DIAGNOSTIC EXAM IN SCIENCE 9

Instructions: Read each question carefully and write the correct answer in a separate sheet of paper, or in the answer sheet
provided to you. Do not write anything on this test questionnaire.
1.The respiratory system is made up of the organs in the body that help us to breathe. Which of the following is a structure of the
respiratory system?
A. Arteries B. Blood C. Heart D. Trachea
2. The respiratory system consists of different parts that allow air to reach the lungs. Which part of the lungs does exchange of
oxygen and carbon dioxide take place?
A. Alveoli B. Bronchi C. Bronchioles D. Trachea
3. What organ in the circulatory system is responsible for pumping the blood throughout the body?
A. Arteries B. Blood C. Blood vessels D. Heart
4. The human heart has a valve between each atrium and ventricle. How many valves does the heart?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D.6
5. Circulation is the movement of blood through the vessels of the body that is induced by the pumping action of the heart. What
type of circulation that describes the movement of blood through the tissues of the heart?
A. Blood Circulation C. Systemic Circulation
B. Coronary Circulation D. Pulmonary Circulation
6. What non-Mendelian pattern of inheritance occurs when the phenotype of the offspring somewhere in between the phenotypes
of both parents?
A. Codominance C. Multiple alleles
B. Sex-linked trait D. Incomplete dominance
7. What non-Mendelian pattern of inheritance occurs when both alleles are expressed equally in the phenotype of the
heterozygote?
A. Codominance C. Multiple alleles
B. Sex-linked trait D. Incomplete dominance
8. What is the trait that are autosomal and expressed exclusively in one sex?
A. Sex-linked trait B. Sex-limited trait C. Sex-linked genes D. Sex-influenced trait
9. A centromere is an essential part of a chromosome. Which of the following best describes a centromere?
A. The longest arm of the chromosome.
B. The part of the DNA where the genes are found.
C. The part of the cell where the chromosome is located.
D. The point in the chromosome that joins together the two chromatids.
10. What does contain the information needed to form and control the physical make up of an organisms?
A. Allele B. DNA C. Nucleotide D. RNA
11. In understanding the fundamental concept of biodiversity, there must be distinct organisms that persist because they can
produce fertile offspring. What do you call these organisms?
A. Biomes B. Communities C. Groups D. Species
12. Biodiversity refers to the variety of life in the area. How will you describe the biodiversity of a certain area if it contains many
different species?
A. The biodiversity is low.
B. The biodiversity is high.
C. The biodiversity is undetermined.
D. The biodiversity is unaffected regardless of the number of species it contains.
13. Differences in population density in any community may be attributed to many aspects. What do you call the environmental
condition that controls the size of a population?
A. Limiting factor B. Index of diversity C. Carrying capacity D. Population explosion
14. Biodiversity and the survival of ecosystems have a direct proportional relationship. What is the chance of survival if biodiversity
will increase?
A. Decrease B. Increase C. Increase then decrease D. Cannot be determined
15. Biodiversity is the variety of life in an ecosystem. What is the most effective way to protect biodiversity?
A. Habitat demolition B. Habitat destruction C. Habitat preservation D. Habitat fragmentation
16. Plants are considered as autotrophs. What cell organelles does photosynthesis occur?
A. Chlorophyll B. Chloroplast C. Mesophyll D. Stroma
17. Mesophyll layer of the leaf plays an important role in trapping light energy from the sun. How would you explain why does
photosynthesis mostly take place in this layer?
A. Because it contains air spaces
B. Because it provides an entrance and exit for gases
C. Because it has the greatest number of chloroplasts
D. Because it is transparent allowing light to penetrate
18. What do you call the green pigment in plants that absorbs light energy that used to carry out photosynthesis?
A. Carotene B. Leucoplast C. Chlorophyll D. Xanthophyll
4. In what plant cell organelle does a light-dependent reaction occurs?
A. Outside the chloroplast C. Grana of the chloroplast
B. Stroma of the chloroplast D. Thylakoids of the chloroplast
19. Mitochondria is called the powerhouse of the cell. What does mitochondria do in the cell?
A. To make proteins
B. To protect the cells
C. To generate usable energy from food
D. To allow certain molecules into the cell.
20. Who proposed that electrons are only found in specific, discrete circular orbits around the nucleus?
A. Albert Einstein B. Erwin Schrodinger C. Ernest Rutherford D. Neils Bohr
21. Erwin Schrodinger used the theoretical calculations and experimental results to devise and solve a mathematical equation
describing the behavior of the electron in a hydrogen atom. Which atomic model he proposed?
A. Nuclear Model B. Planetary Model C. Raisin Bread Model D. Quantum Mechanical Model
22. On the basis of Rutherford’s model of an atom, which subatomic particles are present in the nucleus of an atom?
A. proton only B. proton and electron C. proton and neutron D. neutron and electron
23. Bohr’s model is to know the arrangement of electrons in atoms in terms of the probability of finding an electron in certain
locations within the atom. Which of the following statement is NOT true of the atomic model of Bohr?
A. The energy of the electron in each orbit is fixed.
B. An electron can absorb or emit a quantity of radiation.
C. The hydrogen is made up of a positively charged nucleus.
D. The electron revolves around the nucleus in a circular orbit.
24. Which statements best described the quantum mechanical model of the atom? I. Is the current accepted atomic model II.
Makes predictions based on Schrodinger’s wave equation III. Describes an electron probability distribution that determines the
location of an electron.
A. I only B. II only C. I and II D. I, II and III
25. Valence electrons are directly involved in forming bonds to form compounds. Which among the following shows that an atom is
stable?
A. having 2 valence electrons
B. having 4 valence electrons
C. having 6 valence electrons
D. having 8 valence electrons
26. Element X belongs to Group 4. How many valence electrons does element X have?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
3. The number of electrons in phosphorus (P) is 15. How many valence electrons does phosphorus have?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 8
27. What can you infer as you move from left to right across the periodic table?
A. The elements become less metallic. C. The elements have a lower atomic weight
B. The elements become more metallic.. D. The elements have a lower atomic number.

28. Element Z and X are compared. Element Z is larger than Element X. What can you say about Element Z and X?
I. Element X is closer to the top
II. Element Z and X are probably in the same group.
III. Element Z is further to the left side of the periodic table.
A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. I, II, and III
29. What is the maximum number of bonds a carbon atom can form?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
30. Which hydrocarbon compounds has a triple bond in the molecule?
A. Ethene B. Ethyne C. Methane D. Octane
31. What idea/s show that the structure of carbon atom affects the types of bonds it forms?
A. The bonding properties of carbon are unusually strong.
B. Carbon atoms can form either ionic bonds or covalent bonds.
C. Carbon atoms can form bonds with four other atoms because of its valence electrons.
D. All the above
32. What specific organic compound would you use to remove the red paint from paintbrush so that you could still use it again next
time?
A. Formaldehyde B. Kerosene C. Acetic acid D. Lubricating oil
33. Donna’s car stopped in the middle of the street. She found out that her car has ran out of fuel. Which specific organic
compound must she buy?
A. Gasoline B. Kerosene C. Water D. Lubricating oil
34. Jane wants to protect her bicycle’s parts from rusting fast. Which of the following organic compound do you think Jane will use?
A. Kerosene B. Vinegar C. Lubricating oil D. Isopropyl alcohol
35. Which of the following characteristics of a volcano depends on its magma emission?
A. Age B. Location C. Shape D. Size
36. How would you classify volcanoes that have records of eruptions?
A. Active B. Cinder C. Inactive D. Shield
37. Shield volcanoes are formed by the accumulation of non-viscous lava that oozes out from it. How would you describe this type
of volcano?
A. Narrow domed structure
B. Large and has a narrow crater
C. Broad, slightly domed structure
D. Steep slope and has a wide crat
38. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about how temperature affects the viscosity of the magma?
A. As lava flows, it cools and begins to harden.
B. The viscosity of magma increases with temperature.
C. The viscosity of magma decreases with temperature.
D. The lower the temperature the ability of magma to flow also decreases.
39. Jade performs an activity to relate how liquids flow with how lava flows. He uses water and cooking oil and observed that water
has less travel time than cooking oil. Which of the following conclusions is correct?
A. Water is less viscous than cooking oil.
B. Water is more viscous than cooking oil
C. Water and cooking oil have the same viscosity.
D. Viscosity of liquids does not affect its travel time.
40. Magma and lava are two materials related to volcanoes, what is the difference between these two?
A. Magma and lava are hot molten rocks found in the Earth’s crust.
B. Magma is a molten rock that reaches the Earth’s surface while lava is stored in Earth’s crust.
C. Magma is a liquid rock that has cooled and hardened while lava is a liquid rock.
D. Magma is the combination of liquid rock, crystals, and gas below the surface. Lava is the same thing as magma but is on top of
the surface.
41. Different liquids have different viscosities. What conclusion can you draw about the characteristics of magma based on this
statement?
A. The magma’s rate of flow does not depend on several factors.
B. The higher the magma’s chemical content the lesser its viscosity.
C. The amount of gas and silicone content does not affect the magma’s Viscosity.
D. If the liquid represents magma, then its rate of flow depends on several factors
42. An energy that comes from the heat of Earth’s interior is called?
A. Solar Energy B. Biomass Energy C. Geothermal Energy D. Hydroelectric Energy

2. At what rank exactly is the Philippines in the world’s production of geothermal energy?
A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth
43. What do you call an underground reservoir of magma?
A. Crater B. Conduit C. Magma Vent D. Magma chamber

44. The following places in the Philippines have geothermal power plants except:
A. Baguio City B. Butuan City C. Kidapawan City D. Valencia Negros Oriental
45. The following statements are true about geothermal power plants EXCEPT one. Which one is it?
A. Geothermal power plants are a renewable source of generating energy.
B. Geothermal power plants are one way of generating geothermal energy.
C. In Geothermal power plants, the heat from deep inside the Earth is used to produce steam to generate electricity.
D. In Geothermal power plants, the heat coming from the Earth’s surface is used to heat water or provide heat for buildings.
46.What do you call a device that makes a system undergo a cyclic process resulting in the conversion of heat to work?
A. Heat Pump B. Heat Engine C. Heat Reservoir D. Heat Cooling system
47.To keep the milk cold, you need to place it in a device that uses electric energy to pump thermal energy from a cooler location
to a warmer location. What device could this be?
A. Refrigerator B. Condenser C. Cooler D. Compressor

48. At what rank exactly is the Philippines in the world’s production of geothermal energy?
A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth
49. Refrigerators work by causing the refrigerant circulating inside them. What is commonly used as refrigerant for most of the
refrigerators?
A. Gas that is hard to liquefy C. Liquid that is easy to turn into gas
B. Gas that is easy to solidify D. Liquid that is hard to turn into solid
50.The efficiency of a heat engine is defined as the ratio of net mechanical work done per cycle (W) to the amount of heat energy
absorbed per cycle from the source. If a hear engine takes in 750 J of heat from a hot reservoir and produces 450 J of work in each
cycle. What is its efficiency?
A. 0.3 B. 0.4 C. 0.5 D. 0.6