How the Brain Learns and the Theory of Autism

LST Mock 59 2021 (CLAT)
English Language
Directions for questions 1 to 30: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage.
Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In
some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose
the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
Passage – 1
The best guess scientists have for how the brain does this is that it goes through a process of eta-
learning - of figuring out what to learn and what not to. According to this theory, biases in the meta-
learning process explain the core features of autism. Consider what happens when we are new to a
situation or a subject. Every detail - every bump on a graph, every change in a person's tone of voice -
seems meaningful. As we gain experience, though, we start to learn what the rule is and what the
exception. The minutiae become less salient; the brain shifts its focus to the big picture. In this way, the
brain masters one challenge and moves to the next, keeping itself at the cusp between boredom and
frustration. Autism might represent a different learning curve - one that favours detail at the price of
missing broader patterns.
This theory of autism builds on a broad account of brain function known as predictive coding. The
premise is that all perception is an exercise of model-building and testing - of making predictions and
seeing whether they come true. In predictive-coding terms, the brain of someone with autism puts more
weight on discrepancies between expectations and sensory data. Whereas the typical brain might chalk
up a stray car horn to chance variation in a city soundscape and tune it out, every beep draws conscious
attention from the autism brain.
The basic premise of predictive coding goes back to the mid-19th C German physicist and psychologist
Hermann von Helmholtz, and arguably to the philosopher Immanuel Kant, both of whom maintained that
our subjective experience is not a direct reflection of external reality, but rather a construct. "All
experience is controlled hallucination," says Andy Clark, a cognitive scientist at the University of
Edinburgh. "You experience, in some sense, the world that you expect to experience."
One reason we rely so much on expectation is that our perceptions lag behind reality. And so, the brain
must always be anticipating what comes next. It generates a model of the world, makes decisions on
that basis, and updates the model based on sensory feedback.
When the brain perceives a discrepancy, it can respond by either updating its model or deeming the
discrepancy to be a chance deviation. In the predictive-coding model, the brain decides the response by
assigning its predictions a precision - the statistical variability it expects from the input. Precision is the
brain's version of an error bar: High precision (low variance) plays up discrepancies: "This is important.
Pay attention!" Low precision (high variance) downplays them: "Just a fluke, never mind."
Q 1. 11601887 According to the passage, which of the following is the 'different learning curve' that
autism might represent?
a) Autistic people tend to perceive discrepancies where normal people track patterns.
b) Every individual has a very personal and unique way of understanding the world.
c) Autistic brains are slower in registering perceptual inputs in comparison to normal brains.
d) In contrast to normal people, perception of reality is distorted in those who are autistic.
Q 2. 11601887 Based on the passage, the normal brain would categorize which of the following events
as an exception?
a) Mumbai, which is otherwise a crowded city, is less crowded on weekends.

b) On some days, the coffee sold at the cafeteria tastes sweeter than usual.
c) The girl, who always sat beside me in the classroom, changed her seat today.
d) The retired police officer won the lottery after his umpteenth attempt.
Q 3. 11601887 What does the phrase, 'at the cusp between boredom and frustration' refer to in the
context of the passage?
a) The ability of the brain to learn new skills or adapt to new environments rapidly
b) The ability of the brain to classify experiences as either the standard or an exception
c) The ability of the brain to retain the necessary information while rejecting any deviations
d) The ability of the brain to maintain balance by identifying familiar elements in each experience
Q 4. 11601887 Which of the following best explains the meaning of the word "precision" in the last
paragraph?
a) a criterion that differentiates normal events from deviations
b) a measure of discrepancy between predictions and sensory data

c) a measure of how comprehensive the predictions are
d) a measure of how well predictions match reality
Q 5. 11601887 What is the meaning of the word 'cusp' occurring in the passage?

a) a point of transition between two different states
b) a point at which the direction of a curve is abruptly reversed
c) the initial point of an astrological sign or house

d) acumination
Passage – 2
The Substitute, a digitally projected artwork, was produced by British artist Alexandra Daisy Ginsberg.
Cooper Hewitt, Smithsonian Design Museum and a Dutch museum, the Cube Design Museum,
commissioned the work, and Cooper Hewitt recently displayed it as part of the exhibition "Nature-Cooper
Hewitt Design Triennial." The work is now newly acquired into the Cooper Hewitt collections.
The last male northern white rhino, Sudan, died in 2018, and the two surviving females are too old to
reproduce. Scientists have used sperm from Sudan and another male that died earlier to fertilise two
eggs from the females, Fatu and Najin, who now reside at the Ol Pejeta Conservancy in Kenya. The hope
is that the breed can be revived after the fertilised eggs are implanted in a southern white rhino to
gestate.
"I just was struck by this paradox that somehow we were getting so excited about the possibility of
creating intelligence in whatever form. Nevertheless, we completely neglect the life that already exists,"
says Ginsberg. "The idea that we could be able to control an A.I. to me seems kind of suspicious. We are
unable to control ourselves... When it comes to killing something as extraordinary as northern white
rhinos for their horns, we are all implicated in this, even if we feel very distant." Ginsberg also wonders
what errors in reproduction may arise as humans recreate life artificially.
The Substitute reflects this uneasy paradox. Within the work's two-minute time frame, "there is a moment
of affection and tenderness for this thing coming to life before you," Ginsberg says. "But then it has gone-
and it is not the real deal."
Ginsberg, who has been trained in architecture and interactive design, is a London-based artist who often
uses modern science to draw attention to questions raised by new scientific developments. Typically, her
work highlights a broad spectrum of issues. Among them are conservation, artificial intelligence,
biodiversity, exobiology and evolution. She was the lead author of Synthetic Aesthetics: Investigating
Synthetic Biology in 2014. Synthetic Aesthetics, which is the scientific practice of redesigning living
matter to make it more useful to humankind, activates passion in Ginsberg. She urges caution in these
kinds of projects and illustrates her concerns with artworks that point to troubling outcomes.
"Ultimately what we saw in the exhibition was just incredibly moving," says Cooper Hewitt curator Andrea
Lipps. She describes The Substitute as "wildly successful" for communicating something both
intellectually imperative but also triggering emotion, "which I think is what makes it resonate with anyone
who comes in and watches it." After seeing it herself, she realised that "it was one particular piece that
everyone would talk about with everyone."
Q 6. 11601887 According to the passage, all of the following are true about the northern white rhino
EXCEPT:
a) It is currently on the verge of extinction. b) It might be brought back using biotechnology.
c) It may be gestated by a northern white rhino. d) It has been poached mainly for its horn.
Q 7. 11601887 "The Substitute reflects this uneasy paradox." Which of the following is the best
explanation of the statement?
a) Our preoccupation with creating new life forms, while neglecting existing ones
b) Our emotional attachment to a life form after allowing it to go extinct

c) Our efforts to resurrect the rhino, after having decimated the entire species
d) The errors that may arise when humans try to recreate life artificially
Q 8. 11601887 At a conference on Artificial Intelligence, Alexandra Daisy Ginsberg is LEAST likely to

agree with which of the following views?
a) AI promotes conservation by kindling affection for what we have already destroyed.
b) The development of full artificial intelligence could spell the end of the human race.
c) Artificial Intelligence could overtake biological evolution and supersede humans.
d) Cutting edge AI technologies are far more dangerous than nuclear weapons.
Q 9. 11601887 Andrea Lipps calls The Substitute "wildly successful". Which of the following statements
most appropriately explains the meaning of the phrase as used in the passage?
a) The Substitute created awareness about the extinction of wild animals.

b) 3-D recreation probed the paradox of efforts to bring such animals back in the lab.
c) The artificial rhino was effective in conjuring passion for the near extinct species.
d) The northern white rhino went extinct, but the animal made a digital comeback.
Q 10. 11601887 The 'intellectual imperative' mentioned in the passage most likely refers to:
a) Revival of the northern white rhino by implanting the fertilised egg in a subspecies.
b) Wildlife conservation in general.
c) Using technology to engender affection for extinct species.

d) Making living matter more useful to humankind.
Passage – 3
A cinema hall in August … less the start of a sentence than an oxymoron, I know. Still for fellow refugees
from the sun, you would do well to head over to the South Bank, where the British Film Institute is
showing the complete works of one of the greatest directors: Satyajit Ray. Channel 4 showed a late-night
season of his work when I was starting secondary school and my parents, let me stay up and watch with
them. Perhaps they considered this extracurricular education. My parents are Bengalis and while they
had been taking me back to Kolkata during long summer holidays, I had failed to take to the city, which
seemed to offer only August heat, difficult food and calamine lotion for mosquito bites. Now Channel 4
offered a chance to redouble my cultural education, to watch the films my parents had watched and
adored in the 50s and 60s. Then there were the movies. Days and Nights in the Forest, which began as a
comedy, before shading into something almost too dark for my comprehension. The adaptation of
Tagore's The Home and the World, and its startling depiction of gender politics. The unlucky graduate of
The Middleman, applying along with 100,000 rivals for just 10 jobs and sitting through a series of sweat-
inducing interviews. That question, especially the interviewer's idiosyncratic pronunciation of "moon",
would echo around my head. Ray's films are full of these semi-punchlines. They begin with extended
close-ups of rotating fans, or disrupted exam invigilations shown for so long they become unsettling.
None of these quirks or details were accidental. Ray's biographer Andrew Robinson recalls visiting the
director's flat to find him "discussing the exact kind of button required by one of his costume designs with
a member of his production team".
Yet you might be forgiven for thinking that all India ever does is brash, flash Bollywood, especially in this
centenary anniversary since the first Hindi film. Flick through a western newspaper and the images that
tumble out are of epic song-and-dance routines. This is a depiction that Indians themselves have allowed
and even colluded in. It suits Mumbai studios after column inches at home and abroad; it presents an
image of plastic modernity for the Delhi elite, and it is hardly resisted by under-resourced cultural centres
elsewhere in India. Perhaps for a culture to thrive in international trade it must serve up a caricature of
itself. India must be either Shining or Slumdog; and never mind the other bits, the unobliging history or
context. The message is clear: to get ahead as an Indian artist in the west, stick to simple stories of
simple life. For all its glitz, Bollywood cinema is often just as palatably crude.
Q 11. 11601887 Which of the following can be an interpretation of the first sentence?
a) August is an ideal time for movie viewing.

b) It is unheard of that movies should be seen in the month of August.
c) Due to the weather and other factors, less movies are viewed in the month of August.
d)
The vagaries of the weather, with transition from summer to spring, make any outdoor activity
undesirable in August.
Q 12. 11601887 Which of the following could be the main reason that the author's parents considered
the viewing of Satyajit Ray's movies by the author as an extracurricular education?
a) Ray's movies teach one a lot about life and nature.

b)
The author's family hailed from Bengal and her parents hoped that Ray's movies would help the author
understand her native culture.
c)
The parents detected in their daughter, an abiding and passionate interest for making movies and
thought that watching Ray's movies would be a good learning experience for her.
d)
Watching Ray's movies late at night would have given the parents a chance to converse with the author
and expose her better to the rich cultural heritage displayed in the movies.
Q 13. 11601887 Which of the following CANNOT be inferred about Ray's movies?
a) They were mostly social satires.

b) They were meticulous in the handling of small details.
c) They were mostly based on the social issues of the 50s and 60s.
d) They were intended to provoke the viewers into thought.
Q 14. 11601887 The author cites all of the following as reasons for Bollywood becoming the face of
Indian cinema in western media EXCEPT:
a) It is preferred by elites looking for cosmetic glamour and a facade of modernity.
b)
The cultural centers with meagre resources rarely put their foot down against the caricaturist
representation of Indian cinema in western media.
c)
It is a good commercial proposition for the Mumbai-based movie industry to be spoken about in western
cinema even if the representation is clichéd and stereotyped.
d)
Most of the movies produced in India are garish Bollywood productions with only a smattering of regional
or meaningful cinema.
Q 15. 11601887 Which of the following can be assumed to be the main motivation behind the author
writing the above passage?
a) Present disparaging views about Indian movies
b) Reminisce about old Indian classic movies
c) Express dismay regarding the general identity of Indian movies on the global stage
d) Berate the crass and commercial takeover of our rich cultural heritage
Passage – 4
The man who arguably founded modern economic theory, the 18th century philosopher Adam Smith,
popularized the idea that barter was a precursor to money. In The Wealth of Nations, he describes an
imaginary scenario in which a baker living before the invention of money wanted a butcher's meat but
had nothing the butcher wanted. This sort of scenario was so undesirable that societies must have
created money to facilitate trade, argues Smith.
But anthropologists have pointed out that the barter economy has never been witnessed anywhere. When
barter has appeared, it wasn't as part of a purely barter economy, and money didn't emerge from it-rather,
it emerged from money. After Rome fell, for instance, Europeans used barter as a substitute for the
Roman currency people had gotten used to. "In most of the cases we know about, [barter] takes place
between people who are familiar with the use of money, but for one reason or another, don't have a lot of
it around," explains David Graeber in Debt: The First 5,000 Years.
So if barter never existed, what did? Anthropologists describe a variety of methods of exchange.
Communities of Iroquois Native Americans, for instance, stockpiled their goods in longhouses. Female
councils then allocated the goods. Other indigenous communities relied on "gift economies," which went
something like this: If you were a baker who needed meat, you didn't offer your bagels for the butcher's
steaks. Instead, you got your wife to hint to the butcher's wife that you two were low on iron, and she'd
say something like "Oh really? Have a hamburger, we've got plenty!" Down the line, the butcher might want
a birthday cake, or help moving to a new apartment.
However, no academics were aware of any evidence that barter was actually the precursor to money.
Some argue that no one ever believed barter was real to begin with. However, the idea is incredibly
widespread. And this isn't just an academic curiosity-the idea of barter may have altered history. "The
vision of the world that forms the basis of the economics textbooks … has by now become so much a
part of our common sense that we find it hard to imagine any other possible arrangement," writes
Graeber.
For one thing, the barter myth "makes it possible to imagine a world that is nothing more than a series of
coldblooded calculations," writes Graeber. This view is quite common now, even when behavioral
economists have made a convincing case that humans are much more complicated-and less rational-
than classical economic models would suggest.
So, if money is a choice, are there alternatives worth considering? Is a gift economy which relies on
communal responsibility and trust preferable to a system based on money? … But it's one thing to keep a
community alive and well … quite another to imagine a gift economy enabling humans to build
skyscrapers, invent iPhones, and explore space.
Q 16. 11601887 Adam Smith is most likely to have agreed with which of the following?
a) Money was a precursor to barter. b)

Money could not overcome the limitations of
barter.
c) d) Money emerged out of a coincidence of needs.
Humans have always had a quid pro quo mentality.
Q 17. 11601887 According to the passage, the idea of barter "may have altered history" in which of the
following ways?
a)
Barter became the foundation of modern economic theory to the exclusion of other modes of exchange.
b) Barter provided the socio-economic preconditions that paved the way for the emergence of money.
c)
Barter as one of man's natural choices helped behavioural economists to conclude that humans were not
always rational.
d)
The Barter system helped in the emergence of various modes of exchange including stockpiling of
produce and the gift economy.
Q 18. 11601887 It can be inferred that a gift economy works in all the following ways EXCEPT:
a) b)
Goods and services are received free, without Neither party assigns a specific value to goods or
obligation. services.
c) d)
It is based on trust and responsibility towards one Goods and services are exchanged only in times of
another. need.
Q 19. 11601887 According to the passage, the behavioural economists have made a convincing case
that:
a) The assumptions underlying the barter system are unsustainable on scrutiny.
b) Modern economic theory is unable to ascribe objective value to money.

c) No rational basis for the barter system can be found in textbooks of economics.
d) Barter system is based on the belief that a thing is valuable because it is scarce.
Q 20. 11601887 The author's critics would argue that:
a) Lack of evidence is not evidence against something.
b) There is evidence of societies that subsisted without money, or barter.
c) Certain forms of credit are older than money or barter.

d) Anthropologists are ignorant of economics.
Passage – 5
What's an online friendship worth? Or, put another way, how is it possible to rack up more than 1,000
friends on a website, and for none of them to step in when you try to kill yourself? When Facebook and
other online social networks crop up in public debate, it is usually on issues of privacy, or how they might
aid political activism. The question of how they are reconfiguring our relationships is less often asked.
Yet Facebook is now the most visited website in America; it has more than 500 million users who
between them upload 2.7m photos and more than 10m comments to its pages every 20 minutes (even if
most of them read: "Lol!"). Whatever congregation is meeting on that website - with its dark-blue heading
and its collection of news, photos and links to YouTube - it's worth studying. Defenders of friendship,
Facebook-style, argue that more must mean better, new websites and technology have allowed users to
keep in closer contact with their loved ones, however far away. Facebook, Skype and plain old email are a
boon to severely disabled and housebound people who might otherwise go without social contact. No
doubt. What they leave out is how that communication is structured by $50bn businesses such as
Facebook. Anyone who has ever had a Facebook page will know what I mean. On signing up, you are
asked to fill in a questionnaire. Under date of birth you are asked to fill in your favourite quotation
(because obviously everyone has one of those); then what you are looking for: friendship; dating; a
relationship; networking? Those are the four states of socialising in Facebook world. Such tick-box
definitions are a form of "self-reduction", this "semi-automated self-presentation" (not to mention those
"suggested friends" and "who to follow" prompts on Facebook and Twitter) is borne of the binary
approach of software engineering, rather than the ambiguities of human interaction. When Time made
Facebook creator Mark Zuckerberg its Person of the Year for 2010, it noted: "He approaches conversation
as a way of exchanging data as rapidly and efficiently as possible, rather than as a recreational activity."
If you're pressured at work and at home, starved of time and running to catch up, your friendships will
naturally become more breathless and shallow. All Facebook and Twitter do, with their short, sharp
updates on what you're thinking Right Now, is exacerbate that trend. Let me end by comparing these two
visions of friendship. Friendship, Theodore Zeldin told me, "is an exchanging of self-revelation; when one
explains to others what one feels very deeply". With time and trust and talk, "you make yourself vulnerable
to another".
Q 21. 11601887 Which of the following could be termed a criticism of Theodore Zeldin's definition of
friendship?
I. A person should be able to use the word 'friend' with flexibility, ease and without the pressure of
justifying the intimacy of such a relationship.
II. Friendship is not a socially defined relationship and is devoid of any social or legal obligations and
responsibilities, therefore there cannot be any universal definition and its criteria should vary from person
to person.
III. Such a definition prejudices a person against identifying another person as his friend spontaneously
as he needs to be convinced about the profoundness of the relationship and this goes against the idea of
friendship.
a) I and II only b) I and III only c) II and III only d) I, II and III
Q 22. 11601887 The author uses the example of the questionnaire to be filled during the registration
process on Facebook to highlight:
a) Technology influencing the contours and dynamics of a human interaction.
b) Human beings being reduced to binary codes.

c) Conversation becoming purely an exchange of information rather than recreation.
d) Technology reducing the dynamism of human behaviour and making it static.

Q 23. 11601887 All of the following can be definitely inferred about Facebook from the passage
EXCEPT:
a)
The sheer number of people active on Facebook calls for a need to study the online interaction between
them and its impact on society.
b)
Facebook normally crops up in serious public discussions on issues of maintaining online privacy or its
role in political movements.
c) Most users of Facebook treat it as a superficial and frivolous medium of social interaction.
d)
Advocates of Facebook defend it by showcasing its massive reach which helps people to connect with
long lost relations.
Q 24. 11601887 Which of the following is the strongest counter to the author's criticism of online
friendship?
a)
Online friendship is not a substitute for friendship in the physical world, but it serves to meet the
emotional need of human beings to meet new and different people and develop casual/occasional
acquaintances.
b)
Online friendship is the only way a modern human being under severe duress of time can seek emotional
solace and camaraderie.
c)
With every generation, the language and tenor of the friendly associations change which does not
necessarily make them less enduring.
d)
Online friendship is a choice for people looking for distant, flexible friendships and people venturing into
such associations have clear expectations.
Q 25. 11601887 Consider the statement, "Friendship, Theodore Zeldin told me, "is an exchanging of self-
revelation; when one explains to others what one feels very deeply". With time and trust and talk, "you
make yourself vulnerable to another"". The supporters of Facebook and online friendship will most likely
criticize this as:
I. Presumptuous and Arrogant
II. Outdated and Condescending
a) Only I b) Only II c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II

Passage – 6
In India, solid waste management, with the emergence of e-waste, has become a complicated task. The
total waste generated by obsolete or broken down electronic and electrical equipment was estimated to
be 1,46,000 tonnes for the year 2005, which is expected to exceed 8,00,000 tonnes by 2012. However,
according to the Greenpeace Report, in 2007, India generated 3,80,000 tonnes of e-waste. Only 3% of this
made it to the authorised recyclers' facilities. One of the reasons for this is, India has also become a
dumping ground for many developed nations. The Basel Action Network (BAN) stated in a report that 50-
80% of e-waste collected by the USA is exported to India, China, Pakistan, Taiwan, and several African
countries. India is one of the fastest-growing economies of the world, and the domestic demand for
consumer durables has been skyrocketing. From 1998 to 2002, there was a 53.1% increase in the sales
of domestic household appliances, both large and small all over the world. Another report estimated that
in India, business and individual households make approximately 1.38 million personal computers
obsolete every year, accelerating the rate of e-waste generation, which is around 10%, annually going to
affect environmental health indicators.
Electronic equipment contains many hazardous metallic contaminants such as lead, cadmium, and
beryllium and brominated flame-retardants. The fraction including iron, copper, aluminium, gold, and
other metals in e-waste is over 60%, while plastics account for about 30% and the hazardous pollutants
comprise only about 2.70%. Of many toxic heavy metals, lead is the most widely used in electronic
devices for various purposes, resulting in a variety of health hazards due to environmental contamination.
Lead enters biological systems via food, water, air, and soil. Children are particularly vulnerable to lead
poisoning - more so than adults because they absorb more lead from their environment and their nervous
system and blood gets affected. It is found that the e-waste recycling activities had contributed to the
elevated blood lead levels in children living in China, which is one of the popular destinations of e-waste.
This was due to that fact that the processes and techniques used during the recycling activities were very
primitive. Various studies have reported the soaring levels of toxic heavy metals and organic
contaminants in samples of dust, soil, river sediment, surface water, and groundwater of Guiyu in China.
In the same areas, the residents had a high incidence of skin damage, headaches, vertigo, nausea,
chronic gastritis, and gastric and duodenal ulcers. Further, it was found that the blood lead levels of
children were higher than the mean level in China, and there was no significant difference between boys
and girls.
It was found that e-waste recycling operations were causing higher levels of polychlorinated dibenzo-p-
dioxins and polychlorinated dibenzofurans (PCDD/Fs) in the environment as well as in humans. Body
burdens of people in hair, human milk, and placenta from the e-waste processing site showed
significantly higher levels of polychlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins and polychlorinated dibenzofurans
(PCDD/Fs) than those from the nonprocessing site. There is a paucity of data on burdens of massive
metal exposure on the human body in India.
Q 26. 11601887 Which of the following CANNOT be inferred from the first paragraph of the passage?
a) Most of the e-waste in India is illegally recycled in the informal sector.
b) E-waste from the developed world boosts economic growth of developing countries.
c) Households are a major contributor to e-waste generation in the world.
d) Being a fast growing economy further complicates India's e-waste problem.
Q 27. 11601887 According to the passage, which of the following can be a reason for the increase in e-
waste in India?
a) Consumerism and the 'throw-away' culture in the developed world
b) India is becoming a destination where many developed nations dump their e-waste.
c) The short life span of consumer durable items due to rapid advancement in technology
d) The illegal import of obsolete and broken down electronic and electrical equipment
Q 28. 11601887 All of the following statements, if true, could be seen as supporting the arguments in
the passage EXCEPT:
a)
India is among the top five sources of e-waste, which comprises all discarded electronic and electrical
equipment.
b)
Indian consumers frequently exchange their electrical and electronic items for new ones or sell them to
informal recyclers for quick money.
c) Recyclers extract profitable metals such as gold, copper and aluminium from e-waste.
d)
India generates two million tonnes of e-waste annually, and also imports undisclosed amounts of e-
waste from other countries.
Q 29. 11601887 Which of the following is NOT among the ill-effects of e-waste on human health
mentioned in the passage?
a) Impact on early stages of child-rearing b) Skin ailments
c) Neurological Issues d) Hair loss

Q 30. 11601887 In the second paragraph, the author uses the example of China to illustrate:
1. The lack of data on the effects of metal exposure on the human body in India.
2. The long-term damage that exposure to e-waste can cause to health and the environment.
3. The risks posed by the processes and techniques involved in the recycling of e-waste.
4. The dangerous contaminants and the toxic heavy metals present in the e-waste.
a) Only statement 1 is correct. b) Only statement 2 is correct
c) Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct d) Statements 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

Passage – 1
The Supreme Court quashed the Maharashtra law granting reservation to the [1] community in
admissions and government jobs in the state. The top court made it clear in its judgment that people
from the [1] community cannot be declared as educationally and socially backward community to bring
them within the reserved category.
A five-judge bench of Justices Ashok Bhushan, L Nageswara Rao, S Abdul Nazeer, Hemant Gupta and S
Ravindra Bhat also refused to refer the [2] setting a 50 per cent cap on reservation, to a larger bench for
reconsideration. The bench said that exceeding the 50 percent ceiling without any exceptional
circumstances to justify the same, violates Article [3].
The court ruled that the state government, which enacted the Maharashtra State Reservation for Socially
and Educationally Backward Classes Act, 2018 based on the findings of the Justice M G Gaikwad
Commission that the [1] were backward, had not made any extraordinary circumstance to grant such
reservation.
The bench also upheld the [4] constitutional amendment saying it does not violate the basic structure of
the constitution. The amendment inserted Articles 338-B and 342-A in the Constitution.
The [4] amendment deals with the constitutional status of the National Commission for Backyard
Classes. Article 334B deals with the structure, duties, and powers of the Commission while 342A speaks
about the power of the President to notify a class as Socially and Educationally Backward (SEBC) and the
power of Parliament to alter the Central list SEBC list.
The judgment came on petitions challenging the June 27, 2019 order of the Bombay High Court
upholding the constitutional validity of the Maharashtra State Reservation (of seats for admission in
educational institutions in the State and for appointments in the public services and posts under the
State) for Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBC) Act, 2018.
Q 31. 11601887 The Supreme Court quashed the Maharashtra law granting reservation to the [1]
community in admissions and government jobs in the state. Which of the following communities has
been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) Mahar b) Maratha c) Lambadies d) Koyas
Q 32. 11601887 What is name of the case which has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?.
a) Minerva Mills Ltd. and Ors. v. Union Of India b) Indra Sawhney & Others v. Union of India
c) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India d) S. R. Bommai v. Union of India
Q 33. 11601887 Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution has been redacted with [3] in
the passage above?
a) Article 13 b) Article 14 c) Article 19 d) Article 21
Q 34. 11601887 Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts has been redacted with [4] in
the passage above?
a) 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act b) 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act
c) 104th Constitutional Amendment Act d) 102th Constitutional Amendment Act
Q 35. 11601887 The One Hundred and Third Amendment of the Constitution of India, officially known as
the Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act, 2019, introduces _________% reservation for
Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of society for admission to Central Government-run educational
institutions and private educational institutions (except for minority educational institutions), and for
employment in Central Government jobs.
a) 5 b) 7 c) 10 d) 12
Q 36. 11601887 What is the name of the Commission which has been entrusted with the sub-
categorization of Other Backward Classes (OBC)?
a) b) c) d)

The Justice Rohini The Justice Verma The Justice Ramana The Justice Alok
Commission Commission Commission Commission
Passage – 2
With the raging Covid pandemic putting severe stress on the economy, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
unveiled a host of measures to boost fund flow to the healthcare sector and ease the pain of small
borrowers and units. The RBI has opened an on-tap liquidity window of Rs 50,000 crore with tenors of up
to three years at the [1] - four per cent - till March 31, 2022 to boost provision of immediate liquidity for
ramping up Covid-related healthcare infrastructure and services in the country.
Under the scheme, banks can provide fresh lending support to a wide range of entities including vaccine
manufacturers, importers and suppliers of vaccines and priority medical devices, hospitals and
dispensaries, pathology labs, manufactures and suppliers of oxygen and ventilators, importers of
vaccines and Covid-related drugs, logistics firms and also patients for treatment, RBI Governor
Shaktikanta Das said while announcing the measures.
Das said banks are being incentivised for quick delivery of credit under the scheme through extension of
priority sector classification to such lending up to March 31, 2022. These loans will continue to be
classified under priority sector till repayment or maturity, whichever is earlier. "Banks may deliver these
loans to borrowers directly or through intermediary financial entities regulated by the RBI," Das said.
The RBI has decided to conduct special three-year long-term repo operations (SLTRO) of Rs 10,000 crore
at [1] for small finance banks, to be deployed for fresh lending of up to [2] per borrower. This is to provide
further support to small business units, micro and small industries, and other unorganised sector entities
adversely affected during the current wave of the pandemic.
SFBs will be permitted to reckon fresh lending to smaller MFIs (with asset size of up to Rs 500 crore) for
onlending to individual borrowers as priority sector lending. This means there will be concessions on
interest rates and repayments. This facility will be available up to March 31, 2022.
Q 37. 11601887 The RBI has opened an on-tap liquidity window of Rs 50,000 crore with tenors of up to
three years at the [1] - four per cent - till March 31, 2022 to boost provision of immediate liquidity for
ramping up Covid-related healthcare infrastructure and services in the country. Which of the following
has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) Bank rate b) Repo rate c) Reverse Repo rate d)

Liquidity Adjustment
Facility
Q 38. 11601887 The RBI has decided to conduct special three-year long-term repo operations (SLTRO) of
Rs 10,000 crore at [1] for small finance banks, to be deployed for fresh lending of up to Rs.[2] per
borrower. Which of the following has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a) Rs.5 lakh b) Rs.10 lakh c) Rs.15 lakh d) Rs.20 lakh
Q 39. 11601887 Borrowers having aggregate exposure of up to Rs. ____________and who have not
availed restructuring under any of the earlier restructuring frameworks (including under the Resolution
Framework 1.0 dated August 6, 2020), and who were classified as 'Standard' as on March 31, 2021 will be
eligible to be considered under Resolution Framework 2.0.
a) 5 crore b) 10 crore c) 20 crore d) 25 crore
Q 40. 11601887 Which of the following statements is/are correct related to the Long Term Repo
Operations as measure to support the economy in corona pandemic situations?
a)
It is a measure that is expected to bring down short-term rates and also boost investment in corporate
bonds.
b)
It would encourage banks to undertake maturity transformation smoothly and seamlessly so as to
augment credit flows to productive sectors.
c) It will enhance liquidity in the banking system by Rs 1 trillion.
d) All of the above
Q 41. 11601887 Which of the following economic policies has/have been recently used by the RBI to
boost the economy during the current Pandemic situation?
a) FOREX SWAP b) LTROs (Long Term Repo Operations)
c) OMOs (Open Market Operations) d) All of the above
Passage – 3
Over the past several years, the Chinese government has locked up more than a million [1], including
model citizens like my 34-year-old brother Ekpar Asat. A philanthropist and founder of a social media
platform catering to the [1] community known as Bagdax, he came to the United States in 2016 to
participate in an exchange program sponsored by the State Department, one from which many world
leaders and Chinese citizens of the majority Han ethnicity have benefited for decades. Within weeks of
returning from the United States to Xinjiang in western China, he disappeared into the shadows of the
internment camps.
Beijing has sentenced many other innocent [1] people, a Turkic ethnic minority, to years and even life in
concentration camps and prisons. [1] women have been subject to forced sterilization and forced
marriages to Han Chinese men. Nearly half a million children have been placed in orphanages, despite
their families being alive, and then subjected to political and cultural indoctrination.
After years of this unconscionable treatment, a sign of hope for accountability emerged this month,
somewhat ironically in the form of revelations of atrocities committed against another ethnic Muslim
minority in Asia, the [2] of Myanmar.
The confession represented the first testimony from perpetrators corroborating the accounts that
Myanmar soldiers shot children, raped women, destroyed villages and dumped bodies in mass graves, as
previously described by [2] refugees and a United Nations' fact-finding mission.
Like China, Myanmar refused to join the ICC, and the court's jurisdiction principally applies only to those
who are member states. However, the Court broadened its jurisdictional reach against Myanmar under a
novel legal strategy that [2] are victims of a forced deportation in which the crime was completed in the
territory of an ICC member state, Bangladesh. This legal approach could be used in a similar way against
China.
Q 42. 11601887 Who among the following Muslim ethnic communities from China has been redacted
with [1] in the passage above?
a) Moors b) Druze c) Pastun d) Uighurs
Q 43. 11601887 Who among the following Muslim ethnic communities from Myanmar has been
redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a) Rohingyas b) Hamas c) Berbars d) Kurds
Q 44. 11601887 The world's largest refugee camp, home to over 700,000 [2] refugees from Myanmar is
located in:
a) India b) China c) Bangladesh d) USA
Q 45. 11601887 The United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) is a UN agency
mandated to aid and protect refugees, forcibly displaced communities, and stateless people, and to
assist in their voluntary repatriation, local integration or resettlement to a third country. It is
headquartered in:
a) New York b) Paris c) London d) Geneva
Q 46. 11601887 In January 2020, the International Court of Justice (ICJ) has given its verdict on the [2]
crisis. Which of the following statements is Not correct?
a) The ruling of the ICJ is not binding on Myanmar, and can be appealed.
b) However, no means are available to the ICJ to enforce it.
c)
The government of Myanmar should immediately take "all measures within its power" to prevent
atrocities against members of the minority [2] Muslim community.
d)
This is to be done in accordance with its obligations under the Convention on the Prevention and
Punishment of the Crime of Genocide.
Passage – 4
COVID-19 is the first pan India biological disaster being handled by the legal and constitutional
institutions of the country. The current lockdown has been imposed under the [1]. Though the
Constitution of India is silent on the subject 'disaster', the legal basis of the [1], is Entry 23, Concurrent
List of the Constitution "Social security and social insurance". Entry 29, Concurrent List "Prevention of the
extension from one State to another of infectious or contagious diseases or pests affecting men, animals
or plants," can also be used for specific law making.
The legislative intent of the [1] was to, "provide for the effective management of disasters". The National
Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) under the [1] is the nodal central body for coordinating disaster
management, with the [2] as its Chairperson. The NDMA lays down policies, plans and guidelines for
management of disaster. Similarly, State, District and Local level Disaster Management Authorities were
established, manned by high functionaries. All these agencies are envisaged to work in coordination.
NDMA so far formulated 30 Guidelines on various disasters including the 'Guidelines on Management of
Biological Disasters, 2008'. The 2019 National Disaster Management Plan, issued also deals extensively
with Biological Disaster and Health Emergency. This is the broad legal framework within which activities
to contain COVID-19 are being carried out by the Union and State governments.
Power bestowed by [1] on Central Government and NDMA are extensive. The Central Government,
irrespective of any law in force (including over-riding powers) can issue any directions to any authority
anywhere in India to facilitate or assist in the disaster management. Importantly, any such directions
issued by Central Government and NDMA must necessarily be followed the Union Ministries, State
Governments and State Disaster Management Authorities. In order to achieve all these, the [2] can
exercise all powers of NDMA. This ensures that there is adequate political and constitutional heft behind
the decisions made.
Q 47. 11601887 The current lockdown in some of states of India has been imposed under the [1], which
of the following has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) The Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897 b) Disaster Management Act, 2005

c) The Epidemic Diseases Act, 1997 d) Disaster Management Act, 2010
Q 48. 11601887 Who is the Chairperson of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) whose
name has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a) President of India b) Prime Minister of India
c) Union Home Minister d)

Union Environment and Climate Change Minister
Q 49. 11601887 The Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897 is a law which was first enacted to tackle bubonic
plague in ___________in former British India.
a) b) c) d) Hyderabad

Mumbai (formerly Chennai (formerly Kolkata (formerly
Bombay) Madras) Calcutta)
Q 50. 11601887 In India, which of the following ministries issued the 'Containment Plan for Large
Outbreaks (COVID 19)' and also acts as the Nodal Ministry for biological disaster?
a) Union Ministry of Home Affairs b) Union Ministry of Health & Family Welfare
c) d) Union Ministry of Science and Technology

Union Ministry of Environment and Climate Change
Q 51. 11601887 Which of the following is/are challenges posed by the second wave of covid-19 in India?
1. In India's case, consolidated public debt will approach 90 per cent of GDP.
2. The consolidated public sector borrowing requirements are budgeted above 11 per cent of GDP in
FY22.
3. It will be equally crucial to leaving enough space for higher MGNREGA demand and other safety nets
on account of a second wave.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Passage – 5
The Election Commission said that the returning officer is the final authority under law to decide on
recounting of votes in Nandigram Assembly constituency, where West Bengal Chief Minister Mamata
Banerjee lost the election to her former aide and Bharatiya Janata Party rival [1].
"The returning officer shall decide the matter and may allow the application in whole or in part or may
reject it if it appears to him to be frivolous or unreasonable," the poll panel said in a statement. The
returning officer of an assembly constituency performs statutory functions under the [2] in quasi-judicial
capacity.
Banerjee lost the Nandigram election to [1] by a margin of 1,956 votes. The chief minister's party,
however, won 213 seats - way beyond the majority mark of 148 - and emerged victorious in the Assembly
elections. The saffron party managed to secure only 77 constituencies.
The Trinamool Congress has contested the results in Nandigram and demanded a recounting of votes.
Banerjee alleged "looting and cheating" in the counting process, but the Election Commission rejected the
appeal to recount votes.
The Election Commission in its statement said officers on the ground diligently perform their duties with
full transparency and fairness. "Therefore attribution of any motive in such cases is not desirable," it
added. "On the basis of Form-17C duly completed by the counting supervisors, returning officer prepared
a round-wise statement," it added.
Banerjee told reporters that the returning officer was threatened to not order a recount of votes for the
constituency. She had also raised questions on the poll commission's refusal to undertake recounting.
Nandigram constituency witnessed the most high-profile campaign in the record-eight phase elections in
West Bengal despite the raging coronavirus pandemic. After the end of the 17 rounds of counting, the
Election Commission had announced that [1] defeated Banerjee.
Q 52. 11601887 Who among the following has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) Suvendu Adhikari b) c) Adithya Roy d) Lakshman Roy

Surendranath Benerjee
Q 53. 11601887 The returning officer of an assembly constituency performs statutory functions under
the [2] in quasi-judicial capacity. Which of the following has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a) Representation of the People Act, 1961 b) Representation of the People Act, 1951
c) Election Commission of India Act, 1951 d) Election Commission of India Act, 1961
Q 54. 11601887 Consider the following statements regarding the roles and powers of Returning Officer:
1. Whether it is nomination, polling or counting, the returning officer acts strictly in accordance with the
extant electoral laws, instructions and guidelines of the Election Commission of India.
2. When an application for recounting of votes is made the returning officer shall decide the matter and
may allow the application in whole or in part or may reject it in its entirety if it appears to him/her to be
frivolous or unreasonable.
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 55. 11601887 Consider the following statements:
1. Under Article 164(1), the Governor shall appoint the Chief Minister exercising his own discretion,
according to established practice and conventions.
2. All other Ministers are to be appointed by the Governor on the Advice of the Chief Minister.
3. Article 164 of the Constitution allows a non-legislator to occupy a post in the council of ministers,
including the office of the Chief Minister for five months.
4. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State.
a) 1 and 4 only b) 3 only c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 56. 11601887 Name the famous case in which the Supreme Court declared the resign-and-reappoint
bid as "improper, undemocratic, invalid and unconstitutional".
a) S.R. Chaudhuri vs State Of Punjab & Ors b) D.K Aruna vs State Of Andhra Pradesh & Ors
c) Jayalalita vs State Of Tamil Nadu& Ors d) Mithish Kumar vs State Of Bihar & Ors
Passage – 6
Debris from a large Chinese rocket landed in the Indian Ocean, according to the China Manned Space
Engineering Office, which said most parts had burned up on reentry.
The uncontrolled nature of the rocket's fall to Earth had left experts concerned about the potential impact
it could have on inhabited areas. Earlier in the week, some space trackers had predicted that it could have
landed as far north as New York.
The Chinese agency said that the rocket, called the [1], had re-entered the atmosphere at 10:24 a.m.
Beijing time, landing at a location with coordinates of longitude 72.47 degrees east and latitude 2.65
degrees north. That would put the impact location in the Indian Ocean, west of the [2] archipelago.
U.S. Space Command said in a statement that the [1] had re-entered over the Arabian Peninsula at
approximately 10:15 p.m. "It is unknown if the debris impacted land or water," it said.
The rocket was launched on April 29 at the [3] in south China's Hainan province. It measured 98 feet long
and 16.5 feet wide, and it weighed 21 metric tons.
Its mission was to carry into orbit a module containing living quarters for a future Chinese space station.
But after completing that task, the body of the rocket circled Earth in an uncontrolled manner before
reentering the lower atmosphere.
Chinese Foreign Ministry Spokesperson Wang Wenbin said that it was "common practice" across the
world for the upper stages of rockets to burn up while reentering the atmosphere.
"China is following closely the upper stage's reentry into the atmosphere. To my knowledge, the upper
stage of this rocket has been deactivated, which means that most of its parts will burn up upon reentry,
making the likelihood of damage to aviation or ground facilities and activities extremely low," he said,
according to a translation on the ministry's website. In a statement shortly after the debris landed, NASA
Administrator Sen. Bill Nelson said it was clear that China "is failing to meet responsible standards
regarding their space debris."
Q 57. 11601887 What is the name of the rocket which has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) Long March 1B b) Long March 2B c) Long March 4B d) Long March 5B
Q 58. 11601887 Which of the following countries has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a) Maldives b) Singapore c) Malaysia d) Myanmar
Q 59. 11601887 The rocket [1] was launched on April 29, 2021 at the [3] in south China's Hainan
province. Which of the following has been redacted with [3] in the passage above?
a) b) c) d)

Xi Jinping Space Launch Wenchang Space Hu Jintao Space Launch Mao Zedong Space
Center Launch Center Center Launch Center
Q 60. 11601887 In March 2021, debris from a ___________rocket fell over a man's farm in Washington
State, US, creating a "4-inch dent in the soil".
a) Amazonia-1 b) Hope c) SpaceX Falcon 9 d) Artemis 1
Q 61. 11601887 To safeguard its space assets from space debris, ISRO had set up a dedicated Space
Situational Awareness (SSA) Control Centre named "Netra" in:
a) Nelloru b) Bengaluru c) Chandipur d) Trivandrum
Passage – 7
India has been listed under countries considered "bad" for journalism and is among the most dangerous
places in the world for journalists, according to Reporters Without Borders, which published its 2021
World Press Freedom Index. For the second successive year, India has ranked [1] among 180 countries
on the Index.
Among India's neighbours, Nepal is at 106, Sri Lanka at 127, and Myanmar, before the military coup,
features at 140. However, Pakistan and Bangladesh secured 145 and 152 ranks on the index, respectively.
Yet again, [2], followed by Finland and Denmark, have emerged at the top, securing the first three spots
respectively. [3] in the horn of Africa is at the bottom, ranked 180. Other countries at the bottom are China
(177), North Korea (179) and Turkmenistan (178).
Explaining the reasons for categorising India as "bad" for journalism and among dangerous countries for
journalists, the report says Bharatiya Janata Party supporters and the Hindutva ideology have created an
environment of intimidation for journalists who are critical of the government by labelling them as "anti-
national" or "anti-state". India shares the "bad" classification with Brazil, Mexico and Russia.
The report has also specifically called out Prime Minister Narendra Modi as a head of government who
has tightened "his grip on media". With "four journalists killed in connection with their work in 2020, India
is one of the world's most dangerous countries for journalists trying to do their job properly", the report
observes.
In fact, the UNESCO 'observatory of killed journalists' has it that six, not four, journalists have been killed
in India in 2020.
On India's draconian new Information Technology rules to regulate content on digital news media
platforms, the RSF report says:
"Given that the index had been worked out before India came out with new rules to "regulate" online news
platforms, along with other digital content providers, in February this year, the situation of press freedom
in the country has further deteriorated. The Information Technology (Guidelines for Intermediaries and
Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 has been widely criticised, for posing an impediment to a thriving
digital news media space."
Q 62. 11601887 According to the latest Reporters Without Borders, which published its 2021 World
Press Freedom Index, what is the India rank which has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) 122 b) 132 c) 142 d) 152
Q 63. 11601887 According to the latest Reporters Without Borders, which published its 2021 World
Press Freedom Index, which of the following countries have placed at the top and the bottom redacted
with [2] and [3] in the passage above?
a) Norway and Eritrea b) c) Denmark and Nepal d) Austria and Bhutan
Finland and Afghanistan
Q 64. 11601887 The freedom of press is not expressly protected by Indian legal system but it is
impliedly protected under article ______________of the constitution, which states - "All citizens shall have
the right to freedom of speech and expression".
a) Article 19(1) (a) b) Article 19(1) (b) c) Article 21(1) (a) d) Article 19(1) (g)
Q 65. 11601887 Which of the following statements is Not true regarding the Reporters Without Borders,
which published its 2021 World Press Freedom Index?
a)
Journalism, the main vaccine against disinformation, is completely or partly blocked in 73% of the 180
countries.
b) Only 2 of the Index's 180 countries can claim to offer a favourable environment for journalism.
c)
The Report has raised concern about the larger Asia-Pacific region as several nations in an attempt to
curb freedom of press have in place draconian laws on 'sedition,' 'state secrets' and 'national security'.
d) Covid-19 pandemic has been used to perfection by nations to control the spread of information.
Q 66. 11601887 Which of the following statements is Not true regarding the latest Reporters Without
Borders, which published its 2021 World Press Freedom Index?
a)
India was ranked 122 in the year 2020 as well, thus showing slight improvement in the environment it
provides to its journalists.
b)
India is among the countries classified "bad" for journalism and is termed as one of the most dangerous
countries for journalists trying to do their jobs properly.
c)
The report has blamed an environment of intimidation created by the nationalist government for any
critical journalist often brandishing them as anti-state or anti national.
d)
The situation is worrying in Kashmir, where incidents of harassment of reporters by police and
paramilitaries have surfaced.
Legal Aptitude
Directions for questions 67 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on
each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage.
Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external
knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.
Passage – 1
Double jeopardy is a procedural defence that forbids a defendant from being tried twice for the same
crime for the same set of facts. It refers to the concept that it is wrong for a man to be subjected more
than once to the danger of being punished for an offense. The roots of the doctrine against double
jeopardy can be found in the wellestablished maxim of the English Common law, Nemo debet bis vexari,
meaning that a man must not be put twice in peril for the same offence.
The principle was in existence in India even prior to the commencement of the Constitution- Section 26
of the General clause Act 1897 says: Where an act or omission constitutes an offence under two or more
enactments, then the offender shall be liable to be prosecuted and punished under either or any of those
enactments, but shall not be liable to be punished twice for the same offence. Article 20 of the
Constitution of India provides protection against double jeopardy. It has been enshrined as a part of the
Fundamental Right by the fathers of our Constitution. Accordingly, no person can be prosecuted and
punished for the same offence more than once. The provision apotheosizes the principle that a person
cannot be tried twice for the same offence by an equally competent court. When a person has been
convicted for an offence by a competent court, the conviction serves a bar to any further criminal
proceedings against him for the same offence. The idea is that no one ought to be punished twice for
one and the same offence.
In India, a partial protection against double jeopardy (Autrefois convict) is a Fundamental Right
guaranteed under Article 20 (3) of the Constitution of India. It states that "No person shall be prosecuted
and punished for the same offence more than once". However, it does not extend to autrefois acquit, and
so if a person is 'acquitted' of a crime can be retried. The protection against autrefois acquit is a statutory
right in our country and not a fundamental right.
A similar provision for the protection of those who have been already acquitted or convicted by a court
has been provided for the U.S Constitution as well. The Double Jeopardy Clause of the Fifth Amendment
to the United States Constitution provides: "[N]or shall any person be subject for the same offense to be
twice put in jeopardy of life or limb . . .." The four essential protections included are prohibitions against,
for the same offense: (i) retrial after an acquittal; (ii) retrial after a conviction; (iii) retrial after certain
mistrials; and (iv) multiple punishments."
In the case of Kalawati v State of Himachal Pradesh, a person accused of committing murder was tried
and acquitted. The State preferred an appeal against the acquittal. The accused could not plead Article
20(2) against the State preferring an appeal against the acquittal. Article 20(2) would not apply as there
was no punishment for the offence at the earlier prosecution: and an appeal against an acquittal was in
substance a continuation of the prosecution.
Q 67. 11601887 In pre-independent India (20th century), British brought an act namely 'Special provision
act' which expressly prohibited conspiring to commit harm towards any public servant or the
government. One D, a freedom fighter was caught trying to kill a top government official. The court tried
him for treason under Indian penal code and also under special provision act and charged ten years and
eight years imprisonment respectively. Is the court justified in its act?
a) The court is justified in its act as the 'doctrine of double jeopardy' did not apply.
b) The court is justified in its act as the pre independent India was a form of Pseudo dictatorship.
c)
The court is not justified in charging D under two different enactments as it is barred under General
clause Act 1897.
d)
The court is not justified in charging D under two different enactments as that provision was halted by
the end of the 19th century.
Q 68. 11601887 A, approached the sessions court and claimed D had stolen 1 lakh-rupees from his
house. The court heard the case gave the verdict in favour of D. After 2 months A again approached the
district court claiming he had got more evidence to prove that D was guilty. Is it permissible? Decide.
a) A can approach the sessions court again as D was held innocent the first time.
b)
A cannot approach the sessions court as a person cannot be tried for the same offense by an equally
competent court.
c)
A can approach the sessions court again as this time there is a more compelling case with different
facts.
d) A can file an appeal against the judgement of the district court.
Q 69. 11601887 X filed a case of murder against Y. The sessions court found Y to be not guilty of the
said offense. X was discontent with the judgement and filed an appeal in the high court. Y contended that
X cannot file an appeal in the high court as it is violative of article 20(2) of the constitution which is a
fundamental right. Decide.
a) X can file a case in high court and it is not violative of article 20(2) of the constitution.
b) X cannot file an appeal as it is violative of the principle of double jeopardy.
c) X cannot file an appeal as a competent court has already given a judgement in the given case.
d) X can file a petition but only in the supreme court of India.
Q 70. 11601887 Which of the following provisions do not explain the essence of 'double jeopardy'?
a) Article 20 of Indian constitution b) Universal declaration of human rights.
c) The General clause Act 1897 d) Fifth amendment of the US constitution.
Q 71. 11601887 Which of the following statements is false in the light of the above given passage?
a) Section 26 of the General clause Act 1897 upheld the principle of double jeopardy.
b) The US constitution does not recognise the principle of double jeopardy.

c) Article 20(3) explains the provision of double jeopardy.
d)
The roots of the doctrine against double jeopardy have been derived from the English maxim 'Nemo
debet bis vexari'.
Passage – 2
The Epidemic Diseases (Amendment) Ordinance, 2020 was promulgated on April 22, 2020. The
Ordinance amends the Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897. The Act provides for the prevention of the spread of
dangerous epidemic diseases. The Ordinance amends the Act to include protections for healthcare
personnel combatting epidemic diseases and expands the powers of the central government to prevent
the spread of such diseases. Key features of the Ordinance include:
Sections 2B and 3 of the principal Act provides provisions to protect healthcare personnel during an
epidemic and damage to property. Section 2B has been inserted in the principal Act under Section 5 of
the Ordinance and Section 3 has been amended by Section 6 of the Ordinance. It specifies that no person
can (a) commit or abet the commission of an act of violence, (b) abet or cause damage or loss to
property. Section 6(3) of the Ordinance states that the violation of this provision is punishable with
imprisonment from three months to five years along with fine between fifty thousand to two lakh rupees.
In case, the act of violence causes grievous hurt, the person committing the offence shall be imprisoned
for a period between six months and seven years along with a fine between one lakh and five lakh rupees.
The offences are cognizable and non-bailable under Section 3A(i) of the principal Act that has been
inserted under Section 7 of the Ordinance.
Section 3A(ii) of the principal Act states that all the offences under the Act would be investigated by a
police officer, not below the rank of an Inspector. The investigation shall be completed within a period of
30 days from the date of registration of the First Information Report under Section 3A(iii) of the principal
Act.
Section 3A(iv) of the principal Act has provided the procedure for the trial of offenders under the Act. It
states that a trial shall take place as efficiently and quickly as possible. In matters of examination of
witnesses, when once begun shall be continued from day to day until all the witnesses present have been
examined. This practice continues unless the court finds the adjournment of the same to be necessary
for reasons to be recorded. The trial needs to be completed within a year. When the trial is not concluded
within the period of one year, the Judge shall record reasons for non-completion of the same. The said
period can be extended on the discretion of the judge, where reasons have to be recorded in writing. The
extension cannot exceed six months at a time.
Section 3C of the principal Act, which has also been inserted by the Ordinance under Section 7, deals
with presumption as to certain offences under the Act. In cases, where any person is prosecuted for
committing an offence punishable under the provisions of the Act, the presumption by the Court would
be that such person has committed such offence. The burden of proof lies on the accused to prove his
innocence
Q 72. 11601887 India was facing severe second wave of covid-19 pandemic. In a Covid hospital there
arose a rumour that one of the patients died due to shortage of oxygen. This enraged the families and
they attacked a nurse and a doctor and caused grievous hurt. Which of the following punishments shall
the accused be subjected to if found guilty?
a) Imprisonment for a term between 6 months to 3 years.
b)
imprisonment for a period between six months to seven years along with a fine between one lakh and five
lakh rupees
c) Imprisonment from six months to six years and a fine of two lakh rupees.
d) The punishment is to be decided by the magistrate, but shall be a rigorous one.
Q 73. 11601887 D was charged under epidemic diseases (amendment) ordinance 2020 for vandalising
the hospital property. He was brought to the court for the hearing of the case. What shall be the
presumption regarding the commission of offense in the given case?
a) The presumption of court would be that D has committed the offense.
b) In criminal 'presumption of innocence' is upheld, D shall be considered innocent until proven guilty.
c) The presumption of the court would be that D was a coronavirus patient or their family member.
d)
In cases of Epidemic disease ordinance act 2020, there shall be no preconceived presumption regarding
innocence or guiltiness.
Q 74. 11601887 A case was filed in Hisar Police station under Epidemic disease (amendment)
ordinance 2020. Who should investigate the case according to the provisions of the ordinance?
a) b)
Police officer, not below the rank of head Police officer, not below the rank of an Inspector.
constable. c)
Judicial magistrate under the guidance of a police
officer.
d) Central reserve police force personnel.
Q 75. 11601887 Which of the following is a wrong combination of section and its provision?
a) Section 3- Protection of health care workers.
b) Section 3C- Presumption of innocence.
c) Section 6(3)- Punishments for violation of provisions under section 2B.
d) Section 8- Jurisdiction of the provision.
Q 76. 11601887 Which of the following sentences is true in the light of the above given passage?
a) The offences under epidemic disease (amendment) ordinance 2020 are non- cognizable and bailable.
b) The accused under this ordinance shall be held innocent until proven guilty.
c)
The amendment seeks to give more freedom to families and sick to protest against nurses and doctors if
not treated properly.
d) The Act provides for the prevention of the spread of dangerous epidemic diseases.
Passage – 3
The offence of Criminal Breach of Trust - section 405 IPC is similar to the offence of embezzlement
under the English law. A reading of the section suggests that the gist of the offence of criminal breach of
trust is 'dishonest misappropriation' or 'conversion to own use' of another's property. It is nothing but the
offence of criminal misappropriation defined under section 403. The only difference between the two is
that in respect of criminal breach of trust, the accused is handed over with the property or with the power
or control over the property. Undoubtedly, it takes a work of genius to understand the intricacies of the
criminal law regarding criminal breach of trust. The best advocate for criminal law and a top criminal
lawyer for Criminal Breach of Trust - section 405 IPC would always objectively inspect the following
elements of the section;
Section 405 of IPC states that "Whoever, being in any manner entrusted with property, or with any
dominion over property, dishonestly misappropriated or converts to his own use that property, or
dishonestly uses or disposes of that property in violation of any direction of law prescribing the mode in
which such trust is to be discharged, or of any legal contract, express or implied, which he has made
touching the discharge of such trust, or wilfully suffers any other person so to do, commits 'criminal
breach of trust'"
Illustrations of criminal breach of trust-

(a) A, being executor to the will of a deceased person, dishonestly disobeys the law which directs him to
divide the effects according to the will, and appropriates them to his own use. A has committed criminal
breach of trust.
(b) A is a warehouse-keeper, Z, going on a journey, entrusts his furniture to A, under a contract that it shall
be returned on payment of a stipulated sum for warehouse-room. A dishonestly sells the goods. A has
committed criminal breach of trust.
Punishment- Section 406 of the Indian Penal Code prescribes the punishment for criminal breach of trust
it says that, whoever commits criminal breach of trust shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both.
Criminal Breach of trust by carrier- According to Section 407 of the Indian Penal Code says that whoever,
being entrusted with property as a carrier, wharfinger or warehouse-keeper, commits criminal breach of
trust, in respect of such property, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term
which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.
Ingredients- To invoke Section 407 of the Indian Penal Code following ingredients are to be satisfied.
1. The accused is a carrier, warehouse-keeper or wharfinger
2. The accused was entrusted with the property
3. The accused committed criminal breach of trust of the Property.
The offence under this Section is cognizable, non-bailable, compoundable and triable by Magistrate of
first class.
Q 77. 11601887 D was moving abroad. He asks an agent R to sell his Audi car to one Z who shall be
coming to receive it. D also mentions that Z shall pay 10 lakhs for the same which should be deposited
into his account. R sells the car to T instead of Z for 20 lakhs and deposits 10 lakhs to S's account. Has R
committed a criminal breach of trust?
a) R has not committed criminal breach of trust as D received the said 10 lakh rupees.
b)
R has committed criminal breach of trust as he has acted unlawfully in violation of prescribed direction
given by D.
c)
R has not committed a criminal breach of trust but has used his marketing skills to fetch more price for
the car.
d) R has committed cheating and not criminal breach of trust.
Q 78. 11601887 A was going on a journey. He entrusts his house key to his neighbour D and asks him to
handover the key to an address given by him. A was unaware that the intended party didn'tstay at the said
address anymore. D gives the key to the address which happens to be the wrong party. Shortly A's house
was robbed. A filed a case of criminal breach of trust against D. Decide.
a) D shall be held liable as he had to be careful while handing over the key.
b) D shall be held liable as it was his negligence that caused the house to be robbed.
c)
D shall not be held liable as he has fulfilled the task which was asked by him without any dishonest or
unlawful act.
d) None of the above.
Q 79. 11601887 One G was charged for criminal breach of trust and brought for the trial before the
sessions court. If G is held guilty which of the following is the most likely punishment that is to be
awarded?
a) Imprisonment for a term of 2 years. b)

Imprisonment for a term of 1 year and a fine of
10000.
c) Imprisonment for a term of 4 years. d) Either (a) or (b).
Q 80. 11601887 Which of the following is not a requirement to charge an individual under section 407 of
IPC 1860?
a) The accused is a carrier, warehouse-keeper or wharfinger
b) The accused must be of minimum 35 years old
c) The accused was entrusted with the property.
d) The accused committed criminal breach of trust of the Property.
Q 81. 11601887 Which of the following statements is false in the light of the above given passage?
a) Section 406 of the Indian Penal Code prescribes the punishment for criminal breach of trust.
b) Section 405 of IPC defines criminal breach of trust.
c) Criminal breach of trust has evolved from Latin laws.
d)
The offence of Criminal Breach of Trust - section 405 IPC is similar to the offence of embezzlement
under the English law.
Passage – 4
Before the amendment in criminal laws there was no direct inclusion of the term stalking in penal law of
India. The stalking was covered under category of just harassment such as voyeurism, sexual
harassment against women and it was covered under Section 354 and Section 509 for using words or
gestures to insult a woman's modesty. Due to the shortcomings in the essentials of section 354 and
section 509 of IPC, in most of the cases the wrongdoer moves freely from the court because it is hard to
proof the certain essential conditions to constitute a crime-
1. The attack must be against a woman,

2. The offender must have used excessive force,
3. The modesty of women should be offended.
Therefore, there wasa needfor the emergence of a separate law for stalking in India.
The act of stalking as of today after the criminal amendment act 2013, is a cognizable, bailable and
noncompoundable offence with punishment-
1. up to three years and fine for the first conviction

2. up to five years and fine for the repetition.
According to Section 354 D of Indian Penal Code, Stalking means and includes-
(1) Any man who -
(i) follows a woman and contacts, or attempts to contact such woman to foster personal interaction
repeatedly despite a clear indication of disinterest by such woman; or
(ii) monitors the use by a woman of the internet, email or any other form of electronic communication,
commits the offence of stalking:
Provided that such conduct shall not amount to stalking if the man who pursued it proves that-
(i) it was pursued for the purpose of preventing or detecting crime and the man accused of stalking had
been entrusted with the responsibility of prevention and detection of crime by the State; or
(ii) it was pursued under any law or to comply with any condition or requirement imposed by any person
under any law; or
(iii) in the particular circumstances such conduct was reasonable and justified.
(2) Whoever commits the offence of stalking shall be punished on first conviction with imprisonment of
either description for a term
a. which may extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine;
b. and be punished on a second or subsequent conviction, with imprisonment of either description for a
term which may extend to five years, and shall also be liable to fine
According to the national crime records bureau report 2018, there are 9,450 cases of stalking reported in
India. This means on average there is one case of stalking every 55 minutes.
Q 82. 11601887 One R was madly in love with D. R confesses regarding his love with D.D expressly
states that she was not interested in any relationship and likes to be left alone. R was broken and couldn't
move on. He started following D everywhere. He hid in bushes near D's house to watch her at night. D
filed a case of stalking against R. Decide whether R has committed the offense of stalking?
a) R has not committed the offense of stalking as he has freedom to move according to his wishes.
b) R has not committed the offense of stalking as he has not committed any harm to D.
c) R has committed the offense of stalking under section 354D of the IPC 1860.
d) The facts in the question are not sufficient to arrive at the answer.
Q 83. 11601887 D belonged to the central investigation department. The department received
information that one lady R was secretly working for ISIS. D was asked to follow R and monitor her
movements. R filed a case of stalking against D. Decide whether the act of D is justified?
a)
The act of D is justified as he pursued for the purpose of preventing or detecting crime and he was
entrusted with the said responsibility.
b)
The act of D is not justified as they do not have any evidence to prove the guilt of R and hence stalking is
not allowed.
c) The act of D is not justified irrespective of any reason, right to privacy is a fundamental right.
d) The act of D is justified, D belongs to CID. He can follow any woman as he pleases.
Q 84. 11601887 Z was madly in love with one Y. Z was an expert hacker. In order to follow Y more
closely he hacked her social media accounts and took control over it and monitored her. Does it amount
to stalking?
a) The act of Z does not amount to stalking as Z has not physically followed Y.
b) The act of Z amounts to hacking and is punishable.

c) The act of Z amounts to undue use of expert skills.
Q 85. 11601887 Which of the following is not a justification for following a woman/stalking?
a)
It was pursued under any law or to comply with any condition or requirement imposed by any person
under any law.
b) Reasonable and justifiable circumstance.
c)
For the purpose of preventing or detecting crime, the man accused of stalking had been entrusted with
the responsibility of prevention and detection of crime.
Q 86. 11601887 Which of the following situations is not an example of stalking?
a)
A happened to take the same detour route which was being taken by his ex-girlfriend D. A was unaware
about D taking the route.
b) B gains access to the mail and social media accounts of his paramour through hacking.
c) D follows one girl A, every day on her way home.
d) B follows a married-women who returns from work. He does the same for 15 days continuously.
Passage – 5
Factories Act (1948) applies only if 10 or 20 people are employed in a manufacturing process to aid the
infrastructural growth of an industry. Whereas, the non-factory worker comes under the ambit of Shops
and Establishment Act of different states. This applies to shops, a commercial establishment where
trade, business or profession, etc. is carried or where goods are sold or establishments such as
education, hotels etc. are run. The benefits and rights provided by the two acts namely, Factories Act,
1948 and various state acts on Shops and Establishments make provision for the basic rights and
facilities to be provided to the workers.
According to the law, a daily cap of 9 hours per day and weekly cap of 48 hours per week is prescribed for
factory worker. This implies the provision prescribed by the law is 6 working days in a week. After every
five hours period, each worker has to be given a break or rest interval for half an hour at least. This will
not only benefit productivity but will also improve the working conditions of the worker. The periods of
work will be arranged in such a way that inclusive of rest there shall not be a spread over work for more
than ten and a half hours in any day. The chief inspectors of factories can, however, increase the spread
over working hours up to 12 hours.For women working timings (not hours) is further relaxed. Women can
be made to work in a factory only between 6 a.m. and 7 p.m. The respective government can make
further changes. But the only condition set is - the women cannot be made to do night shift in factories
i.e. between 10 p.m. and 5 a.m. No child who is legally fourteen and below is competent to work in a
factory. A child who has completed 14 years of age can be allowed to work in a factory provided a
certificate of fitness is presented by him granted with reference to him in the custody of the factory
manager and such child or adolescent while working will carry such token giving reference to such
certificate. The working cap for children working in a factory is not more than four and a half hours in a
day and strict provision is prescribed which prohibits the night shift for children. Further for a female
child, working hours in any factory can only be in between 8 am and 7 pm.
Leaves and Holidays for Factory Workers- Every factory worker who has worked for a minimum of 240
calendar days is entitled to annual leave with wages at the following rates: For an adult, 1 day for every 20
days of work performed by him during the previous calendar year. For a child, one day for every 15 days
of work performed by him during the previous calendar year.
These are the following duties towards factory workers to be taken care by the ultimate owner of the
factory who has control over the affairs of the factory:
• The provision and maintenance of plants and systems of work in the factory that are safe and without
risks to health.
• The arrangements in the factory for ensuring safety and absence of risks to health in connection with
the use, handling, storage and transport of articles and substances.
• The provision of such information, instruction, training and supervision as are necessary to ensure the
health and safety of all workers at work.
• The maintenance of all places of work in the factory in a condition that is safe and without risks to
health and the provision and maintenance of such means of access to, and egress from, such places as
are safe and without such risks.
Q 87. 11601887 DFG boards and doors were an industrial establishment that prepared wooden furniture.
Once the factory received a humongous order which had to be supplied in a short amount of time. In
order to finish the work, night shift was started and women workers in the factory were also made to
work in night shift. Is it violative of provisions Factories act, 1948?
a)
The move is not violative of factories act as it is a temporary measure and would not create any problem.
b)
The introduction of night shift for women is violative of factories act as it clearly prohibits from doing so.
c)
The introduction of night shifts for women is not violative of factories act as there is no provision
prohibiting the same.
d)
The introduction might or might not be violative of provisions as the rules vary from one state to another.
Q 88. 11601887 Ramakasi was a town famous for preparing firecrackers. A factory in Ramakasi was
found to employ hundreds of children aged less than 14 years of age. The factory justified that it was a
simple and non-dangerous work and hence the children were employed. Is the factory justified in their
act?
a) Yes, the factory is justified in hiring children as it is a simple and non-dangerous work.
b)
No, according to factories act 1948 no one below the age of 14 can be hired to work in any industrial
establishments.
c)
No, according to factories act 1948 a maximum of 25 children below the age of 14 can be hired in one
industrial establishment.
d) If the factory can prove that it is a non-dangerous and safe environment, then their act is justified.
Q 89. 11601887 D aged 16 years was working in a factory from 8 am to 8 pm for 5 days a week. Is this
work timings permissible according to the Industries act 1948?
a) Yes, D is made to work only 5 days a week.

b) No, the working cap for children in factories is not more than four and half hours a day.
c) No, the working cap for children in factories is not more than eight and half hours a day
d) Yes, if D signs a consent form, then it is permissible.
Q 90. 11601887 Which of the following is not a duty of the factory owner towards his employee?
a) Safe work environment.
b) Arrangements ensure health related safety.

c) Nutritious meals twice a day.
d) Provision of information, instruction, training and supervision.
Q 91. 11601887 Which of the following is a wrong match?

a) Children - Maximum of 4 and half hour work cap.
b) Women- No night shifts.
c) All factory workers- Daily 9 hours cap.

d) Workers aged between 25 & 30 - 5 hours extra work for extra salary.
Passage – 6
Judiciary in our country is the main pillar of democracy which helps in the smooth functioning of
democracy. Judges are the main aspects of the judiciary. It is mandatory that the judges have to be
efficient in order for the judiciary to be successful.. Judges are respected in our country and people have
lots of faith and hopes in them, thus it is necessary to make sure that the appointment of judges is proper
and not biased.
Article 233 of the Indian Constitution deals with the appointment of District Judges. According to this
article, there are certain qualifications for a person to be appointed as a District Judge, they are:
• The person has to be in practice as an advocate or pleader for seven years or more;
• The person should not be in working in any other services of the Union or the State;
• The person has to be recommended by the High Court for employment.
There are various procedures to be followed before the appointment of District Judges. According to
Article 233, the appointment can be done only after consulting the Governor of the State and also the
Judges of the High Court that is exercising jurisdiction in the State. Article 235 of the Indian Constitution
provides powers to the High Courts to have control over the persons in the judicial service in the district
court and other subordinate courts. Article 233- A validates the appointment of Judges in the district
court that was made before the commencement of the Constitution (Twentieth Amendment) Act, 1966
and they are held to be valid even though they are not in accordance with the provisions of Article 233
and Article 235.
Appointment of High court judge- There are certain qualifications which have to be fulfilled in order to
appoint a person as a judge in the High Courts. The qualifications regarding the appointment are
provided in Article 217. According to the Article,
(a) The person appointed must be a citizen of India;
(b) The person appointed should have held a judicial office in the territory of India for at least ten years;
(c) The person appointed should have been an advocate in the High Court for at least ten years.
Procedure- Article 217 of the Indian Constitution provides the procedure regarding the appointment of
judges in the High Courts. According to this Article,
• The judges of the High Courts can be appointed only by the warrant of the President and his seal;
• The appointment can be done only after consulting the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the
State;
• The appointment of Judges other than the Chief Justice can be done after consulting the Chief Justice
of the High Court;
• The provisions under this article must be followed even while appointing the Additional Judges
according to Article 224.
• The person can hold the office as a judge until he is sixty-two years old;
• The consultation must be very effective, that is all the necessary information about the person being
recommended must be revealed and no information should be hidden in order to facilitate the
appointment;
• The Judges appointed must take an oath before the Governor of the State according to Article 219. The
oath must be according to the form that is provided for the purpose in the Third Schedule.
Q 92. 11601887 R had worked in a district as an advocate for 6 years. His father in law was a high court
judge. This helped him in getting recommendation to become a district court judge. Soon he was
appointed the same. Is the appointment valid?
a)
The appointment of R is valid aSs he has fulfilled the term of experience and also has received
recommendation from the higher court.
b) The appointment of R is not valid as it is clear as the day that his appointment was through nepotism.
c)
The appointment of R is not valid as he does not possess the eligibility to serve as a district court judge.
d) The appointment of R is valid even though it was his father in law who has given the recommendation.
Q 93. 11601887 D was appointed as the judge of the high court. He was a citizen of India and had
worked as a judge of District court for 12 years. Is his appointment valid?
a) The appointment of D is correct and valid.
b) The appointment of D is not valid as he does not possess the minimum experience of 15 years.
c)
The appointment of D is not valid as he has not held a judicial office in the territory of India for at least 10
years.
d)
The appointment of a high court judge has to be done by the collegium based on the expertise of an
individual with law.
Q 94. 11601887 A was a high court judge aged 62 years old. A was nearing retirement, but the court
decided to continue his term as a landmark constitutional law judgement was fast approaching. The
court felt A's expertise was required to deal with the judgement. A delivered the judgment along with the
panel, his age was 63 by then. Is he eligible to hear the judgement?According to the constitution of India
a person can hold the office of judge only until 62 years of age. There is no provision of delaying the
retirement age, hence A is not eligible to hear the case.
a) A is eligible to hear the judgement.

b) The retiring age can be made flexible based on the requirement of the court.
c) A is not eligible to hear the case as he is past his retirement age.
d) A is eligible to hear the judgement as this case falls under exceptional circumstances.
Q 95. 11601887 Which of the following is a wrong combination of article and its provision?
a) Article 219- oath of the judges. b)

Article 224- appointment of additional high court
judges.
c) d) Article 218- Dismissal of a high court judge.
Article 217- Procedure of appointing high court
judges.
Q 96. 11601887 Which of the following is a false statement in light of the above given passage?
a)
According to Article 233, the appointment of district court judges can be done only after consulting the
Governor of the State and also the Judges of the High Court.
b)
Article 217 of the Indian Constitution provides the procedure regarding the appointment of judges in the
High Courts.
c)
Article 240 of the Indian Constitution provides powers to the High Courts to have control over the
persons in the judicial service in the district court and other subordinate courts.
d) Article 233 of the Indian Constitution deals with the appointment of District Judges.
Passage – 7
India is set to adopt the updated version of the Personal Data Protection Bill, which was formulated on
the recommendation of SC in Puttaswamy judgment by a committee led by a retired judge of Supreme
court, Justice B.N. Srikrishna. The bill was proposed in parliament on 11th December 2019 by Ravi
Shankar Prasad (Minister of Electronics and Information) and was subsequently referred to a Joint
Parliamentary Committee under MP Meenakshi Lekhi. The updated act set to debut in the budget session
contains 89 amendments and the addition of a new clause to the bill.
The bill is sought to secure the personal data of millions of Indian citizens using services of foreign-
based companies through mandating Data Localization and ensuring proper checks on Data Fiduciaries
(which includes government, companies including foreign company and social media platforms) for the
protection of data of its users.
The proposed legislation trifurcates Data into 3 categories: Critical (includes data pertaining to defense
and intelligence services as well as payments data from foreign banking services like Visa and
Mastercard), Sensitive (pertaining to Health, Religion, Political orientation, Biometrics, Genetics, Sexual
orientation and Financial data of individuals) and Personal.
While the legislation prohibits the sharing and processing of critical data outside India, it places
limitations on data processing in case of sensitive data, requiring the consent of the user.
The bill also proposes the establishment of Data Protection Authority under section 41(1) of the bill, a
supreme regulatory body to be appointed by the government that will ensure the compliance of the law
by data fiduciaries. The authority will also push for "Data Localization", which mandates the data of
Indians to be stored in India. It however can go outside India for processing (barring critical personal
data) by Data processors. The bill gives an opportunity to the data principal to correct and erase any
personal data.
The legislation identifies instances where data can be accessed without restrictions:
1. For delivering the benefit of state services to the individuals,
2. For taking legal action against individuals, and
3. In cases of medical emergency.
The provisions will also not be applicable to Investigation agencies of the state and to investigative
journalists with necessary safeguards. The government can seek Non-Personal data from data
fiduciaries at any time (section 35) for national security and public order and to improve its services.
The bill also contains the idea of "Data Sovereignty" which empowers the government to access critical
data when it is satisfied that it is in the interest of sovereignty and integrity of India or to prevent any
cognizable offence laid out in section 2 of the Indian Penal Code. The Act is set to put India's Data
protection Laws in line with the European regulations. However, it has not failed to draw several
contentions against its working and the role of the Government in it. The Data Protection bill stands with
much more stringency than EU laid GDPR norms, provides the Centre with wide powers with regards to
the DPA and appointment of Adjudicating officers. It also has many grey areas and undefined words like
"interest of sovereignty and integrity of India", "public order" that can potentially be exploited to create an
"Orwellian State" as warned by Justice B.N. Srikrishna.
Q 97. 11601887 Mehtab Mani was a director of a bank who was accused of financial fraud worth
billions. The police confiscated his credit cards (visa) in order to get more evidence regarding his actions.
Mani contended that it was violative of data protection act as credit cards were considered to be critical
data. Decide.
a)
The police cannot confiscate Mani's credit cards as it is violative of data protection (amendment) act
2019.
b)
The police can confiscate Mani's credit card as legislation identifies exceptions where the data can be
accessed without restrictions.
c) The police can only access sensitive and personal data and not critical data.
d) The police cannot access any data without obtaining a warrant for the same from the magistrate.
Q 98. 11601887 D saved his fingerprint in his mobile phone. One A, a hacker hacked the fingerprint of D
that was on his phone. Which type of personal data has been breached by A in the given case.
a) Biometric data b) Critical data c) Sensitive data d) Personal data
Q 99. 11601887 One R met in an accident and was losing blood. Urgent donation of blood was required.
Since the hospital was unaware of R's blood group, they asked T a hacker to get access to R's Iphone in
hope of getting to know his blood group. T did the same and they identified his blood group which led to
saving his life. Is the act of T violative of Data protection (amendment) act 2019?
a) The act of T is morally and ethically correct but legally wrong.
b) The act of T is justified as it comes under the exceptions provided in the code.
c)
The act of T is not justified as there were other various ways through which the blood group of R could
have been identified.
d) The legality of act of T is to be justified by the court of law.
Q 100. 11601887 Which of the following statements is false in light of the above given passage?
a)
The data protection bill 2019 was proposed in parliament on 11th December 2019 by Ravi Shankar
Prasad.
b)
The data protection bill also proposes the establishment of Data Protection Authority under section 41(1)
of the bill.
c) The proposed legislation trifurcates Data into 2 categories: Critical and sensitive.
d)
The bill sought to secure the personal data of millions of Indian citizens using services of foreign-based
companies through mandating Data Localization as one of the methods.
Q 101. 11601887 Pick the option that has all correct combinations from the following.
(A) The data protection bill 2019 identifies instances where data can be accessed without restrictions-
True.
(B) The data protection bill 2019 is the first of such bills in India- true.
(C) Personal Data Protection Bill, which was formulated on the recommendation of SC in Puttaswamy
judgment - False
(D) Data protection bill has undefined words like "interest of sovereignty and integrity of India", "public
order" etc.- true
a) AB b) ACD c) AD d) BD
Passage – 8
A culprit in a case of Homicide cannot always be culpable. This derives the notion of lawful homicide
where the accused had a valid reason to commit the crime. In these cases, the person will not tend to be
tried by the law and can also be exempted from the charges. These can include death caused in self-
defence or by mistake of fact or there was a bona fide execution of the law etc. Hence Homicide can be
lawful as well as unlawful. Lawful Homicide may include justifiable and excusable homicide. Unlawful
Homicide may include death by rash and negligent act (Sec 304-A), suicide (Sec 309) or culpable
homicide. Culpable homicide is a type of unlawful homicide. Laws regarding culpable homicide are
enshrined in the Indian Penal Code 1862 (IPC). According to which, there are two types of culpable
homicides-
Culpable homicide not amounting to murder-It can be simply referred to as culpable homicide, this
comes under the purview of Section 299 of The Indian Penal Code 1862 which states that:-An act done
with the intention of causing death or causing such bodily injury which is likely to cause death or having
the knowledge that he can likely by his act cause death, he'll be committing the offense of culpable
homicide. After bifurcating the definition, we get 3 conditions which have to be fulfilled to attract Section
299 of the Indian Penal Code these are-
A. The intention of causing death.
B. The intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death.
C. With the knowledge that he is likely by such an act to cause death.
Culpable homicide amounting to murder- It can be simply referred to as Murder, this comes under the
purview of Section 300 of the Indian Penal Code 1862 which states that:
Culpable homicide is murder, if the act is done with the intention of causing death or if it is done with the
intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause the death of the person or if the inflicted bodily
injury is sufficient enough in the ordinary course of nature to cause death or if there is knowledge
involved that the act done is so fatal that in all probability it can cause death or such bodily injury as is
likely to cause death and commits such act without any excuse. After bifurcating the definition, we get 4
conditions which have to be fulfilled to attract Section 300 of the Indian Penal Code these are-
A. The intention of causing death.
B. The intention of causing such bodily injury as the offender knows to be likely to cause the death of the
person to whom the harm is caused.
C. With the intention of causing bodily injury to any person and the bodily injury intended to be inflicted is
sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death.
D. The person committing the act knows that it is so imminently dangerous that it must, in all probability,
cause death or such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, and commits such act without any excuse
for incurring the risk of causing death or such injury as aforesaid.
Q 102. 11601887 D, a mentally ill patient procured a gun and started shooting. B a policeman rushed
after D and tried to stop him. D shot towards B which injured B. B reached D and tried to grab the gun.
While trying to grab the gun from D, the gun blasted off killing D. Is the act of B a lawful or unlawful
homicide?
a) The act of B is an unlawful homicide as he was aware that B was a mentally ill patient.
b) The act of B is not a lawful homicide as he could have tried pacifying D.
c) The act of B is a lawful homicide as the death was caused by mistake and unintentionally.
d) The act of B was lawful homicide because D was a maniac going on a killing spree.
Q 103. 11601887 B was a school teacher. B resorted to corporal punishment and used to slap his
students. He was aware that a hard slap could be fatal. But B resorted to mild slapping. Once B tightly
slapped one of his students A. The slap affected A's brain leading to internal haemorrhage and the death
of A. Decide the culpability of B?
a) B is liable for murder under section 300 of IPC 1860.
b) B is liable for culpable homicide not amounting to murder under section 299.
c) B is liable for rash and negligent acts under IPC 1860.
d) B is not liable as it was an act of god.
Q 104. 11601887 B who was carrying a .22 rifle shot at one D from very close proximity which led to the
death of D. What crime is B liable to under IPC?
a) B is liable for culpable homicide amounting to murder under section 300 of the IPC.
b) B is liable for culpable homicide not amounting to murder under section 299 of the IPC.
c) B is liable under section 299 as a .22 rifle cannot cause death usually.
d) B is liable for murder and culpable homicide under sec 300 and 299 respectively.
Q 105. 11601887 Which of the following statements is true in the light of the passage?
a) Section 299 is more grievous offense than section 300.
b) Murder and culpable homicide amounting to murder are different.
c) Unlawful homicide includes rash and negligent acts (sec 304A).
d) Laws regarding culpable homicide are not enshrined in the Indian Penal Code 1862 (IPC).
Reasoning
Directions for questions 106 to 130: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning and
arguments set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated
or implied in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than the ones
supplied to you. In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a
case, please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
Passage – 1
As schoolchildren, we learn that different weights fall at the same speed. This simple and readily tested
observation, first published by Galileo, refuted Aristotle, who claimed that heavy things fall faster. As
Galileo put it, 'I greatly doubt that Aristotle ever tested by experiment whether it be true.' We are left to
wonder how people could have believed what they were told, and for two millennia at that, without ever
checking? Surely the power of evidence over authority is obvious.
Except it isn't. Even today, evidence has barely begun to upend authority; the world is still more in thrall to
Aristotle than Galileo. As a simple example, the time-honored advice for those suffering from bad backs
has been bed rest. Only recently, though, have we discovered bed rest isn't the best treatment, and isn't
even particularly good compared to moderate activity. How did this discovery come about? A researcher
in the field of Evidence-based Medicine surveyed multiple databases of trials and results for patients with
back pain. (It tells us something about medicine's current form that we even need a term like Evidence-
based Medicine.) And why did it take so long to look at the evidence? Same reason it took so long to
question Aristotle: some doctor in the distant past reasoned that bed rest would be a good idea, and it
became the authoritative and little-questioned view.
In school, the embrace of evidence is often taught as if it were a one-time revolution that has now been
internalized by society. It hasn't. The idea of evidence is consistently radical: Take nothing on faith. No
authority is infallible. If you figure out a good way to test something, you can contradict hallowed figures
with impunity.
Q 106. 11601887 The author provides the example of bad backs in order to:
a) Show that bed rest is not the best treatment for them.
b) Prove that moderate activity is the best treatment for them.
c) Explain that blindly trusting authority led to a suboptimal treatment for them.
d) Point out that aversion to evidence results in ignoring age-old advice.
Q 107. 11601887 'It tells us something about medicine's current form that we even need a term like
Evidence-based Medicine.' What does it tell us?
a) It implies that medicine may not always be evidence based.
b) It indicates that medicine as a discipline is suspicious of evidence.
c) It means that evidence is not normally required in medicine.
d) It suggests that suitable evidence is usually hard to find in medicine.
Q 108. 11601887 What can be inferred about Galileo's attitude towards Aristotle, based on this passage?
a) He speculated that Aristotle never actually tested his theory.

b) He was surprised to learn that Aristotle never actually tested his theory.
c) He mocked Aristotle for never actually testing his theory.
d) He refused to believe that Aristotle never actually tested his theory.
Q 109. 11601887 What is the author's opinion of evidence?
a) He admires the fact that it revolutionized society.
b) He is pleased about its iconoclastic and progressive abilities.
c) He is optimistic about the power of evidence, but advocates using it with caution.
d) He respects its importance, but worries that it will upend cherished beliefs.
Q 110. 11601887 Which of the following can be a possible logical corollary to the passage?
a)
Apologists for religion often bolster their claims by noting that it is impossible to disprove the existence
of supernatural beings.
b)
Most of the really important parts of our lives ·who we love and how, how we live and why, why we lie and
when - have yet to yield their secrets to real evidence.
c)
We have gone from a drought to a flood of data about personal and social behavior in the last generation.
d) Evidence will continue to improve society, but slowly - this is long-view optimism.
Passage – 2
Principle of comparative advantage was first articulated by the British political economist David Ricardo
in 1817.On the basis of a simple model with just two countries and two goods, he showed that every
country would benefit from specializing in what it was relatively best at producing and then engaging in
trade for everything else. Ricardo imagined that Portugal was more productive than England in making
both wine and cloth. Given Portugal's absolute advantage in both industries, why would the Portuguese
ever choose to buy either wine or cloth from England? Ricardo's surprising answer was that both
countries would benefit from trade, so long as both specialized in what they were relatively best at
producing. Although Portugal was better at making both wine and cloth, its advantage was greater in
wine. As a result, Portugal enjoyed a comparative advantage in wine, and, conversely, England enjoyed a
comparative advantage in cloth. Ricardo concluded that if each country followed its comparative
advantage-with Portugal producing only wine and England only cloth-and the two then engaged in trade
with one another, each would be able to consume more wine and more cloth. Economists have since
shown that Ricardo's result can be generalized to as many countries and to as many goods as one wants
to include. Remarkably, most of us tend to live by it in our own personal affairs every day. Take an
investment banker. Even if that investment banker were better at painting houses than any professional
painter in town, she would still probably be wise to focus on investment banking and to pay others to
paint her house for her, rather than to paint it herself. Taking time away from her high-paying investment
banking job in order to paint her house would likely prove quite costly. In order to maximize output, in
other words, it makes sense for each of us to specialize in our comparative advantage and to trade for
the rest.
Q 111. 11601887 Which of the following is not an example of comparative advantage in daily life?
a) A student attending a lecture of astrophysics though he is much more knowledgeable than the faculty.
b)
A high flying corporate executive who was previously a race car driver, hiring a driver for his car so that he
can work on his laptop while commuting.
c)
A single mom who has been recently been awarded the best Montessori teacher hiring a baby-sitter for
her small kids so that she can go to work.
d) Both (a) and (b)
Q 112. 11601887 Which of the following will NOT weaken the argument of the passage above?
a)
Cultural differences between the nations lead to a wide divergence in tastes and habits and therefore
very little of what is produced in one nation is sought in another.
b)
Topographical factors play the most important role in deciding what is to be produced and it is next to
impossible to shift resources towards another item of production.
c)
Trade between nations is subject mostly to their political relations and revision of production
composition can often be wasteful.
d) None of the above
Q 113. 11601887 Which of the following can be inferred from the passage above?
a) Ricardo was a Portuguese economist who resided in Britain.
b) Britain and Portugal did not have trade relations when Ricardo advanced his theory.
c) Wine is heavily consumed in both Britain and Portugal.
Q 114. 11601887 Which of the following would most likely be the essence of the paragraph following
the passage?
a) An example of how comparative advantage can be used in personal life.

b) Negative effects of comparative advantage.
c) Example of the nations who have not used comparative advantage.
d) Detailed definition of comparative advantage.
Q 115. 11601887 Which of the following questions is NOT answered by the passage above?
a) Which country was the first to exercise comparative advantage?
b) How is comparative advantage to be used in daily personal life?

c) Can comparative advantage be used between multiple nations and goods?
d) Does comparative advantage lead to specialization in production?
Passage – 3
Once upon a time, there was a story. It was told, we suppose, to people crouched around a fire: a tale of
adventure, most likely - relating some close encounter with death; a remarkable hunt, an escape from
mortal danger; a vision, or something else out of the ordinary. Whatever its thread, the weaving of this
story was done with a prime purpose. The listeners must be kept listening. They must not fall asleep. So,
as the story went on, its audience should be sustained by one question above all. What happens next?
The first fireside stories in human history can never be known. They were kept in the heads of those who
told them. This method of storage is not necessarily inefficient. From documented oral traditions in
Australia, the Balkans and other parts of the world we know that specialized storytellers and poets can
recite from memory literally thousands of lines, in verse or prose, verbatim - word for word. But while
memory is rightly considered an art in itself, it is clear that a primary purpose of making symbols is to
have a system of reminders or mnemonic cues - signs that assist us to recall certain information in the
mind's eye.
In some Polynesian communities a notched memory stick may help to guide a storyteller through
successive stages of recitation. But in other parts of the world, the activity of storytelling historically
resulted in the development or even the invention of writing systems. One theory about the arrival of
literacy in ancient Greece, for example, argues that the epic tales about the Trojan War and the
wanderings of Odysseus - traditionally attributed to Homer, a blind Ionian bard of the eighth century BCE -
were just so enchanting to hear that they had to be preserved. So, the Greeks, c. 750-700 BCE, borrowed
an alphabet from their neighbours in the eastern Mediterranean, the Phoenicians. A full text of Homer's
verse was not established until over a century later; meanwhile, at least snatches of his matchless oral
expressions could be inscribed on clay and stone.
Q 116. 11601887 This passage can best be described as:
a) A brief history of storytelling. b) An elegy for the art of storytelling.
c) A description of recent changes in storytelling. d) An analysis of different forms of storytelling.
Q 117. 11601887 This passage begins with the phrase 'once upon a time', which is usually the beginning
of a story. Why does the author use this phrase here?
a) He wants to pretend that he is telling a story.
b) He uses it as an homage to his subject, storytelling.
c) He uses it to show that he is talking about the distant past.
d) He uses it for the same reasons it is used in stories.
Q 118. 11601887 Which of the following, if true, would weaken the theory about the arrival of literacy in
ancient Greece?
1. Given that Homer was blind, writing down his epic tales would have been pointless, as he could not
read them.
2. Homer did not create the epic tales attributed to him, but rather simply elaborated on stories from
history and mythology.
3. In a pre-literate world, Homer's epic tales were more likely to be preserved by oral storytelling rather
than by written versions that few people could read.
4. Historians have uncovered evidence that the ancient Greeks were using writing as early as the ninth
century BCE.
a) 1 and 3 b) 4 and 1 c) 2, 3 and 4 d) 3 and 4
Q 119. 11601887 Which of the following can be inferred from this passage?
a) Writing and storytelling developed simultaneously.
b) Writing works better than notched memory sticks as mnemonic cues for storytellers.
c) The North American Ojibway Indians have a long tradition of oral storytelling.
d) The earliest stories were predominantly plot-based.
Q 120. 11601887 Which of the following is true as per the passage above?
a) b) Storytelling resulted in the arrival of literacy.

Story telling led to the development of a writing c) Storytelling brought neighbouring folks together.
system.
Passage – 4
A prison is a trap for catching time, because, for the most part, nothing happens. It isn't the horror of the
time at hand but the unimaginable sameness of the time ahead that makes prisons unendurable for their
inmates. The inmates on death row in Texas are called men in "timeless time," because they alone aren't
serving time: they aren't waiting out five years or a decade or a lifetime. That's why no one who has been
inside a prison, if only for a day, can ever forget the feeling. Time stops. A note of attenuated panic, of
watchful paranoia-anxiety and boredom and fear mixed into a kind of enveloping fog, covering the guards
as much as the guarded: the guards are doing time, too. For American prisoners, huge numbers of whom
are serving sentences much longer than those given for similar crimes anywhere else in the civilized
world-Texas alone has sentenced more than four hundred teenagers to life imprisonment-time becomes
in every sense this thing you serve. For most privileged, professional people, the experience of
confinement is a mere brush, encountered after a kid's arrest, say. For a great many poor people in
America, particularly poor black men, prison is a destination that braids through an ordinary life, much as
high school and college do for rich white ones. More than half of all black men without a high-school
diploma go to prison at some time in their lives. Mass incarceration on a scale almost unexampled in
human history is a fundamental fact of our country today. The scale and the brutality of our prisons are
the moral scandal of American life. Every day, at least fifty thousand menwake in solitary confinement,
often in "supermax" prisons or prison wings, in which men are locked in small cells, where they see no
one, cannot freely read and write, and are allowed out just once a day for an hour's solo "exercise." Prison
rape is so endemic that it is standard fodder for comedy every night on television.
Q 121. 11601887 The author criticizes all of the following as an unacceptable fact of American prisons
EXCEPT:
a) The scale and scope of prison sentences not being commensurate with the crime.
b) The brutality and torture meted out daily to prisoners.

c) Laxity of punishment given to the privileged people in the society.
d) All of the above
Q 122. 11601887 According to the author what is the biggest factor which makes prisons unendurable
for the prisoners?
a) Monotonous routine and mundane existence b) Fear mixed with boredom
c) Each day being absolutely identical to another d) Inevitability of the punishment
Q 123. 11601887 Which of the following CANNOT be inferred from the passage?
a) Most people think that brutality in prison is justified and part of the punishment.
b) The prison guards also suffer the feelings of ennui and restraint.
c) Imprisonment of black people has become almost an epidemic.
d) If truly reported, viewers won't find any entertainment in the life of prisoners.
Q 124. 11601887 Which of the following is the main idea of the passage?
a) In prison you have enough time to introspect.
b) In prison you are a slave to the time.
c) In prison you are punished by lack of activity.
d) Prisoners are likely to lose their mental balance and engage in violent conduct.
Q 125. 11601887 As per the passage, which of the following can be inferred as an advantage of being in
the prison?
a) You have complete solitude to pursue your literary interests.
b) You have enough time to meditate and ponder over your life.
c) You get freedom from the frenzied life of the outside world.
Passage – 5
If I were placed in the cockpit of a modern jet airliner, my inability to use the machines there would neither
surprise nor bother me. But why should I have trouble with ordinary devices such as doors and light
switches, water faucets and stoves? 'Doors?' I can hear the reader saying. 'You have trouble opening
doors?' Yes. I push doors that are meant to be pulled, pull doors that should be pushed, and walk into
doors that neither pull nor push, but slide. Moreover, I see others having the same troubles - unnecessary
troubles. How can such a simple thing as a door be so confusing? The design of the door should indicate
how to work it without any need for signs, certainly without any need for trial and error.
This problem with doors illustrates what happens when design fails. Whether the device is a door or a
stove, a mobile phone or a nuclear power plant, the relevant components must be visible, and they must
communicate the correct message: What actions are possible? Where and how should they be done?
With doors that push, the designer must provide signals that naturally indicate where to push. These
need not destroy the aesthetics. Put a vertical plate on the side to be pushed and a handle where it is to
be pulled. These are naturally interpreted signals, making it easy to know just what to do: no labels
needed.
By human standards, machines are pretty limited. They usually follow rather simple, rigid rules of
behaviour. If we get the rules wrong even slightly, the machine does what it is told, no matter how
insensible and illogical. People are imaginative and creative, filled with common sense - that is, a lot of
valuable knowledge built up over years of experience. But instead of capitalizing on these strengths,
machines require us to be precise and accurate, things we are not very good at. Moreover, many of the
rules followed by a machine are known only to the machine and its designers.
Q 126. 11601887 What is the author's attitude towards machines/devices?
a) He dislikes them and wishes people were less dependent on them.
b) He thinks that they need to be simpler and easier to use.
c) He believes that they must be designed well in order to be easier to use.
d) He is indifferent to their practical uses and talks only about their design.
Q 127. 11601887 Why does the author have trouble opening doors?
a) He does not understand that some doors are meant to be pushed and others pulled.
b)
He blames the designers of doors for not making it clear which way the doors are meant to be opened.
c)
He is confused by the non-intuitive design of the doors, which gives no indication how the doors are to be
opened.
d) He does not really have any trouble; he merely claims he does as a rhetorical ploy.
Q 128. 11601887 Which of these would the author definitely agree with?

a) It is up to the users of a machine to understand how it works.
b) The design of machines fails to take advantage of humans' strengths.
c) Designing useful machines involves a lot of creativity and imagination.

d) Machines should be our servants and not our slaves.
Q 129. 11601887 Which of the following can be inferred from the passage above?
a) The human mind is tailored to make sense of the world.
b) Lack of simplicity regarding the operation of the system makes it difficult to be handled.
c) First time users of an equipment find it difficult to operate it.
d) The mind of machines is known to the machine only
Q 130. 11601887 Which of the following is true as per the passage above?
a) A door poses only two questions: In which direction does it move? On which side should one work it?
b)
The details of the operation of a machine should be evident by the design, without any need for words or
symbols.
c) Poorly designed objects are frustrating to use.
d) One of the most important principles of design is aesthetics.
Directions for questions 131 to 133: Following is an array of questions to test your reasoning ability in
different situations. Answer each of them according to the question asked in each of them respectively:
Q 131. 11601887 Most of us can't sing and we don't know how to dance. There's nothing creative about
us and we plod through our lives feeling simply regular. The last exciting thing we experienced was
getting President's Day off. Brit can dance and can sing, and we hate her for it. So, we dominate her. We
use her to make a few bucks and add some temporary excitement to our lives. We tear her down to feel
creative and lift ourselves up. We're the insane ones. In no time at all, a decade or so, we've ground her to
dust. The predators have killed the golden calf and are shopping around for a new one, another human
bubble to feed the pain industry that never stops growing. Watch out Miley, they're coming for you next. In
a world of predatory greed, Britney, like so many others, never had a chance. She was just too profitable.
Which of the following is the logical corollary to the passage above?
a) b) And profit is the mother of all evils

No one can remain sane when they become a c) Britney was too good to be true
commodity.
d) It's the same story over and over again
Q 132. 11601887 Gaurav: Clearly, capital punishment has failed in our country. In the last 75 years,
majority of those found guilty of the 'rarest of rare' crimes have come from underprivileged or
impoverished background. These people had no access to education or jobs. So, instead of murdering
such people, the government should, instead, focus on improving the conditions of the poor or the
impoverished in the nation. This will act as a better deterrent than capital punishment.
Saurav: You are wrong. In the last decade, only terrorists or rapists have been given the capital
punishment. And it is a well-known fact that many terrorists are actually well-read people. Furthermore,
psychologists have clearly stated that many of these criminals have a predetermined mindset which is
the result of societal, not economic, conditionings. The government can't change the society.
Which of the following best describes Saurav's response to Gaurav?
a) Saurav misinterprets Gaurav's intention and tries to challenge him in a personal manner.
b) Saurav partially agrees with Gaurav but doesn't agree with his attitude towards the role of governance.
c) Saurav provides an alternate explanation for the theory promulgated by Gaurav.
d) Saurav turns a very narrow argument into a question of universal significance.
Q 133. 11601887 Statement: This Physics guide is written in such a simple language and describes
concepts in such a way that even if there is no faculty available, an average student can easily
understand Physics from it.
Assumptions:
I. An average student wants to study Physics without a faculty.
II. A faculty may not always be present to teach Physics.
III. An average student usually finds it hard to learn Physics on their own.
a) b) c) d) All are implicit.

Only I and II are implicit. Only II and III are implicit. Only I and III are implicit.
Q 134. 11601887 Six books - B1, B2, B3, B4, B5 and B6 - are kept next to each other in a row, not
necessarily in that order. There are two books between B4 and B1. B3, which is kept to the immediate left
of B2, is kept to the right of B5, which is kept at one of the extreme ends. Further B1 is kept to the left of
B6.
How many books are there whose positions can be determined uniquely?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
Q 135. 11601887 Each of the five professors - A, B, C, D and E - belongs to a different department from
among P, Q, R, S and T. Only one department is assigned to a professor. It is also known that, A belongs to
either R or P. B belongs to neither P nor T. C belongs to either T or R. E belongs to Q. D belongs to either S
or R.
Who belongs to department P?
a) A b) B c) C d) D
Quantitative Techniques
Directions for questions 136 to 140: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The two bar graphs given below show the income and expenditure (in Rs.) of six families. The Line graph
given below shows the members in each family. Assume Savings = Income – Expenses.
Q 136. 11601887 Which family has the highest savings per member?
a) Singh b) Bose c) Datta d) Khanna
Q 137. 11601887 What is the highest income per member of any family?
a) Rs.6,800 b) Rs.6,000 c) Rs.5,000 d) Rs.6,500
Q 138. 11601887 In the Singh family one member died and two girls got married and went to live with
their husbands. What is the percentage increase in the savings per member in the Singh family?
a) 15% b) 30% c) 18% d) 20%
Q 139. 11601887 If all the members of these six families get Covid-19 vaccination this month for which
they have to pay Rs.250 per head, then what is the total savings of the six families at the end of the
month?
a) Rs.22,500 b) Rs.25,450 c) Rs.24,500 d) Rs.25,650
Q 140. 11601887 In the Sharma family the average expenditure per head for transportation used to be
Rs.1,000 which has become zero as all of them are at home because of the lockdown but their monthly
internet expenses have increased by Rs.4,800. What is the percentage increase or decrease in savings
per member in the Sharma family?
a) 40% b) 140% c) 70% d) 120%
The table given below shows the total production, damaged pieces, cost price, marked price and discount
of five items produced by a company.
Q 141. 11601887 What is the percentage profit earned by the sales of item A if a discount of 10% is
offered and 50 pieces are damaged?
a) 25% b) 30% c) 35% d) 38%
Q 142. 11601887 If a discount of 10% is offered on item C and a profit of 13.4% is earned, then how
many pieces of item C are damaged?
a) 80 b) 100 c) 125 d) 75
Q 143. 11601887 If 800 pieces of item B are produced and the profit earned is 40%, then what is the cost
price per piece of item B?
a) Rs.200 b) Rs.180 c) Rs.220 d) Rs.320
Q 144. 11601887 If 150 pieces of item E are damaged, the total cost price of which is Rs.12,000, then
what is the total profit earned by the sales of item E?
a) Rs.7,200 b) Rs.8,000 c) Rs.7,500 d) Rs.8,400
Q 145. 11601887 If there is 14% profit on the sales of item D, then what is the marked price per piece?
a) Rs.200 b) Rs.180 c) Rs.150 d) Rs.120
There is a square field of side length 40 feet. A contractor leaves a 4 feet wide path on all sides and in the
remaining part of the field he designs a square playground in the form of a chessboard. There are a total
of 32 black and 32 white squares made of marble tiles. Black marble costs Rs.40 per square foot
whereas white marble is Rs.35 per square foot. The path is covered in grey marble which is Rs.25 per
square foot.
(Note: A chessboard has 64 squares. 32 black and 32 white squares.)
Q 146. 11601887 What is the total cost of black and white marble used in the square playground in the
form of chessboard?
a) Rs.20,480 b) Rs.38,400 c) Rs,17,920 d) Rs,34,800
square foot.
Q 147. 11601887 What is the cost of tiling the path around the square playground in the form of
chessboard?
a) Rs.12,000 b) Rs.16,800 c) Rs.14,400 d) Rs.14,800
square foot.
Q 148. 11601887 Four children - A, B, C and D - are playing in the playground. Each one gives a
statement. Select the statement that is true.
a) A says that exactly 64 squares can be counted on the square playground in the form of chessboard.
b) B says that 160 squares can be counted on the square playground in the form of chessboard.
c) C says that 224 squares can be counted on the square playground in the form of chessboard.
d) D says that there are exactly 204 squares on the square playground in the form of chessboard.
Q 149. 11601887 Chintu and Mintu are playing on the square playground in the form of chessboard.
Chintu stands on a black square and Mintu has to stand on a white square such that they are neither on
the same row nor on the same column. In how many ways can they choose their places?
a) 768 b) 1024 c) 512 d) 786
Q 150. 11601887 What will be the cost of polishing the floor of the square playground and the path at
the rate of Rs.7.50 per square foot?
a) Rs.15,000 b) Rs.30,000 c) Rs.12,000 d) Rs.7,500

How the Brain Learns and the Theory of Autism

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LST Mock 59 2021 (CLAT)

a) Mumbai, which is otherwise a crowded city, is less crowded on weekends.

a) a criterion that differentiates normal events from deviations

b) a measure of discrepancy between predictions and sensory data

Q 5. 11601887 What is the meaning of the word 'cusp' occurring in the passage?

b) a point at which the direction of a curve is abruptly reversed

c) the initial point of an astrological sign or house

b) Our emotional attachment to a life form after allowing it to go extinct

Q 8. 11601887 At a conference on Artiﬁcial Intelligence, Alexandra Daisy Ginsberg is LEAST likely to

c) Artiﬁcial Intelligence could overtake biological evolution and supersede humans.

a) The Substitute created awareness about the extinction of wild animals.

c) Using technology to engender affection for extinct species.

a) August is an ideal time for movie viewing.

a) Ray's movies teach one a lot about life and nature.

Q 13. 11601887 Which of the following CANNOT be inferred about Ray's movies?

a) They were mostly social satires.

d) They were intended to provoke the viewers into thought.

a) Present disparaging views about Indian movies

b) Reminisce about old Indian classic movies

a) Money was a precursor to barter. b)

a) The assumptions underlying the barter system are unsustainable on scrutiny.

b) Modern economic theory is unable to ascribe objective value to money.

Q 20. 11601887 The author's critics would argue that:

a) Lack of evidence is not evidence against something.

b) There is evidence of societies that subsisted without money, or barter.

c) Certain forms of credit are older than money or barter.

a) Technology inﬂuencing the contours and dynamics of a human interaction.

b) Human beings being reduced to binary codes.

d) Technology reducing the dynamism of human behaviour and making it static.

a) Only I b) Only II c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II

a) Most of the e-waste in India is illegally recycled in the informal sector.

c) Households are a major contributor to e-waste generation in the world.

d) Being a fast growing economy further complicates India's e-waste problem.

a) Consumerism and the 'throw-away' culture in the developed world

a) Impact on early stages of child-rearing b) Skin ailments

c) Neurological Issues d) Hair loss

a) Only statement 1 is correct. b) Only statement 2 is correct

c) Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct d) Statements 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

a) Mahar b) Maratha c) Lambadies d) Koyas

c) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India d) S. R. Bommai v. Union of India

a) Article 13 b) Article 14 c) Article 19 d) Article 21

a) 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act b) 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act

c) 104th Constitutional Amendment Act d) 102th Constitutional Amendment Act

a) 5 b) 7 c) 10 d) 12

a) b) c) d)

a) Bank rate b) Repo rate c) Reverse Repo rate d)

a) Rs.5 lakh b) Rs.10 lakh c) Rs.15 lakh d) Rs.20 lakh

d) All of the above

a) FOREX SWAP b) LTROs (Long Term Repo Operations)

c) OMOs (Open Market Operations) d) All of the above

a) Moors b) Druze c) Pastun d) Uighurs

a) Rohingyas b) Hamas c) Berbars d) Kurds

a) India b) China c) Bangladesh d) USA

a) New York b) Paris c) London d) Geneva

b) However, no means are available to the ICJ to enforce it.

a) The Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897 b) Disaster Management Act, 2005

a) President of India b) Prime Minister of India

c) Union Home Minister d)

a) b) c) d) Hyderabad

c) d) Union Ministry of Science and Technology

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3