Of the following, the MOST likely diagnosis is

A. Apert syndrome
B. Carpenter syndrome
C. Chotzen syndrome
D. Pfeiffer syndrome
E. Crouzon syndrome

29. Which of the following is a factor increasing the risk for deformational
plagiocephaly?
A. Female
B. Postmaturity
C. Sleep position is prone at birth and at 6 wk
D. Breast feeding
E. Tummy time < 3 times/day

30. What is the BEST treatment for a 6-month-old infant with severe
deformational plagiocephaly?
A. Watch-and-wait management
B. Repositioning and physiotherapy
C. Increasing tummy time
D. Helmet therapy
E. Surgery

31. Which of the following is a major risk factor for recurrence of febrile
seizures?
A. Family history of febrile seizures
B. Family history of epilepsy
C. Complex febrile seizure
D. Male gender
E. Age < 1 yr

32. Which of the following risk factors has the highest incidence for occurrence
of subsequent epilepsy after a febrile seizure?
A. Recurrent febrile seizures
B. Fever < 1 hr before febrile seizure
C. Family history of epilepsy
D. Complex febrile seizures (focal)
E. Neurodevelopmental abnormalities
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33. A 6-month-old infant develops high fever followed by prolonged focal
seizure for more than 30 minutes after vaccination, subsequently the seizures
start to occur with lower grade of fever and then without fever. During the
second year of his life, atypical absences occur frequently with developmental
delay.
Of the following, the MOST likely diagnosis is
A. Generalized epilepsy with febrile seizures plus (GEFS+),
B. Dravet syndrome
C. Temporal lobe epilepsy secondary to mesial temporal sclerosis
D. Focal complex febrile seizures
E. Febrile infection–related (or refractory ) epilepsy (FIRES)

34. What is the MOST frequent cause of febrile status epilepticus?

A. Norovirus
B. Enteroviruses
C. Shigella
D. COVID 19
E. HHV-6B

35. A 10-month-old boy presented with febrile seizure which lasted about 10
minutes with no clinical signs of meningeal irritation, his immunization status
was unknown.
A medical student asks you about lumbar puncture LP for this baby; your
answer should be
A. No need for LP at time being
B. LP should be done because his immunization status was unknown
C. LP should be done after brain ultrasound
D. LP should be done if he developed another seizure within 24 hour
E. LP should be done because he is a male gender

36. An 18-month-old boy is presenting with the first simple febrile seizure and is
otherwise neurologically healthy; his father read in the net that EEG has a
significant role in the management of his son.
Your proper answer should be
A. EEG should not be performed as part of the evaluation
B. EEG would predict the future recurrence of febrile seizures
C. EEG would predict the future recurrence of epilepsy
D. EEG should be done after 2 wk of a febrile seizure
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 E. EEG should be done after second attack of febrile seizure

37. Which of the following blood studies is routinely recommended in the

workup of a child with a first simple febrile seizure?
A. Serum electrolytes
B. Calcium
C. Magnesium
D. Complete blood count
E. Blood glucose

38. Which of the following nutritional deficiencies is associated with an

increased risk of febrile seizures?
A. Iron
B. Zinc
C. B12
D. B6
E. Folate

39. A 5-year-old child wakes up at night due to a focal seizure with throat
tingling and clonic contractions of one side of the face, with drooling and
inability to speak but with preserved consciousness and comprehension. EEG
shows typical wide-based spikes that are markedly increased in frequency
during drowsiness and sleep with normal MRI.
Of the following, the MOST likely diagnosis is
A. atypical benign childhood epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes
B. benign childhood epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes
C. benign epilepsy with occipital spikes
D. nocturnal autosomal dominant frontal lobe epilepsy
E. familial benign epilepsy syndromes

40. Which of the following is TRUE regarding typical absence seizures?

A. They usually start at 3-4 yr of age
B. They can occur up to hundreds of times per day
C. They usually have an aura
D. They usually have florid automatisms
E. They usually have a postictal period

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41. A 7-month-old infant presents with epileptic spasms (that usually occur in
clusters), developmental regression, and a high voltage, slow, chaotic
background with multifocal spikes EEG.
Of the following, the MOST likely diagnosis is
A. Ohtahara syndrome
B. early myoclonic infantile encephalopathy
C. Dravet syndrome
D. West syndrome
E. Lennox-Gastaut syndrome

42. A 5-year-old boy presents with developmental delay, tonic seizures that
occur in sleep with EEG findings of 1- to 2-Hz spike and slow waves, polyspike
bursts in sleep, and a slow background in wakefulness. The seizures are
intractable despite multiple therapies.
Of the following, the MOST likely diagnosis is
A. Ohtahara syndrome
B. Doose syndrome
C. Dravet syndrome
D. West syndrome
E. Lennox-Gastaut syndrome

43. A 3-week-old newborn presents with recurrent generalized tonic seizures

that progress to status epilepticus which is not controlled by multiple
antiepileptic drugs. The mother reports increased fetal movements in utero.
Plasma and CSF showed elevated α-aminoadipic semialdehyde and pipecolic
acid levels.
Of the following, the MOST likely diagnosis is
A. pyridoxine dependent epilepsy
B. folinic acid–responsive seizures
C. pyridoxal phosphate–responsive neonatal epileptic encephalopathy
D. cerebral folate deficiency
E. tetrahydrobiopterin deficiencies

44. Which of the following drugs is the first choice for focal seizures?
A. Oxcarbazepine
B. Ethosuximide
C. Valproate
D. Lamotrigine
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 E. Topiramate

45. Which of the following drugs is MOST often used as initial treatment of
absence seizures?
A. Valproate
B. Lamotrigine
C. Ethosuximide
D. Acetazolamide
E. Clonazepam

46. Which of the following antiepileptic drugs may cause apnea?

A. Benzodiazepines
B. Carbamazepine
C. Lamotrigine
D. Levetiracetam
E. Phenobarbital

47. Which of the following antiepileptic drugs may cause irreversible visual field
deficit?
A. Benzodiazepines
B. Carbamazepine
C. Vigabatrin
D. Levetiracetam
E. Phenobarbital

48. Which of the following antiepileptic drugs may cause aplastic anemia?
A. Benzodiazepines
B. Carbamazepine
C. Vigabatrin
D. Levetiracetam
E. Phenobarbital

49. Hepatic and pancreatic toxicity are serious side effects in which of the
following antiepileptic drugs?
A. Benzodiazepines
B. Valproic acid
C. Vigabatrin
D. Levetiracetam
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 E. Gabapentin

50. Which of the following antiepileptic drugs is used in an epileptic patient with
migraine?
A. Benzodiazepines
B. Valproic acid
C. Vigabatrin
D. Levetiracetam
E. Gabapentin

51. Which of the following antiepileptic drugs is used in an epileptic obese

patient?
A. Topiramate
B. Valproic acid
C. Vigabatrin
D. Levetiracetam
E. Gabapentin

52. Which of the following antiepileptic drugs is better to be used in a patient

with both absence and generalized tonic-clonic seizures?
A. Topiramate
B. Valproic acid
C. Phenytoin
D. Ethosuximide
E. Gabapentin

53. Which of the following is the safest antiepileptic drug to use during
pregnancy?
A. Levetiracetam
B. Valproic acid
C. Phenytoin
D. Ethosuximide
E. Gabapentin

54. Which of the following antiepileptic drugs requires frequent (even weekly)
monitoring of liver function and blood counts throughout the therapy?
A. Levetiracetam
B. Valproic acid
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 C. Felbamate
D. Ethosuximide
E. Gabapentin

55. Which of the following antiepileptic drugs requires giving vitamin D

supplementation with it?
A. Levetiracetam
B. Gabapentin
C. Felbamate
D. Ethosuximide
E. Phenytoin

56. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to ketogenic diet?

A. Primary carnitine deficiency
B. Myoclonic-astatic epilepsy
C. Tuberous sclerosis complex
D. Rett syndrome
E. Dravet syndrome

57. Discontinuation of antiepileptic drugs AEDs is usually indicated when

children are free of seizures for at least
A. 1 year
B. 2 year
C. 3 year
D. 4 year
E. 5 year

58. Antiepileptic drug AED therapy should be discontinued gradually; often over
a period of
A. 1-2 months
B. 2-4 months
C. 3-6 months
D. 4-8 months
E. 5-10 months

59. Which of the following neonatal seizures is frequently not associated with
electrographic discharges?
A. Spasms
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 B. Focal clonic
C. Focal tonic
D. Generalized myoclonic
E. Generalized tonic

60. What is the MOST common cause of neonatal seizures?

A. Vascular events
B. Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy
C. Intracranial infections
D. Brain malformations
E. Metabolic disturbances

61. A full-term newborn of a malnourished mother presents with hypocalcemic

seizure not responding to IV calcium.
Of the following, the MOST likely cause is
A. hyponatremia
B. hypernatremia
C. hypomagnesemia
D. hypoglycemia
E. pyridoxine dependency

62. What is the first-choice long-acting drug in neonatal seizures?

A. Lorazepam
B. Phenobarbital
C. Phenytoin
D. Fosphenytoin
E. Levetiracetam

63. A 3-week-old newborn is well and ready to be discharged from NICU; he

developed seizure at first day of life due to difficult labor and treated with
phenobarbital loading then maintenance on 5mg/kg/day twice daily. An EEG
done before discharge and does not show evidence of epileptiform activity.
Parents asked you about the fate of anticonvulsant and when can be stopped.
Of the following, the MOST appropriate answer is that phenobarbital should be
A. stopped immediately
B. tapered at time of discharge
C. tapered after 3 months
D. tapered after 6months
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 E. tapered after 12 months

64. What is the MOST common type of status epilepticus in children?

A. Convulsive status epilepticus
B. Febrile status epilepticus
C. Nonconvulsive status epilepticus
D. Epilepsia partialis continua
E. Refractory status epilepticus

65. What is the first-line agent recommended by the American Epilepsy Society
Guidelines to control status epilepticus?
A. Phenobarbital
B. Lorazepam
C. Phenytoin
D. Valproate
E. Levetiracetam

66. Which of the following investigations is recommended to a 1-year-old boy

presents with recurrent severe breath-holding spells?
A. EEG
B. ECG
C. Serum calcium
D. Serum Zinc
E. Echocardiography

67. How you treat a 1-year-old boy presenting with recurrent severe cyanotic
breath-holding spells?
A. Education and reassurance of the parents
B. Atropine sulfate
C. Anti-seizure drug therapy
D. Cardiac pacemaker
E. Basic cardiopulmonary resuscitation

68. A 9-year-old boy presents with pallor and sweating followed by a gradual
collapse with loss of consciousness triggered by standing for a long time without
movement when taking a hot shower.
What is the MOST likely cause of this event?
A. Complex partial seizure
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 B. Vasovagal syncope
C. Temporal lobe epilepsy
D. Exercise-induced anaphylaxis
E. Long QT syndrome

69. A 5-year-old boy presents with postural imbalance and nystagmus, he

reported that objects seem to be moving toward him. The child appears
frightened during the episode with diaphoresis, nausea, and vomiting. MRI and
EEG are normal.
Of the following, the MOST likely diagnosis is
A. cyclic vomiting syndrome
B. long QT syndrome
C. benign paroxysmal vertigo of childhood
D. The Alice in Wonderland syndrome
E. hyperekplexia

70. A 6-month-old infant presents with paroxysmal episodes of generalized

stiffening and opisthotonic posturing accompanied by apnea, staring, and
minimal jerking of the extremities. These episodes often occur 30 min after a
feed.
What is the MOST likely cause of these events?
A. Benign paroxysmal torticollis of infancy
B. Exaggerated startle reflex
C. Stiff baby syndrome
D. Sandifer syndrome
E. Paroxysmal dyskinesia

71. A 4-month-old boy infant presents with repeated head drops, hundreds
times per day, without concurrent EEG epileptic activity. His parents asked
about prognosis, your answer is
A. It persists for life
B. It subsides when child walks without support
C. It subsides by 1st year of life
D. It may lead to developmental delay
E. It may convert to epileptic myoclonus

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72. A 2- year-old girl brought by her mother complaining from rhythmic rocking
movements in lying and sometimes sitting position often associated with
perspiration, irregular breathing, and grunting, but no loss of consciousness.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this event?
A. Tic
B. Mannerism
C. Anxiety attack
D. Infantile gratification
E. Hyperventilation spell

73. What is the MOST common presenting complaint of intramedullary spinal

cord tumors?
A. Gait disturbance
B. Back pain
C. Sensory deficits
D. Scoliosis
E. Bladder disturbance

74. Status migrainosus is defined as migraine that persists beyond

A. 24 hr
B. 48 hr
C. 72 hr
D. 96 hr
E. one week

75. What is the MOST frequent symptom of idiopathic intracranial

hypertension?
A. Vomiting
B. Transient visual obscuration
C. Chronic progressive frontal headache
D. Diplopia
E. Pulsatile tinnitus

76. What is the preferred initial drug to treat migraine headache?

A. Acetaminophen
B. Naproxen sodium
C. Aspirin
D. Triptan
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 E. Ibuprofen

77. Which of the following differentiate tension-type headache from migraine?

A. Focal in location
B. Worsened by physical activity
C. Nonthrobbing quality
D. Frequently associated with nausea
E. Moderate to severe intensity

78. Which of the following neurocutaneous syndromes is X-linked dominant?

A. Neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF2)
B. Tuberous sclerosis complex (TSC)
C. Sturge- Weber syndrome (SWS)
D. von Hippel–Lindau disease (VHL)
E. Incontinentia pigmenti

79. What is the MOST frequent lesion associated with neurofibromatosis

type 2?
A. Bilateral vestibular schwannomas
B. optic nerve schwannomas
C. Intracranial meningiomas
D. Spinal tumors
E. Peripheral neuropathy

80. Definite tuberous sclerosis complex TSC is diagnosed when at least two
major or one major plus two minor features are present.
Which of the following is a minor feature?
A. Subependymal nodules
B. Facial angiofibromas (≥3)
C. Ungual fibromas (≥2)
D. Retinal achromic patch
E. Shagreen patch

81. What is the MOST common neurologic manifestation of tuberous sclerosis

complex?
A. Epilepsy
B. Nystagmus
C. Sleep disorder
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 D. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
E. Depression

82. What is the first-line therapy for infantile spasms in Tuberous Sclerosis
Complex TSC?
A. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
B. Vigabatrin
C. Epilepsy surgery
D. Valproate
E. Everolimus

83. A young mother brought her 6-month-old boy with infantile spasm
secondary to tuberous sclerosis complex TSC with good response to vigabatrin,
his cardiac echo revealed cardiac rhabdomyoma. The mother counsels you
about the fate of this cardiac lesion.
Your best answer should be
A. It usually ends with congestive heart failure
B. It tends to slowly resolve spontaneously
C. It usually ends with arrhythmias
D. If started in fetal life, it is fatal in infancy
E. It usually needs surgical intervention

84. What is the imaging modality of choice for demonstrating the extension of
pial capillary malformation in Sturge-Weber syndrome (SWS)?
A. Brain MRI
B. Brain MRI with contrast
C. Head CT
D. Head CT with contrast
E. Brain US

85. What is the MOST common cause of death in von Hippel–Lindau disease?
A. Pheochromocytoma
B. Renal carcinoma
C. Cerebellar hemangioblastoma
D. Hemangioblastoma of the spinal cord
E. Retinal angiomas

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86. A 9-month-old infant presents with developmental delay, hypotonia,
abnormal eye movements, abnormal respirations, and a distinctive facial
feature. Axial MRI brain demonstrates “molar tooth sign”.
Of the following, the MOST likely diagnosis is
A. agenesis of vermis of the cerebellum
B. Chiari malformation
C. Dandy-Walker syndrome
D. Leigh disease
E. Joubert syndrome

87. A 3-year-old child presents with vomiting, truncal ataxia, horizontal

nystagmus, and dysarthria. Examination of the cerebrospinal fluid is normal. The
child had varicella 3 weeks ago.
What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
A. Infectious cerebellitis
B. Acute labyrinthitis
C. Neuroblastoma
D. Acute cerebellar ataxia
E. Hartnup disease

88. A 6-year-old child presents with steatorrhea, failure to thrive, ataxia,

peripheral neuritis, and retinitis pigmentosa. Blood smear shows acanthocytosis,
Serum chemistries reveal decreased levels of cholesterol and triglycerides and
absent serum β-lipoproteins.
Of the following, the MOST likely diagnosis is
A. Bassen-Kornzweig disease
B. arginosuccinic aciduria
C. Hartnup disease
D. Refsum disease
E. Friedreich ataxia

89. A 12-year-old boy presents with slowly progressive ataxia which affect the
lower extremities more than the upper extremities. Examination demonstrates
a positive Romberg test, absent ankle deep tendon reflexes; and extensor
plantar response. The boy has explosive dysarthric speech, nystagmus, with
preserved intelligence. He also has high-arched feet and hammer toes.
Of the following, the MOST likely diagnosis is
A. Roussy-Levy disease
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 B. Ramsay Hunt syndrome
C. Friedreich ataxia
D. ataxia-telangiectasia
E. Refsum disease

90. A 9- year-old girl awakened yesterday morning with clumsiness, dropped the
tea cup from her hand on breakfast then she started to develop generalized
abnormal body movement involving the face with crying and unintelligible
speech. When the patient asked to hold the upper limbs overhead, arms and
palms turn outward. Examination of heart is normal.
Of the following, the MOST likely diagnosis is
A. benign hereditary chorea
B. Sydenham chorea
C. chorea secondary to systemic lupus erythematosus
D. chorea secondary to antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
E. paraneoplastic chorea

91. Which of the following nutritional disorders may cause secondary

intracranial hypertension without an obstructive lesion on MRI?
A. Nutritional rickets
B. Hypovitaminosis A
C. Zinc deficiency
D. Copper deficiency
E. Vitamin K deficiency

92. A 5-week-old infant presents with repetitive focal myoclonic jerks occurring
during sleep, more prominent in the upper extremities continued for few
seconds, these jerks began during the 1st week of life, waking the baby causes
the movements to abruptly cease. Neurologic examination is normal.
Of the following, the MOST likely cause of these movements is
A. Opsoclonus myoclonus (ataxia) syndrome
B. Benign neonatal sleep myoclonus
C. Benign myoclonus of early infancy
D. Hypoglycemia
E. Myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibers (MERRF)

93. What is the MOST common cause of spastic diplegia?

A. Prematurity
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 B. Ischemia
C. hyperbilirubinemia
D. Thrombophilic disorders
E. Periventricular hemorrhagic infarction

94. What is the MOST common clinical manifestation of burn encephalopathy?

A. Altered states of consciousness
B. Hallucinations
C. Coma
D. Seizures
E. Irritability

95. A 14-year-old girl complained from rapidly progressive anxiety, agitation,

delusional thoughts, bizarre behavior, language disintegration, and insomnia.
After few weeks, additional symptoms occur, including a decreased level of
consciousness, seizures, choreoathetoid movements, and autonomic instability.
Brain MRI studies shows nonspecific cortical and subcortical T2–fluid attenuated
inversion recovery (FLAIR) signal abnormalities, the cerebrospinal fluid shows
moderate lymphocytic pleocytosis, the electroencephalogram (EEG) shows
diffuse slow activity in the delta and theta ranges while the abdominal
ultrasound revealed teratoma of the ovary.
Of the following, the MOST likely diagnosis is
A. anti-N -Methyl-D-Aspartate Receptor Encephalitis
B. neuroleptic malignant syndrome
C. limbic encephalitis
D. Kleine-Levin syndrome
E. encephalitis lethargica

96. A 7-year-old child presents with progressive refractory focal seizures,

cognitive deterioration, and focal neurologic deficits. MRI shows atrophy of
right brain hemisphere.
Of the following, the MOST likely diagnosis is
A. Bickerstaff Encephalitis
B. acute disseminated encephalomyelitis (ADEM)
C. Rasmussen encephalitis
D. Ophelia syndrome
E. autoimmune limbic encephalitis

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97. What is the MOST effective treatment for control of seizures in Rasmussen
encephalitis?
A. High-dose steroids
B. Plasma exchange
C. IVIG
D. Tacrolimus
E. Functional hemispherectomy

98. A 15-month-old child presents with progressive loss of motor and language
milestones beginning at 6 months of age with seizures, macrocephaly, and doll-
like face. Abdominal examination reveals splenomegaly while fundoscopy shows
cherry-red spots, and the auditory brainstem responses shows prolonged
latencies.
Of the following, the MOST likely diagnosis is
A. Sandhoff disease
B. Juvenile GM2 gangliosidosis
C. Tay-Sachs disease TSD
D. Krabbe disease
E. Metachromatic leukodystrophy

99. A 10-month-old boy infant presents with excessive irritability and crying,
unexplained episodes of hyperpyrexia, vomiting, and difficulty feeding,
diagnosed by GP doctor as colic with frequent milk formula change with no
improvement, now he develops generalized seizures , alterations in body tone
with rigidity and opisthotonos and visual inattentiveness as a result of optic
atrophy.
Of the following, the MOST likely diagnosis is
A. Sandhoff disease
B. juvenile GM2 gangliosidosis
C. Tay-Sachs disease
D. Krabbe disease
E. Metachromatic leukodystrophy

100. A 2-year-old boy has insidious onset of gait disturbance, frequent falls,
with feeding and swallowing impairment. The extremities are hypotonic, and
the deep-tendon reflexes are absent. The parents noticed deterioration in
intellectual function and dysarthric slurred speech. Examination of the retina
shows optic atrophy.
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Neurophysiologic evaluation shows slowing of peripheral nerve conduction
velocities. CT and MRI images of the brain indicate diffuse symmetric
attenuation of the cerebellar and cerebral white matter.
Of the following, the MOST likely diagnosis is
A. Sandhoff disease
B. Juvenile GM2 gangliosidosis
C. Tay-Sachs disease
D. Krabbe disease
E. Late infantile metachromatic leukodystrophy

101. A 3-year-old microcephalic female with regression of language and motor

milestones, presents with ataxic gait and fine tremor of hand movements with
sighing respirations, and intermittent periods of apnea. The patient develops
generalized tonic-clonic convulsions with autistic behavior.
Of the following, the MOST likely diagnosis is
A. occipital horn syndrome
B. Rett Syndrome
C. Menkes disease
D. Tay-Sachs disease
E. Krabbe disease

102. What is the hallmark of acute disseminated encephalomyelitis ADEM?

A. Headache
B. Meningeal signs
C. Seizures
D. Cranial neuropathies
E. Encephalopathy

103. Which of the following drugs may cause secondary intracranial

hypertension without an obstructive lesion on MRI?
A. Nitrofurantoin
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Ampicillin
D. Cefixime
E. Vancomycin

104. A 9-year-old boy presents with periocular pain and headache after a non-
specific viral illness, few days later, he develops bilateral visual loss.
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What is the MOST likely cause of this visual loss?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Behçet disease
C. Lyme disease
D. Leber hereditary optic neuropathy
E. Optic neuritis

105. Which of the following is characterized by visual loss; sensorineural hearing

loss; encephalopathy; headache; memory loss; behavioral disturbances and
brain MRI shows involvement of corpus callosum with snowball lesions?
A. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
B. Neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorders
C. Neurosarcoidosis
D. Susac syndrome
E. Hypoxic-ischemic vasculopathies

106. Which of the following imaging studies can demonstrate arterial ischemic
stroke (AIS) few minutes following the onset?
A. Brain CT
B. Cerebral MRI
C. Diffusion-weighted MRI
D. MR angiography
E. Ultrasound brain

107. Which of the following may cause hand dominance within the first year of
life?
A. Perinatal stroke
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Sickle cell anemia
D. Moyamoya disease
E. Focal cerebral arteriopathy

108. What is the MOST common cause of childhood subarachnoid hemorrhagic

stroke?
A. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
B. Intracranial aneurysm
C. Arteriovenous malformations
D. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
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 E. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome

109. Which of the following CNS infections may have the highest CSF protein
level?
A. Tuberculous meningitis
B. Viral meningitis
C. Acute bacterial meningitis
D. Partially treated bacterial meningitis
E. Fungal meningitis

110. Which of the following viral diseases may cause low glucose in CSF?
A. Herpes simplex virus
B. Arboviruses
C. Mumps
D. Adenoviruses
E. Rabies

111. Which of the following bacterial meningitis increased in children with

cochlear implants?
A. Staphylococcal bacterial meningitis
B. Anaerobic bacterial meningitis
C. Gram-negative enteric bacterial meningitis
D. Pneumococcal bacterial meningitis
E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa bacterial meningitis

112. What is the MOST frequently identified pathogen of bacterial meningitis in

children beyond the neonatal period?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Neisseria meningitides
C. Haemophilus influenzae Type b
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

113. What are the predominant organisms that cause brain abscesses in
children?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Haemophilus spp.
C. Escherichia coli
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 D. Klebsiella pneumoniae,
E. Streptococcus anginosus

114. Which of the following tests can differentiate between bacterial and viral
meningitis?
A. C-reactive protein
B. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
C. Procalcitonin
D. Blood culture
E. WBC count

115. What is the recommended treatment duration for N. meningitidis

meningitis?
A. 7 days
B. 10 days
C. 14 days
D. 21 days
E. 28 days

116. Steroids reduced hearing loss in children with meningitis due to

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Neisseria meningitides
C. Haemophilus influenzae Type b
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

117. What is the MOST common neurologic sequelae from bacterial meningitis?
A. Hearing loss
B. Cognitive impairment
C. Recurrent seizures
D. Delay in acquisition of language
E. Visual impairment

118. What is the MOST common CNS manifestation of Varicella-zoster

infection?
A. Acute encephalitis
B. Cerebellar ataxia
C. Deafness
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 D. Flaccid paralysis
E. Aseptic meningitis

119. Deafness is a recognized complication of which of the following viral

infections?
A. Polio
B. Measles
C. Mumps
D. Rubella
E. Herpes simplex virus

120. Which of the following viral encephalitis may have normal CSF glucose,
protein, and cell counts?
A. Herpes simplex virus
B. Parecho viruses
C. Epstein-Barr virus
D. Cytomegalo virus
E. Mumps

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