MERCHANT MARINE ACADEMY OF CARAGA, INC.

North Montilla Blvd., Ong Yiu, Butuan City, Agusan del Norte
COLLEGE OF MARITIME EDUCATION

Document Title: BSMarE Revalida - Test Questionnaire for 1st Year Level (SET A) Page 1 of 11
Document Code: MER.LEVEL1.00 Approved date: June 01, 2022 Effectivity date: June 15, 2022
Prepared by: 3E Bahian Reviewed by: CE Toscano Approved by: Capt. Almero

Test I – Professional Courses

Multiple Choice Questions.
Direction: Professional courses multiple choice questions are numbered consecutively from 1 – 100. Do not write anything on
the Test Questionnaire. Select the letter from the given options the one that corresponds to your answer.

A. ELECTRO 1-2 (TQ 1-28)

1. What are the two distinct control measures that ensure the safety of both crews and electrical equipment and electrical installations
for unwanted electrical hazards; such as crew exposed to grounded and live circuit or exposure to a damage but still operating
electrical equipment?
A) Isolation and Lack off C) Isolation and Lock off
B) Insulated and Lock off D) Insulation and Lock off

2. What do we call a device that interrupts the flow of current in the electric circuit to prevent excessive current, as that caused by a
short circuit, from damaging the apparatus in the circuit or from causing a fire?
A) Resistors B) Transformers C) Circuit Breakers D) Electrical Insulators

3. Which of the following circuit breakers that was not classified for high voltages operation?
A) Air Circuit Breaker B) Oil Circuit Breaker C) Vacuum Circuit Breaker D) Miniature Circuit Breaker

4. What is this electrical instrument used for quality measure of an electrical system; basically used for verifying the electrical insulation
level of any device such as motors, cables, generators, windings, etc.?
A) Electrons B) Megger C) Ohmmeter D) Voltmeter

5. The main purposes of performing insulation resistance testing onboard ships?

A) Used to apply electricity
B) Used for electrical safety precautions
C) Used as a quality control measure on resistance and other related electrical activity
D) Used as a quality control measure the performance of the main engine and high voltage equipment

6. A material whose properties are such that it is not quite a conductor and not quite an insulator, whose electrical properties lie
between Conductors and Insulators (e.g. Silicon & Germanium).
A) Diodes B) Potentiometer C) Semiconductor D) Thyristors

7. Which of the following choices does not belong to Integrated Circuit (IC) functions?
A) Amplifier B) Oscillation C) Resistor D) Microprocessor

8. What do we call an electronic component that is an association or connection of various electronic devices such as resistors,
capacitors and transistors; also known as chip or microchip?
A) Diode B) Integrated Circuit C) Thyristors D) Transistors

9. An electronic equipment control system in which the individual steps are processed in a predetermined order, progression from one
sequence to the next being dependent on defined conditions being satisfied.
A) Sequential Control System
B) Programmable-Logic-Control (PLC)
C) Proportional-Logic-Controller Systems (PLCS)
D) Proportional-Integral-Derivative Controller (PID)

10. In semiconductor classifications if P-type material is the one which holes are majority carriers i.e. they are positively charged
material, what is N-Type material?
A) Refers to which electrons are majority charge carriers i.e. negatively charge
B) Refers to which proton electrons are majority charge carriers i.e. negatively charge
C) Refers to which network electrons are majority charge carriers i.e. negatively charge
D) Refers to which valence conductors are majority charge carriers i.e. negatively charge

11. The following choices are examples of characteristics of diode, EXCEPT for one.
A) Diodes always conducts on one direction
B) Diodes do not conduct when “Reversed Biased” infinite resistance
C) Diodes always conduct current when “Forward Biased” zero resistance
D) Diodes do not conduct when “Reversed-Forward Biased” zero resistance
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COLLEGE OF MARITIME EDUCATION

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12. Which of the following is not type of a diode?

A) Cave diode B) Tunnel Diode C) Half Wave Rectifier Diode D) Bidirectional Breakdown Diode

13. What is the main purpose of switchboard in the electrical systems onboard?
A) Is used to control the flow of power
B) Is used to control the flow of current
C) Is used to control the flow of voltage
D)Is used to control the and regulate the flow of power, current and voltage

14. What is the primary function of a thyristor?

A) Is to control electric power and current by acting as a switch
B) Is to control electric power and voltages by acting as a switch
C) Is to control electric power and resistances by acting as a switch
D) Is to control electric currents and resistances by acting as a switch

15. What is the purpose of a Voltage Regulators?

A) It is used to regulate low voltages C) It is used to regulate high voltages level
B) It is used to regulate voltage levels D) It is used as switching low voltages regulator

16. What will you do if you want to measures high voltages electrical system?
A) Use digital multitester with sufficient voltage 500V AC
B) Use digital multitester with sufficient voltage 500V DC
C) Use digital multitester with voltage ranges from 220V to 440V
D) Use digital multitester with voltage ranges from 1000V to 5000V

17. What will be the first steps in logical troubleshooting methods?

A) Test the theory C) Identify the problem
C) Test a theory of probable cause D) Document findings, actions, and outcomes

18. Is a form of problem solving, often applied to repair failed products or processes on a machine or a system. It is a logical, systematic
search for the source of a problem in order to solve it, and make the product or process operational again.
A) Causes B) Repairing C) Maintenance D) Troubleshooting

19. During troubleshooting a boiler you found out that the burner does not start. To rectify the faults, which of the following would you not
execute to ensure a safe troubleshooting?
A) Repair blown fuses
B) Disconnect main switches
C) Program relay safety switch requires resetting
D) Limit circuit not complete-no voltage at end of limit circuit program relay terminal

20. In boiler operation a programmer lockout switch has tripped, due to shutdown of the boiler during firing. Which of the following would
suite to rectify the faults?
A) Check fuel lines C) Check boiler valves
B) Check flame detector D) Check for open circuit in running interlock circuit

21. What is the use of DC voltages that can be found in digital tester?
A) Use to measure in alternating current
B) Use to measure power of a direct current
C) Use to measure direct current generators or battery
D) Use to measure alternating current generators and transformers

22. What will you do if you want to check or ensure that there is no connection loose in the circuit?
A) Amperages Test B) Continuity Test C) Frequency Test D) Voltage Test

23. After you check the continuity of a damaged capacitor in the circuit board the reading was zero, what is meant by this?
A) There is no power flow C) There is no voltage flow
B) There is no current flow D) There is no amperage flow
 MERCHANT MARINE ACADEMY OF CARAGA, INC.
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COLLEGE OF MARITIME EDUCATION

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24 Which of the following states the advantages of a linear voltage regulator?

A) Efficiency is very low C) Requires large space – heatsink is needed
B) Low electromagnetic interference and less noise D) Voltage above the input cannot be decreased and increased

25. Which of the following does not belong in multivibrators application onboard?
A) They are used as a voltage regulator C) They are used in radar and tv circuits
C) They are used as wave and pulse generator D) They are used as standard frequency sources

26. What is a type of differential amplifier that has been outfitted with input buffer amplifiers, which eliminate the need for input
impedance matching and thus make the amplifier particularly suitable for use in measurement and test equipment?
A) AC Amplifiers B) DC Amplifiers C) Buffer Amplifiers D) Instrumentation Amplifier

27. A type of automatic control devices that is electrically operated switch it uses electromagnet to mechanically operate a switch used
where it is necessary to control a circuit by a low power signal or where circuits must be controlled by one signal.
A) Relay B) Regulators C) Sensors D) Transmitters

28. What is a data logger or recorder that uses electronic device that records data over tie or in relation to location either with a built in
instruments or sensor via instruments and sensor?
A) Monitor B) Computer C) Computer System D) Monitoring System

B. MECH, THERMO (TQ 29-60)

29. Is an area of science that concerned with the behavior of physical bodies when subjected to forces or displacements, and the
subsequent effects of the bodies on their environment?
A) Fluid Mechanics B) Mechanics C) Thermodynamics D) Physics

30. What do we call a branch of physical science which deals with the mechanics of liquids and gasses and is based on the same
fundamental principles that are employed in the mechanics of solid?
A) Fluid Mechanics B) Mechanics C) Thermodynamics D) Physics

31. A branch of hydraulics that deals with velocities and streamlines w/o considering forces of energy.
A) Fluid Static B) Fluid Kinematics C) Hydrodynamics D) Mechanics

32. The type of flow occupying in a 30 cm diameter pipe which water flows at a velocity of 2.10 m/sec. Use: v=1.13 x 10−6 m2sec⁄ (for water)
A. Re = 577,522.12 Laminar flow C. Re = 577,522.12 Turbulent flow
B. Re = 677,522.12 Laminar flow D. Re = 677,522.12 Turbulent flow

33. The length of pipe is 168 meter. If the pressure drop is 50 Kpa for every 30 meters, what is the total pressure drop?
A) 280 Kpa B) 285 Kpa C) 290 Kpa D) 295 Kpa

34. A type of pump that used to convert kinetic energy into pressure energy through diffuser vanes.
A) Centrifugal Pumps B) Centripetal Pumps C) Reciprocating Pumps D) Rotary Pumps

35. The suction pressure of a pump reads 540 mm Hg vacuum. What is the absolute pressure in Kpa?
A) 3.3 Kpa B) 29.33 Kpa C) 40.3 Kpa D) 60 Kpa

36. What is the equivalent value of 400 °K to °R?

A) 670.27 °R B) 720.60 °R C) 851.15 °R D) 1344.25 °R

37. What is this latent heat of fusion that defines the change of enthalpy resulting from heating a given quantity of a substance to
changes its state form a solid to a liquid?
A) Entropy of Fusion B) Enthalpy of Fusion C) Internal Energy D) Work

38. A boiler burns fuel oil with 15% excess air. The fuel oil may be represented by C14 H30. Calculate the molal air fuel ratio.
A) 87.69 mol air / mol fuel C) 97.69 mol air / mol fuel
B) 107.69 mol air / mol fuel D) 117.69 mol air / mol fuel

39. The dry exhaust gas from oil engine has the following gravimetric analysis:
CO2 = 21.6% O2 = 4.2% N2 = 74.2%
The specific heats at constant pressure for each component of the exhaust gas in Kcal/kg-°C are: CO2 = 0.203 O2 = 0.219 N2 = 0.248
Calculate the gas constant (R) in J/kg-°K
A) 272.06 J/kg-°K B) 372.06 J/kg-°K C) 472.06 J/kg-°K D) 572.06 J/kg-°K
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COLLEGE OF MARITIME EDUCATION

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40. Aside from parts and accessories of a gas turbine, what is one of the most important parameters for the maintenance and inspection
needed for the gas turbine?
A) Mass B) Fuel C) Gas D) Volume

41. A gas turbine working on an air standard Brayton cycle has air enter into the compressor at atmospheric condition and 23 °C. The
pressure ratio is 9 and the maximum temperature in the cycle is 1077 °C. Compute the cycle efficiency.
A) 40.56% B) 42.45% C) 45.62% D) 46.62%

42. Find the fuel consumption in GRMS-BHP/HR whose consumption per day is 27.10 MT (metric ton) and actual BHP is 7109.52.
A) 158.82 gms-bhp/hr B) 168.882 gms-bhp/hr C) 176.85 gms-bhp/hr D) 183.86 gms-bhp/hr

43. Which of the following does not belong to the classification of governor’s base on their operating principles?
A) Electronic System B) Hydraulic Control C) Governor Sensitivity D) Flyweight Control System

44. The following statements are the advantages of using electronics in hydraulic governors, EXCEPT for one.
A) Faster response to load changes
B) Control functions can easily be built in the electronics
C) Presence of indicators and controls have implemented automation
D) They can be mounted in positions remote from the engine and eliminate or reduce the need for governor drives

45. The following choices are the advantages in using hydraulic governors, EXCEPT for one.
A) They have high efficiency
B) They have a high-power output
C) They have high accuracy and precision
D) The maintenance of hydraulic governors is only done in the manufacturer’s service center

46. In ideal gas the constant volume process is an internally reversible constant volume, the following are another terms for constant
volume, EXCEPT for one.
A) Isometric B) Isovolumeter C) Isochoric D) Isovolumic

47. Assuming compression is according to the law of Pv = constant. Calculate the initial volume of gas at a pressure of 2 bar which will
occupy a volume of 6 cubic meters when it is compressed to a pressure of 42 bar.
A) 100 m3 B) 116 m3 C) 126 m3 D) 200 m3
48. Which of the following is not a solution or remedy on a low charge refrigerant and overcharge indications?
A) Achieve the correct pressure gauge reading
B) Charge the system until the bubbles disappear
C) Check for leaky points by halide torch or soap solution or electronic leak detectors
D) The compressor runs longer period between the start and stop.
49. A volume of 450 cc of air is measured at a pressure of 740 mm Hg absolute and a temperature of 20 °C. What is the volume in cc at
760 mm Hg and 0 °C? Use: formula for any process in ideal gas
A) 108.25 cc B) 208.25 cc C) 308.25 cc D) 408.25 cc

50. If air is at pressure, P, of 3200 lbft2 ,⁄ and at a temperature, T, of 800 °R, what is the specific volume, v?
A) 13.375 ft3/lb B) 15.375 ft3/lb C) 17.375 ft3/lb D) 23.375 ft3/lb

51. What do we call a thermodynamic process in which there is no heat gain or heat loss?
A) Adiabatic Process B) Isobaric Process C) Isothermal Process D) Reversible Process

52. What is the third type of special thermodynamic process that has a constant temperature?
A) Adiabatic Process B) Isobaric Process C) Isothermal Process D) Reversible Process

53. The change of enthalpy in the condenser is 1500 KJ/kg. The temperature change of water is 8 °C and the refrigerant flow is 0.13
kg/sec. Determine the gallon per minute (gpm) of water required for cooling. Use: Cp = 4.187 KJ/kg-°K (for water)
A) 22.28 gpm B) 62.82 gpm C) 92.28 gpm D) 98.88 gpm

54. A system for controlling the humidity, ventilation, and temperature in the surroundings; typically to maintain a cool atmosphere in
warm conditions.
A) Air Conditioning B) Cooling Tower C) Refrigeration D) Ventilations
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COLLEGE OF MARITIME EDUCATION

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Document Code: MER.LEVEL1.00 Approved date: June 01, 2022 Effectivity date: June 15, 2022

55. Is an instrument consisting of two thermometers, one to measure the wet bulb temperature of the air?
A) Barometer B) Psychometer C) Thermostat D) Stoichometer

56. Is the expression of mass of water vapor per unit mass of dry air, also known as specific humidity?
A) Dew Point B) Dry air C) Humidity D) Humidity Ratio

57 What is Dew point?

A) The temperature at which water vapor is about to condense
B) To reduce the quantity of water vapor within the space
C) To remove water from any vapor within of matter
D) The temperature at which the water vapor in the air condenses when the air is cooled at constant pressure

58. If humidifying is to increase the level of moisture content in air. What is dehumidifying?
A) To reduce the quantity of water vapor within the space
B) To increase the quantity of water vapor within the space
C) To remove water from any vapor within the space
D) To add water from any vapor within the space

59. In a diesel power plant if the working temperature in the cylinder is from 800 °F to 1000 °F. What is the working pressure in power
cylinder?
A) 30 - 500 psi B) 50 - 500 psi C) 60 - 1000 psi D) 500 – 1000 psi

60. The heat generated by a fuel is 2500 KW. If the jacket water loss is 30%. Determine the mass of water circulated in the engine if the
temperature rise is 8 °C.
A) 22.39 kg/sec B) 27.11 kg/sec C) 29.13 kg/sec D) 32.29 kg/sec

C. MACH 1-2, EMAT, DRAW (TQ 61-74)

61. Which statement below is not correct when controlling the use of dies?
A. a feed and speeds
B. correct die selection
C. tool condition and surface condition
D. adjustable wrench are to be use to hold taps & dies

62. What is the first thing to do when using a die?

A. put the die into a socket wrench
B. chose the correct die for the size diameter
C. use grease to lubricate during cutting operation
D. d. begin turning the wrench in a counter clockwise direction

63. What tool will you use to put threads either on the inside of a hole or on the outside of a rod?
A. tap and die B. electric hacksaw C. drilling machine D. pneumatic tools

64. When using a powered grinder you must ________.

A. always use eye protection C. always wear an ear protector
B. always clamp a hand held grinder in a vise D. always turn on the power even if not in use

65. Which statement is correct when using an angle grinder?

A. use of guards on grinders are optional only
B. having a dead man switch is not a factor in its safety features
C. angle grinders are safe to use even without wearing hand gloves
D. nine-inch angle grinders have a risk of injury due to the increase power and size

66. What could be a major contributing factor in accident using angle grinders?
A. choosing the wrong disc C. choosing the wrong brand
B. choosing the wrong voltage D. choosing the wrong power outlet

67. How does the ram holding the tool moves in a shaper?
A. Rotary B. Reciprocating C. Stationary D. Steady

68. Which of the following materials that has maximum ductility?

A. Aluminum B. Copper C. Mild steel D. Nickel
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69. The material being added in making weld, brazed or soldered joint is called.
A. Base metal B. filler metal C. work piece metal D. Stack

70. The unbalanced mass of the rotating object causes deflection that will create resonant vibration at certain speeds, known as:
A. Normal speed B. Abnormal speed C. Critical Speed D. Barred speed

71. Elastomeric polymers have unique mechanical properties with the most aligned property in:
A. Brittleness B. Hardness C. Elasticity D. Malleability

72. A joint between two member aligned approximately in the same plane is called:
A. Butt joint B. Corner joint C. Lap joint D. Tee joint

73. Solder is an alloy consisting of:

A. Tin, Antimony, Copper B. Tin and Lead C. Tin and Copper D. Lead and Zinc

74. The Hardness of steel depends on:

A. Amount of Carbon contains C. Method of fabrication
B. Contains of Alloying elements D. Shape and distribution of carbide in iron

D. NAV ARCH (TQ 75-100)

75. Which of these methods assume that the damaged compartment does not contribute to the total buoyancy of the ship?
A. Added Weight Method C. Concept of Permeability Method
B. Lost Buoyancy Method D. Conceptualization Method

76. What is the advantage of Floodable Length Curves?

A. The advantage that these curves come with is that they can be plotted very inexpensively, and at a very initial stage of the design.
B. The advantage is that the margin line will remain above the waterline.
C. The advantage is that the margin line would submerge if the following compartments were flooded together.
D. The advantage is that the margin line would remain above the waterline for simultaneous flooding.

77. Transverse stability calculations require the use of which information?

A. Hydrostatic curves C. General arrangement plans
B. Cross-sectional views of the vessel D. Hog or sag calculations or tables

78. What deals with the ability of a ship to float in water and regain its upright equilibrium position when some sort of structural damage
has occurred?
A. Deterministic Damage Stability C. Damage Stability
B. Lost Bouyancy Method D. Floodable length Curve

79. A perpendicular drawn to the waterline at the point where the after side of the rudder post meets the summer load line is called:
A. Forward Perpendicular (FP) C. After Perpendicular (AP)
B. Length Between Perpendiculars (LBP) D. Length Overall (LOA)

80. Length of vessel taken over all extremities is known as:

A. Forward Perpendicular (FP) C. After Perpendicular (AP)
B. Length Between Perpendiculars (LBP) D. Length Overall (LOA)

81. What is the vertical distance between the waterline and the bottom of the hull (keel), with the thickness of the hull
A. Draught of a ship's hull B. Beam of the ship C. Bow D. Stern

82. What line on a ship indicating the depth to which it sinks in the water when properly loaded
A. Load Line B. Deck Line C. Pointer line D. Beam

83. This effect of flooding on a ship will cause a change in draft to the point where the displacement of the undamaged part of the ship
will be equal to the displacement before damage less the weight of the water that entered the ship after flooding.
A. Change of Trim B. Change of Draft C. Loss of the Ship D. Change in Freeboard
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84. What is the principle of Archimedes in reference to displacement of a ship?

A. That every body that floats displaces at least twice its own weight in water.
B. That a floating body becomes unstable, if the density of the water it is floating in exceeds the specific gravity of salt water.
C. That every floating body displaces it's own weight of the liquid in which it floats.
D. That a floating body must be completely watertight, in order for it to float.

85. The weight of water that a ship pushes aside when it is floating, which in turn is the weight of a ship and its contents.
A. Displacement B. Deadweight C. Lightweight D. All of the choices

86. The total weight of a cargo vessel loaded so that its waterline reaches the summer load line.
A. Light Displacement B. Load Displacement C. Lightweight D. Deadweight

87. It is the weight of the ship excluding cargo, fuel, water, ballast, stores, passengers, crew, but with water in boilers to steaming level.
A. Light Displacement B. Load Displacement C. Lightweight D. Deadweight

88. It is an upward force exerted by a fluid that opposes the weight of an immersed object.
A. Buoyancy B. Gravity C. Force of attraction D. All of the choices

89. The volume of all watertight enclosed spaces above water line is called:
A. Positive buoyancy B. Negative buoyancy C. Neutral buoyancy D. Reserved Buoyancy
90. It is the reference mark on hull that indicates the draft of the ship and the legal limit to which a ship may be loaded for specific
water types and temperatures in order to safely maintain buoyancy.
A. Draft marks B. Deck line mark C. Load line marks D. All of the option

91. An intact buoyancy means:

A. The volume of all intact spaces above the waterline
B. An intact space below the surface of the flooded area
C. An intact space when flooded will not cause the vessel to sink
D. The space where all the vertical upward forces of buoyancy are considered to be concentrated

92. Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE?

A. When a vessel with a full tank is heled, the liquid within the tank acts like a solid mass.
B. A partially filled space with 40% Surface permeability will have a greater free surface effectthan one with 60% surface permeability
C. The effect can be reduced by shifting weights vertically
D. The free surface effect usually increases at angles of heel above 25 degrees.

93. A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of a ship when it is:
A. Completely full B. Low in the ship C. Completely empty D. Slack

94. What is the principal danger from the liquid in a half full tank onboard a vessel.
A. Corrosion from the shifting liquid C. Loss of stability from free surface effect
B. Rupturing of bulkheads from the shifting liquid D. Holing the tank bottom from the weight of the shifting liquid

95. What is the effect of bilge water on a vessel’s stability?

A. The free surface effect reduces the stability. C. The free surface effect increases the stability
B. The free surface effect has no significant in stability D. None of the options is correct

96. If a vessel is sagging, what kind of stress is placed on the sheer strake?
A. Compression B. Tension C. Thrust D. Racking

97. A ship's forward draft is 7.50 m and its after draft is 8.00 m. The draft amidships is 7.80 m. This indicates a concentration
of weight ___________.
A. at the bow B. in the lower holds C. amidships D. at the ends

98. When a vessel is stationary and in a hogging condition, the main deck is under _______________
A. compression stress B. tension stress C. shear stress D. racking stress

99. When two external parallel forces act in opposite directions on any part of a structure to break it apart, the forces are known as:
A. shearing forces B. bending forces C. buoyancy forces D. gravitational forces

100. the bending moment is the highest in the midship section when the ship's ends are supported by crests of a wave known as:
A. 'hogging' or 'negative bending' B. `sagging' or `positive bending'. C. racking D. thrust
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Test II – General Education Courses (Math, Science and English)

Multiple Choice
Direction: Multiple choices are numbered consecutively from 1 – 50. Do not write anything on the Test Questionnaire.
Select the letter from the given options the one that corresponds to your answer.

E. ENGLISH (TQ 101-115)

101. The method used to communicate a message (text, writing, talking, etc.) is __________.
A. channel B. communication C. correspondence D. colloquialism

102. What differences exist between morals and ethics?

A. Morals are our own set of rules, ethics are rules accepted by the society.
B. Morals are rules accepted by the society; ethics are our own set of rules.
C. Morals and ethics do not differ from each other.
D. Morals and ethics are the same.

103. What would result if a person doesn't know how to communicate properly?
A. The person might send the correct message. C. The person may be misunderstood.
B. The person may gain a lot of friends. D. The person could become a TV host.

104. "Since many classmates of John don't see anything wrong with cheating on tests, he cheats too." John's behavior is __________.
A. ethical B. unethical C. both ethical and unethical D. neither ethical nor unethical

105. Do you think it is possible to communicate without using words?

A. No, because that's not possible. C. No, because we can't communicate without saying a word.
B. Yes, because we can just send a text message. D. Yes, because one can communicate through body language.

106. An old man was asking Carl for directions, when Carl answered, the old man failed to hear him as they were on a busy street. Carl
repeatedly gave directions to the old man until he got pissed off and turned his back. What could have Carl done to effectively send
out the message to the old man with poor hearing in a busy street?
A. Carl could have just ignored the old man.
B. Carl could have used body language and pointed the direction to the old man.
C. Carl could have just pretended deaf himself.
D. I don't know.

107. What is globalization?

A. The process of bringing people together across traditional borders. C. The process of creating war across traditional borders.
B. The process of creating a globe. D. The process of communication.

108. What differences exist between cultural integration and cultural assimilation?
A. Cultural assimilation assumes the beliefs and practices of another group without sacrificing its own culture, while cultural
integration does the contrary
B. Cultural integration assumes the beliefs and practices of another group without sacrificing its own culture, while cultural
assimilation does the contrary.
C. Cultural integration and cultural assimilation do not differ from each other.
D. Cultural integration and cultural assimilation are the same.

109. What would result if a person's ethnocentricity level is high?

A. A person can possibly feel suspicious toward the "out-group" culture.
B. A person can become curious and interested toward the "out-group" culture.
C. A person can neither be suspicious nor interested toward the "out-group" culture.
D. A person can't have a high ethnocentricity level.

110. Filipinos who migrate to another country speak their native language at home but outside, they use the language of the receiving
country. What type of culture adaptation is present in the situation?
A. Cultural integration B. Cultural assimilation C. Cultural accommodation D. Multiculturalism

111. Do you think globalization is a good or a bad thing?

A. Yes, because globalization has made the world more interconnected.
B. No, because globalization is bad for a country's culture.
C. Yes, because it makes every country successful.
D. No, because there is no such thing as globalization.
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112. Ben is a Filipino who lives in the U.S., he doesn't have any friends in his new home and he feels so left out. He wants to take on the
culture of the host country while instilling his Filipino values and beliefs. What suggestion can you give to Ben?
A. He shouldn't take on the culture of the host country, he is a Filipino, and he should act like a Filipino.
B. He can take on the values and beliefs of the host culture and accommodate them in the public sphere while maintaining the
parent culture in the private sphere.
C. He can forget about being a Filipino and act like an American instead.
D. He should just get back to the Philippines, he has lots of friends here.

113. What are the two major varieties of English?

A. American English and British English C. American English and Australian English
B. Australian English and British English D. American English and Philippine English

114. What differences exist between American English and British English?
A. American English and British English differ in grammar, spelling, and pronunciation.
B. American English and British English differ in vocabulary, spelling, and pronunciation.
C. American English and British English differ in vocabulary, grammar, and spelling.
D. American English and British English differ in pronunciation, grammar, and vocabulary.

115. How would you spell leukemia in British English?

A. leukemia B. leukamia C. lukemia D. lokemia

F. SCIENCE (TQ 116-130)

116. A man spinning in free space changes the shape of his by e.g. by stretching his arms or curling up then, which of the following
physical quantity will remain constant?
A. moment of inertia B. angular momentum C. angular velocity D. rotational kinetic energy

117. What will happen to the weight of a body if the gravitational acceleration at any place is doubled?
A. reduced to ½ B. doubled C. no change D. none of these

118. What refers to the focus of the instantaneous center of a moving rigid body?
A. straight line B. involute C. centroid D. spiral

119. What quantity describes the ability of a force to rotate an object?

A. mass B. moment of inertia C. torque D. velocity

120. Which of these statements best describes the torque produced when two children of different weights balance on a seesaw?
A. equal torques B. unequal torques C. equal torques in the same direction D. equal torques in opposite direction

121. Which of the following tells if an object is in equilibrium?

A. the object is in motion C. the object moving at a constant speed
B. the forces acting are not equal D. the net force is equal to zero

122. At what point will takes place when determining whether a rigid body is in equilibrium if the vector sum of the gravitational forces
acting on the individual particles of the body can always be replaced by a single force?
A. a point of the boundary b C. the center of gravity
B. the geometrical center D. any of the above

123. This type of wave has both a transverse and longitudinal wave and it separates the two different media the waves travel through.
A. Transverse Wave B. Surface Wave C. Longitudinal Wave D. Tidal Wave

124. Which of the following describes the effect of water waves passing into shallow water?
A. wavelength increases, frequency increases, velocity increases
B. wavelength increases, frequency unchanged, velocity increases
C. wavelength decreases, frequency increases, velocity unchanged
D. wavelength decreases, frequency unchanged, velocity decreases

125. Which of the following follows the Carnot Theorem?

A. Heat Engines B. Gas Turbine Engines C. Gas Compressors D. All of the options

126. What is known as laughing gas?

A. Nitrous oxide B. Carbon dioxide C. Acetylene D. Hydrogen
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127. What percentage of the atmosphere consists of carbon dioxide?

A. 0.03 % B. 1% C. 5 % D. 7%

128. Molten rock beneath the Earth’s crust is called,

A. Magma B. Liquicite C. Lava D. Igneous

129. The jet stream lies between which two layers of the earth’s atmosphere
A. Thermosphere and troposphere C. Troposphere and stratosphere
B. Mesosphere and thermosphere D. Stratosphere and stratosphere

130. Which of the following is the only element which, “mined” from the sea?
A. Copper B. Magnesium C. Uranium D. Zinc

G. MATHEMATICS (TQ 131-150)

131. What is the longest side of a right triangle called?
A. Leg B. Adjacent C. Opposite D. Hypotenuse

132. The card issuer pays the merchant right away by deducting the money from your checking or savings account.
A. Credit Card B. Home Ownership C. Debit Card D. Combination

133. A quantity that are expressed only in magnitude number and a unit of measure.
A. Scalar Quantity B. Vector Quantity C. Distance D. Displacement

134. Which of the following is not a Quadrilateral?

A. Rhombus B. Hexagon C. Square D. Parallelogram

135. Complementary angles have measures that add to ______.

A. 90 degrees B. 360 degrees C. 180 degrees D. 270 degrees

136. How many sides are there in a Dodecagon?

A. 9 B. 10 C. 11 D. 12

137. What do you call a polygon that are both equilateral and equiangular?
A. Regular Polygon B. Convex Polygon C. Irregular Polygon D. Concave Polygon

138. What is the measure of Each Interior Angle of a Heptagon?

A. 128.57 B. 130.56 C. 125.45 D. 127.99

139. Assume that you need to pay for 30 years the house you purchased. In how many months will it take for you to fully pay your loan?
A. 350 months B. 360 months C. 340 months D. 380 months

140. It is a process of spreading out or gradual payment of a loan or a debt over a period of time, such as monthly payments on a
mortgage loan into a series of fixed payments.
A. Down payment B. Mortgage Loan C. Amortization D. Home Amortization

141. Find the mode of the given values 17,13,15,26,23,29,18,22,15.

A. 15 B. 13 C. 23 D. 17

142. Six students are randomly selected in a Statistics class of 20 students received test grades of 92,84,65,76,88, and 90. Find the
mean test grades of the six students.
A. 80.50 B. 82.50 C. 84.50 D. 85.50

143. What is the most frequent data in the given set of data 12,11,15,12,12,11,14,17,15,12,13.
A. 12 B. 13 C. 14 D. 15

144. Pablo borrowed 1,000 pesos with an interest rate of 10% compounded monthly which he borrowed from cooperative. Compute how
much he will pay in 4 months.
A. 1464.1 pesos B. 1511.5 pesos C. 5463.1 pesos D. 6545.7 pesos

145. In how many ways can the letters of the word STATISTICS be arranged?
A. 50,200 ways B. 50,400 ways C. 52,300 ways D. 54,300 ways
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Reference to Questions 146-148. In triangle ABC: a = 6, b = 7, and c = 4.

Find the measure of Angle A, Angle B and Angle C. Use Law of Cosine.

146. Solve for Angle C.

A. 85.45 degrees B. 86.42 degrees C. 58.81 degrees D. 34.77 degrees

147. Solve for Angle A.

A. 85.45 degrees B. 86.42 degrees C. 58.81 degrees D. 34.77 degrees

148. Solve for Angle B.

A. 85.45 degrees B. 86.42 degrees C. 58.81 degrees D. 34.77 degrees

149. Who is the pioneer of Cartesian Plane?

A. Albert Einstein B. Rene Descartes C. John Darwin D. Plato

150. In how many ways can 4 people be arranged to sit around a circular table?
A. 8 ways B. 6 ways C. 12 ways D 15 ways

END OF TEST QUESTIONS