( OPA - 01 )

QUESTION PAPER

LIMITED DEPARTMENTAL COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION - 2007

FOR THE POST OF CHARGEMAN-GR.II (T) & (NT)

SUBJECT: OFFICE PROCEDURE & ADMINISTRATION CODE: 5.00 / 311

Sr. No. … … … … … … … … … … … … … ROLL NO.

Signature of the Invigilator … … … … … … … … … … … … … … …

Date: 24.09.2007 Duration : 3 Hours.

Time: 09:00 Hrs to 12:00 Hrs. Max. Marks : 100

Instructions: Please read the following instructions carefully before writing your answers:
1) All Questions in Part – A, B & C are compulsory.
2) Each Questions in Part - A & B carries 1 mark and that in Part - C carries 5 marks.
3) There are four alternatives - (A), (B), (C), (D) given against each question in Part - A out of
which only one is the most appropriate answer.
If (A) is correct, round on the correct alternative like (A) .
4) The discarded answer if any, must be crossed properly and supported by initial of the
candidate.
5) If a question in Part - A & B is answered wrongly or more than one answers are
marked, 0.25 marks will be deducted for each such question.
6) Use only blue or black ball pen. Use of Pencil is not allowed.
7) No sheet from the Question Paper / Answer Book should be detached.
8) You may do rough work, if required, on the blank sheets.
9) Please DO NOT repeat DO NOT write your name anywhere in the Question Paper.

For Examiners only

Part - A & B
Correct Wrong No Total
Answers Answers Answers (80)
Part - A
60 Marks
Part - B
20 Marks
Part – C
Q.81 Q.82 Q.83 Q.84 Total
(5) (5) (5) (5) (20)

SUMMARY OF MARKS OBTAINED

Part – A & B Part - C Total
Marks
(80) (20) (100)
Obtained
 ( OPA - 02 )

PART - A
(Each question carries 1 mark)

Q.1. The purpose of an office is defined as:

(A) making correspondence (B) maintaining files
(C) providing of a service of records (D) None of these

Q.2. ‘Information Management’is a:

(A) Office function
(B) Administrative function
(C) Both Office & Administrative function
(D) Neither Office nor Administrative function

Q.3. Which one does not fall under office activity ?

(A) Dictation (B) Transcription (C) Printing (D) Motivating

Q.4. The principle of ‘Each employee should have one superior only’is called:
(A) Unity of direction (B) Unity of command
(C) Unity of obedience (D) Unity of Loyalty

Q.5. Division of work means:

(A) The principles of specialization of work (B) Dealing with the subordinates
(C) Distributing the work (D) None of these

Q.6. Delegation & decentralization of authority:

(A) reduces the power of superiors
(B) helps in arousing sense of responsibility in subordinates
(C) helps taking decisions faster at functional level
(D) Both ‘B’& ‘C’

Q.7. Chain of authority is:

(A) Maximum number of employees under a person
(B) Specification of ‘who reports to whom’
(C) The responsibility & authority for certain specific tasks
(D) Specialisation in organisational function for which an individual has authority

Q.8. A scalar organisation is:

(A) Line organisation (B) Functional organisation
(C) Committee organisation (D) None of these

Q.9. Delegation of authority is more complete in a:

(A) Line organisation (B) Functional organisation
(C) Line & staff organisation (D) Committee organisation

Q.10. _________ is associated with delegation, but cannot be delegated:

(A) Authority (B) Responsibility
(C) Accountability (D) None of these

Q.11. Advantage of an open office is:

(A) Flexibility (B) Increased efficiency
(C) Less regimented (D) High morale
 ( OPA - 03 )

Q.12. An office layout which promotes ‘Personal atmosphere’is called ________ arrangement:
(A) Open office (B) Private office
(C) Landscape office (D) Modular unit office

Q.13. Following falls in the category of internal noise:

(A) Noise of air-conditioner (B) Noise made by opening & closing of doors & windows
(C) Rustling of papers (D) Both ‘A’& ‘B’

Q.14. ‘Simplicity’is an essential tool in:

(A) Office layout (B) Office environment
(C) Office procedure (D) Record management

Q.15. One of the characteristics of good filing system is:

(A) Tantem system (B) Compactness
(C) Evaluating (D) Bench marking

Q.16. Indexing means:

(A) making entries in the notes portion of a file after action on all issues are
considered completed
(B) filing of documents in order that may be available for future use
(C) deciding the heading under which documents should be filed
(D) a ready guide to the location of the required file record

Q.17. What is percentage of permanent records maintained in good record management

system ?
(A) 10 % (B) 20 % (C) 30 % (D) 40 %

Q.18. To evaluate the effectiveness of relevant records maintained in an office, the index of
ratio is called:
(A) Finding ratio (B) Use ratio
(C) Effectiveness ratio (D) Relevancy ratio

Q.19. Advantage of Centralised correspondence is:

(A) It facilitates effective follow up and leads to better results by ensuring better
continuity in correspondence
(B) There is no interruption in the work under this system
(C) It will not lack adequate technical and specialized knowledge of a particular
functional department
(D) There is no delay due to sending the draft correspondence back & forth

Q.20. A periodic report is a category of:

(A) Statutory report (B) Special report
(C) Technical report (D) Routine report

Q.21. The role of a supervisor is:

(A) be a hard task master to extract work
(B) last link in the management group with the people
(C) to see management interest
(D) see worker’s interest

Q.22. Theories X and Y of behaviours pertains to:

(A) Communication (B) Supervision (C) Leadership (D) Motivation
 ( OPA - 04 )

Q.23. Theory Z regarding human behaviour at work place was developed by:
(A) Mr. Lyndall F. Urwick (B) Prof. McGregor
(C) Prof. E.F.L. Brech (D) Mr. Calvin coolidge

Q.24. Expectancy theory states that motivation is:

(A) an expression of the amount of one’s desire for a goal
(B) desire of average human being who does not dislike work
(C) want of security & safety leading to high productivity
(D) an outcome of the interaction of values one seeks and one estimates on certain
actions

Q.25. A communication is considered to be complete if:

(A) Received by the receiver (B) Received & no action taken
(C) Received, understood & correct action taken (D) None of these

Q.26. To meet all the expectations from the receiver following rule must be observed in
communication:
(A) Rule of Eight (B) Rule of Seven (C) Rule of Six (D) Rule of Five

Q.27. A communication is said to be effective and successful if following are met:

(A) Conceive, create, transmit, understand, act
(B) Transmit, encode, receive, decode, accept, feedback
(C) Receive, understand, accept, act, feedback
(D) Transmit, understand, decode, accept, act

Q.28. Formal communication has the disadvantage of:

(A) Delay & tapism (B) Carrying half truth
(C) Responsibility of an action or an erratic information cannot be fixed
(D) Action based on foreseen event cannot be formalised

Q.29. The word ‘Grapevine’is associated with:

(A) Formal communication (B) Informal communication
(C) Centralized communication (D) Classified communication

Q.30. Classical Management approach in leadership believes:

(A) worker is lazy & leader should be directive
(B) worker is basically enthusiastic & does not want any economic reward
(C) worker is uncreative & not effected by any type of motivation
(D) worker is enthusiastic & leader needs to be directive

Q.31. In the Traitist’s theory of leadership:

(A) There is no room for development of future leaders
(B) Scientific tests cannot be applied in studies
(C) It overemphasises the situational aspect
(D) It is sole behaviour which coordinates the efforts of the people and stimulate
them towards the achievement of goal

Q.32. How many categories of classification is there in Central Civil Services ?

(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1
 ( OPA - 05 )

Q.33. In Central civil post Group ‘C’employees have scale of pay with a maximum of:
(A) not less than Rs. 9,000 but less than Rs. 13,500
(B) over Rs. 4,000 but less than Rs. 9,000
(C) Rs. 4,000 or less
(D) None of these

Q.34. All appointments to Class-I CCS post are made by:

(A) Head of the organisation (B) Vice President of India
(C) Prime Minister of India (D) President of India

Q.35. Notification of MOD and OFB are published in different parts and sections of the Gazette
of India. SROs of DGOF are published in:
(A) Part I Section III (B) Part I Section IV
(C) Part II Section IV (D) Part III Section I

Q.36. A Government servant shall be deemed to have been placed under suspension by an
order of Appointing Authority, if he is detained in custody for a period exceeding:
(A) 72 hours (B) 48 hours (C) 40 hours (D) 24 hours

Q.37. Which one falls in the category of minor penalty ?

(A) Removal from service not disqualifying future employment under the Government
(B) Reduction to lower time scale of pay
(C) Withholding promotion
(D) Reduction to a lower stage in the time scale for a specified period, with direction
not to earn increment during the period

Q.38. Imposition of two penalties for one lapse / offence can be done if the penalty imposed
are:
(A) Both statutory
(B) Reduction in pay & censure
(C) Demotion to lower grade & withholding promotion
(D) Recovery of loss caused to government & any statutory penalty

Q.39. For a Government servant coming late, not sufficiently justified for disciplinary action nor
wants to condone, the Competent Authority can:
(A) Deduct E/L for entire day (B) Half a day’s C/L
(C) Deduct one day C/L (D) Give notice of un-authorized absence

Q.40. Disciplinary action can be instituted in all cases by:

(A) President alone
(B) Head of organization
(C) President or Appointing authority or the authority specified in the schedule
(D) Appointing authority alone

Q.41. For imposing major penalty, it is a must to hold an inquiry under the provisions of
rule/rules:
(A) 14 & 15 (B) 16 (C) 15 & 16 (D) 14 & 16

Q.42. What is the percentage of reservation for SC category for direct recruitment on All India
basis by Open competition ?
(A) 17 ½ % (B) 21 % (C) 17 % (D) 15 %
 ( OPA - 06 )

Q.43. Reservation % for SC candidates for direct recruitment on All India basis otherwise than
by Open Competition:
2 1 1 1
(A) 16 % (B) 17 % (C) 15 % (D) 7 %
3 2 2 2

Q.44. Reservation % for ST candidates through direct recruitment by All India list prepared by
SSC:
(A) 7½% (B) 11 ½ % (C) 7% (D) 9%

Q.45. OBC candidates has ______ % reservation in direct recruitment:

(A) 30 (B) 29 (C) 28 (D) 27

Q.46. In a 200 point roster, what will be points for unreserved category ?
(A) 100 (B) 101 (C) 111 (D) 121

Q.47. The time limit for exercise of option for date of fixation of pay on promotion from date of
promotion or date of next increment in the scale of lower post is:
(A) 6 months (B) 15 days (C) 1 month (D) 3 months

Q.48. The annual increment can be drawn on 1st of the due month if on the day the
Government servant is:
(A) on E/L (B) on C/L (C) on M/L (D) Present

Q.49. The qualifying period of earning an increment is:

(A) Total of the period which count for increment should be 12 months
(B) Total of the periods which count & do not count for increment should be 12 months
(C) Both of these
(D) None of these

Q.50. The DPC should assess for promotion _______ preceding years only:
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

Q.51. The needs for self-respect, recognition & respect from others are called:
(A) Social needs (B) Physiological needs
(C) Esteem needs (D) Psychological needs

Q.52. Earned leave afforded in advance will be reduced by _______ of the extra-ordinary
leave availed during the previous half-year:
1 1 1 1
(A) rd (B) th (C) th (D) th
3 5 10 12

Q.53. The paternity leave is admissible to:

(A) Male apprentice & male with two surviving children
(B) Male with two surviving children
(C) Male apprentice & male with less than two surviving children
(D) None of these

Q.54. Recovery of subscription for GPF to be stopped _______ months before retirement on
superannuation:
(A) 12 (B) 9 (C) 6 (D) 3
 ( OPA - 07 )

Q.55. For AC 2-tier entitlement for LTC, the pay range is as below:
(A) Below Rs. 4,100 (B) Rs. 4,100 to Rs. 7,999
(C) Rs. 8,000 to Rs. 16,399 (D) Rs. 16,400 to Rs. 18,399

Q.56. If free boarding & lodging is availed, the daily allowance (DA) is reduced to _____ % of
the ordinary rate:
(A) 25 (B) 50 (C) 75 (D) None of these

Q.57. For the purpose of traveling allowance, the employees are classified into _______
grades:
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

Q.58. For the purpose of computing eligibility for allotment of quarter, the pay will be
considered as:
(A) Basic pay + NPA + Stagnation increment
(B) Basic pay + Stagnation increment + Dearness pay
(C) Basic pay + Stagnation increment
(D) Basic pay + NPA + Dearness pay

Q.59. A period of service of 19 years 8 months and 20 days is calculated as qualifying service
for pension / gratuity & expressed in completed half years as:
(A) 38 (B) 39 (C) 40 (D) 41

Q.60. Under Workmen’s Compensation Act, the compensation is payable if the injury results in
disablement for more than _______ days:
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
PART ? B

There are two alternatives - 'T' for True and 'F' for False given against each statement in this
part. If ‘T’is correct, round on the correct alternative like T . Each question carries 1 mark.

Q.61. On dismissal from service the individual can be re-employed in Government. T / F

Q.62. ‘Pay and Scale of pay’connote one & the same meaning as per FR 9(21)(a)(1). T / F

Q.63. An official who is under suspension / facing departmental proceedings, can be

allowed to sit for a departmental examination, by the authority. T / F

Q.64. Authority competent to impose minor penalty initiating proceedings for

major penalty, cannot impose minor penalty on conclusion of the proceedings. T / F

Q.65. Disciplinary Authority can never be an Inquiring Authority. T / F

Q.66. Minimum standard including qualification & marks can further be relaxed, if
adequate numbers of SC/ST candidates satisfying minimum standard are not
available, provided they are not considered unsuitable otherwise. T / F

Q.67. Subject to conformity of all other conditions in this regard, the pay of a senior
can be stepped up with reference to a junior if the anomaly directly arise out of
application of relevant rule/order. T / F
 ( OPA - 08 )

Q.68. Joining time falls in the category of period which count for increment. T / F

Q.69. No interview will be held by DPC whether or not provided in Recruitment

Rules for the post. T / F

Q.70. The credit of earned leave plus unavailed joining time credited should not
exceed 360 days. T / F

Q.71. Maternity leave is admissible to both married and unmarried female

with less than two surviving children. T / F

Q.72. GPF subscription can be increased twice and/or reduced once at any time
during the year. T / F

Q.73. When both the husband and wife are Central Government servants,
they cannot declare separate home towns independently. T / F

Q.74. Retention of quarter is permissible in the event of death of allottee upto a

period of 2 years if the deceased or his/her dependent does not own a house
at the last station. T / F

Q.75. An employee whose birth date is the first of the month shall retire on the
afternoon of the last day of the preceding month. T / F

Q.76. Service rendered before attaining the age of 18 years is counted

as qualifying service. T / F

Q.77. For the purpose of Workmen’s Compensation Act, the continuous period of
service preceding the accident means a period of service not interrupted by
absence from work for a period exceeding 14 days. T / F

Q.78. If during muster-out an employee is found to steel any item, the statement of
the employee is a must to be taken by security supervisor and the duty officer. T / F

Q.79. The period to be fixed for paying wages to an employed person may exceed
one month but not one & half-a-month. T / F

Q.80. Every factory as per Factories Act 1948 employing 100 or more workers,
will have a canteen & bipartite canteen committee. T / F

PART - C
(Each question carries 5 marks)

Q.81. What are the elements that contribute to a good Office Environment ?

Q.82. Write down the responsibilities of Security Officer in the factory.

Q.83. Write down the detailed procedure for ‘Handing over and taking over of Cash’.

Q.84. Write down the main characteristics of Leadership.