C
2 e − e +1 −iˆ + 7 ˆj + 5kˆ
c.
π 5 3
x x
14. The integral ∫ 1 + 4sin 2
2
− 4sin dx equals:
2 7iˆ − 7 ˆj − kˆ
0 d.
a. π − 4 99
2π 18. The distance of the point (1, 1, 1) from the plane passing
b. −4−4 3
3 through the point (−1, −2, −1) and whose normal is
c. 4 3 − 4 perpendicular to both the lines L1 and L2 is
π 2
d. 4 3 − 4 − a.
3 75
15. Let the population of rabbits surviving at a time t be 7
b.
government by the differential equation 75
dp (t ) 1 13
= p (t ) − 200. If ( p )0 = 100, then (p)t equals: c.
dt 2 75
a. 400 − 300et / 2 23
d.
−t / 2 75
b. 300 − 200e
c. 600 − 500et / 2
Paragraph for Question No. 19 to 20
d. 400 − 300e−t / 2
Let ABCD be a square of side length 2 units, C2 is the circle
16. A straight line L through the point (3, –2) is inclined at an through vertices, A, B, C, D and C1 is the circle touching all the
angle 60° to the line 3x + y = 1. If L also intersects the sides of the square ABCD. L is a line through A.
x-axis, then the equation of L is 19. If P is a point on C1 and Q in another point on C 2 , then
a. y + 3x + 2 − 3 3 = 0 PA2 + PB 2 + PC 2 + PD 2
is equal to
b. y − 3x + 2 + 3 3 = 0 QA2 + QB 2 + QC 2 + QD 2
a. 0.75
c. 3y − x + 3 + 2 3 = 0 b. 1.25
d. 3y + x − 3 + 2 3 = 0 c. 1
d. 0.5
SECTION 3 Contains 2 Paragraph Type Questions 20. A line M through A is drawn parallel to BD. Point S
Each paragraph describes an experiment, a situation or a problem. moves such that its distances from the line BD and the
Two multiple choice questions will be asked based on this paragraph. vertex A are equal. If locus of S cuts M at T2 and T3 and
One or more than one option can be correct. AC at T1, then area of ∆ T1 T2 T3 is
Paragraph for Question No. 17 to 18 1
a. sq. unit
Consider the line 2
x +1 y + 2 z +1 2
L1 : = = , b. sq. unit
3 1 2 3
x −2 y +2 z −3 c. 1 sq. unit
L2 : = =
1 2 3 d. 2 sq. unit
Mock Test-5 203
ANSWER & SOLUTIONS 1 2 3 4 n
7. (c) S = + + + +K + +K
JEE-Main 1! 3 ! 5 ! 7 ! (2n − 1) !
1 2n 1 (2n − 1) + 1
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. Here Tn = . =
d a c c b b c a a b 2 (2n − 1) ! 2 (2n − 1) !
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 1 1 1
c b d c b c b d a d = +
2 (2n − 2) ! (2n − 1) !
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
c c a b d b a b a c 1 e + e−1 e − e−1 e
⇒ S = ∑ Tn = + = .
2 2 2 2
1. (d) 2 y = 2 − 2 x
Trick: The sum of this series upto 4 terms is 1.359…and
⇒ y = log 2 2 − 2 x for domain 2 − 2 x ⇒ x < 1
this is value of e/2 approximately.
2. {
(a) log 4 log 2 ( x + 8 − x ) = 0 } 8. (a) Four first prizes can be given in 204 ways since first
⇒ 40 = log ( 2 x+8 − x ) prize of Mathematics can be given in 20 ways, first prize
of Physics also in 20 ways, similarly first prizes of
⇒ 21 = x + 8 − x Chemistry and English can be given in 20 ways each.
(Note that a boy can stand first in all the four subjects).
⇒ 4 = x + 8 + x − 2 x 2 + 8x
Then two second prizes can be given in 192 ways since a
⇒ 2 x + 8x = 2x + 4
2
boy cannot get both the first and second prizes. Hence the
⇒ x 2 + 8x = x2 + 4 + 4 x required number of ways
⇒ 4x = 4 = 204 ×192.
⇒ x = 1.
9. (a) 71 = 7, 7 2 = 49, 7 3 = 34, 7 4 = 2401,.....
3. (c) cosh(α + i β ) − cosh(α − i β ) Therefore, for 7 r , r ∈ N the number ends at unit place 7,
= cosh α cosh (i β ) + sinh α sinh(i β ) 9, 3, 1, 7, …..
− cosh α cosh (i β ) + sinh α sinh (i β ) ∴ 7 m + 7 n will be divisible by 5 if it end at 5 or 0.
= 2 sinh α sinh i β = 2i sinh α sin β . But it cannot end at 5. Also for end at 0. For this m and n
should be as follows
4. (c) It is skew-symmetric. m n
1 1 4r 4r − 2
5. (b) The sequence is a G.P. with common ratio .
3 2 4r − 1 4r − 3
a(1 − r n ) 2[1 − (1/ 3) 20 ] 3 4r − 2 4r
Now from ,
1− r 1 − (1/ 3) 4 4 r − 3 4r − 1
1
= 3 1 − 20 . For any given value of m, there will be 25 values of n.
3
Hence, the probability of the required event is
6. (b) We have ( x + 3) n −1 + ( x + 3) n− 2 ( x + 2) + 100 × 25 1
=
( x + 3) n −3
( x + 2) + .... + ( x + 2)
2 n −1 100 × 100 4
Note: Power of prime numbers have cyclic numbers in
( x + 3) − ( x + 2)n
n
= = ( x + 3) n − ( x + 2)n their unit place.
( x + 3) − ( x + 2)
xn − an 10. (b) sin(π + θ ) sin(π − θ )cosec 2θ
(Q = x n−1 + x n − 2 a1 + x n−3a 2 + .... + a n −1 )
x−a 1
= − sin θ sin θ = −1 .
r
Therefore coefficient of x in the given expression sin 2 θ
= Coefficient of x r in [( x + 3) n − ( x + 2) n ] 1
11. (c) sinh 2 x = (cosh 2 x − 1)
= nCr 3n − r − nCr 2 n− r = nCr (3n − r − 2 n − r ) 2
204 Mathematics
T 1
16. (c) Put t = 1 + log x ⇒ dt = dx, then
12. (b) x
dx dt
P H
∫ x 1 + log x
= ∫ 1/ 2 = 2t 1/ 2 + c = 2(1 + log x)1/ 2 + c.
t
l
α β 17. (b) Y
A O
From figure, we can deduce H = l tan α cot β .
2a
13. (d) f (0−) = lim k (2 x − x 2 ) = 00;
x →0 − X
2a
f (0 + ) = lim cos x = 1 (–a,–a)
x →0+
∴ f (0) = cos x = 1
Hence no value of k can make f (0−) = 1.
a2
Given xy = a 2 or y = . . .(i)
14. (d) y = (1 + x) x x
There are two points on the curve (a, a),(– a,– a)
Taking log on both sides, log y = x log(1 + x)
The equation of the line at (a, a) is,
Differentiating w.r.t. x, we get
−a 2
dy
( x − a ) = x 2
1 dy 1 y−a = ( x − a)
= log(1 + x) + x dx (a, a)
y dx (1 + x) (a,a )
d2y 2 x2 x2
= + 2sec x sec x tan x ⇒ y= log x − + c.
dx 2 x 3 2 4
dy 1
On putting = 0, − 2 + sec 2 x = 0 19. (a) Distance of point (–2, 3) from the line x − y = 5 is
dx x
1 −2 − 3 − 5 −10
⇒ sec 2 x = 2 = = 5 2.
x 2 2
⇒ x 2 = cos 2 x 20. (d) Obviously the centre of the circle is (4, 2) which
⇒ x = cos x should be the middle point of the ends of diameter.
d2y 2 Hence the other end is (11, 2).
∴ = + 2sec 2 x tan x
dx 2 cos 3 x y
= 2sec x(sec x + tan x), which is positive.
2 21. (c) (x,y)Q
3
1 + x tan x P(h,k)
At x = cos x , is minimum. 1
x x
(0,0) O
x
So will be maximum.
1 + x tan x y2 = 4x
Mock Test-5 205
x+0 y+0 a u 1
By section formula, h = ,k = Consider b v 1
4 4
c w 1
∴ x = 4h, y = 4k
Applying R3 → R3 − {(1 − r ) R1 + rR2 }
Substituting in y 2 = 4 x , (4 k ) 2 = 4(4 h ) ⇒ k 2 = h
a u 1
Or y 2 = x is required locus. = b v 1
r r r c − (1 − r ) a − rb w − (1 − r ) u − rv 1 − (1 − r ) − r
22. (c) Squaring ( a + b + c ) = 0,
r r r r r r r r r a u 1
we get a 2 + b 2 + c 2 + 2a ⋅ b + 2b ⋅ c + 2c ⋅ a = 0 = b v 1 [from Eq. (i)]= 0
r r r r r r r r r 0 0 0
⇒ | a |2 + | b |2 + | c |2 +2(a ⋅ b + b ⋅ c + c ⋅ a ) = 0
r r r r r r Hence, two triangle are similar.
⇒ 2( a ⋅ b + b ⋅ c + c ⋅ a ) = −3
r r r r r r 3 2 3 1 4
⇒ a ⋅b + b ⋅c + c ⋅ a = − 27. (a) Given A = 0 1 2 − 1 , ( R2 → 2 R2 + R3 )
2
0 −2 −4 2
23. (a) Here, three given lines are coplanar if they have
common perpendicular 2 3 1 4
A = 0 0 0 0
Let d.c.'s of common perpendicular be l, m, n
0 −2 −4 2
⇒ ll1 + mm1 + nn1 = 0 . . .(i)
ll2 + mm2 + nn2 = 0 . . .(ii) Since every minor of order 3 in A is 0 and there exists a
2 3
and ll3 + mm3 + nn3 = 0 . . .(iii) minor order 3 i.e. in A which is non-zero. Thus,
0 −2
Solving (ii) and (iii), we get
rank = 2.
l m n
= = =k
m2 n3 − n2 m3 n2l3 − n3l2 l2 m3 − l3 m2 28. (b) We have, (1 + x + x 2 + ...) − n = [(1 − x) −1 ]− n = (1 − x) n
⇒ l = k ( m2 n3 − n2 m3 ), m = k (n2l3 − n3l2 ), n = k (l2 m3 − l3m2 ) = nC0 − nC1 x + nC2 x 2 + ... + (−1) n nCn .x n
Substituting in (i), we get
Coefficient of x n is (−1)n nCn = (−1)n .
l1 (m2 n3 − n2 m3 ) + m1 (n2l3 − n3l2 ) + n1 (l2 m3 − l3m2 ) = 0
l1 m1 n1 29. (a) Total number of ways to arrange 3 boys and 2 girls are
5!. According to given condition, following cases may
⇒ l2 m2 n2 = 0
arise.
l3 m3 n3
B G G B B
l1 n1 m1 G G B B B
⇒ − l2 n2 m2 = 0 G B G B B
l3 n3 m3 G B B G B
B G B G B
24. (b) ~ ( p ∨ (~ q)) ≡ ~ p ∧ ~ (~ q) ≡ (~ p) ∧ q . So, number of favourable ways = 5 ¥ 3! ¥ 2! = 60
60 1
25. (d) Under condition, ∴ Required probability = =
120 2
2
− =3
λ 30. (c) We know that
⇒ λ=−
2 π i 1 + sin θ
tan −1 (cos θ + i sin θ ) = + log ,
3 4 4 1 − sin θ
26. (b) Since a, b, c and u, v, w are the vertices of two (cos θ ) > 0
triangles.
then the Imaginary part of tan −1 (cosθ + i sin θ ) be
Also, c = (1 − r ) a + rb
1 1 1+ x
and w = (1 − r ) u + rv . . .(i) tanh −1 (sin θ ) , Q tanh −1 x = log
2 2 1− x
206 Mathematics
JEE Advance Paper-I ⇒ y + 8 y − 48 = 0
2
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. ⇒ ( y + 12)( y − 4) = 0
2560 3 1004 3954 139 4 112 2880 a d ∴ y = −12 and y = 4
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Then x = 18 and x = 2
d bcd b ad abc b bd c b a
Hence, point of intersection of normal and parabola are
1. (2560) Let the equation of the variable plane be (18, − 12) and (2, 4) therefore normal meets the parabola
x y z at (18, − 12) and length of normal chord is distance
+ + =1 . . .(i)
a b c between their points
Given that the plane is at a distance p form (0, 0, 0)
= PQ = (18, − 12) 2 + ( − 12 − 4) 2 = 16 2
1
∴ p= = λ (given)
1 1 2 1 2
2
+ + ∴ λ2 = 5/ 2 ( 2.5 ≈ 3 ) .
a b c
3. (1004) Given that P( A) = α , P( B / A) = P( B′ / A′) = 1 − α
1 1 1 1
or 2
= 2+ 2+ 2 . . .(ii) Thus, P ( A′) = 1 − P( A) = 1 − α
p a b c
Also, the plane (i) meets the axes in A, B and C. So the and P ( B / A′) = 1 − P ( B′ / A′) = 1 − (1 − α ) = α . . .(i)
coordinates of O, A, B and C are (0, 0, 0), (a, 0, 0), (0, b, P ( A′ ∩ B) P( B) − P( A ∩ B )
∴ P( A′ / B) = =
0) and (0, 0, c) respectively P( B) P( B)
Let ( x, y , z ) be the centroid of the tetrahedron OABC, P ( B) − P ( A) P( B / A)
=
1 1 P( B)
then x = (0 + a + 0) = a
4 4
P( A ∩ B)
1 1 Q P( B / A) =
Similarly y = b and z = c P( A)
4 4
or a = 4 x, b = 4 y, c = 4 z P( B) − α (1 − α )
= . . .(ii)
P( B)
Substituting these values in equation (ii), we get
But P ( B ) = P( A) ⋅ P ( B / A) + P ( A′) ⋅ P( B / A′)
1 1 1 1
= + +
p 16 x 16 y 16 z 2
2 2 2 α ⋅ (1 − α ) + (1 − α ) ⋅ α {from equation (i)}
Or x −2 + y −2 + z −2 = 16 p −2 = 2α (1 − α ) . . .(iii)
∴ λ = 16 Putting the value of P( B) from equation (iii) in (ii), then
⇒ 160λ = 160 × 16 = 2560 2α (1 − α ) − α (1 − α ) α (1 − α ) 1
P ( A′ / B ) = = = =λ
2α (1 − α ) 2α (1 − α ) 2
2. (3) Comparing the given parabola (i.e., y 2 = 8xx) with
(given)
y 2 = 4 ax 1
∴ 2008λ = 2008 × = 1004
∴ 4a = 8 2
∴ a=2 4. (3954) Using the formula for the sum of a geometric
progression, we find
Since, normal at ( x1 , y1 ) to the parabola y 2 = 4 ax is
y (1 + x)1000 + x(1 + x)999 + x 2 (1 + x)998 + K + x1000
y − y1 = 1 ( x − x1 )
2a x 1001 x1001
(1 + x)1000 1 − (1 + x)1000 −
Here, x1 = 2 and y1 = 4 1 + x (1 + x )
= = = (1 + x)1001 − x1001
x x +1− x
4
Equation of normal is y − 4 = − ( x − 2) 1 − (1 + x)
∴ 1 + x
4
1001!
⇒ y − 4 = −x + 2 Hence, the coefficient of x 50 = 1001C50 =
50!951!
⇒ x+ y −6 = 0 . . . (i) ∴ λ = 1001, µ = 50 and v = 951
Solve equation (i) and y = 8 x then y = 8(6 − y )
2 2
∴ λ + 2 µ + 3v = 1001 + 100 + 2853 = 3954
Mock Test-5 207
7π 7π π 9. (a) Set A has 4 elements
5. (139) Q sin −1 sin =π − =− ,
6 6 6 Set B has 2 elements
2π 2π
∴ Number of elements in set ( A × B ) = 4 × 2 = 8
cos −1 cos = ,
3 3 ∴ Total number of subsets of ( A × B) = 28 = 256
5π 5π π Number of subsets having 0 elements = 8C0 = 1
tan −1 tan = −π =
4 4 4
Number of subsets having 1 element each = 8C1 = 8
π
−1 π 3π
And cot cot − = π − = ∴ Number of subsets having 2 elements each
4 4 4
8! 8× 7
Hence, required value is = 8C2 = = = 28
2!6! 2
1 π 2π π 3π
216 × − + 27 × + 28 × + 200 × Number of subsets having at least 3 elements
π 6 3 4 4
= 256 − 1 − 8 − 28 = 256 − 37 = 219
= −36 + 18 + 7 + 150 = 139
r r r 10. (d) P ( x ) = ax 2 + b with a, b of same sign.
6. (4) | a | = | b | = | c | = 1
P ( P ( x )) = a ( x 2 + b ) 2 + b
r r r r r r r
a × b + b × c = pa + qb + rc If x ∈ R or ix ∈ R
r r r r r r r r r r 1 ⇒ x2 ∈ R
a ⋅ (b × c ) = p + q (a ⋅ b ) + r (a ⋅ c ) and [a b c ] =
2 ⇒ P ( x) ∈ R
q r r r r ⇒ P( P( x)) ≠ 0
p + + = [a b c ] . . .(i)
2 2
Hence real or purely imaginary number cannot satisfy
p r
+q+ =0 . . .(ii) P ( P ( x)) = 0.
2 2
p q r r r 2 + 3i sin θ 1 + 2i sin θ
+ + r = [a b c ] . . .(iii) 11. (d) ×
2 2 1 − 2i sin θ 1 + 2i sin θ
⇒ p = r = −q
2 − 6sin 2 θ = 0 (For purely imaginary)
⇒ p + 2q + r
2 2 2
1
=4 sin 2 θ =
q2 3
y2 y2 1 1
7. (112) ∴ f 2 x 2 + , 2 x 2 − = xy sin θ = , θ = sin −1
8 8 3 3
2 2
y2 y2 ω 2 ω3 ω4 K ω n+2
= 2x2 + − 2x −
2
8 8 3
ω ω4 ω5 K ω n+3
12. (b,c,d) P =
∴ f (60, 48) + f (80, 48) + f (13, 5) M M M M M
n+ 2 n+3 2n + 4
= (60)2 − (48)2 + (80)2 − (48)2 + (13)2 − (5)2 = 36 + 64 + 12 ω ω K K ω
= 112 ω 4 + ω 6 K ω5 + ω7 + ω9 K K
5
ω + ω7 + ω9 K K K K
P2 =
dy dy / dt a (cos t − t (− sin t ) − cos t ) M M M K
8. (2880) = = = tan t n+ 4 n+6
dx dx / dt a(− sin t + t cos t + sin t ) ω + ω K K K ω 2n + 4 +ω 2n+6
K
k =1 r =0 4 2 4 2 4 2 4 2 4
( n −1)
= ∑ (2(8r + 6) + 2(8r + 4)) 11 1 1 3 1 3
× + × + ×
r =0 X 2 4 4 4 4 4 4 7
( n −1) (d) P = =
X
1 1 3 3 1 1 1 3 1 3 16
= ∑ (32r + 20)
r =0
× + × + × + ×
2 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
= 16(n − 1)n + 20n 18. (c) P
1056 for n = 8
= 4n (4 n + 1) =
1332 for n = 9
5/2 7/2
15. (a,b,c) log 2 3 = ( x − 1) log 2 4 = 2( x − 1)
x
R Q
B1 A3 2sin P − 2sin P cos P
⇒
π /6 2sin P + 2sin P cos P
B2 A2
O
1 − cos P 3
B3 A1 ⇒ =
1 + cos P 32
x = −1/ 2 x = 1/ 2 29
cos P =
⇒ x log 2 3 = 2 x − 2 35
2 1 5 7 8 6
⇒ x= ∆= × × ×
2 − log 2 3 2 2 2 35
2
Rearranging, we get 3
−2 2 log 3 2 ⇒ ∆= 6 ⇒
x= = 4∆
2−
1 2 log 3 2 − 1
log 3 2 2i(x + iy) 2i(x + iy)
19. (A) z = =
1 1 − (x + iy) 2
1 − (x 2 − y 2 + 2ixy)
log 3 4 log 4 3 1
Rearranging again, x = = = . Using 1 − x 2 = y 2
log 3 4 − 1 1
−1 1 − log 4 3
log 4 3 2ix − 2y 1
Z= =− .
2y − 2ixy
2
y
16. (b) Case-1 Any 5 – digit number > 6000 is all 5-digits
1 1
number Q −1 ≤ y ≤ 1 ⇒ − ≤ −1 or − ≥ 1.
y y
Total number > 6000 using 5-digits = 5! = 120
(B) For domain
Case-2: Using 4-digits
8.3x − 2
−1 ≤ ≤1
1 − 32( x −1)
3x − 3x − 2
Can be 6.7 or 8 4 ways 3 ways 2 ways ⇒ −1 ≤ ≤ 1.
i.e., 3 ways Total number = 3 × 4 × 3 × 2 = 72 1 − 32 x − 2
−2 −1 1 2
Putting x = 0 we have,
c = log y2 (0) = ln1 = 0
dy ∴ ln y2 = 8 x
(D) ∫ y + 1 = ∫ dx
⇒ y2 = e8 x i.e.,
⇒ f ( x ) = 2e x − 1
e8 x
⇒ f (ln 2) = 3 y1 = +D
8
210 Mathematics
1
Again putting x = 0, then y1 (0) = + D r4
8 Then QR = 2 ⋅ QM = 2 {(OQ)2 − (OM ) 2 } = 2 r 2 −
100
1
⇒ 0= +D P(6, 8)
8
1
∴ D=−
8 Q
M
e8 x 1 e8 x x
⇒ y1 = − ⇒ y= − +E r R
8 8 64 8 r
O
1 1 (0, 0)
Putting x = 0, we have y (0) = −0+ E =
64 8
1 1 7 1
∴ E= − = Area of ∆QPR = ⋅ QR ⋅ PM
8 64 64 2
e8 x x 7 (e8 x − 8 x + 7) r 4 100 − r
2
Hence, y = − + = ⇒ λ = 64 ∴
1
∆ (say) = ⋅ 2 r 2 −
64 8 64 64 ⋅
2 100 10
4. (5522) Since m1 and m2 are the roots of the equation r 2 (100 − r 2 )3
∴ ∆2 = = z (say)
x 2 + ( 3 + 2) x + ( 3 − 1) = 0 1000
Then m1 + m2 = − ( 3 + 2), m1 m2 = ( 3 − 1) dz 1
∴ = {r 2 ⋅ 3(100 − r 2 ) 2 ⋅ (−2r ) + (100 − r 2 )3 ⋅ 2r}
dr 1000
∴ m1 − m2 = (m1 + m2 )2 − 4m1m2 = (3 + 4 + 4 3 − 4 3 + 4) = 11
2r (100 − r 2 )2
and coordinates of the vertices of the given triangle are = {100 − r 2 − 3r 2 }
1000
(0, 0) (c / m1 , c ) and (c / m2 , c)
dz
Hence, the required area of triangle For maximum or minimum = 0, then we get
dr
=
1 c c
×c − ×c r = 5, ( r ≠ 10 as P is outside the circle)
2 m1 m2
d 2z
And = −ve
1 1 1 1 2 m2 − m1 1 11 dr 2 r =5
= c2 − = c = c2
2 m1 m2 2 m1m2 2 ( 3 − 1) ∴ Area of triangle is also maximum at r = 5.
1 11( 3 + 1) 33 + 11 2 r r r r
= c2 = c 6. (1352) Let PV of P, A, B and C are p , a , b and c
2 ( 3 − 1)( 3 + 1) 4 r
respectively and O (0) be the circumcircle of the
33 11
On comparing, a = ,b= equilateral triangle ABC.
4 4
r r r
a+b +c
or a =
11
,b=
33 Then, =0 . . .(i)
4 4 3
r r r r 26
33 11 44 11 and | p | = | a | = | b | = | c |= unit . . .(ii)
∴ a 2 + b2 = + = =
16 16 16 4 3
uuur r r r r
11 Now, | PA |2 = | a − p |2 = a 2 + p 2 − 2a ⋅ p
⇒ 2008( a 2 + b 2 ) = 2008 × = 502 ×11 = 5522
4 uuur r r
Similarly | PB |2 = b 2 + p 2 − 2b ⋅ p and
5. (5) Equation of chord of contact (QR ) is 6 x + 8 y − r 2 = 0 uuur r r
| PC |2 = c 2 + p 2 − 2c ⋅ p
6 ⋅ 6 + 8⋅8 − r2 100 − r 2 uuur r r r r
PM = = and ∴ Σ | PA |2 = a 2 + b 2 + c 2 + 3 p 2 − 2 p ( a + b + c )
(62 + 82 ) 10
= 6 p 2 − 0 [From equation (i) and (ii)]
0 + 0 − r2 r2
OM = = (26) 2
=6 = 2(26) 2 = 1352
(6 + 8 )
2 2 10 3
Mock Test-5 211
7. (4) Any point on the first line in symmetrical form is 11. (c) From graph, p = −1
(3r − 4, 5r − 6, − 2r + 1). If the lines are coplanar, this
point must lie on both the planes which determine the
second line.
–x+1 x–1
⇒ 3(3r − 4) − 2(5r − 6) − 2r + 1 + 5 = 0 . . .(i)
and 2(3r − 4) + 3(5r − 6) + 4(−2r + 1) − k = 0 . . .(ii)
0 1
From equation (i), we get r = 2
⇒ lim g ( x) = −1 ⇒ lim g (1 + h ) = −1
x →1+
Now substituting r = 2 equation (ii), then k = 4 h→0
hn
8. (16) Let the equation of circle ⇒ lim = −1
h →0 log cos m h
x 2 + y 2 + 2 gx + 2 fy + k = 0 . . .(i)
n ⋅ h n−1 n h n−1
and the equation of the rectangular hyperbola is ⇒ lim
h →0 m ⋅ ( − tan h)
= − lim = −1, which holds if
m h→0 tan h
xy = c 2 . . .(ii)
n = m = 2.
c
Put x = ct and y = in equation (i) 12. (a) g ( x + 1) = log( f ( x + 1) = log x + log( f ( x)) = log x + g ( x)
t
2 ⇒ g ( x + 1) − g ( x) = log x
Then c 2 t 2 + c2 + 2 gct + 2 fc + k = 0
t t 1
⇒ g ′′( x + 1) − g ′′( x) = −
⇒ c 2t 4 + 2 gct 3 + kt 2 + 2 fct + c 2 = 0 x2
This equation being fourth degree in t. Let the roots be 1 1
g ′′ 1 + − g ′′ = −4
t1 , t2 , t3 , t4 then t1t2t3t4 = 1 2 2
∴ 16 t1t2t3t4 = 16 ×1 = 16 1 1 4
g ′′ 2 + − g ′′ 1 + = − ..........
2x 2 2 9
−1
x + 1 − x2
−1
1 1 4
9. (a) tan ( y ) = tan g ′′ N + − g ′′ N − = −
1 − x.2 x2 2 2 (2 N − 1)2
1− x
Summing up all terms
3x − x3 3x − x3 1 1 1 1
⇒ tan −1 ( y) = tan −1 2 ⇒ y = Hence, g ′′ N + − g ′′ = −4 1 + + ... + .
2
1 − 3x 1 − 3x 2 2 2 9 (2 N − 1)
h 1
10. (a) = e x (e 2 x − 1) ( Z 2 − 1)
AQ 3 13. (c) J − I = ∫ dx = ∫ 4 dz
e + e +1
4x 2x
z + z2 +1
P
1
1 − 2 dz 1 e x + e − x − 1
where z = e x = ∫
z
= ln x − x +c
1
2
2 e + e +1
z + −1
h z
1 e2 x − e x + 1
30° 45° 60° ∴ J − I = ln 2 x x + c.
A B C Q 2 e + e +1
π π
⇒ AQ = 3h x x x
14. (d) I = ∫ 1 + 4sin 2 − 4sin I = ∫ 1 − 2sin dx
2 2 2
Similarly, BQ = h 0 0
π
⇒ h 3
x
π
π
CQ = I = ∫ 1 − 2sin dx + ∫ − 1 − 2sin dx
3 2 2
0 π
AB AQ − BQ ( 3 − 1)h
3
3
∴ = = = π
BC BQ − CQ h 1 x3 x
π
h − 1 = x + 4 cos + − x − 4 cos
3 2 0 2 π
3
212 Mathematics
15. (a) Rearranging the equation we get, 19. (a) Let A, B, C and D be the complex numbers,
dp (t ) 1 2, − 2, 2i
= dt . . .(i)
p (t ) − 400 2
and − 2i respectively.
Integrating (1) on both sides we get
p ( t ) = 400 + k e t / 2 , PA2 + PB 2 + PC 2 + PD 2
⇒
QA2 + QB 2 + QC 2 + QD 2
where k is a constant of integration.
Using p (0) = 100, we get k = −300 | z1 − 2 |2 + | z1 − 2 |2 + | z1 − 2i |2 + | z1 − 2i |2 | z1 |2 +2 3
= = =
| z2 + 2 |2 + | z2 − 2 |2 + | z2 − 2i |2 + | z2 − 2i |2 | z1 | +2 4
2
i j k
17. (b) 3 1 2 = −iˆ − 7 ˆj + 5kˆ 1
∴ T2T3 = 4 ×
1 2 3 2
1 1 4
−iˆ − 7 ˆj + 5kˆ ∴ Area of ∆ T1 T2T3 = × × =1
Hence unit vector will be . 2 2 2
5 3