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01. This questions booklet contains 200 Objective Type Questions (Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Physics [Question No. : 01-50]; 4 (FOUR) marks for each correct response,
1/4th MARKS (ONE MINUS) will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the
total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
02. Chemistry [Question No : 51-100]; 4(FOUR) marks for each correct response,
1/4 MARKS (ONE MINUS) will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total
score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
03. Biology [Question No : 101-200]; 4 (FOUR) marks for each correct response,
1/4 MARKS (ONE MINUS) will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total
score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
04. The question paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer Sheet is issued separately at the start of the examination.
05. Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the candidate.
06. Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Questions Booklet and Answer Sheet and make the correct
entries on the Answer Sheet. As Answer Sheet are designed to suit the OPTICAL MARK READER (OMR) SYSTEM, special
care should be taken to mark the entries correctly. Special care should be taken to fill QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION,
SERIAL No. and NEET-2023 Roll no. accurately. The candidate must sign on the Answer Sheet and Question Booklet.
07. Determine the one correct answer from out of the four available options given for each question.
08. Fill the appropriate circle completely like this for answering a particular question. Mark with Black ink ball point pen only.
09. Use of whitener or any other material to erase/hide the circle once filled is not permitted.
10. Avoid overwriting and/or striking of answers once marked.
11. Rough work should be done only one the blank space provided on the Question Booklet. Rough work should not be done on
the Answer Sheet.
12. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over Answer sheet is to be returned to the invigilator. Confirm that
both the candidate and invigilator have signed on question booklet and Answer Sheet.
13. No candidate is allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of examination.
(1) magnetization
q2
(2) electrification (3) 4 l 2 (4) zero.
0
(3) electrostatic induction 08. A charge Q is placed at the centre of the line joining
(4) electromagnetic induction two point charges +q and +q as shown in figure.
02. A cup contains 250 g of water. Find the total The ratio of charges Q and q for equilibrium is
positive charge present in the cup of water.
(1) 1.34 × 1019 C (2) 1.34 × 107 C
(3) 2.43 × 1019 C (4) 2.43 × 107 C (1) 4 (2) 1/4
03. Three liquids of equal masses are taken in three (3) – 4 (4) – 1/4
identical cubical vessels A, B and C. Their 09. Three vessels A, B and C of different shapes
densities are A B C . The force exerted by contain a water upto the same height as shown in
the liquid on the base of the cubical vessel is the figure. PA, PB and PC be the pressure exerted
(1) maximum in vessel C by the water at the bottom of the vessels A, B and
C respectively. Then
(2) minimum in vessel C
Date :-15/05/2022
(3) the same in all the vessels
(4) maximum in vessel A
04. The number of electrons that must be removed
from an electrically neutral silver dollar to give it (1) PA > PB > PC (2) PB > PC > PA
a charge of +2.4 C is
(3) PC > PB > PA (4) PA = PB = PC
(1) 2.5 × 1019 (2) 1.5 × 1019
10. Four point charges are placed at the corners of a
(3) 1.5 × 10–19 (4) 2.5 × 10–19 square ABCD of side 10 cm, as shown in figure.
05. Two charges q and –3q are fixed on x-axis The force on a charge of 1µC placed at the centre
separated by distance d. Where should a third of square is
charge 2q be placed from A such that it will not
experience any force? (1) 7 N
(2) 8 N
(3) 2 N
(4) zero
d 3d d 3d 11. The dimensional formula of electric field intensity
(1) (2)
2 2 is
d 3d d 3d (1) [M1L1T3A–1] (2) [ML–1T–3A1]
(3) (4)
2 2
(3) [M1L1T–3A–1] (4) [M1L2T1A1]
06. A cylindrical vessel containing a liquid is closed
12. A uniformly tapering vessel is filled with a liquid of
by a smooth piston of mass m. If A is the cross-
sectional area of the piston and P0 is the density 900 kg/m3. The force that acts on the base
atmospheric pressure, then the pressure of the of the vessel due to the liquid is (g = 10 ms–2)
liquid just below the piston is
(1) 3.6 N
mg
(1) P0 (2) P0 (2) 7.2 N
A
(3) 9.0 N
mg
(3) (4) Data is not sufficient. (4) 14.4 N
A
EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! 2 ONE COURSE ONE CLASS
XIIth New 2022-23
(3) (4)
Date :-15/05/2022
16. The pressure at depth h below the surface of a
liquid of density open to the atmosphere is
(1) greater than the atmospheric pressure by gh (1) (2)
(2) less than the atmospheric pressure by gh
(3) equal to the atmospheric pressure
(4) increases exponentially with depth.
(3) (4)
17. Which of the following figures represents the
electric field lines due to a single positive charge?
21. The SI unit of electric flux is
(1) N C–1 m2 (2) N C m–2
(1) (2) (3) N C–2 m2 (4) N C–1 m–2
22. Pressure applied to an enclosed fluid is transmitted
undiminished to every point of the fluid and the
walls of containing vessel. This law was first
(3) (4)
formulated by
(1) Reynolds (2) Bernoulli
18. Which of the following instrument is used for
measuring gauge pressure? (3) Pascal (4) Torricelli
(1) Thermometer 23. A uniform electric field E = 2×103N C–1 is acting
along the positive x-axis. The flux of this field
(2) Barometer
through a square of 10 cm on a side whose plane
(3) Manometer is parallel to the y-z plane is
(4) Hydrometer (1) 20 N C–1 m2
19. Which of the following figures correctly shows the (2) 30 N C–1 m2
top view sketch of the electric field lines for a
(3) 10 N C–1 m2
uniformly charged hollow cylinder as shown in
figure? (4) 40 N C–1 m2
EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! 3 ONE COURSE ONE CLASS
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24. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 300 with 30. A capillary tube is dipped in a liquid. Let pressure
an electric field of intensity 2 × 105 NC–1. It at points A, B and C be pA, pB, pC respectively,
experience a torque equal to 4 N m. The charge then
on the dipole if the dipole length is 2 cm is
(1) 8 mC (2) 4 mC
(3) 6 mC (4) 2 mC (1) pA = pB = pC
q q
(1) 8 (2) 4
0 0
q q
(3) 2 (4)
0 0
Date :-15/05/2022
27. A barometer is constructed using a liquid (density
Ze 1 r Ze 1 r
= 760 kg/m3). What would be the height of the (1) 4 r 2 R 3 (2) 4 r 3 R 2
0 0
liquid column, when a mercury barometer reads
76 cm? (Take, density of mercury = 13600 kg/m3)
Ze r 1 Ze r 1
(1) 1.36 m (2) 13.6 m (3) 4 R 3 r 2 (4) 4 R 3 r 2
0 0
(3) 136 m (4) 0.76 m
32. A wooden object floats in water kept in a beaker.
28. Two parallel infinite line chargs and are
The object is near a side of the beaker. Let P1, P2,
placed with a separation distance R in free space. P3 be the pressures at the three points A, B and C
The net electric field exactly mid-way between the of the bottom as shown in the figure.
two line charges is
2
(1) zero (2) R
0
(1) 2
0 (1) in figure (iv) is the largest
34. Figure shows electric field lines in which an electric 38. Two point charges q1 = – 4µC and q2 = 8µC are
lying on the y-axis. They are equidistant from the
dipole P is placed as shown. Which of the following
statements is correct? point P, Which lies on the x-axis. A small object of
charge q0 = 8 µC and mass m = 12 g is placed at
P.
Date :-15/05/2022
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(1) p0 > p (2) p > p0
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(3) p = p0 (4) p = 0
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
40.. A charge is distributed with a linear density over
SECTION - B (Attempt Any 10 Questions) a rod of the length L placed along radius vector
36. A uniformly tapering vessel of height h whose lower drawn from the point where a point charge q is
and upper radii are r and R is completely filled located. The distance between q and the nearest
with a liquid of density . The force that acts on point on linear charge is R. The electrical force
the base of the vessel due of the liquid is experienced by the linear charge due to q is
42. A beaker containing a liquid of density moves 47. A simple pendulum of length L is placed between
up with an acceleration a. The pressure due to the the plates of a parallel plate capacitor having electric
field E, as shown in figure. Its bob has mass m and
liquid at a depth h below the free surface of the charge q. The time period of the pendulum is given
liquid is by
(1) hg (2) h( g a)
g a
(3) h( g a) (4) 2hg g a
43. Three identical charges are placed at the vertices
of an equilateral triangle. The force experienced
by each charge. (if k =1/4 0 ) is
L L
2 2 2 2 2
q kq qE qE
(1) 2k (2) (1) g (2) g2
r2 2r 2 m m
q2 k q2
(3) 3k (4) 2 r 2 L L
r2 2 2
(3) qE (4) 2 q2 E 2
g g 2
44. Three charges +Q, q, +Q are placed respectively, m m
at distance , 0, d/2 and d from the origin, on the
x-axis. If the net force experienced by +Q, placed 48. In a certain region of space, electric field is along
Date :-15/05/2022
the z-direction throughout. The magnitude of
at x = 0, is zero, then value of q is
electric field is however not constant, but increases
(1) +Q/4 (2) –Q/2 uniformly along the positive z-direction at the rate
(3) +Q/2 (4) –Q/4 of 105 NC–1 m–1. The force experienced by the
system having a total dipole moment equal to the
45. Two point charges q1 ( 10C) and q2 ( 25 C) system having a total dipole moment equal to 10–7
are placed on the x-axis at x = 1 m and x = 4 m Cm in the negative z-direction is
respectively. The electric field (in V/m) at a point y (1) –10–2 N (2) 10–2 N
= 3 m on y-axis is
(3) 10–4 N (4) –10–4 N
1 49. A hollow metal sphere of radius R is uniformly
Take = 9 109 Nm 2 C 2
4 0 charged. The electric field due to the sphere at a
distance r from the centre
(1) (63iˆ 27 ˆj ) 102 (2) (81iˆ 81 ˆj ) 102 (1) decreases as r increases for r < R and for r >
R
(3) (63iˆ 27 ˆj ) 102 (4) ( 81iˆ 81 ˆj ) 102
(2) increases as r increases for r < R and for r > R
46. Determine the electric dipole moment of the system
(3) zero as r increases for r < R, decreases as r
of three charges, placed on the vertices of an
increases for r > R
equilateral triangle, as shown in the figure.
(4) Zero as r increases for r < R, increases as r
increases for r > R
50. A long solid non-conducting cylinder of radius R is
charged such that the volume charge density is
proportional to r where r is the distance from axis.
iˆ ˆj The electric field E at a distance r (r < R) will
(1) 2ql ˆj (2) ( ql ) depend on r as
2
(1) E r (2) E r 2
ˆj iˆ
(3) 3ql (4) 3ql ˆj
2 (3) E (1 / r ) (4) E (1/ r 2 )
EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! 6 ONE COURSE ONE CLASS
XIIth New 2022-23
57. (R) 2 CuLi R 'Br
R R ' R Cu LiBr.
CHEMISTRY This is called Corey - house method of synthe-
sis alkanes. This follows __________ mecha-
SECTION - A (35 Questions) nism.
51. Among the quantities, density () , temperature (T), (1) SN1 (2) SN2
enthalpy (H), heat capacity (Cp), volume (V) and (3) E2 (4) E1CB
pressure (P), a set of intensive variable are:
58. Which structure of C6H14 contains quaternary
(1) (, T, H) C-atom?
(2) (H, T, V) (1) 2, 3-Dimethylbutane]
(3) (V, T, Cp) (2) 2, 2-Dimethylbutane
(3) 3-Methylpentane
(4) (, T, P)
(4) 2-Methylpentane
52. If 1 mole of an ideal gas expands isothermally at
37oC from 15 litres to 25 litres, the maximum work 59. A gas can expand from 100 ml to 250 ml under a
obtained is constant pressure of 2 atm. The work done by
the gas is
(1) 1316.8 J (2) 6.43 J
(1) 30.38 Joule (2) 25 Joule
(3) 8.57 J (4) 2.92 J
(3) 5 k/Joule (4) 16 Joule
53. When the given compounds are monochlorinated
racemic mixture is formed from 60. The pressure of a gas is 100 kPa. If it is com-
pressed from 1 m3 to 10 dm3, find the work done
Date :-15/05/2022
(1) neo-pentane
(1) 990 J (2) 9990 J
(2) n-butane
(3) 9900 J (4) 99000 J
(3) 2, 3-dimethylbutane
61. The reagent used for the conversion of
(4) 2, 2, 3, 3-tetramethylbutane
CH3CH2COOH
CH3CH2CH3 is
54. Which of the following has maximum b.pt.? (1) LiAlH4
(2) Sodalime
(1) (2) (3) red P and concentrated HI
(4) Amalgamated zinc and concentrated HCl
62. Following are the isomers of molecular formula
(3) (4)
for C5H12.
65. Isobutyl magnesium bromide with dry ether and 70. Which of the following cycloalkanes has zero strain
absolute alcohol gives energy?
(1) (1) Cyclobutane (2) Cyclopentane
(3) Cyclohexane (4) Cyclopropane
71. Calculate the work done when 1 mole of an ideal
(2) gas is compressed reversibly from 1.0 bar to 4.00
bar at constant temperature of 300 K
Date :-15/05/2022
of one mole of an ideal gas from 10 atm to 1 atm.
(1) Fully eclipsed conformation
at 300 K is
(2) Partially eclipsed conformation
(1) –4938.8 J (2) –4138.8 J
(3) Gauche conformation
(3) –5744.1 J (4) –6257.2 J
(4) Staggered conformation
68. A thermodynamic system is taken from state A to
74. Decarboxylation of isobutyric acid leads to
B along ACB and is brought back to A along BDA
as shown in the P–V diagram. The net work done (1) Iso-butane (2) Propane
during the complete cycle is given by the area (3) Butane (4) None of these
75. A piston filled with 0.04 mol of an ideal gas ex-
pands reversibly from 50.0 mL to 375 mL at a
constant temperature of 37.0oC. As it does so, it
absorbs 200 J of heat. The value of q and w for
the process will be (R = 8.314 J/mol, In 7.5 =
2.01)
(1) q = – 208 J, w = + 208 J
(1) P1ACBP2P1 (2) ACBB1A1A (2) q = + 208 J, w = + 208 J
(3) ACBDA (4) ADBB1A1A (3) q = + 208 J, w = – 208 J
69. Which of the following cannot be considered as a (4) q = – 208 J, w = – 208 J
mechanistic step in chain reaction of methane with
Cl2? 76. Three moles of an ideal gas expand reversibly un-
Cl
(1) Cl 2 der isothermal condition from 2 L to 20 L at 300
K. The amount of heat change (in kJ) in the pro-
(2) CH 4 Cl
CH 3Cl H
cess is
(3) Cl CH 4
CH 3 HCl (1) 0 (2) 7.2
(4) Cl CH 3
CH3Cl (3) 10.2 (4) 17.2
EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! 8 ONE COURSE ONE CLASS
XIIth New 2022-23
Catalyst 83. During isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, its
77. CH3CH2CH2CH3 CH3–CH–CH3
CH3 (1) Internal energy increases
(2) Enthalpy decreases
The catalyst used in the above conversion reac-
tion is (3) Enthalpy remains unaffected
(1) ZnCl2/HCl (2) AlCl3/HCl (4) Enthalpy reduces to zero
(3) PdCl2/HCl (4) CuCl/HCl 84. If one mole of ammonia and one mole of hydrogen
chloride are mixed in a closed container to form
78. n-Hexane and n-heptane when passed through ammonium chloride vapour, then
Cr2O3 supported over alumina at 600oC give
(1) H U
(1) Hexene, heptene
(2) there is no relationship
(2) Hexyne, heptyne
(3) H U
(3) Benzene, toluene
(4) H U
(4) None of these
85. An alkane C7H16 is produced by the reaction of
79. In .......... process, work is done at the expense of lithium di-3-pentylcuprate with ethyl bromide. The
internal energy structural formula of product is
(1) Isothermal (2) Isochloric (1) 3-methylhexane (2) 2-ethylpentane
(3) 3-ethylpentane (4) n-heptane
(3) Adiabatic (4) Isobaric
SECTION - B (Attempt Any 10 Questions)
Date :-15/05/2022
80. The heat change at constant volume (qv) is equal
86. The chemicals and the reaction conditions required
to
for the preparation of ethane are
(1) U (2) H (1) C2H5I, Zn – Cu, C2H5OH
(3) RT (4) G (2) CH3Cl, Na, H2O
81. Bromination of an alkane as compared to chlori- (3) KOOC–CH=CH–COOK, electrolysis
nation proceeds (4) CH 3COONa, NaOH, CaO,
(1) At a slower rate 87. At constant T and P, which one of the following
(2) At a faster rate statements is correct for the reaction
S8 (s) + 8 O2(g)
8 SO2 (g)?
(3) With equal rate
(1) H U (2) H U
(4) With equal or different rate depending upon
temperature (3) H U
82. What is the chief product obtained when n-butane (4) H is independent of the physical state of the
reactants
is treated with bromine in the presence of light at
130oC? 88. Given the reaction at 1240 K and 1 atm.
CaCO3(s)
CaO (s) + CO2 (g)
(1) CH3 – CH2 –CH2 – CH2 – Br
H = 176 kJ/mol, the U equals
(2)
(1) 160.0 kJ (2) 165.6 kJ
(3) 186.4 kJ (4) 180.0 kJ
(3) 89. The highest boiling point is expected for
(1) iso-octane
(2) n-octane
(4) (3) 2, 2, 3, 3-tetramethylbutane
(4) n-butane
EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! 9 ONE COURSE ONE CLASS
XIIth New 2022-23
90. On treating a mixture of two alkyl halides with 96. The H for vaporisation of a liquid is 20 kJ/mol.
sodium metal in dry ether, 2-methylpropane was Assuming ideal behaviour, the change in internal
obtained. The alkyl halides are energy for the vaporisation of 1 mol of the liquid at
(1) 2-chloropropane and chloromethane 60oC and 1 bar is close to:
(2) 2-chloropropane and chloroethane (1) 13.2 kJ/mol (2) 17.2 kJ/mol
(3) Chloromethane and chloroethane (3) 19.5 kJ/mol (4) 20.0 kJ/mol
(4) Chloromethane and 1-chloroethane 97. Which of the given reaction conditions will give
maximum yields of C2H5Cl?
91. The ratio of the heat capacities Cp/Cv for one mole
of a gas is 1.67. The gas is
(1)
(1) He (2) H2
(3) CO2 (4) CH4 (2)
3
92. One mole of an ideal gas for which C v R is
2 (3)
heated reversibly at a constant pressure of 1 atm
from 25oC to 100oC. The H is (4)
(1) 3.775 cal (2) 37.256 cal
98. In Wurtz reaction, metallic sodium acts as a/an
(3) 372.56 cal (4) 3725.6 cal
(1) Oxidising agent
93. Few reactions of alkanes are given below. Identify
the name of the reaction which is not correctly (2) Reducing agent
Date :-15/05/2022
matched with the reaction. (3) Dehydrogenating agent
(4) Dehydrohalogenating agent
(1)
99. At 27oC, one mole of an ideal gas is compressed
isothermally and reversibly from a pressure of 2
(2) atm to 10 atm. The values of E and q are
(R = 2)
(3)
(1) 0, – 965.84 cal
(4)
(2) – 965.84 cal, + 965.84 cal
94. Chlorination of methane does not occur in dark
(3) + 865.58 cal, –865.58 cal
because
(4) – 865.58 cal, – 865.58 cal
(1) Methane can form free radicals in presence of
100. Match the Column I with Column II and select the
sunlight only
correct option.
(2) To get chlorine free radicals from Cl2 molecules
energy is requsired. It cannot happen in dark
(3) Substitution reaction can take place only in
sunlight and not in dark
(4) Termination step cannot take place in dark. It
requires sunlight
95. Cv values for monoatimic and diatomic gases re-
spectively are
(1) (A) (iii), (B) (i), (C) (iv), (D) (ii)
1 3 3 5
(1) R, R (2) R, R (2) (A) (ii), (B) (iv), (C) (i), (D) (iii)
2 2 2 2
5 7 3 3 (3) (A) (i), (B) (ii), (C) (iv), (D) (iii)
(3) R, R (4) R, R
2 2 2 2 (4) (A) (iv), (B) (i), (C) (iii), (D) (ii)
EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! 10 ONE COURSE ONE CLASS
XIIth New 2022-23
Date :-15/05/2022
at 96% (4) Left upper corner of right atrium.
(4) Helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelial 112. In which of the following capillary system is
tissues. absent
104. Blood flow in ductus arteriosus is from_____ (1) Frog (2) Rabbit
(1) Pulmonary vein to Aorta (3) Grass hopper (4) Earthworm.
(2) Pulmonary artery to aorta. 113. Haemoglobin transport oxygen to the extent of
(3) Aorta to pulmonary vein (1) 90 to 92% (2) 60 to 70%
(4) Aorta to pulmonary artery (3) 97% to 98% (4) 70 to 80%
105. Papillary muscles- 114. The breakdown product of haemoglobin is
(1) Open the AV valve (1) Biliverdin
(2) Close AV valve (2) Globulin
(3) Attached to chordae tendinae (3) Biliverdin and bilirubin
(4) Prevent eversion of semilunar valves (4) Calcium.
106. Number of Coronary artery arising from aorta 115. The portal system present in all the vertebrates
(1) 1 (2) 2 is
(3) 3 (4) 4 (1) Hepatic (2) Renal
107. Which one of the following is the incorrect (3) Pulmonary (4) Both 1 and 2
statement for respiration in humans? 116. Which of the following sentences incorrect?
(1) Cigarette smoking may lead to inflammation (1) ECG is of a great clinical significance.
of bronchi (2) Electrocardiograph is the recording of
(2) Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre in electrical changes during the cardiac cycle.
pons region of brain can decrease the duration (3) To obtain a standard ECG, a patient is
of inspiration. connected to the machine with 3 electrical
(3) Workers in the grinding and stone-breaking electrodes (one to each wrist and to the left
industries suffer from lung fibrosis ankle).
(4) About 90% of CO2 is carried by haemoglobin (4) Normal activities of the heart are regulated
as carbaminohaemoglobin. intrinsically.
EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! 11 ONE COURSE ONE CLASS
XIIth New 2022-23
117. Mr. Been was having chest pain due to MI. His 124. The instrument used to hear heart sound is
ECG might show (1) Haemometer (2) Sphygnomanometer
(1) No P waves (3) Stethoscope (4) Audioscope
(2) Elevated QRS 125. Cellular respiration is a
(3) Elevated ST segment (1) Anabolic process
(4) Elevated PR segment. (2) Catabolic process
(3) Synthetic process
118. Choose the correct option for X, Y, Z and P.
(4) None of these
Blood Group May Receive Blood May Donate Blood 126. Diaphragm is
O O Z
(1) Muscle of inspiration
(2) Muscle of expiration
A X A, AB
(3) No relation with respiration
B B, O B, AB
(4) Helps in Anaerobic respiration.
AB Y P
127. ECG depicts the depolarisation and
(1) X-A;Y-O, A, B, AB; Z-O,A,B, AB; P-AB repolarisation processes during the cardiac
cycle. In the ECG of a normal healthy individual
(2) X-A,O; Y-O,A, B, AB; Z-O,A,B, AB; P-
AB one of the following waves is not represented.
(3) X-O; Y-O,A, B, AB; Z-O,A,B, AB; P-A (1) Depolarisation of atria
(4) X-O; Y-O,A, B, AB; Z-O,A,B, AB; P-B (2) Repolarisation of atria
(3) Depolarisation of ventricles
Date :-15/05/2022
119. Two friends are eating together on a dining table,
one of them suddenly starts coughing while (4) Repolarisation of ventricles.
swallowing some food. This coughing would 128. Human breaths about ...../min
have been due to improper movement of
(1) 8-10 (2) 12-16
(1) Epiglottis (2) Diaphragm
(3) 18-22 (4) 20-25
(3) Milk (4) Tongue.
129. Which of the following is the cancerous state of
120. Which one of the following can bind several blood?
hundred times more strongly to the haemoglobin
(1) Chloremia (2) Uremia
than oxygen?
(1) CO (2) CO2 (3) Leukaemia (4) Proteinemia.
(3) SO2 (4) H2CO3 130. Erythrocytes do not contain
121. The factor which does not affect the rate of (1) Haemoglobin
alveolar diffusion is (2) Carbonic anhydrase
-
(1) Solubility of gases (3) Cl
(2) Thickness of membranes (4) None of above.
(3) Pressure gradient 131. Neutrophils are responsible for protection
(4) Reactivity of gases against infection. They constitute how much %
of total leucocyte count
122. QRS is related with
(1) 3 % (2) 0.5 % to 1
(1) Ventricular contraction
(3) 30 % (4) 62 %
(2) Auricular contraction
132. Which pair is wrongly matched
(3) Ventricular relaxation
(1) Leucocyte - Eosinophil
(4) Ventricular Depolarisation. (2) Sinoatrial node - Pacemaker
123. Main function of pericardial fluid is (3) Epicardium - Fibrous pericardium
(1) Lubrication (4) Mitral Valve - Bicuspid valve
(2) Protective 133. Hamburger shift is also known as
(3) Protective and lubrication (1) Bicarbonate shift (2) Chloride shift
(4) Antiseptic. (3) Potassium shift (4) All of these
EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! 12 ONE COURSE ONE CLASS
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134. The alveoli lungs are lined by 145. The volume of air which remains in the conducting
(1) Squamous epithelium airways and is not available for gas exchange is
called
(2) Simple Squamous epithelium
(1) Vital capacity
(3) Cuboidal epithelium
(2) Functional residual capacity
(4) Columnar epithelium.
(3) Forced expiratory volume
135. Inspiration can occur when in lungs have
(4) Anatomic dead space.
(1) Positive pressure as compared to
atmospheric pressure. 146. The respiratory centre, which regulates
respiration, is located in
(2) Negative pressure as compared to
atmospheric pressure (1) Cerebral peduncle (2) Vagus nerve
(3) No need of pressure diffrent (3) Cerebellum (4) Medulla oblongata
(4) Inspiration do not occur in lungs. 147. 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers about
(1) 5 ml CO2 (2) 4 ml O2
SECTION - B (Attempt Any 10 Questions) (3) 4 ml CO2 (4) 5 ml O2
136. Exchange of gases in lungs occur by 148. Human lungs are covered by
(1) Simple diffusion (2) Active transport (1) Pleura-which is single layered structure
(3) Passive transport (4) Osmosis (2) Double layered pleura
137. Tidal volume is (3) Pericardium
(1) 1500 (2) 500 (4) Perimetrium.
(3) 2400 (4) 3000 149. Larynx is a-
138. Expiratory muscles contract at the time of (1) Cartilagenous (2) Bony structure
Date :-15/05/2022
(1) Deep inspiration (3) Fatty structure (4) Epithelial.
(2) Normal inspiration and expiration 150. After forceful expiration, the amount of air
(3) Forceful expiration remaining in lungs is called as
(4) Normal expiration. (1) ERV (2) FRC
139. Major part of CO2 is transported to respiratory (3) RV (4) IC
surface as
(1) HCO3’ ions (2) H2CO3 PART-II
(3) Hb-CO2 (4) Free CO2
140. Carbonic anhydrase is found in (maximum)
SECTION - A (35 Questions)
(1) RBC (2) WBC 151. The life span of human R.B.C is approximately
(3) Blood plasma (4) Blood platelets (1) 48 hours (2) 120 days
141. Tunica media of valve less blood vessels is (3) 100 hours (4) 24 hours
formed of 152. Surfactant____
(1) Endothelium (1) Is a protein produced by type-II alveolar
(2) Connective tissue cells
(3) Unstriped muscle fibres (2) Is excessive in many premature infants
(4) Both 2 and 3 resulting the difficulties in breathing
142. Shape of diaphragm is (3) Decreases the surface tension of the fluid
(1) Dome shaped (2) Diamond shaped lining the alveoli
(3) Triangular in shape (4) Quadrangular in shape. (4) Is lacking in individuals suffering from acute
143. Slowing of Heart Rate is called respiratory stress syndrome.
(1) Tachycardia (2) Bradycardia 153. The carbon dioxide is transported via blood to
(3) Hypotension (4) Cardiac arrest lungs mainly
144. Which one of the following blood vessels has a (1) In the form of bicarbonate only
thick muscular coat? (2) As cabaminohaemoglobin and as bicarbonate
(1) Veins (2) Capillaries (3) In combination with haemoglobin only
(3) Lymphatics (4) Arteries (4) Dissolved in blood plasma only
EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! 13 ONE COURSE ONE CLASS
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Date :-15/05/2022
(2) Increase cardiac output (3) A person of AB blood group is universal
(3) Increase duration of Diastole recipient.
(4) Decrease duration between 2nd & 1st (4) Blood group is designated on the basis of
sound. the presence of antibodies in the blood plasma
157. Sympathetic stimulation of heart will cause 166. Collecting of WBCs at the site of injury occurs
(1) Increase in the duration between two R due to
waves in ECG (1) Phagocytosis (2) Hemolysis
(2) Decrease in the duration between two R (3) Diapedesis (4) All the above.
waves in ECG 167. The inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume
(3) Increase in hight of R wave + expiratory reserve volume is the same as
(4) Decrease in hight of R wave (1) Inspiratory capacity + expiratory capacity
158. When a normal frog is injected with adrenaline, (2) Total lung capacity - residual volume
the heart beat shows (3) Inspiratory capacity + functional residual
(1) Initiation of heart beat volume
(2) Conduction of heart beat (4) Inspiratory capacity + residual volume.
(3) Increased rate of heart beat 168. The respiratory volume /capacity can’t be
measured on simple spirometry
(4) Release of acetylcholine.
(1) Residual volume
159. Respiratory pigment in human is
(2) Functional Residual capacity
(1) Hemocyanin (2) Hemoglobin
(3) Total Lung volume
(3) Chlorocruorin (4) Hemoerythrin
(4) All of above
160. Expiratory capacity is
(1) IRV + T.V (2) ERV + T.V 169. Frog has________
(3) T.V (4) ERV + RV (1) Incomplete triple circulation
161. Pleural cavity is filled with (2) Incomplete double circulation
(1) Blood (2) Air (3) Incomplete single circulation
(3) Fluid (4) Vacuum (4) None of above.
EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! 14 ONE COURSE ONE CLASS
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Date :-15/05/2022
right atrium (3) The volume of blood received by each atrium
Brings deoxygenated blood is different
d Pulmonary Vein t from upper parts of body (4) The volume of blood received by the aorta
into right atrium. and pulmonary artery is different.
180. The second Heart sound immediately follows the
(1) a-q, b-t, c-r, d-p
occurrence of
(2) a-t, b-r, c-p, d-q
(1) P wave (2) T wave
(3) a-t, b-p, c-q, d-r (3) QRS wave (4) None of these
(4) a-t, b-p, c-r, d-q 181. Blood vessel which carries least amount of urea
173. The tendons connecting papillary muscles and (1) Hepatic vein (2) Hepatic artery
heart valves are called (3) Renal artery (4) Renal vein
(1) Muscle column (2) Heart tendon 182. An increase in blood volume will cause
(3) Chordae tendineae (4) Pedirate muscles. (1) Increase in ADH secretion
174. Opening of pulmonary vein to left auricle is (2) Increase in Renin secretion
guarded by (3) Increase in Na+ excretion
(1) Three similunar valves (4) All of above.
(2) Biscuspid valve 183. When you hold your breath, which of the
following gas changes in blood would first lead
(3) Tricuspid valve to urge of inspiration.
(4) No valve (1) Falling O2 concentration
175. Diffusion membrane is having (2) Rising CO2 concentration
(1) 4 layers (2) 3 layers (3) Falling CO2 concentration
(3) 2 layers (4) 5 layers (4) Rising CO2 and falling O2 concentration.
176. Which center is primary responsible for 184. Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a
respiratory regulation. normal expiration is
(1) Respiratory rhythm center (1) Vital capacity
(2) Pneumotaxic center (2) Functional residual capacity
(3) Vomiting center (3) Residual volume
(4) Olfactory center. (4) Inspiratory capacity.
EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! 15 ONE COURSE ONE CLASS
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185. Which of the following statements are true/false? 192. The blood leaving the lungs is richer than the
a. The blood transport CO2 comparatively blood entering the lungs in
easily because of its higher solubility (1) The number of RBC per ml. of blood
b. Approximately 89% of CO2 is transported (2) The amount of haemoglobin per ml. of blood
being dissolved in the plasma of blood.
(3) The amount of oxygen per ml. of blood
c. The CO2 produced by the tissues, diffuses
passively into the blood stream and passes into (4) The amount of nutrients per ml. of blood.
red blood corpuscles and react with water to 193. Pacemaker of heart is made up of
form H2CO3
d. The oxyhaemoglobin of the erythrocytes is (1) Smooth muscles (2) Cardiac muscles
basic (3) Nerve tissue (4) Nerve bundles.
e. The chloride ions diffuse from plasma into 194. In the given figure the durations of the events of
the erythrocytes to maintain ionic balance. the cardiac cycle are given. Identify these events
(1) a, c and e are true, b and d are false and select the correct option
(2) a, c and e are false, b and d are true
(3) a, b and d are true, c and e are false
(4) a, b and d are false, c and e are true
SECTION - B (Attempt Any 10 Questions)
186. In humans, which among these is not a step in (1) A-Auricular systole, B-Joint diastole, C-
respiration? Ventricular systole
(1) Pulmonary ventilation (2) A-Ventricular systole, B-Joint diastole, C-
Auricular systole
Date :-15/05/2022
(2) Alveolar diffusion of O2 and CO2
(3) Transport of gases by blood (3) A-Ventricular systole, B-Auricular systole,
C-Joint diastole
(4) Utilization of CO2 by cells for catabolic
reactions. (4) A-Joint diastole, B-Auricular systole, C-
187. The enzyme essential for transport of CO2 as Ventricular systole.
bicarbonate in blood is 195. Approximately seven per cent of carbon dioxide
(1) Carboxypeptidase absorbed by the blood will be transported to
the lungs
(2) Succinic dehydrogenase
(1) By binding to RBCs
(3) Carbonic anhydrase
(4) Thrombokinase. (2) As carbaminohemoglobin
188. Megakaryocytes give rise to (3) As bicarbonate ions
(1) Erythrocytes (2) Granulocytes (4) In the form of dissolved gas molecules.
(3) Agranulocytes (4) Thrombocytes. 196. Dead space air in man is
189. During diastole (1) 500 ml (2) 150 ml
(1) Blood leaves the heart (3) 250 ml (4) 1.5 l
(2) Blood leaves the ventricle 197. Emphysema is a
(3) Blood enters the heart (1) Cardiovascular disease (2) Pulmonary disease
(4) Blood enters lungs. (3) Neural disease (4) Renal disease.
190. The cells involved in inflammatory reactions are 198. Pulse beat is measured from
(1) Lymphocytes. (2) Neutrophils (1) arteries (2) veins
(3) Eosinophils (4) Basophils (3) capillaries (4) nerves
191. During the coagulation of blood, vitamin K helps 199. Heart of fish is
in the (1) Single chambered (2) Four chambered
(1) Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin (3) Two chambered (4) Three chambered
(2) Formation of prothrombin. 200. Blood pressure is measured by
(3) Formtion of thromboplastin (1) Sphygmomanometer (2) Phonocardiogram
(4) Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin (3) Electrocardiogram (4) Stethoscope.
EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! 16 ONE COURSE ONE CLASS
XIIth New 2022-23
Date :-15/05/2022
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Date :-15/05/2022
Date :-15/05/2022