1. Most behaviour has a single cause.

2. Wundt was an important contributor to the Structuralism school of Psychology.

3. Aristotle believed that behaviour was mostly the result of nurture.
4. Cognitive Psychology focuses on mental processes.
5. The Functionalism school of Psychology was founded by Freud.
6. The lower level of explanation focuses on interpersonal processes.
7. Hindsight bias refers to people’s tendency to have positive memories of their childhood.
8. Over time, psychology changed from being a philosophical to a scientific discipline.
9. Introspection involves asking people to report on their own mental processes as they
happen.
10. Forensic psychology focuses on issues relevant to the criminal justice system.

1. false
2. true
3. true
4. true
5. false
6. false
7. false
8. true
9. true
10. true

1. The word “psychology’ comes from:

a. Latin
b. Spanish
c. Greek
d. Italian
2. Psychology is defined as the scientific study of:
a. people and things
b. emotions and beliefs
c. perception and religion
d. mind and behaviour
3. The scientific approach is more useful at answering
questions about ______ than questions about ______.
a. facts, values
b. ideas, emotions
c. values, facts
d. emotions, facts
4. According to the text, the lower level of explanation corresponds to
______ processes.
a. social
b. cultural
c. biological
d. interpersonal
5. A psychologist exploring the impact of a new drug on activity in the brain is working on
the ______ level of
explanation.
a. lower
b. middle
c. upper
d. all of the above
6. A psychologist studying what makes people laugh in different countries around the
world is working on the ______ level of explanation.
a. lower
b. middle
c. higher
d. none of the above
7. Different people react differently to the same situation. This is referred to as:
a. multiple determinants
b. nativism
c. the Simpson effect
d. individual differences
8. ______ is to nature as ______ is to nurture.
a. environment, genes
b. conscious, unconscious
c. inaccuracy, accuracy
d. biology, experience
9. The term “tabula rasa” highlights the importance of ______ in shaping behaviour.
a. genes
b. experience
c. nature
d. predestination
10. The Greek philosopher ______ believed that knowledge is acquired through experience
and learning.
a. Archimedes
b. Rousseau
c. Plato
d. Aristotle
11. ______ is to nature as ______ is to nurture.
a. Plato, Aristotle
b. Aristotle, Plato
c. Pliny, Archimedes
d. Stavros, Pliny
12. ______ is the belief that the mind is fundamentally different from the body.
a. mindism
b. dualism
c. centralism
d. specialism
13. The school of psychology whose goal was to identify the basic elements of experience
was called:
a. experientialism
b. dualism
c. functionalism
d. structuralism
14. Which of the following was most closely associated with the structuralist school of
psychology?
a. Titchener
b. James
c. Descartes
d. Watson
15. Darwin’s theory of ______ argued that physiological characteristics evolve because they
are useful to the
organism.
a. extreme usefulness
b. natural endowment
c. natural selection
d. natural wellbeing
16. ______ was to structuralism as ______ was to functionalism.
a. Wundt, Titchener
b. Wundt, James
c. James, Titchener
d. Milner, Thompson
17. Freud championed ______ psychology.
a. psychodynamic
b. cultural
 c. conscious
d. biodynamic
18. Which school of psychology believes that it is impossible to objectively study the mind?
a. functionalism
b. behaviorism
c. humanism
d. socialism
19. Receiving an electric shock would be an example of a ______ whereas being frightened
would be an example of a ______.
a. stimulus, response
b. punishment, reward
c. reaction emotion
d. reinforcement, stimulus
20. Dr Pula wants to explore differences in child-rearing practices between British and
Chinese parents. She is most likely a:
a. cognitive psychologist
b. physiological psychologist
c. cognitive-ergonomic psychologist
d. social-cultural psychologist
21. Nature is to ________ as nurture is to ________.
a. environment/genes
b. conscious/unconscious
c. genes/environment
d. unconscious/conscious
22. Freud emphasized the role of ________ in shaping people’s personality.
a. free will
b. unconscious desires
c. hormones
d. group influence
23. Evolutionary psychology has its roots in:
a. behaviourism
b. collectivism
c. functionalism
d. structuralism
24. Most human behaviour:
a. can be easily explained
b. has multiple causes
c. stems from unconscious desires
d. depends on social influence
25. A forensic psychologist would be most likely to study:
a. the accuracy of eyewitness memory
b. the impact of advertising on shopping behaviour
c. the effect of hormones on decision making
d. gender differences in learning styles
26. The behaviourists rejected introspection because:
a. it was too slow
b. it invaded people’s privacy
c. it yielded too much data
d. it was too subjective
27. Another term for reinforcement is:
a. stimulus
b. reward
c. response
d. condition
28. East Asian cultures tend to be more oriented toward ________ while Western cultures
tend to be more oriented toward ________.
a. individualism/collectivism
b. collectivism/individualism
 c. cultural norms/social norms
d. social norms/cultural norms
29. Watson and Skinner both contributed to which school of psychology?
a. functionalism
b. cognitive
c. social-cultural
d. behaviourism
30. Which field of psychology would be most likely to study the influence of
over-crowding on conformity?
a. personality
b. cognitive
c. clinical
d. social

1. c
2. d
3. a
4. c
5. a
6. c
7. d
8. d
9. b
10. d
11. a
12. b
13. d
14. a
15. c
16. b
17. a
18. b
19. a
20. d
21. c
22. b
23. c
24. b
25. a
26. d
27. b
28. b
29. d
30. d

1. Negative reinforcement involves removing something to decrease a response.

2. Jung believed in a collective unconscious.
3. According to Freud, the manifest content of a dream is superficial and meaningless.
4. The humanistic perspective emerged before the psychodynamic perspective.
5. Remembering how to ride a bicycle would be an example of procedural memory.
6. In Seligman’s ABCDE model, the A stands for anxiety.
7. Pavlov was influential in behaviourist psychology.
8. Positive reinforcement involves adding something to increase a response.
9. The occipital lobe is also known as the auditory cortex.
10. When referring to sleep processes, REM stands for rapid eye movement.

1. false
2. true
3. true
4. false
5. true
6. false
7. true
8. true
9. false
10. true

1. The belief that complex behaviours can be understood as the sum of several simpler
one’s is called:
a. reductionism
b. functionalism
c. introspection
d. animism
2. Wundt’s primary method of research was:
a. experimentation
b. autoethnography
c. introspection
d. lesioning
3. Jung stated that humans possess both a ________ unconscious and a ________
unconscious:
a. shadow/manifest
b. personal/collective
c. introvert/extravert
d. phenomenal/latent
4. Remembering that the capital of Canada is Ottawa requires:
a. sensory memory
b. semantic memory
c. episodic memory
d. procedural memory
5. Which of the following psychologists was NOT a behaviourist?
a. Watson
b. Thorndike
c. Skinner
d. Maslow
6. Positive reinforcement involves ________ something to increase a response whereas
negative reinforcement involves ________ something.
a. repeating/increasing
b. adding/removing
c. removing/adding
d. increasing/repeating
7. Two kinds of learning studied by behaviourists are:
a. classical conditioning and operant conditioning
b. manifest learning and latent learning
c. conscious learning and unconscious learning
d. operant conditioning and instrumental conditioning
8. Which of the following is NOT a theory of dreaming?
a. expectation fulfillment
b. activation-synthesis
c. threat-simulation
d. elucidatory consciousness
9. The brain has four lobes: occipital, frontal ________ and ________.
a. sympathetic, parasympathetic
b. autonomic, somatic
c. temporal, parietal
d. visual, auditory
10. A psychologist who practices Gestalt Therapy would most likely be a(n):
a. humanist
 b. behaviourist
c. evolutionist
d. cognitivist
11. A psychologist primarily interested in mental processes such as memory and perception
would most likely be a(n):
a. humanist
b. behaviourist
c. evolutionist
d. cognitivist
12. Which of the following topics would be of least interest to a biological psychologist?
a. hunger
b. thirst
c. free will
d. sleep
13. William James worked during the:
a. late 20th century
b. late 19th century
c. middle ages
d. the 1700s
14. Freud argued that dreams have both ________ content and ________ content.
a. Freudian, Jungian
b. conditioned, unconditioned
c. latent, manifest
d. somatic, autonomic
15. In Pavlov’s work dogs salivated naturally in response to being given meat powder.
In this situation, salivation is the ________ while the meat powder is the ________.
a. UCR, UCS
b. UCS, UCR
c. CS, CR
d. CR, CS
16. Which of the following was a humanistic psychologist?
a. Freud
b. Watson
c. Wernicke
d. Rogers
17. What are the two parts of the autonomic nervous system?
a. somatic, autonomic
b. reflexive, responsive
c. sympathetic, parasympathetic
d. frontal, occipital
18. MBTI stands for:
a. Manifold Barometric Temperature Indicator
b. Multiple Behavioural Theories Instrument
c. Myers Briggs Type Indicator
d. Maslow Bosun Trend Indicator
19. Which lobe of the brain is also known as the auditory cortex?
a. frontal
b. temporal
c. occipital
d. parietal
20. Which of the following is NOT associated with Freud?
a. id
b. ego
c. shadow
d. super-ego
21. In Seligman’s ABCDE model of learned optimism, B stands for:
a. belief
b. behaviour
 c. brain
d. blessing
22. ________ needs were at the bottom of Maslow’s pyramid/hierarchy.
a. safety
b. self actualization
c. esteem
d. physiological
23. The idea that human behaviour may be the product of natural selection is central to:
a. humanistic psychology
b. evolutionary psychology
c. cognitive psychology
d. behavioural psychology
24. The movement known as radical behaviourism is most closely associated with:
a. Watson
b. Thorndike
c. Pavlov
d. Skinner
25. Intrinsic motivation refers to:
a. enjoying a task for its own sake
b. being motivated by money and/or other rewards
c. enjoying a task because it meets physical needs
d. motivation that can only be experienced indoors
26. Remembering what you ate for supper yesterday requires:
a. sensory memory
b. episodic memory
c. procedural memory
d. semantic memory
27. According to Freud the ________ content of a dream relates to the person’s
unconscious wishes.
a. shadow
b. lateral
c. spreading
d. latent
28. Humanistic psychology emerged during which decade?
a. 1930s
b. 1950s
c. 1970s
d. 1990s
29. In Pavlov’s work, when dogs were trained to salivate to the sound of a bell that sound
was the:
a. UCS
b. UCR
c. CS
d. CR
30. Another term for thinking about thinking is:
a. metacognition
b. perception
c. mediation
d. self-regulation

1. a
2. c
3. b
4. b
5. d
6. b
7. a
8. d
9. c
10. a
11. d
12. c
13. b
14. c
15. a
16. d
17. c
18. c
19. b
20. c
21. a
22. d
23. b
24. d
25. a
26. b
27. d
28. b
29. c
30. a

1. Correlational research allows us to assess the causal impact of one variable on another.
2. Lack of external validity limits the extent to which the findings of a study can be
generalized.
3. The standard deviation is a measure of dispersion.
4. A parsimonious theory is one that can be shown to be incorrect.
5. The median is a measure of dispersion.
6. Case studies, surveys and naturalistic observation are all descriptive research designs.
7. In an experiment, the researcher manipulates the independent variable.
8. Multiple regression is used to analyse the results of a case study.
9. In an experiment, a confounding variable would be a threat to internal validity.
10. In an experiment looking at the effect of eating candy on irritability, irritability would be
the independent variable.

1. false
2. true
3. true
4. false
5. false
6. true
7. true
8. false
9. true
10. false

1. Statements based on the systematic collection of data are:

a. empirical
b. dialectic
c. empathic
d. false
2. The goal of correlational research is to:
a. assess the causal impact of one variable on another
b. create a snapshot of what’s happening
 c. assess relationships between variables
d. all of the above
3. A study of the feeding behaviour of a group of wild monkeys in India would be an
example of:
a. a survey
b. naturalistic observation
c. a correlation
d. an experiment
4. If income and happiness are positively correlated then a person with a low income
would be predicted to be:
a. not depressed at all
b. less depressed than a person with a high income
c. more depressed than a person with a high income
d. cannot make a prediction from correlational data
5. Descriptive statistics aim to:
a. explain
b. confuse
c. complicate
d. summarize
6. In a ________ experiment neither the researcher nor the participants know which
condition participants are in.
a. blind
b. double-blind
c. random
d. confounded
7. A researcher is interested in the impact of anxiety on performance. In order to
manipulate anxiety, they have some subjects eat plain chips while others eat barbecue
flavoured chips. The most obvious problem with this experiment is a lack of :
a. statistical validity
b. empirical validity
c. internal validity
d. construct validity
8. A strength of correlational designs is that they:
a. can demonstrate causation
b. do not require ethics board approval
c. can be used with variables which cannot be manipulated by a researcher
d. are more intrusive than experimental designs
9. A researcher uses an experimental design to study the effect of music on memory. In
this experiment, the Independent Variable is:
a. music
b. memory
c. both music and memory
d. neither music nor memory
10. According to the text, which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good theory?
a. it is parsimonious
b. it is falsifiable
c. it is common sense
d. it is general
11. Empirical statements are based on:
a. belief
b. data
c. intuition
d. common sense
12. Informed consent is typically obtained:
a. during an experiment
b. before an experiment
c. after an experiment
d. it is not typical to obtain informed consent
13. Creating equivalence among research participants is vital for:
a. experimental research
b. correlational research
c. descriptive research
d. equivalence is never vital
14. A researcher is interested in whether the results of her experiment (conducted in
Canada) would be the same if the experiment were conducted in China. This researcher
is concerned with:
a. internal validity
b. external validity
c. statistical validity
d. none of the above
15. Standard deviation is a measure of:
a. range
b. central tendency
c. inference
d. dispersion
16. Generalization is a key issue in:
a. internal validity
b. external validity
c. a double-blind experiment
d. a single-blind experiment
17. In an experiment examining the effect of mood on intelligence participants are
randomly
assigned to watch either a funny movie or a sad movie before they complete an IQ test.
The funny movie is shown in a classroom, while the sad movie is shown in the student
lounge. The most obvious problem with this experiment is:
a. lack of statistical validity
b. the IV is confounded
c. the use of random assignment
d. none of the above
18. In an experiment the researcher manipulates the ________ variable and measure the
________ variable.
a. independent, dependent
b. dependent, independent
c. causal, spurious
d. spurious, causal
19. The more exercise a person takes the fewer medical problems they report. This is an
example of:
a. a curvilinear relationship
b. statistical independence
c. a positive correlation
d. a negative correlation
20. In a normal distribution most scores are located:
a. at the high end of the distribution
b. at the low end of the distribution
c. in the centre of the distribution
d. at the extremes of the distribution
21. Data from a correlational study is usually shown as a:
a. scatterplot
b. pie chart
c. bar graph
d. b or c
22. A researcher plans to assess intelligence by counting the number of times participants
can hop on one leg in 60 seconds. An obvious problem with this is:
a. lack of statistical validity
b. number of hops is too subjective
 c. lack of construct validity
d. lack of significance
23. A double-blind study is used to minimize the impact of:
a. experimenter bias
b. expectancy effects
c. both a and b
d. neither a nor b
24. Correlation coefficients range from:
a. r = -1 to r = +1
b. r = 0 to r = +1
c. r = -1 to r = 0
d. r = +.5 to r = +1
25. In an experiment randomly assigned, participants drank wine or water. All participants
then completed an anxiety questionnaire. In this experiment the IV was:
a. the results of the memory test
b. the participants
c. the random assignment
d. what the participants drank
26. Research shows that the older a person is, the larger their vocabulary. This is an
example of a :
a. positive correlation
b. negative correlation
c. causal correlation
d. partial correlation
27. Three commonly used measures of central tendency are:
a. range, standard deviation, median,
b. median, mode, dispersion
c. mode, median, standard deviation
d. median, mode, mean
28. Dr. Maki questioned a group of 9th graders about their career aspirations. This is an
example of a(n)
a. experiment
b. survey
c. case study
d. manipulation
29. In an experiment looking at the effect of heat on performance, participants were
randomly assigned to spend 20 minutes in a hot room painted blue or to spend 20
minutes in a cold room painted yellow. In this experiment the IV is confounded by:
a. lack of random sampling
b. the colour of the room
c. performance on the task
d. there is no confound
30. A researcher asks 250 students (from a school with 1000 pupils) to complete a survey
about the cafereria. The 250 students are a:
a. population
b. case study
c. sample
d. variable

1. a
2. c
3. b
4. c
5. d
6. b
7. d
8. c
9. a
10. c
11. b
12. b
13. a
14. b
15. d
16. b
17. b
18. a
19. d
20. c
21. a
22. c
23. c
24. a
25. d
26. a
27. d
28. b
29. b
30. c

1. A person with damage to their cerebellum would have difficulty understanding speech.
2. The corpus callosum connects the two hemispheres of the brain.
3. An FMRI involves lesioning the brain.
4. Glands in the endocrine system secrete hormones.
5. The peripheral nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord.
6. The visual cortex is located in the temporal lobes.
7. The pineal gland is sometimes referred to as the master gland.
8. The sympathetic nervous system is part of the autonomic nervous system.
9. The dendrites of a neuron pass messages away from the cell body.
10. GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter.

1. false
2. true
3. false
4. true
5. false
6. false
7. false
8. true
9. false
10. true

1. Linear perspective refers to the fact that when one object overlaps another we perceive
it as being closer to us.
2. People with blindsight are psychic.
3. Umami is a flavour found in MSG.
4. The vestibular system is important in enabling us to keep our balance.
5. The field of psychophysics was founded by Fechner.
6. The retina is a membrane in the upper nasal passage.
7. Rods specialize in detecting black, white and gray.
8. Sensory adaptation refers to diminished sensitivity after prolonged and constant
exposure.
9. The moon appears larger when it is near the horizon than when it is seen overhead.
10. The middle ear contains six tiny bones.

1. false
2. false
3. true
4. true
5. true
6. false
7. true
8. true
9. true
10. false
11.
Sensation is to ________ as perception is to ________.
a. vision, olfaction
b. conscious, unconscious
c. awareness, interpretation
d. taste, vision
12. Visual accommodation involves a change in which structure?
a. lens
b. cornea
c. retina
d. fovea
13. If object A overlaps object B we perceive object A as being closer. Which depth cue are
we using?
a. relative size
b. linear perspective
c. proximity
d. interposition
14. ________ is the ability to sense the position and movement of our body parts.
a. proprioaction
b. proprioception
c. proprioliction
d. proprioprediction
15. A researcher interested in the relationship between physical stimuli and our
psychological experience would be studying:
a. extra sensory perception
b. proprioception
c. auditory realism
d. psychophysics
16. When a person enters a dark room their pupils ________ to allow more light to enter
their eyes.
a. constrict
b. curve
c. dilate
d. a or c
17. Wave ________ is to pitch as wave ________ is to loudness.
a. length, frequency
b. peak, trough
c. pressure, distinctiveness
d. frequency, amplitude
18. In depth perception, accommodation would be most useful for which activity?
a. playing golf
b. threading a needle
c. driving a car
d. flying a kite
19. What is the visible part of the ear called?
a. pinna
b. funnel
c. tibia
d. cochlea
20. The optic nerve carries information to:
a. the retina then the cortex
b. the retina then the thalamus
c. the thalamus then the cortex
d. the cornea then the retina
21. Where would you find tastebuds?
a. on the tongue
b. on the walls of the mouth
c. at the back of the throat
d. all of the above
22. Damage to the ________ may cause sensorineural hearing loss.
a. eardrum
b. pinna
c. stapes
d. cilia
23. Which are the 4 basic sensations our skin can detect?
a. vibration, warmth, tingling, pain
b. pain, friction, cold, warmth
c. pain, pressure, hot, cold
d. itching, tickling, friction, aching
24. Which of the following is NOT one of the six senses?
a. proprioception
b. transduction
c. olfaction
d. taste
25. Which of the following is a gestalt principle?
a. intensity
b. density
c. proximity
d. frequency
26. When detecting colour, hue depends on wave ________ while brightness dependson
________
a. height, length
b. length, height
c. intensity, consistency
d. consistency, intensity
27. What is the stimulus for vision?
a. electromagnetic energy
b. electrovisual energy
c. electrostatic energy
d. electroconvulsive energy
28. People are more likely to notice a 50 cent increase in the price of a candy bar than they
are to notice a 50 cent increase in the price of an iPad. This illustrates:
a. the absolute threshold
b. Weber’s law
c. signal detection
d. opponent processes
29. What is another term for difference threshold?
a. absolute threshold
b. difference adaptation
c. just noticeable difference
d. sensory differentiation
30. According to the text, how many different taste sensations are there?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
31. Movement of hair cells in the ________ triggers nerve impulses which are sent to the
brain.
a. pinna
b. cochlea
c. malleus
d. retina
32. Which of the following is NOT part of the vestibular system?
a. horizontal canal
b. anterior canal
c. saccule
d. invicticule
33. Damage to your olfactory membrane would most likely impair your ability to:
a. see
b. hear
c. smell
d. feel pain
34. Which of the following is NOT a set of opponent colours according to opponent process
theory?
a. red/blue
b. red/green
c. yellow/blue
d. white/black
35. Your ability to focus on a TV show while ignoring the noise of your partner nagging
about supper illustrates:
a. synesthesia
b. selective attention
c. sensory attention
d. sensory adaptation
36. The fact that you may notice a disgusting smell when you first walk into a room but stop
noticing it if you stay in the room for a while illustrates:
a. synesthesia
b. selective attention
c. sensory attention
d. sensory adaptation
37. ________ ________ theory argues that pain is determined by the operation of two
types of nerve fibres in the spinal cord.
a. opponent process
b. Young Helmholtz
c. gate control
d. neural location
38. The middle ear contains three little bones. They are:
a. pinna, cochlea, cilia
b. incus, anvil, stapes
c. hammer, anvil, stirrup
d. tympani, ossicle, pinna
39. Signal detection analysis examines our ability to:
a. tell the difference between blue and green
b. detect signals of distress in a baby
c. detect the latent meaning of a dream
d. separate true signals from background noise
40. What do we call the field of psychology that focuses on improving the development of
technology by using psychological knowledge?
a. human factors
b. signal detection
c. humanistic psychology
d. computer science

1. c
2. a
3. d
4. b
5. d
6. c
7. d
8. b
9. a
10. c
11. d
12. d
13. c
14. b
15. c
16. b
17. a
18. b
19. c
20. c
21. b
22. d
23. c
24. a
25. b
26. d
27. c
28. c
29. d
30. a

1. Stimulants increase CNS activity?

2. Sleep spindles appear during REM sleep.
3. Freud believed that the primary function of dreams was wish fulfilment.
4. Nicotine is an opioid.
5. Sensory deprivation has been used as a form of torture.
6. Everyone is susceptible to hypnosis.
7. Mescaline and LSD have hallucinogenic effects.
8. Delta waves predominate during wakefulness.
9. Valium is a depressant.
10. People awakened during REM sleep are likely to report that they were dreaming.

1. A dualist believes:
a. people have two personalities
b. life is better with a partner
c. there are two explanations for every behaviour
d. the mind is separate from the brain
2. Prolonged sleep deprivation can result in:
a. impaired driving
b. increased anxiety
c. memory problems
d. all of the above
3. Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 primary classes of psychoactive drugs?
a. stimulant
b. barbiturate
c. depressant
d. hallucinogen
4. How long does a circadian rhythm last?
a. about an hour
b. about a day
 c. about a month
d. about a year
5. Which of the following is a depressant?
a. alcohol
b. nicotine
c. LSD
d. caffeine
6. From birth to adulthood, the amount of sleep we need per night:
a. increases
b. decreases
c. stays the same
d. decreases then increases
7. ________ waves are to wakefulness as ________ waves are to deep sleep.
a. alpha, beta
b. beta, delta
c. alpha, delta
d. beta, theta
8. What is another name for N3 stage sleep?
a. rapid eye movement sleep
b. beta wave sleep
c. dream sleep
d. slow wave sleep
9. Caffeine is to ________ as alcohol is to ________.
a. stimulant, depressant
b. stimulant, hallucinogen
c. stimulant, opioid
d. barbiturate, stimulant
10. What did Freud regard as the primary function of dreams?
a. enhanced cognition
b. wish fulfilment
c. memory suppression
d. enhanced self-esteem
11. The body’s primary circadian pacemaker is the:
a. pineal gland
b. hippocampus
c. suprachiasmatic nucleus
d. amygdala
12. According to the activation-synthesis theory of dreaming, dreams are triggered by the
random firing of neurons in the:
a. right temporal lobe
b. suprachiasmatic nucleus
c. brain stem
d. hypothalamus
13. What is another name for hallucinogens?
a. poppies
b. psychedelics
c. epinephrine
d. stimulants
14. The term “hypnosis” is based on the Greek word for:
a. trance
b. drug
c. sleep
d. dream
15. Which is the odd one out?
a. opium
b. halcion
c. heroin
d. morphine
16. What did Freud call the hidden psychological content of a dream?
a. its manifest content
b. its literal content
c. its latent content
d. its soporific content
17. Which hormone helps us fall asleep?
a. nor-adrenalin
b. estrogen
c. oxytocin
d. melatonin
18. Which is the odd one out?
a. nicotine
b. alcohol
c. barbiturates
d. benzodiazepines
19. The appearance of sleep spindles on a sleeper’s EEG recording would indicate they are
in:
a. REM sleep
b. N1 stage sleep
c. N2 stage sleep
d. N3 stage sleep
20. Which of the following is NOT a sleep disorder?
a. narcolepsy
b. somnambulism
c. sleep apnea
d. epilepsy
21. Which of the following is NOT associated with REM sleep?
a. decreased limbic system activity
b. increased heart rate
c. genital arousal
d. dreaming
22. If you were looking at an EEG recording of a sleeping person and noticed theta waves,
which stage of sleep would that indicate?
a. REM
b. N1
c. N2
d. N3
23. I am watching my friend sleep. If I want them to be able to tell me about their dreams I
should wake them during:
a. REM
b. N1
c. N2
d. N3
24. ________ increase activity in the CNS while ________ reduce it.
a. barbiturates, toxic inhalants
b. barbiturates, stimulants
c. stimulants, depressants
d. depressants, stimulants
25. ________ behaviour is to unconscious as ________ behaviour is to conscious.
a. normal, abnormal
b. idiopathic, nomothetic
c. automatic, controlled
d. moral, immoral
26. When it comes to a drug’s “safety ratio” the bigger the ratio the, ________ drug.
a. more dangerous
b. less dangerous
c. more expensive
d. less expensive
27. Taking a stimulant will probably cause:
a. an increase in blood sugar
b. constricted pupils
c. increased GABA production
d. all of the above
28. Hallucinogens typically mimic which neurotransmitter?
a. GABA and acetylcholine
b. endorphins and dopamine
c. serotonin and epinephrine
d. dopamine and norepinephrine
29. ________ is defined as persistent difficulty falling or staying asleep.
a. apnea
b. narcolepsy
c. bruxism
d. insomnia
30. Which is the odd one out?
a. heroin
b. LSD
c. PCP
d. mescaline

1. d
2. d
3. b
4. b
5. a
6. b
7. c
8. d
9. a
10. b
11. c
12. c
13. b
14. c
15. b
16. c
17. d
18. a
19. c
20. d
21. a
22. b
23. a
24. c
25. c
26. b
27. a
28. c
29. d
30. a

1. Kohlberg argued that children at the preconventional stage of moral development focus
on obtaining rewards and avoiding punishment.
2. Infants will show the Moro reflex in response to loud noise.
3. Ainsworth found that the majority of children have an ambivalent attachment.
4. Fluid intelligence typically increases as people get older.
5. According to Kubler-Ross there are five phases of grief.
6. Authoritative parents are high in demandingness and low in responsiveness.
7. According to Piaget, children are not born with an understanding of object permanence.
8. A longitudinal design uses the same participants multiple times over an extended
period.
9. The timing of puberty is determined by the social clock.
10. According to Piaget, the preoperational stage starts at around age seven.

1. true
2. true
3. false
4. false
5. true
6. false
7. true
8. true
9. false
10. false

1. Another term for a fertilized ovum is:

a. placenta
b. sperm
c. fallopian
d. zygote
2. According to the text, middle adulthood lasts until approximately:
a. age 35
b. age 45
c. age 55
d. age 65
3. ________ parenting combines high responsiveness with low demandingness.
a. authoritative
b. permissive
c. rejecting-neglecting
d. authoritarian
4. The trajectory of development beginning at conception is:
a. zygote, fetus, embryo
b. embryo, zygote, fetus
c. zygote, embryo, fetus
d. embryo, fetus, zygote
5. Which of the following is one of Marcia’s stages of identity development?
a. foreclosure
b. precipitant
c. conventional
d. operational
6. Which of the following has been put forward as a criticism of Piaget’s theory?
a. he was not meticulous about his methods
b. he did not pay enough attention to the social environment
c. his findings apply to girls but not to boys
d. his findings apply to boys but not to girls
7. Longitudinal research involves:
a. testing different people of the same age
b. testing different people at the same stage of development
c. testing the same people at different ages
d. a and b
8. According to research, which is the most common type of attachment?
a. secure
b. ambivalent
 c. avoidant
d. disorganized
9. A baby is repeatedly shown a blue circle. Over time the baby shows less and less interest
in the blue circle. This illustrates:
a. sensory deprivation
b. habituation
c. dishabituation
d. reflexive adjustment
10. Kohlberg proposed a stage theory of:
a. cognitive development
b. sexual development
c. social development
d. moral development
11. Cross-sectional studies are particularly vulnerable to:
a. attrition
b. lack of ongoing research funding
c. cohort effects
d. meta-critiques
12. Which brain area is responsible for reasoning and planning?
a. brain-stem
b. pre-frontal cortex
c. temporal lobe
d. parietal lobe
13. The “strange situation” is a test of:
a. attachment
b. accommodation
c. assimilation
d. arbitration
14. You are watching a newborn when it is startled by a loud noise. The baby extends its
arms and legs, then quickly brings them in as if trying to grasp something. This illustrates
the:
a. grasp reflex
b. tonic reflex
c. moro reflex
d. stepping reflex
15. Kubler-Ross claimed that there are 5 phases of grief. Which of the following was NOT
one of the phases she identified?
a. denial
b. bargaining
c. anger
d. confusion
16. ________ ________ is the ability to think and acquire information quickly and
abstractly.
a. meta cognition
b. fluid intelligence
c. crystallized intelligence
d. speed reading
17. According to the text, early adulthood begins roughly between ages:
a. 15 – 25
b. 20 – 30
c. 25 – 45
d. 30 – 50
18. Piaget believed that object permanence is typically attained during which stage?
a. formal operations
b. concrete operations
c. pre-operational
d. sensorimotor
19. You are stroking a baby’s cheek with your finger. The baby turns its head and tries to
suck on your finger. The baby is exhibiting the ________ reflex.
a. tonic neck
b. withdrawal
c. rooting
d. grasp
20. ________ are substances that can harm the fetus.
a. testosterones
b. teratogens
c. telomeres
d. testifiers
21. Which of Marcia’s stages of identity development is characterised by the individual
establishing an identity based on the choices or values of others?
a. identity-diffusion
b. foreclosure
c. moratorium
d. identity-achievement
22. Younger adults would typically outperform older adults on a test of:
a. fluid intelligence
b. crystallized intelligence
c. wisdom
d. vocabulary
23. Alzheimer’s disease is associated with a gradual loss of ________ producing neurons.
a. dopamine
b. serotonin
c. acetylcholine
d. GABA
24. Authoritarian parents are:
a. demanding and responsive
b. demanding but not responsive
c. responsive but not demanding
d. neither demanding nor responsive
25. Which of the following is part of the prenatal environment?
a. placenta
b. umbilical cord
c. amniotic sac
d. all of the above
26. Piaget argued that ________ and ________ go hand in hand during childhood.
a. trust, mistrust
b. intimacy, isolation
c. accommodation, assimilation
d. industry, inferiority
27. Which of the following is NOT a teratogen?
a. nicotine
b. testosterone
c. radiation
d. alcohol
28. Mary complains when her tall thin glass of juice is poured into a short but wider glass.
She tells her father that she now has less juice. Mary has not yet grasped the principle
of:
a. assimilation
b. integration
c. attenuation
d. conservation
29. When compared with someone in their 20s, a person in their 40s is likely to have:
a. worse vision but better hearing
b. worse hearing but better vision
 c. worse vision and worse hearing
d. better vision and better hearing
30. At which stage of moral development did Kohlberg argue that people can make moral
decisions that take account of principles such as justice and equality?
a. post-conventional
b. post-operational
c. pre-conventional
d. conventional

1. d
2. d
3. b
4. c
5. a
6. b
7. c
8. a
9. b
10. d
11. c
12. b
13. a
14. c
15. d
16. b
17. c
18. d
19. c
20. b
21. b
22. a
23. c
24. b
25. d
26. c
27. b
28. d
29. c
30. a

1. In the prisoner’s dilemma game, one of the players takes the role of a prisoner while the
other takes the role of a prison guard.
2. Being rewarded for doing something may actually reduce people’s liking for the activity.
3. In classical conditioning, acquisition precedes extinction.
4. In classical conditioning, a neutral stimulus becomes the unconditioned stimulus.
5. Negative reinforcement is the same thing as positive punishment.
6. Casino slot machines are programmed to pay out on a variable-ratio schedule.
7. Both primary and secondary reinforcers can be used to change behaviour via operant
conditioning.
8. Observational learning is also called modelling.
9. Taking away a child’s iPad after they have misbehaved is an example of negative
reinforcement.
10. In classical conditioning, the unconditioned stimulus triggers the conditioned response.

1. false
2. true
3. true
 4. false
5. false
6. true
7. true
8. true
9. false
10. false

1. Pavlov is famous for his work in:

a. contingent conditioning
b. operant conditioning
c. classical conditioning
d. oppositional conditioning
2. The study of learning is most closely associated with which school of psychology?
a. psychoanalytic
b. humanist
c. social
d. behaviourist
3. If we reinforce the desired response every time it occurs we are using:
a. continuous reinforcement
b. incremental reinforcement
c. intermittent reinforcement
d. contingent reinforcement
4. Observational learning is also known as:
a. classical conditioning
b. operant conditioning
c. modelling
d. manipulation
5. Taking away a child’s toys after she has hit her brother (to stop her hitting him again!)
is an example of:
a. positive punishment
b. negative punishment
c. vindictive conditioning
d. observational learning
6. According to the behaviourist school, ________ plays no role in learning.
a. experience
b. nurture
c. nature
d. punishment
7. Thorndike developed the:
a. law of effort
b. law of energy
c. law of effusion
d. law of effect
8. Giving a student extra homework after they misbehave in class is an example of:
a. positive punishment
b. negative punishment
c. positive reinforcement
d. negative reinforcement
9. ________ schedules of reinforcement are based on number of responses while
________ schedules of reinforcement are based on elapsed time.
a. fixed, variable
b. variable, fixed
c. interval, ratio
d. ratio, interval
10. To train her puppy to roll over, Kim began by rewarding it for simply lying down. Later,
she only rewarded the puppy if it lay down AND turned to one side. Later still, the puppy
only got a reward if it lay down, turned, then rolled over. Kim was using:
 a. classical conditioning
b. modelling
c. a fixed interval schedule
d. shaping
11. In classical conditioning, US stands for:
a. unintentional stimulus
b. unconditioned stimulus
c. unconnected stimulus
d. none of the above
12. In classical conditioning, UR and CR are:
a. opposite behaviours
b. the same behaviour
c. the result of extinction
d. the same stimulus
13. Which of the following phrases best sums up the law of effect:
a. think before you act
b. if you can’t beat them, join them
c. if it works, repeat it
d. measure twice, cut once
14. Positive reinforcement ________ the likelihood of a behaviour, and negative
reinforcement
________ the likelihood of a behaviour.
a. increases, increases
b. decreases, decreases
c. increases, decreases
d. decreases, increases
15. Gerhardt got sick after eating a peach. Now he feels sick when he looks at peaches,
nectarines or plums. This illustrates:
a. spontaneous recovery
b. intermittent reinforcement
c. modelling
d. generalization
16. A bakery gives customers a free pastry after every 6 pastry purchases. This is an
example of what kind of reinforcement schedule?
a. fixed interval
b. fixed ratio
c. variable interval
d. variable ratio
17. A researcher trains a dog to salivate to the sound of a bell. Then he turns the lights on
just before he sounds the bell. If he continues to do this until the dog starts to salivate
as
soon as the lights go on, he has demonstrated:
a. latent learning
b. insight
c. second-order conditioning
d. extinction
18. An intermittent schedule of reinforcement that reinforces behaviour after an average,
but unpredictable, amount of time has passed is called a ________ ________ schedule.
a. fixed ratio
b. variable ratio
c. fixed interval
d. variable interval
19. Food is to ________ reinforcer as money is to ________ reinforcer.
a. positive, negative
b. negative, positive
c. primary, secondary
d. secondary, primary
20. Positive punishment ________ behaviour, and negative punishment ________
behaviour.
a. strengthens, strengthens
b. weakens, weakens
c. strengthens, weakens
d. weakens, strengthens
21. In the prisoner’s dilemma game:
a. a positive outcome for one player does not necessarily mean a negative outcome
for the other player
b. a positive outcome for one player necessarily means a negative outcome
for the other player
c. the players can discuss their strategy with each other before making their choices
d. each player has access to a lawyer
22. In the prisoner’s dilemma game, the cooperative decision is:
a. confess
b. don’t confess
c. blame the other person
d. none of the above
23. To encourage children to enjoy arithmetic, you should:
a. punish them when they make a mistake
b. reward them every time they get an answer right
c. sometimes surprise them with a reward when they get an answer right
d. ignore them
24. To be classed as a phobia, a fear must be both:
a. rational and life-threatening
b. unexplained and unconscious
c. short-lived and dangerous
d. strong and irrational
25. After being bitten by a big Alsatian dog, Hugo was scared of other big dogs but he was
not scared of little dogs like Chihuahuas. This pattern demonstrates:
a. shaping
b. negative punishment
c. discrimination
d. latent learning
26. You are online one evening when an advert appears showing your favourite movie star
wearing a new brand of sunglasses. The advertiser hopes that your positive feelings
toward the movie star will make you want the sunglasses. In this situation, the
sunglasses would be the:
a. US
b. UR
c. CS
d. CR
27. People who have a lot of dental problems often come to dislike even the smell of their
dentist’s office. The smell represents a(n):
a. US
b. UR
c. CS
d. CR
28. Taking away a person’s car after they have been caught speeding would be
an example of:
a. positive punishment
b. negative punishment
c. positive reinforcement
d. negative reinforcement
29. Research indicates that exposure to violent TV/video games:
a. has no impact of aggression
b. increases aggression
 c. reduces aggression
d. promotes random acts of kindness
30. Animals are most likely to learn associations that promote:
a. survival
b. happiness
c. extinction
d. discrimination

1. c
2. d
3. a
4. c
5. b
6. c
7. d
8. a
9. d
10. d
11. b
12. b
13. c
14. a
15. d
16. b
17. c
18. d
19. c
20. b
21. a
22. b
23. c
24. d
25. c
26. c
27. c
28. b
29. b
30. a

1. The spacing effect refers to the fact that it is easier to learn different material in
different locations.
2. Procedural memory is typically implicit.
3. Auditory sensory memory is called iconic memory.
4. Encoding is the process by which we put information into our memory.
5. Memory of our high school graduation would be a good example of semantic memory.
6. We tend to better remember items at the beginning and end of a list than those in the
middle.
7. In general, people are too confident about their ability to accurately remember events.
8. In retroactive interference, newer information disrupts our ability to remember
information that was learned earlier.
9. Being able to remember whether you heard something on the radio or read it in a book
depends on a process called source monitoring.
10. A person with retrograde amnesia would be unable to form new long term memories.

1. false
2. true
3. false
4. true
5. false
6. true
7. true
8. true
9. true
10. false

1.
________ memory is to hearing as ________ memory is to seeing.
a. echoic, eidetic
b. eidetic, echoic,
c. working, short-term
d. short-term, working
2. The cognitive school of psychology found it helpful to liken the brain to a(n):
a. cash machine
b. computer
c. orchestra
d. calculator
3. A person who has just eaten supper completes the word fragment _ o_k as fork (rather
than as book or look etc). This is an example of:
a. conditioning
b. recognition
c. priming
d. relearning
4. Which of the following brain areas have been shown to be important for memory?
a. cerebellum
b. amygdala
c. hippocampus
d. all of the above
5. Puni isn’t sure whether she read something in a magazine or in her psychology text
book.
Puni has a problem with:
a. media literacy
b. the misinformation effect
c. source monitoring
d. salience
6. Anterograde amnesia is typically associated with damage to the:
a. amygdala
b. retina
c. cerebellum
d. hippocampus
7. Which part of working memory controls how attention is directed?
a. the central executive
b. the mother board
c. the mnemonic processor
d. the director
8. ________ interference works backwards, and ________ interference works forwards.
a. primary, recency
b. recency, primacy
c. proactive, retroactive
d. retroactive, proactive
9. When asked to come up with the name of a bird, people are much more likely to say
“robin” than they are to say “ostrich”. This is because:
a. robin is a shorter word
b. robin begins with the letter “r”
 c. robins are prototypical
d. robins are smaller
10. The tendency to think about and experience events according to “what might have
been” is known as:
a. anterograde amnesia
b. counterfactual thinking
c. salience
d. heuristic processing
11. Damage to the cerebellum is likely to interfere with:
a. auditory processing
b. explicit memory
c. implicit memory
d. emotional memories
12. Research has shown that there is _________________ between the accuracy of a
person’s memory and their confidence in the accuracy of that memory.
a. virtually no correlation
b. a strong positive correlation
c. a strong negative correlation
d. a curvilinear relationship
13. The word fragment test is used to test a person’s ________ memory.
a. extrinsic
b. instrinsic
c. explicit
d. implicit
14. After reading an article about a case of cheating on campus, students are likely to over-
estimate the incidence of cheating on campus. This is an example of:
a. iconic memory salience
b. the availability heuristic
c. counterfactual thinking
d. functional fixedness
15. In stage models of memory, information moves from:
a. sensory to short-term to long-term memory
b. sensory to long-term to working memory
c. short-term to long-term to explicit memory
d. sensory to eidetic to iconic memory
16. The spacing effect suggests that when you study for a test you should:
a. wait until the last minute then find a quiet place to study
b. learn different material in different places
c. spread your study time over a number of sessions
d. always study in a spacious area
17. Classical conditioning effects are an example of:
a. eidetic memory
b. primary memory
c. retroactive interference
d. implicit memory
18. Magnus was locked in a room. The only way to escape was to force open a window
and climb out. Magnus remained locked in the room because he never thought to use
his keys to force the window. Magnus’ problem was:
a. amnesia
b. functional fixedness
c. interference
d. misinformation
19. In the context of memory, LTP stands for:
a. limited transfer potential
b. lateral temporal parietal
c. latent timing probability
d. long term potentiation
20. After a stroke, 22-year-old Malik can no longer remember his childhood friends or the
vacations he took with his family. Malik is suffering from:
a. retrograde amnesia
b. anterograde amnesia
c. functional fixedness
d. dyslexia
21. Our tendency to focus on information that is consistent with our beliefs and to ignore
contradictory information is called:
a. contradiction avoidance
b. confirmation bias
c. counterfactual thinking
d. functional fixedness
22. ________ information is lost from sensory memory, and ________ information is lost
from
short-term memory.
a. unpleasant, pleasant
b. pleasant, unpleasant
c. unattended, unrehearsed
d. unrehearsed, unattended
23. Recall involves ________ step(s), and recognition involves ________ step(s).
a. one, one
b. one, two
c. two, two
d. two, one
24. Working memory is best thought of as:
a. an alternative to long term memory
b. a set of memory procedures
c. a type of procedural memory
d. an adjunct to sensory memory
25. Shandra is convinced that her neighbour, Joe, is cruel to his dog. She notices every time
Joe shouts at the dog or jerks its lead but she doesn’t seem to notice the times when Joe
plays with the dog or gives it treats. This is an example of:
a. misinformation
b. anterograde amnesia
c. proactive interference
d. confirmation bias
26. Ivy remembers watching the solar eclipse in amazing detail. She is certain she can
remember exactly what she was wearing, who she was with, what music was playing on
a nearby radio and even the breed of dog which ran past her just before the eclipse. This
is an example of a(n):
a. flashbulb memory
b. eidetic image
c. procedural memory
d. semantic memory
27. Research suggests that if you are sad when you study for a test you are likely
to be better at remembering the material:
a. when you are happy
b. when you are drunk
c. when you are sad
d. when you are angry
28. ________ memory is to first-hand experience as ________ memory is to knowledge
about the world.
a. semantic, episodic
b. episodic, semantic
c. implicit, explicit
d. explicit, implicit
29. Heuristics are:
a. the same as mnemonics
 b. a type of hormone
c. information processing strategies
d. none of the above
30. When she studies for a Psych exam, Melodee always tries to think of ways in which the
information she is trying to learn relates to her own life. She is hoping to benefit from:
a. the self-reference effect
b. the spacing effect
c. overlearning
d. enhanced interference

1. a
2. b
3. c
4. d
5. c
6. d
7. a
8. d
9. c
10. b
11. c
12. a
13. d
14. b
15. a
16. c
17. d
18. b
19. d
20. a
21. b
22. c
23. d
24. b
25. d
26. a
27. c
28. b
29. c
30. a

1. Down syndrome is a chromosomal disorder.

2. In a normal distribution, most scores are toward the low end.
3. If a new intelligence test turned out to measure patience rather than intelligence, it
would have high construct validity.
4. Eugenicists believe that people with low intelligence should be deterred from having
children.
5. A word is the smallest unit of sound that makes a meaningful difference in a language.
6. Babbling is the same as talking.
7. Convergent thinking seeks to find a single, correct answer.
8. Spearman believed that there were many specific intelligences but no general
intelligence factor.
9. Wernicke’s area is responsible for language comprehension.
10. The concept of linguistic relativity refers to the fact that some languages are harder to
learn than others.
1. true
2. false
3. false
4. true
5. false
6. false
7. true
8. false
9. true
10. false

1. ________ believed in a general intelligence factor.

a. Sternberg
b. Spearman
c. Gardner
d. Thurstone
2. In terms of intelligence:
a. identical twins are more similar to one another than are fraternal twins
b. fraternal twins are more similar to one another than are non-twin siblings
c. adopted children are more similar to their biological parents than their
adoptive parents
d. all of the above statements are true
3. Fluid intelligence tends to ________ with age while crystallized intelligence tends to
________ with age.
a. increase, decrease
b. increase, stay the same
c. decrease, increase
d. decrease, stay the same
4. According to the text, a typical university student has a vocabulary of:
a. approximately 500 words
b. approximately 5000 words
c. approximately 50,000 words
d. more than 100,000 words
5. Chomsky argued that:
a. all languages share a fundamental universal grammar
b. brains contain a language acquisition device
c. children are born with a knowledge of general rules of syntax
d. all of the above
6. Down syndrome is caused by:
a. a brain injury during birth
b. a chromosomal disorder
c. poor education
d. a viral infection during childhood
7. On average, women typically outperform men on tests of:
a. spelling
b. mental rotation
c. both a and b
d. neither a nor b
8. Which of the following is NOT one of Sternberg’s triarchic intelligences?
a. creative intelligence
b. practical intelligence
c. fluid intelligence
d. analytical intelligence
9. Research shows that people are more likely to be successful at learning a second
language if:
a. they start learning it as adults
b. they start learning it as children
 c. they choose Vietnamese
d. they stop using their first language completely
10. ________ area is to language comprehension as ________ area is to language
production.
a. Wernicke’s, Broca’s
b. Broca’s, Wernicke’s
c. Chomsky’s, Skinner’s
d. Skinner’s, Chomsky’s
11. Three-year old Bonita calls every dog she encounters Rover (the name of her family’s
pet dog). This is an example of:
a. over-emphasis
b. overextension
c. over-stimulation
d. babbling
12. Sternberg’s practical intelligence is pretty much the same as:
a. vocabulary
b. memory
c. mechanical ability
d. common sense
13. The Flynn effect refers to the observation that:
a. scores on intelligence tests have been increasing worldwide for decades
b. identical twins are more similar intellectually than fraternal twins
c. learning a second language seems to increase cognitive abilities
d. language and its structures limit human thought
14. Eight-month old Juan lies in his cot and babbles. Which of the following is his most likely
utterance?
a. “mummy, mummy, mummy”
b. “Juan wants bottle”
c. “la la ba oo”
d. “Mary had a little lamb”
15. A man may do poorly on a spelling test not because he lacks spelling ability but because
he knows that men are not expected to do well on spelling tests. This is an example of:
a. test bias
b. gender neutrality
c. stereotype threat
d. the Flynn effect
16. Compared with monolinguals, people who are bilingual usually have:
a. more cognitive flexibility
b. superior cognitive functioning
c. better analytical skills
d. all of the above
17. If a proposed intelligence test turned out to really be a test of patience rather than
intelligence, it would be criticized for having:
a. low reliability
b. low construct validity
c. low consistency
d. low consistent validity
18. The smallest unit of sound that makes a meaningful difference in language is called a:
a. sound
b. unit
c. phoneme
d. syntactic phrase
19. People who believe in eugenics would be most likely to support:
a. programs that encourage university graduates to start a family
b. free contraception for people with a degree
c. free childcare for people who perform poorly on intelligence tests
d. extended maternity leave for women who have been shown to have a low IQ
20. In the area of intelligence, WAIS stands for:
a. Wernicke Aphasic Intelligence Scale
b. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale
c. Wechsler Aptitude and Intelligence Scale
d. Wernicke Approximate Intelligence Scale
21. Which of the following is NOT supported by research data?
a. brain size is positively correlated with intelligence
b. the number of neurons in a brain is positively correlated with intelligence
c. thickness of the cortex is positively correlated with intelligence
d. having a bigger brain makes people smarter
22. Interpersonal intelligence includes the ability to understand:
a. one’s own emotions
b. how context affects performance on vocabulary tests
c. other people’s emotions
d. the role of schooling in conversational ability
23. If an intelligence test is reliable, you would expect people to:
a. be able to cheat on the test
b. get a better score each time they write the test
c. get a similar score each time they write the test
d. take longer to write the test if they take it again
24. Divergent thinking is to ________ ________ as convergent thinking is to ________
________.
a. one solution, many solutions
b. many solutions, one solution
c. mathematical ability, verbal ability
d. extrinsic motivation, intrinsic motivation
25. In order to direct other bees to the location of food sources, honey bees:
a. hum
b. buzz
c. squirt honey
d. dance
26. The term “linguistic relativity” refers to the idea that:
a. some languages are better than others
b. language influences how people think
c. it is easier to talk to family members than friends
d. there are different language families around the world
27. On average men do better than women on tests requiring:
a. spatial ability
b. spelling
c. emotional intelligence
d. pronouncing words
28. Intelligence is normally distributed in the population, this means that:
a. most people have extremely low intelligence
b. most people have extremely high intelligence
c. most people are average in terms of intelligence
d. everyone in the population has approximately the same level of intelligence
29. Which animals have been shown to use language in the same way as people?
a. bonobos
b. chimpanzees
c. vervet monkeys
d. none of the above
30. Misty Coleman is an outstanding ballerina. Which of Gardner’s multiple intelligences is
she most clearly demonstrating when she dances?
a. naturalistic
b. linguistic
c. logico-mathematic
d. kinesthetic
1. b
2. d
3. c
4. d
5. d
6. b
7. a
8. c
9. b
10. a
11. b
12. d
13. a
14. c
15. c
16. d
17. b
18. c
19. a
20. b
21. d
22. c
23. c
24. b
25. d
26. b
27. a
28. c
29. d
30. d

1. In terms of our response to stress, the HPA axis refers to the hippocampus, the pituitary
gland and the adrenal glands. False
2. The term cognitive appraisal refers to our tendency to judge other people depending on
their intelligence. False
3. Social support can have both direct effects and appreciation effects. True
4. The first stage of the sexual response cycle is orgasm.False
5. The pancreas secretes insulin. True
6. Stress is more likely to lead to the tend-and-befriend response in men than in women.
False
7. Proxemics are a form of nonverbal communication to do with personal space. True
8. The James-Lange theory of emotion argues that arousal precedes our emotional
experience.True
9. Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by purging.
True
10. Selye’s general adaptation syndrome referred to five distinct phases of physiological
change that occur in response to long term stress. False

1. false
2. false
3. true
4. false
5. true
6. false
7. true
8. true
9. true
10. false

1. Which of the following is a response of the sympathetic nervous system?

a. extra sugar is released into the bloodstream
b. increased perspiration
c. increased respiration
d. all of the above
2. Primary emotions are to the ______ pathway as secondary emotions are to the
________ pathway.
a. mild, intense
b. hard, soft
c. fast, slow
d. pleasant, unpleasant
3. When faced with a stressful situation, men are likely to respond with the:
a. fight or flight response
b. hurt then help response
c. fist and knees response
d. tend and befriend response
4. The adrenal glands release:
a. cortisol
b. epinephrine
c. a and b
d. melatonin
5. The phenomenon of misattribution of arousal (e.g. thinking you are in love when really
you are just scared) is best explained by which theory of emotion?
a. the James-Lange theory
b. the two-factor theory
c. the Cannon-Bard theory
d. the wishful thinking theory
6. Which of the following is NOT a kind of non-verbal communication?
a. facial expression
b. crying
c. swearing
d. tone of voice
7. Which of the following is classed as a basic emotion?
a. guilt
b. shame
c. jealousy
d. disgust
8. The facial feedback hypothesis refers to:
a. the movements of our facial muscles can trigger emotions
b. we can judge someone else’s mood by looking at their face
c. once we know how we are feeling, we change our facial expression
d. some people disguise their emotions if they look in a mirror
9. The ability to control one’s emotions is known as:
a. facial feedback
b. interpersonal intelligence
c. emotional regulation
d. emotional contingency
10. Which is the correct order for the stages of the sexual response cycle?
a orgasm, excitement, plateau, resolution
b excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution
c plateau, excitement, orgasm, resolution
d plateau, excitement, resolution, orgasm
11. ________ is the main sugar that the body uses for energy.
a. insulin
b. leptin
c. fructose
d. glucose
12. Which eating disorder is characterized by binge eating followed by purging?
a. anorexia nervosa
b. fasting
c. bulimia nervosa
d. 5:2 syndrome
13. When faced with a stressful situation women are likely to respond with the:
a. fight or flight response
b. hurt then help response
c. fist and knees response
d. tend and befriend response
14. Physical exercise can:
a. lower blood pressure
b. improve muscle strength
c. slow age-related cognitive decline
d. all of the above
15. Which of the following is a human sex hormone?
a. ghrelin
b. estrogen
c. insulin
d. adrenalin
16. The amount of energy we use while at rest is called our:
a. basal metabolic rate
b. resting heart rate
c. relaxing glucose level
d. normal insulin level
17. Social support can have both ________ and ________ effects on our happiness.
a. minimal, continuous
b. maximal, sporadic
c. direct, appreciation
d. indirect, cumulative
18. Before taking a test, Sunni says to his friend “I know I can do well on this test.”
This best illustrates Sunni’s:
a. over-confidence
b. self-efficacy
c. self-doubt
d. peer review
19. People who are experiencing high levels of arousal from one event tend to experience
unrelated emotions more strongly too. This is called:
a. general adaptation syndrome
b. spreading activation
c. the Cannon-Bard hypothesis
d. excitation transfer
20. Both the slow and fast emotional pathways are controlled by the:
a. thalamus
b. hypothalamus
c. frontal cortex
d. amygdala
21. According to the text, what kind of role does material wealth play in determining
happiness?
a. huge
b. significant
c. small
d. non-existent
22. The body mass index (BMI) is calculated using:
a. calorie intake and calorie output
b. activity level and carbohydrate consumption
c. height and weight
d. blood pressure and heart rate
23. According to Selye’s general adaptation syndrome, the third stage of our reaction to
stress is:
a. alarm
b. exhaustion
c. resistance
d. mobilization
24. Which 3 structures make up the HPA axis?
a. hypothalamus, pineal gland, anterior gyrus
b. hippocampus, parietal lobe, affective cortex
c. hippocampus, parasympathetic nervous system, adenoids
d. hypothalamus, pituitary, adrenal glands
25. According to the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion:
a. emotional experience and physiological arousal occur at the same time
b. emotional experience precedes physiological arousal
c. physiological arousal precedes emotional experience
d. we cannot experience different emotions
26. According to the James-Lange theory of emotion:
a. emotional experience and physiological arousal occur at the same time
b. emotional experience precedes physiological arousal
c. physiological arousal precedes emotional experience
d. we cannot experience different emotions
27. The most stressful life event included in the Holmes and Rahe Stress Scale is:
a. being sent to jail
b. getting divorced
c. being fired from work
d. death of a spouse
28. Which of the following does NOT influence our feelings of hunger?
a. insulin
b. ghrelin
c. septin
d. leptin
29. Anorexia nervosa is characterised by a(n)
a. distorted body image
b. extremely low body weight
c. obsessive fear of gaining weight
d. all of the above
30. According to the two-factor theory of emotion, emotion equals:
a. arousal plus cognition
b. arousal plus intelligence
c. attribution plus explanation
d. attribution plus cognition

1. d
2. c
3. a
4. c
5. b
6. c
7. d
8. a
9. c
10. b
11. d
12. c
13. d
14. d
15. b
16. a
17. c
18. b
19. d
20. a
21. c
22. c
23. b
24. d
25. a
26. c
27. d
28. c
29. d
30. a

1. The psychodynamic approach was founded by Skinner. FALSE

2. Conscientiousness is one of the dimensions included in the five-factor model of
personality. TRUE
3. The Rorschach is a projective measure of personality.TRUE
4. The highest level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs was love/belonging.FALSE
5. Carl Rogers was a well-known supporter of the psychodynamic approach. FALSE
6. Phrenologists believed that you could measure personality by feeling the bumps on a
person’s skull.TRUE
7. Twin studies are helpful in understanding the contributions of nature and nurture to
personality.TRUE
8. The genes of different members of the same species are almost identical.TRUE
9. According to Freud, from around 18 months to 3 years of age children experience sexual
desire for the opposite-sex parent.FALSE
10. Traits are transient characteristics that influence our behaviour in specific
situations.FALSE

1. false
2. true
3. true
4. false
5. false
6. true
7. true
8. true
9. false
10. false

1. Phrenologists tried to find out about personality by:

a. reading a person’s horoscope
b. feeling a person’s skull
c. looking at a person’s hands
d. asking people questions
2. A limitation of selective breeding studies is that they cannot:
a. tell us anything about the role of genes
 b. be used to study human beings
c. provide information relevant to the nature/nurture debate
d. tell us anything about the role of the environment
3. Which neo-Freudian challenged his ideas about penis envy?
a. Adler
b. Fromm
c. Jung
d. Horney
4. Someone who feels as though they are not living up to expectations would be
described by Adler as having:
a. low self-realization
b. an Adlerian complex
c. an inferiority complex
d. low actualization
5. According to Freud, the mind’s three components are:
a. ego, id, superego
b. unconscious, moral, immoral
c. oral, anal, phallic
d. primary, secondary, tertiary
6. The idea that you can assess someone’s personality by studying their face is called:
a. phrenology
b. physiology
c. somatology
d. physiognomy
7. The ________ complex is to girls as the ________ complex is to boys.
a. Electra, Oedipus
b. Oedipus, Electra
c. oral, phallic
d. phallic, oral
8. The discovery that the heritability of the Big Five personality traits is around 40% – 50%
suggests that:
a. the environment plays no role in personality
b. genes play no role in personality
c. the environment plays an important role in personality
d. the Big Five traits account for about half of our personality
9. Humanistic psychologists embraced the idea of:
a. repression
b. free will
c. unconscious drives
d. the id
10. According to Eysenck, extraverts seek to ________ their arousal while introverts seek to
________ their arousal.
a. decrease, increase
b. hide, reveal
c. increase, decrease
d. reveal, hide
11. Allport believed that traits could be organized into three levels:
a. primary, secondary, tertiary
b. cognitive, emotional, physiological
c. id, ego, superego
d. cardinal, central, secondary
12. The MMPI is used to measure:
a. unconscious drives
b. the Big Five traits
c. personality and psychological disorders
d. leadership potential
13. Which of the following is NOT one of the Big Five traits?
a. sense of humour
 b. openness to experience
c. conscientiousness
d. extraversion
14. Freud founded the ________ approach to understanding human behaviour.
a. palliative
b. psychodynamic
c. patronymic
d. psychedelic
15. The influence of parents on the personality of their children is:
a. non-existent
b. weakest in early childhood
c. strongest in early childhood
d. consistent across the lifespan
16. What is special about “knockout” mice?
a. they are very attractive
b. their DNA has been modified
c. they are easy to knock out
d. they are unusually aggressive
17. The aim of behavioural genetics is to learn about:
a. the extent to which geneticists can modify people’s behaviour
b. the possibility of eradicating behavioural problems in children
c. the genetic and environmental influences on human behaviour
d. the ability of animals to learn language
18. Monozygotic is to ________ twins as dizygotic is to ________ twins.
a. male, female,
b. female, male
c. fraternal, identical
d. identical, fraternal
19. Which of the following characteristics describe someone who, according to Maslow, is
self-actualized?
a. creativity
b. confidence
c. spontaneity
d. all of the above
20. According to Freud, children pass through 4 stages of psychosexual development.
Which of the following shows the stages in the correct developmental order?
a. oral, anal, phallic, latency
b. latency, oral, anal, phallic
c. phallic, anal, oral, latency
d. oral, phallic, latency, anal
21. Projective tests claim to reveal information about:
a. career aptitude
b. intellectual attainment
c. unconscious processes
d. parenting style
22. Traits are defined as:
a. physical characteristics that distinguish us from other people
b. relatively enduring characteristics that influence our behaviour across many
situations
c. unconscious tendencies to act in different ways according to the situation
d. permanent personality tendencies that determine our behaviour in any situation
23. Sheldon’s theory that people with different body types have different personalities
has been:
a. supported by research
b. discredited
c. shown to be accurate for thin people but not overweight people
d. shown to be accurate for women but not for men
24. Which of the following is not a defence mechanism?
a. projection
b. regression
c. ingratiation
d. sublimation
25. Rohan is self-disciplined, focused on achievement and keen to do his duty. He would be
expected to score highly on:
a. neuroticism
b. agreeableness
c. extraversion
d. conscientiousness
26. The Barnum effect helps to explain people’s belief in:
a. fortune-telling
b. astrology
c. horoscopes
d. all the above
27. ________ are the basic biological units that transmit characteristics from one
generation to the next:
a. genes
b. neurons
c. glia
d. instincts
28. Which of the following would NOT be useful to a behavioural geneticist?
a. family studies
b. case studies
c. adoption studies
d. twin studies
29. According to Freud, the id is to the ________ principle as the ego is to the ________
principle.
a. aggressive, sexual
b. sexual, aggressive
c. pleasure, reality
d. reality, pleasure
30. Lana is friendly, always willing to help others and compassionate. We would expect Lana
to score highly on:
a. extraversion
b. agreeableness
c. neuroticism
d. openness to experience

11. b
12. b
13. d
14. c
15. a
16. d
17. a
18. c
19. b
20. c
21. d
22. c
23. a
24. b
25. c
26. b
27. c
28. d
29. d
30. a
31. c
32. b
33. b
34. c
35. d
36. d
37. a
38. b
39. c
40. b