CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

(Academic Session : 2022 - 2023)

TARGET : PRE - MEDICAL : 2024

CLASS : NURTURE (XI) (PHASE - I TO III)
Test Type: Test Date : 10 - 08 - 2022 Test Pattern:
Time : 3 Hours 20 minutes INTERNAL TEST - 03 Maximum Marks : 720

Instructions
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
1. This Question Paper contains 200 questions.
2. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in
any form are not allowed.
4. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
5. Do not Tamper/ mutilate the ORS orthis booklet.
6. How to fill response on OMR (Assuming answer is (1))
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
Correct Method: Wrong Method:
7. Write your ALLEN Form Number, Student's Name, Father's Name and Class with pen in appropriate boxes.
Do not write these any where else.
8. Darken the appropriate bubbles on ORS with blue / black ball point pen only.
B. Question paper format and Marking scheme:
9. The question paper consists of 4 SUBJECTS (Physics, Chemistry, Botany & Zoology). Each subject consists of
50 Multiple Choice Single Correct Questions and two sections. Section A will consist of 35 questions and Section B will
have 15 questions. Out of 15 questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 questions.
10. For each question you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.
 PRE-MEDICAL - 2024

NURTURE COURSE (PHASE - I TO III)

INTERNAL TEST - 03 DATE : 10 - 08 - 2022

SYLLABUS

PHYSICS : Mathematical Tools, Vectors, Rectilinear Motion.

CHEMISTRY : Atomic Structure (Quantum Numbers, Electronic Configuration) &

Period Classification (Modern periodic law and present form of the

periodic table, s, p, d and f block elements.NO PERIODIC TRENDS)

BOTANY : Biological classification (till Monera).

ZOOLOGY : Animal Kingdom (upto Arthropoda).

 HAVE CONTROL  HAVE PATIENCE  HAVE CONFIDENCE  100% SUCCESS
PHYSICS
SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140) 5. Which of the following is true statement ?
 This section contains 35 questions. (1) Parallel vectors are also equal vectors
 For each question, darken the bubble (2) Equal vectors are also parallel vectors
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS. (3) Two vectors of equal magnitude are equal
 For each question, marks will be awarded in one vectors
of the following categories : (4) Two vectors along same direction are equal
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble vectors
corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
dx
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is 6.  2x  5 
darkened.
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases l n  2 x  5
(1) l n  2 x  5   c (2) c
1 1 1 2
1. Find the sum S  1   2  3  ....... if x = 2
x x x l n  2 x  5
(3) c (4) l n  2 x   c
1 4
(1) Infinite (2) 7. A vector makes an angle ,  &  with x-axis,
2
(3) 2 (4) 0.2 1
y-axis and z-axis respectively. cos   ,
dy 3
2. Find
dx

if y  sin x  5 .
2
 1
cos   . The value of cos  is.

(1) cos x  5
2
 
(2) 2x cos x  5
2
 6

1 1
(3) cos x  
2
(4) 2x cos x 
2
(1)
2
(2)
2
3. Find the sum and product of roots of equation
1
3x 2  2x  6  0 (3) (4) 1
4
2 2    
(1) , 2 (2)  , 2 8. If A  ˆi  2ˆj  kˆ and B  2iˆ  ˆj  3kˆ then A.B is
3 3
(1) 3 (2) –3
3 3 (3) 2 (4) –2
(3) ,2 (4)  , 2
2 2 9. The x-component of velocity of a particle is
4. The graph of y  sin  x  is shown here. Consider +1 m/s and y-component of velocity is  3m / s
the point A, B, C then the net velocity vector makes angle  with y-
axis. Value of  is
A
(1) 45° (2) 30°
B (3) 60° (4) 37°
 
C 10. Vectors A & B are 3iˆ  ˆj  2kˆ and ˆi  3jˆ  4kˆ
 
(1) Slope at A is non-zero and positive respectively. Then A  B is
(2) Slope at B is zero (1) 2iˆ  2ˆj  2kˆ (2) 4iˆ  2ˆj  2kˆ
(3) Slope at B is negative
(3) 4iˆ  2ˆj  6kˆ (4) 4iˆ  2ˆj  6kˆ
(4) Slope at C is negative
  
11. If the vector 6iˆ  2ˆj  10kˆ is perpendicular to 18. A  2iˆ  3jˆ , then angle between A and
ˆi  ˆj   kˆ the value of  is y-axis is

(1) –0.1 (2) –0.2 1  3 

(2) tan 1  
2
(1) tan  
(3) –0.3 (4) –0.4  2  3
 
12. Vector A points vertically upwards and vector B 2
  (3) sin 1  2  (4) cos 1  
towards south. Then B  A is in which direction? 3
 3
(1) East 

(2) West   
19. If a  2iˆ  3jˆ , b  2ˆj  3kˆ , then
(3) North  
(4) Vertically Downward  a  b  . a  b  is
 
13. If three vectors satisfy the relation A.B  0 (1) –8 (2) +8
   (3) 10 (4) 0
and A.C  0 then A can be parallel to
  20. Dot product of two orthogonal vectors is
(1) C (2) B
(1) 0 (2) 1
  
(3) B  C (4) B.C (3) î (4) i
 
14. log 2 32 is 21. If A  ˆi  2ˆj  3kˆ and B  3iˆ  2ˆj  kˆ then which
(1) 2 (2) 3 is wrong equation?
 
(3) 4 (4) 5
  
(1) A  B  4 ˆi  ˆj  kˆ (2) A  B  2iˆ  2kˆ
15. Find the value of sin  74     
(3) A  B  4 (4) A  B  0
7 24
(1) (2) 22. A man walks for some time ‘t’ with velocity (v) due
25 25 east. Then he walks for same time ‘t’ with velocity
(v) due north. The average speed of the man is :
1 1
(3) (4) (1) 2v (2) 2v
2 2 2
  v
16. If P  Q then which of the following is not (3) v (4)
2
correct.
23. An object travels 10 km at a speed of 100 m/s
ˆ
(1) P̂  Q ˆ
(2) P̂  Q and another 10 km at 50 m/s. The average speed
over the whole distance is :
 
ˆ  QPˆ
(3) PQ ˆ
(4) P  Q  Pˆ  Q (1) 75 m/s (2) 55 m/s
(3) 66.7 m/s (4) 33.3 m/s
 
17. The value of ˆi  ˆj  kˆ is 24. The numerical ratio of magnitude of average velocity
to the average speed is

(1) î (2) 0 (1) Always less than one
(2) Always equal to one
(3) ĵ (4) k̂
(3) Always more than one
(4) Equal to or less than one
25. The equation of curve is given by 32. The dot product of two vectors of magnitudes
y = 4x2 + 2x – 3 3 units and 5 units cannot be :-
the slope of curve at (2, 3) is equal to – (i) – 20 (ii) 16
(1) 10 (2) 14 (iii) – 10 (iv) 14
(3) 16 (4) 18 (1) (i, iii) (2) (i, ii)
2
(3) (i, iv) (4) (ii, iii, iv)
 h 33. Area bounded by curve y = sin x, with x-axis, when
26. Find  1   if h  R
 R

x varies from 0 to is :-
h2
2h 2h 2
(1) 1   (2) 1 
R 2
R R (1) 1 unit (2) 2 units
(3) 3 units (4) 0
2h h
(3) 1  (4) 1   
R R 34. If A  3iˆ  4ˆj and B  6iˆ  8jˆ , select correct
   alternatives :-
27. What is the value of linear velocity  v   r  , if  
(i) A  B  50 (ii) 2A = B
 
  3iˆ  4ˆj  kˆ and r  5iˆ  6ˆj  6kˆ ? 
(iii) Aˆ B ˆ (iv) Aˆ B ˆ 0
(1) 4iˆ  13jˆ  6kˆ (2) 6iˆ  2ˆj  3kˆ (1) (i, ii) (2) (ii, iii)
(3) 6iˆ  2ˆj  8kˆ (4) 18iˆ  13jˆ  2kˆ (3) (i, iv) (4) (i, ii, iii, iv)
35. The equation of straight line shown in figure is :
 
28. The angle between the vectors ˆi  ˆj and ˆj  kˆ   y
is :- 8
(1) 90° (2) 180°
(3) 0° (4) 60° x
0 4 6
29. From the figure, the correct relation is –

(1) 6x + 8y = 15 (2) 4x + 3y = 18
(3) 2y + 6x = 7 (4) 3y + 4x = 24

      
(1) A  B  E  0 (2) C  D   A
   
(3) B  E  C   D (4) All of the above
30. The magnitude of projection of vector 3iˆ  4kˆ on
y-axis.
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 3 (4) Zero
  
31. If A  B  C then find out the correct one :-
   
(1) A  B  0 (2) A  C  0
    
(3) B  C  0 
(4) A  B  C  0 
 SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40)  1 
 This section contains 15 questions.
41. The value of   cos 2  dx is
x
 Attempt any 10 questions. 1 1
(1)  c (2) c
 For each question, darken the bubble cos x cos x
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
sin x cos x
 For each question, marks will be awarded in one (3) c (4) c
cos x sin x
of the following categories :  
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble 42. If 
A  ˆi  ˆj  kˆ   
m and B  2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ m
corresponding to the correct option is darkened. represent the two sides of parallelogram then find
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is the magnitude of area of parallelogram
darkened.
(1) 14 m 2 (2) 4 m2
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
 
36. The resultant of A and B makes an angle  (3) 12 m 2 (4) 3 m2
 
with A and  with B then 43. Two force P & Q are acting at a point such that if
force P is reversed then the resultant’s direction is
(1)    always (2)    if A < B turned by 90° then
(3)    if A > B (4)    if A = B (1) P = Q
  (2) P = 2Q
37. If A  2iˆ  3jˆ and B  ˆi  ˆj . Then the component
  Q
of A along B is (3) P 
2

(1)
2
 
1 ˆ ˆ
ij (2)
2
 
5 ˆ ˆ
ij (4) Data insufficient
44. The magnitude of average velocity is equal to the
average speed when a particle moves :
(3)
2
 
5 ˆ ˆ
ij (4)
7 ˆ ˆ
2
i j   (1) on a curved path
(2) in the same direction
   
38. If A  B  4 & A . B  4 3 (3) with constant acceleration
  (4) with constant retardation
then angle between A and B is 45. A particle is moving in a circular path of radius
(1) 30° (2) 60° 10 m with constant speed 20 m/s. Its change in
(3) 45° (4) 15° velocity when its radius vector turned 60o is :
39. Which of the following forces cannot be a resultant (1) Zero (2) 20 m/s
of 5 N and 7 N force
20
(1) 2 N (2) 10 N (3) 20 3 m s (4) ms
3
(3) 14 N (4) 5 N
  46. A particle moving in a straight line covers half the
40. ˆ B  ˆi  ˆj  2kˆ ; C  2 ˆj  kˆ ;
If A  3iˆ  2ˆj  2k; distance with speed of 3 m/s. The other half of the
   distance covered in two equal time intervals with

D  ˆi  nkˆ then find n if A  B is  speed of 4.5 m/s and 7.5 m/s respectively. The aver-
  age speed of the particle during this motion is :-
perpendicular to C  D .
(1) 4.0 m/s (2) 5.0 m/s
(1) 2 (2) 1
(3) 5.5 m/s (4) 4.8 m/s
(3) 3 (4) 4
 2 50. If impulse of a force is given by
47. If a car covers th of the total distance with v1
5
t2
3 I   Fdt
t1
speed and th distance with v2, then average speed
5
is :-
1 v1  v 2
(1) v1v2 (2)
2 2

2v1v 2 5v1v 2
(3) v  v (4) 3v  2v
1 2 1 2

     
48. If v1  v 2  v1  v 2 and v1 and v 2 are finite, then then impulse of force F from 2 seconds to
:- 6 seconds is :- [In S.I. unit]
  (1) 30 (2) 20
(1) v1 is parallel to v 2
  (3) 40 (4) NOT
(2) v1  v 2
 
(3) v1  v 2
 
(4) v1 and v 2 are mutually perpendicular

49. The graph of equation y  2x  4x 2 is –

x
(1)

x
(2)

(3) x

(4) x
 CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140) 56. Find out number of incorrect statements:
 This section contains 35 questions. 2
(a)  is known as probability density
 For each question, darken the bubble
2
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS. (b) Square of the orbital wave function is 
 For each question, marks will be awarded in one
2
of the following categories : (c) From the value of  it is possible to predict
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble the probability of electron around nucleus.
corresponding to the correct option is darkened. (1) Only (a) (2) (a) & (b)
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is (3) (a) & (c) (4) (a), (b) & (c)
darkened. 57. Find out number of allowed orbitals in 3rd shell:
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
(1) 6 (2) 8
51. “Atomic number is more fundamental property of
(3) 9 (4) 4
an element than it’s atomic mass” this statement is
given by: 58. If size of an orbital increases with increase of
principal quantum number ‘n’. Then find out
(1) Mendeleev (2) Henry moseley
incorrect option:
(3) Doberiner (4) Newland
(1) Size of 1s < 2s (2) Size of 2s < 3s
52. Choose the element which will not show diagonal
(3) Size of 3s > 1s (4) Size of 1s > 2s
relationship?
59. What is the value of ‘l’ for sub-shell ‘h’?
(1) Li (2) Be
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) B (4) C
(3) 1 (4) 5
53. Which of the following is a Doberiner triads?
60. Shape of d-orbital:
(1) Li, Na, K (2) Cl, Br, I
(1) Spherical (2) Dumb-bell
(3) Ca, Sr, Ba (4) All of the above
(3) Double dumb-bell (4) Complex shape
54. Match the following:
61. Energy of orbitals in Hydrogen atom:
Period number Number of elements
(1) 1s < 2s = 2p < 3s (2) 1s < 2s < 2p < 3s
(a) 2 (i) 2
(3) 4s = 4p = 4d = 4f (4) Both (1) and (3)
(b) 4 (ii) 8
62. Statement-I: The energies of the orbitals in the
(c) 6 (iii) 18
same subshell decreases with increase in the atomic
(d) 1 (iv) 32 number.
(1) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv) Statement-II: The energy of 2s orbital of hydrogen
(2) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i) atom is greater than that of 2s orbtial of Lithium.
(3) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i) (1) Statement-I is only correct
(4) (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv) (2) Statement-II is only correct
55. According to IUPAC nomenclature what is the (3) Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
symbol of element with atomic number 112? (4) Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(1) Unb (2) Uub
(3) Unt (4) Unv
63. Which of the following set of quantum numbers is 70. In the absence of Pauli’s exclusion principle the
not possible? electronic configuration of Li is:
1 (1) 1s3 (2) 1s2 2p1
(1) n  2,   0, m  1, s   (3) 1s2 2s1 (4) 1s1 2s1 2p1
2
71. Mendeleev’s periodic law is on the basis of:
1
(2) n  3,   2, m  0, s   (1) Atomic number
2 (2) Atomic weight
1 (3) Molar mass
(3) n  3,   2, m  0, s  
2 (4) Number of neutrons
72. The electronic configuration of d-block elements
1
(4) n  2,   1, m  0, s   is:
2
(1) (n – 1)d1–10 ns2 (2) (n – 1)d1–10 ns0–2
64. Choose the incorrect electronic configuration:
(3) (n – 1)d0–10 ns1–2 (4) (n – 1)d0–10 ns0–2
(1) N (Z = 7) : [He] 2s2 2p3
73. In the periodic table period indicates the value of:
(2) Fe (Z = 26) : [Ar] 3d6 4s2
(1) Atomic number
(3) Cr (Z = 24) : [Ar] 3d5 4s1
(2) Atomic mass
(4) Cu (Z = 29) : [Ar] 3d9 4s2
(3) Principal quantum number
65. Find out number of unpaired electrons in M n + 2
(4) Azimuthal quantum number
ion:
74. Which of the following atomic numbers do not
(1) 6 (2) 7
represent representative element?
(3) 5 (4) 4
(1) 11 (2) 15
66. Which orbital diagram does not obey Aufbau
(3) 13 (4) 18
principle?
75. Identify semi metal in the following:
(1) (2) (1) Au (2) Hg
(3) (4) (3) Si (4) Na
76. Find out the group number of Livermorium in long
67. Total number of nodes in 4f orbitals:
form of periodic table:
(1) 1 (2) 3
(1) 9 (2) 12
(3) 2 (4) 4
(3) 16 (4) 15
68. What is the lowest value of ‘n’ that allows ‘g’ orbitals
77. Which of the following element is not non-transition
to exist?
element?
(1) 1 (2) 5
(1) Zn (2) Cd
(3) 3 (4) 4
(3) Cn (4) Pd
69. Match the following:
78. Azimuthal quantum number ‘l’ is also known as
Column-A Column-B
(1) Orbital angular quantum number
(a) Z = 20 (i) Group number: 14
(2) Subsidiary quantum number
(b) Z = 50 (ii) Group number: 2
(3) Secondary quantum number
(c) Z = 36 (iii) Group number: 4
(4) All the above
(d) Z = 22 (iv) Group number: 18
79. The orbital angular momentum of 4s subshell:
(1) (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)
(1) 2 (2) Zero
(2) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)
(3) (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii) h
(4) (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)
(3) 6 (4) 12
2
80. Match the following: SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40)
Sub-shell  This section contains 15 questions.
Value of ‘l’
Notation
 Attempt any 10 questions.
(a) 2p (i) 0
(b) 3s (ii) 3  For each question, darken the bubble
(c) 4d (iii) 1 corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
(d) 5f (iv) 2
 For each question, marks will be awarded in one
(1) a-iii; b-i, c-ii, d-iv (2) a-iii; b-i, c-iv, d-ii
of the following categories :
(3) a-iii; b-ii, c-i, d-iv (4) a-ii; b-iii, c-iv, d-i
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
81. The number of electrons in particular shell is equal corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
to 2n2. Find out number of electrons present in
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is
N-shell:
darkened.
(1) 2 (2) 8
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
(3) 18 (4) 32
86. Find out number of incorrect statements according
82. Assertion: Cr have 5 electrons in 3d orbitals rather to azimuthal quantum number:
than four.
(a) It defines the three-dimensional shape of the
Reason: Half filled orbitals have extra statbility. orbital
(1) Assertion is true, Reason is false. (b) Number of ‘l’ values is equal to shell number
(2) Assertion is false, Reason is true. (c) Each shell consists of two or more sub-shells
(3) Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is (1) Only (a) (2) Both (a) & (c)
not correct explanation for Assertion.
(3) Only (c) (4) (a), (b) & (c)
(4) Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
87. The number of electrons in a particular subshell is
correct explanation for Assertion.
equal to 2(2l + 1), then find out number of electrons
83. Four quantum numbers of unpaired electron of in an orbital of P-subshell:
chlorine are:
(1) 2 (2) 6
1 (3) 7 (4) 19
(1) n  3,   2, m  0, s  
2
88.
1
(2) n  3,   1, m  0, s   2 (r)
2
(3) n  3,   1, m  1, s  0

1 r (nm)
(4) n  3,   0, m  1, s  
2 The above plot represents which of the following
84. Element with atomic number 52 will be placed in orbital?
which period? (1) 1s (2) 2s
(1) 2nd (2) 3rd (3) 2d (4) 3f
(3) 4th (4) 5th
85. The electronic configuration of an element is
[Ar]3d10 4s1. What is the atomic number of next
element in the same group?
(1) 29 (2) 37
(3) 47 (4) 48
89. Assertion: The energy order of orbitals in 94. Match the following:
nitrogen atom is 1s < 2s < 2p. Column-A Column-B
Reason: In case of multi-electronic species, orbitals (a) Calcium (i) p-block
with same principal quantum number possess (b) Chromium (ii) f-block
different energies for different azimuthal quantum
(c) Xenon (iii) s-block
numbers.
(d) Plutonium (iv) d-block
(1) Assertion is true, Reason is false.
(1) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
(2) Assertion is false, Reason is true.
(2) (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)
(3) Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is
(3) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
not correct explanation for Assertion.
(4) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(4) Assertion and Reason are true, Reason is
correct explanation for Assertion. 95. Find out number of incorrect statements about
f-block elements:
90. Find out number of possible exchanges for a d5
configuration: (i) Lanthanoids belongs to 6th period
(1) 4 (2) 10 (ii) Actinoids belongs to III-A group
(iii) f-block contains total 28 elements
(3) 15 (4) 8
(iv) General electronic configuration of f-block
91. Calculate number of Radial Nodes in 3d orbital:
elements is (n – 2)f1–14 (n – 1)d0–1 ns0–2.
(1) 1 (2) 2
(v) f-block elements are also known as inner
(3) 3 (4) 0 transition elements.
92. From the given shape of atomic orbital find out the (1) All correct
sum of Radial nodes and Angular nodes: (2) Except (iv) all correct
y
(3) Except (ii), (iv) all correct
(4) Only (i), (iii), (v) correct
96. Find the atomic number of an element which belongs
to 3rd period and 16th group in long form of periodic
x table?
(1) S (2) P
(3) O (4) Se
z 97. Number of electrons present in p-subshells of
(1) 2 (2) 3 chlorine atom is:
(3) 1 (4) 5 (1) 7 (2) 5
93. Electronic configuration (3) 9 (4) 11
violates: 98. Which of the following is correct about an element
with electronic configuration [Uuo]8s2?
(1) Hund’s rule
(1) It’s an alkaline earth metal
(2) Pauli’s principle
(2) It’s atomic number is 118
(3) Aufbau principle
(3) It will be placed in group 12
(4) Uncertainity principle (4) It’s a noble gas
99. Which orbital is represented by the complete wave
function  420 :-
(1) 4 d (2) 3 d
(3) 4 p (4) 4 s
100. Find out the number of orbitals with quantum number
ml = 0 in Na atom:
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
 BOTANY
SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140) 105. The sole members of kingdom monera are ______.
(1) Fungi (2) Insects
 This section contains 35 questions.
(3) Eukaryotes (4) Bacteria
 For each question, darken the bubble 106. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS. correct option:
 For each question, marks will be awarded in one Column-I Column-II
of the following categories : (a) Coccus (i) Comma shaped
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble (b) Bacillus (ii) Spiral shaped
corresponding to the correct option is darkened. (c) Vibrium (iii) Spherical shaped
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is (d) Spirillum (iv) Rod shaped
darkened. (1) (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii)
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases (2) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)
101. Which of the following kingdom includes all (3) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii)
prokaryotes? (4) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii)
(1) Monera (2) Protista 107. Organisms like Nostoc and Anabaena can fix
(3) Fungi (4) Plantae nitrogen in
102. In the below given diagram A and B are (1) Heterocysts (3) Homocysts
respectively: (2) Spores (4) All the cells
108. Majority of heterotrophic bacteria are
(1) Photoautotrophs (2) Chemosynthetic
(3) Parasites (4) Decomposers
109. Which of the following are found in extreme saline
conditions?
(1) Eubacteria (2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Mycobacteria (4) Halophiles
110. Who was the earliest to attempt a more scientific
(1) A  Filament, B  Heterocyst basis for classification?
(2) A  Heterocyst, B  Muclilagenous sheath (1) Aristotle (2) Linnaeus
(3) A  Muclilagenous sheath, B  Heterocyst (3) Haeckel (4) Whittaker
(4) A  Nucleus, B  Cell wall 111. In three domain system, eukaryotic kingdoms are
included into how many domain/s ?
103. Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria oxidise
various________. (1) All domains
(1) Inorganic substances (2) One domain
(2) Simple sugars (3) Two domains
(3) Orgnaic substances (4) Not included in any domain
(4) Lipids 112. According to the five kingdom classification of
R.H.Whittaker, organisms like Chlamydomonas and
104. Two kingdom classification could distinguish Chlorella are placed in
between:
(1) Monera (2) Protista
(1) Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes
(3) Plantae (4) Animalia
(2) Unicellular organisms and multicellular
organisms 113. Five kingdom classification of living organisms
suggested by R.H Whittaker is not based on
(3) Plants and Animals
(1) Presence or absence of well defined nucleus
(4) Photosynthetic and Non photosynthetic (2) Mode of nutrition
organisms
(3) Complexity of thallus structure
(4) Cell membrane composition
114. Single protective unit of bacteria is made up of 120. Father of taxonomy is
(1) Cell wall and cell membrane only (1) Engler and Prantle (2) Darwin
(2) Glycocalyx , Cell wall and flagella (3) Linnaeus (4) Oswald and Tippo
(3) Cell wall, cell membrane and pili 121. Which of the following is first oxygenic
photosynthetic organism ?
(4) Glycocalyx , Cell wall and cell membrane
(1) Methanogen (2) Blue green algae
115. In Whittaker's five kingdom classification,
eukaryotes were assigned to_________. (3) Archaebacteria (4) Mycoplasma
(1) All the five kingdom 122. Two kingdom system of classification developed
during
(2) Only four of the five kingdoms
(1) Whittaker’s time (2) Haeckel’s time
(3) Only three kingdom
(3) Linnaeus’s time (4) Woese’s time
(4) Only one kingdom
123. Infoldings of plasma membrane in bacteria are
116. How many of the below given statements are
called_________.
correct?
(1) Episomes (2) Plasmid
(A) Mycoplasma are pathogenic in plants only
(3) Pili (4) Mesosome
(B) Mycoplasma are smallest living cells can’t
survive without oxygen. 124. Richest source of bacteria is :-
(C) Mycoplasma are organisms that completely (1) Air (2) Soil
lack a cell wall (3) Water (4) Milk
(1) (C) only (2) (A) only 125. Read the following statements carefully and
(3) Both (A) and (B) (4) Both (A) and (C) choose the correct option:
117. Compared to many other organisms, bacteria: Statement-1: Archaebacteria are able to survive
in harsh habitats.
(1) Are very simple in behaviour
Statement-2: Cell wall structure of archaebacteria
(2) As a group show most extensive metabolic
is similar to other bacteria that helps archaebacteria
diversity than many other organisms
to survive in extreme conditions.
(3) Are majorly photosynthetic autotrophic
(1) Both the statements are incorrect
(4) Are grouped under seven categories based on
(2) Statement-1 is correct, statement-2 is incorrect
their shape
(3) Both the statements are correct
118. Select the kingdom in which all members are
heterotrophic ? (4) Statement-1 is incorrect, statement-2 is
correct
(1) Plantae (2) Monera
126. Read the following statements and choose the
(3) Fungi (4) Protista
correct option from the following:
119. Identify the given diagram and choose the correct
Statement-1: Bacteria has chloroplasts.
labelling for A nd B respectively:
Statement-2: Mycoplasma are largest.
A
prokaryotes
(1) Statement-1 only correct
B (2) Statement-2 only correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
127. Which of the following is most common method
of reproduction in bacteria?
(1) Binary fission
(1) A-Cell membrane, B-DNA
(2) Endospore formation
(2) A-Cell wall, B-DNA
(3) Conjugation
(3) A-DNA, B-Cell wall
(4) Genetic recombination
(4) A-Cell wall, B-RNA
128. Read the following statements and select the 132. Bacteria produce spores during
correct option: (1) Favourable conditions
Statement-1: Cyanobacteria are non (2) Unfavorable conditions
photosynthetic organisms.
(3) Any time
Statement-2: Eubacteria are characterised by
(4) Both (1) & (2)
the presence of rigid cell wall.
133. According to three domain, system kingdom monera
(1) Both the statements are correct
divided into how many domains?
(2) Statement-1 only correct
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) Statement-2 only correct
(3) 4 (4) 3
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
134. Study the following table carefully and select the
129. Which of the following play a great role in recycling correct option for A,B,C respectively:
of nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, iron and
sulphur? Characters Monera Protista Fungi
(1) Photosynthetic autotrophic bacteria Cell type A Eukaryotic Eukaryotic
(2) Parasitic bacteria Present Present
Cell wall B
(3) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria in some with chitin
Nuclear
(4) Both (1) and (3) absent Present C
membrane
130. Match the column 1 with 2 and choose the correct
option from the following: (1) A-Prokaryote, B-Non cellulosic,C-present
(2) A-Eukaryotic,B-Non cellulosic,C-Present
Column 1 Column 2
(3) A-Prokaryotic,B-Cellulosic,C-Absent
A Methanogens 1 Bacteria (4) A-Prokaryotic,B-absent,C-Present
135. Bacteria show the motility due to presence of :
Extensive 2 Marshy areas (1) Short pili
B metabolic
(2) Flagella
diversity
(3) Long pili
3 Extreme salty (4) Branched chain of lipids
C Nostoc
areas
SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40)
4 Nitrogen
D Halophiles  This section contains 15 questions.
fixation
 Attempt any 10 questions.
(1) A – 3, B – 1, C – 4, D – 2
 For each question, darken the bubble
(2) A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 3
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
(3) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4
 For each question, marks will be awarded in one
(4) A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1
of the following categories :
131. How many of the given below statements are
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
correct?
corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
(a) Cyanobacteria often form blooms in polluted
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is
water bodies.
darkened.
(b) Cyanobacteria has chlorophyll 'a' similar to
green plants. Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
(c) Bacteria cannot live in the deep ocean. 136. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the
group_________.
(1) (a) only (2) (a) & (b) only
(1) Monera (2) Fungi
(3) All are corret (4) (c) only
(3) Animalia (4) Plantae
137. Chemosynthesis mode of nutrition is found in 146. In five kingdom system classification, which single
kingdom kingdom contains blue green algae, nitrogen fixing
(1) Monera (2) Protista bacteria and methanogenic archaebacteria?
(3) Fungi (4) Plantae (1) Protista (2) Monera
138. The digestive tracts of ruminants contain_____. (3) Fungi (4) Plantae
147. Identify the correct statement regarding bacteria
(1) Halophilic bacteria
(1) They are obligate intracellular parasites
(2) Methanogens
(2) All the bacteria are harmful
(3) Thermoacidophilic bacteria
(3) These are the sole members of kingdom
(4) Mycoplasma protista
139. Select the odd one w.r.t useful activities of bacteria (4) Bacteria occur almost everywhere
(1) Making curd from milk
148. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans
(2) Causing diseases in making curd from milk and in production of
(3) Production of antibodies antibodies are ones categorised as
(4) Fixing nitrogen in legume roots (1) Chemosynthetic autotrophs
140. Evolutionary history of an organism is known as (2) Heterotrophic bacteria
(1) Phylogeny (2) Paleontology (3) Cyanobacteria
(3) Ontogeny (4) Ancestry (4) Archaebacteria
141. How many of the given below statements are 149. How many of the below given statements are
incorrect? correct?
(a) Aristotle divided animals into two groups (a) Heterotrophic bacteria are less abundant
based on red blood cells in nature
(b) Plant and animal kingdoms are not constant (b) Cyanobacteria are heterotrophs
under all different systems of classification
(c) Cyanobacterial colonies surrounded by
(c) Paramoecium and amoeba are placed under
gelatinous sheath
protista in two kingdom system
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only
(3) (b) and (c) (4) All are correct (3) All are correct (4) (c) only
142. Nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria are 150. Three domain system was given by :-
(1) Rhizobium, Nostoc (1) Carl Woese
(2) Rhizobium, Anabaena (2) Bentham and Hooker
(3) Nostoc, Anabaena (3) Theophrastus
(4) Anabaena, Azolla (4) Linnaeus
143. Polysaccharides and amino acids are present in
the cell wall of
(1) Monera (2) Protista
(3) Plantae (4) Animalia
144. Which of the following are responsible for biogas
production?
(1) Halophiles (2) Methanogens
(3) Thermoacidophiles (4) Mycoplasma
145. The classification of Linnaeus was mainly based
on :-
(1) Sepals (2) Stem
(3) Petals (4) Stamens
 ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140) 154. Column-I contains larval stages and column-II
contains the groups to which they belongs. Match
 This section contains 35 questions. them correctly and choose the right answer.
 For each question, darken the bubble Column-I Column-II
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS. (A) Planula (i) Annelida
 For each question, marks will be awarded in one (B) Trochophore (ii) Porifera
of the following categories :
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble (C) Parenchymula (iii) Coelenterata
corresponding to the correct option is darkened. (1) A - iii, B- i, C-ii (2) A - ii, B- iii, C-i
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is (3) A - i, B- ii, C-iii (4) A - iii, B-ii,C-i
darkened. 155. Which of the following does not belong to phylum
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases coelenterata?
151. Give the correct match in the following : (1) Sea pen (2) Sea anemone
(3) Sea cucumber (4) Sea fan
Column-I Column-II 156. Match the following list of animals with their level
of organization.
(A) Flame cells (i) Sponges Division of Labour Animal
(B) Collar cells (ii) Hydra (A) Organ level (i) Pheretima

(C) Stinging cells (iii) Planaria (B) Cellular (ii) Fasciola

aggregate
level
(1) A = iii, B = i, C = ii (C) Tissue level (iii) Spongilla
(2) A = iii, B = i, C = ii
(D) Organ system (iv) Obelia
(3) A = iii, B = ii, C = i level
(4) A = iii, B = ii, C = ii Choose the correct match showing division of
152. Match the following and choose the correct option: labour with animal example
Column-I Column-II (1) B - i, C - ii, D - iii, A - iv
(2) B - i, D - ii, C - iii, A - iv
(A) Physalia (i) Sea (3) D - i, A - ii, B - iii, C - iv
anemone (4) A - i, D - ii, C - iii, B - iv
(B) Meandrina (ii) Brain coral 157. Life cycle of obelia is given below :

(C) Gorgonia (iii) Sea fan

(D) Adamsia (iv) Portuguese

man of war

(1) A - iii; B - ii; C - i; D - iv

(2) A - iv; B - iii; C - ii; D - i
(3) A - iv; B - ii; C - iii; D - i
(4) A - ii; B - iii; C - i; D - iv
153. In chordates the notochord is :- Identify the (A), (B) and (C)
(1) Mesodermal and dorsal to nerve cord (1) Polyp, Medusa, Amphiblastula
(2) Endodermal and dorsal to nerve cord (2) Medusa, Polyp, Planula
(3) Mesodermal and ventral to nerve cord (3) Polyp, Medusa, Planula
(4) Endodermal and ventral to nerve cord (4) Medusa, Polyp, Ephyra
158. Match the Column-I with Column-II : 160. Which one of the following groups of three animals
each is correctly matched with their one
Column-I Column-II characteristic morphological feature ?
(A) Hermaphrodite (i) Produce Animals Morphological
blood cells feature
and
(1) Scorpion, Spider, Ventral solid
haemoglobin
Cockroach central nervous
(B) Direct (ii) Testis and system
development ovary in
(2) Cockroach, Metameric
same animal
Locust, Taenia segmentation
(C) Chemoreceptor (iii) Larval form
(3) Liver fluke, Bilateral
absent
Sea-anemone, symmetry
(D) Blood gland in (iv) Sense of Sea-cucumber
earthworm chemical (4) Centipede, Prawn, Bilateral
substances Sea urchin symmetry

(1) A-(ii); B-(iii); C-(iv); D-(i) 161. Which set includes Arthropods of economic
importance providing useful products to man ?
(2) A-(iii); B-(ii); C-(i); D-(iv)
(1) Anopheles, Culex, tse-tse fly
(3) A-(i); B-(iv); C-(iii); D-(ii)
(2) Apis, Bombyx, Laccifer
(4) A-(iv); B-(iii); C-(ii); D-(i) (3) Limulus, Peripatus
159. Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose (4) Locusta, Grasshopper
the correct option :
162. Syncytial epidermis is present in
Column-I Column-II (1) Aurelia (2) Ascaris
(3) Asterias (4) Astraea
(A) Porifera (i) Canal
system 163. Which of the following phyla includes maximum
animals ?
(B) Aschelminthes (ii) Metameres (1) Arthropoda (2) Protozoa
(3) Mollusca (4) Chordata
(C) Annelida (iii) Muscular
Pharynx 164. Peripatus is a connecting link between-
(1) Arthropoda & Mollusca
(D) Arthropoda (iv) Jointed (2) Annelida & Arthropoda
appendages (3) Annelida & Mollusca
(4) Coelenterata & Platyhelminthes
(1) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv
165. Body having meshwork of cells, internal cavities
(2) A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - iv lined with food filtering flagellated cells and indirect
(3) A - i, B - iii, C - ii, D - iv development are the characteristics of phylum
(4) A -ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv (1) Protozoa (2) Coelenterata
(3) Porifera (4) Mollusca
166. Metagenesis refers to
(1) Presence of a segmented body and
parthenogenetic mode of reproduction
(2) Presence of different morphic forms
(3) Alternation of generation between asexual and
sexual phases of an organism
(4) Occurrence of a drastic change in form during
post-embryonic development
167. Find the correct match : 174. Observe the picture given below :
(1) Ancylostoma Hookworm
(2) Hirudinaria Blood sucking
endoparasite
(3) Locusta King Crab
(4) Gorgonia Sea pen
168. In closed circulatory system
(1) The cells and tissues are directly bathed in
the blood pumped out by heart
(2) Arteries and veins are lacking
(3) The capillaries are largest blood vessels and
closed at their ends From the given characteristics how many are false
about the organism.
(4) Blood circulates through a series of vessels
of varying diameters (i) Ladder like nervous system
169. A complete digestive system has (ii) Flat worms
(1) Single opening that serves as both mouth and anus (iii) Pseudocoelom
(2) Two openings, one as mouth and other as anus (iv) Bilateral symmetry
(3) Single opening that acts as mouth only (v) Sexes are separate
(4) Two openings, both act as mouth as well as anus (vi) Completely developed alimentary canal
170. Solenocytes and nephridia are respectively found in (vii)Regeneration capacity
(1) Platyhelminthes and Annelids (1) i, ii, iii (2) iii, v, vi
(2) Annelids and Nematoda (3) iii, vi, vii (4) ii, iii, iv
(3) Cnidaria and Mollusca 175. Example of living fossil is :-
(4) Mollusca and Echinodermata (1) Anopheles (2) Locusta
171. Features used for animal classifications are :- (3) Limulus (4) Aedes
(1) Arrangement of cells and body symmetry. 176. Read the given characteristics carefully and
choose the correct option:
(2) Nature of Coelom and pattern of alimentary
canal (i) Open circulatory system
(3) Patterns of digestive, circulatory and (ii) Internal fertilization
reproductive systems. (iii) Oviparous
(4) All of the above (1) Sycon (2) Cockroah
172. A list of animals is given below. Identify the animals (3) Platyhelminthes (4) Earthworm
with open circulatory system and choose the correct 177. Which one of the following is not the character of
answer. ctenophores?
(i) Squid (ii) Cockroach (1) Bioluminescene
(iii) Earthworm (iv) Prawn (2) Comb plates used as endoskeleton
(v) Silverfish (vi) Snail (3) Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular
(1) ii, iv, vi (2) i, ii, iv, vi (4) Fertilisation is external with indirect
(3) ii, iv, v, vi (4) iii, iv, v development
173. Features of aschelminthes are :- 178. Find the correct statement w.r.t sponges
(1) Tissue level of organisation & Acoelomate (1) Sponges reproduces only asexually
(2) Organ Level of organisation & Acoelomate (2) Water enters in through ostia
(3) Organ system level of organisation and (3) Fertilization is internal and direct development
coelomate is seen
(4) Organ system level of organisation and (4) Spongilla is a bath sponge
Pseudocoelomate
179. Assertion: Sponges reproduce asexually by
fragmentation and sexually by formation of gametes.
Reason: Cnidoblasts are used for anchorage,
defense and for the capture of prey.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false
180. Which group of animals belong to same phylum?
(1) Earthworm, pinworm, tapeworm
(2) Plasmodium, amoeba, mosquito
(3) Sponge, sea anemone, sea lily
(4) Prawn, scorpion, locusta
181. Collar cells or choanocytes are found in:-
(1) Lining of spongocoel
(2) Lining of canals.
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Outer layer of body wall.
182. Assertion: Cnidarians exhibit two basic body forms
called polyp and medusa.
Reason: The former is free swimming and the latter
is sessile.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false
183. Assertion: Blood in insects are without respiratory
pigment.
Reason: tracheal network present can supply
oxygen to all parts of the body.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false
184. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
regarding phylum aschelminthes?
(i) The body is circular in cross-section hence
the name roundworms.
(ii) Alimentary canal is complete with a well
developed muscular pharynx.
(iii) Sexes are separate (dioecious) i.e., males and
females are distinct.
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (iii) and (i)
(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) All of these
185. Assertion: Mesoglea is present as third germinal
layer in triploblasts.
Reason: coelom presence or absence does not
matter for classification.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false
SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40)
 This section contains 15 questions.
 Attempt any 10 questions.
 For each question, darken the bubble
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
 For each question, marks will be awarded in one
of the following categories :
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is
darkened.
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
186. Which of the following is not a characteristic
feature of phylum Nemathelminthes?
(1) Bilateral symmetry, triploblastic,
pseudocoelomate
(2) They do not have respiratory system
(3) H-shaped renett cells for excretion
(4) The body wall has longitudinal muscles,
circular muscles and elastic cuticle.
187. Assertion: Specialised cells called flame cells help
in osmoregulation and excretion in Platyhelminthes.
Reason: Hooks and suckers of tapeworm helps to
absorb nutrients from host directly.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false
 192. Which one is first time evolved in annelida?
188. Which of these statement is correct for the largest
phylum? (1) Triploblastic development
(1) Animals of this phylum are diploblastic (2) Bilateral symmetry
(2) The mouth contains a file-like rasping organ (3) Cephalisation
for feeding called radula. (4) True coelom
(3) They are bilaterally symmetrical and 193. Green glands found in some arthropods they take
enterocoelomate animals. part in :-
(4) Animals have only open type of blood (1) Excretion (2) Respiration
vascular system. (3) Digestion (4) Both (1) and (2)
189. Identify the figure A, B and C and choose the 194. Hemocyanin pigment can be found in the blood of :-
correct option:-
(1) Prawn (2) Housefly
(3) Millipede (4) Spider
195. Tapeworm does not possess digestive system as it
:-
(1) Does not require solid food
(2) Obtains food through general surface
(3) Does not required food
(4) Lives in intestine
196. Select the group of organisms given below those
have diploblastic members only :-
(1) Euspongia, Taenia, Planaria
A B C (2) Wuchereria, Culex, Apis
(1) A-Male Ascaris, B-Hirudinaria (leech), (3) Ctenoplana, Physalia, Sea anemone
C-Neries (4) Aedes, Ctenoplana, Hydra
(2) A-Female Ascaris, B-Nereis, C-Hirudinaria 197. What is true about Ascaris, Neries, Wuchereria
(leech) and Hirudinaria?
(3) A-Female Ascaris, B-Hirudinaria (leech), (1) Acoelom
C-Nereis (2) Pseudocoelom
(4) A-Male Ascaris, B-Nereis, C-Hirudinaria (3) Metamerism
(leech) (4) Organ system level of organisation
190. Identify the phylum in which animals are: 198. Which one is not a member of platyhelminthes?
Bilaterally symmetrical, Triploblastic, acoelomate (1) Tape worm (2) Liver fluke
and have organ level of organisation?
(3) Hook worm (4) Planaria
(1) Coelenterate (2) Platyhelminthes
199. Which one of the following non-chordate is a
(3) Annelida (4) Aschelminthes protostomic, bilaterally symmetrical and
191. A student brought home a strange animal which he schizocoelomate?
found outside under a rock. It had moist skin, a (1) Nereis (2) Ctenoplana
complete digestive tract, a ventral nerve cord, and
(3) Wuchereria (4) Taenia
have metameric segments. Identify the phylum of
the animal: 200. Contractile vacuole of Amoeba is analogous to :-
(1) Porifera (2) Annelida (1) Typhlosole of earthworm
(3) Mollusca (4) Echinodermata (2) Sweat gland of human
(3) Uriniferous tubules of frog and man
(4) Gastrovascular cavity of Hydra